Ekt Ebook

EKT (Engineering Knowledge Test)
1
Copyright © 2017 by SSBCrack.com All rights reserved. This eBook or any portion thereof may not
be reproduced or used in any manner whatsoever without the express written permission of the
publisher except for the use of brief quotations in a book/ebook review.
Website: shop.ssbcrack.com
2
INTRODUCTION
Engineering Knowledge Test or EKT as it is called in short, is a test for the engineering
graduates those who apply for the Technical Branches in the Indian Air Force (IAF).
EKT is held along with the AFCAT exam to test the basic technical knowledge of engineering
graduates applying for AFCAT.
Who can write EKT?
It is compulsory for engineering graduates who are appearing for technical entry in the Air Force to
appear for this exam, they have to pass this test along with the AFCAT written test.
Pattern and time duration of EKT:

EKT consists of objective type multiple choice questions related to the basic concepts of engineering.
The questions will generally be dealing with the basic concepts as well as a thorough understanding
and clarity of your basics will help you solve this test easily.
The time duration for EKT is 45 minutes.
EKT Question paper consists of 50 questions to be answered in 45 minutes.
Each question carries 3 marks making EKT of 150 marks (50×3 = 150).
Evaluating Procedure:
For each correct answer you give, you are awarded 3 marks each.
For each wrong answer given, 1 mark will be deducted as negative marking, ie., 1/3 marks negative
marking which is followed by many national level examinations.
When is EKT conducted?

The EKT takes place immediately after the AFCAT paper that is as soon as the two hours of AFCAT
test paper gets over. The normal test papers will be followed by EKT for the engineering graduates
who are applying for technical branch entry through AFCAT.
What subjects are asked in EKT?
Candidates will be tested based on their specialisation branch like Electrical & Electronics,
Mechanical Engineering, Computer Science, etc. Based on the subject you choose while applying,
you will be asked basic engineering level questions.
What is the cut-off marks for clearing EKT?

The cut-off varies for each exam and hence is unpredictable. However, the previous years’ cut-off
marks for AFCAT EKT are as follows:
3
Exam Yaer Cut Off Marks (EEE, CS/IT & Mechanical)

EKT 1 2017 60 marks out of 150
EKT PAPER BLUEPRINT

S. No Engineering Engineer Engineering Analog Computer Network Switching
Mathema- ing Graphics/ and Digital Networks Theory Theory
tics Physics Drawing Electronics
2016 II - 6 - 12 17 - 1
2016 I - 6 - 13 15 - 3
2015 II 1 6 - 17 16 7 -
2015 I 7 7 4 11 - 1 13
S. No Informa Telecom Microw Antenna Radar Instru Electro Electrical
tion munica ave and Wave Theory menta nic Engineer
Technology tion Enginee Propaga tion Devices ing
