200-310

Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions

Version 9.0

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.

B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.

Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 2
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
o has a low initial cost
o provides low-to-medium BW
o has medium-to-high latency and jitter
Which technology should the organization use?

A. DSL
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. wireless
E. analog modem

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. extends the network to remote users

B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN

Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 4
Refer to the exhibit.

A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the core layer?

A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
E. #5
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)

A. video streaming on the LAN

B. security between departments
C. the segmenting of collision domains
D. the segmenting of broadcast domains
E. the use of multivendor equipment
F. a limited corporate budget

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing
network? (Choose three.)

A. staff input
B. visual inventory
C. network audit
D. traffic analysis
E. server statistics

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 7
Which Cisco security mechanism has the attributes listed below?
o it is a sensor appliance
o it searches for potential attacks by capturing and analyzing traffic
o it is a "purpose-built device"
o it is installed passively
o it introduces no delay or overhead

A. IKE
B. PIX
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
E. HMAC

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step in a design implementation plan?
(Choose three.)

A. step description
B. design document references
C. easy guidelines in case of failure
D. estimated implementation time
E. simple implementation guidelines
F. estimated rollback time in case of failure

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 9
A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics:
o existing AAA Server
o Cisco Catalyst switches
o minimal added investments
Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend?

A. NAC Appliance
B. Cisco IBNS
C. CSM
D. Cisco Security MARS

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data for
billing network usage?

A. BGP
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. QoS
D. RMON
E. NetFlow

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 11
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)

A. Use organizational input.

B. Perform a traffic analysis.
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network.

Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 12
Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.)

A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP

Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 13
What is the benefit of VLSM?
A. reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length
B. reduces the routing table size by using automatic route summarization
C. reduces the routing table size by using manual route summarization
D. allows the subnet mask and classful routing updates to be advertised
E. secures the hosts on a subnet by using RFC 1918 addresses

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves.
Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces while being
customized according to each interface?

A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional campus
network design?

A. Layer 3 service support at the network edge

B. the routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
C. the routing abilities of the host devices
D. the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 16
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?

A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of
services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or
aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP
addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the
aggregation layer.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 17
Which statement is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design?

A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by
STP.
B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent of
any other devices.
C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is the most optimal.
D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging IP
routes and MAC address tables.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 18
When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed
multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options?

A. Will the switches be required to provide inline power?

B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 19
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to the
designer have their own strengths. Which statement is an example of such a strength?

A. Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of
oversubscription on aggregate network performance.
B. N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize
intercontroller roaming events.
C. N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the
controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center.
D. N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the same
subnet for more efficiency.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 20
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters apart,
which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)

A. multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. single-mode fiber
E. serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 21
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?

A. monitor mode
B. sniffer mode
C. rogue detector mode
D. local mode

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before
deployment? (Choose two.)

A. All areas need to connect back to area 0.

B. The OSPF process number on each router should match.
C. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0.
D. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links.
E. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment.

Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 23
Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses?

A. RIPE
B. ARIN
C. IANA
D. IEEE
E. APNIC

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 24
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)

A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 25
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the
most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?

A. security
B. static versus dynamic routing
C. bandwidth
D. QoS
E. latency

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 26
Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent propagation
of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?

A. stub
B. totally stubby
C. backbone
D. NSSA
E. virtual link

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 27
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?

A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 28
Refer to the exhibit.
On which router should you configure redistribution?

A. Router 1
B. Router 2
C. Router 3
D. Router 4
E. Router 5

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 29
Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three.)

A. NetFlow
B. FWSM
C. ISE
D. VRRP
E. sFLOW

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 30
Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?

A. IPsec VPN
B. AnyConnect VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. EasyConnect VPN

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 31
Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard?

A. RFC 1918
B. RFC 2338
C. RFC 2460
D. RFC 2740

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 32
What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route?

A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management?

A. service port
B. management port
C. controller port
D. virtual port

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 34
In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion
detection services?

