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Useful Data Chemistry:
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck‘s Constant h = 6.626 10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56, Mn=55,
Pb=207,
Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6
Useful Data Physics:
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Section – I (Physics)
1. Three vectors P, Q and R are such that Q = A 2 and the angles between P and Q , Q and R , R and
P are 900, 1500 and 1200 respectively. Find the value of P .
A A 2 2A A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 2
2. The velocity and acceleration of a particle at time t = 0 are u a 2iˆ a 2 ˆj m / s and a0 aiˆ ajˆ
respectively. Find the angle made by the velocity of the particle at t = 2sec with initial velocity.
3. When a man walks at the rate of 3 km/hr, rain appears to fall vertically. The speed of rain is 3 2 km/hr. At what
speed man should walk so that the rain appears to fall at an angle of 45 0 with vertical.
(A) 3 km/hr (B) 4 km/hr (C) 3 2 km/hr (D) 6 km/hr
The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is y ax bx , where a and b are positive constants and x and
2
4.
y are respectively the horizontal and vertical distances of the projectile from the point of projection. The
maximum height attained by the projectile is
2a 2 a2 a2 a2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
b b 2b 4b
5. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate to
come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the distance travelled by the car is given by
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 2
2 2
t t
2
(A) (B) (C) t (D) t
2 2 2
6. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A block
starting from rest from the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction
between the block and the lower half of the plane is given by
2 1
(A) 2 tan (B) tan (C) (D)
tan tan
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7. A ball of mass m is moving towards a batsman at a speed v. The batsman strikes the ball and deflects it by an
angle without changing its speed. The impulse imparted to the ball is given by
(A) mv cos (B) mv sin (C) 2mv cos (D) 2mv sin
2 2
8. An insect starts crawling up a hemispherical bowl of radius R from its lowest point. If the coefficient of friction is
1 3
, the insect will be able to go up to height h equal to (take 0.95 )
3 10
R R R R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 10 20 30
9. A simple pendulum of length 1 m and bob of mass 100 gm is swinging with an angular amplitude of 60 0. What is
the tension in the string when the bob passes through the equilibrium position? Take g = 10 ms -2.
(A) 1 N (B) 2 N (C) 3 N (D) 4 N
10. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the motion of a projectile?
(A) The time of flight of a projectile is proportional to the speed with which it is projected
(B) The horizontal range of a projectile is maximum when angle of projection is 45 0 for a given speed
(C) The average acceleration for any time interval is varying.
(D) At maximum height the acceleration due to gravity is perpendicular to the velocity of the projectile.
12. A person standing in a stationary lift drops a coin from a certain height h. It takes time ‗t‘ to reach the floor of the
lift. If the lift is rising up with a uniform acceleration a, the time taken by the coin, dropped from the same height
h, to reach the floor will be
a t t
(A) t (B) t (C) (D)
g a a
1 1
g g
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13. A block is placed on the top of an inclined plane of inclination kept on the floor of a lift which is moving down
with an acceleration a a g . The coefficient of friction between the block and the incline so that the block
just remains stationary with respect to incline plane.
a a a
(A) tan (B) tan (C) 1 tan (D) 1
tan
g g g
k
14. Force F acting on a body moving in a straight line varies with the velocity v of the body as F where k is a
v
constant. The work done by the force in time t is proportional to
(A) t (B) t 3/2 (C) t 1/2 (D) t 3/2
15. A bob of mass m is suspended with a string from a fixed point, when it is projected with a velocity which is just
required to loop the circle completely. At what angle with the horizontal, tension in the string will be equal to 2
mg.
1 2 1 1
(A) sin 1 (B) sin 1 (C) cos 1 (D) tan 1
3 3 3 3
16. With what force must a man pull on the rope to hold the plank in the
position as shown in the figure. If the man weighs 60 kg and plank
weighs 40 kg. The rope and pulley are massless
(A) 100 N (B) 150 N
(C) 125 N (D) 250 N
17. The work done by the force F x 2iˆ y 2 ˆj around the path y
shown in the figure is
C B (a, a)
2 3 (0, a)
(A) a (B) zero
3
4 3
(C) a3 (D) a
3 x
O A
(0, 0) (a, 0)
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18. A particle is moving with velocity
v k yiˆ xjˆ where k is a constant. The trajectory equation of the particle
is
(A) y x 2 constant (B) y 2 x constant
(C) xy constant (D) y x constant
2 2
21. A particle of mass m is located in a one dimensional potential field where potential energy of the particle has the
a b
form U x where a and b are positive constants. The position of equilibrium is
x2 x
b 2b a 2a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2a a b b
22. In the shown figure mass of A is m and that of B is 2m. All the
k
surface are smooth. System is released from rest with spring
unstretched. Then, the maximum extension (xm) in the spring will
be
A
mg 2mg
(A) (B)
k k
3mg 4mg
(C) (D)
k k B
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23. In the figure shown all the surfaces are frictionless, and mass of the
block, m = 1kg. The block and wedge are held initially at rest. Now m
10 m/s2
wedge is given a horizontal acceleration of 10 m/s2 by applying a
force on the wedge, so that the block does not slip on the wedge. M
Then work done by the normal force in ground frame on the block in
3s is
(A) 30 J (B) 60 J
(C) 150 J (D) 100 3 J
24. Three stones A, B and C are simultaneously projected from same point with same speed. A is thrown upwards, B
is thrown horizontally and C is thrown downwards from a building. When the distance between stone A and C
becomes 10 m, then distance between A and B will be
(A) 10 m (B) 5 m (C) 5 2 (D) 10 2m
25. The coefficient of friction between 4 kg and 5 kg blocks is 0.2 and
4 kg
between 5 kg block and ground is 0.1 respectively. Choose the correct
statements. 5 Kg F
(A) minimum force needed to cause system to move on ground is 17 N
(B) When force F = 4N, static friction at all surfaces I 4 N to keep
system at rest.
(C) Maximum acceleration of 4 kg block is 2 m/s2
(D) Slipping between 4 kg and 5 kg block starts when F is 17 N.
26. A spring of natural length l is compressed vertically downward against the floor so that its compressed length
l
becomes . On releasing, the spring attains its natural length. If k is the stiffness constant of spring then work
2
done by the spring on the floor is
2 1 2 1 2
(A) zero (B) kl (C) kl (D) kl
2 8 4
27. A particle is given an initial speed u inside a smooth spherical
shell of radius R so that it is just able to complete the circle.
Acceleration of the particle, when its velocity is vertical, is
(A) 3g (B) 2g
(C) g (D) 10g u
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28. A block is sliding along a smooth incline as shown in figure. If the acceleration
of chamber is ‗a‘ as shown. The time required to cover a distance L along
incline is
2L 2L m
(A) (B) a
g sin a cos g sin a sin
2L 2L
(C)
g sin a cos
(D)
g sin
29. Average velocity of a particle in projectile motion between its starting point and the highest point of its trajectory
is (u = projection speed, = angle of projection from horizontal).
u u u
(A) u cos (B) 1 3cos 2 (C) 2 cos 2 (D) 1 cos 2
2 2 2
x2 t2
30. A particle moves along the curve y . Here x varies with time as x . Where x and y are measured in
2 2
metre and t in second. At t 2sec. the velocity of the particle (in ms-1) is
(A) 2iˆ 4 ˆj (B) 2iˆ 4 ˆj (C) 4iˆ 2 ˆj (D) 4iˆ 2 ˆj
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Section – II (Chemistry)
1. The dehydration yield of cyclohexanol C6 H11OH (m.wt = 100) to cyclohexene C6 H10 (m.wt = 82) is 75%.
What would be the yield if 100 gm of cyclohexanol is dehydrated?
(A) 61.5 gm (B) 16.5 gm (C) 6.15 gm (D) 615 gm
2. Four particles have speed 2, 3, 4 and 5 cm/sec respectively. Their RMS speed is
(A) 3.5 cm/sec (B) (27/2) cm/sec (C) ( 45 / 2 ) cm/sec (D) ( 54 / 2 ) cm/sec
6. Velocity of photoelectron is
1
2
2hc 0 2 2hc 0 2hc m
2
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10. Choose the correct formula
8a 2a
(A) Critical pressure = (B) Inversion temperature =
27b Rb
a
(C) Critical temperature = (D) All the above
27b 2
11. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na will be
(A) - 10.2 eV (B) - 2. 55 eV (C) - 5. 1 eV (D) + 2.55 eV
16. Bond length of x – y bond is 100 pm and its observed dipole moment is 2 D. It is % covalent character is
approximately
(A) 41.67 % (B) 58.33 % (C) 47.1 % (D) 61.3 %
18. Momentum of particle ‗A‘ is thrice to the momentum of particle ‗B‘. The ratio of wavelength associated with B to
A is
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 3 : 2
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o
19. Distance of electron of hydrogen atom from nucleus is x A . The distance of shell in which 3rd electron of Li
atom is present is
3x o 9x o 4x o 2x o
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) A
4 2 3 9
20. Oleum sample is identified as 102.25 %. The % free SO3 present in this sample is
(A) 20 % (B) 10% (C) 40 % (D) 80 %
28. Two vessels having equal volumes contains H2 and He at 1 and 2 atm respectively at the same temperature. Select
the correct statement.
(A) U rms H U rms He (B) U rms H 2U rms He
2 2
29. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number, n = 3 and spin quantum number,
1
s is
2
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 18
30. The equivalent weight of an element is 4. It‘s chloride has a vapour density 59.25. The valency of element is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
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Section – III (Mathematics)
2
cos 2 x
1. I dx is equals to
0
cos x sin x
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) None of these
2. lim
x
x 2 x 2 x is equals to
1
(A) 1 (B) -1 (C) -2 (D)
2
3. The number of solution of equation log16 x log 4 x 2 is equals to
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
3 5 9 11 13
4. The value of sin sin sin sin sin sin is equal to
14 14 14 14 14 14
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32 64 16 128
5. Total number of lines of the form ax by 1 a, b 0 which intersect the circle x 2 y 2 50 at two
integral points is/are equals to
(A) 66 (B) 60 (C) 56 (D) 78
7. Let points A, B, C form a acute angled triangle and P is a point inside the ABC such that
PA PB PC
2 2 2
is maximum then for ABC , P is …………
(A) ortho centre (B) circum centre (C) centroid (D) Incentre
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x 1 x 2
3
x 1 0 is
x 3
10. The complete set of values of x satisfying the inequality
11. Tangents PT1 and PT2 are drawn from a point P lying on the line ax by c 0 to the circle
x y r 2 , then the locus of circumcentre of PTT
2 2
1 2 is
c c
(A) bx ay 0 (B) bx ay 0
2 2
(C) 2ax 2by c 0 (D) 2ax 2by c 0
13. Let the coordinate axes is shifted as well as rotated in such a way that new x-axes is along the line
3x 4 y 10 0 and new y –axes is along the line 4 x 3 y 20 0 . If the old coordinates of point P is (5,
5), then new coordinate of P can be
(A) (11, 1) (B) (1, 11) (C) (11, -1) (-1, 11)
14. The number of points equidistant from the lines x y 0, x y 0 and y 2 0 is/are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
15. Total number of lines touching two circles of the family of circles defined as x2 y 2 4 x 4 y 0 is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
16. The acute angle between the medians drawn from the acute angle of a right angles isosceles triangle is
1 2 1 3 1 4 1 5
(A) cos (B) cos (C) cos (D) cos
3 4 5 6
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17. If A = sin 2 cos4 , then
3 13 3 13
(A) 1 A 2 (B) A 1 (C) A 1 (D) A
4 16 4 16
18. Given the family of lines a 3x 4 y 6 b x y 2 0 . The line of the family, situated at the greatest
P 2,3 has equation
distance from the point
(A) 4 x 3 y 8 0 (B) 5x 3 y 10 0 (C) 15x 8 y 30 0 (D) None
19. The contrapositive of ―if two triangles are identical, then these are similar‖ is
(A) if two triangle are not similar, then these are not identical
(B) if two triangles are not identical then these are not similar
(C) if two triangles are not identical then these are similar
(D) none of these
dy
20. Let y x x x..... then at x = 2 is equal to
dx
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) (D)
2 3
21. Let in ABC coordinates of A is (0, 0). Internal angle bisector of ABC is x y 1 0 and mid point of
BC is (1, 3). Then ordinate of ‗C‘ is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
23.
If log 2 1 tan1
0
log 1 tan 2 ......... log 1 tan 45 is a two digit number, whose sum of
2
0
2
0
digits equals to
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
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25. x2 y 2 ax c 0 is completely inside the circle x2 y 2 bx c 0 , then
If circle
(A) c 0 (B) c 0 (C) ab 0 (D) None of these
27. The portion of the line ax by 1 intercepted between the lines ax y 1 0 and x by 0 subtends a
right angle at origin then
(A) 2a 2b b 0 (B) 2a b b 0 (C) a 2a b 0 (D) a b ab 0
2 2 2 2
28. Let line 2 x y 7 0 cuts the circle x2 y 2 16 0 at points A and B. If P is (6, 5) then PA PB is
equals to
(A) 45 (B) 54 (C) 16 (D) None of these
29. The number of values of ‗a‘ for which lines x y 1 0, ax 2 y 1 0 and 4 x 2ay 7 0 are
concurrent is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these
30. Lines L1 and L2 are rotating in anticlockwise direction about points (-2, 0) and (2, 0) respectively in such a way
that angle of rotation of line L2 is double that of L1. If initially equation of lines are y = 0 and angle of rotation of
line L2 varies between 0 to , then locus of point of intersection of L1 and L2 is part of circle with radius equals
2
to
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
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FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
JEE - MAINS 2015
PHASE – I
SET - A
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. D
5. A 6. A 7. C 8. C
9. B 10. C 11. A 12. C
13. A 14. A 15. A 16. D
17. B 18. D 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. C
25. C 26. A 27. D 28. C
29. B 30. B
CHEMISTRY
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D
5. A 6. A 7. A 8. A
9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A
13. D 14. A 15. D 16. B
17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. A 24. D
25. C 26. A 27. D 28. D
29. C 30. B
MATHEMATICS
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. D 7. C 8. A
9. A 10. D 11. C 12. B
13. C 14. D 15. D 16. C
17. B 18. A 19. A 20. D
21. D 22. C 23. B 24. D
25. B 26. D 27. B 28. A
29. B 30. B
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
1. B
Sol.
P
tan 300 1200
Q
R
A 2 P
P 1500
3 300
900 Q
2. B
Sol.
u and at are perpendicular vectors
Also v u at
u
At t 2sec , u 2a, at a 2 2 2 2a v
2 2 1/2
v u at a 12
at at
tan
u
tan 1 2
3. D
Sol. Let VR aiˆ bjˆ
Case I VM 3iˆ
VRM VR VM a 3 iˆ bjˆ
Now a 3 0 as VRM is vertical
2
Also VR a b
2 2
3 2
2
32 b2
b=3
Case IIVM kiˆ
VRM a k iˆ 3 ˆj 3 k iˆ 3 ˆj
For angle to be 450, VRM 3iˆ 3 ˆj
k 6
4. D
Sol. When x = R, y = 0
0 = aR – bR2
a
R
b
R
When x , y H max
2
y ax bx 2
2
a a a2
H max a b
2b 2b 4b
5. A
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Sol. Vmax t1 t2 V
t2 t
1 Vmax
t1 t2 t
t1 t
Distance = Area under Vt graph 0 t1 t1 + t 2
1
= t1 t
2
1
D t2
2
6. A
Sol. For the block to come to rest at the bottom of the inclined plane, the acceleration in the first half must be equal to
the retardation in the second half
g sin g cos sin
2 tan
7. C
Sol. P1 P2 mv
P P2 P1 P2
P P 22 P12 2P2 P1 cos 180
1/2
P 1800
1/2
P P P 2P cos
2 2 2
P1
2 P cos
2
2mv cos
2
8. C
Sol. f mg sin N
mg cos mg sin f
1 h
tan
3 mg cos mg sin
mg
3
h R R cos R 1 R 1 0.95
10
R 0.05
R
20
9. B
Sol. Speed at equilibrium position
v 2 2 gR 1 cos gR
600 m
2
mv
T mg 2mg 2 N
R
v
10. C
Sol. aavg g always
11. A
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Sol. S t3 5
ds
v 3t 2
dt
dv
at 6t , At t = 2sec, v = 12 ms-1
dt
v 2 122 144
2
at 12ms an 7.2ms 2
R 20 20
a at2 an 2
a 14ms 2
12. C
1 2
Sol. h gt when lift is stationary
2
When lift is accelerating upwards.
1
h g a t '
2
2
gt 2 g a t '
2
g t
t1 t
ga a
1
g
13. A
B
1 2 1 2
mvP mvB mgr 1 sin
2 2
Also vB 5 gr to loop circle.
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vP2 5gr 2 gr 1 sin
vP2 3gr 2 gr sin …….(2)
From (1) and (2)
2 gr gr sin 3gr 2 gr sin
1
sin
3
1
sin 1
3
16. D
Sol. For the (Man + Plank) system to be at rest T
4T 100 g
T 250 N 2T T
(60 g + 40 g)
17. B
Sol. W F .dr
W Fx dx Fy dy
A B C 0
W Fx dx Fy dy Fx dx Fy d y Fx dx Fy dy Fx dx Fy dy
0 A B C
W 0
18. D
Sol.
v k yiˆ xjˆ Hence
vx ky, vy kx
dx dy
ky kx
dt dt
dy dy / dt kx x
dx dx / dt ky y
ydy xdx
Integrating
y 2 x2
c
2 2
y x 2 constant
2
19. C
Sol. Acceleration along the plane is a g sin
g a cos
Horizontal component of a is a cos g sin cos sin 2
2 a g sin
sin 2 600
g g 3 3g
For Block A, horizontal acceleration is
2 2 2 4
sin 2 300
g g 3 3g
For Block B, horizontal acceleration is
2 2 2 4
Relation horizontal acceleration of A wrt B = 0
20. A
Sol. W – E theorem
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k wg ws
1
0 mgx sin kx 2
2
2mg sin
x
k
21. D
dU
Sol. F
dx
2a b
F 3 2
x x
For equilibrium F= 0
2a b
x3 x 2
2a
x
b
22. D
Sol. From conservation of energy
1
2mgx kx 2 0
2
4mg
x
k
23. C
Sol. Work done by the normal force on the block relative to ground N
frame = K
90
1 2 m
mv a
2
1
300 M
2
1 10 3 150 J mg
2 2
24. C
Sol. Initial velocity of C wrt A
uCA uC u A
ujˆ ujˆ 2u ˆj
aCA aC aA g g 0
SCA uCAt
SCA uCAt
10 2ut
5
t
u
Initial velocity of B wrt A
uBA uB u A uiˆ ujˆ
aBA aB aA g g 0
sBA uBAt 5iˆ 5 ˆj
sBA 5 2m
25. C
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Sol. f s /max between 4 kg and 5 kg = f1 8 N f 0
4 kg
f s /max between 5 kg and ground =
f 4N 5 Kg 4N
f2 9N
Minimum force needed to move the system
is 9 N a
2 m / s2
When F = 4N friction between the blocks is 4 kg
zero f 8N
When f s /max acts on 4 kg it will have
maximum acceleration f1 8 N
f 8 5 Kg F a
2 m / s2
amax 1 2m / s 2 f2 9 N
m 4
When slipping between 4 kg and 5 kg starts
max. friction acts between them and their
accelerations are just same.
F 8 9 5 2
F 27 N
26. A
Sol. Point of application of force is at rest.
27. D
Sol.
At lowest point A, u 5gR v
When the velocity is vertical, at point B
an
v 3gR O B
2
v
an 3g , at g u at
R
a an 2 at2 g 10 A
28. C
Sol. acceleration of block wrt chamber from the chamber frame
aBC (a cos g sin ) ma sin
aBC N
1
sBC aBC t 2
2 ma
t
2L ma cos mg sin
g sin a cos mg cos
29. B
Sol. 2 A
R
s H 2
2
s H
u 2 sin 2 R u 2 sin cos u sin
H , , Time of ascent,T
2g 2 g g O
s u R
vav 1 3cos 2 2
T 2
30. B
t2 x2 t 4
Sol. x y
2 2 8
dx t3
vx t vy
dt 2
t 3
v tiˆ ˆj
2
at t = 2 sec
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v 2iˆ 4 ˆj (m/s)
Chemistry
1. A
H 2O
Sol. C6 H11OH C6 H10
m.wt. = 100 m.wt. = 82
100 gm cyclohexanol = 82 gm C6H10
82 100
100gm cyclohexanol = gm C6 H10
100
82 75
Also % yield is 75% wt. of C6 H10 61.5
100
2. D
22 32 42 52 54 54
Sol. RMS cm/sec
4 4 2
3. B
1
Sol. Presence of O2 ion which has one unpaired electron.
