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Specimen Materials
Biology (9790)
Cambridge International Level 3
Pre-U Certificate in Biology (Principal)
QAN 500/380/72
www.cie.org.uk/cambridgepreu 1
Cambridge Pre-U Specimen Papers and Mark Schemes
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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS
Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate
Principal Subject
BIOLOGY 9790/01
Paper 1 Structured Questions For Examination from 2013
SPECIMEN PAPER
2 hours 30 minutes
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.
No Additional Materials are required.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on all the work you hand in.
Write in dark blue or black pen.
You may use a pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Section B 22
Write your answers in the spaces provided on the question paper.
23
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question.
24
25
26
Total
Section A For
Examiner's
1 The resolving power of a microscope depends on the wavelength used by the system. Use
Table 1.1 shows the wavelengths and resolving powers of three types of microscope.
Table 1.1
Table 1.2 gives details of four biological structures which are investigated using
microscopes. The ticks () and crosses () indicate whether or not each structure can be
clearly seen with each microscope.
Table 1.2
light microscope
ultra-violet
microscope
electron microscope
Which row correctly completes Table 1.2 to show which structures can be clearly seen
with an ultra-violet microscope?
A
B
C
D
answer [1]
© UCIE 2011 9790/01/SP/13
3
2 Use your knowledge and the information provided to work out which description of For
telomeres and telomerase reverse transcriptase (TERT) is correct. Examiner's
Use
B present in eukaryotes inhibits the loss of telomeres from DNA during semi-
conservative replication
C present in prokaryotes inhibits the loss of telomeres from DNA during semi-
conservative replication
answer [1]
answer [1]
4 An action potential arrives at the synaptic knob increasing the permeability of the For
membranes to ……1……, which diffuse in and cause vesicles to move to the pre-synaptic Examiner's
membrane and fuse with it. Use
……2…… occurs and the ……3…… moves across the synaptic cleft by ……4…… and
attaches to receptors on the post-synaptic membrane, causing ……5…… channels to
open and a post-synaptic potential to be generated.
1 2 3 4 5
transmitter active
A acetylcholine endocytosis calcium ion
substance transport
transmitter active
C calcium ions exocytosis sodium ion
substance transport
answer [1]
DNA
answer [1]
6 Small samples from crime scenes can be genetically profiled (DNA finger printed). For
Examiner's
Which are necessary parts of a successful genetic profiling process? Use
B saliva
C semen
D skin cells
Key
= used
= not used
answer [1]
B Their inner membrane has different structure from other intracellular membranes.
answer [1]
8 Approximately half of the total protein in a pea seed consists of the storage protein vicilin. For
Examiner's
• Each molecule of vicilin is made up of three identical polypeptides. Use
secondary quaternary
primary structure tertiary structure
structure structure
α-helix and
amino acid
β-pleated sheet association of three folding of each
A sequence of one
regions of each polypeptides polypeptide
polypeptide
polypeptide
α-helix and
amino acid
β-pleated sheet folding of each association of three
B sequence of one
regions of each polypeptide polypeptides
polypeptide
polypeptide
α-helix and
amino acid
association of three β-pleated sheet folding of each
C sequence of one
polypeptides regions of each polypeptide
polypeptide
polypeptide
α-helix and
amino acid
association of three folding of each β-pleated sheet
D sequence of one
polypeptides polypeptide regions of each
polypeptide
polypeptide
answer [1]
9 The graphs represent the frequency of alleles in species X, Y and Z during and after For
selection. Examiner's
Use
key
characteristics selected for
characteristics selected
against
X Y Z
during
allele selection
frequency
after
allele selection
frequency
A X only
B Y only
C Y and Z
D none of X, Y nor Z
answer [1]
10 Curve X shows the oxygen dissociation curve for human haemoglobin. Under certain For
conditions this curve becomes displaced to the right. This is termed the Bohr effect and is Examiner's
shown by curve Y. Use
X
100
80
percentage 60
Y
saturation of
haemoglobin 40
20
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
partial pressure of
oxygen / kPa
answer [1]
11 Which statements correctly describe the structure and function of prokaryote ribosomes? For
Examiner's
1 Prokaryote ribosomes are smaller than eukaryote ribosomes and sediment at Use
70 S.
4 In prokaryotes, ribosomes can begin translating mRNA before its synthesis has been
completed.
A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 5 only
D 2, 4 and 5 only
answer [1]
12 A snake venom causes death by leading to paralysis of muscles. It exerts its effect at For
synapses. Examiner's
Use
The statements below were put forward by scientists as possible explanations for the
effects of this venom.
A 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
B 2, 4 and 5 only
C 4 only
D 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
answer [1]
1 ADP is hydrolysed.
2 ADP is phosphorylated.
3 ATP is hydrolysed.
4 ATP is phosphorylated.
5 NADP is oxidised.
6 NADP is reduced.
A 1 and 5 only
B 2 and 6 only
C 1, 4 and 5 only
D 2, 3 and 6 only
answer [1]
14 One of the many recessive mutations of the CFTR gene changes one amino acid in the For
region of the CFTR protein that binds ATP. The graph shows the effect of different Examiner's
concentrations of ATP on normal and mutant CFTR proteins. Use
80
20
0
concentration of ATP
Which correctly describes individuals who are homozygous for this mutation?
1 Their CFTR protein cannot bind ATP and cannot act as an ion channel.
2 Their CFTR protein binds ATP less readily than normal CFTR protein.
3 They produce CFTR protein that must bind ATP to function as an ion channel.
4 They produce a mixture of normal and mutant CFTR protein, both of which can act as
an ion channel.
answer [1]
15 Many plants are not fertilised by pollen from their own flowers. This is known as For
self-incompatibility. In any individual species a single gene, the S gene, is responsible and Examiner's
it may have many different alleles. Use
If a pollen grain has an S allele which matches an allele in the genotype of the stigma then
the pollen grain fails to germinate or the pollen tube fails to grow through the style.