A. monitor mode
B. promiscuous mode
C. discovery mode
D. sniffer mode

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 35
Which HSRP parameters must match, to ensure proper functionality?

A. group parameters
B. priority parameters
C. preempt parameters
D. tracking parameters

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 36
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.)
A. existing documentation
B. new documentation
C. existing network management software
D. new network management tools
E. management personnel
F. technical personnel

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 37
Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three.)

A. core layer
B. distribution layer
C. access layer
D. aggregation layer
E. network layer
F. Internet layer

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 38
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?

A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. IGRP

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 39
Which three options are characteristics of data center evolution? (Choose three.)

A. consolidation
B. virtualization
C. automation
D. standardization
E. optimization
F. modulation

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 40
Which option is a benefit of the modular approach to network design?

A. higher availability
B. repeatable scalability
C. increased security
D. improved resiliency

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 41
Which statement describes the methodology that supports the Cisco Enterprise Architecture models?

A. It divides the network into functional network modules.

B. It divides the network into role-based network modules.
C. It divides the network into regional network modules.
D. It divides the network into operational network modules.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 42
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?

A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 43
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in
the data center?

A. It enables NIC teaming.

B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It decreases convergence.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 44
Router A has three feasible successors to the 192.168.1.0/24 network, which are listed here:
Option 1 has a metric of 8123228.
Option 2 has a metric of 2195467.
Option 3 has a metric of 8803823.
The variance 4 command was issued on Router A. How many active entries does Router A have in its
routing table for the 192.168.1.0/24 network?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 45
Which two mechanisms are used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose two.)

A. split horizon
B. route summarization
C. route poisoning
D. tuned timers
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 46
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 47
What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three.)

A. strict
B. loose
C. VRF
D. global
E. PIM
F. local

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 48
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. What layer of the OSI model is
used to start the design?

A. physical
B. network
C. transport
D. application

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 49
Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?

A. backbone
B. core
C. access
D. distribution

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 50
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two.)

A. reduces operational cost

B. higher port density
C. investment protection
D. consistent operation
E. improved fault tolerance

Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 51
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to increase
uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain this new
requirement without adding new physical connections?

A. enable spanning-tree portfast

B. enable VSS at the distribution layer
C. increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D. ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
Multicast has been enabled and configured in the Enterprise, and PIM Sparse-mode has been enabled on
all VLANs. What feature is required to stop multicast traffic from being broadcasted on the access layer
switches?

A. IGMP snooping
B. Multicast boundary filter
C. PIM dense-mode
D. Dynamic ARP inspection

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 53
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)

A. ISCSI
B. FCoE
C. SATA
D. Fiber Channel
E. AoE

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 54
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should
these services be provisioned?

A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 55
A data center is reaching its power and cooling capacity. What two virtualization technologies can address
the problem by directly reducing the number of physical devices? (Choose two.)

A. virtual switching systems

B. virtual device contexts
C. virtual servers
D. virtual routing and forwarding
E. virtual port channels
F. virtual LANs

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 56
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing
configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?

A. floating static entry

B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 57
When designing a new enterprise campus network, what topology should be used for maximum
scalability?

A. flat
B. three-layer
C. star
D. partial mesh
E. full mesh

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 58
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution
block?

A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 59
An organization is deciding what routing protocol to use throughout their network. What must be
considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer?

A. reduced scalability of the network when introducing a large number of switch blocks into the
routing table
B. centralized management of access control lists at the distribution layer
C. reliability when implementing routing over spanning-tree at the access layer
D. performance differences between core, distribution and access layer equipment

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 60
A routing protocol neighbor relationship has been established between two routers across the public
Internet using GRE. What technology can be used to encrypt this communication channel?

A. access lists
B. IP security
C. context based access
D. intrusion prevention system

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 61
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.
B. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
E. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 62
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes traffic across multiple gateways?