4. D
h
Sol. orbital angular momentum = l l 1
2
for 11th electron, l 0
5. A
rHe 40
Sol. 10 3.16
rAr 4
6. A
1 1
Sol. KE hc
0
1 2 1 1
mv hc
2 0
1
2hc 1 1 2hc 1 1 2
v2 or v
m 0 m 0
7. A
Sol. n.f. of boric acid = 1
8. A
Sol. 120 gm MgSO4 100 gm CaCO3
6 10 gm MgSO4 5 103 gm CaCO3
3
5 103
ppm of CaCO3 106
1000
5 ppm
9. D
Sol. 6Fe Cr2O7 14H
6Fe3 2Cr 3 7 H 2O
1 6 nFe2
10. B
8a a 2a
Sol. TC , PC 2
, Ti
27 Rb 27b Rb
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11. C
Sol. Electron gain enthalpy of ion = - I.E. of atom = - 5.1 eV
12. A
In IF7 , 72 5 ; 90 10 ; 180 1
0 0 0
Sol.
13. D
Sol. O 8, N 3 N , N 0
2
2
2 2
14. A
15. D
Sol. Diagonal relationship
16. B
Sol. 100% 4.8 1010 100 1010
480 1020
4.8 1018 esu cm
4.8 1018
100% 4.8 D
1018
2
% ionic = 100 41.67
4.8
% Covalent = 100 41.67 58.33%
17. D
Sol. Glycol has more number of hydrogen bonding as compare to propyl alcohol hence Boiling point of glycol is much
higher than that of propyl alcohol.
18. A
h
Sol.
P
A PB x 1
B PA 3x 3
B
3 :1
A
19. C
n2 o
Sol. r 0.529 A
Z
distance of 1st electron = 0.529 1 x
2
0.529 4 x 4 o
distance of 3rd electron = A
3 3
20. B
Sol. 18 gm H2O reacts with 80 gm SO3
80
2.25 gm water reacts with = 2.25 gm SO3
18
80 2.25
% SO3 100 10%
18 100
21. C
Sol.
O O
O
Cr
O O
O
O O
22. A
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Sol. H is reduced at cathode and OH is oxidized at anode.
23. A
Sol. Basic nature increases down the group
24. D
Sol. Abnormal behavior of Be
25. C
Sol. Hydride gap = No hydride formation
26. A
Sol. Pb 4, 2 (common)
27. D
Sol. Due to very high I.E.
28. D
3RT
Sol. U
M
29. C
Sol. Number of orbitals = n2 = 9
1
Number of electrons with s 9
2
30. B
Sol. MCln 2 V .D. 2 59.25 118.5
Mole. wt. of
Now a 35.5n 118.5
E n 35.5n 118.5 4n 35.5n 118.5
n3
MATHEMATICS
1. C
/2
Sol. sin sin sin sin sin sin = sin sin 2 sin 2 cos cos cos
14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 7 7 7
2
3 8
2
sin 2 7 1 sin
7 1
2 sin
3 sin
8 64
7 7
5. B
Sol. Total integral points on x 2 y 2 50 equals to 12
Total lines passing through these points are 11 10 .... 2 1 66 in which 6 lines are diameter
Answer is 60
6. D
Sol. Let 3x 4 y k is tangent to x 2 y 2 4 then k equals to 10 Maximum value of 3 4 is 10
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7. C
Sol. Let A be x1 , y1 , B be x2 , y2 C be x3 , y3 and P be x, y then PA2 PB 2 PC 2 is
x x1 y y1 x x2 y y2 x x3 y y3
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 x1 x2 x3 y y y3 x 2 y 2
3 x2
x y2 2 1 2
y 1 1
3 3 3 3
x 2 y 2 2
3 x x y y 1 x 1 y
2 2 2
3 3
The value is maximum when x x & y y
8. A
Sol.
pq
p q ~p
p q ~ p
T T T F T
T F T F T
F T T T T
F F F T T
9. A
Sol.
x 1 x 2
3
+
Not defined + 0
Not defined
0 +
x 2 x 5
4
-5 -1 0 2 x
x 1, 2 0
10. D
Sol. x 1,3 x 3, 1 1,3
11. C
Sol. Because P , , T1 , O 0,0 & T2 are T1
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c3 be circle where equation is x2 y 2 4 x 4 y 0
c4 be circle where equation is x2 y 2 4 x 4 y 0
Now new common tangent between c1 & c2 is 2, c1 & c3 is 2, c1 & c4 is 3, c2 & c3 is 3, c2 & c4 is 2 ,
c3 & c4 is 2.
16. C
1
Sol. Let vertices of triangle are (0, 0), (a, 0) and (0, a), then slope of medians through (a, 0) and (0, a) are and -2
2
1
2 2 3 4
respectively tan cos
11 4 5
17. B
2
1 3
A sin 2 1 sin 2 sin 2
2
Sol.
2 4
3
A 1
4
18. A
Sol. Family of lines concurrent at (-2, 0)
Now the required line is the line passing through (-2, 0) and perpendicular to line segment joining (2, 3) and (-2,
0)
y 0 22
Line is 4x 3 y 8 0
x2 30
19. A
Sol. Contrapositive of p q is ~ q ~ p
20. D
dx
Sol. y x y x y2 y 2 y 1
dy
Now at x = 2, y is also equal to 2
dy 1 1
Hence at (2, 2) is
dx 2 2 1 3
21. D
Sol. Reflection of A about x y 1 0 is (1,1) which lies on side BC equation of BC is x 1
B is (1, 0) and C is (1, 6)
22. C
Sol. sin x cos x 1 sin 2 x
If sin 2 x 0.44 then sin x cos x 1.2
23. B
Sol. Because 1 tan 1 tan 45 2 , so the two digit number is 23.
24. D
Sol. min n A B 20 15 5 30
If min n A B n C then minimum n A B C equals to 30
25. B
Sol. radical axis of circles is x = 0
y axis goes outside both the circle ab 0
Now on solving x = 0 and x y ax c 0 simultaneously we does not get any point
2 2
c is positive
26. D
Sol. If we apply the condition of orthogonally 2 g1 g2 2 f1 f 2 c1 c2 then we get k = 81
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but at k = 81 circle x2 y 2 4 x 6 y 81 0 becomes imaginary
27. B
Sol. Combined equation of ax y 1 0 and x by 0 is ax2 by 2 ab 1 xy x by 0
After making it homogeneous equation of degree two with the help of ax by 1 we get
ax2 by 2 ab 1 xy x ax by by ax by = 0
Now coefficient of x coefficient of y 2 must be equal to zero
2
2a b b2 0
28. A
Sol. Let PT is tangent on x2 y 2 16 0 from point (6, 5)
Now PA PB = PT2 PA PB S1 for 6,5 62 52 16 45
29. B
1 1 1
13
Sol. a 2 1 0 a , 2 rejected
2
4 2a 7
a = 2 is rejected because at a = 2 lines are parallel
30. B
Sol.
B
L1 L2
2
A 2, 0 D 6, 0
C 2, 0
BCD 2BAD Locus of B is circle with centre (2, 0) and radius 4 units.
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FIITJEE
BATCHES – Two Year CRP (1315)-Advance (B Lot)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (11 – 15) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Section-C (01 – 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from
0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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Useful Data Chemistry:
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck‘s Constant h = 6.626 10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Pb=207, Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6
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P
PA RTT –– II :: P
AR PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following is a unit vector
(A) î ĵ (B) cos î - sin ĵ (C) sin î 2 cos ĵ (D)
1
î ĵ
3
2.
A force F 5iˆ 3ˆj 2kˆ N is applied over a particle which displaces it from its origin to the
point r 2iˆ ˆj m. The work done (in J) on the particle is :
(A) + 13 (B) + 10 (C) + 7 (D) – 7
3. A uniform chain of length 2m is kept on a table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from
the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the
entire chain on the table ?
(A) 3.6 J (B) 7.2 J (C) 1200 J (D) 120 J
4. A projectile is thrown with velocity u at an angle above the horizontal. Find the average
velocity during the time of ascent
u sin u
(A) u cos (B) (C) 1 3 cos2 (D) None of these
2 2
5. A block of mass m is attached with a spring in its natural length, A
m a
of spring constant k. The other end A of spring is moved with a
constant acceleration ‗a‘ away from the block as
shown in the figure. Find the maximum extension in the spring. Assume that initially block and
spring is at rest w.r.t ground frame
ma 1 ma 2ma 4ma
(A) (B) (C) (D) .
k 2 k k k
6. A balloon B is moving vertically upward and viewed by a B
telescope T. At a particular angular position = 53° measured
dr d
parameters are r = 1 km, 3m / s and 0.02 rad / s. The
dt dt r
magnitude of the linear velocity of the balloon at this instant is
(A) 1.2 m/s (B) 2.4 m/s = 53°
T
(C) 3.6 m/s (D) 4.8 m/s
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7. Width of a river is 60 m. A swimmer wants to C B
cross the river such that he reaches from A to B
directly. Point B is 45 m ahead of line AC
(perpendicular to river) Assume speed of river River Flow
and speed of swimmer as equal. Swimmer must
try to swim at angle with line AC. Value of is A
(A) 37º (B) 53º (C) 30º (D) 16º
8. Find minimum value of the angle so that block of mass m does not F m
move on rough surface, whatever may be the value of applied force F.
The coefficient of state friction between the block and surface is . ()Rou
ghSurface
1 1
(A) tan1() (B) tan1 () (C) cot1() (D) cot 1 ()
2 2
Speed (ms-1)
up another inclined plane P2. What can you say about the
10 P2
steepness of P1 and P2 from the information given in the figure ? P1
(A) P1 is steeper than P2
D E C
(B) P2 is steeper than P1 0
20 50 100
(C) P1 and P2 are equally steep
Time (s)
(D) Nothing can be said about the relative steepness of P1 and P2
as the information given is insufficient
11. A spring and block is placed on a fixed smooth wedge as shown. Block
Following conclusion can be drawn about block. m
(i) magnitude of its momentum will be max when Fnet on block is
zero
(ii) its kinetic energy will be max when Fnet on block is zero Spring
(iii) KE of block is max when block just touches the spring. Fix Wedge
(iv) net force on block is maximum when KE = 0
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
Space For Rough Work
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12. In the figure, if F = 4 N, m = 2kg, M = 4 kg then
k=0
.08
z
2
(A) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m / s2 F
3 =0
.1
m
=0
(B) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is 1.2 m/s2
s
M
(C) Acceleration of M is 0.4 m/s2 G
ro
und
2
(D) Acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m / s2
3
x t3
13. A particle moves along positive branch of the curve y where x , x and y are
2 3
measured in metres and t in seconds, then :
1
(A) The velocity of particle at t = 1 s is ˆi ˆj
2
1ˆ ˆ
(B) The velocity of particle at t = 1 s is i j
2
(C) The acceleration of particle at t = 1 s is 2iˆ ˆj
(D) The acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is ˆi 2jˆ
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SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
2. In a car race, car A takes 4 seconds less than car B to reach the finish line and passes the
finishing line with velocity v more than car B. Assume cars start from rest and travel with
constant acceleration aA = 4 m/s2 and aB = 1 m/s2. Find the value of v in m/s.
m2
4. A ball is projected from some height with initial horizontal speed 20 m/s
20 m/s. There is a wall at a horizontal separation of 100 m from
the building. If collision is perfectly elastic find the time in sec
after which it will hit the wall. (t = 0 is taken when ball is thrown).
All surfaces one smooth. 100 m
y
5. Figure shows a smooth cylindrical pulley of radius R with centre at origin
of co-ordinates. An ideal thread is thrown over it on the two parts of ideal
thread two identical masses are tied initially at rest with co-ordinates (R, 0)
and (-R, -R) respectively. If mass at x-axis is given a slight upward jerk, it
leaves contact with pulley at (R cos, Rsin). Then find /sin. m x
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PARTII : CHEMISTRY
SECTIONA
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is
1. The distance between 3rd and 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom is
(A) 2.646108 cm (B) 2.116108 cm (C) 2.646 cm (D) 0.529 cm
2. H–B–H bond angle in BH4 is:
(A) 180° (B) 120° (C) 109° (D) 90°
6. Out of the following, which does not have zero dipole moment is
(A) CO2 (B) CCl4 (C) BCl3 (D) NH3
8. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively.
The element is likely to be (IP ionization potential)
(A) Na (B) Si (C) K (D) Ca
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9. 12.25 g KClO3 on heating gives enough O2 to react completely with H2 produced by the action
of the Zn on dilute H2SO4.
2KClO3 2KCl 3O2 , H2SO4 Zn ZnSO4 H2 , 2H2 O2 2H2O
The weight of Zn required for this is: [At.wt of Zn = 65.5]
(A) 9.825 g (B) 19.65 g (C) 39.3 g (D) 8.5 g
10. 2 moles of FeSO4 in acid medium are oxidised by x moles of KMnO4 , whereas 2 moles of
FeC2O4 in acid medium are oxidised by y moles of KMnO4 . The ratio of x and y is:
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 4 5
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
11. Which of the following statement is correct regarding H2O2?
(A) it has open booklike structure
(B) it is both an oxidizing as well as reducing agent
(C) it is a bleaching agent
(D) it acts as only oxidizing agent
P PV 1/ P V
13. Which of the following pairs will not diffuse at the same rate through porous plug at same
conditions of temperature and pressure?
(A) CO & NO2 (B) NO2 & CO2 (C) NH3 & PH3 (D) CO2 & N2O
14. A gas obeys the equation P(V-b) = RT. Which of the following is/are correct about the graphs
of gas?
R
(A) The isochoric curves have slope =
V b
R
(B) The isobaric curves have slope = and intercept b.
P
Pb
(C) For the gas compressibility factor = 1+
RT
Pb
(D) For the gas compressibility factor = 1
RT
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15. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia:
(A) Shows blue colour
(B) Exhibits electrical conductivity
(C) Shows reducing properties
(D) Shows oxidizing properties
SECTIONC
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. 1 g of an acid (Molar mass = 150 g/mol) is completely neutralized by 1.5 g KOH. Calculate the
number of neutralizable protons in acid.
2. Find out the number of angular nodes in the orbital to which the last electron of Cr enter.
3. According to molecular orbital theory, the number of electrons present in the antibonding
molecular orbitals of N2 is (are)
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PART – III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In a triangle ABC, A(2, 4) and internal angular bisector of B & C are y = x & 2x + y = 3, then
find the equation of BC
(A) x = 2 (B) y = 2 (C) x + y = 2 (D) none of these
2. Find the equation of minimum radius of that circle which contain all free circles S1, S2 & S3
where S1 x2 + y2 = 1, S2 (x – 2)2 + y2 = 9, S3 (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 4
(A) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y = 2 (B) x2 + y2 + 2x + 2y = 9
(C) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y = 9 2 (D) none of these
0.10.010.001.............
The value of 0.05
log
3. 20
is
1 1
(A) 81 (B) (C) 20 (D)
81 20
4. The equation of the bisector of the acute angle between the lines 2x – y + 4 = 0 and x – 2y = 1
is :
(A) x + y + 5 = 0 (B) x – y + 1 = 0 (C) x – y = 5 (D) x – y + 5 = 0
5. The maximum value of 27cos 2x 81sin 2x is
(A) 32 (B) 35 (C) 37 (D) 3
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6. The pair of straight lines joining the origin to the common points of x2 + y2 = 4 and y = 3x + c
are perpendicular, if c2 =
(A) – 1 (B) 6 (C) 13 (D) 20
8. |x + 1| + |x − 2| > 3
(A) (−, −1) (2, ) (B) (2, ) (C) (−1, 2) (D) none of these
area of PQR.
Q R
(A) 2 3 (B) 3
3
(C) (D) none of these A
F
B
2
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SECTION – A
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
11. In a ABC
(A) sinA.sinB.sinC 3 3 / 8 (B) sin2 A sin2 B sin2 C 9 / 4
(C) sinAsinBsinC is always positive (D) sin2 A sin2 B 1 cosC
n n
cos A cosB sin A sinB
12. sin A sinB cos A cosB (n, even or odd) is equal to
A B A B
(A) 2 tann (B) 2cot n (C) 0 (D) none of these
2 2
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SECTION – C
(Integer Answer Type)
This Section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
1. A(0, 0), B(2, 1) and C(3, 0) are the vertices of a triangle ABC, and BD is its altitude. The line
through D parallel to the side AB intersects the side BC at a point K. If the product of the areas
of the triangle ABC and BDK is k, then the value of 2k is
2. If sin x sin2 x 1 then the value of cos2 x cos4 x cot 4 x cot 2 x is equal to
5. Let the co-ordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle whose vertices are A(5, – 1), B(–1, 5)
and C(6, 6) is (a, b) then [a + b] is (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
BATCHES: TWO YEAR CRP (1315)-Advance-(B LOT)
PHASE TEST-I (PAPER-1) Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET-A
PART – I (PHYSICS) PART – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – III (MATHS)
SECTION-A SECTION – A SECTION-A
1. A
1. B 1. B
2. C
2. C
2. C 3. C
3. A
3. A 4. A
4. A
4. C 5. A
5. B
5. C 6. D
6. D
6. C 7. B
7. A
7. D 8. B
8. A
8. C 9. B
9. B
9. A 10. A
10. A
10. A 11. A,B,C
11. A,B,C,D
11. A, B, D 12. A,B,D
12. B,C
12. B, C 13. A,B,C
13. A,B,C,D
13. A, C 14. ABC
14. A,B,C
14. A, B, C 15. A,B,C
15. A,C
15. A, B, C SECTION–C
SECTION-C
SECTION-C 1. 4
2. 2 1. 1
1. 2
3. 5 2. 2
2. 8
4. 2 3. 0
3. 4
5. 5 4. 8
4. 5
5. 5
5. 2
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HINT & SOLUTIONS
P
PA RTT –– II :: P
AR PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
1. B
2. C
F.r
= 10 – 3 = 7
3. A
(1.2) (10) (0.3)
4. C
Rˆ
i Hjˆ
2
| v av |
T
2
5. C
From work energy in the frame which is attached to point A
1 1 1
max xm k xm2
m(0)2 m(0)2
2 2 2
2ma
xmax .
k
6. C
y = r sin
dy dr d
sin cos .r 3.6m / s
dt dt dt
7. D vR
45
tan = 37° 53º
60
since, VS = VR, vS
37º
53° = + 37°
= 16°.
8. C
Fcos N …..(A)
N Fsin mg …..(B)
By (A) and (B)
Fcos Fsin mg
Fcos Fsin mg
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F(cos sin ) mg
if F is . Hence cos sin 0
= cot1()
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9. A
y1 = 9.8t 4.9t2
y2 = 9.8 (t5) 4.9 (t5)2
y1 = y2 gives t = 12.5
10. A
Acceleration = slope of v/t graph = g sin is greater for P1 where is angle of inclined plane.
11. A, B, D
12. B, C
m
Here F smg 1
M
For m
F kmg m.a
For M
kmg MA
A 0.4m / s2
13. A, C
dx
t2 …(i)
dt
1 t3
y
23
dy t 2
…(ii)
dt 2
1
t = 1, vx = 1, vy =
2
1
v ˆi ˆj
2
d2 x
2t …(iii)
dt 2
d2 y
t …(iv)
dt 2
at t = 1 s ax = 2 and ay = 1
a 2iˆ ˆj .
14. A, B, C
If the tendency of relative motion along the common tangent does not exist, then component
of contact force along common tangent will be zero.
15. A, B, C
For particle ‗P‘
(T1 T2 )cos 30 mL cos 302
T1 sin 30 T2 sin 30 mg.
SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
1. 2
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2. 8
2S 2S
4
aB aA
2aAS 2aBS v
v 8m / s.
3. 4
Applying work energy theorem m1
Kf – Ki = w
1 1
m2v 2 m1(4v)2
2 2
m2g y m1g(4y)
v = 4 m/s. T
m2 v
mg
4. 5
Horizontal velocity of ball will not change
100 = 20 t
t = 5 sec.
