Example Candidate Responses (Standards Booklet) : Cambridge IGCSE English As A Second Language

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Example Candidate Responses
(Standards Booklet)
Cambridge IGCSE®
English as a Second Language
0510 and 0511
Cambridge Secondary 2
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© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2012

Contents
Introduction ........................................................................................................................... 2
Assessment at a glance ........................................................................................................ 3
Paper 1 – Reading and Writing (Core) ................................................................................... 4
Paper 2 – Reading and Writing (Extended)..........................................................................44
Paper 3 – Listening (Core) ................................................................................................... 97
Paper 4 – Listening (Extended) ......................................................................................... 130

Introduction
Introduction
The main aim of this booklet is to exemplify standards for those teaching Cambridge IGCSE English as a
Second Language, and to show how different levels of candidates’ performance relate to the subject’s
curriculum and assessment objectives.
In this booklet a range of candidate responses has been chosen to exemplify grades C, E and F for Papers
1 and 3, and grades A, C and E for Papers 2 and 4. Each response is accompanied by a brief commentary
explaining the strengths and weaknesses of the answers.
For ease of reference the following format for each paper of the subject has been adopted:
Each question is followed by an extract of the mark scheme used by examiners. This, in turn, is followed by
examples of marked candidate responses, each with an examiner comment on performance. Comments are
given to indicate where and why marks were awarded, and how additional marks could have been obtained.
In this way, it is possible to understand what candidates have done to gain their marks and what they still
have to do to improve their grades.
Past papers, Principal Examiner Reports for Teachers and other teacher support materials are available on
our Teacher Support website at http://teachers.cie.org.uk
2 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Assessment at a glance
Assessment at a glance
Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language

Syllabus code 0510 (oral endorsement)
Candidates take either: Or:
Paper 1 Reading and writing (Core) Paper 2 Reading and writing (Extended)
1 hour 30 minutes 2 hours
Eligible for grades C–G Eligible for grades A*–E
70% of total marks 70% of total marks
And either: Or:
Paper 3 Listening (Core) Paper 4 Listening (Extended)

Approx. 30–40 minutes Approx. 45 minutes
Eligible for grades C–G Eligible for grades A*–E
30% of total marks 30% of total marks
And either: Or:
Component 5 Oral Component 6 Oral coursework

Approx. 10–15 minutes n/a
Separately endorsed Separately endorsed
Syllabus code 0511 (count-in oral)
Teachers are reminded that a full syllabus is available on www.cie.org.uk
Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 3

Paper 1 – Reading and Writing (Core)
Exercise 1


Mark scheme
Example candidate response – grade C

Examiner comment – grade C

In this response, the candidate shows a clear understanding of the requirements of the task and has
demonstrated an ability to extract the relevant specific information. The responses are presented in note-
form or longer phrases which have been transferred from the text. As the focus of this exercise is on
scanning for detail, the minor spelling errors in (d) and (f) do not detract from the overall accuracy of the
information provided.
Example candidate response – grade E
Examiner comment – grade E

Information is presented clearly and as notes. In (d), although the candidate has correctly identified that
judging is based on dancing and music, the answers provided need greater detail – ‘quality of music’ and
‘theme of performance’ for the mark. In (e), although the candidate has located the precise section of the
text by matching key question words, the focus needs to be on the ‘essential qualities’ of the Carnival
Queen. Imprecise reading of the question or lack of understanding of vocabulary has led to an inaccurate
answer.

Example candidate response – grade F
Examiner comment – grade F

This response is focused on the task – the candidate shows understanding of the requirements and
provides short, clear answers. Marks are lost in four questions, (c), (d), (e) and (f), which suggests that the
vocabulary has not been understood or that key words have not been identified. In (c), by transferring too
much information from the text, a lack of precision has meant that this answer becomes inaccurate. The
details supplied in (d), although clearly expressed as two points, are not relevant to the question. Question
(e) contains only one correct detail, so cannot achieve the mark, and in (f), the answers refer to the places
people ‘gather’ and ‘parade’, rather than ‘perform’ as required in the question.

Exercise 2


Mark scheme


The candidate offers a very good set of answers in this response. Despite the unnecessary length of some
answers, the central information is included and the lengthy answers do not detract from or negate the core
detail. The candidate is not penalised for writing over-long answers although time can be wasted in doing
so.


Apart from (c) and (d), the candidate demonstrates the ability to scan for more precise detail from a longer
and more challenging text. This is a set of answers combining short note-form answers and longer pieces
transferred exactly from the text. In (c), the answer requires the specific detail ‘more than’, so no mark is
given for this omission. In (d), imprecise reading of the key question words ‘while…storytelling’ has led to
wrong information being supplied relating to the arrival of the library, rather than to the children’s behaviour
while listening to the stories. Other answers contain all the central information, despite grammatical
inaccuracies in (a) and (g), and a spelling error in (i).


Incorrect information in answer to four questions indicates that the candidate has limited comprehension
of the text as a whole. Where the candidate has supplied correct answers, this shows careful correlation of
key words in the questions with corresponding contextual items. Answers to (a) and (e) are examples of a
lack of identification of the key words ‘how….the library move’ in (a), and ‘advantages…being able to read’
in (e), resulting in irrelevant detail being offered. Inaccurate answers to (b) and (c) reflect an understanding
of the question, but a need for greater precision in selecting and distinguishing key detail in context. As in
Exercise 1, mistakes in spelling, which do not negatively affect the answer are not penalised per se (seen
in the response for (d)), nor are grammatical inaccuracies caused by the candidate’s efforts to write short or
note-form answers, as in (g) and (h).