A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. IBGP

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 63
A network engineer must collect application-level information passing through a router. What two tools
can provide this information? (Choose two.)

A. NBAR
B. CiscoWorks
C. SNMP collector
D. NetFlow collector
E. Syslog

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 64
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing
network infrastructure?

A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 65
A design engineer must send management information messages across the public internet. What
solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these messages?

A. SNMP v3
B. NetFlow v9
C. Syslog Traps
D. Secure Shell v2
E. SNMP v2

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 66
A network engineer is designing a solution that will monitor IP traffic through corporate routers with the
ability to export the flows to a collection engine without using network probes. What technology meets
this requirement?

A. RMON
B. NetFlow
C. SNMP
D. Syslog
E. IP SLA

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 67
A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. Where are aggregation switches
found?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge WAN
D. Remote Module

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 68
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. VTP transparent mode

B. BPDUguard
C. Root Guard
D. Portfast
E. Trunk mode

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 69
What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange services in
remote data centers?

A. Application Control Engine

B. Wide Area Application Services
C. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
D. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 70
What design feature should be considered when accessing resources from a remote data center over a
WAN connection?

A. security
B. bandwidth
C. reliability
D. management

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 71
What two addresses are defined under RFC 1918? (Choose two.)

A. 19.22.37.1
B. 10.1.7.19
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 172.31.1.1
E. 239.15.12.1

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 72
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a
routing table?

A. filtering
B. tunneling
C. summarization
D. translation
E. supernetting

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 73
What two components are used when creating an endpoint's modified EUI-64 format IPv6 address?
(Choose two.)

A. IPv6 Prefix
B. 64-bit MAC address
C. 48-bit MAC address
D. IPv4 Address
E. Link Local Suffix
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 74
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area.
What OSPF area type should be configured?

A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 75
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)

A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 76
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology in the
distribution and access layer?

A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 77
What network technology consolidates network and storage traffic in the data center?

A. virtual storage-area network

B. unified fabric
C. unified computing system
D. virtual switching system

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 78
What type of topology supports WAN redundancy when a balance is required between cost, high
availability, and performance?

A. partial meshed
B. full meshed
C. star
D. ring
E. hub-and-spoke
F. bus
G. point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 79
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?

A. circuit bandwidth
B. prioritization
C. security
D. operational expense

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a
Cisco environment. What protocol allows for this?

A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 81
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)

A. allows a quick response to a design request

B. facilitates design that is based on previous experience
C. requires little or no notation of actual organizational requirements for implementation
D. incorporates organizational requirements
E. provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 82
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?

A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access

Answer: F
QUESTION NO: 83
Directory services and electronic messaging are performed at which layer of the network?

A. core
B. application
C. distribution
D. network

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 84
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?

A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip

171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial
0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1
preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2
ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip
171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6
255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip
171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip
171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6
255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2
preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip
171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6
255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 85
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What
are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning.

B. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame.
C. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all
campus networks.
D. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load
balancing between redundant paths.
E. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 86
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical
connections. There is an OSPF adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution ensures that
interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?

A. optimized OSPF SPF timers

B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. automatic protection switching
D. optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 87
Which statement is true about using a DNS server to discover a controller IP?
A. The AP sends a discovery request to the first controller on the list and then goes down the list
chronologically until it receives a discovery response.
B. The AP sends a discovery request to the last controller on the list and then goes up the list
chronologically until it receives a discovery response.
C. The AP sends a discovery request to all controllers on the list simultaneously.
D. Multiple controller IP addresses in a DNS response are not supported.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 88
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56
kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer
checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The
engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this
issue to occur?

A. The wrong CIR is configured.

B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 89
Which option is an advanced congestion management mechanism?

A. weighted fair queuing

B. policing
C. payload compression
D. header compression

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 90
Which option is an example of physical device virtualization?

A. VSS
B. VPN
C. VRF
D. VLAN

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 91
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server
virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?