5. 2
mgR – mg R sin = ½ (2m)v2 …. (i)
mv2/R = mg sin … (ii)
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P
PA RTT –– II :: C
AR CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
1. A
r = r3r2 = r09 r04
r = 5r0 = 50.0529108 = 2.646108 cm
2. C
Hybridization in BH4 is sp3, hence bond angle in 109
3. C
Latlic energy in inversely propotional to size
4. A
Noble gases have more radii than halogen in respective periods
5. A
3
KE = RT ; T = – 123 + 273 = + 150 K
2
3 3
R 150 8.314 75 = xJ = 225 8.314 = xJ
2 2
At 27°C = 27+ 223 = 300K
3
KE for = 2x Joule = 8.314 300
2
N molecules
x Joule = 3 8.314 75
In both the cases x Joules correspond to N molecules.
6. D
NH3 does not have zero dipole moment
7. B
Probability density 2
0
e
(r2 0) 2
e2
(r2 1) 2
e
2
8. B
There is large difference between 4th and 5th IP, hence element should contain four valence
electrons.
9. B
3 12.25
Moles of O2 produced = 3/2 moles of KClO3 = 0.15 mole
2 122.5
According to given equation
One moles of O2 required 2 mole of H2 = 2 moles of Zn
Moles of Zn = 2moles of O2=0.152=0.3 mole
Mass of Zn require = 0.365.5 = 19.65 g
10. A
nfactor of FeSO4 1
nfactor of FeC2O4 3
Hence geq. of FeSO4 g e.q of KMnO4
12 = 5x (1)
geq. of FeC2O4 = geq of KMnO4
32 = 5y
Hence x/y = 1/3
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
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11. A,B,C
H2O2 is both oxidising and reducing agent
12. A,B,D
1
According to Boyle‘s law P or PV cons tan t
V
13. A,B,C
1
Rate of diffusion
M
CO2 and N2O have same molar mass = 44 g/mol
14. ABC
P(V b) RT
PV Pb RT
PV Pb
Z 1
RT RT
15. A,B,C
Solution of alkali metal in liquid ammonia shows blue colour, exhibit electrical conductivity and
show reducing property
SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
1. 4
geq. of acid = geq. of base
1 1.5
n
150 56
n=4
2. 2
Last electron of Cr enters in dsubshell, hence l=2
3. 5
Electronic configuration of N2 is
1s2 1s2 2s2 2s22px22py22pz2 2px1
4. 2
geq. of H2O2 = geq. of KMnO4
17 2 a
a 5M
100 34 1000
M = 2 molar
5. 5
Balance equation is
2FeCl3 + H2S 2FeCl2 + S + 2HCl
x+y+z=5
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SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
MATHEMATICS
1. B
Take the reflection of A about internal angular bisector of B & C lie on the line BC.
2. C
For centre - find the circumcentre of the centres S1, S2 & S3,
For radius - find the circum radius from the centres S1, S2 & S3 and add the maximum radius
of the circles S1, S2 & S3 in the circum radius.
3. A
Use the log properties
4. A
2x – y + 4 = ( x – 2y 1)
For acute angle bisector use + sign
5. B
33cos2x+4sin2x
Then maximum value is 35
6. D
Use the homogenization
7. A
Lines are x = 2 and x = 6, y = 5, and y = 9
Then centre is (4, 7)
8. A
9. B
3
Area = 22
4
10. A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
11. A,B,C,D
1 1
sin2 A sin2 B sin2 C (1 cos2 A) (1 cos2 B) sin2 C
2 2
2 cos2 C cosC.cos(A B)
2 (cos2 C cosC)
2
9 1
cosC sin2A + sin2A+sin2C 9/4
4 2
sin2 A sin2 B sin2 C
Now (sin2 A.sin2 B.sin2 C)1/ 3
3
9/4 3 3
(sin A.sinB.sinC)2 / 3 or sin A.sinB.sinC
3 8
also sin A sin B sin C 2 cos C cosC
2 2 2 2
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Points can be calculated by the internal and external section formula using centres of both the
circles and slope can be calculated by using the condition of tangency.
14. A,B,C
Use the internal and external touching condition of two circles.
15. A,C
9x 1 7
log2 x 1 2
3 1
32x2 + 7 = 4(3x1 + 1)
(3x 1 1)(3x 1 3) 0
x 1 = 0 or x 1 = 1 x = 1, 2.
SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
1. 1
Calculate the area of ABC and BDK then multiply these two
2. 2
Given sin x + cos x + tan x + cot x + sec x + cosec x = 7
1 sin x cos x
sin x cos x 7
sin x cos x sin x cos x
1 1
sin x cos x 1 7
sin x cos x sin x cos x
2 2
1 sin 2x 1
2 2
7 sin x
sin 2x
1 t t 2 7t 2 , where t = sin 2x
2 2
t3 44t 2 36t 0
t 2 44t 36 0 [sin 2x 0]
44 442 4 36
t 22 8 7 sin2x 22 8 7
2
3. 0
Given cos 1 2cos 2 3cos 3 6
cos 1 cos 2 cos 3 1
1 2 3 0
tan 1 tan 2 tan 3 0
4. 8
Use the log property.
5. 5
Circum centre can be calculated by using the perpendicular bisectors of vertices of the
triangle.
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FIITJEE
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
BATCHES – Two Year CRP (1315)-Advance (B Lot)
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
C. General Instructions
1.Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2.This question paper contains Three Parts.
3.Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4.Each part is further divided into one section: Section-A
5.Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
6.Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 marks for wrong answer.
Section-A (09 – 14) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (15 – 20) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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Useful Data Chemistry:
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck‟s Constant h = 6.626 10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Pb=207, Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6
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PPA
ARRTT –– II :: PPH
HYYSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A body of mass „m‟ is placed on a plank which is tilted till the mass just slips. What is the
maximum horizontal force that can be applied on „m‟ at this position without causing
1
slipping? .
3
3
(A) mg (B) 2mg (C) 3 mg (D) mg
2
4.
A body of mass 500 g is accelerated from a velocity 3iˆ 4ˆj ms1 to 6ˆj 2kˆ ms1. Find
the work done :
(A) 3.75 J (B) 0 (C) 4.75 J (D) 16 J
5. The minimum work done in moving a particle from a point (1, 1) to (2, 3) in a plane
having force field with potential U = (x + y) is :
(A) 0 (B) (C) 3 (D) – 3
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7. The velocity of a particle moving in the positive direction of x-axis varies as v A x. The
graph of displacement versus time is :
x x
(A) (B)
t t
x x
(C) (D)
t t
8. The bob of a simple pendulum at rest, is given a sharp hit to impart a horizontal velocity
8g where is length of pendulum. The tension in the string :
(A) T = 6 mg when the string is horizontal
(B) T = 4 mg when the bob is at highest point
(C) T = 8 mg when the string is horizontal
(D) T = 6 mg when the bob is at highest point.
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 3 paragraphs based upon paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of WHICH ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 9 to 10
From the top of a tower of height H, a stone of mass 2 kg is thrown vertically upwards
with a speed U and it hits the ground below in 28 sec. When same stone was thrown with
same speed vertically down from same position, the time taken to hit the ground is 7 sec.
P1 is the average power of gravity in first case and P2 in second case (g = 10 m/s2)
9. The kinetic energy with which the stone was thrown initially is :
(A) 9025 J (B) 11025 J (C) 13225 J (D) 11449 J
10. Taking potential energy at ground level as zero, the maximum potential energy attained
by the stone thrown vertically upwards is :
(A) 30625 J (B) 32825 J (C) 28625 J (D) 31049 J
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12
In figure shown on the right, the spring constant is K. The mass of block is m.
The block is imparted a downward velocity = v0 at t = 0, at its equilibrium
position.
11. The value of v0 for which the block has zero velocity when spring is in its natural position
is
m m m m
(A) g (B) 2g (C) g (D) 4g
K K 2K K
mg
12. The value of v0 for which the minimum pull force on ceiling is , will be
2
m m m g m
(A) g (B) g (C) 2g (D)
2K K K 2 K
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
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16. A 10 kg block is resting on a rough horizontal F (N)
surface. A horizontal force F is applied to it for 4s.
The variation of force with time is shown in the 10 kg F 100 N
figure. (µs = µk = 0.5, g = 10 m/s2). Then
(A) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s 4s
(B) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is zero
(C) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 20 m/s
(D) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s
17. A boy in the elevator with open roof shoots a bullet in vertical upward direction from a
height of 1.5 above the floor of the elevator. The initial speed of the bullet with respect to
elevator is 15 m/s. The bullet strikes the floor after 2 seconds. Then (Assuming g = 10
m/s2, acceleration of elevator to be constant).
(A) Lift is moving with constant speed
(B) Lift is moving with upward acceleration of 5.75 m/s2
(C) Lift is moving with downward acceleration of 5.75 m/s2
(D) Lift is moving with acceleration 4.25 m/s2
18. If a 2iˆ 3ˆj and b 2iˆ kˆ , then
(A) a.b 4 (B) a b 3iˆ 2jˆ 6kˆ
(C) a.b 1 (D) a b 4kˆ
20. A particle is projected at an angle = 30º with the horizontal, with a velocity of 10 m/s
then
(A) After 2 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(B) At 1 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(C) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 10 m/s
(D) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 5 m/s
Space For Rough Work
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PPA
ARRTT –– IIII :: C
CHHEEM
MIISSTTR
RYY
(SECTIONA)
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A solution containing 2.68 103 mol of An ions require 1.61103 mol of MnO4 for the
complete oxidation of An to AO3 in acidic medium. The value of „n‟ is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (d) 2
2 How many maximum number of electrons of an atom will have the following set of
quantum numbers?
n+l=6
m=–1
1
s
2
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 10
3. Equal weights of a mixture of CO2 and O2 are enclosed in a vessel at 27oC and 1 atm
pressure then which of the following is true (Assuming ideal behaviour of gases)
(A) O2 molecule will hit the wall with greater momentum than CO2
(B) CO2 molecule will hit the wall with greater kinetic energy than O2
(C) Both O2 and CO2 hit the wall with same momentum
(D) CO2 molecule will hit the wall with greater momentum than O2
5. Which of the following order of lattice energy values (kJ mol-1) is correct?
(A) CaO > SrO > BaO > MgO (B) MgO > CaO > SrO > BaO
(C) SrO > CaO > MgO > BaO (D) MgO > CaO > BaO > SrO
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7. 5.3g of carbonate of a monovalent metal is dissolved in 150ml of 1N HCl. Unused acid
required 100ml of 0.5N NaOH for complete neutralization. The atomic weight of the
metal is
(A) 13 (B) 24 (C) 46 (D) 23
8. 1 gm of fuming H2SO4 (Oleum is a mixture of conc. H2SO4 saturated with SO3 and having
the formula H2S2O7) is diluted with H2O. This solution is completely neutralized by 27.7
mL of 0.8 N NaOH . Find the percentage of free SO3 in the oleum.
(A) 78.73% (B) 61.85% (C) 69.73 % (D) 38.15 %
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 3 paragraphs based upon paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of WHICH ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question 9 to 10
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
A NaOH B HCl
white fumes
colourless salt
CaCl2
C
KMnO4 (acid)
colourless
white ppt.
9. The compound A is
(A) (NH4)2C2O4 (B) (NH4)2SO4 (C) NaHSO4 (D) Na2SO4
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Paragraph for Question 11 to 12
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
Covalent molecules formed by heteroatoms bound to have some ionic character. The
ionic character is due to shifting of electron pair towards A or B in the molecule AB.
Hence molecule will have dipolemoment which is equal to product of charge(q) and bond
length (d). The unit of dipole moment is Debye(D). 1 D = 1018 esu cm.
The percentage of ionic character of bond can be calculated by formula:
experimental value of dipole moment
% ionic character= 100
Theoretical value of dipole moment
11. The dipole moment of NF3 is very much less that of NH3 because:
(A) No. of lone pairs in NF3 is much greater than in NH3
(B) Unshaired electron pair is not present in NF3 as in NH3
(C) Both have different shapes
(D) Of different direction of moments of NH and NF bonds
12. A covalent molecule xy, is found to have a dipole moment of 1.51029 Cm and a bond
length is 150 pm. The percentage of ionic character of the bond will be
(A) 50% (B) 62.5% (C) 75% (D) 90%
13. The ratio of wavelength of first line to that of second line of paschen series of Hatom is
(A) 256: 175 (B) 175 : 256 (C) 15:16 (D) 16:15
14. Calculate the energy emitted when electrons of 1 g atom of hydrogen undergo transition
giving the spectral line of lowest energy in visible region of its atomic spectra
(A) 18.3104 J (B) 90103 J (C) 60104 J (D) 37.3104 J
Space for rough work
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Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 6 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
15. Which of the following properties of compounds is correctly matched?
(A) Hydration energy: Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(B) Solubility in water: LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH
(C) Lattice energy: RbF < KF < NaF < LiF
(D) Stability: RbH < KH < NaH < LiH
16. Two vessel connected by a valve of negligible volume. One vessel (I) has 2.8 g of N2 at
temperature T1(K). The other vessel (II) is completely evacuated. The container (I) is
heated to T2(K) while vessel (II) is maintained at (T2/3) K. Volume of vessel (I) is half that
of vessel (II). If the valve is opened then what is the weight ratio of N 2 in both vessel
(WI/WII)
(A) 1:2 (B) 1:3 (C) 1:6 (D) 3:1
17. The outermost electronic configuration of atom(X) is 4s24p2. Choose correct statements
regarding the atom.
(A) It is paramagnetic in nature
(B) It contains 10 electrons having azimuthal quantum no. (l) = 2
(C) It forms four covalent bonds in first excited state.
(D) Number of electrons present in the s-orbitals of the atom is higher than that present
in its p-orbitals.
18. In which of the following molecules / ions, the central atom is sp2 hybridized?
(A) NH2 (B) BF3 (C) NO2 (D) H2O
19. For the above graph, drawn for two different Gas A T1
Fraction of molecules
T T
(C) 2 > 1
MB MA
(D) Nothing can be predicted
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PPA
ARRTT –– IIIIII :: M
MAATTH
HEEM
MAATTIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The line (p + 2q)x + (p 3q)y = pq for different values of p and q passes through the
point
3 5 2 2 3 3 2 3
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
2 2 5 5 5 5
5 5
4. 2xlog 3 3log
4 4 X
27 , then x is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
1
(x 4 x) 4
5. x5 dx is equal to
5 5 5
4 1 4 4 1 4 4 1 4
(A) 1 3 C (B) 1 3 C (C) 1 3 C (D) none of these
15 x 5 x 15 x
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(1 2 3 4 5 6 .... 2n)
7. lim
n
n2 1 4n2 1
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) (D)
3 3
dy
8. If x y .y x 16 , then at (2, 2) is
dx
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) none of these
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 3 paragraphs based upon paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of WHICH ONLY
ONE is correct.
The equation of the straight line passing through (x1, y1) and making an angle with the positive
x x1 y y1
direction of x-axis is r, where r is the directed distance between the points (x, y)
cos sin
and (x1, y1).
9. The angle made with x-axis of a straight line drawn through (2, 3) so that it intersects the
line x+y7=0 at a distance 2 from (2, 3) is
3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 6 3
10. Which of the following points lie at a distance of 4 units from the point P(2,3) on the line
through P whose inclination with negative direction of x-axis is 30°?
(A) 2 2 3,1
(B) 2 2 3,0
(C) 2 2 3,0
(D) 2 3,1
Space For Rough Work
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12
11. The chords in which the circle C cuts the members of the family S of circles through A
and B are concurrent at
23 23
(A) (2, 3) (B) 2, (C) 3 2, (D) (3,2)
3 2
12. Equation of the member of the family S which bisects the circumference of C is
(A) x2 y2 5x 1 0 (B) x2 y2 5x 6y 1 0
(C) x2 y2 5x 6y 1 0 (D) x2 y2 5x 6y 1 0
1
x cos ec 2 , y sec 2 ,z
1 sin cos2
2
1 1
13. 2
2 is equal to
x y
2z 2z z z
(A) (B) (C) (D)
z z 2z 2z
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(Multiple Correct answers Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
15. The value of „c‟ for which the lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of the
line y 3x c and the curve x2+y2=2 are perpendicular to each other
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 2
16. If the area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents from the origin to the circle
x2+y2+6x10y+c=0 and the radii corresponding to the points of contact is 15, then value
of c is
(A) 9 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 25
n times
1
(A) n (B) n (C) (D) log 1 (pn )
n p
8 x
18. Let y = x + e then
(A) y10 = y12 (B) y10 = y11 (C) y11 = y14 (D) none of these
19. If a 5 cos 3 cos 5 b , then
3
(A) a=2 (B) a=2 (C) b=12 (D) b=7
e .e dx is equal to
x lna x
20.
ae ae
x x
(A) ae
x
(B) (C) (D) none of these
ln(ae) 1 ln a
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
BATCHES: TWO YEAR CRP (1315)-Advance-(B LOT)
PHASE TEST-I (PAPER2) Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET-A
PART – I (PHYSICS) PART – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – III (MATHS)
SECTION-A SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. C 1. D 1. D
2. B 2. B 2. C
3. B 3. C 3. B
4. A 4. B 4. D
5. C 5. B 5. A
6. A 6. C 6. B
7. B 7. D 7. C
8. A 8. D 8. A
9. B 9. A 9. A
10. A 10. B 10. A
11. A 11. D 11. B
12. D 12. B 12. C
13. D 13. A 13. B
14. C 14. A 14. A
15. A, C, D 15. A,B,C,D 15. C, D
16. B, D 16. C 16. A,D
17. B 17. A,B,C 17. B,D
18. A, C 18. B,C 18. A,B,C
19. B, D 19. B,C 19. A,C
20. B, C 20. C 20. B,C
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HINT & SOLUTIONS
PPA
ARRTT –– II :: PPH
HYYSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
1. C N
1 F
Mass will slip when tan1 30
3 f
mg
For equilibrium of mass as shown N mgcos Fsin &
F cos = f + mg sin
sin cos
F mg
cos sin
3 mg.
2. B
V2
h
2g
2 2
V V
2 V 2ghp and 3 V 2ghQ
2 2
5h
hQ hP .
36
3. B
S = Area under vt curve v2
=2+2 (m/s)
=4
2 4
t (sec)
4. A
W K.
5. C
Wext U
5 2 3.
6. A
kx m2(+x)
m2 x kx
m2
x
K m2
7. B
vA x
dx
a x
dt
dx
adt
x
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x t2
8. A
Velocity at horizontal position 6 g
mv 2
So, Tension 6mg
(Paragraph Type)
9. B
1
H U.28 .10. 28
2
2
1
H U.7 .10. 7
2
2
Solving H = 980 m, U = 105 m/s.
1
k mv 2 11025J.
2
10. A
U2
Umax mg H 30625 J.
2g
11. A
1 1
From energy conservation mv 02 mgx kx 2 0
2 2
mg m
and x , v0 g .
k k
Pull force on the ceiling is kx
mg
Kxmin
2
12. D
2
1 m m 1
k mg mv 0 u=0 x=0
2 k k 2 mg/ 2k
2 kx=mg
1 m mg
mg. mg
v0
2 2k
k
2k K
13. D
For 30 kg block
210 – kx = 30a
210 90
a 4 m / s2
30
14. C
For 15 kg block
Kx = ma = 15 × 6
90
x 0.9m
100
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(Multiple Correct answers Type)
15. A, C, D
16. B, D
25t 50
4
V
10
dt
2
17. B
1
Sr Ur t ar t 2
2
18. A, B
19. B, D
Acceleration of M, a
F
M
1F 2
.t
2M
2M
t .
F
20. B, C
30º
1
2 10 30º
2usin 2 1s .