1 2 3 4
S1 S1S3 S3 S2S4
pollen grain
answer [1]
1 cohesion/tension
2 diffusion
3 mass flow
4 osmosis
A 1 2 3 4
B 2 1 4 3
C 3 4 1 2
D 4 3 2 1
answer [1]
BLANK PAGE
Questions 17 to 20
The graphs on the opposite page show features of the survival and reproductive success of adult
males and females of four different species:
Column 1 shows the age-specific survival which is the probability that adult animals of different ages
will survive for a further year.
Column 2 shows survivorship curves. A survivorship curve shows the proportion of a population that
survives to different ages.
Column 3 shows the mean annual reproductive success which is the number of offspring produced
by adult males and females of different ages.
Study the graphs and then for each question identify the most appropriate graph that matches the
statements in questions 17 to 20. Record your answer to each question by using a letter for the
appropriate species and a number for the appropriate graph, e.g. A1, B2, C3, etc.
17 A species with a higher proportion of females than males in the oldest age groups.
answer [1]
answer [1]
19 A species in which both males and females have the same effective breeding period.
answer [1]
20 A polygynous species.
answer [1]
1 2 3
species age-specific survival survivorship mean annual
reproductive success
population surviving
mean number of
A red deer 1.00 0.80 2.4
0.75 1.8
0.50 0.40 1.2
0.25 0.6
0 0 0
0 5 10 15 0 5 10 15 0 6 12 18
age / years age / years age / years
proportion of original
population surviving
mean number of
B Bewick’s 1.00 0.50 1.2
swan 0.75 0.9
0.50 0.25 0.6
0.25 0.3
0 0 0
0 5 10 15 0 6 12 18 0 5 10 15
age / years age / years age / years
population surviving
mean number of
C dwarf 1.00 0.40 5
mongoose 0.75 4
3
0.50 0.20
2
0.25 1
0 0 0
0 5 10 15 0 5 10 15 0 2 4 6 8 10
age / years age / years age / years
population surviving
mean number of
key
= females
= males
Section B For
Examiner's
Use
Answer all the questions.
21 ATP is a nucleotide that performs many essential roles in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
It is considered to be the major ‘energy currency’ of cells.
H 2N
N
N
O O O
N
O– P O P O P O N
O
O– O– O–
OH OH
Fig. 21.1
(a) Describe the features of a molecule of ATP that make it suitable for its role.
[3]
[1]
[2]
(c) The enzyme ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) is needed for DNA synthesis. The
enzyme catalyses the reaction in which adenosine diphosphate is converted to
deoxyadenosine diphosphate (dADP).
RNR
ADP dADP + H2O
[1]
[2]
Fig. 21.2
Describe the structure of the enzyme, ADA, as shown in Fig. 1.2. You may add
labels to the diagram to help your answer if you wish.
[3]
[3]
Explain the problems encountered in using gene therapy as a treatment for genetic
diseases, such as SCID.
[4]
[Total: 19]
22 Skin cancer cells may be grown in culture and examined using the technique of For
immunofluorescence in which antibodies are used to attach fluorescent dyes to specific Examiner's
molecules within the cells. Use
Fig. 22.1 is an immunofluorescent light micrograph of skin cancer cells. The DNA in the
large cell nuclei is stained blue. These nuclei are typical of cells undergoing division in
cancer. Proteins in the cytoplasm are stained green.
There are two cells in the process of dividing. Each of these cells has two areas stained
bright yellow, labelled A on Fig. 22.1.
Fig. 22.1
(a) (i) Suggest why proteins in the cytoplasm of the non-dividing cells in Fig. 22.1 are
not evenly distributed.
[1]
(ii) Suggest the identity of the two areas stained yellow in the dividing cells and
outline their function.
[3]
(b) Before the skin cancer cells could be stained with antibodies, the cells had to be fixed For
and treated with a mild detergent to increase the permeability of the cell surface Examiner's
membranes. Use
(i) State why it is necessary to increase the permeability of the cell surface
membranes before staining cells using the technique of immunofluorescence.
[1]
(ii) State and explain two advantages of using immunofluorescence in studying the
changes that occur in cells during cell division.
advantage 1
advantage 2
[4]
[Total: 9]
23 Fig. 23.1 is a photomicrograph of the lower epidermis of the leaf of an oleander, Nerium For
oleander. Fig. 23.2 is a photomicrograph of the lower epidermis of the leaf of a privet, Examiner's
Use
Ligustrum vulgare. Both photomicrographs are to the same scale.
(a) State two ways, visible in Fig. 23.1 and Fig. 23.2, in which the epidermis of oleander
differs from the epidermis of privet. In each case explain how oleander is adapted to
survive severe drought conditions.
[4]
The concentration of three ions, potassium, chloride and phosphate, were determined in For
guard cells of closed and open stomata. Fig. 23.3 shows these concentrations measured Examiner's
in arbitrary units which are the same for all three ions. Use
key
7 concentration of: 2
concentration
concentration 6 K+ ions
of Cl – ions and
of K+ ions / Cl – ions
arbitrary units 5 PO43– ions
PO43– ions /
arbitrary units
4
1
3
2
1
0 0
guard
cells
nuclei
open
region stomatal
with thick pore
cuticle
Fig. 23.3
(b) Suggest a possible mechanism, that can be supported by the data in Fig. 23.3, to
account for the changes in stomatal aperture.
[4]
(c) Many plant cells have cytoplasmic connections (plasmodesmata) between For
neighbouring cells, but these are absent from guard cells. Examiner's
Use
[2]
[Total: 10]
24 Fig. 24.1 summarises the reactions which occur in the Calvin cycle.
CO2
enzyme B
two molecules of
compound A
glycerate 3-phosphate
step C
glucose
Fig. 24.1
(a) Where, precisely, in a plant cell do the reactions shown in Fig. 24.1 take place?
[1]
[1]
(ii) enzyme B
[1]
(c) Calculate the proportion of carbon atoms from glycerate 3-phosphate molecules
which are incorporated into glucose. Show your working.
[2]
(d) Some biologists describe enzyme B as ‘the most important enzyme in our biosphere’.
Explain why they might hold this opinion.