Systems ring tion
2016 II - 3 2 3 1 - 10 1
2016 I - 1 3 2 3 - 10 -
2015 II 3 1 2 2 2 1 9 -
2015 I 13 5 - 2 - 1 4 9
S. No Control Engineer Thermo Theory Fluid Manufactur Materials
Engineer ing dyna of Mechanics ing Science Science
ing Mechanics mics Machines
2016 II 2 - 3 - - - 2
2016 I 2 - 4 1 - - 1
2015 II - - 7 - - 1 10
2015 I 6 3 6 - - - 3
S. No Machine Automotive Power Plant Industrial Flight Aircraft Aerody

Drawing Engineer Engineer Engineer Mechanics Structures namics
ing ing ing
2016 II 1 1 - 4 - - -
2016 I 1 2 - 3 - - -
2015 II - 2 - 2 - 3 -
2015 II 6 3 - 5 - 1 -
4
1. ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
Matrix algebra – Eigen values and Eigen vectors – Theorems of integral calculus – Partial
derivatives – Maxima and Minima – Multiple integrals – Stokes, Gauss and Green’s
theorems – First order differential equation (Linear and nonlinear) – Cauchy’s and Euler’s
equations – Complex variables – Taylor’s and Laurent’s series – Sampling theorems –
Mean, Median, Mode and Standard deviation – Random variables – Discrete and
continuous distributions – Fourier Transform – Laplace Transform – Z Transform.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A square matrix is called singular, if its 6. The solution of a differential equation which is
a) Determinant is infinity not obtained from the general solution is known as
b) Determinant is zero a) Complete solution
c) Determinant is unity b) Particular solution
d) Rank is unity c) Singular solution
2. Laplace transform of the unit impulse function d) Auxiliary solution
𝜹(𝒕 − 𝒂)is 7. The Z transform of the time function ∑∞
𝒌=𝟎 𝜹(𝒏 −
a) 𝑒 −𝑎𝑠 𝒌) is
b) 𝑒 𝑎𝑠 𝑧
c) 𝑒 −𝑡 a)
𝑧−1
d) None of these
𝑧−1
3. A partial differential equation requires b)
𝑧
a) More than one dependant variable 𝑧
c)
b) Exactly one independent variable (𝑧−1)2
c) Two or more independent variables (𝑧−1)2
d)
𝑧
d) Equal number of dependant and independent 1
2 −0.1 𝑎
variables 8. Let 𝐴 = [ ] and𝐴−1 = [ 2 ]. Then
0 3 0 𝑏
𝝅⁄𝟐
4. Find the value of ∫𝟎 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟒 𝜽 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟑 𝜽 𝒅𝜽 (𝑎 + 𝑏) = _______
5𝜋 7
a) a)
32 20
16 3
b) b)
35 20
19
6 c)
c) 60
35 11
2 d)
d) 20
35
9. The differential equation formed by 𝒚 =
5. Fourier transform of a real valued time signal is 𝒂 𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝒙 + 𝒃 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝒙 + 𝟒, where a and b are arbitrary
has constants
a) Even symmetry 𝑑2𝑦
b) No symmetry a) ( )+𝑦 =0
𝑑𝑥 2
𝑑2𝑦
c) Odd symmetry b) ( )−𝑦 =4
𝑑𝑥 2
d) Conjugate symmetry 𝑑2𝑦
c) ( )+𝑦 = 4
𝑑𝑥 2
5
𝑑2𝑦 c) 1/6
d) ( )−𝑦 =0
𝑑𝑥 2 d) ¼
10. The Z transform 𝐹(𝑧) of the function𝒇(𝒏𝑻) =
17. For the following set of simultaneous
𝒂𝒏𝑻 is
𝑧 equations: 1.5x - 0.5y = 2; 4x + 2y + 3z = 9; 7x + y +
a) −𝑇 5z = 10
𝑧−𝑎
𝑧