T
g 10
30º 30º
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PPA
ARRTT –– IIII :: C
CHHEEM
MIISSTTR
RYY
SECTIONA
1. D
MnO4
H
Mn2 (‗n‘ factor =5)
= eq. of MnO4
n+
Eq. of A
2. B
For n+l = 6, orbital will be 5p, 4d, 6s
m= 1 will exist in 5p & 4d only
3. C
In ideal conditions gases will have same momentum
4. B
I.E2 of Na is greater than I.E2 of Mg because Na+ has stable configuration
5. B
1
Lattice energy
size of cation
6. C
From curve, no. of radial nodes = 3
Therefore nl1=3
n=5
7. D
Eq. of unused HCl = Eq. of NaOH
Eq. of HCl react with carbonate = eq. of total HCl eq. of unused HCl
Eq. of HCl react with carbonate = eq. of metal carbonate
8. D
(eq) of H2SO4 = (eq) of NaOH
w 27.7 0.8
2 1.085 g
98 1000
1 g oleum gives 1.085 g H2SO4
100 g oleum gives 108.5 g H2SO4
Therefore % labelling of oleum is 108.5
SO3 + H2O H2SO4
nSO3 nH2O
x 8.5
80 18
X=38.15
% of SO3 is 38.15 %
9. A
A = (NH4)2C2O4; B=NH3; C=CaC2O4
10. B
A = (NH4)2C2O4; B=NH3; C=CaC2O4
11. D
Electronegativity difference between N and F is less than N and H
12. B
exp erimental value of dipole moment
% ionic character = 100
theoretical value of dipole moment
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13. A
For first line put n1=3, n2=4 and for second line n1=3, n2=5
14. A
Put n1= 2, n2= 3 in equation of E
15. A,B,C,D
A = Li+ being smallest in size shows maximum hydration
B = Solubility increases from LiOH to CsOH due to increased ionic character (Fajan‟s
rule)
1
C = Lattice energy
size of cation
D = Li will attract H more strongly because size of Li+ is smaller
+
16. C
Let ‗x‘ no. of moles transferred from 1st to 2nd container
xRT2
P(2v) II container
3
P(v) (0.1 x)RT2 Ist container
WI 1
On solving
WII 6
17. A,B,C
X has 2 unpaired electron in 4p and in first excited state, 4s(e) will jump to 4p then there
will be four unpaired electron which can form four covalent bond
18. B,C
Using VSEPR theory and hybridization concepts
19. B,C
Most probable velocities of A & B are
2RT1
VA
MA
2RT2
VB
MB
20. C
Isoelectronic species are species which have same no. of electrons.
PPA
AR T –– IIIIII :: M
RT MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
SECTION A
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. A
11. B
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12. C
13. B
14. A
15. C, D
16. A,D
17. B,D
18. A,B,C
19. A,C
20. B,C
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FIITJEE - JEE (MAINS)
PHASE- 2
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer
Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question. ¼ (one
fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will
be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as
wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room / Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
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Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
2. The ratio of excess pressure in two soap bubbles is 3 : 1. The ratio of their volumes will be:
1 1 27 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 9 1 27
6. A ball hits a floor and rebounds after an inelastic collision. In this case:
(A) the momentum of the ball just after the collision is the same as that just before the collision
(B) the mechanical energy of the ball remains the same in the collision
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(C) the total momentum of the ball and the earth is conserved
(D) the total energy of the ball and the earth is conserved
7. Two balls of masses m1 = 3 kg and m2 = 2 kg are moving towards each other with speeds u1
and u2. The ball m1 stops after collision and m2 starts moving with speed u1. The co-efficient of
restitution for the balls is:
2 1
(A) zero (B) 1 (C) (D)
3 2
8. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Two objects, each of mass m, are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter
of the ring. The ring rotates now with an angular velocity:
M ( M 2m) M ( M m)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
M m M 2m M 2m M
9. An isolated particle of mass m is moving in horizontal plane (x-y), along the x-axis, at a certain
height above ground. It suddenly explodes into two fragments of masses m/4 and 3m/4. An
instant later, the smaller fragment is at y = +15cm. The larger fragment at this instant is at:
F
11. The magnitude of the force (in N) acting on a body varies with
C
time t (in s) as shown. AB, BC and CD are straight line 800
600
segments. The magnitude of the total impulse of the force on
the body from t = 4 s to t = 16 s is:
400
Force (N)
A
200
(A) 5 × 10–3 Ns (B) 5.8 × 10–3 Ns B D
3 3 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
(C) 5.8 × 10 Ns (D) 5 × 10 Ns Time (s)
12. Two equal drops of water each of radius r are falling through air with a steady velocity
8 cm/s. The two drops combine to form a big drop. The terminal velocity of big drop will be:
2 2 2
(A) 8(2) 3 cm/s (B) 16(2) 3 cm (C) 4(2) 3 cm/s (D) 32 cm/s
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13. The height of water in a vessel is h. The vessel wall of width b is at B
an angle to the vertical. The net force exerted by the water on the
wall is:
h
1
(A) bh2 g cos (B) bh 2 g
3 A
1
(C) bh2 g sec (D) zero
2
14. The acceleration of centre of mass of the system shown in figure will
be:
10
(A) 10 m/s2 (B) m/s2
3 5kg
5 40kg
(C) m/s2 (D) –5 m/s2
3
17. Moment of inertia of a ring about a diameters is I0. The moment of inertia of the ring about a
tangent perpendicular to the plane of the ring will be:
(A) I0 (B) 2I0 (C) 3I0 (D) 4I0
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18. An equilateral triangle ABC has its centre at O as shown in figure. A
Three forces 10 N, 5N and F are acting along the sides AB, BC and
AC. Magnitude of force F so that the net torque about ‗O‘ is zero, will
be: O
(A) 15 N (B) 5 N (C) 50 N (D) 2 N
B C
5N
10N F
19. A disc is rotating with an angular velocity 0. A constant retarding torque is applied on it to
stop the disc. Its angular velocity becomes 0/2 after n rotations. How many more rotations
will it make before coming to rest?
n n
(A) n (B) 2n (C) (D)
2 3
20. When a sphere rolls without slipping, the ratio of its kinetic energy of translation to its total
kinetic energy is:
(A) 1 : 7 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 5 : 7
21. One end of a glass U-tube contains oil and the other end
contains water as shown. The INCORRECT statement is: A
(A) the oil is less dense than water Oil
(B) the pressure at D and E is same D E
Water
(C) the pressure at B and C is same B C
(D) the pressure due to column AB of the oil is the same as
that due to column EC of water
22. An inclined plane makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. A solid cylinder rolling down this
inclined plane from rest without slipping has a linear acceleration equal to:
g 5g 2g 5g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 7 3 14
23. Two water pipes of diameters 2 cm and 4 cm are connected with the main supply line one
after another. The velocity of flow of water in the pipe of 2 cm diameter is:
1
(A) 4 times that in the other pipe (B) times that in the other pipe
4
1
(C) 2 times that in the other pipe (D) times that in the other pipe
2
24. A concentric hole of radius R/2 is cut from a thin circular plate of mass M and radius R. The
moment of inertia of the remaining plate about its axis will be:
13 11 13 15
(A) MR 2 (B) MR 2 (C) MR 2 (D) MR 2
24 24 32 32
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25. A liquid film is formed over a frame ABCD as shown in figure. Wire CD l
(massless) can slide without friction. The mass to be hung from CD to A
keep it in equilibrium is: (Surface tension of liquid is T)
B
Tl 2Tl
(A) (B)
g g
2Tl Tl
D C
(C) (D) Liquid
3g 2g X Y
Film
26. A raft of wood (density 600 kg/m3) of mass 120 kg floats in water. How much weight can be
put on the raft to make it just sink?
(A) 120 kg (B) 200 kg (C) 40 kg (D) 80 kg
27. The angular velocity of a wheel increases from 1200 rpm to 4500 rpm in 10 s. The number of
revolutions made during this time is
(A) 950 (B) 475 (C) 237.5 (D) 118.75
29. Four particles each of mass m are placed at the corners of a square of side length l. The
radius of gyration of the system about an axis perpendicular to the square and passing
through centre is
l l
(A) (B) (C) l (D) ( 2 )l
2 2
30. A particle of mass m moving eastward with a speed v collides with another particle of same
mass moving northward with same speed v. The two particles coalesce on collision. The new
particle of mass 2m will move in the north-east direction with a velocity of
v v
(A) v 2 (B) (C) (D) v
2 2
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CHEMISTRY Part-B
1. For the following equilibrium
NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) ; partial pressure of NH3 will increase
(A) If NH3 is added after equilibrium is established
(B) if H2S is added after equilibrium is established
(C) NH4HS is added into the container
(D) volume of the flask is decreased
2. To 100 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 solution solid K2SO4 is added. The concentration of K2SO4 that
shows the precipitation is? [KSP for Ag2SO4 = 6.4 10-5 M]
(A) 0.1 M (B) 6.4 10-3 M
(C) 5.4 10-7 M (D) 6.4 10-5 M
3. If heat of neutralization is – 13.7 K.cal and H0f H2O = – 68.0 Kcal, then enthalpy of formation of
OH- would be
(A) 54.3 kcal (B) – 54.3 kcal
(C) 71.3 kcal (D) – 71.3 kcal
4. The half time of first order decomposition of nitramide is 2.1 hour at 15°C.
NH 2 NO 2 (aq.) N 2 O(g) + H 2 O(l)
If 6.2 g of NH 2 NO 2 is allowed to decompose, calculate the time in hrs taken for
NH 2 NO 2 to decompose 99%.
(A)10 (B) 21 (C) 4.2 (D)14
For Q 5 - Q6 consider the following data from the reaction between A and B.
9. We have acidic buffer of CH3COONa and CH3COOH. One or more of the following
operations will not change pH :
I : diluting the mixture ten times II : adding some HCl
III : adding some NaOH
IV : adding equal moles of CH3COONa and CH3COOH into the buffer
Select correct alternate(s) :
(A) I, III, IV (B) II, III (C) I, II,III (D) I,II,III, IV
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A) CO B) SnO2 C) ZnO D) SiO2
14. KSP of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10-31, 10-44 and 10-54 respectively. Select the correct order for
their solubility in water
(A) Ag2S > HgS > CuS (B) HgS > CuS > Ag2S
(C) HgS > Ag2S > CuS (D) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
18. 50 g of iron is dissolved in HCl at 298 K in a beaker under atmospheric pressure forming FeCl3
, the work done is (at wt Fe = 56)
(A) – 2212.39 J (B) -3318.17 J
(C) – 560.40 J (D) zero
19. 5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed to react to form SO3 in a closed vessel. At the
equilibrium stage 60% of SO2 is used up. The total number of moles of SO2 ,O2 and SO3 in
the vessel at equilibrium is
(A) 10.0 (B) 8.5
(C) 10.5 (D) 3.9
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(C) BI 3 > BBr 3 > BCl 3 > BF 3 (D) BBr 3 > BCl 3 > BI 3 > BF 3
22. If enthalpies of formation for C2H4 (g), CO2 (g) and H2O (l) at 250C and 1 atm pressure be 52,
– 394 and – 286 kJ mol-1 respectively, enthalpy of combusion of C2H4 (g) will be
(A) + 141.2 kJ mol-1 (B) + 1412 kJ mol-1
-1
(C) – 141.2 kJ mol (D) – 1412 kJ mol-1
23. For the reversible reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) at 500º , the value of Kp is
1.44 × 10–5 when partial pressure is measured in atmospheres. The corresponding value of
KC, with concentration in mole litre–1, is
1.44 10 5 1.44 10 5 1.44 10 5 1.44 105
2
(A) (0.082 500)
2 2
(C) (0.082 773)
2
(B) (8.314 773) (D) (0.082 773)
24. The CaCO3 is heated in a closed vessel of volume 1 litre at 600 K to form CaO and CO2. The
25. One litre of water contains 10-7 mole of H+ ions. Degree of ionization of water is
(A) 1.8 10-7 % (B) 0.8 10-9 %
(C) 3.6 10-9 % (D) 3.6 10-7 %
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26. Lead shows oxidation state
A) +3, +4 B) +1, +2 C) +2, +4 D) +4
27. 2 mol of an ideal gas expanded isothermally & reversible from 1 litre to 10 litres
at 300 K. What is the enthalpy change
(A) 4.98 kJ (B) 11.47 kJ (C) –11.47 kJ (D) 0 kJ
For Q 28 – Q29
Suppose 50 bacteria are placed in a flask containing nutrients for the bacteria so that they can multiply.
A study at 35°C gives the following results
Time (minutes) 0 15 30 45 60
Number of bacteria 100 200 400 800 1600
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MATHEMATICS PART-C
.....x1
1. If xn xn1 ......... x2 x1 1, then the value of logx1 logx2 logx3 .........logxn xnxn1
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) none of these
k k 1
4. If the roots of the equation 42 2 0 are of the form and then the value of
k 1 k2
is
(A) 2k (B) 7
(C) 2 (D) k+1
5. The length of the chord of the parabola x2 = 4y passing through the vertex and having slope
cot is
(A) 4 cos . cosec2 (B) 4 tan sec
(C) 4 sin. sec
2
(D) none of these
6. If the normals at the end points of a variable chord PQ of the parabola y2 – 4y – 2x = 0 are
perpendicular, then the tangents at P and Q will intersect at
(A) x + y = 3 (B) 3x – 7 = 0
(C) y + 3 = 0 (D) 2x + 5 = 0
7. The point P on the parabola y2 = 4ax for which |PR – PQ| is maximum, where R (– a, 0),
Q (0, a), is
(A) (a, 2a) (B) ( a, -2a)
(C) (4a, 4a) (D) (4a, -4a)
8. If tangents at A and B on the parabola y2 = 4ax intersect at the point C, then ordinates of
A, C and B are
(A) always in A.P. (B) always in G.P.
(C) always in H.P. (D) none of these
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(C) 31 - 2 (D) None
1
11. sin-1 i (z 1) , where z is a non real, can be the angle of a triangle if
z1 z2 z
12. If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers satisfying the equation 1, then 1 is a
z1 z2 z2
number which is
(A) Positive real (B) Negative real
(C) Zero or purely imaginary (D) None of these
13. If w is a complex cube root of unity and (a + bw + cw2)3 + (a + bw2 + cw)3 = 0, then b, a, c are
in
(A)A.P. (B)G.P. (C)H.P. (D) None of these
17. If 2a 3b 43 and 2a 3 3a 1 47, then the respectively value of ‗a‘ and ‗b‘ are
(A) 3, 4 (B) 4, 3
(C) 16, 27 (D) 8, 9
18.
1
The number of solutions of the equation log x 2 2x log x 2 0 is
2
(A) 2 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 3
19. If both the roots of x ax a 0 are greater then 2, then
2
23. If a,b,c are odd integers and ax 2 bx c 0 has real roots then
(A)both roots are rational (B) both roots are irrational
(C) both roots are positive (D)roots are of opposite signs
24. Total number of integral values of a such that x2 ax a 1 0 has integral roots, is
equal to
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four
25. If both roots of x2 ax 2 0 belong to the interval (0,3) then exhaustive range of ‗a‘ is
11
(A)(-6,0) (B) , 2 2
3
11
(C) ,0 (D) none of these
3
26. If two roots of x3 ax2 bx c 0 are equal in magnitude but opposite in signs then
(A)a+bc=0 (B)a2=bc
(C) ab=c (D)a-b+c=0
27. f x
x b x c , where a,b,c are distinct real numbers will assume all real values
x a
provided
(A)c lies between a and b (B) a lies between b and c
(C) b lies between a and c (D) none of these
28.
The complete set of values of x satisfying log x x 2 1 0 is
(A) 1,
(B) 1, 2
(C) 2,
(D) none of these
29. If ax 2 bx c 0 and bx2 cx a 0 have a common root and a,b,c are non zero real
a 3 b3 c 3
numbers then is equal to
abc
(A)1 (B)2
(C)3 (D) none of these
30. If tan and sec are the roots of the equation ax 2 bx c 0 , then
(A) a 4 b2 2ac b2 (B) b4 a 2 2ac a 2
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(C) a 4 b2 4ac b2
(D) b4 a 2 4ac a 2
PHYSICS MAINS ANS
ANSWER CHEMISTRY
1 A 2 B 3 B
4 D 5 A 6 D
7 A 8 C 9 C
10 B 11 A 12 C
13 A 14 D 15 C
16 B 17 D 18 B
19 B 20 C 21 D
22 D 23 D 24 C
25 A 26 C 27 C
28 B 29 A 30 A
1 A 2 B 3 B
4 B 5 A 6 D
7 A 8 A 9 A
10 B 11 B 12 C
13 A 14 B 15 C
16 C 17 B 18 A
19 D 20 A 21 B
22 A 23 B 24 B
25 B 26 C 27 B
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28 B 29 C 30 C
PHYSICS SOLUTION
R2 3R
R2 (0)
16 4 R
1. Xcm = =–
R
2
20
R2
16
(A)
2. (D)
1 1
3. TR MR2 T Ma ......... 1
2 2
Mg T Ma .............. 2
2
From (1) and (2); a g
3
(D)
2mv sin 2 3 10 sin 60
4. Favg 150 3 N
t 0.2
(C)
5. (C)
6. In an inelastic collision only momentum of the system remains conserved. Some energy may be
lost in the form of deformation, heat, sound etc.
(C)
7. By conservation of linear momentum m1u1 m2u2 m1v1 m2 v2
u1 v v1 u 0 2
3u1 2u2 0 2u1 , u2 , e 2 1 =
2 u1 u 2 u 3
u1 1
2
(C)
M
8. MR 2 (mR2 2 MR 2 )' , '
M 2m
(C)
9. Before explosion, particle was moving along x-axis, i.e., it has no y-component of velocity.
Therefore, the centre of mass will not move in y-direction or we can say ycom 0.
m1 y1 m2 y2 (m / 4)(15) (3m / 4)( y )
Now, ycom 0 or y 5cm
m1 m2 (m / 4 3m / 4)
(A)
10. Applying Bernoulli‘s theorem at 1 and 2
mg 1 2 mg
gh v v 2 gh
A
m, A
A 2
h
(B) 1 2
v
Area of force - time graph
11. Impulse under the specified interval
1 1
(800 200) 2 10 6 800 10 10 6 = 5 × 10–3 N-s
2 2
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(A)
2
4 3 4 V2 R
12. R n r 3 ; Rn r; 1/ 3
n2/3
3 3 V1 r
(A)
gh h B
13. Average pressure on the wall , AB
2 cos
h h PA
Therefore area of the wall = b
cos
Net force exerted by the water on the wall A
gh h 1
PA b bh 2 g sec
2 cos 2
(C)
14. By constraint relation, if a40 a , then a5 2a
40 g 2T 40a …(i) and T 5g 5(2a) …(ii)
40(5) 5(10) 10
From (i) and (ii) a 5 m/s2 and a cm m/s2
40 5 3
(B)
15. Here, the x co-ordinate of centre of mass of the system remains unchanged when the mass m
moved a distance L cos , let the mass (m M ) moves a distance x in the backward
direction.
mL cos
(M m) x mL cos 0 x
mM
(D)
16. OP > OC > OQ ; VP > VC > VQ
P
(B) C
Q
O
1 I
17. I0 Idia MR2 cm , Itangent Icm MR2 4I0
2 2
(D)
18. Fd – 10d – 5d = 0; F = 15 N
(A)
Since 0 2 where = 2n
2 2
19.
2
0 0
2
2
2 2 n
2 and 0 0 (2)(2n) n
2n 2 3
(D)
1 2
mv
KT 2 1 KT 1 5
20.
K 1 2 1 2 I K 1 2 7
mv I 1 2
2 2 MR 5
(D)
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AB > EC ; oil w
(B)
gsin gsin30 1
22. a = g
I 1 3
1 1
MR2 2
(A)
2
V1 A2 d 2 V 42
23. AV = Constant 2 1 2 4
V2 A1 d1 V2 2
(A)
M R M
2
24. Mass of hole ( M )
2
R 4 4
Moment of inertial of remaining plate R/2
2
1 1 R 15
MR 2 M MR 2
2 2 2 32 R
(D)
2Tl
25. Mg 2Tl M
g
(B)
mass 120 1 3
26. Volume of raft = V m
density 600 5
1 3 1
Mass of m water = 1000 200 kg
5 5
Extra weight which can be put on the raft = 200 – 120 = 80 kg
(D)
1200 4500 2
27. 10 950 radian
2 60
950
Number of Revolutions = 475
2
(B)
28. For pure translational motion, the force F should act at centre of mass
m(2l ) 2(m)l 4l
Ycm
3m 3
(A)
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l 2 l
29. I mr 2 4m m(2l 2 ) m m
2
l/ 2
2ml 2 l
Radius of gyration k
4m 2 l/ 2 l/ 2 l
(A) C.M.
l/ 2
m m
v
30. By momentum conservation, mv = 2mv cos (45°) v =
2
(B)
K= ; t = 14hrs
5 A
6: D ; from the data H cannot be predicted .