Exercise 3


Mark scheme



This response shows clear, accurate and appropriate organisation of answers. The candidate has paid
attention to clarity of writing with the use of upper case letters, and the requirements for circle, tick and
underline are correct. The candidate shows understanding of the text and is able to select and organise the
relevant material for Sections A, B and C. In Section D, the two sentences contain the required information
in a way that shows proper sentence construction, with correct grammar, spelling and punctuation. Although
upper case letters are used unnecessarily in this section, it is not penalised and full marks are awarded.



This response uses a combination of upper and lower case letters, but there is clarity and legibility. Marks
are lost in Section A through lack of specific detail in the address and name of the college. Additionally,
when lower case letters are used, candidates should remember the need for capitals for proper nouns,
‘Art Society’. In Section B, candidates are given the opportunity to write a longer sentence which can be
transferred from the text. Despite the accuracy of the writing, no mark can be given for the wrong selection
of information. In Section D, the candidate has attempted to include all the required information in a single
sentence. This shows imprecise reading of the rubric which clearly states the need for two sentences for
maximum marks to be awarded. Only half the available marks can be given for one sentence. The first
part of this answer is relevant and is written within a proper sentence construction. The spelling error in
‘experience’, means that a maximum of one mark can be given.



This response’s limited success suggests that the candidate has found the text to be challenging in
content. The candidate is prevented from gaining a higher mark through an unforced spelling error, ‘collage’,
inattention to detail in the address, and the misapplication of the ‘circle’ convention in an otherwise correct
response to the ‘Age group’. Additional errors in the selection of information in Sections A and B further
inhibit a higher level of achievement, despite a good set of answers to Section C. In Section D, the use
of bullet point answers cannot be credited with any mark, as the requirement is for properly constructed
sentences.

Exercise 4


Mark scheme


This response shows a clear understanding of the text and an ability to select specific, relevant information
and present it in an appropriate manner. The candidate has used brief notes and generally followed the
advice that the length of the line should act as a guideline for the length of the answer. Although two
correct points have been supplied on line four, credit can only be given for the first. Brief, succinct notes
with accurate details enable this candidate to gain full marks.

A tendency to transfer sentences from the text means that some answers are overlong and not in note-
form, making it difficult to keep within the lines. However, there is correct content for four of the six marks.
The candidate has supplied two options for the same point on the first two lines, only one of which can be
credited, and for the last point wrong detail has been selected, but overall this is a satisfactory attempt.


Although the candidate can clearly demonstrate the skills required to complete the exercise in note-form,
the response shows insufficient understanding of the text, resulting in two correct points being awarded.
Identification of the key items in each heading, ‘design features’ and ‘problems’ and closer analysis of the
text are needed for the candidate to achieve higher marks.

Exercise 5
Mark scheme


This is a response which achieves full marks. The word limit has been observed and the candidate has
used, but reworked the notes from the previous exercise. Linguistically, the response is secure, with few
errors of grammar and spelling. There is good use of linking devices, ‘This is because…’, ‘However…’ and
‘finally…’, all of which result in an effective, balanced and cohesive paragraph.


This response shows engagement with the task. Writing is within the word limit and there is an attempt
to use the notes from the previous exercise. There is some sense of order, and the simple structures
are generally accurate, but the expression is limited and lacks fluency. Greater cohesion throughout the
paragraph would take this response beyond two marks.

The candidate’s response shows an attempt to include both design features and problems faced by
customers, and observes the word limit. Multiple errors of grammar, spelling and punctuation prevent this
answer from achieving more than one mark.

Exercise 6

Mark scheme



This response achieves the top band for both content and language. The candidate has addressed all three
required points without relying too closely on the given picture stimulus, and has provided sufficient detail
and development for the meaning to be clear. The writing shows the appropriate level of informality and
engages directly with the reader, using a suitable conversational tone. The written expression is of a safe
standard, and communication is maintained throughout. Errors of grammar and vocabulary are infrequent.


This response is straightforward and relevant in the context of the question. It meets the minimum length
requirement and the candidate shows organisation of ideas through the use of paragraphing. The letter is
narrative in style and provides reader interest. There are details of how the writer felt in the circumstances
and the activities undertaken instead of watching television. For this response to be placed in the top
band for content, there would need to be greater depth of development of the second and third points in
the question. The written expression is not fully secure, with frequent errors in grammatical structure.
However, communication is maintained throughout.


There is partial engagement with the task in this response. The candidate adopts a conversational tone,
engaging the reader’s interest, but there is insufficient explanation to place this letter above a low level for
content. The writing is focused to a large extent on narrating the events surrounding the breaking of the
television, and no real attempt is made to provide details of the alternative way the writer has used the time
and the lessons learnt from the experience. Although it is possible to understand the overall sense of the
piece, there is a wide range of distracting errors in grammatical structure, making the meaning at times in
doubt.

Exercise 7

Mark scheme



For this response, the candidate has used the space provided to write at appropriate length, and used
paragraphing to develop a confident and persuasive piece of writing. This is a good example of a candidate
who has clearly understood the topic and takes a particular standpoint, conveying ideas and opinions to
support this view throughout the response. The written expression displays a natural fluency, with minor
errors which do not detract from the overall accuracy of the response.


This candidate has written within the word limit and the response has clearly signposted paragraphs,
showing organisation of ideas. A particular position is stated and ideas are successfully developed in
support of this view. With greater development of the opposing view in the penultimate paragraph and
more depth in the conclusion, this response would be placed in the top band for content. Linguistically,
the expression is not fully secure, placing it in the middle band. There is an attempt at sophistication
of grammatical structure, but generally structures and vocabulary are simple. Despite the errors,
communication is not impaired and interest is sustained.