b) a) The solution is unique
𝑧+𝑎𝑇
𝑧 b) Infinitely many solutions exist
c)
𝑧−𝑎𝑇
𝑧 c) The equations are incompatible
d)
𝑧+𝑎 −𝑇 d) Finite number of multiple solutions exist
11. The system of linear equations 18. Laplace transform of 𝒕𝟑 𝜹(𝒕 − 𝟒)
4x+2y=7; 2x+y=6 has a) 𝑒 4𝑠 32
a) Exactly two distinct solutions b) 34 𝑒 −3𝑠
b) A unique solution c) 43 𝑒 −4𝑠
c) No solution d) None of these
d) An infinite number of solutions
19. The region of convergence of the Z transform of
12. If f(x) = x + |x² - 8| then the derivative of f(x) at the unit step function is
x = 3 is [EKT 1 2015 CSE] a) |𝑧| > 1
a) 8 b) |𝑧| < 1
b) 7 c) (Real part of z) > 0
c) 6 d) (Real part of z) < 1
d) -8
20. A signal 𝑥(𝑡) has a Fourier transform 𝑋(𝜔). If
𝑥(𝑡) is a real and odd function of t, then 𝑋(𝜔) is
13. L[𝒆𝒂𝒕 ] is a) A real and even function of 𝜔
1
a)
𝑠+𝑎
b) An imaginary and odd function of 𝜔
b)
1 c) An imaginary and even function of 𝜔
𝑠−𝑎
1 d) A real and odd function of 𝜔
c)
𝑠 4 2
d) None of these 21. For the matrix [ ], the Eigen value
2 4
1 1 1 101
14. The rank of the matrix [1 corresponding to the Eigen vector [ ] is
−1 0] is 101
1 1 1 a) 6
a) 1 b) 4
b) 2 c) 2
c) 3 d) 8
d) 0
22. The sequence 𝑥(𝑛) with the Z transforms
15. The value of the definite integral 𝑿(𝒛) = 𝒛𝟒 + 𝒛𝟐 − 𝟐𝒛 + 𝟐 − 𝟑𝒛−𝟒 is applied as an
𝟏 𝟐
∫𝟎 (𝟏 + 𝒆−𝒙 )𝒅𝒙 is input to a linear time variant system with the
a) 1 + 𝑒 −1 impulse response 𝒉(𝒏) = 𝟐𝜹(𝒏 − 𝟑), where
1, 𝑛=0
b) 2 𝛿(𝑛) = {
0, 𝑜𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒
c) -1
The output at n=4 is
d) None of these
a) 2
16. Given P(A) = 1/4, P(B)=1/3 and P(AUB)= 1/2. b) -6
Value of P(A/B) is: [EKT 1 2015 CSE] c) 0
a) 1/7 d) -4
b) 1/3
6
𝒅𝒚 30. The trace and determinant of a 2×2 matrix are
23. The differential equation = 𝒚𝟐
𝒅𝒙
known to be -2 and -35 respectively. Its Eigen
a) Bilinear
values are
b) Quasi linear
a) 30 and -5
c) Linear
b) -7 and 5
d) Non-linear
c) -35 and -1
24. The Eigen values of the skew-symmetric matrix d) 17.5 and 0.2
are
31. If x = a (cos t + t sin t), y = a (sin t – t cos t). The
a) Always pure imaginary 𝒅𝒚
b) Always zero value of is [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
𝒅𝒙
c) Either zero or pure imaginary a) tan t
d) Always real b) cos t
25. Consider the system of equations x + 2y = 2; 2x c) sin t
+ 2y = 5. This system has d) sec 2 t
a) One solution 32. The rank of the matrix 3×3 matrix C (=AB),
b) No solution found by multiplying non-zero column matrix A of
c) Infinite solutions size 3×1 and a non-zero row matrix B of size1×3,
d) Four solutions is
26. If 𝐺(𝑓) represents the Fourier transform of a a) 0
signal 𝑔(𝑡) which is real and odd symmetric in time, b) 2
then c) 1
a) 𝐺(𝑓) is real d) 3
b) 𝐺(𝑓) is imaginary 33. The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian Pulse is
c) 𝐺(𝑓) is zero a) Gaussian
d) 𝐺(𝑓) is complex b) Uniform
27. 𝑳[𝒇′ (𝒕)] is c) A sine function