[2]
(e) The Calvin cycle is part of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. These For
reactions continue when a plant is moved from light conditions to dark conditions, but Examiner's
only for a very short time. Use
[4]
(f) Evidence suggests that the earliest eukaryotic cells did not carry out photosynthesis.
Explain how some eukaryotic cells are thought to have become photosynthetic.
[4]
[Total: 15]
Fig. 25.1
(a) Outline the aspects of the biology of S. vulgaris that must be considered when
describing the niche of this species.
[4]
The relative contribution of individual species to the biodiversity of communities has been For
investigated for particular species. Fig. 25.2 shows the effect of different densities of the Examiner's
gastropod mollusc, Littorina littorea, on the number of species of algae in tidal rock pools Use
on the Eastern seaboard of the USA. L. littorea grazes on algae.
14
12
10
number of 8
species of
algae 6
0
0 50 100 150 200 250
density of L. littorea / number m–2
Fig. 25.2
[5]
The effects of removing all the individuals of a species of predatory starfish on a rocky For
shore community were investigated. Fig. 25.3 is part of a food web for this community and Examiner's
shows the changes that occurred. The minus symbol (–) indicates that the numbers of Use
individuals in the species concerned decreased; the plus symbol (+) indicates that the
numbers of individuals in the species concerned increased.
predatory starfish
dog whelk
1 species +
Fig. 25.3
(c) Explain how the results of the study support the idea that the predatory starfish is
a keystone species.
[3]
[Total: 12]
26 The gene for colour vision in humans is sex-linked. The recessive allele, ch, causes For
red-green colour blindness. The gene for the ABO blood group system is on Examiner's
Use
chromosome 9. There are three alleles, IA, IB and Io and four possible phenotypes.
affected unaffected
1 2
female
I
male
A B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
II
O A A AB O O B
1 2 3 4
III
O A B A
Fig. 26.1
(a) State the genotypes of the following people in the family shown in Fig. 26.1.
I-2
II-1
II-7 [3]
[2]
(ii) one grandson (III-3) has inherited colour-blindness but the other (III-1) has not
[2]
(iii) there are four phenotypes in the ABO blood group system.
[3]
A man with nail-patella syndrome and blood group AB has a family of five children with
his wife who does not have the syndrome and is blood group O.
Three children do not have the nail-patella syndrome and are blood group A.
father
mother
[3]
(d) Explain why there is a small probability of these parents having a child with both
blood group A and nail-patella syndrome.
[2]
[Total: 15]
Copyright Acknowledgements:
Question 22 Figure 22.1 Immunofluorescent LM of skin cancer cells, © Nancy Kedersha/Science Photo Library
Question 25 Figure 25.1 Starling, Stumus vulagris, © Jeroen Stel (rspb.images.com)
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.
BIOLOGY 9790/01
Paper 1 Structured Questions For Examination from 2013
SPECIMEN MARK SCHEME
2 hours 30 minutes
Section A
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 11 B
2 A 12 A
3 C 13 B
4 B 14 C
5 C 15 A
6 D 16 D
7 A 17 A2
8 B 18 C2
9 B 19 B3
10 D 20 A3/D3
Section B
(b) (i) idea of linking, energy releasing / oxidation, reactions to energy-consuming reactions ; [1]
[Total: 19]
(ii) spindle apparatus / spindle fibres ; Accept spindle / microtubules / tubulin / centrioles /
microtubule organising centres / MTOCs [1]
function to max 2
attach to chromosomes / kinetochores ;
detail of, elongation / structure / shortening, of microtubules ;
for movement of chromosomes ;
during mitosis ;
(b) (i) antibody molecules too large to pass through membrane ; [1]
[Total: 9]
23 (a) Oleander
thicker cuticle ;
less evaporation from leaf surface / epidermis ; A less water loss from leaf surface /
epidermis [2 + 2]
[Total: 10]
(c) award two marks for the correct answer (1/6 or eq) with or without working
[Total: 15]
25 (a) biotic factors affecting / abiotic factors affecting / description of, habitat ;
trophic level / what it feeds on ;
adaptations for feeding / foraging method ;
time / places, where it feeds ;
where it roosts ;
whether / when, living, individually / in small groups / in flocks ;
where / when, it reproduces ;
predator / what feeds on it ;
parasites ;
competitors ;
AVP ;
AVP ; [max 4]
[Total: 12]
(b) (i) fathers pass on X chromosome to their daughters / fathers never pass on X
chromosome to their sons ;
mother has (at least one) dominant allele and this has been passed on to
the sons ; [2]
(ii) III-3 has inherited colour blindness from mother who is a carrier ;
she has inherited Xch from, her father / I-1 ;
other grandson / III-1, cannot inherit Xch through the male line ; [max 2]
(iii) multiple alleles / 3 alleles at this locus but each person diploid so can only have 2 ;
gives 6 different genotypes / genotypes listed ;
codominance between IA and IB, so gives AB ;
dominance between IA / IB and Io , so means IA Io is same phenotype as
IA IA / IBIo is same phenotype as IBIB ; [max 3]
(c) one mark for each genotype, one mark for giving notation for linkage
father
IA np / (IA np) (IB Np)
IB Np
mother
Io np / (Ionp) (Ionp)
Io np [3]
[Total: 15]
BIOLOGY 9790/02
Paper 2 Long Answer For Examination from 2013
SPECIMEN PAPER
2 hours 45 minutes
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.
No Additional Materials are required.
Write your Centre number, candidate number and name on the work you hand in.
Write in dark blue or black pen.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Section A
Answer all questions.
Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper.
Section B
Answer all questions.
Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper.
For Examiner's Use
Section C
Section A
Answer one question.
Write your answers on the Question Paper. Separate answer paper will be
available if required. Section B
At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together. 8
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part
question. 9
10
Total
Section A For
Examiner's
Data analysis Use
1 Fig. 1.1 shows an American eel, Anguilla rostrata, which lives for part of its life in the rivers
and mountain streams of the Eastern USA. Adult fish migrate to the Atlantic Ocean when
they are ready to breed. After breeding the adults die.