This candidate has attempted to respond to the rubric requirement to write for the school magazine. There
is a sense of audience maintained throughout the writing, expressed through direct engagement with the
reader. Although the content is relevant, the topic of living a healthy life is addressed in a general manner,
and no mention is made of the pressure placed on young people to be healthy, as the task requires. The
opinion of the writer is expressed through simple sentence structures with a limited range of vocabulary,
and the frequent errors make the meaning at times unclear.

Paper 2 – Reading and Writing (Extended)
Exercise 1


Mark scheme

Example candidate response – grade A
Examiner comment – grade A

The candidate has selected the correct details from the text for all responses. The answers are generally
brief, although short sentences have been included for certain responses where clarity is required.
Occasionally, the candidate has supplied information which is unnecessary because it repeats the wording
of the question. This occurs in (f), for example, where the preface to the answer ‘because of the size of the
event’ is not required. The candidate was awarded maximum marks for this exercise.


The candidate has written answers which are generally brief. Examination technique is good and no time
has been wasted on unnecessary information. Key detail has been omitted in the responses to (a) and (e)
with the result that the meaning has been changed. In (g), the candidate has introduced implied detail which
is not in the text and is incorrect. For this exercise candidates are advised to lift the relevant detail from the
text and copy into the answer space. In (h) one detail is too general. The candidate was awarded four marks
for this exercise.


The candidate has generally answered all questions as briefly as possible. There has been carelessness
with the reading of the first question. Candidates should always pay attention to the question words as
the fundamental requirement for a correct answer. In this instance, ‘How often’ has been overlooked. The
candidate has used own words to answer (b) and the response is imprecise. Candidates are not required
to change the wording of the text at this stage of the paper. It is a matter of basic examination technique
that all answers should be attempted and the candidate has failed to apply this principle in question (e). The
candidate was awarded five marks for this exercise.

Exercise 2


Mark scheme


The candidate has answered the whole exercise well and has a clear understanding of the text. The
candidate has answered briefly although the answer to (b) contains the wording of the question and could
have been reduced. Questions are occasionally prefaced with the wording, ‘Apart from’, and candidates
should always be aware of this and ensure that these details are not included in the answer. In (e), the
candidate has overlooked this and has selected ‘longer life’ as one detail. This could not be credited because
this is a health factor.

There will always be one question in this exercise which tests the candidate’s ability to interpret the details
of a graph, map or chart. The candidate has successfully answered (f). The candidate has been imprecise
with the answer to (g) where the key word ‘almost’ has been omitted. In the final, more challenging (j), the
candidate has included detail under the first heading which has no connection to the idea of ‘appearance’.
The candidate was awarded 11 marks for this exercise.


The candidate has answered the whole exercise satisfactorily and has a good understanding of the text. The
candidate has answered briefly and displayed good examination technique. In (e), the preface ‘Apart from
health factors’ was not well noted by the candidate and the response ‘longer life’ could not be credited. It
is important that candidates are familiar with this type of wording which will exclude certain answers. The
candidate has successfully answered (f), which refers to the graphic element. There is imprecision with the
answer to (g) where the key word ‘almost’ has been omitted. The candidate has been careless with the
reading of question (h) where the plural wording, ‘school libraries’, has a general significance. It does not
refer specifically to the Awassa Reading Centre, where the detail about furniture appears. In the final, more
demanding (j), the candidate has only included one detail under each heading when two are clearly required.
The candidate was awarded nine marks for this exercise.



The candidate has written brief answers throughout. The wording of the first answer is somewhat clumsy
and too much has been lifted from the text. However, the basic meaning has been conveyed and can be
credited. In (c), the candidate has unnecessarily changed the word ‘decades’ in the text to ‘years’ in the
answer and has thus conveyed the wrong information. The candidate has been careless with the reading of
both (e) and (h) and has either given detail which had been excluded through the wording of the question
or has supplied wrong detail. The candidate has displayed poor examination technique by not attempting an
answer in the final question. There are four marks available here and at the very least candidates should try
to predict the possibilities and scan the text for suitable answers. The candidate was awarded seven marks
for this exercise.

Exercise 3

Mark scheme




The requirement for this exercise is total accuracy in selecting and transcribing appropriate detail. The
candidate has observed the conventions of ticking, deleting and underlining very well. There are clear capital
letters for proper nouns. The candidate has also changed from the third person of the text to the first person
for the completion of certain parts of the form. The candidate has made two errors with the incorrect details
of the address and by not completing the box which specifies the relationship to the subscriber. This type
of mistake reinforces the need to read the requirements for each task carefully. The candidate was awarded
five marks for this part of the exercise.
In the final section, candidates must satisfy all the requirements of the marking criteria to be awarded the
maximum two marks. The candidate has written a brief answer but there are 13 words and this is enough
to satisfy the word length requirement. The candidate has changed the wording of the text and has not
provided a typical answer. It is recommended that candidates should closely follow the expressions used in
the text when writing the sentence. In this example, however, the candidate has conveyed the key ideas in
the answer in a totally correct sentence. The candidate was awarded maximum marks for the sentence.



candidate has observed the conventions of ticking, deleting and underlining very well. There are clear capital
letters for proper nouns. The candidate has also changed from the third person of the text to the first person
for the completion of the form. There has been some carelessness in reading the text and supplying the
detail about the ‘age’. The text states that Sven’s 17th birthday ‘was a few weeks away’. Therefore the
age at the moment is 16. This type of wording often appears in the texts for this exercise and candidates
should be aware of this. The candidate has made two other errors by not specifying the relationship to the
subscriber and by including the wrong amount for the details of the cheque. The candidate was awarded
five marks for this part of the exercise.
In the final section, candidates must satisfy all the requirements of the marking criteria to be awarded the
maximum two marks. The candidate has conveyed the correct content and has observed the word length
but there is one punctuation error in the body of the sentence. The candidate was awarded one mark for the
sentence.



candidate has written very neatly and has been careful to make a clear distinction between lower and upper
case when using common and proper nouns. The conventions of deleting, underlining, circling and ticking
have all been well observed. There is a basic error of transcription from the stimulus piece in the email
address and careless reading of the text details in circling the wrong magazine and providing the wrong
address. There has been no attempt to complete the details relating to age. The candidate was awarded
four marks for this part of the exercise.
The candidate has selected the correct detail for the sentence in Section D and has conformed to the
word length requirements. There is one error in the incorrect use of the preposition after ‘interested’. The
candidate was awarded one mark for the sentence.