a) 𝑆 𝐿[𝑓(𝑡)] − 𝑓(0) d) An impulse function
b) 𝐹(𝑆) 34. A random variable can take all infinite number
c) 𝐿[𝑓(𝑡)] of values is called _______
d) None of these a) Continuous Random Variable
28. The minimum and maximum Eigen values of the b) Discrete Random Variable
1 1 3 c) Both (a) and (b)
matrix [1 5 1]are -2 and 6 respectively. What is d) None of these
3 1 1 35. The Z transform of a system is (𝒁) = . If
𝒛
the other Eigen value? 𝒛−𝟎.𝟐
a) -3 the ROC is |𝑧| < 0.2, then the impulse response of
b) 1 the system is
c) 5 a) (0.2)𝑛 𝑢[𝑛]
d) 3 b) – (0.2)𝑛 𝑢[𝑛]
c) (0.2)𝑛 𝑢[−𝑛 − 1]
29. The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric d) – (0.2)𝑛 𝑢[−𝑛 − 1]
function is always
a) Conjugate anti-symmetric 36. Let 𝐴 = [𝑎𝑖𝑗 ], 1 ≤ 𝑖, 𝑗 ≤ 𝑛, with 𝑛 ≥ 3 and
b) Conjugate symmetric 𝑎𝑖𝑗 = i.j Then the rank of A is
c) Real a) 1
d) Imaginary b) 0
c) n
7
d) n-1 d) More than one but infinitely many independent
𝒅𝒙 solutions
37. ∫ is equal to [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
𝒙 𝒍𝒐𝒈𝒙
43. The following set of equations 3x + 2y + z = 4; x
a) x log x +c
– y + z = 2; -2x + 2z = 5 has
b) log x + x + c
a) No solution
c) log (log x) + c
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 b) A unique solution
d) +c c) Multiple solutions
𝑥
2 3 d) An inconsistency
38. Consider the following matrix 𝐴 = [ ]. If
𝑥 𝑦 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒕
44. 𝑳 [ ] is
the Eigen values of A are 4 and 8, then 𝒕
−1
a) x = 5 and y = 8 a) cot (𝑠 − 1)
b) x = -4 and y = 10 b) cot −1 𝑠
1
c) x = -2 and y = 3 c) 2
𝑠 +1
d) x = -4 and y = -1 d) tan−1 𝑠
39. The region of convergence of the Z transform of 45. A is a 3×4 real matrix and Ax=b is an
𝟓 𝒏 𝟓 𝒏 inconsistent system of equations. The highest
the sequence ( ) 𝒖(𝒏) − ( ) 𝒖(−𝒏 − 𝟏) must
𝒏 𝒏
possible rank of A is
be
5 a) 3
a) |𝑧| < b) 4
6
5
b) |𝑧| > c) 1
6
5 d) 2
c) < |𝑧| < ∞
6
5 5 46. If the region of convergence of 𝒙𝟏 [𝒏] + 𝒙𝟐 [𝒏]
d) < |𝑧| < 1 2
6 6 is < |𝑧| < , then the region of convergence of
3 3
𝒙𝟏 [𝒏] − 𝒙𝟐 [𝒏] includes
1
40. 𝑳[𝒆𝒕 ] is a) < |𝑧| < 3
3
1 3
a)
𝑠+𝑙𝑜𝑔2
b) < |𝑧| < 3
2
1 2
b) c) < |𝑧| < 3
𝑠−𝑙𝑜𝑔2 3
1 1 2
c) d) < |𝑧| <
𝑠+2 3 3
d) None of these 47. Consider a non-homogeneous system of linear
41. The Fourier transform of the signal 𝒙(𝒕) = equations representing mathematically an over-
𝟐
𝒆−𝟑𝒕 is of the following where A and B are determined system. Such a system will be
constants a) Consistent having many solutions
2 b) Consistent having a unique solution
a) 𝐴𝑒 −𝐵𝑓
c) Inconsistent having a unique solution
b) 𝐴𝑒 −𝐵|𝑓| d) Inconsistent having no solution
c) 𝐴𝑒 −𝐵𝑓
d) 𝐴 + 𝐵|𝑓|2 48. The function 𝑓(𝑡) has a Fourier
transform 𝑔(𝜔). The Fourier transform of 𝒈(𝒕) =
42. Let A be 𝑛×𝑛 real matrix such that 𝐴2 = 𝐼 and ∞
(∫−∞ 𝒈(𝒕)𝒆−𝒋𝝎𝒕 𝒅𝒕) is
y = be an n-dimensional vector. Then the linear 1
system of equations Ax=y has a) 𝑓(−𝜔)
2𝜋