Young eels migrate from the sea back to the rivers and streams and may live for five years
or more before reaching the stage when they are ready to breed.
This species of fish has become rare in mountain streams over recent years.
Fig. 1.1
As part of a long-running study to find out more about the biology and behaviour of
A. rostrata, mark-release-recapture was used to estimate the population size in one
mountain stream in Virginia. Very young eels were not marked.
2005 184 72
(a) (i) Calculate the population estimate for the year 2004 to complete Table 1.1.
[3]
[3]
The annual growth of the eels was also measured. Fig. 1.2 shows a box-whisker plot of the For
results for growth in length and growth in mass of eels in one stream that were marked with Examiner's
tags and then recaptured from 2000 to 2005. Use
60
50
40
increase in
30
length / mm
20
10
0
80
60
increase in
40
mass / g
20
0
2000-2001 2001-2002 2002-2003 2003-2004 2004-2005
year
Fig. 1.2
The line in each box represents the median; the top and bottom of each box show 25th and
75th percentiles; the ‘whiskers’ show the 10th and 90th percentiles.
[3]
(ii) Explain the advantage of plotting box-whiskers to show these data rather than bar
charts or histograms.
[3]
(c) A. rostrata is not officially recognised as an endangered species, but its numbers are in For
decline. Examiner's
Use
Discuss the limitations of the results of this study in terms of providing sufficient
information to inform the conservation of A. rostrata in Virginia.
[4]
(d) Numbers of eels are not as high in other mountain streams in the area. It is thought this
is due to dams downstream that are barriers to migration from the sea.
Suggest how the study might be extended to see if this is the case.
[2]
[Total: 20]
BLANK PAGE
2 In an investigation into pollen release from Timothy grass, Phleum pratense, the number of For
pollen grains released into the atmosphere was sampled at hourly intervals, on three Examiner's
consecutive days. Traps sited just above the level of the leaves were used to do this. Use
The wind speed and the relative humidity were recorded at the times of sampling.
700
600
number 500
of pollen 400
grains
collected 300
per hour 200
100
0
2
wind
speed 1
/ m s–1
0
100
80
% relative 60
humidity
40
20
0
2400 1200 2400 1200 2400 1200 2400
Fig. 2.1
(a) Use the data in Fig. 2.1 to make conclusions about the factors that determine the For
release of pollen from Timothy grass. Examiner's
Use
[6]
(b) Discuss how confident you can be that your conclusions about release of pollen from
Timothy grass are valid.
[4]
[Total: 10]
3 The technique of polyacrilamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE) is used to separate and For
identify proteins. One method of PAGE involves treating proteins with an ionic detergent to Examiner's
dissociate proteins into their constituent polypeptide subunits. Sodium dodecyl sulfate Use
(SDS) is often used for this. Proteins treated with SDS have a uniform net charge on each
polypeptide so that during electrophoresis they are separated only on the basis of their
relative molecular mass.
After treatment with SDS, proteins are placed in wells (A to F) cut into the polyacrilamide
gel. A dye is added to each sample to show the progress of the samples across the gel. A
current is applied to the gel and when the dye reaches a point towards the end of the gel,
the current is switched off.
Six proteins were analysed with SDS-PAGE and the results are shown in Fig. 3.1.
The relative molecular mass of one protein, lactate dehydrogenase, was unknown.
A B C D E F well
dye front
Fig. 3.1
(a) (i) Calculate the relative mobility of the proteins in sample wells A, B, C, E and F and For
add your calculated values to the spaces in Table 3.1. Examiner's
Use
Space for working
Table 3.1
For
Examiner's
Use
(ii) Use the graph paper provided to draw a graph of the relative molecular mass
plotted against the relative mobility of proteins A, B, D, E and F. [4]
(b) Complete Table 3.1 by using your graph to find the relative molecular mass of lactate
dehydrogenase.
Write the relative molecular mass of lactate dehydrogenase in the space in Table 3.1 [2]
[Total: 8]
BLANK PAGE
Plan an investigation to find out whether or not the yeast transport proteins for glucose and
maltose function at the same rate.
You are provided with the following equipment. Choose your equipment from this list.
You may not use any additional equipment.
For
Examiner's
Use
For
Examiner's
Use
For
Examiner's
Use
[22]
Section B For
Examiner's
Read the passage carefully and answer all the questions in the spaces provided. Use
Diabetes mellitus currently affects at least 2.5 million people in the UK and is a condition in
which the body is unable to maintain a normal blood glucose concentration. Many people who
have no experience of diabetes think that the more common form is type 1, requiring insulin
injections. Yet this is not the case. By far the more common is type 2, which represents
approximately 85–90% of cases, and is on the increase. Originally thought of as affecting older
people it is becoming increasing common among the young. It is thought that obesity is an
important risk factor. There is no entirely successful way of treating type 2 diabetes although it
can be managed by control of diet, appropriate exercise and the use of medication.
Those with the condition, at least initially, produce insulin normally but certain body cells
develop insulin resistance. This means that they do not respond to the hormone by taking up
glucose from the blood rapidly enough to maintain a normal blood glucose concentration. The
permeability of cell membranes is dependent on the presence of transporter protein molecules.
Table 5.1 provides information about two types of such transporters, GLUT and SGLT.
Table 5.1 distinguishes four types (isoforms) of GLUT.
Table 5.1
transporter type of
isoform mainly present in further information
group mechanism
SGLT secondary
transport glucose
(sodium- active
cells lining the proximal directly from
glucose transport
tubule of nephrons glomerular filtrate into
linked along sodium
cells lining nephron
transporters) gradient
Insulin is produced by the β cells of the islets of Langerhans within the pancreas. When the For
insulin concentration of the blood is low, GLUT4 molecules are removed from the cell Examiner's
membranes of adipose cells and skeletal muscle cells into vesicles in the cytoplasm. Except in Use
the case of type 2 diabetes, an increase in blood insulin concentration means that insulin
combines with specific sites on the cell surface membrane. This causes the GLUT4 molecules
to be restored to the membrane, making it permeable to glucose. When blood insulin
concentration falls the GLUT4 molecules are removed from the membrane into cytoplasmic
vesicles again.
