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1.

Acute retention of urine in the 1st trimester is due to which of the following:
a. Retroverted gravid uterus
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Pregnancy associated with uterine fibroid
d. All of the above
2. A 4- month pregnant woman with a subserous fibroid can cause which of the following
complication?
a. Red degeneration
b. Retention of urine
c. Abnormal presentation of fetus
d. None of the above
3. A 30 year old woman with three previous abortions develops deep venous thrombosis in her
left leg. Which of the following is the probable cause?
a. Increased ant thrombin levels
b. Increased factor VIII
c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
d. Systematic lupus erthematosus
e. None of the above
4. A woman develops red and degeneration of fibroid at 16 weeks pregnancy. What is the
management:
a. Conservative with sedation
b. Immediate myomectomy
c. Myomectomy and termination of pregnancy
d. Caesarean delivery at term
5. A primigravida with 2 months amenorrhoea has an ovarian cyst 8 x 6 cm in the right fornix.
The treatment is:
a. Immediate leparotomy
b. Conservative management till delivery
c. Ovariotomy in the second trimester
d. Caesarean delivery and ovariotony
6. Which is the complication of missed abortion:
a. Coagulation failure
b. Uterine rupture
c. Formation of lithopedion
d. None of the above
7. A woman with 8 weeks amenorrhoea develops vaginal bleeding, ultrasound show at empty
uterus. The possible diagnosis is:
a. Delayed period
b. Metropathia haemorrhagia
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. Persistent corpus luteum
e. All of the above
Area Topic: Medical Diseases in Pregnancy : Anemia