a) Infinitely many independent solutions b) 2𝜋𝑓(−𝜔)
1
b) No solution c) 𝑓(𝜔)
2𝜋
c) A unique solution d) None of these
8
49. Consider the matrices 𝑋(4×3), 𝑌(4×3) and 𝑃(2×3) . c) 2(t+1)
The order of [𝑷(𝑿𝑻 𝒀)−𝟏 𝑷𝑻 ]𝑻 will be d) 𝑒 −2𝑡
a) (3×3) −4 2
56. Given the matrix [ ], the Eigen vector is
b) (3×4) 4 3
c) (2×2) 3
a) [ ]
d) (4×3) 2
4
b) [ ]
50. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then 3
2
a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability c) [ ]
that the ticket drawn has a number which is a −1
−2
multiple of 3 or 5? [EKT 1 2015 EEE] d) [ ]
1
a) 9/20 57. The relation between unit step function and
b) 8/2 unit impulse function is
c) 8/15 a) 𝐿[𝑢(𝑡 − 𝑎)] = 𝐿[𝛿(𝑡)]
d) 2/20 b) 𝐿[𝑢′ (𝑡)] = 𝐿[𝛿(𝑡 − 𝑎)]
51. Let A be 3×3 matrix with rank 2. Then AX = 0 c) 𝐿[𝑢′ (𝑡 − 𝑎)] = 𝐿[𝛿(𝑡)]
has d) 𝐿[𝑢′ (𝑡 − 𝑎)] = 𝐿[𝛿(𝑡 − 𝑎)]
a) Three independent solutions
b) Only the trivial solution X = 0 58. If an 𝑀×𝑁 matrix such that all non-zero entries
c) One independent solution are covered in a rows and b columns. Then the
d) Two independent solutions maximum number of non-zero entries, such that no
two are on the same row or column
52. The Fourier transform of a function 𝑥(𝑡) is a) ≤ 𝑚𝑖𝑛(𝑎, 𝑏)
𝒅𝒙(𝒕)
𝑋(𝑓). The Fourier transform of will be b) ≤ 𝑚𝑖𝑛{𝑎, 𝑏}
𝒅𝒕
a) 𝑗2𝜋𝑓 𝑋(𝑓) c) ≤ 𝑚𝑖𝑛[𝑀 − 𝑎, 𝑁 − 𝑏]
b)
𝑑𝑋(𝑓) d) ≤ min 𝑎 + 𝑏
𝑑𝑡
c)
𝑋(𝐹) 59. Fourier transform of a voltage signal 𝑥(𝑡) is
𝑖𝑓 𝑋(𝑓). The unit of |𝑋(𝑓)| is
d) 𝑗𝑓𝑋(𝑓) a) Volt
53. Let A, B, C, D be 𝑛×𝑛 matrix, each with non-zero b) Volt/sec
determinant, If ABCD = 1, then 𝐵 −1 is c) Volt-sec
a) ADC d) Volt 2
b) CDA 60. What are the Eigen values of the matrix
c) 𝐴−1 𝐵 −1 𝐶 2 −1
[ ]
d) Does not necessarily exist −4 5
54. The ROC of Z transform of the discrete time a) 1 and 6
𝟏 𝒏 𝟏 𝒏 b) -1 and 1
sequence ( ) 𝒖(𝒏) − ( ) 𝒖(−𝒏 − 𝟏) is c) 5 and 2
𝟑 𝟐
1
a) |𝑧| < d) 4 and -3
3
b) |𝑧| <
1 1 2
2 61. The inverse of the 2×2 matrix [ ] is
5 7
c) 2 < |𝑧| < 3 1 −7 2
1 1 a) [ ]
d) < |𝑧| < 3 5 −1
3 2 1 7 2
𝟐 b) [ ]
55. The inverse Laplace transforms of is 3 5 1
𝒔+𝟏 1 7 −2
[EKT 1 2015 EEE] c) [ ]
3 −5 1
a) 2𝑒 −𝑡 1 −7 −2
d) [ ]
b) 2𝑒 𝑡 3 −5 −1
9
62. 𝑳[𝒆𝒊𝒂𝒕 ] is 69. 𝐥𝐢𝐦
(𝒙𝟐 −𝟏)
is
1 𝒙→𝟏 (𝒙−𝟏)
a)
𝑠+𝑖𝑎 a) 1
1
b) b) 0
𝑠−𝑎
1 c) 2
c)
𝑠+𝑎
1 d) ∞
d)
𝑠−𝑖𝑎 70. What is the derivative of 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥| at x = 0?
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒙
63. The value of[𝐥𝐢𝐦 ] is a) -1
𝒙→∞ 𝒙
a) 2 b) 1
b) 1 c) 0
c) 0 d) Does not exist
∞
d) ∞ 71. The value of the integral ∫−∞ 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒄𝟐 𝒅𝒕 is
64. Consider the Z transform 𝑿(𝒛) = 𝟓𝒛𝟐 + a) 0.2
𝟒𝒛−𝟏 + 𝟑; 𝟎 < |𝒛| < ∞. The inverse Z transform b) 0.5
𝑥(𝑛) is c) 1.6
a) 5𝛿[𝑛 + 2] + 3𝛿[𝑛] + 4𝛿[𝑛 − 1] d) 2
b) 5𝛿[𝑛 − 2] + 3𝛿[𝑛] + 4𝛿[𝑛 + 1] 72. Which of the following functions is not
c) 5𝑢[𝑛 − 2] + 3𝑢[𝑛] + 4𝑢[𝑛 + 1] differentiable in the domain [-1, 1]?