On the onset of type 2 diabetes the patient’s cells become insulin-resistant. Initially the
pancreas responds by producing extra insulin. This only partially alleviates the problem of
insulin resistance and, in time, overworking of the pancreatic β cells leads to their death and
subsequently a reduction in insulin production. At this stage the patient may need to receive
insulin injections, although this offers only a partial solution.
5 (a) After a meal, blood glucose concentration rises above the target concentration
(4.5–5.5 mmol dm–3) at which it is normally maintained by homeostasis.
With the help of Table 5.1, outline how the glucose concentration is reduced to normal
in a person who does not have diabetes.
[3]
(b) In the space below draw a simple labelled diagram showing how protein transporter
molecules may form part of a cell surface membrane.
[4]
(c) Explain how the uptake of glucose by cells in the proximal convoluted tubule differs For
from its uptake by liver cells. Examiner's
Use
[3]
(d) (i) Suggest a mechanism by which the glucose transporter GLUT4 is restored to the
membrane when insulin binds to the cell surface membrane.
[1]
(ii) To what extent might the removal of GLUT4 from a muscle cell surface membrane
render it impermeable to glucose?
[1]
[Total: 12]
6 Table 6.1 presents the results of an experiment comparing rates of glucose production by a For
group of people with type 2 diabetes and a control group without the condition, during 23 Examiner's
hours of fasting. Use
Table 6.1
total glucose
8.9 ± 0.5 11.1 ± 0.6 p < 0.05
production
glucose from
hydrolysis of 2.8 ± 0.7 1.3 ± 0.2 p < 0.05
glycogen in the liver
glucose from
6.1 ± 0.5 9.8 ± 0.7 p < 0.01
gluconeogenesis
(a) Discuss the conclusions which can be drawn from the data in Table 6.1.
[6]
(b) In non-diabetic individuals, the blood glucose concentration in the renal vein is only For
slightly lower than in the renal artery. Examiner's
Use
Explain why one might expect the glucose concentration of the blood in the renal vein
to be much lower than in the renal artery and suggest why, in fact, the concentrations
are almost identical.
[4]
[Total: 10]
Explain why such an approach, once perfected, is more likely to offer, at least initially, a
treatment for type 1 rather than type 2 diabetes and discuss why this approach may be
preferable to the use of transplants or embryonic stem cells.
[8]
[Total: 8]
Section C For
Examiner's
Answer one question on the lined paper that follows. Use
You are advised to spend no more 50 minutes on this section of the examination. Credit will be
given for answers that draw from a wide range of syllabus material and also for evidence of
reading around the subject.
9 All living organisms need to synthesise ATP. Explain the similarities and differences
between organisms in the ways in which this is achieved.
10 Why do people get heart disease and what should be done about it?
For
Examiner's
Use
For
Examiner's
Use
[30]
BLANK PAGE
Copyright Acknowledgements:
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.
BIOLOGY 9790/02
Paper 2 Long Answer For Examination from 2013
SPECIMEN MARK SCHEME
2 hours 45 minutes
Section A
1 (a) (i) two marks for the correct answer written into Table 1.1
n1× n2
N=
m2
116 × 184
N=
21
1016 ; ; [2]
(ii) numbers of marked fish recaptured in, 2003 / 2004, are small ;
estimates based on small numbers are unlikely to be accurate ;
over a hundred / many, very young eels caught and not marked ;
proportion of those not marked increases from 2000 to 2005 ;
total number of fish caught one year on is not adjusted for very young fish ;
so population is underestimated ;
cannot be repeated within each year to see if estimate is reliable ;
AVP ; [max 3]
AVP ;
R effect of ‘births’ (spawning occurs at sea) [max 3]
[Total: 20]
(b) idea that cannot be sure from the results whether timing or abiotic factors are more important
in determining release of pollen ;
no data with, constant wind speed / wind speed higher at night than during the day ;
no data with, constant relative humidity / humidity higher early part of day / AW ;
[Total: 10]
3 (a) (i)
well protein relative molecular relative mobility
5 correct = 2
3 or 4 correct / correct working but incorrect answers = 1
0, 1 or 2 correct with no correct working = 0 [2]
(ii) x-axis for relative mobility, y axis for relative molecular mass, sensible scales ;
axes labelled appropriately ;
points plotted correctly ;
straight line – not extending beyond first and last point ; [4]
[Total: 8]
4 Planning Task
P Hypothesis or prediction ;
defining e.g. rate of uptake of glucose is faster than rate of uptake of maltose / Km
the for uptake of glucose is lower / transport protein has a higher affinity
problem
Theory to support hypothesis or prediction ;
e.g. glucose is a smaller molecule / does not require to be hydrolysed by
enzyme / ref to production of maltase inside yeast cell
Risk assessment ;
ref to hazard and precaution
some points may be taken from a diagram or a flow or sequence diagram [max 6]
repeats / replicates ;
calculate, standard deviation / standard error / 95%CI ;
AVP ;
AVP ; [max 16]
[Total: 22]
Section B
(c) liver cells facilitated diffusion and PCT cells active transport ;
active transport against concentration gradient and facilitated diffusion with the gradient ;
active transport requires, respiratory / metabolic energy, ATP, whereas facilitated diffusion
does not ;
(in the case of SGLT / secondary active transport) the ATP / metabolic energy pumps
creates the sodium gradient which causes the glucose molecules to move passively ;
(in the case of SGLT) re-absorption of glucose from the proximal tubule is against a steep
diffusion gradient / needs to take place quickly as filtrate is passing rapidly along the
nephron ; [max 3]
(d) (i) by exocytosis / vesicles fuse with (cell surface) membrane ; [1]
[Total: 12]
6 (a) more glucose is produced by a starving person with type 2 diabetes than
by a person without the condition / AW ;
perhaps because the diabetic is less able to regulate the blood sugar concentration / at a
more advanced stage of starvation / reduced fat reserves ;
in type 2 diabetes, the main source / a greater proportion (of glucose) is from
gluconeogenesis ;
gluconeogenesis is the production of glucose from amino acids / proteins ;
relatively small amount from glycogen as almost used up (by this stage) ;
less from glycogen with type 2 diabetes ;
as less to start with ;
correct reference to statistical significance in discussion of data ;
correct explanation of p < 0.05 ;
reference to ± as (possibly), variation / standard deviation / standard error / indication of
good agreement within replicates ; [max 6]
[Total: 10]
7 insulin secreting cells are only found in, pancreas / islets of Langerhans ;
reference to β cells as the source of insulin ;
use stem cells to replace, dysfunctional β cells / insulin-producing cells ;
so stem cells would only need to be introduced into a specific part of the body ;
whereas (in the case of type 2) cells all over the body are dysfunctional ;
and so cannot be replaced / much more difficult to replace them all ;
use of stem cells may be preferable to transplants as less invasive / fewer side-effects / no need
to wait for suitable donor ;
use of patients own adult stem cells (instead of transplants or embryonic stem cells) avoids
immunological rejection / need for immunosuppressant drugs ;
use of adult rather than embryonic stem cells avoids ethical issues about sourcing ;
in (advanced cases) of type 2 diabetic patients where pancreas is deteriorating β cell transplant
may be of benefit but not a complete solution ;
need to understand more about what causes type 2 ; [max 8]
[Total: 8]
Section C
Marking Strategy
3. Write marginal notes on script, highlight evidence of breadth, exemplification and argumentation
as well as major and minor errors of fact and irrelevant material.