Exercise 4


Mark scheme


The candidate has answered in note form and has avoided complete sentences where appropriate. The
responses are generally brief and the candidate has managed to select key detail from the text and provide
separate answers, with one detail per line. The first and last answers are incorrect but the candidate has
demonstrated a good understanding of the text and applied good examination technique. The candidate was
awarded six marks for this exercise.


Overall the candidate has demonstrated a satisfactory understanding of the text. The responses are
generally brief and the answers are in note form with one detail per line. The first answer is too general and
does not specifically address the design features of this unusual vehicle. The key word ‘automatically’ has
been omitted from the second answer. Candidates should always ensure that answers are short but not so
brief that key detail is excluded. Two responses in the second and third sections are factually incorrect. The
candidate has been careless with the reading of the requirements of the final section and the answer does
not logically follow the wording of the heading. The candidate was awarded four marks for this exercise.


The candidate has understood the overall message of the text but has been imprecise in the reading of the
headings of each section on the note-making form. With the exception of the answer about the ‘folding
wings’, none of the other responses are specifically connected to the ‘design features’. Similarly, the
answers offered in the second section are general and do not refer to precise problems that potential buyers
could encounter. The first answer in the final section has been successfully selected and expressed but the
second response has no comparative idea.
This exercise overall demonstrates that one of the key differences between more successful and less
successful candidates is the ability not only to understand the texts but also to read the wording of the
questions with precision.

Exercise 5

Mark scheme


The candidate has successfully focused on the requirements of the rubric, namely the role and
responsibilities of the keepers of the elephants. There is hardly any redundant material in the passage.
The length is excellent and is just short of the stipulated 120 word limit. The candidate has selected and
expressed seven relevant points and therefore has been awarded maximum marks for content. There is
orderly grouping and sequencing, starting with the general responsibilities of the keepers and then focusing
precisely on their role during the performance. The candidate has made a good attempt to use own words
and, although there are occasional minor grammatical errors, the whole piece has also been awarded
maximum marks for language.


This exercise is very challenging and is a good differentiator between good and average candidates. In
this piece the candidate has not written in concise summary style and has included 37 words outside
the required limit. No credit can be given for content points included after 120 words. The candidate has
introduced the piece with five lines of redundant material. There are no content points conveyed in this
opening part. Later the candidate does concentrate on the role of the keeper in the performance and is able
to select and express three relevant content points. There is some sense of order although the sequencing
of ideas is erratic. There are awkward expressions and grammatical errors and overall the language is
limited. The whole piece was awarded two marks for language.


This exercise is very challenging and is a good differentiator between good and average candidates. In
this piece the word length has been observed but the candidate has largely selected irrelevant material
and has only managed to express one key content point. The candidate has introduced the piece with
five lines of redundant material. The opening paragraph is imprecise in the wording of the detail and lacks
focus. In the second paragraph the candidate makes an attempt to concentrate on the role of the keeper
in the performance. There is some sense of order although the sequencing of ideas is erratic. There are
grammatical errors and overall the language is limited. The piece was awarded two marks for language.

Exercise 6

Mark scheme



Examiner comment –grade A

Content
The candidate has addressed all three bullet points in the rubric and has used relevant and informal
language. It is clear that the writer has thought about the person who will read the letter, especially with the
personalised introduction. The ideas are quite simple but the candidate has tried to develop them. The final
paragraph is brief and the piece comes to an abrupt conclusion. It would have been better if the candidate

had provided a longer and more personalised final paragraph to balance the introduction. The whole letter is
interesting to read. The piece was awarded six marks for content.
Language
The candidate has sometimes tried to use more unusual and complex phrases and expressions. The use
of vocabulary and expression are mainly precise, although there are some minor mistakes. The sentences
show some variety of structure and length and there is a good balance to the whole piece with paragraphs
separating the different ideas. The piece was awarded six marks for language.


Content
The candidate has addressed all three bullet points in the rubric and has used an appropriate register. The
writer has personalised the extended introduction and the brief conclusion. The ideas are simple and the
candidate has made little attempt to develop them. There has been a creditable response to the first bullet
point which asked for an explanation of the reaction when the TV was broken. The alternative activities and

the explanation of what was learnt from the experience have both been addressed but with very thin detail.
There are also digressions. The piece was awarded five marks for content.
Language
The candidate has attempted to use more sophisticated vocabulary and has varied the length of the
sentences. Phrasing and expressions contain several frustrating basic errors which are distracting to the
reader. The paragraphs are correctly used although the final one is a little brief. There are elements which
could be awarded six marks for language but equally there are details which would merit four marks. The
best fit for this candidate was considered to be at the top of the ‘Safe’ band and the piece was awarded five
marks for language.