8. Hydatidifrom mole is best diagnosed by:


a. Beta -HCG level
b. Ultrasound
c. Fetoscopy
d. Aminocentesis
9. How long does parenteral iron to show improvement:
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 4-8 weeks
d. 12 weeks
10. Maternal death in elcampsia is due to all except:
a. Pulmonary oedema
b. Cardiac failure
c. Cerebral haemorrhage
d. Coagulation failure and bleeding
11. Which of the following complications can occur in pregnancy – induced hypertension:
a. Abruption placenta
b. Eclampsia
c. Cerebral haemorrhage
d. Renal failure
e. All of the above
12. When does jaundice appear in the newborn due to Rh incompatibility:
a. 24 hours
b. 45 hours
c. 72 hours
d. Upto 7 days
Area Topic: Placenta Abnormalities
13. Which of the following drugs improve the prognosis in IUGR pregnancy:
a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Amino acid
d. All of the above
14. A primigravida at 37 weeks starts bleeding per vaginum. Ultrasound reveals a dead fetus with
type IV placenta. How will you manage this case?
a. Syntocinon drip
b. Casesaream delivery
c. External version and await spontaneous delivery
d. Allow spontaneous vaginal delivery
15. Carcinoma in –Situ of the cervix in pregnancy is managed by:
a. Vaginal delivery
b. Caesarean section
c. Termination of pregnancy
d. Induction of labour
16. Which is the most specific test to detect Down syndrome:
a. Triple test
b. Ultrasound
c. Chronic villus biopsy
d. Alpha – fetoprotein
Area Topic: Abnormal Presentations
17. Craniotomy is done in brow presentation by perforating:
a. Frontal bones
b. Orbit
c. Occipital bones
d. Palate
18. External cephalic version is contraindicated in all the following except:
a. Placenta praevia
b. Pregnancy – induced hypertension
c. Hydrocephaly
d. Postcasearean pregnancy
19. In a multigravida , vaginal breech delivery requires which of the following:
a. Pudendal block
b. Episiotomy
c. Forceps delivery
d. Syntocinon drip
e. All of the above
20. Multiple pregnancy is least common with :
a. Clomiphene
b. FSH/LH
c. GnRH
d. In vitro fertilization
21. Which of the wrong statements is wrong constriction ring:
a. Is left per abdomen
b. Cause retained placenta
c. Causes hour glass contraction of the uterus
d. Prolongs labour
Area topic: Maternal Injuries
22. Which of the following is least likely to cause uterine rupture?
a. Rudimentary horn
b. Septate uterus
c. Uriculoplasty
d. Previous manual removal of the placenta
23. Which statements is wrong acute inversion is treated is treated with:
a. Immediate resuscitation
b. Manual reposition
c. O’ Sullivan method
d. Immediate laparotomy and reversion
Area Topic: postpartum haemorrhage
24. Which is the most common cause of PPH:
a. Atonic uterus
b. Cervical tear
c. Adherent placenta
d. Coagulation failure
25. Which of the following drugs is not effective in controlling PPH:
a. Methergine
b. Synotocinon
c. Misorprostol
d. Drotaverine
26. A primigarvida stars bleeding profusely in the 6th week postpartum. The uterus is 14 weeks
size which of the following is the probable cause:
a. Retained piece of placenta
b. Retained clot
c. Infection
d. Choriocarcinoma
Area topic: Puerperium
27. Which of the following emergencies does not occur in early puerperium:
a. Cerebral thrombosis
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Twisting an ovarian cyst
d. Eclampsia
e. Red degeneration in a fibroid
28. Puerperal fever is caused by:
a. Urinary tract infection
b. Chest infection
c. Genital tract infection
d. All of the above
29. Which drug is contraindicated during lactation:
a. Lithium
b. Earythromycin
c. Warfarin
d. Metformin
30. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:
a. Use of tampons in the vagina
b. Pelvic cellulities
c. Postpartum haemorrhage
d. None of the above
Area topic: operative obstetrics
31. Bishop score comprises all of the following except:
a. Gestational age
b. Cervical effacement
c. Cervical dilation
d. Consistency of the cervix
e. Station of the head
32. Prostaglandin in used in all of the following except:
a. Missed abortion
b. Induction of labour
c. Postpartum haemorrhage
d. Augment the first stage of labour
33. A primigravida develops premature rupture of membranes at 32 weeks. The treatment is:
a. Conservaitive with antibodies and dexamethasone
b. Caesarean section
c. Syntocinon drip
d. None of the above
34. Repeat caesarean section is indicated in which of the following :
a. Breech presentation
b. If previous caesarean section was done for failed trail of labour in borderline CPD
c. Placenta praevia
d. All of the above
Area topic: Fetus and newborn
35. Fetal distress during late pregnancy occurs in which of the following :
a. Oligohydramnois
b. Multiple pregnancy
c. Hydramnios
d. Breech presentation
36. Aminoinfusion has which of the following effects:
a. Dilutes meconium in amniotic fluid
b. Prevents cord compression
c. Prevents amniotic bands and limb deformities
d. All of the above
37. Which of the following viruses does not cause fetal malformation:
a. Rubella
b. Toxoplasmosis
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. HIV
38. Which is not true of CVB:
a. Abortion
b. Infection
c. Fetomaternal haemorrhage
d. Fetal malformation
39. Which of the following drugs cause neonatal jaundice:
a. Vitamin K
b. Syntocinon
c. Aspirin
d. Methyl dopa
e. All of the above
40. Which of the following drugs does not cross the placenta:
a. Warfarin
b. Insulin
c. Metoformin
d. Tetracycline
Area Topic: Medical dis & Preg
41. Which of the following is not the feature of fulminating PIH:
a. Blurring of vision and diplopia
b. Headache
c. Oliguria
d. BP 180/110 mm Hg
42. What is the dose of prophylactic Anti- D globulin after the delivery:
a. 100 µg IM
b. 200 µg IM
c. 350 µg IM
d. 400 µg IM
Topic postpartum ha
43. Coagulation failure is seen in all of the following except:
a. Abruption
b. Retained dead fetus
c. Missed abortion
d. Placenta praevia
44. Traumatic delivery can cause which of the following:
a. Bladder fistula
b. Incontinence of faeces
c. Stress incontinence
d. Incompetent os
e. All of the above
45. Which of the following complication do not occur during pregnancy in a macrosomic fetus:
a. Cephalopelvic disproportion
b. Abnormal presentation
c. Hydramnios
d. Oligohydramnios