• Breadth
• Argumentation
• Communication
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar.
5. Match the content of the essay with a descriptor for Scientific Content (20, 16, 12, 8, 4, 0 as
appropriate) and then decide whether
• all sub-descriptors at that level have been met so that the full mark for that level can be
awarded
• three out of the four sub-descriptors have been met so that intermediate marks can be
awarded (18, 14, 10, 6, 2)
• one or two of the sub-descriptors at that level have been met so that the full mark for the
level below can be awarded.
B = ………
A = ………
C = ………
S = ………
SC = ………
Total = ………
Mark Descriptors
Candidate has:
given a balanced account including most of the relevant topic areas and selected a wide
3
range of facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title
given a fairly balanced account including some of the relevant topic areas and selected
2
some of the appropriate facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title
given an account including a few of the relevant topic areas and selected a few of the
1
appropriate facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title
given an account that relies on one topic area alone and selected a few of the appropriate
0
facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title.
Mark Descriptors
Candidate has:
introduced an argument and partially developed it but has not sustained it coherently
2
throughout the essay
Mark Descriptors
Candidate has:
organised and presented information clearly and used correct terminology in appropriate
2
contexts
not organised material very well and not used terminology appropriately so that answer
1
has to be re-read
Mark Descriptors
Candidate has:
1 used spelling, punctuation and grammar accurately, but has made significant errors
The candidate:
a recalls and consistently uses all facts and principles (relevant to the essay)
gives detail fully in keeping with that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of
d
study designed to prepare candidates for university
a recalls and consistently uses most facts and principles (relevant to the essay)
gives detail fully in keeping with that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of
d
study designed to prepare candidates for university
a recalls and consistently uses some facts and principles (relevant to the essay)
gives detail fully in keeping with that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of
d
study designed to prepare candidates for university
gives some detail appropriate for that expected of candidates at the end of a programme
d
of study designed to prepare candidates for university
gives a little detail appropriate for that expected of candidates at the end of a programme
d
of study designed to prepare candidates for university
gives no detail appropriate for that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of
d
study designed to prepare candidates for university
Expected content
For each of the questions, guidance is given as to the kind of content from the syllabus that may be
appropriate to answering the question. Some candidates will include all of these areas and others
may write in more detail about these or may include other relevant topics, in each case reflecting the
candidate’s reading-around the subject and personal research and other interests. Some topics both
in the candidate’s answers and in the following expected content may not be directly on the syllabus,
but it is important to credit such responses where they are given and thus they are included here.
Candidates should discuss both points of view implicit in the question drawing on examples
across the range of organisms studied. As much emphasis should be put on the biology of
unicellular / acellular organisms as that of multicellular. An essay devoted almost entirely to
animals, specifically mammals or humans is unbalanced and will not score well. Candidates
should have studied several species of unicellular protoctist so should be able to draw on their
own observations.
The following syllabus sections are most directly relevant: 1.1, 1.2, 2.1, 2.3, 3.1, 5.1.
specified range of multicellular organisms to include animals, plants, many fungi, some protoctists
e.g. some algae
(perhaps) more likely to survive natural disasters / survive in wider range/extreme of physical
conditions
some prokaryotes can both photosynthesise and fix nitrogen / ref unicells forming symbioses with
fungi as lichens and their even greater success in these associations
ref eukaryotic cells being symbiotic unions of previously separate cells / endosymbiosis
this is a flawed argument because natural selection operates on all species all the time
therefore current life forms have equal status in terms of success / can only judge on basis of
future possibilities
humans have more control over environment than any other organism
perhaps control over environment may be greater evolutionary advantage than adaptation to
change
9 All living organisms need to synthesise ATP. Explain the similarities and differences
between organisms in the ways in which this is achieved.
Candidates should avoid lengthy descriptions of respiration and photosynthesis but should
attempt to highlight underlying similarities and difference in whatever it is they are
comparing.
Comparisons can be made between production of ATP in glycolysis and Krebs cycle by
substrate-linked phosphorylation and production in chloroplast and mitochondria by
chemiosmosis.