Content
The candidate has used an appropriate register when writing to a friend and has personalised the
introduction and the brief conclusion. There has been a good response to the first bullet point and the
candidate has supplied imaginative detail about the parents’ reactions to the accident with the television.
The alternative activities and the explanation of what was learnt from the experience have both been
addressed but with very little detail. The candidate has spent too long on the first bullet point and has
produced an unbalanced piece. The piece was awarded four marks for content.
Language
The candidate has used paragraphs to separate the introduction and conclusion from the main body of the
piece. There are examples of major errors, such as inconsistency with verb tenses, and there are several
single word errors where the spelling is imprecise. The use of punctuation is also erratic at times. These do
not interfere with communication and the meaning remains clear. The piece was awarded four marks for
language.

Exercise 7

Mark scheme





Content
The candidate has used more formal and persuasive language in this task and has focused on the target
audience. The question required the candidate to consider the idea that young people face pressures from
society to lead a healthy life. In the second paragraph, the candidate has addressed this idea with reference
to media pressure and advertising. The candidate has then provided a more personal approach in the final
two paragraphs with comments about the importance of balancing diet and exercise. The candidate has
paid attention to the specific requirements of the question and has not simply covered health issues in
general. The ideas have been sufficiently developed and the reader’s interest has been engaged. The piece
was awarded six marks for content.
Language
The paragraphs have been used effectively to provide an introduction and conclusion as well as to separate
the ideas in the body of the piece. The meaning is clear and generally accurate apart from occasional
frustrating minor errors. The candidate has attempted to use more ambitious vocabulary and expression and
there is a variety of sentence length and structure, including direct speech, which adds to the interest. The
piece was awarded six marks for language.


Content
The candidate has correctly used a more formal register to complete this task and there is a good focus
on the target audience. The question required the candidate to consider the idea that young people face
pressures from society to lead a healthy life. The candidate has made an attempt to address this idea but
the content of the article has mainly been devoted to diet and its effects on health. There has been some
scientific explanation of the health issues that could arise from an unbalanced intake of food and drink. As

such the candidate has not developed the requirements of the question effectively. The piece was awarded
five marks for content.
Language
The paragraphs have been used effectively to separate the ideas and there is a good balance to the piece.
The meaning is clear and the candidate has demonstrated a range of vocabulary connected to the topic
and has been able to write with specific terminology about health issues. There are significant grammatical
errors when more sophisticated expressions are attempted and there are elements of both six marks and
four marks throughout. Overall, the piece fitted best into the top of the ‘Safe’ band and it was awarded five
marks for language.


Content
The candidate has correctly adopted a more persuasive register for this task. The question required the
candidate to consider the idea that young people face pressures from society to lead a healthy life. The
candidate has attempted to address this theme and has given an opinion early in the piece. This opinion
has not been developed and the article is mainly about giving advice on how young people can avoid health
problems. The piece is unfocused and the ideas lack logical progression. The piece was awarded four marks
for content.
Language
Paragraphs have been used and the candidate has provided an introduction and conclusion. The question
inserted at the beginning of the piece shows good style. The meaning is clear although the overall argument
is not easy to follow. The vocabulary is simple and there are single word errors and several examples of
awkwardness of expression. The piece was awarded four marks for language.

Paper 3 – Listening (Core)

Questions 1 – 6

Tapescript


Mark scheme


This response suggests that the candidate made good use of the second time of hearing the track,
as Questions 1, 4 and 5 were all amended slightly, the crossings out being clear and, in the case of
Question 4, correcting an error. The answers are generally succinct and focused. Question 3 is incorrect,
as the candidate appeared not to understand ‘first aid’; Question 5 lacks precision as ‘band’ is omitted.
Question 6 gains two marks even though the response is a little wordy and some additional information is
offered; fortunately, none of the additional material negates the answer; it is merely irrelevant and can be
ignored.


The candidate gives short, concise answers, as required throughout this exercise, but lacks a consistent
focus on the questions and exactly what is required. Question 3 gives true but unfortunately irrelevant
information and so does not get any credit. Question 5’s response of ‘ball’ instead of ‘band’ suggests a lack
of close listening; it also suggests that the candidate has not thought carefully enough about the meaning
of the answer, as ‘ball practice’ does not make complete sense in the context. In Question 6, again the
candidate offers information which is indeed in the text, but which is irrelevant to the question.


The candidate offers clear, short answers to these questions and has clearly grasped what is required in
this exercise. However, the answers to Questions 1, 3, 4 and 6 reveal a lack of focused understanding. For
example, in Question 1 the candidate heard and then focused on ‘computer games’, instead of realising
the speaker had actually produced a website about computer games. In Question 2, the candidate offers
two answers, the first correct and the second incorrect, probably with ‘foot’ being misheard as ‘food’. As
the correct answer is given first, a mark is awarded and the second answer does not prevent this, as it does
not actually contradict the answer. In Question 5, ‘bad’ is offered instead of ‘band’. This reveals a lack of
understanding of what was heard, as the misspelling creates a new word – a common word which one
would expect the candidate to recognise as being inappropriate in the context. Consequently no mark is
awarded.

Question 7

Tapescript

Mark scheme


The candidate offers single words to complete the gaps in the notes, and has understood the purpose of
the exercise. Item 1 does not receive credit as the first word ‘my’ is incorrect, and in fact does not make
sense in the context; the candidate needs to be reminded that the notes and sentences in these gap-
filling exercises must make proper sense when complete. Synonyms or reasonable phonetic attempts at
the correct word will gain credit, so being uncertain of the spelling of a particular word should not stop
the candidate having a sensible guess at it. The next Item is a case in point, where ‘owles’ gains credit
despite the wrong spelling. Item 3 does not receive a mark, as both elements ‘mushrooms’ and ‘snakes’ are
required for one mark. In Item 4 the candidate has crossed out the wrong answer very clearly and replaced
it with the correct answer, spelt correctly. Finally, the candidate does well to complete both spaces for Item
5 with the required words and thereby gains one mark.