7: A
8: C , common ion effect
9: C
11: A; T=
12: (C) 2C s O2 g 2CO g ,Kc1
Initial conc: 2 4 -
Eqm conc: - 4-x-y 2x-2y
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[CO2] = 0.6 = 2y
[O2] = 4-x-y = 2.9
14: D
15: C
16: B
17: D
C 6 H 5 COOH(s) + 15/2 O 2 →7CO 2(g) + 3 H 2 O(l)
∆H = [-7 x 390 + - 3 x 280 ] – (-400) = -3170
18: B
Fe + 3HCl → FeCl3 + 3/2H2
∆n H2 = 3/2 for each mole Fe ;
[SO2] moles = 2
[O2] moles = 3.5
[SO3] moles = 3
Total moles = 8.5
20: C
21: D
22: (D) C2H4 (g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) +2 H2O(l)
∆H = [2x-394 + 2 x -286] – [52] = -1412
23: D
24: C
V x pCO2 = nRT ; n = 0.1 mole ; CaCO3 wt = 10 gm
25: A For H2O as weak acid , Cα = [H+] ; α = [H+]/C = ) 1.8 10-9
26: C
if we look at the data ,it seems every 15 min population doubles so order should be 1 .
Alternate way :
Assume order = 0
K=
K1 = (200 – 100)/15 = 6.66
K2 = (400-200)/15 = 13.33 ; hence not zero order
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Assume first order ;
K=
K1 = = 0.046 min-1
K2 = = 0.046 min-1
6. (D) Since normals at P and Q are perpendicular, the tangents at P and Q will also be
perpendicular but any two perpendicular tangents of a parabola always intersect on its
directrix. The parabola is (y – 2)2 = 2( x +2). So its directrix is 2x + 5 = 0
7. (A) We know any side of the triangle is more than the difference of the remaining two sides so
that |PR – PQ| RQ
The required point P will be the point of intersection of the line RQ with parabola which is
(a, 2a) as PQ is a tangent to the parabola.
C
15
A
25 20
Real axis 4
O arg z tan 1
3
10.B
z 1
11.B Let = sin 1 be the angle of a triangle. If z-1=iλ z=1+iλ
i
= sin 1 then Re z 1; 1 Im z 1
2 2
z z
12.C z1 z2 z1 z2 1 1 1 1
z2 z2
z1 z1
0
z2 z2
13.A a b c 2 a b 2 c 0 2a b c
14.B
15.C a b 3 b c 3 c d e d 0
16.C a x b x c 0
2
no real value of x
17. B
18. A
19 D (i) f(2)>0 a<4 (ii) a2-4a0 a ,0 4,
20.A D 0 b2 4ac 0
a c
2
16ac 0
a c a c
2 12 2 3
c a c a
21.B
tan a 1 ; tan
1 1 tan 2 b a ; tan 1.tan 2 .tan 3 b
tan 1 2 3 1 1 2 3
4
22 A
23 B
24 B
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11
25 B f 0 f 3 0 a 1
3
D
4a
0 a , 2 2 2 2, 2 and a 6,0 3
From (1),(2) and (3)
c
26 Let , , a 1 2 2 2 b 3
a
27 B
28 B x 0; x 2 1 0; x 1 x 1 ........... 1
Now x2 1 1 x2 2 0 x 2, 2 ........... 2
From (1) and (2)
29 C
bc a ab c ac b
2
2 2 2
a3 b3 c3 3abc
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BATCHES – Two Year CRP (1315)-Advance (B Lot)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of t he test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
E. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (11 – 15) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Section-C (01 – 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from
0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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Useful Data Chemistry:
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck‘s Constant h = 6.626 10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Pb=207, Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6
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P
PA RTT –– II :: P
AR PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following is a unit vector
(A) î ĵ (B) cos î - sin ĵ (C) sin î 2 cos ĵ (D)
1
î ĵ
3
2.
A force F 5iˆ 3ˆj 2kˆ N is applied over a particle which displaces it from its origin to the
point r 2iˆ ˆj m. The work done (in J) on the particle is :
(A) + 13 (B) + 10 (C) + 7 (D) – 7
3. A uniform chain of length 2m is kept on a table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from
the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the
entire chain on the table ?
(A) 3.6 J (B) 7.2 J (C) 1200 J (D) 120 J
4. A projectile is thrown with velocity u at an angle above the horizontal. Find the average
velocity during the time of ascent
u sin u
(A) u cos (B) (C) 1 3 cos2 (D) None of these
2 2
5. A block of mass m is attached with a spring in its natural length, A
m a
of spring constant k. The other end A of spring is moved with a
constant acceleration ‗a‘ away from the block as
shown in the figure. Find the maximum extension in the spring. Assume that initially block and
spring is at rest w.r.t ground frame
ma 1 ma 2ma 4ma
(A) (B) (C) (D) .
k 2 k k k
6. A balloon B is moving vertically upward and viewed by a B
telescope T. At a particular angular position = 53° measured
dr d
parameters are r = 1 km, 3m / s and 0.02 rad / s. The
dt dt r
magnitude of the linear velocity of the balloon at this instant is
(A) 1.2 m/s (B) 2.4 m/s = 53°
T
(C) 3.6 m/s (D) 4.8 m/s
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7. Width of a river is 60 m. A swimmer wants to C B
cross the river such that he reaches from A to B
directly. Point B is 45 m ahead of line AC
(perpendicular to river) Assume speed of river River Flow
and speed of swimmer as equal. Swimmer must
try to swim at angle with line AC. Value of is A
(A) 37º (B) 53º (C) 30º (D) 16º
8. Find minimum value of the angle so that block of mass m does not F m
move on rough surface, whatever may be the value of applied force F.
The coefficient of state friction between the block and surface is . ()Rou
ghSurface
1 1
(A) tan1() (B) tan1 () (C) cot1() (D) cot 1 ()
2 2
Speed (ms-1)
up another inclined plane P2. What can you say about the
10 P2
steepness of P1 and P2 from the information given in the figure ? P1
(A) P1 is steeper than P2
D E C
(B) P2 is steeper than P1 0
20 50 100
(C) P1 and P2 are equally steep
Time (s)
(D) Nothing can be said about the relative steepness of P1 and P2
as the information given is insufficient
11. A spring and block is placed on a fixed smooth wedge as shown. Block
Following conclusion can be drawn about block. m
(i) magnitude of its momentum will be max when Fnet on block is
zero
(ii) its kinetic energy will be max when Fnet on block is zero Spring
(iii) KE of block is max when block just touches the spring. Fix Wedge
(iv) net force on block is maximum when KE = 0
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
Space For Rough Work
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12. In the figure, if F = 4 N, m = 2kg, M = 4 kg then
k=0
.08
z
2
(A) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m / s2 F
3 =0
.1
m
=0
(B) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is 1.2 m/s2
s
M
(C) Acceleration of M is 0.4 m/s2 G
ro
und
2
(D) Acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m / s2
3
x t3
13. A particle moves along positive branch of the curve y where x , x and y are
2 3
measured in metres and t in seconds, then :
1
(A) The velocity of particle at t = 1 s is ˆi ˆj
2
1ˆ ˆ
(B) The velocity of particle at t = 1 s is i j
2
(C) The acceleration of particle at t = 1 s is 2iˆ ˆj
(D) The acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is ˆi 2jˆ
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SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
2. In a car race, car A takes 4 seconds less than car B to reach the finish line and passes the
finishing line with velocity v more than car B. Assume cars start from rest and travel with
constant acceleration aA = 4 m/s2 and aB = 1 m/s2. Find the value of v in m/s.
m2
4. A ball is projected from some height with initial horizontal speed 20 m/s
20 m/s. There is a wall at a horizontal separation of 100 m from
the building. If collision is perfectly elastic find the time in sec
after which it will hit the wall. (t = 0 is taken when ball is thrown).
All surfaces one smooth. 100 m
y
5. Figure shows a smooth cylindrical pulley of radius R with centre at origin
of co-ordinates. An ideal thread is thrown over it on the two parts of ideal
thread two identical masses are tied initially at rest with co-ordinates (R, 0)
and (-R, -R) respectively. If mass at x-axis is given a slight upward jerk, it
leaves contact with pulley at (R cos, Rsin). Then find /sin. m x
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PARTII : CHEMISTRY
SECTIONA
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is
1. The distance between 3rd and 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom is
(A) 2.646108 cm (B) 2.116108 cm (C) 2.646 cm (D) 0.529 cm
2. H–B–H bond angle in BH4 is:
(A) 180° (B) 120° (C) 109° (D) 90°
6. Out of the following, which does not have zero dipole moment is
(A) CO2 (B) CCl4 (C) BCl3 (D) NH3
8. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively.
The element is likely to be (IP ionization potential)
(A) Na (B) Si (C) K (D) Ca
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9. 12.25 g KClO3 on heating gives enough O2 to react completely with H2 produced by the action
of the Zn on dilute H2SO4.
2KClO3 2KCl 3O2 , H2SO4 Zn ZnSO4 H2 , 2H2 O2 2H2O
The weight of Zn required for this is: [At.wt of Zn = 65.5]
(A) 9.825 g (B) 19.65 g (C) 39.3 g (D) 8.5 g
10. 2 moles of FeSO4 in acid medium are oxidised by x moles of KMnO4 , whereas 2 moles of
FeC2O4 in acid medium are oxidised by y moles of KMnO4 . The ratio of x and y is:
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 4 5
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
11. Which of the following statement is correct regarding H2O2?
(A) it has open booklike structure
(B) it is both an oxidizing as well as reducing agent
(C) it is a bleaching agent
(D) it acts as only oxidizing agent
P PV 1/ P V
13. Which of the following pairs will not diffuse at the same rate through porous plug at same
conditions of temperature and pressure?
(A) CO & NO2 (B) NO2 & CO2 (C) NH3 & PH3 (D) CO2 & N2O
14. A gas obeys the equation P(V-b) = RT. Which of the following is/are correct about the graphs
of gas?
R
(A) The isochoric curves have slope =
V b
R
(B) The isobaric curves have slope = and intercept b.
P
Pb
(C) For the gas compressibility factor = 1+
RT
Pb
(D) For the gas compressibility factor = 1
RT
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15. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia:
(A) Shows blue colour
(B) Exhibits electrical conductivity
(C) Shows reducing properties
(D) Shows oxidizing properties
SECTIONC
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. 1 g of an acid (Molar mass = 150 g/mol) is completely neutralized by 1.5 g KOH. Calculate the
number of neutralizable protons in acid.
2. Find out the number of angular nodes in the orbital to which the last electron of Cr enter.
3. According to molecular orbital theory, the number of electrons present in the antibonding
molecular orbitals of N2 is (are)
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PART – III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In a triangle ABC, A(2, 4) and internal angular bisector of B & C are y = x & 2x + y = 3, then
find the equation of BC
(A) x = 2 (B) y = 2 (C) x + y = 2 (D) none of these
2. Find the equation of minimum radius of that circle which contain all free circles S 1, S2 & S3
where S1 x2 + y2 = 1, S2 (x – 2)2 + y2 = 9, S3 (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 4
(A) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y = 2 (B) x2 + y2 + 2x + 2y = 9
(C) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y = 9 2 (D) none of these
0.10.010.001.............
The value of 0.05
log
3. 20
is
1 1
(A) 81 (B) (C) 20 (D)
81 20
4. The equation of the bisector of the acute angle between the lines 2x – y + 4 = 0 and x – 2y = 1
is :
(A) x + y + 5 = 0 (B) x – y + 1 = 0 (C) x – y = 5 (D) x – y + 5 = 0
5. The maximum value of 27cos 2x 81sin 2x is
(A) 32 (B) 35 (C) 37 (D) 3
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6. The pair of straight lines joining the origin to the common points of x2 + y2 = 4 and y = 3x + c
are perpendicular, if c2 =
(A) – 1 (B) 6 (C) 13 (D) 20
8. |x + 1| + |x − 2| > 3
(A) (−, −1) (2, ) (B) (2, ) (C) (−1, 2) (D) none of these
area of PQR.
Q R
(A) 2 3 (B) 3
3
(C) (D) none of these A
F
B
2
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SECTION – A
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
11. In a ABC
(A) sinA.sinB.sinC 3 3 / 8 (B) sin2 A sin2 B sin2 C 9 / 4
(C) sinAsinBsinC is always positive (D) sin2 A sin2 B 1 cosC
n n
cos A cosB sin A sinB
12. sin A sinB cos A cosB (n, even or odd) is equal to
A B A B
(A) 2 tann (B) 2cot n (C) 0 (D) none of these
2 2
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SECTION – C
(Integer Answer Type)
This Section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
1. A(0, 0), B(2, 1) and C(3, 0) are the vertices of a triangle ABC, and BD is its altitude. The line
through D parallel to the side AB intersects the side BC at a point K. If the product of the areas
of the triangle ABC and BDK is k, then the value of 2k is
2. If sin x sin2 x 1 then the value of cos2 x cos4 x cot 4 x cot 2 x is equal to
5. Let the co-ordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle whose vertices are A(5, – 1), B(–1, 5)
and C(6, 6) is (a, b) then [a + b] is (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
BATCHES: TWO YEAR CRP (1315)-Advance-(B LOT)
PHASE TEST-I (PAPER-1) Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET-A
PART – I (PHYSICS) PART – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – III (MATHS)
SECTION-A SECTION – A SECTION-A
1. A
1. B 1. B
2. C
2. C
2. C 3. C
3. A
3. A 4. A
4. A
4. C 5. A
5. B
5. C 6. D
6. D
6. C 7. B
7. A
7. D 8. B
8. A
8. C 9. B
9. B
9. A 10. A
10. A
10. A 11. A,B,C
11. A,B,C,D
11. A, B, D 12. A,B,D
12. B,C
12. B, C 13. A,B,C
13. A,B,C,D
13. A, C 14. ABC
14. A,B,C
14. A, B, C 15. A,B,C
15. A,C
15. A, B, C SECTION–C
SECTION-C
SECTION-C 1. 4
2. 2 1. 1
1. 2
3. 5 2. 2
2. 8
4. 2 3. 0
3. 4
5. 5 4. 8
4. 5
5. 5
5. 2
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HINT & SOLUTIONS
P
PA RTT –– II :: P
AR PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
1. B
2. C
F.r
= 10 – 3 = 7
3. A
(1.2) (10) (0.3)
4. C
Rˆ
i Hjˆ
2
| v av |
T
2
5. C
From work energy in the frame which is attached to point A
1 1 1
max xm k xm2
m(0)2 m(0)2
2 2 2
2ma
xmax .
k
6. C
y = r sin
dy dr d
sin cos .r 3.6m / s
dt dt dt
7. D vR
45
tan = 37° 53º
60
since, VS = VR, vS
37º
53° = + 37°
= 16°.
8. C
Fcos N …..(A)
N Fsin mg …..(B)
By (A) and (B)
Fcos Fsin mg
Fcos Fsin mg
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F(cos sin ) mg
if F is . Hence cos sin 0
= cot1()
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9. A
y1 = 9.8t 4.9t2
y2 = 9.8 (t5) 4.9 (t5)2
y1 = y2 gives t = 12.5
10. A
Acceleration = slope of v/t graph = g sin is greater for P1 where is angle of inclined plane.
11. A, B, D
12. B, C
m
Here F smg 1
M
For m
F kmg m.a
For M
kmg MA
A 0.4m / s2
13. A, C
dx
t2 …(i)
dt
1 t3
y
23
dy t 2
…(ii)
dt 2
1
t = 1, vx = 1, vy =
2
1
v ˆi ˆj
2
d2 x
2t …(iii)
dt 2
d2 y
t …(iv)
dt 2
at t = 1 s ax = 2 and ay = 1
a 2iˆ ˆj .
14. A, B, C
If the tendency of relative motion along the common tangent does not exist, then component
of contact force along common tangent will be zero.
15. A, B, C
For particle ‗P‘
(T1 T2 )cos 30 mL cos 302
T1 sin 30 T2 sin 30 mg.
SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
1. 2
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2. 8
2S 2S
4
aB aA
2aAS 2aBS v
v 8m / s.
3. 4
Applying work energy theorem m1
Kf – Ki = w
1 1
m2v 2 m1(4v)2
2 2
m2g y m1g(4y)
v = 4 m/s. T
m2 v
mg
4. 5
Horizontal velocity of ball will not change
100 = 20 t
t = 5 sec.
5. 2
mgR – mg R sin = ½ (2m)v2 …. (i)
mv2/R = mg sin … (ii)
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P
PA RTT –– II :: C
AR CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
1. A
r = r3r2 = r09 r04
r = 5r0 = 50.0529108 = 2.646108 cm
2. C
Hybridization in BH4 is sp3, hence bond angle in 109
3. C
Latlic energy in inversely propotional to size
4. A
Noble gases have more radii than halogen in respective periods
5. A
3
KE = RT ; T = – 123 + 273 = + 150 K
2
3 3
R 150 8.314 75 = xJ = 225 8.314 = xJ
2 2
At 27°C = 27+ 223 = 300K
3
KE for = 2x Joule = 8.314 300
2
N molecules
x Joule = 3 8.314 75
In both the cases x Joules correspond to N molecules.
6. D
NH3 does not have zero dipole moment
7. B
Probability density 2
0
e
(r2 0) 2
e2
(r2 1) 2
e
2
8. B
There is large difference between 4th and 5th IP, hence element should contain four valence
electrons.
9. B
3 12.25
Moles of O2 produced = 3/2 moles of KClO3 = 0.15 mole
2 122.5
According to given equation
One moles of O2 required 2 mole of H2 = 2 moles of Zn
Moles of Zn = 2moles of O2=0.152=0.3 mole
Mass of Zn require = 0.365.5 = 19.65 g
10. A
nfactor of FeSO4 1
nfactor of FeC2O4 3
Hence geq. of FeSO4 g e.q of KMnO4
12 = 5x (1)
geq. of FeC2O4 = geq of KMnO4
32 = 5y
Hence x/y = 1/3
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
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11. A,B,C
H2O2 is both oxidising and reducing agent
12. A,B,D
1
According to Boyle‘s law P or PV cons tan t
V
13. A,B,C
1
Rate of diffusion
M
CO2 and N2O have same molar mass = 44 g/mol
14. ABC
P(V b) RT
PV Pb RT
PV Pb
Z 1
RT RT
15. A,B,C
Solution of alkali metal in liquid ammonia shows blue colour, exhibit electrical conductivity and
show reducing property
SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
1. 4
geq. of acid = geq. of base
1 1.5
n
150 56
n=4
2. 2
Last electron of Cr enters in dsubshell, hence l=2
3. 5
Electronic configuration of N2 is
1s2 1s2 2s2 2s22px22py22pz2 2px1
4. 2
geq. of H2O2 = geq. of KMnO4
17 2 a
a 5M
100 34 1000
M = 2 molar
5. 5
Balance equation is
2FeCl3 + H2S 2FeCl2 + S + 2HCl
x+y+z=5
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SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
MATHEMATICS
1. B
Take the reflection of A about internal angular bisector of B & C lie on the line BC.
2. C
For centre - find the circumcentre of the centres S1, S2 & S3,
For radius - find the circum radius from the centres S1, S2 & S3 and add the maximum radius
of the circles S1, S2 & S3 in the circum radius.
3. A
Use the log properties
4. A
2x – y + 4 = ( x – 2y 1)
For acute angle bisector use + sign
5. B
33cos2x+4sin2x
Then maximum value is 35
6. D
Use the homogenization
7. A
Lines are x = 2 and x = 6, y = 5, and y = 9
Then centre is (4, 7)
8. A
9. B
3
Area = 22
4
10. A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
11. A,B,C,D
1 1
sin2 A sin2 B sin2 C (1 cos2 A) (1 cos2 B) sin2 C
2 2
2 cos2 C cosC.cos(A B)
2 (cos2 C cosC)
2
9 1
cosC sin2A + sin2A+sin2C 9/4
4 2
sin2 A sin2 B sin2 C
Now (sin2 A.sin2 B.sin2 C)1/ 3
3
9/4 3 3
(sin A.sinB.sinC)2 / 3 or sin A.sinB.sinC
3 8
also sin A sin B sin C 2 cos C cosC
2 2 2 2
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Points can be calculated by the internal and external section formula using centres of both the
circles and slope can be calculated by using the condition of tangency.
14. A,B,C
Use the internal and external touching condition of two circles.
15. A,C
9x 1 7
log2 x 1 2
3 1
32x2 + 7 = 4(3x1 + 1)
(3x 1 1)(3x 1 3) 0
x 1 = 0 or x 1 = 1 x = 1, 2.
SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
1. 1
Calculate the area of ABC and BDK then multiply these two
2. 2
Given sin x + cos x + tan x + cot x + sec x + cosec x = 7
1 sin x cos x
sin x cos x 7
sin x cos x sin x cos x
1 1
sin x cos x 1 7
sin x cos x sin x cos x
2 2
1 sin 2x 1
2 2
7 sin x
sin 2x
1 t t 2 7t 2 , where t = sin 2x
2 2
t3 44t 2 36t 0
t 2 44t 36 0 [sin 2x 0]
44 442 4 36
t 22 8 7 sin2x 22 8 7
2
3. 0
Given cos 1 2cos 2 3cos 3 6
cos 1 cos 2 cos 3 1
1 2 3 0
tan 1 tan 2 tan 3 0
4. 8
Use the log property.
5. 5
Circum centre can be calculated by using the perpendicular bisectors of vertices of the
triangle.
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FIITJEE
BATCHES – Two Year CRP (1315)-Advance (B Lot)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
G. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are
not allowed.
Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the
first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct
answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks
will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.
(iii) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and
each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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Useful Data Chemistry:
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck‘s Constant h = 6.626 10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Pb=207, Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6
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P
PA RTT –– II :: P
AR PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A cubical box of wine has a small spout located in one of the bottom
corners. When the box is full and placed on a level surface, opening
the spout results in a flow of wine with a initial speed of v0 (see
figure). When the box is half empty, someone tilts it at 45° so that the
spout is at the lowest point (see figure). When the spout is opened
the wine will flow out with a speed of
(A) v0 (B) v0/2
4
(C) v 0 2 (D) v 0 2
2. A vertical tank, open at the top, is filled with a liquid and rests on a smooth horizontal surface. A small
hole is opened at the centre of one side of the tank. The area of cross-section of the tank is N times the
area of the hole, where N is a large number. Neglect mass of the tank itself. The initial acceleration of the tank
is
g g
(A) (B)
2N 2N
g g
(C) (D)
N 2 N
4. A cone of radius r and height h rests on a rough horizontal surface, the coefficient of friction between
the cone and the surface being µ. A gradually increasing horizontal force F is applied to the vertex of
the cone. The largest value of µ for which the cone will slide before it topples is
r 2r
(A) (B)
2h 5h
r r
(C) (D)
h h
Space for Rough Work
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5. A sphere of mass M and radius R is attached by a light rod of length l to a
point P. The sphere rolls without slipping on a circular track as shown. It
is released from the horizontal position. the angular momentum of the
system about P when the rod becomes vertical is :
10 10 2
(A) M gl [l R] (B) M gl l 5 R
7 7
10 7
(C) M gl l 5 R (D) none of the above
7
Two particles of equal mass have velocities 2iˆ ms and 2ˆj ms . First particle has an acceleration
–1 –1
6.
(iˆ ˆj) ms while the acceleration of the second particle is zero. The centre of mass of the two particles
–2
moves in
(A) circle (B) parabola
(C) ellipse (D) straight line
7. A billiard table whose length and width are as shown in the figure. A ball
is placed at point A. At what angle θ the ball be projected so that after
colliding with two walls, the ball will fall in the pocket B. Assume that all
collisions are perfectly elastic (neglect friction)
2a c 2a c
(A) cot 1 (B) tan1
2b 2b
c a c a
(C) cot 1 (D) cot 1
2b b
8. A force exerts an impulse I on a particle changing its speed from u to 2u. The applied force and the
initial velocity are oppositely directed along the same line. The work done by the force is
3 1
(A) Iu (B) Iu
2 2
(C) I u (D) 2 I u
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(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
10. Two identical balls are interconnected with a massless and inextensible thread. The system is in gravity
free space with the thread just taut. Each ball is imparted a velocity v, one towards the other ball and
the other perpendicular to the first, at t = 0. Then,
(A) the thread will become taut at t = (L/v)
(B) the thread will become taut at some time t < (L/v).
(C) the thread will always remain taut for t > (L/v).
2
(D) the kinetic energy of the system will always remain mv .
11. In the figure shown, the plank is being pulled to the right with a
constant speed v. If the cylinder does not slip then:
(A) the speed of the centre of mass of the cylinder is 2v.
(B) the speed of the centre of mass of the cylinder is zero.
(C) the angular velocity of the cylinder is v/R.
(D) the angular velocity of the cylinder is zero.
12. Two particles move on a circular path (one just inside and the other just outside) with angular velocities
ω and 5ω starting from the same point. Then
2
(A) they cross each other at regular intervals of time when their angular velocities are oppositely
4
directed.
(B) they cross each other at points on the path subtending an angle of 60° at the centre if their angular
velocities are oppositely directed.
(C) they cross at intervals of time if their angular velocities are oppositely directed.
3
(D) they cross each other at points on the path subtending 90° at the centre if their angular velocities
are in the same sense.
Space for Rough Work
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Part B
Matrix – Match Type
1. Two bodies A and B are allowed to roll without slipping on a rough inclined plane. Column I shows
some of the physical quantities associated with their motions while Column II gives you the relation
between a physical quantity for two different bodies. Match the entries of Column I with Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Time taken by two bodies to travel a (p) Same if A and B have the same shape and
distance ‗s‘ on the incline would be size but are of different material.
(B) Friction force experienced by two bodies (q) Different if A and B are of same size and
during their motion would be same mass but having different shape.
(C) Velocity acquired by A and B after traveling (r) Same if bodies have same size but different
through a distance ‗s‘ would be shapes and mass.
(D) Acceleration of COM of A and B would be (s) Different if bodies have same size but
different shapes and mass.
(t) Same irrespective of their size, shape and
mass.
2. Net force on a system of particles in ground frame is zero. In each situation of Column I a statement is
given regarding this system. Match the statements in Column I with results in Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Acceleration of COM of system in ground (p) Is constant.
frame.
(B) Net momentum of system in ground frame. (q) Is zero.
(C) Net momentum of system in the CM frame. (r) May be zero.
(D) Kinetic energy of system in the CM frame. (s) May be constant.
(t) Depends on internal forces.
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SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1. A particle of mass 0.5 kg is rotating in a circular path of radius 2m and centripetal force on it is
9 Newtons. What is its angular momentum (in J-sec) about the centre of circle?
2. A ring of mass m and radius R has three particles attached to the ring as
shown in the figure. The centre of the ring has a speed v0. The kinetic
energy of the system is Kmv 02 (Slipping is absent). Find K
3. In a one-dimensional collision, a particle of mass 2m collides with a particle of mass m at rest. If the
particles stick together after the collision, then 1/n th fraction of the initial kinetic energy is lost in the
collision. Find n
4. A particle of mass "m" is projected from ground with a speed of 50 m/s at an angle of 53° with the
horizontal. It breaks up into two equal parts at the highest point of the trajectory. One of the particles
came to rest immediately after the explosion. The radii of curvatures of the moving particle just after the
explosion will be how many times of that of the particle just before the explosion.
3 3
5. A large tank is filled with water (density = 10 kg/m ). A small hole is
made at a depth 10 m below water surface. The range of water coming
out of the hole is R on ground. What extra pressure (in atm) must be
applied on the water surface so that the range becomes 2R (take 1 atm
5 2
= 10 Pa and g = 10 m/s ):
6. A container whose bottom has round holes with diameter 0.1 mm is filled with water. The maximum
height (in m) upto which water can be filled without leakage is h/10. Find h.
–3 2
Surface tension = 75 × 10 N/m and g = 10 m/s :
Space for Rough Work
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P
PA RTT –– IIII :: C
AR CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2. Inorgnaic Benzene (Borozine) is more reactive than that of Benzene is due to:
(A) Electronegativity difference in B and N
(B) Non-aromatic character of inorganic benzene
(C) due to non planar structure of inorganic benzene
(D) all of these
–5
3. At 25°C, a saturated solution of BaSO4 is 3.9 × 10 M. What is its solubility in 0.1 M Na2SO4 solution?
–9 –8
(A) 1.5 × 10 M (B) 1.5 × 10 M
–7 –9
(C) 2.4 × 10 M (D) 2.5 × 10 M
–7 –11
4. Calculate the pH of 0.1 M solution of NaHCO3; K1 = 4 × 10 M, K2 = 5 × 10
[Given log 2 = 0.3, log 5 = 0.7]
(A) 8.35 (B) 10.2
(C) 9.25 (D) 7.0
Space for Rough Work
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5. Which of the following does not work as a Buffer solution?
(A) Na2B4O7 Solution
(B) NaHCO3 / NaOH
(C) NH4Cl (0.1M, 500 ml) + NaOH (0.01M, 500 ml)
(D) All of them
6. What can be concluded about the values of H and S from this graph?
+100
+50
G kJ mol–1
–50
–100
–5 –1
7. The rate constant for the reaction 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2 is 3 × 10 s .
–5 –1 –1 –1
If the rate is 2.4 × 10 mol L s , then the concentration of N2O5 is (in mol L )
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.2
(C) 0.8 (D) 0.04
8. In Van der W aal‘s equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular
forces is
(A) (V – b) (B) RT
a
( C) P 2
-1
( D) ( RT )
V
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(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
10. For which of the following reactions, the degree of dissociation cannot be calculated from the vapour
density data
(A) 2HI(g)
H (g) I (g) (B) 2NH3 (g) N2 (g) 3H2 (g)
2 2
(C) 2NO(g) N2 (g) O2 (g) (D) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) Cl2 (g)
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Part B
Matrix – Match Type
1.
Column I Column II
(A) AlCl3 (p) Also exist as dimer
(B) BH3 (q) Hydrolyzed in water.
(C) (BN)x (r) Lewis acid.
(D) H3BO3 (s) Graphite like structure.
2.
Column I Column II
(A) Isothermal reversible process (p) Suniv. 0
(B) Adiabatic reversible process (q) Suniv. 0
(C) Adiabatic irreversible process (r) v2
Ssystem nRln
v1
(D) Isothermal irreversible process (s) T2 v
Ssystem nCv ln nRln 2 0
T1 v1
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SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
2. Amongst the following the total numbers of compounds whose aqueous solution turns red litmus paper
blue is KCN, K2SO4, (NH4)2C2O4, NaCl, Zn(NO3)2, FeCl3, K2CO3, NH4NO3, HCN
3. The pressure necessary to obtain 50% dissociation of PCl5 at 400 K is numerically equal to ‗x‘ times of
Kp, x is
5. Ratio of the rate of diffusion of He and CH4 under identical condition of P and T will be.
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P
PA RTT –– IIIIII :: M
AR MAATTH
HEEM
MAATTIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1 1
1. If tn denotes the nth term of an AP and t p and t q , then which of the following is necessarily a
q p
2
root of the equation (p + 2q – 3r)x + (q + 2r – 3p)x + (r + 2p – 3q) = 0 is
(A) tp (B) tq
(C) tpq (D) tp + q
3 2
2. If the roots of the equation x + bx + cx + 1 = 0 form an increasing G.P., then which of the following
statements is true?
(A) b = c
(B) b ϵ ( –∞, –2)
(C) one of the root is 1
(D) one of the roots is smaller than 1 and one root is more than 1
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2
5. If the distance of two points P and Q from the focus of a parabola y = 4ax are 4 and 9 respectively,
then the distance of the point of intersection of tangents at P and Q from the focus is:
(A) 8 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 13
2 2
6. The centroid of the triangle formed by the feet of co-normal points on the curve 25x + 25y – 250x –
2
300y + 1525 = (3x + 4y – 12) lies on the line:
(A) 4x – 3y + 1 = 0 (B) 4x – 3y – 2 = 0
(C) 4x – 3y + 3 = 0 (D) None of these
7. In a shop oranges are arranged in the shape of complete pyramid. The base of which is an equilateral
triangle of 10 oranges in each side, the total number of oranges in the complete pyramid will be
(A) 230 (B) 260
(C) 220 (D) 360
2 2 2
8. If 25(9x + y ) + 9z – 15(5xy + yz + 3zx) = 0 and x + y + z = 18, then y can be
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 10 (D) 12
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(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
2 2
9. If a, b are the real roots of x + px + 1 = 0 and c, d are the real roots of x + qx + 1 = 0, then
(a – c)(b –c)(a + d)(b + d) is divisible by
(A) a + b + c + d (B) a + b – c – d
(C) a – b + c – d (D) a – b – c – d
2i
10. The reflection of the complex number , (where i 1 ) in the straight line z(1 + i) = z(i 1) is
3i
1 i 1 i
(A) (B)
2 2
i(i 1) 1
(C) (D)
2 1 i
2
3 2 3 4
11. If S = {a1, a2, a3, a4} where no element is zero and if ai x 2 2x aiai1 ai 0 , then a1,
i1 i1 i2
a2, a3, a4 are in
(A) A.P. (B) G.P.
(C) if a1 = a2, then a3 = a4 (D) all (A), (B), (C)
2 2
12. If the equation of the parabola is x + y – 2xy + 4x – 2y + 1= 0, then
5
(A) Axis is 2x – 2y + 5 = 0 (B) Tangent at vertex is 2x 2y 0
4
1 11 3 15
(C) Vertex is , (D) Focus is ,
8 8 8 8
Space for Rough Work
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Part B
Matrix – Match Type
Column I Column II
(A) (x – a)(x – c)+ λ(x – b)(x – d) = 0, (λ ≠ 0) (p) Has two root between (a, c)
(B) 1 1 1 1 (q) Has two roots between (b, d)
0
x a x b x c x d
(C) 2 3 (r) Has one root between (a, c)
0
(x a)(x c) (x b)(x d)
(D) 2 3 4 5 (s) Has one root between (b, d)
0
(x a) (x b) (x c) (x d)
2.
Column I Column II
(A) If P(1, 1), Q(4, 2) and R(x, 0) be three points such (p) 1
that PR + RQ is minimum, then x is equal to
(B) The area bounded by the curves max {│x│, │y│} = (q) 2
1 is equal to
(C) The number of circles that touch all the three lines (r) 3
2x – y = 5, x + y = 3 and 4x – 2y = 7 is equal to
(D) If the point (a, a) lies between the lines │x + y│ = 6, (s) 4
then [│a│] can be equal to, ([.] represents the
integral part)
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SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
2
1. The number of solutions of 2 loge 2x = loge(7x – 2 – 2x ) is
2. TP and TQ are any two tangents to a parabola and the tangent at a third point R cuts them in P‘ and
TP' TQ'
Q‘, then the value of must be
TP TQ
1 4
3. If mi , , mi > 0, i = 1, 2, 3, 4 are four distinct points on a circle, the value of m i must be
mi i 1
4. In a ΔABC, A = (α, β), B = (1, 2), C = (2, 3) and point A lies on the line y = 2x + 3, where α, β ϵ I. If the
area of ΔABC be such that [Δ] = 2, where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then the number of
all possible coordinates of A must be
2
5. The area of a quadrilateral formed by a pair of tangents from the point (4, 5) to the circle (x – 2) + (y –
2
1) = 16 with a pair of radii where tangents touch the circle is λ square unit, then λ must be
z1 2z 2
6. z1 and z2 are two complex numbers such that is unimodular, while z2 is not unimodular, then
2 z1z2
│z1│ must be equal to
Space for Rough Work
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
BATCHES: TWO YEAR CRP (1315)-Advance-(B LOT)
PHASE TEST-II (PAPER-2) Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET-A
PART – I (PHYSICS) PART – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – III (MATHS)
SECTION-A SECTION – A SECTION – A
1. D 1. C
1. D
2. A 2. A
2. C
3. B 3. D
3. C
4. A 4. C
4. C
5. B 5. B
5. D
6. A 6. B
6. D
7. C 7. C
7. A
8. 8. B
8. B
9. B, C 9. A, B
9. D
10. A, C 10. C
10. A, C
11. B, C, D 11. B, C
11. B, C
12. B, C, D 12. C
12. B, C, D
SECTION-B SECTION-B
SECTION-B
1. A→ (p, q, r), B → (p, q, r), 1. A → (r, s), B → (p, q),
1. A → (p, q, s), B → (q, s),
C → s, D → (r, q) C → ((r, s), D → (p, q)
C → (p, q, s), D → (p, q, s)
2. A→ (p, r), B → (p), 2. A → (q), B → (s),
2. A → (p, q), B → (p, r),
C → (q, s), D → (q, r, s) C → ((q), D → (p, q)
C → (p, q), D → (r, s, t)
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HINT & SOLUTIONS
P
PA RTT –– II :: P
AR PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
1. D
If a is the side length then v 0 2ga . (Before)
a 2ga v0
and v ' 2g 1
4
. (After)
2 4 2
2
2. C
v 2g g Na
2 2
2
So, FT = ρav = ρag v
a
FT ag g
So, acceleration of tank =
M (Na) N
3. C
2 y
L
M
ML2
For a perfect square Iz
2
6 12
2
ML
So, Ix Iy Iz Iy x
24 L
L
2
4. C
mg
5. D
1 1 10 v
From C.O.E. mg mv CM 2
IC 2 v CM g and C
2 2 7 R
LP LC,P LC IC mv C
10 2
LP M g R
7 5
6. D
1
v CM ˆi ˆj and aCM ˆi ˆj
2
Since v CM and aCM are parallel. So motion will be along a straight line.
7. A
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x bx b a
ay
From fig., tan y
ac y ay
bx
2(a c)b
Solving we get x
2a c
x 2b b x
tan
a c 2a c
ac c
8. B
I
I = p = 2mu + mu m
3u
1 1 1
Now W K m(2u) mu2 Iu
2
2 2 2
9. D
10. A, C
11. B, C
12. B, C, D
v1 = ωR and v2 = 5ωR v1,2 6R . If ω1 and ω2 is in opposite direction.
2R 2R
So, T
v1,2 6R 3
So, T 60
3
If ω1 and ω2 is in same direction then v1,2 = 4ωR
T T 90 .
2 2
SECTION-B
1. A → (p, q, s), B → (q, s), C → (p, q, s), D → (p, q, s)
mgsinθ – fr = maC fr
fr R = Iα and aC = Rα
mgsin mgsin
Solving aC and g
I I
m 2 mR
R R
Imgsin
fr
I
mR
R
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1 1 mgsin 2
S aC t 2 t
2 2 I
m 2
R
aC depends on shape and size.
fr depends on mass, shape and size.
vC depends on shape and size.
SECTION-C
1. 6
mv 2
FC v 6 m/s, L = mvR = 6
R
2. 6
vP v 0 ˆi v 0 ˆj and v Q 2v 0 ˆi
m
vR v 0 ˆi v 0 ˆj Q
1 1 1 2 1 2 1 2
K.E. mv 02 I2 m vP m v Q 2m vR 6mv 2
0 R v0
2 2 2 2 2 2m P m
y
x
3. 3
2v
2mv 3mv ' v '
3
1 1 1
Now k (2m)v 2 (3m)v '2 mv 2
2 2 3
1
Fraction = .
3
4. 4
m
At highest point mu cos 53° = v v 2ucos53
2
(ucos53)2
Before explosion R1
g
(2ucos53)2
After explosion R2
g
R2 = 4R1.
5. 3
From Bernoulli‘s theorem, v 2gh when range is R.
If R becomes 2R then 2v ,
1
so Pext gh (2v)2 Pext 2v 2 gh 3gh 3 atm.
2
6. 3
Pressure inside the hole= P0 + ρgh. And outside the hole = P0
2T
And from excess pressure inside a drop =
r
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2T 2T 3
gh h 0.3
r gr 10
P
PA RTT –– IIII :: C
AR CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
SECTION – A
1. D
2. A
3. B
[Ba ] = [SO24 ] 3.9 105 M unsaturated aqueous solution.
2+
5. B
6. A
On temperature increase, ΔG becomes negative
ΔH = +ve and ΔS = –ve because on increasing the temperature TΔS > ΔH.
And ΔG becomes –ve.
7. C
ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
3
= (–3 × 10 ) + (–1 × 2 × 300)
= –3600 Cal.
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = –3600 – [300(–10)] = –600 cal.
8. C
9. B, C
10. A, C
11. B, C, D
12. B, C, D
SECTION-B
1. A→ (p, q, r), B → (p, q, r), C → s, D → (r, q)
2. A→ (p, r, s), B → (p), C → (q, s), D → (q, r, s)
SECTION–C
1. 4
2. 3
KCN, K2CO3, HCN
3. 3
PCl5 PCl3 Cl2
2p
Kp
1 2
α = 0.5
K p (0.5)2
3
p 0.75
4. 5
Heat capacity, resistance, volume, enthalpy and Entropy.
5. 2
rHe MCH4 16
2.
rCH4 MHe 4
6. 2
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Be, Al
P
PA RTT –– IIIIII :: M
AR MAATTH
HEEM
MAATTIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
SECTION – A
1. C
1
a d tpq 1(For A.P).
pq
2. A
a
.a.ar 1 a 1 is a root.
r
b c
3. D
2 2
For z = x + iy, we get x = y .