A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 92
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to
move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use
the existing WAN. Which Layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?

A. VPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. OTV
D. AToM

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 93
In which two places is redundancy recommended in an enterprise campus network design? (Choose two.)

A. building distribution
B. campus core
C. building access
D. e-commerce
E. Internet connectivity

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 94
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)

A. minimize the effect of link failures

B. minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
C. minimize the convergence time of STP
D. load balance across redundant paths
E. save network costs

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 95
Which two statements are true regarding a hierarchical network? (Choose two.)

A. facilitates choosing the type of routing protocols to be used in the network

B. provides scalability without affecting other layers and functionality
C. provides better performance as network resources are efficiently utilized
D. limits redundancy at the distribution layer
E. complicates manageability because of the added security

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 96
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 97
Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months, what is the main limitation that
must be addressed?

A. scalability
B. serviceability
C. redundancy
D. resiliency

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 98
A network engineer is tasked with summarizing the routes to a remote site. What is the optimal route
statement to connect to the 192.168.101.0/24 and 192.168.102.0/24 networks across the corporate WAN?

A. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

B. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.252.0 10.1.1.1
C. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
D. ip route 192.168.101.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 99
Refer to the exhibit.

Where should routes in the routing table be aggregated or summarized?

A. in the core toward the data center

B. in the distribution toward the access
C. in the core toward the distribution
D. in the distribution toward the core

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 100

Which option is used by OSPF to reduce the flooding domain of database updates in a network?

A. hello packets
B. virtual links
C. interface cost
D. areas

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 101

Refer to the exhibit.
Which three OSPF routers are the only routers that may perform summarization with the current network
layout? (Choose three.)

A. Router 2
B. Router 3
C. Router 4
D. Router 5
E. Router 7
F. Router 8

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 102

Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
B. fast hellos
C. LSA retransmission interval
D. SPF throttle timers
E. LSA group pacing

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 103

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next hop will the router select if given an IP packet with the destination address 19.48.254.3?

A. Router 2
B. Router 1
C. Interface 0
D. Interface 1

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 104

Refer to the exhibit.
In this suboptimal design of a homogeneous Cisco network, which version of spanning tree provides the
fastest convergence?

A. PVST+
B. CST
C. RPVST
D. VSTP
E. PVST

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 105

Refer to the exhibit.
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution,
and the STP root remains on the left distribution?

A. The STP root becomes the gateway.

B. The interdistribution link is used for transit.
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway.
D. The interaccess link is used for transit.
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 106

Refer to the exhibit.
The organization is migrating away from FHRP. VSS has been implemented on a pair of Cisco Catalyst
6500 Series Switches. In order to avoid changes to end hosts, the default gateway is carried over to the
SVI on the VSS. Why does the implementation plan require a four-hour wait after removing the FHRP
configuration?

A. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different. It takes four hours for
the VLAN interface to come up.
B. The SVI IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the SVI to come up.
C. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different. It takes four hours for
the ARP cache to time out.
D. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the
VLAN interface to come up.
E. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the ARP
cache to time out.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 107

Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on a Cisco wireless controller?

A. config create interface

B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 108
Which three series of Cisco wireless controllers support wireless Bidirectional Rate Limiting? (Choose
three.)

A. Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers

B. Cisco 5500 Series Wireless Controllers
C. Cisco 5700 Series Wireless Controllers
D. Cisco 7500 Series Wireless Controllers
E. Cisco 8500 Series Wireless Controllers
F. Cisco 7200 Series Wireless Controllers

Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 109

Which option can use deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack?

A. network IPS
B. NetFlow collector
C. stateful firewall
D. syslog server

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 110

Refer to the exhibit.
Which location is best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has visibility into the most data center traffic?

A. inline before the firewall

B. inline after the firewall
C. passive off the firewall
D. passive off the internal switch

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 111

A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the company network to access internal
resources using a company laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT department. Which VPN
method is used for connectivity?