In this response, the candidate has been somewhat cautious in making only a partial attempt at Item 1
and then leaving Item 3 blank; as any reasonable phonetic attempt may gain credit, it is always worthwhile
attempting each and every question. Item 2 omits one of the required answers – ‘owls’ – and offers the two
answers which are considered alternatives in the mark scheme. Closer attention to the interview should
have allowed the correct answer to be selected. Items 4 and 6, requiring more complex vocabulary, are both
answered correctly, with the correct spelling, and gain the marks available.



In this response the candidate has shown little understanding of what was heard in the interview but, to
his/her credit, has attempted every part of the question. In Item 1, the candidate pre-read the question
correctly, and realised names of trees were required, successfully identifying ‘fruits trees’. The irrelevant
word ‘piece’ can be ignored as a note, possibly a practice for the next item, but clearly ‘bananas’ is wrong.
As both elements are required for the mark, this item scores 0. Item 2 again does not get a mark, as both
words being offered make no sense in their context, and indicate that the candidate has not understood that
part of the interview. In Item 3 the word ‘mashroms’ was identified, and it is acceptable as a reasonable
phonetic attempt at ‘mushrooms’; however the second required element, ‘snakes’ is missing. By omitting
the noun, the answer does not make sense; had the candidate checked closely that the notes were
meaningful, then this noun might have been added on the second listening. In Item 4 the candidate makes
a good attempt at ‘preservation’ – a word which appeared slightly earlier in the interview. Closer listening
would have shown that this word does not fit into the context here, and so it does not gain credit. Finally, in
Item 5 the candidate attempts both elements by inserting words from the correct section of the interview.
Again, the words do not create meaningful notes and do not reflect the sense of the interview. This
candidate would have been well advised to make more use of pre-reading the questions, and then to check
the final answers made proper sense prior to the second listening of the interview.

Question 8

Tapescript


Mark scheme


This response was well presented by the candidate, with alterations made very clearly and unambiguously.
There is evidence that the candidate made good use of the second opportunity to listen to the interview,
so that in Item 6 the correct answer was given after a couple of incorrect attempts, and the spelling of
‘museum’ was given close attention, with four attempts made. Items 1, 2 and 3 are correct, appearing just
as given in the mark scheme. In Item 4, the mark cannot be awarded as the second element – ‘opposite’
– is missing, and ‘200’ is definitely wrong. For Item 5, ‘dessert’ cannot be credited, as this misspelling
creates another word which is a reasonably common word and clearly makes no sense in this context.
In the final item, ‘meseums’ is acceptable as a reasonable phonetic attempt at ‘museum’, especially as it
contains the final two syllables for the ‘...eum’ sound, and so it is given the mark of one.


The candidate completed all the notes carefully and clearly, offering single words as required, with most
making sense in their contexts. However, there was a need for more focused listening. Items 1, 2 and 3
all gain a mark, the answers being exactly as on the mark scheme. Item 4 does not get a mark, since the
first answer is incorrect, and both parts of the question have to be correct for the mark to be awarded. In
this instance, the candidate needed to check that the notes made proper sense, in order to realise that a
number could not have been the right answer to fill this space. More focused listening would have revealed
that ‘204’ was in fact the speed, in kilometres, of the previous record holder. Item 5 offers the misspelling
‘dessert’ – forming a new word which makes no sense in this context. Item 6 again suggests a need for
more focused listening, as ‘219’ is the speed in kilometres of the first run, not the average speed. The
candidate did well on the last item in this section to identify both words as required, and to spell them both
correctly, thereby gaining one mark.

Examiner comment –grade F

This candidate has completed the notes carefully with single words as required. All corrections were made
clearly and unambiguously, suggesting that good use was made of the second listening of the interview
to check and refine answers. However, this candidate would have been well-advised always to check
afterwards that the completed note or sentence makes proper sense. Item 1 is awarded the mark for the
correct answer, exactly as on the mark scheme. The following question is less straightforward, as the
candidate correctly identifies the consonant sounds in the word ‘tons’, but by writing ‘tunes’ has created
another word which should be within the candidate’s working vocabulary; ‘tunes’ makes no sense in the
context and therefore is not awarded a mark. Item 3 again indicates that the candidate tried hard to identify
the sounds in the word ‘carbon’, including the initial ‘c’ sound. Again, a new word, ‘cover’, was offered

which does not make sense in the notes. Pre-reading the question should have indicated that the gap
needed the name of another substance or metal. The candidate’s first attempt suggests that he/she might
have been aware of this but was under pressure after first of all mistakenly repeating the word ‘aluminium’.
In Item 4 the candidate appears to latch onto the word ’speed’ in the question, and offers actual speeds. No
mark is awarded to Item 5: again the answer does not make proper sense in the context. The last two items
in this question are given full credit and the candidate’s efforts to listen closely and adjust the answers are
rewarded. For Item 7 ‘musiaum’ is acceptable as a reasonable phonetic attempt at ‘museum’, since the final
‘..eum’ sound is replicated.
Question 9

Tapescript

Mark scheme


The candidate made clear and unambiguous alterations to the answers to Questions 9(c) and 9(e) – in one
case correcting an answer, but in the second instance, changing it to the wrong answer. Despite this, the
candidate did well to check the answers and make these amendments, presumably on the second hearing
of the interview, and it is a procedure to be encouraged.


The candidate made clear decisions about whether a statement was true or false, so that there was no
ambiguity about the answers. There are six correct answers, giving a mark of three. The candidate shows
active listening has taken place during this question by the use of the underlining and circling of key words
and phrases – a technique to be encouraged, although in this case a few of the listening questions proved
too difficult for the candidate.