4. C
z will lie on AB (line segment),
A(–3, 0) and B(1, 0).
Then 3 ≤│z – 4│≤ 7.
5. B
2
If tangents at P and Q meet at R, and S is focus then SP . SQ = SR .
6. B
The centroid always lie on the axis of the parabola, and parabola is,
2
3x 4y 12
(x 5)2 (y 6)2
5
Hence, S ≡ (5, 6) and Axis ≡ 4x – 3y – 2 = 0
7. C
Total number of oranges
= (1) + (1 + 2) + (1 + 2 + 3) + …… + (1 + 2 + ….. + 10)
10
n(n 1)
= 220
n 2
8. B
2 2 2 2
(15x – 5y ) + (5y – 3z) + (3z – 15x) = 0
x y z xyz
2
1 3 5 9
y 6.
9. A, B
2 2
(a – c)(b – c)(a + d)(b + d) = q – p .
10. C
1
If the reflection of z1 in the line az az c is z2, then az2 az1 c , and so in our case z2 (i 1) .
2
11. B, C
2 2 2
(a1x – a2) + (a2x – a3) + (a3x – a4) ≤ 0
a a a
1 2 3.
a 2 a3 a 4
12. A, C, D
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Parabola will be,
2 2
(x – y + L) = (2L – 4)x + (2 – 2L)y + (L – 1)
3
(where 2L – 4 = 2 – 2L L )
2
2
3 5
x y x y
2 4
3
Axis is x y 0
2
5
and tangent at vertex is x y 0
4
1 11
vertex , .
8 8
SECTION-B
1. A → (r, s), B → (p, q), C → ((r, s), D → (p, q)
a < b < c < d, let λ be +ve.
Let f(x) = (x – a)(x – c) + λ(x – b)(x – d) = 0
f(a) = +ve and f(b) = –ve, f(c) = –ve and f(d) = +ve.
All other parts can also be done in the same manner.
SECTION–C
1. 2
2. 1
Let the parabola be y = 4ax and coordinates of P and Q on this parabola are P at12 ,2at1
2
and
Q at ,2at 2 ; T is the point of intersection of tangents at t1 and t2,
2
2
3. 1
Let the equation of the circle be
2 2
x + y + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
1
Since the point mi lie on this circle
m i
1 2f
mi2 2 2gmi c 0
mi mi
mi4 2gmi3 cmi2 2fmi 1 0
Clearly its roots are m 1, m2, m3 and m4
1
m1m2m3m4
1
(Product of roots of biquadratic equation)
=1
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4. 4
5. 8
PA = length of tangent from
(4, 5) to the circle = S1
= {(4 2)2 (5 1)2 16} 2
Required area = 2 × area of Δ APC
1
= 2 PA PC
2
=2×4=8
6. 2
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FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)
PHASE – III
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet
and fill in the particulars carefully.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in
each part of equal weight age. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question. ¼ (one fourth)
marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if
no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as
wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room / Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
:_____________________________________________
______
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Section – 1 Physics
1. If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite just above the earth‘s surface is T and the
density of earth is , then T2 :
(A) is a universal constant whose value is 3
G
3
(B) is a universal constant whose value is
2G
(C) is proportional to radius of earth R
(D) is proportional to square of the radius of earth R2. Here G = universal gravitational
constant
2. A sphere of mass M and radius R1 has a concentric cavity of radius R2 as shown in figure. The
force F exerted by the sphere on a particle of mass m located at a distance r from the centre of
sphere varies as (0 r )
3. Four particles each of mass M moves along circle of radius ‗a‘ under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is
GM 2 2GM
(A) (B)
a a
GM 2 2 1 GM
(C) (D) (2 2 1)
a 4 a
4. Which of the following is not simple harmonic function?
(A) y = Asin 2t + Bcos 2t (B) y = Asin 2t + Bcos t
(C) y = (a2 b2 )1 2 sin t cost. (D) y = 1- 2sin t
2
k
5. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is f = in the x-direction where k is a
x3
constant taking the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity. The value of potential at the
distance X is :
k k k k
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x 2x x2 2x 2
6. When a satellite in a circular orbit around the earth enters the atmospheric region, it encounters
air resistance to its motion. Then
(A) it gains mechanical energy
(B) its kinetic energy increases.
(C) its kinetic energy decreases
(D) its angular momentum about the centre of the earth remains constant
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7. ve and vp denotes the escape velocity from the earth and another planet having twice the radius
and the same mean density as the earth. Then
vP vP
(A) ve = vp (B) ve = (C) ve = 2vp (D) ve =
2 4
8. A gas for which = 4/3, is heated at constant pressure. What percentage of the total heat
supplied is used up for external work?
(A) 12.5% (B) 25% (C) 35% (D) 70%
P
9. The figure shows two paths for the change of state of a gas
from A to B. The ratio of molar heat capacities of 2
path 1 and path 2 is A B
(a) > 1 (b) < 1 1
(c) 1 (d) data insufficient V
10. A process is said to be adiabatic if it satisfies ( has usual meaning) :
–1
(A) PV = constant (B) TV = constant (C) Q = 0 (D) All
11. An adiabatic container contains 4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at temperature T. Heat Q is
supplied to this gas, due to which 2 moles of the gas are dissociated into atoms but temperature
of the gas remains constant. Then:
(A) Q =2RT (B) Q = RT (C) Q = 3RT (D) Q = 4RT
12. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a process given by 2dU + 3dW = 0, then the process is :
(A) isobaric (B) adiabatic (C) isothermal (D) None of these
13. The temperature drop through a two layer furnace wall is 900°C. Each layer is of equal area of
cross section. Which of the following actions will result in lowering the temperature of the
interface?
14. Time period of a simple pendulum of length L is T1 and time period of a uniform rod of the
same length L pivoted about one end and oscillating in a vertical plane is T 2. Amplitude of
oscillations in both the cases is small. Then T1/T2 is :
4 3 1
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D)
3 2 3
15. Two particles are executing SHM in a straight line. Amplitude A and time period T of both the
particles are equal. At time t = 0, one particle is at displacement x 1 = + A and the other at
A
x2 and they are approaching towards each other. After what time they cross each other :
2
(A) T/3 (B) T/4 (C) 5T/6 (D) T/6
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16. Two masses M and m are suspended together by a massless spring of force constant k. When
the masses are in equilibrium, M is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude of
oscillation is :
Mg mg M m g M m g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
k k k k
17. The angular frequency of a spring block system is 0. This system is suspended from the
ceiling of an elevator moving downwards with a constant speed v0. The block is at rest relative
to the elevator. Lift is suddenly stopped. Assuming the downward as a positive direction,
choose the wrong statement :
v0
(A) The amplitude of the block is
0
(B) The initial phase of the block is
v0
(C) The equation of motion for the block is sin 0 t
0
(D) The maximum speed of the block is v0
18. A particle of mass 5×10–5 kg is placed at the lowest point of a smooth parabola having the
equation x2 = 40y(x, y in cm). If it is displaced slightly and it moves such that it is
constrained to move along the parabola, the angular frequency of oscillation will be,
approximately,
19. A particle starts SHM at time t = 0. Its amplitude is A and angular frequency is . At time t = 0
E
its kinetic energy is . Assuming potential energy to be zero at mean position, the
4
displacement-time equation of the particle can be written as (E = total mechanical energy of
oscillation) :
A
(A) x = cos (t + /6) (B) 2x = A sin (t + )
2 3
2
(C) 3x = A sin t (D) x = A cos (t - /6)
3
20. A light string is tied at one end to a fixed support and to a heavy string of equal length L at the
other end as shown in figure. A block of mass m is tied to the free end of heavy string. Mass
per unit length of the string are and 9 and the tension is T. Find the ratio of number of loops
n1 (In string of mass per unit length ) and n2 (In string of mass per unit length 9) such that
junction of two wire point A is a node.
23. The power radiated by a black body is P, and it radiates maximum energy around the wavelength 0. If
the temperature of black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy around a
3 0
wavelength , the new power radiated by it will be
4
4 16 64 256
(A) P (B) P (C) P (D) .P
3 9 27 81
24. A traveling wave in a stretched string is described by the equation Y = A sin (kx - t). The
maximum velocity of any particle will be:
(A) At mean position (B) at extreme position
(C) Somewhere between extreme and mean (D) can‘t say
26. When two simple harmonic motions of same periods, same amplitude, having phase difference
of 3/2, and at right angles to each other are super imposed, the resultant wave form is a :
(A) circle (B) parabola (C) ellipse (D) None of these
27. A wave represented by the equation y = a cos (kx – t) is superposed with another wave to
form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node. The equation of the other wave is :
(A) y‘ = a sin (kx + t) (B) y‘ = – a cos (kx – t)
28. Two travelling waves Y1 = A sin [k(x + ct)] and Y2 = A sin [k (x – ct)] are suspended on a
string. The distance between adjacent nodes is :
(A) ct/ (B) ct/2 (C) /2k (D) /k
29. If body A is placed in atmosphere of temperature 3T0, assume it follows Newton‘s law of
cooling & heating, then choose graph for TA – t (sec) Initial temp of A is T0.
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3T0
T0
(A) (B T
) 2T0
T
t t
3T0 3T0
(c) T (D)
T
T0 T0
t t
30. Three moles of an ideal monatomic gas performs a cycle P
1 2 3 4 1 as shown. The gas temperatures in 2 3
different states are T1 = 400 K, T2 = 800 K, T3 = 2400 K and
T4 = 1200 K. The work done by the gas during the cycle is
(a) 1200 R (b) 3600 R 1
(c) 2400 R (d) 2000 R 4
Section – 1I Chemistry
(1) In the following carbocations, the stability order is:
CH3
(I) RCH 2CH2 (II) C (III) C (III) CH2
CH3
O
O
O
(A) I>II>III>IV (B) IV>III>II>I
(C) II>III>I>IV (D) III>II>I>IV
(3) Among the following structures
CH3
H
C2 H5 CH C2H5
CH3 CH3 H C
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It is true that
(A) Only II and IV are chiral compounds (B) All four are chiral compounds
(C) Only I and II are chiral compounds (D) Only III is a chiral compound
(4) An alkene on oxidation ozonolysis gives adipic acid. The alkene is
(A) cyclohexene (B) 1-methylcyclopentene
(C) 1, 2 – dimethylcyclobutene (D) 3-hexene
(C) 1, 2 – dimethylcyclobutene (D) 3-hexene
(5) But-1-ene may be concerted to butane by reaction with
(A) Pd/H2 (B) Zn/HCl
(C) Sn/HCl (D) Zn-Hg
(6) Acetone will be formed by the ozonolysis of
(A) but-1-ene (B) but-2-ene
(C) iso butene (D) but-2-yne
(7) How many 1°carbon atom will be present in a simplest hydrocarbon having two 3° and one 2° carbon
atom?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
(10) Which of the following does not possess any element of symmetry?
(a) ethane (b) (+) tartaric acid
(c) carbon tetrachloride (d) meso tartaric acid
(11) Which of the following new man projection formula for 1, 2 - dichloro ethane represents the stable
staggered from ?
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl H H Cl H H
H
H H H H H H H H
(a) H (b) H (c) H (d) Cl
HO Et Et OH Et Me HO Et
HO Et Et OH Et Me HO Et
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CH3 O CF 3
H3C
I II III IV
(A) III > I > II > IV (B) IV > I > II > III
(C) II > I > IV > III (D) III > I > II > IV
(15) Arrange the following in correct activating order towards EAS
O
||
NR3 , NH2 , NHCOCH3 , O C CH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) II < I < III < IV (B) III < IV < II < I (C)I < IV < III < II (D) I < II < IV < III
(16) Which of the following species would be expected to exhibit aromatic character?
(A) I and IV (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) II and III
(17) The product of reaction between one mole of acetylene and two mole of HCHO in the presence of
Cu2Cl2 –
(A) HOCH2 C ≡ C – CH2OH (B) H2C = CH – C ≡ C – CH2OH
(C) HC ≡ C – CH2OH (D) None of these
Na / NH3
B R–CC–R A
Lindlar
(19)
A and B are geometrical isomers (R–CH=CH–R) –
(A) A is trans, B is cis (B) A and B both are cis
(C) A and B both are trans (D) A is cis, B is trans
(20) A compound (C5H8) reacts with ammonical AgNO3 to give a white precipitate and reacts with excess
of KMnO4 solution to give (CH3)2CH–COOH. The compound is –
(A) CH2=CH–CH=CH–CH3 (B) (CH3)2CH–CCH
(C) CH3(CH2)2CCH (D) (CH3)2C=C=CH2
BH / THF
3
H O
H 2O 2 / OH A
(22)
3
B
A and B are :
(C) (D)
(23) Mixture of one mole each of ethyne and propyne on reaction with Na will form H 2 gas at S.T.P. –
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(A) 22.4 L (B) 11.2 L (C) 33.6 L (D) 44.8 L
NH Cl
4
(24) CHCH Cu 2Cl2
product
Product is –
(A) Cu–CC–Cu (B) CH2=CH–CCH (C) CHC–Cu (D) Cu–CC–NH4
CH 3 CH 3
| |
CH 3 C CH C CH 3
|
NaIO4 / KMnO4
(25) CH 3 products, Products are –
O O
|| ||
CH 3 C CH 3 CH 3 C CH 3
(A) , (CH3)3C–COOH (B) , (CH3)3C–CHO
O
||
CH 3 C OH
(C) , (CH3)3C–COOH (D) None is correct
(27) A mixture of CH4, C2H2 and C2H4 gaseous are passed through a Wolf bottle containing ammonical
cuprous chloride. The gas coming out is
(A) Methane (B) Acetylene
(C) Mixture of methane and ethylene (D) original mixture
CHCOOH
||
(28) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 + CHCOOH product X by reaction R. X and R are
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IITJEE - JEE (Mains)
Physics
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C B D C B B B C B D A C D A B B D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C D A A A C D C C
Chemistry
29.B 30.A
Mathematics
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. C
29. C 30. D
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
I. General Instructions
1.Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2.This question paper contains Three Parts.
3.Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4.Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-B
5.Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6.Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form,
are not allowed.
Section-A (10 – 13) contains 4 Assertion-Reasoning (multiple choice questions) which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (14 – 19) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B (01-03) contains 3 Matrix Match Type question containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +6 marks for all
correct answer. For each correct row +1 mark will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice.
No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.
PPA
AR T –– II :: PPH
RT HYYSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
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This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Two springs with negligible masses and force constant of
k1 = 200 Nm–1 and k2 = 160 Nm–1 are attached to the k1 k
2
m
block of mass m = 10 kg as shown in the figure. Initially
the block is at rest, at the equilibrium position in which f
ric
tio
nle
ss
both springs are neither stretched nor compressed. At
time t = 0, sharp impulse of 50 Ns is given to the block
with a hammer along the spring.
(A) Period of oscillations for the mass m is s
6
(B) Maximum velocity of the mass m during its oscillation is 10 ms–1
(C) Data are insufficient to determine maximum velocity
(D) Amplitude of oscillation is 0.83 m
2. The string of a simple pendulum is replaced by a uniform rod of length L and mass M while
the bob has a mass m . It is allowed to make small oscillations . Its time period is
2M L 2 M 3m L
(A) 2 (B) 2
3m g 3 M 2m g
M m L 2m M L
(C) 2 (D) 2
M 3m g 3 M 2m g
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4. A rod of mass M and length L is hinged at its centre of mass so that it can
rotate in a vertical plane. Two springs each of stiffness K are connected at
its ends, as shown in the figure. The time period of SHM is
L, M
M
(A) 2
Hinge (B) 2
6K
M
(C) 2
2K
(D)
M
2
K
5. When an ideal gas is taken from state a to b, along a path acb, p (pressure of the gas)
84 kJ of heat flows into the gas and the gas does 32 kJ of work. c b
The following conclusions are drawn. Mark the one which is
not correct.
(A) if the workdone along the path adb is 10.5 kJ, the heat a d
v
that will flow into the gas is 62.5 kJ. (volume of the gas)
(B) when the gas is returned from b to a along the curved
path, the workdone on the gas is 21 kJ, and the system
absorbs 73 kJ of heat
(C) if Ua = 0, Ud = 42 kJ, and the workdone along the path adb is 10.5 kJ then the heat
absorbed in the process ad is 52.5 kJ
(D) if Ua = 0, Ud = 42 kJ, heat absorbed in the process db is 10 kJ
6. An artificial satellite is first taken to a height equal to half the radius of Earth. Let E1 be the
energy required. It is then given the appropriate orbital speed such that it goes in a circular
E
orbit at that height. Let E2 be the further energy required. The ratio 1 is
E2
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
7. An organ pipe closed at one end has a length 1 m and an open organ pipe has a length 1.6 m. The
speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. The two pipes can resonate for a sound of frequency
(A) 100 Hz (B) 240 Hz
(C) 320 Hz (D) 400 Hz
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8. A wave disturbance in a medium is described by(select incorrect option)
y(x, t) = 0.02 cos (50 t + /2) cos (10 x),
where ‗x‘ and ‗y‘ are in metre and ‗t‘ in seconds.
(A) A node occurs at x = 0.15 m
(B) An antinode occurs at x = 0.3 m
(C) The speed of the component wave is 5.0 m/s
(D) The wavelength is 0.1 m.
9. An organ pipe filled with oxygen gas at 47ºC resonates in its fundamental mode at a frequency of 300
Hz. If it is now filled with nitrogen gas, at which temperature will it resonate at the same frequency, in
the fundamental mode ?
(A) 7ºC (B) 41.1°C
(C) 280ºC (D) 92.7°C
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
10. STATEMENT-1 : Compression and rarefaction involve changes is density and pressure.
STATEMENT-2 : When particles are compressed, density of medium increases and when they
are rarefied, density of medium decreases.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
11. STATEMENT-1 : Coefficient of adiabatic elasticity of air is greater than the coefficient of
isothermal elasticity.
STATEMENT-2 : Heat is exchanged freely in an isothermal change, but not in an adiabatic
change.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
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12. STATEMENT-1 : If a man with a wrist watch on his hand falls from the top of a tower, its
watch gives correct time during the free fall.
STATEMENT-2 : The working of the wrist watch depends on spring action and it has nothing
to do with gravity.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
13. STATEMENT-1 : Specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is greater than its specific heat at
constant volume.
STATEMENT-2 : At constant pressure, some heat is spent in expansion of the gas.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
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Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
T0
m
14. Choose the correct statement
(A) the radiant energy is equally distributed among all the possible wavelengths
(B) for a particular wavelength the spectral intensity is minimum
(C) the area under the curve is equal to the total intensity (energy per unit area per second)
radiated by the body at that temperature
(D) none of these
15. If the temperature of the body is raised to a higher temperature T, then choose the correct statement
(A) the intensity of radiation for every wavelength decreases
(B) the maximum intensity occurs at a greater wavelength
(C) the area under the graph decreases
(D) the area under the graph is proportional to the fourth power of temperature
16. Identify the graph which correctly represents the spectral intensity versus wavelength graph at
two temperatures T and T0 (< T)
E E
T
(A) (B) T
T0
T0
m ’m m
E
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Paragraph for Questions 17 and 19
One end of an ideal spring is fixed to a wall at origin O and axis of spring is parallel to x–axis. A block of mass
m = 1 kg is attached to free end of the spring and it is performing SHM. Equation of position of the block in co–
ordinate system shown in figure is x = 10 + 3 sin (10 t) where t is in second and x in cm.
Another block of mass M = 3 kg, moving towards the origin with velocity 30 cm/s collides with the block
performing SHM at t = 0 and gets stuck to it.
m M
O x
17. Angular frequency of oscillation after collision is
(A) 20 rad/s (B) 5 rad/s
(C) 100 rad/s (D) 50 rad/s
SECTION–B
MatrixMatch Type
p q r s t
This Section contains 3 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C
and D) given in Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. A p q r s t
Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or B p q r s t
MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, C p q r s t
statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for the particular D p q r s t
question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in
the ORS.
1.
Column I Column II
(A) Temperature of a gas (P) Internal energy increases
(B) Work done by the gas (Q) Intermolecular force decreases
(C) Thermal expansion (R) Path function
(D) Mechanical compression (S) State function
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2.