A. DMVPN
B. SSL VPN
C. IPsec VPN
D. GET VPN

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 112

Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 113

Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support OTV technology? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers
D. Cisco ASR 9000 Series Routers
E. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 114

Which IETF standard technology can be used with data center design to readily scale server virtualization?

A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

B. OTV
C. vPC
D. FCoE

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 115

Which three options are examples of network logical virtualization? (Choose three.)

A. virtual PortChannel
B. virtual machine
C. Virtual Device Context
D. Virtual Switching System
E. virtual device driver
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 116

Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing protocols, QoS, and security components?

A. logical
B. physical
C. layered
D. virtual

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 117

What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO is the final test of the appropriateness of the design?

A. Operate
B. Optimize
C. Design
D. Implement

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 118

What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO includes the identification and resolution of issues prior to moving the
entire network to production?

A. Optimize
B. Operate
C. Implementation
D. Design

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping
across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?

A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: C

NetFlow provides extremely granular and accurate traffic measurements and a high-level collection of
aggregated traffic. The output of netflow information is displayed via the show ip cache flow command on
routers. The Table shows a description of the fields for NetFlow output.
Table. Netflow Output escription

QUESTION NO: 120

You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large
number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?

A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 121

In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?

A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize

Answer: B

Plan Phase
The Plan phase identifies the network requirements based on goals, facilities, and user needs. This phase
characterizes sites and assesses the network, performs a gap analysis against best-practice architectures,
and looks at the operational environment. A project plan is developed to manage the tasks, responsible
parties, milestones, and resources to do the design and implementation. The project plan aligns with the
scope, cost, and resource parameters established with the original business requirements. This project
plan is followed (and updated) during all phases of the cycle.

QUESTION NO: 122

Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?

A. Obtain site contact information

B. Perform network audit
C. Identify customer requirements
D. Perform gap analysis

Answer: C

Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network strategy, and
proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. Technologies that support the
architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a financial justification for a
network strategy.

QUESTION NO: 123

When designing the identity and access control portions for the enterprise campus network, which of
these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to consider?

A. 802.1X
B. ACLs in the core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. NetFlow

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 124
Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler?

A. Automates discovery and inventory of all LAN attached devices

B. Generates a profile based on username and group
C. Learns and creates a database of virus definitions based on LAN traffic
D. A database used to map user VPN accounts

Answer: A

Cisco NAC Profiler: Enables network administrators to keep a real-time, contextual inventory of all devices
in a network. It greatly facilitates the deployment and management of Cisco Network Admission Control
(NAC) systems by discovering and tracking the location and type of all LAN-attached endpoints, including
those that are not capable of authenticating. It also uses the information about the device to determine
the correct policies for NAC to apply.

QUESTION NO: 125

Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the 802.1X protocol. Which other
authentication solution is used hand-in-hand with 802.1X to authenticate users for network access?

A. RADIUS
B. LEAP
C. IPsec
D. TACACS
E. ISAKMP

Answer: A

Cisco Identity-Based Network Services

The Cisco Identity-Based Network Services solution is a way to authenticate host access based on policy
for admission to the network. IBNS supports identity authentication, dynamic provisioning of VLANs on a
per-user basis, guest VLANs, and 802.1X with port security.
The 802.1 X protocol is a standards-based protocol for authenticating network clients by permitting or
denying access to the network. The 802.1 X protocol operates between the end-user client seeking access
and an Ethernet switch or wireless access point (AP) providing the connection to the network. In 802.1 X
terminology, clients are called supplicants, and switches and APs are called authenticates. A back-end
RADIUS server such as a Cisco Access Control Server (ACS) provides the user account database used to
apply authentication and authorization.
With an IBNS solution, the host uses 802.IX and Extensible Authentication Protocol over LANs (EAPoL) to
send the credentials and initiate a session to the network. After the host and switch establish LAN
connectivity, username and password credentials are requested. The client host then sends the credentials
to the switch, which forwards them to the RADIUS ACS.
The RADIUS ACS performs a lookup on the username and password to determine the credentials' validity.
If the username and password are correct, an accept message is sent to the switch or AP to allow access
to the client host. If the username and password are incorrect, the server sends a message to the switch or
AP to block the host port.
Figure 13-4 illustrates the communication flow of two hosts using 802.1X and KAPoL with the switch, AP,
and back-end RADIUS server.