The candidate used lines rather than ticks to indicate which answer was being selected – but nevertheless
this was perfectly clear and unambiguous. There are three correct answers. The candidate would be well-
advised to guess an answer, even if there is uncertainty, rather than leave both the True and False boxes
blank.

Question 10

Tapescript

Mark scheme


The candidate’s answers are clear in spite of the marks made on the questions. Indeed, this script shows
evidence of active listening, with its use of circling, underlining and annotation. Question 10(i) exemplifies
this – the phrase the candidate decided to focus on was ‘drop to below 89 degrees’, with the ‘89’ circled.
The small tick at the end of the line was probably added when the phrase was heard exactly like that in the
talk. This technique helped the candidate focus on the text, and then enabled the final answers / ticks to be
put in clearly without crossings out. This technique, of course, gets no extra credit from the examiner, but
may well have helped this candidate get a high mark for this question. There are 10 correct answers, giving
a mark of five.


The candidate offered a very clear response, which makes it very straightforward to mark. The candidate
has eight correct answers, giving a total mark of four.


This candidate scores three marks, having been given six ticks for six correct responses, and this total being
divided by two. The candidate left Questions 10(d), 10(g) and 10(l) blank. The candidate would have been
well-advised to have had a guess – an extra mark could have been picked up in this way. Question 10(i)
does not get credit, since the candidate gave two ticks in the True / False boxes. Candidates need to be
aware that, if they give an ambiguous answer like this, they cannot be given credit for it.

Paper 4 – Listening (Extended)
Questions 1 – 6

Tapescript


Mark scheme


Each of the responses here characterises a confident and focused grade A candidate. Only the response to
Question 2 lacks precision – ‘band practice’ was required as the particular type of practice undertaken. As
a test of aural skill, band was a key word in the dialogue. The language of the responses is generally secure
throughout. However, in Question 6, the candidate slips a little, spelling ‘write’ as ‘wirte’ – but as this is
not a key word which is being tested, the examiner is able to allow the mark for the understanding that the
homework can be prepared by handwriting. Also in Question 6, the suggestion that the friend could come
and help with the computer repair is regarded as acceptable. All of the other responses are pertinent, brief
(in note form) and secure.


This candidate offers secure responses to the more straightforward questions but begins to struggle
when clearer and more precise explanations are required. The responses are rather short, for example, to
Questions 3 and 6, where marks were lost. In Question 3, the two responses are vague and require more
specificity, and in Question 6 ‘write in hand’ fails to mention ‘homework’. This is a fairly typical response
therefore at grade C level – brief and generally secure responses, but lacking in precision, particularly in
response to the more challenging questions.


This candidate offers answers which are short, to the point but sometimes lack detail and expansion. In
Question 1 we see ‘roots’ for ‘routes’, and as this conveys a different meaning it cannot be accepted. In
Question 3 ‘express delivery’ is given but this is followed by an explanation which is too broad and does
not cover any of the specific reasons stated. Question 4 misses the key idea that the speaker will have to
‘stay late at school’ and not just be there. Question 6 also shows some carelessness – only one of the two
items is offered, even though the line is provided for the second response. Performance could therefore
have been improved had this candidate offered more detail.

Question 7

Tapescript


Mark scheme


This is a secure grade A response for this gap-filling exercise. All of the seven required items are correct and
single-word responses are given. It is noticeable that the candidate has returned to two responses and has
crossed the original response out and corrected this with alternative spellings – this characterises grade A
work, a keenness to convey accuracy in both content and language. Note that ‘assistance’ was allowed as it
close enough to ‘assistant’ and it is appropriate in the context.


This candidate provides a slightly weaker grade C response here. It is noticeable that in two cases, gaps
are left blank – but in both cases the other item required was given and was correct. It may well have been
that the two missing words – ‘nut’ and ‘mushrooms’ – were not know by this candidate, and this does
indeed characterise grade C responses; that is, a narrower range of vocabulary. In Item 5, ‘ecology’ was a
challenging word, and the candidate’s response – ‘acology’ – is a close guess. However, the opening vowel
sound does not convey that the word is known and understood. Sound understanding of some of the other
items, however, confirms a C grade level.


The candidate has clearly found this exercise challenging. There is only one response, however, for which
nothing is offered (Item 2). Candidates should always be encouraged to provide guesses where they feel
they might be successful – e.g. Item 6, which contains the correct word but as an expression, makes little
sense. In Item 4, ‘college’ was sometimes seen for ‘ecology’ by other grade E candidates. Words that were
not heard or not known by this candidate were ‘local’, ‘snakes’, ‘assistant’ and ‘owls’ – all perhaps beyond
this candidate’s lexis. Vocabulary development could have helped this candidate.

Question 8

Tapescript


Mark scheme


This candidate received full marks for this exercise. It was a generally well-answered exercise by stronger
candidates and there were many examples of entirely accurate responses with no errors. This response
shows that a grade A can still be achieved for listening even though some spellings might be inaccurate. In
Item 9, the candidate struggles to spell ‘museum’, but the phonetic attempt given can be regarded as close
enough and was rewarded. The candidate has also realised that the first attempt at ‘charities’ was spelt
incorrectly, and has amended this.


This is a strong grade C response with six of the nine items accurately identified. The candidate struggled
to understand what Item 4 was asking for, but still managed to offer a response that made sense given the
context. In Item 9, ‘museum’ was clearly a word that the candidate could not spell, and although this is not
a test of spelling ‘musume’ was judged as not close enough to confirm understanding. However, ‘engenir’
in Item 7 was a very good phonetic attempt and was credited. Overall, this is a good, safe response to the
exercise as a whole, demonstrating a solid grade C performance.