d) 5𝑢[𝑛 + 2] + 3𝑢[𝑛] + 4𝑢[𝑛 − 1] a) 𝑓(𝑥) = 2
65. The function of 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥 + 1| on the interval b) 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 − 1
[−2,0] c) 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2
a) Continuous on the integral but not differentiable d) 𝑓(𝑥) = Maximum(𝑥, −𝑥)
at all points 73. A square matrix B is skew-symmetric if
b) Neither continuous nor differentiable a) 𝐵𝑇 = 𝐵
c) Differentiable but not continuous b) 𝐵𝑇 = −𝐵
d) Continuous and differentiable c) 𝐵 −1 = −𝐵
66. The product of matrices (𝑷𝑸)−𝟏 𝑷 is d) 𝐵 −1 = 𝐵
a) 𝑃 −1 74. If a signal 𝑓(𝑡) has energy E, the energy of the
b) 𝑄 −1 signal 𝑓(2𝑡)𝑖𝑠 equal to
c) 𝑃 −1 𝑄 −1 𝑃 a) 4E
d) PQ𝑃 −1 b) 2E
67. Two discrete time systems with impulse c) E
responses 𝒉𝟏 [𝒏] = 𝜹[𝒏 − 𝟐]are connected in d) E/2
cascade. The overall impulse response of the 𝒙𝟏⁄𝟑 −𝟐
75. The value of 𝐥𝐢𝐦 is
cascaded system is 𝒙→𝟖 (𝒙−𝟖)
a) 𝛿[𝑛 − 1]𝛿[𝑛 − 2] a) 1/2
b) 𝛿[𝑛 − 1] + 𝛿[𝑛 − 2] b) 1/4
c) 𝛿[𝑛 − 4] c) 1/8
d) 𝛿[𝑛 − 3] d) 1/16
68. The value of Sin 𝜃 + Cos 𝜃 will be greatest when 76. 𝑳[𝒕 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒕]
2𝑠
𝜃 = _______ [EKT 1 2015 EEE/ECE] a) 2 2
(𝑠 −1)
a) 90° 2𝑠
b)
b) 60° (𝑠 2 +1)
𝑠
c) 30° c)
𝑠+1
d) 45°
10
2𝑠
d) d) 2
(𝑠 2 +1)2
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒕 84. If the rank of (5×6)matrix Q is 4, then which
77. At t = 0, the function 𝒇(𝒕) = has one of the following statement is correct?
𝒕
a) A point of inflection a) Q will have four linearly independent columns
b) A minimum and four linearly independent rows
c) A maximum b) Q will have four linearly independent rows and
d) A discontinuity four linearly independent columns
78. The Fourier transform 𝑭{𝒆−𝒕 𝒖(𝒕)} is equal to c) 𝑄𝑄𝑇 will be invertible
𝟏 𝟏 d) 𝑄𝑇 𝑄 will be invertible
. Therefore, 𝑭 { } is
𝟏+𝒋𝟐𝝅𝒇 𝟏+𝒋𝟐𝝅𝒕
−𝑓 85. A random variable can take a finite number or
a) 𝑒 𝑢(𝑓)
infinite number of values is called _______
b) 𝑒 −𝑓 𝑢(−𝑓)
a) Continuous Random Variable
c) 𝑒 𝑓 𝑢(𝑓)
b) Discrete Random Variable
d) 𝑒 𝑓 𝑢(−𝑓)
c) Both (a) and (b)
4 1 d) None of these
79. For the matrix [ ], the Eigen values are
1 4
3 + 2𝑖 𝑖
a) 3 and 5 86. The inverse of the matrix [ ] is
b) -3 and -5 −𝑖 3 − 2𝑖
1 3 − 2𝑖 −𝑖
c) 2 and 5 a) [ ]
12 𝑖 3 + 2𝑖
d) 4 and 3 1 3 + 2𝑖 −𝑖
b) [ ]
80. A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items are 12 𝑖 3 − 2𝑖
1 3 + 2𝑖 −𝑖
chosen randomly from this lot. The probability that c) [ ]
12 𝑖 3 − 2𝑖
exactly 2 of the chosen items are defective is 1 3 − 2𝑖 𝑖
a) 0.0036 [EKT 2 2015 MECH] d) [ ]
12 𝑖 3 + 2𝑖
b) 0.1937
c) 0.2234
d) 0.3874 87. Square root of Variance is called
𝝅
a) Mean
81. Find the value of ∫𝟎 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟔 𝜽 𝒅𝜽
𝟐 b) Median
5𝜋 c) Standard deviation
a)
32 d) None of these
𝜋
b)
32 88. If a square matrix A is real and symmetric, then