QUESTION NO: 126

Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?

A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP

Answer: B

VoIP Control and Transport Protocols

A number of different protocols are used in a VoIP environment for call control, device provisioning, and
addressing.
Figure 14-15 shows those protocols focused on VoIP control and transport.
QUESTION NO: 127
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across
the network?

A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS

Answer: C

RSVP Signaling protocol that enables end stations or applications to obtain guaranteed bandwidth and
low delays for their data flows.

QUESTION NO: 128

Which two features are supported by single wireless controller deployments? (Choose two.)

A. automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs

B. LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
C. automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
D. Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
E. controller redundancy
F. mobility groups

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 129

Which four services does the architecture for Media Services contain? (Choose four.)

A. access services
B. transport services
C. storage services
D. forwarding services
E. session control services
F. security services
G. filtering services
H. remote access services

Answer: A,B,C,E

An architecture framework for media services supports different models of video models. As shown in
Figure 14-13, the network provides service to video media in the Media Services Framework. Those
services are access services, transport services, bridging services, storage servers, and session control
services, which arc provided to endpoints.
? Access services provide identity of end devices, mobility, and location services.
? Transport services provide QoS for reliable packet delivery.
? Bridging services provide transcoding, conferencing, and recording services of media streams.
? Storage services provide capture and storage of media streams and content management and
distribution.
? Session control services provide session signaling and control and gateway services.

QUESTION NO: 130

Refer to the exhibit.
Which layer is the distribution layer?

A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 131

Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?

A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable

Answer: C
Any cast is a network addressing and routing methodology in which data grams from a single sender are
routed to the topologically nearest node in a group of potential receivers all identified by the same
destination address.
Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anycast

QUESTION NO: 132

What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch office
environment?

A. CST
B. RSPT
C. PVST
D. MISTP
E. Rapid PVST +

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 133

Refer to the exhibit.
A standard, Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution
layer?

A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 134

Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)

A. VSS: Virtual Switching System

B. VRF: virtual routing and forwarding
C. VCI: virtual channel identifier
D. VLSM: variable length subnet masking
E. VM: virtual machine
F. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool

Answer: A,B

Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same physical
infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is logically separate from the other segments.
Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of policies, QoS levels, and
independent routing paths.
Here are some examples of network virtualization technologies:
? VLAN: Virtual local-area network
? VSAN: Virtual storage-area network
? VRF: Virtual routing and forwarding
? VPN: Virtual private network
? VPC: Virtual Port Channel

QUESTION NO: 135

You are tasked with designing a new branch office that will support 75 users with possible expansion in
the future and will need a highly available network. Which of the branch design profiles should be
implemented?

A. large branch design

B. medium branch design
C. teleworker design
D. small branch design

Answer: B

Medium Branch Design

The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users, which is similar to the
small branch but with an additional access router in the WAN edge (slightly larger) allowing for
redundancy services. Typically, two 2921 or 2951 routers are used to support the WAN, and separate
access switches are used to provide LAN connectivity.

QUESTION NO: 136

Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)

A. frame relay
B. MPLS
C. Metro Ethernet
D. GPRS
E. dial-up modem
F. 3G USB modems

Answer: B,C

Explanation
Frame relay is old 'shared' technology today's sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN

QUESTION NO: 137

What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?