Column I Column II
(A) Surface tension (P) Decreases with temperature
(B) Elasticity (Q) Property of matter
(C) Force must be directed towards a fixed point (R) Uniform circular motion
Projection of uniform circular motion on the
(D) (S) Simple harmonic motion
diameter of the circle
3.
Column I Column II
(A) In gravity free space (P) Stress
Due to un–natural change in intermolecular
(B) (Q) Buoyant force is zero
space
Lies in the plane of liquid
(C) Buoyant force (R)
surface
(D) Force due to surface tension (S) Always directed vertically up
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PARTII: CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. E1 follows
(A) 2nd order kinetics (B) Concerted mechanism
(C) Regio selectivity (D) None of these
+
2. Number of hyperconjugating structures for
H D
(C) (D) Both (A) and (B)
D D
Cl2
(C) (D) All of the above
CCl4
5.
KMnO4
Major product
OH
COOH CHO
AlCl3
Major Product
6. Cl
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O
O
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
O
Cl AlCl3
7. + Major Product
O
(A) (B)
O
O O
O
(C) (D)
C
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H+/H2O
8. O Major Product
OH
OH
(A) (B)
O
OH
(C) (D)
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Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
ArSE :
E E
Step-1 : + E + H
E E
Step-2 : Base
H
+
SO3 H
14. + H2SO4 + H2O
1 2 3 4 5
(A) 5 > 3 > 2 > 1 > 4 (B) 5 > 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
(C) 1 > 5 > 3 > 4 > 2 (D) 3 > 1 > 5 > 2 > 4
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Cl2/Fe
16. Major Product
Cl
(A) (B)
Cl
Cl
(C) Cl (D)
Birch Reduction : This is one of the method to reduce double bonds of benzene. Triple bond can be
reduced to double bond.
Li or Na
Liq NH3
ROH
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18. Stereochemistry of product(s) formed in the below reaction
19. In which of the following birch reactions, major product is correctly written
COOEt CHO CHO
COOEt
(A) (B)
OMe OMe
OCOCH3 OCOCH3
COCH3 COCH3
(C) (D) All
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SECTIONB (Matrix Match Type)
This section contains 3 questions. Each questions contains statements p q r s t
CH3
H CH3
(B) C—C==C (Q) Resonance
CH3
CH3
(C) (R) Aromaticity
CH2
(T) Hyperconjugation
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2. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
CH3
H Br Zn, CH3OH
(A) (P) Rearrangement
H Br
CH3
CH3
H Br NaI
(B) (Q) Antielimination
Br H acetone,
CH3
OH
Ph
Conc. H2SO4
(C) (R) Stereospecific
CH3
CH3
Br
H EtO Na+
(D) (S) Stereoselective
CH3 EtOH,
H
(T) Reactive intermediate
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3. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
(Chemical Reaction) (Process involved)
CH3—C CH
(A
(P) Tautomerisation
)
CH3—CH2—CHO
CH3—C CH
CH3—C—CH3
OH
Oxymercuration –
(C) (R)
demercuration reaction
(D Hydroboration oxidation
CH2 CH2
CH3CH2CHO (S)
) reaction
(T) Oxidation
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PPA
AR T –– IIIIII :: M
RT MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
s a 1 s b 1 s c 1
1. In any ABC, , and then b =
8 12 24
(A) 16 (B) 20
(C) 24 (D) 28
4. In a triangle, the lengths of two larger sides are 10 and 9 respectively. If the angles are in A.P.,
then the third side can be
(A) 5 6 (B) 5 6 (C) 3 3 (D) 5
5. The letters of the word COCHIN are permuted of and all the permutations are arranged in an
alphabetical order as in an English dictionary. The number of words that appear before the
word COCHIN is
(A) 360 (B) 192 (C) 96 (D) 48
210 410
(A) 223 – 2 (B) 222 (C) 211 (D)
2
7. Angle subtended by common tangents of two ellipses 4( x 4)2 25y 2 100 and
4( x 1)2 y 2 4 at origin is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 6 2
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x2 y 2
8. There are exactly two points on the ellipse 1 whose distance from its centre is the
a2 b2
a 2 2b 2
same and is equal to . Then the eccentricity of the ellipse is
2
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3 3 2
c c
9. If the normal to given hyperbola at the point ct , meets the curve again at ct , , then
t t
(a) t t 1
3
(b) t t 1
3
(c) tt 1 (d) tt 1
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
10. STATEMENT - 1 : Number of solution of equation 2cos | sin x |, , is ‗4‘
2 2
x[–2 2].
STATEMENT - 2 : It is true only for |sin x| = 1 or sin x = ± 1
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
x 2 y2
11. STATEMENT – 1 : If 1 be the equation of hyperbola then 0(0, 0) lies outside the
a 2 b2
hyperbola
STATEMENT – 2 : S(x, y) = 0 represents a hyperbola, if S(x1, y1) > 0 then (x1, y1) lies inside
the hyperbola
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
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12. STATEMENT – 1 : Three consecutive binomial coefficients are always in A.P
STATEMENT – 2 : Three consecutive binomial coefficients are not in H.P. or G.P.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
14. If L is the chord of contact of the hyperbola H, then the equation of the corresponding pair of
tangents is
(A) 9x2 – 8y2 + 18x – 9 = 0 (B) 9x2 + 8y2 – 18x + 9 = 0
(C) 9x2 – 8y2 – 18x – 9 = 0 (D) 9x2 – 8y2 + 18x + 9 = 0
15. If R is the point of intersection of the tangents to H at the extremities of the chord L, then
equation of the chord of contact of R with respective to the parabola P is
(A) x = 7 (B) x = 9 (C) y = 7 (D) y = 9
16. If the chord of contact of R with respect to the parabola P meets the parabola at T and T, S is
the focus of the parabola, then Area of the triangle STT is equal to
(A) 8 sq. units (B) 9 sq. units (C) 12 sq. units (D) 16 sq. units
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19
The integers a, b and c are selected from 3n consecutive integers {1, 2, 3, …, 3n}, then in how many
ways can these integers be selected, such that
SECTION–B
MatrixMatch Type
p q r s t
This Section contains 3 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C
A p q r s t
and D) given in Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II.
B p q r s t
Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or
C p q r s t
MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question,
t
statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for the particular D p q r s
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2. Match the following.
Column I Column II
(A Number of distinct terms in the expansion of (x + y z)16 (P) 212
)
Number of terms in the expansion of
(B) (Q) 97
(x x2 1)6 (x x 2 1)6
(C) The number of irrational terms in ( 8 5 6 2)100 (R) 4
(D The sum of numerical coefficients in the expansion of
) x 2y
12
(S) 153
1 3 3
(T) 1
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
BATCHES: TWO YEAR CRP (1315)-Advance-(B LOT)
PHASE TEST-III (PAPER-1) Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET-A
PART – I (PHYSICS) PART – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – III (MATHS)
SECTION–A SECTION–A SECTION-A
1. D 1. C 1. A
2. B 2. C 2. D
3. C 3. A 3. C
4. A 4. B 4. A
5. B 5. A 5. C
6. C 6. B 6. B
7. D 7. B 7. D
8. D 8. A 8. B
9. A 9. C
9. B
10. A 10. A
10. A
11. B 11. B
11. C
12. A 12. B
12. D
13. A 13. C
13. A
14. C 14. D
14. B
15. D 15. B
15. B
16. B 16. D
16. C
17. B 17. A
17. A
18. A 18. C
18. C
19. B 19. D
19. B
SECTION–B SECTION–B
1. A-S; B-R; C-Q; D-P 1.A-QR; B-PQT; C-QR; D-QRS SECTIONB
2. A-PQ, B-PQ, C-RS, D-S 2.A-QRS; B-QRS; C-PT, D- 1. A-p,r; B-q,r; C-r,s; D-q,r,s
3. A-Q; B-P; C-S; D-R QRS 2. A – s, B – r, C – q, D – p
3.A-PST; B-PRT; C-RT;S-QT 3. A-r; B-s; C-p; D-q
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall befor e the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
K. General Instructions
1.Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2.This question paper contains Three Parts.
3.Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4.Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C
5.Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6.Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form,
are not allowed.
PPA
AR T –– II :: PPH
RT HYYSSIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
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(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A large number of liquid drops each of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R. The
energy released in the process is converted into the kinetic energy of the big drop so formed.
Assuming that all the particles of the big drop move with the same speed v, this speed is given
by (given surface tension of liquid is T, density of liquid is )
6T 1 1 4T 1 1 6T 1 1 4T 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r R r R r R r R
2. Which of the following will have a different time period, if taken to the moon ?
(A) A simple pendulum.
(B) A spring mass system oscillating vertically in the gravitational field.
(C) A torsion pendulum.
(D) None of these
3. A wave is represented by the equation :
y (1mm)sin 50 s1 t (2.0m1)x + (1mm)cos 50 s1 t (2.0m1)x
(A) The wave–velocity is zero, since it is a standing wave.
3
(B) A node is formed at x m .
8
(C) The amplitude of the oscillation at the antinode is 3 mm.
(D) Energy transfer occurs along the positive x–axis.
2GM
(D) Particle passes the centre of earth with a speed = 2
R
3 3
7. A point moves such that its displacement as a function of time is given by x = t + 1. Its acceleration as
a function of time t will be
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2 2t 2t 2t 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x5 x5 x4 x5
ML2
8. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to it is (where
12
M is the mass and L, the length of the rod). The rod is bent in the middle so that the each halves make
an angle of 30º with that axis. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about the same axis would be (The
axis lies in the plane of structure)
ML2 ML2 ML2 ML2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
96 48 12 8 3
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
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P2
10. During an experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey a condition = constant [ = density of
the gas]. The gas is initially at temperature T, pressure P and density . The gas expands
such that density changes to /2.
(A) The pressure of the gas changes to 2 P .
(B) The temperature of the gas changes to 2 T .
(C) The graph of the above process on the P–T diagram is parabola.
(D) The graph of the above process on the P–T diagram is hyperbola.
11. 90 calories of heat are required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of CO2 gas at constant
pressure from 30°C to 35°C. Then (the symbols have usual meanings)
U 7
(A) = (B) U = 70 Cal (C) W = 20 Cal
Q 9
W 2
(D)
Q 9
(Comprehension Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
and based on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these
questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of WHICH ONLY ONE is correct.
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13. If a maxima is formed at a detector then, the magnitude of wavelength of the wave produced
is given by : (Select wrong option)
R
(A) R (B)
2
R R
(C) (D)
4 3
14. If a minima is formed at the detector then, the magnitude of wavelength of the wave
produced is given by
3
(A) 2R (B) R
2
2 R 2 R
(C) (D)
3 5
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SECTION–B
MatrixMatch Type
p q r s
This Section contains 1 question. Each question has four statements (A, B, C
A p q r s
and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r and s ) in Column II.
B p q r s
Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or
C p q r s
MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question,
statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for the particular D p q r s
SECTIONC
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. A ball is dropped from height 5m. Find the time (in seconds) after which ball stops
rebounding if coefficient of restitution between ball and ground is e = ½
3. A large tank is filled with water to a height H. A small hole is made at the base of the tank.
H
It takes T1 time to decrease the height of water to , ( > 1) and it takes T2 time to take out the
rest of water. If T1 = T2 , then the value of is ?
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4. Two identical smooth balls are projected from points O
and A on the horizontal ground with same speed of
projection. The angle of projection in each case is 30º
y
(see figure). The distance between O and A is 100 m.
The balls collide in mid air and return to their
respective points of projection. The coefficient of u u
restitution is 0.7, if the speed of projection of either 3
0º 3
0º x
O A
ball (in m/s) correct to nearest integer is v then v/19
equals (Take g = 10 ms–2 and 3 = 1.7)
5. A particle of mass m is fired from the point A (as shown in the figure)
A 30°
situated at a distance of 2R from the center of the planet with a
1
velocity times the escape velocity from point A. The radius of the R
2
planet is R. The maximum distance of the particle from the centre in
R
the subsequent motion is nR. Find the value of n.
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PARTII: CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
OH
H+ /
Major Product
1.
O
(A) (B)
O
O
(C) (D)
O
O
A
O
2. D2O / D+
O D O
(A) (B)
CD3 CD3 CD3
O D O
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3. Arrange in decreasing following order of basic strength
N
H H N
H
(A) iv > v > ii > iii > i (B) v > iv > ii > iii > i (C) i > ii > iii > iv > v (D) v > iv > iii > ii > i
4. A metal oxide Z2O3 can be reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water. 0.1596 gm metal
oxide requires 6 mg hydrogen. Then the atomic weight of metal is
(A) 27.9 (B) 159.6 (C) 79.8 (D) 55.8
1 eq. H2 H+ 1. Hg(OAc)2
5. A B Product(s) +
pt
2. NaBH4/EtOH OH
OH
A and B are
(A) NOT isomers (B) Diastereomers (C) Mesomers (D) Ring Chain isomers
6. When system undergoes irreversible expansion from 2L to 5L at 270C and the process is
reversible. Then Suniverse is
(A) 15.63 J/2 moles (B) 7.8175J/2 moles (C) 0 (D) 31.27 J/ 2 moles
7. In which of the following pairs, first is not more aromatic than second
(A) (B) ;
;
; N—H
(C) N
(D) All
H
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Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
9. Which of the following pair has same net dipole moment
F
F
(A) (B)
, ,
F
F F
F ,
(C) (D)
,
F F
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(Comprehension Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
and based on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these
questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of WHICH ONLY ONE is correct.
13. The average concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere over a city on a certain day was 20 ppm at
300 K. If the solubility of CO2 in water at 300 K was 3.53 mole/litre. The pH of solution
obtained by mixing one litre of rain water with one litre of 3 × 10 –5 M NaOH on that day
(given K a for H2CO3 = 4.45 × 10–7)
1
14. How much solid Na2S2O3 in moles should be added to 1 litre of water so that 5 × 10–4 mol
Cd(OH2) would just barely dissolve, Ksp of Cd(OH)2 = 4.5 × 10–15, assume S2O32 does not
hydrolyse?
Given Cd2 S2O32
Cd(S O ), K 8.3 103
2 3 1
Cd(S2O3 ) S2O32
[Cd(S O ) ]2 , K 2.5 102
2 3 2 2
15. A buffer solution is prepared which is 0.5 M CH3COOH and 0.25 M CH3COONa. Which of
the following ions can be maintained at a concentration of 0.10 M or greater without
precipitating as the hydroxide from this solution?
Given Ksp Mg(OH)2 = 5.5 × 10–6, Ksp Al(OH)3 = 1.3 × 10–33, Ksp Fe(OH)3 = 6.3 × 10–31, Ka for
CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10–5.
(A) Mg2+ (B) Fe3+
3+
(C) Al (D) All ions will be precipitated
Space for rough work
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Paragraph for Question 16 to 17
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
HBr
(1 eq)
F
C+D
16. F is
O
O O
(A) O (B)
H
O
O
O
(C) O (D) H
H
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SECTIONB (Matrix Match Type)
p q r s
This Section contains 1 question. Each question has four statements (A, B, C
A p q r s
and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r and s ) in Column II.
B p q r s
Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or
C p q r s
MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question,
statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for the particular D p q r s
(A hv Cl
+ Cl2 (P) Cyclic transition state
)
Br
(B) + Br2 Br (Q) Carbocation
OH
(C) H+ (R) Free radicals
+ H2O
Br
(D alc. KOH
(S) Rearrangement
)
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SECTIONC
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. How many of the following reagent can be used to distinguish terminal alkynel from alkenes
Br2 water, Bayer‘s reagent, Tollen‘s reagent, Na Metal, CuCl2 + NH4OH, Conc. KMnO4/OH–,
Cl2 water, Lindlar catalyst, ozonolysis
5. How many of the following cis forms are stable over trans
F F HO O C COOH
N==N , C==C
H H
H 3C CH 3
C==C
H H
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PPA
AR T –– IIIIII :: M
RT MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If in the expression of (1 + x)m (1 – x)n, the coefficient of x and x2 are 3 and – 6 respectively,
then m is
(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 24
2. If P(-3, 2) is one end of the focal chord PQ of the parabola y2 + 4x + 4y = 0, then the slope of
the normal at Q is
(A) 1/2 (B) 2 (C) 1/2 (D) –2
3. Tangents are drawn to 3x2 2y2 = 6 from a point P. If these tangents intersect the coordinate
axes at concyclic points then the locus of P is
(A) x2 + y2 = 5 (B) x2 y2 = 5 (C) 12 12 1 (D) none of these
x y 5
5. If z1, z2, z3 be three non-zero complex numbers, such that z2 z1, a = |z1|, b = |z2| and c = |z3|
a b c
z
and b c a 0 , then arg 3 may equal to
c a b z2
2 2
z z z z1 z z1
(A) arg 2 1 (B) arg 3 (C) arg 2 (D) none of these
z3 z1 z2 z1 z3 z1
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7. If tangents PQ and PR are drawn from a point on the circle x 2 + y2 = 25 to the ellipse
x2 y2
1, (b < 4) so that the fourth vertex S of parallelogram PQSR lies on the circumcircle
16 b2
of PQR, then eccentricity of the ellipse (Q and R are on the circle) is
(A) 5 /4 (B) 7 /3 (C) 7 /4 (D) 5 /3
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
9. Which of the following equation in parametric form can represent a hyperbola, where t is a
parameter
a 1 b 1 tx y x ty
(A) x t & y t (B) t 0 & 1 0
2 t 2 t a b a b
(C) x et et & y et et (D) x2 6 2cos t & y2 2 4cos2 t / 2
11. For an increasing A.P. a1,a2,......,an if a1 a3 a5 12 and a1a3a5 80, then which of the
following is/are true?
(A) a1 10 (B) a2 1 (C) a3 4 (D) a5 2
1 1 1
(A) 1 x 3 (B) 2 x 3 (C) x1 (D) y
3 3 3
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(Comprehension Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
and based on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these
questions has four choices A), B), C) and (D) out of WHICH ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Questions 13 and 15
x2 y2
Consider an ellipse (E) 1 , centered at point ‗O‘ and having AB and CD as its major and minor
a2 b2
axes respectively, if S1 be one of the foci of the ellipse, radius of incircle of OCS1 , be 1 unit and OS1
= 6 units then
15. If S be the director circle of ellipse (E), then the equation of director circle of S is
(A) x2 + y2 = (48.5) (B) x2 y2 97 (C) x2 + y2 = 97 (D) x2 y2 48.5
1 1 1 1
16. If then the least value of p1p2p3 is
p1 p2 p3 2
(A) 8 (B) 27 (C) 125 (D) 216
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SECTION–B
MatrixMatch Type
p q r s
This Section contains 1 question. Each question has four statements (A, B, C
A p q r s
and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r and s ) in Column II.
B p q r s
Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or
C p q r s
MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question,
statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for the particular D p q r s
SECTIONC
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. If twice the square of the diameter of a circle is equal to the sum of the squares of the sides
of the inscribed triangle ABC, then sin2A + sin2B + sin2C is equal to _______ .
2. If the sides of a triangle are determined by throwing a triplet of dice then the number of
different triangles with all distinct sides is ________ .
3. If the curves ax2 + 4xy + 2y2 + x + y + 5 = 0 and ax2 + 6xy + 5y2 + 2x + 3y + 8 = 0 intersect at
four concyclic points, then value of |a| equals to ________ .
4. The number of real solutions of tan1 x(x 1) sin1 x2 x 1 is ______ .
2
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST
BATCHES: TWO YEAR CRP (1315)-Advance-(B LOT)
PHASE TEST-III (PAPER-2) Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET-A
PART – I (PHYSICS) PART – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – III (MATHS)
SECTION–A SECTIONA SECTION-A
1. A 1. A 1. C
2. A 2. C 2. A
3. B 3. B 3. B
4. D 4. D 4. A
5. D 5. D 5. B
6. A 6. C 6. A
7. B 7. B 7. C
8. B 8. A 8. B
9. ABCD 9. AC 9. ACD
10. BD 10. ABCD 10. AD
11. ABCD 11. ABCD 11. AC
12. AD 12. A 12. AD
13. D 13. D 13. A
14. B 14. B 14. C
15. B 15. A 15. C
16. D 16. C 16. D
17. B 17. B
17. B SECTIONB SECTION-B
1. A-R; B-P; C-Q; D-QS 1. A-Q; B-R; C-P; D-s
SECTION–B SECTIONC SECTION-C
1. A-Q; B-R; C-s; D-P 1. 3 1. 2
SECTION–C 2. 4 2. 7
1. 3 3. 6 3. 4
2. 4 4. 0 4. 2
5. 3 5. 0
3. 4
4. 2
5. 3
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