Candidates generally found this question easier than Question 7, but at grade E level there was noticeable
difficulty with Items 3 and 4. This candidate offered ‘capen’ for ‘carbon’ for the former and did not recognise
that it was the average speed that was needed in the latter. Elsewhere, this was a steady performance,
with a slip only in Item 1 where the date given was incorrect. Spelling was not accurate, however, in Items 7
and 9, but in each case the attempts did not distract and were accepted.

Question 9

Tapescript


Mark scheme


This is an almost perfect response. Each item is clearly understood by the candidate and the use of short
and accurate sentences or phrases confirms this. This response demonstrates that written language skill
is not being directly tested but that the use of short and straightforward language is the best approach.
Examiners are looking for clear understanding and this candidate conveys this succinctly.


The opening item included a challenging phrase for some candidates – ‘a way of life’ – and the grade C
candidate here illustrated that the words had been heard but that the phrase was not known. However,
‘away of live’ was commonly seen at this level and was accepted. In Question (b) ‘safty’ was often
seen for ‘safety’ at grade C level. Question (c) provides a well thought-out response showing clear
understanding of what was heard. In Question (d) the candidate struggles with finding the second detail,
and ends up offering a wrong response and one which is drawn from the question. Curiously, no response
is offered for Question (e) – perhaps the word ‘consequence’ was not known. Even though an additional
response is given for the final item, this does not distract as the first response is correct.


As the examination paper moves into requiring sentence-length responses, grade E candidates are further
challenged and this can be seen in the type of answers provided and the lower success rate. This candidate
achieves one third of the available marks. Questions (a) and (c) appear not to have been understood,
and in Question (b) ‘safety’ has been misspelled, along with ‘health’ offered for ‘help’ (the latter being a
common error at grade E). However, the responses to (d) and (f) show good understanding, demonstrating
the pattern of partial understanding overall. The response to Item (e) suggests that ‘consequence’ was an
unknown word, so the answer given tries to offer a logical development of the traders using more trucks,
but does not recognise the more pertinent detail of the price increase.

Question 10

Tapescript

Mark scheme


The candidate has clearly coped well with the more challenging items. For example, in Question (b) there
is good understanding of what ‘submerged’ means, and in Question (c) the purpose of the tunnel has been
understood. It is good to see the candidate underlining the key words in each individual question – this helps
to direct candidates to the type of question being asked and how many pieces of information or details
are required. In Question (e) the stronger responses were as this response – i.e. full explanations of what
some people were thinking. It is unfortunate that the candidate failed to reference the tunnel or the glass
in Question (d) – the response given suggests that the water pressure will be re-inforced and this is not
correct. It is always advisable to check that a response given answers the question as stated.


Exactly half marks were recorded by this candidate for the final exercise. In Question (b) an understanding
that the site had been submerged (as a result of earthquakes) was required and this response goes
part of the way in conveying this, but lacks the precision – or perhaps the vocabulary – to confirm this.
Question (c) is interesting as this was one of the most difficult questions on the paper, but this candidate
has clearly understood the purpose and has used his/her own words to convey this. The response is not
securely grammatically, but does convey understanding. The response for Question (d) appears to be an
educated guess. The responses overall show that the text has been understood to an acceptable level –
which characterises grade C ability.


The candidate begins well, with secure responses to the first two items. Question 2 required an
understanding of ‘submerged’ and this is clearly shown. However, the candidate clearly struggles with the
rest of this exercise. In Question (c) ‘purpose’ has not been understood. Question (d) is a challenging
question and it would appear that the candidate has only partially grasped the idea of the water pressure. In
Question (e) only one response is given and although partially correct, the phrase is not complete and it is
not known why the buildings should be restored – i.e. rather than spending money on the proposed project.
This candidate would perhaps have benefited from more work on answering a range of different types of
questions and, in particular, looking for key words in questions.

University of Cambridge International Examinations
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Tel: +44 (0)1223 553554 Fax: +44 (0)1223 553558
Email: international@cie.org.uk www.cie.org.uk
® IGCSE is the registered trademark of University of Cambridge International Examinations
© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2012 v1 2Y04
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Example Candidate Responses (Standards Booklet) : Cambridge IGCSE English As A Second Language

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0510 and 0511

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of University of Cambridge International Examinations

© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2012

Assessment at a glance ........................................................................................................ 3

Paper 1 – Reading and Writing (Core) ................................................................................... 4

Paper 2 – Reading and Writing (Extended)..........................................................................44

Paper 3 – Listening (Core) ................................................................................................... 97

Paper 4 – Listening (Extended) ......................................................................................... 130

2 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language

And either: Or:

Paper 3 Listening (Core) Paper 4 Listening (Extended)

And either: Or:

Component 5 Oral Component 6 Oral coursework

Syllabus code 0511 (count-in oral)

Teachers are reminded that a full syllabus is available on www.cie.org.uk

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 3

Paper 1 – Reading and Writing (Core)

4 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 5

Example candidate response – grade C

6 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Examiner comment – grade C

Example candidate response – grade E

Examiner comment – grade E

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 7

Example candidate response – grade F

Examiner comment – grade F

8 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 9

10 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 11

Example candidate response – grade C

Examiner comment – grade C

12 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Example candidate response – grade E

Examiner comment – grade E

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 13

Example candidate response – grade F

Examiner comment – grade F

14 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 15

16 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 17

18 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Example candidate response – grade C

Examiner comment – grade C

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 19

Example candidate response – grade E

20 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Examiner comment – grade E

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 21

Example candidate response – grade F

22 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Examiner comment – grade F

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 23

24 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511 25

Example candidate response – grade C

26 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language 0510 and 0511

Examiner comment – grade C

Example candidate response – grade E