The following syllabus sections are most directly relevant: 1.1, 1.5, 2.2, 4.2.
a few bacteria are obligate anaerobes, but most organisms can do both
anaerobic is less efficient than aerobic in terms of ATP per molecule of glucose, but can be more
rapid and is a useful supplement when ATP becomes limiting, e.g. when oxygen shortage
main pathways of aerobic common to all aerobic cells/organisms (glycolysis and Krebs)
hydrogen oxidised to water using oxygen in respiratory chain to release much energy
ref to numbers of ATP per reduced NAD and per reduced FAD
total ATP per glucose for aerobic – accept answers within range 30 to 38 per molecule of glucose
glucose not only source of energy – many other carbohydrates, as well as fats (triglycerides) and
amino acids / proteins can be used
enzymes convert these to intermediates which can feed into common pathways of glycolysis and
Krebs
reduced NAD recycled so glycolysis not prevented (by end product inhibition)
some anaerobic bacteria use an inorganic molecule as a final electron acceptor, e.g. Archaea
use carbon dioxide to make methane, Desulfovibrio uses sulfate to make hydrogen sulfide,
Escherichia coli uses nitrate to make nitrite.
e.g. nitrifying bacteria – energy from oxidation of inorganic substances during respiration
(ammonia and nitrite)
also Rhizobium, Sulfolobus, some sulfur bacteria, deep sea hydrothermal vents, methanogens
(Archaebacteria)
photosynthesis
underlying similarity with respiration is that ATP made on membranes in specialised organelle by
process of chemiosmosis as a result of electron flow from electron donor to electron acceptor
organelle = chloroplast
water = electron donor to PSII (electron donor usually organic molecule in respiration)
photosynthetic bacteria do not have chloroplasts but do have membranes, e.g. blue green
bacteria
algae have simpler membrane systems than plants (no true grana)
C4 plants have larger grana than C3 plants for more efficient use of light energy
photoheterotrophs
photoheterotrophs a special case – organic source of carbon but use light as source of energy
10 Why do people get heart disease and what should be done about it?
Answers should be divided between discussion of risk factors for heart disease and ways in
which the community (governments, health authorities, etc.) and individuals can reduce incidence
/ prevalence of heart disease and the methods of the treatment for those with the disease
e.g. age, ethnicity, sex (males), heredity, smoking, lack of exercise, diet, obesity, diabetes, high
blood pressure
atheroma / atherosclerosis
treatments
inserting stents
angioplasty
heart transplants
preventive medicine
discussion of thresholds for determining people who need intervention to reduce risk
intervention could be determined by individual (e.g. diet, weight loss, etc.) or a medical
intervention, such as drug treatment
ref to mode of action: inhibit the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase involved in production of
cholesterol in liver
ref to mode of action: vitamin K antagonist (inhibits enzyme that recycles oxidised vitamin K to its
reduced form after it has participated in the carboxylation of e.g. prothrombin and factor VII)
ref to mode of action: block receptor sites for adrenaline and noradrenaline in heart
ref to control of the heart by sympathetic nervous system and endocrine system
improve diet, reduce weight, have regular check-ups, take exercise, stop smoking
actions that can be taken by community to reduce incidence / prevalence of heart disease
idea that prevention is cheaper than treatment, but untargeted programmes are often not cost
effective
advertise about dangers of choices that put people at risk, e.g. smoking
BLANK PAGE
BIOLOGY 9790/03
Paper 3 Practical Examination For Examination from 2013
These instructions give details of the apparatus and materials required by each candidate for this
paper. Sufficient information is given to permit the Centre to set up and test the apparatus and
materials so that the candidates can be fairly assessed. No access to the question paper is
permitted in advance of the examination.
If a candidate breaks any of the apparatus, or loses any of the material supplied, the matter should be
rectified and a note made on the supervisor’s report.
• Eyepiece graticule fitted within the eyepiece and visible in focus at the same time as the
specimen.
Each candidate should have sole, uninterrupted, use of the microscope for at least 35 minutes.
Supervisors are advised to remind all candidates that all substances in the examination should be
treated with caution. Pipette fillers and safety goggles should be used when necessary.
Supervisors are advised to remind candidates that all substances in the examination should be
treated with caution. Only those tests described in the question paper should be attempted.
In accordance with the COSHH (Control of Substances Hazardous to Health) Regulations, operative
in the UK, a hazard appraisal of the examination has been carried out.
Attention is drawn in particular to certain materials used in the examination. The following codes are
used where relevant.
The attention of Supervisors is drawn to any local regulations relating to safety, first-aid and disposal
of chemicals.
‘Hazard Data Sheets’, relating to materials used in this examination, should be available from your
chemical supplier.
Instructions to Supervisors
Each candidate must be provided with the following apparatus and materials for Section A only.
Question 1
(ii) 50 cm3 of sodium carbonate solution in a beaker labelled sodium carbonate solution.
This must be prepared as follows:
Add 95 cm3 distilled or de-ionised water to 0.3 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate, stir to
dissolve and then add distilled or de-ionised water to make up to 100 cm3.
(iv) 20 cm3 of 1% lipase solution in a beaker labelled lipase solution. This must be prepared
as follows:
Dissolve 1 g of lipase in 50 cm3 of cold distilled or de-ionised water and stir thoroughly.
Make up to 100 cm3 with more water.
(v) 20 cm3 of 5% bile salts (sodium tauroglycocholate) solution in a beaker labelled 5% bile
salts solution. This must be prepared as follows:
Add 95 cm3 distilled or de-ionised water to 5.0 g sodium tauroglycocholate, stir to dissolve
and then add distilled or de-ionised water to make up to 100 cm3.
(vii) Twelve test-tubes (e.g. 12 × 1.4 cm); test-tube rack or racks; one bung to fit all test-tubes;
test-tube holders; one dropping pipette; glass rod; permanent marker pen or other suitable
way to label glassware.
(viii) Five small beakers, e.g. 50 cm3 or 100 cm3 for candidates to prepare their bile salts
solutions.
Centres are advised to have stocks of the milk, lipase solution, sodium carbonate solution and bile
salts solution available for candidates.
Extra supplies of test-tubes and other glassware should also be available should candidates require
them.
Question 2
• Eyepiece graticule fitted within the eyepiece and visible in focus at the same time as
the specimen.
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.
BIOLOGY 9790/03
Paper 3 Practical Examination For Examination from 2013
SPECIMEN PAPER
2 hours 30 minutes
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.
Additional Materials: As listed on the Confidential Instructions.