A. 300 bytes
B. 1 sec
C. 150 ms
D. 500 ms

Answer: C

Delay Components in VoIP Networks

The ITU's G.I 14 recommendation specifics that the one-way delay between endpoints should not exceed
150 ms to be acceptable, commercial voice quality. In private networks, somewhat longer delays might be
acceptable for economic reasons. The ITU G.114 recommendation specifics that 151-ms to 400-ms
one-way delay might be acceptable provided that organizations are aware that the transmission time will
affect the quality of user applications. One-way delays of above 400 ms are unacceptable for general
network planning purposes.

QUESTION NO: 138

Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?

A. monitor mode
B. sniffer mode
C. rogue detector mode
D. local mode

Answer: C

CISENU200_310_02222016.dat

QUESTION NO: 139

Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single
dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal
routing.
Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?

A. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
B. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP
routing protocol.
C. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
E. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 140

You design a network with the following network addresses:

192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?

A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 141

Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS?
(Choose two.)

A. community
B. route reflectors
C. local preference
D. confederations
E. atomic aggregate

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 142

Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in
the data center?

A. It supports NIC teaming.

B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 143

Which option is an advantage of the bottom-up design model?

A. focuses on the needs of user communities

B. includes a thorough analysis of customer requirements
C. facilitates a quick response to client requests
D. produces a "big-picture" of the desired outcome

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 144

A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically connected
hosts?

A. core
B. access
C. aggregation
D. distribution

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 145
Which two options are benefits of using a modular network architecture? (Choose two.)

A. facilitates troubleshooting
B. accurate monitoring
C. consistent documentation
D. increased flexibility
E. reduced cabling requirements

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 146

An organization is redesigning a 3-tier hierarchical network into a collapsed core. What design issue is a
primary concern per Cisco best practices?

A. services delineation
B. port density
C. feature availability
D. resource utilization

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 147

What three design best practices are key functions of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)

A. fault domain isolation

B. admission control
C. access switch aggregation
D. QoS tagging
E. address summarization
F. end user and application isolation

Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION NO: 148
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?

A. high cost per port

B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 149

A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client requests WAN
redundancy to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types satisfy this requirement?
(Choose two.)

A. Secondary T1 WAN circuit

B. ISDN BRI
C. IPSec Tunnel over the Internet
D. DWDM
E. POTS Line T1 WAN

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 150

A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area.
What OSPF area type should be configured?

A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 151
A network engineer is tasked to upgrade and expand a large existing production network. From the IOS
CLI, what two protocols can be used to build a topology map of the existing network? (Choose two.)

A. SNMP
B. IP SLA
C. ICMP Echo
D. LLDP
E. Traceroute

Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 152

A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would
they use to gain insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization?
(Choose two.)

A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 153

What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A. reduces routing table size

B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability

Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 154
What are two reasons discontinuous IPv4 networks hinder scalability? (Choose two.)

A. routing table bloat

B. inability to utilize automatic summarization
C. insufficient IP addresses
D. slowed packet forwarding
E. delayed interface queuing

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 155

What is a benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 addresses?

A. shorter addresses
B. automatic summarization
C. hierarchal global address space
D. faster IGP convergence

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 156

GRE has been used to establish a routing-protocol neighbor relationship between two routers, across the
public Internet. Which technology can you use to encrypt this communication channel?

A. access lists
B. IPsec
C. CBAC
D. IPS

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 157

Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. provides information about directly connected Cisco devices

B. provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 158

Which three QoS levels should VoIP clients be set to on a Cisco WLC? (Choose three.)

A. Platinum
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Silver
E. Premier
F. Critical

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 159

What is the optimal device and location to fulfill these requirements?

o provide early indication of reconnaissance and scanning activities with blocking capabilities
o require fewer interfaces to inspect traffic to the DMZ and internal network

A. IPS inline outside of the firewall

B. IPS inline inside the firewall
C. Cisco IOS IPS on the border router
D. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port outside of the firewall
E. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port inside the firewall

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 160

What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design
methodology? (Choose three.)
A. logical
B. physical
C. layered
D. network components
E. technological
F. protocols
G. virtual

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 161

Refer to the exhibit.

Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private
addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?

A. B. NAT
B. C. VLAN
C. D. GARP
D. PPP

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 162

Refer to the exhibit.
You are designing routing between building distribution switches and campus core switches. Assuming
that all links have the same speed, which statement about these designs is true?

A. B. Option A has more fault tolerance and faster convergence than Option B.
B. C. Option B has more fault tolerance but slower convergence than Option A.
C. Option B has more fault tolerance and faster convergence than Option A.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 163

Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet
connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two
locations?

A. GRE over IPsec

B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. SSL VPN

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 164

Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100 Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch
offices?

A. DSL
B. DWDM
C. ISDN
D. Metro Ethernet

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 165

Which statement describes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the Cisco
Network Architecture for the Enterprise?

A. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the enterprise campus access layer and enterprise branch.
B. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the enterprise campus server farm layer and enterprise branch.
C. Place the DHCP server in the enterprise campus core layer and remote access and VPN module, and
place the DNS server in the Internet connectivity module.
D. Place the DHCP server in the enterprise campus distribution layer, and place the DNS server in the
Internet connectivity module.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 166

A network engineer needs to create a controller-based, high-density RF design. Which two factors
determine the cell size? (Choose two.)

A. antenna type
B. ClientLink support
C. TPC threshold setting
D. QoS setting
E. free space path loss

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 167

Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?

A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 168

Which DHCP option do you need to configure to ensure that an LWAP can communicate with the Cisco
WLC in a different subnet?

A. 7
B. 19
C. 43
D. 150

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 169

Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two.)

A. ESX host
B. VM
C. switches
D. routers
E. Hyper-V host

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 170

Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO: 171
Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO: 172
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO: 173
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.
Answer:

QUESTION NO: 174

Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO: 175
What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A. Migration
B. Deployment
C. Optimization
D. Design
E. Configuration

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 176

Which design enables easy and flexible scaling in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model?

A. modular
B. top-down
C. bottom-up
D. full-mesh

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 177

Which two issues are typical challenges to network stability and reliability? (Choose two.)

A. hardware failures
B. layer 1 link failures
C. application failures
D. core layer failures
E. distribution layer failures

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 178

For a VLAN that requires 70 hosts, which subnet is the most efficient?

A. 10.0.0.1/8
B. 172.31.17.0/26
C. 192.168.1.0/25
D. 192.168.15.0/24

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 179

If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do they have on the routing table?

A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added.

B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added.
C. Both routes are added.
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 180

Which benefit is an advantage of route summarization?

A. It reduces the size of the routing table.

B. It causes routes to be updated more frequently.
C. It lowers the cost metric.
D. It enables neighbor discovery.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 181

Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)

A. discarding
B. learning
C. blocking
D. listening
E. disabled

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 182

When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?

A. when remote-site APs are centrally managed

B. when each remote site has its own wireless controller
C. when each remote site runs VSS
D. when the remote sites use WAN optimization

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 183

In which two modes can you deploy Cisco IPS appliances? (Choose two.)

A. inline
B. promiscuous
C. VTP group
D. threat mitigation
E. threat detection

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 184

According to Cisco best practices, which traffic control should you apply to the strict priority queue?

A. Bandwidth should be limited to one-third of the link capacity.

B. Bandwidth should be limited to 768 kbps.
C. Limits should be applied to non-real-time traffic and all real-time traffic should be permitted.
D. The link serialization delay should be set to less than 100 ms.

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 185
According to fundamental design principles, which location is best for implementing Cisco QoS policies?

A. hardware
B. software
C. Cisco 3900 Series Integrated Services Routers running IOS software
D. WAN routers running IOS software

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 186

Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?

A. a VRF instance
B. a MIB database
C. a GRE tunnel
D. redundant hardware

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 187

Which network virtualization technique can you implement without disrupting the existing network design
and infrastructure?

A. VRF-Lite
B. EVN
C. MPLS
D. VNET tags

Answer: A