Write your Centre number, candidate number and name on all the work you hand in.
Write in dark blue or black pen.
You may use a pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Section A
Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper.
Section B
Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper.
At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.
Section A
Section B
Total
BLANK PAGE
Section A For
Examiner's
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided. Use
You should read through the whole of this question carefully and then plan your use of the
time to make sure that you finish all the work that you would like to do.
The enzyme lipase catalyses the hydrolysis of ester bonds in triglycerides. Its activity is
affected by the presence of bile salts.
You are to investigate the effect of different concentrations of bile salts on the rate of
hydrolysis of triglycerides in milk.
You are provided with a 1% solution of lipase and a 5% solution of bile salts.
1 Use the syringes and the small beakers to prepare a number of different concentrations
of bile salts using the 5% bile salts solution and water provided. You will need a
maximum of 10 cm3 of each bile salts solution.
(a) Complete the table below to show how you have prepared the different solutions.
[3]
[2]
2 Label test-tubes with the concentrations of bile salts you have prepared and for your For
control or controls. Examiner's
Use
3 Prepare the labelled test-tubes with milk, sodium carbonate solution, bile salts solutions
and phenolphthalein as necessary using the following quantities where appropriate:
4 Put a bung into each test-tube in turn and invert twice so that the contents are a
uniform pink colour.
5 Put some warm water in a beaker to act as a water bath. The beaker should be about
half-full. Adjust the temperature of the water to 50 oC (+/ – 2 oC).
7 Stir the lipase solution with the glass rod provided. Put 2.0 cm3 of the lipase solution
into the same number of labelled clean test-tubes as you used in step 2, and place
them in the water bath.
(c) (i) The pink colour of the phenolphthalein will fade over time.
State how this is used to gain information about the rate of hydrolysis of the lipid in
the milk by lipase.
[3]
(ii) Measure and record the temperature in the water bath at appropriate points during
the experiment in the space below.
[1]
9 After the test-tubes have been in the water bath for at least five minutes, add the For
lipase solution to the test-tubes containing the milk and bile salts solutions. Examiner's
Use
Immediately after adding the lipase solution insert a bung into each test-tube and
invert twice to mix the contents.
(d) You should record your results to show the effect of bile salts on the rate of triglyceride
hydrolysis by lipase in a logical way in the space below.
Record and justify any further decisions that you make about your investigation in the
space below the table.
[8]
[3]
(e) Plot a graph of your results on the graph paper provided. For
Examiner's
Use
[5]
(f) Describe and explain the pattern of results shown by your graph. For
Examiner's
Use
[10]
(g) Identify the limitations and sources of error in this investigation. For
Examiner's
Explain how you would improve the method you used in this investigation to give more Use
[10]
[Total: 45]
BLANK PAGE
Section B For
Examiner's
Use
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
You should read through the whole of this question carefully and then plan your use of the
time to make sure that you finish all the work that you would like to do.
[6]
(ii) Use a ruler to measure the actual size of the specimen on slide R1 and the size of
your drawing between the same points. Put a line on your drawing to show the size
that you have measured. Calculate the magnification of your drawing.
(b) Use the high power lens of your microscope to locate a cell body of a motor neurone in For
R1. Examiner's
Use
Use the eyepiece graticule and slide micrometer to measure the diameter of the cell
body. Indicate the actual diameter on your drawing and show how you have derived
your answer.
[8]
Compare, using a hand lens and your microscope, the structure and appearance of R1
and R2.
[5]
(d) Fig. 2.1 is an electron micrograph that shows a cross section of a neurone. For
Examiner's
Use
Fig 2.1
(i) Describe the appearance of the section of the neurone. You may use drawings or
diagrams to illustrate your answer.
[5]
(ii) Explain how the structural features you describe in (i) are related to the function of For
the neurone. Examiner's
Use
[4]
(e) Fig. 2.2 is an electron micrograph that shows a junction between two neurones in the For
brain. Examiner's
Use
Fig 2.2
Identify structures A and B and relate the appearance of these structures to their
function. You may use the space opposite for any diagrams you may wish to draw to
illustrate your answer.
For
Examiner's
Use
[5]
[Total: 35]
BLANK PAGE
Copyright Acknowledgements:
Question 2 Figure 2.1 Myelinated neuron, Road not taken © Wikimedia Commons.
Question 2 Figure 2.2 Synapse nerve junction, © Thomas Deerinck, NCMIR/Science Photo Library
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.
BIOLOGY 9790/03
Paper 3 Practical Examination For examination from 2013
SPECIMEN MARK SCHEME
2 hours 30 minutes
MAXIMUM MARK: 80
Section A
(c) (i) MMO idea of found end point when pink colour just no longer
visible ;
Decision indicates when pH decreases to certain level ;
making as fatty acids neutralise sodium carbonate / AW ; [3]
use replicates ;
to check on reliability / repeatability ;
R accuracy / precision
Graph axes scaled correctly using at least half the graph paper ;
axes titles and units – rate (ecf from the table) and
concentration ;
points plotted accurately ;
appropriate line that is not extrapolated beyond highest
concentration ;
if rate plotted line starts at the origin
R if broken axis A not at origin if time plotted [5]
AVP ; [max 7]
end point / end point difficult to judge ; use colour standard ; R colorimeter
timing so that end point may not have been
the same in each case ;
stated problem with timing ; note that ref to improved timing method ; R have
stopwatch should be started before someone else to start the stopwatch
mixing
e.g. times all overestimates as started way to slow down the reaction e.g. lower
stop watch before adding lipase temperature / more milk ;
rates therefore underestimates ;
set up separately / staggered start ;
indicator ref to drops of phenolphthalein being use, pH meter / pH probe and data logger /
inaccurate / AW ; more sensitive indicator ;
use set volume of phenolphthalein ;
colour changes over a range of pH ; record time to reach constant pH ;
Section B
MMO labels
Collection dendron(s) / axon ;
nucleus, nucleolus ;
(granular) cytoplasm ; [3]
Analysis of annotations
data and reception of impulses from, sensory neurones / interneurones ;
conclusions
BLANK PAGE