5
c) the Eigen values
32
d) None of these a) Occur in complex conjugate pair
82. 𝑳[𝒇(𝒕)𝒖(𝒕 − 𝒂)] is b) Are always real and non-negative
a) 𝑒 −𝑎𝑠 𝐿[𝑓(𝑡 + 𝑎)] c) Are always real and positive
b) 𝑒 𝑎𝑠 𝐿[𝑓(𝑡)] d) Are always real
𝟐 𝒙
c) 𝑓(𝑡 + 𝑎) 89. Find the value of ∫𝟎 ∫𝟎 (𝒙 + 𝒚)𝒅𝒙 𝒅𝒚
d) None of these 3
a)
5
83. The sum of the Eigen values of the given matrix 3
1 2 3 b)
7
3
[1 5 1] is c)
4
3 1 1 3
a) 1 d)
8
b) 5
c) 7
11
90. In a matrix equation, Px=q which of the 5 3
95. The Eigen values of the matrix [ ] are
following is a necessary condition for the existence 3 −3
of at least one solution for the unknown vector x: a) 2, 6
a) Vector q only must have non-zero elements b) 4, 5
b) Augmented matrix [Pq] must have the same rank c) 3, 5
as matrix P d) 6, -4
∞ 𝟐
c) Matrix P must be singular 96. The value of ∫𝟎 𝒆−𝒙 𝒅𝒙 is
d) Matrix P must be square 𝜋
a)
4
91. For a given 2×2 matrix A, is observed that b)
𝜋
1 1 1 1 2
𝐴 [ ] = − [ ] and 𝐴 [ ] = −2 [ ] √𝜋
−1 −1 −2 −2 c)
2
0 −2 d) None of these
a) 𝐴 = [ ]
1 −3
2 1 −1 0 1 1 97. Two of the angular frequencies at which its
b) 𝐴 = [ ][ ][ ] Fourier transform becomes zero are
−1 1 0 −2 −1 2
1 1 1 0 2 1 a) 𝜋, 2𝜋
c) 𝐴 = [ ][ ][ ]
−1 −2 0 2 −1 −1 b) 0, 𝜋
1 1 −1 0 2 1 c) 0.5𝜋, 1.5𝜋
d) 𝐴 = [ ][ ][ ]
−1 −2 0 −2 −1 −1 d) 2𝜋, 2.5𝜋
92. For a signal 𝑥(𝑡) the Fourier transform is 𝑋(𝑓), 0 2 2
then the Inverse Fourier transform of 𝑋(3𝑓 + 2) is 98. The rank of the matrix [ 7 4 8 ] is
given by −7 0 −4
1 𝑡 a) 3
a) 𝑥 ( ) 𝑒 𝑗3𝜋𝑡 b) 2
2 2
b) 3𝑥(3𝑡)𝑒 −𝑗4𝜋 c) 1
c) x(3t+2) d) 0
1 𝑡
d) 𝑥 ( ) 𝑒 −𝑗4𝜋⁄3 99. If X is uniformly distributed random variable
3 3
93. For which the values of x will the matrix that takes values between 0 and 1. The value of
8 𝑥 0 𝐸(𝑋 3 ) will be
[4 0 2] become singular? a) 0
1
12 6 0 b)
8
a) 4 1
c)
b) 8 4
1
c) 6 d)
2
d) 12 𝟐 𝒅𝒙
100. The value of the integral ∫−𝟐 𝟐 is
94. If E denotes the expectation, the variance of a 𝒙
a) 0
random variable X is given by
b) 1
a) 𝐸(𝑋 2 ) − 𝐸 2 (𝑋)
c) 0.25
b) 𝐸(𝑋 2 ) + 𝐸 2 (𝑋)
d) ∞
c) 𝐸(𝑋 2 )
d) 𝐸 2 (𝑋)
12
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (a) 71. (a) 81. (a) 91. (d)
2. (a) 12. (b) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (c) 52. (a) 62. (d) 72. (c) 82. (a) 92. (d)
3. (c) 13. (b) 23. (d) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (b) 63. (b) 73. (b) 83. (c) 93. (a)
4. (d) 14. (b) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (b) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (d) 84. (b) 94. (a)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (b) 35. (d) 45. (d) 55. (a) 65. (a) 75. (b) 85. (b) 95. (d)
6. (c) 16. (d) 26. (b) 36. (a) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (b) 76. (d) 86. (a) 96. (c)
7. (a) 17. (a) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (d) 67. (d) 77. (c) 87. (c) 97. (a)
8. (a) 18. (c) 28. (d) 38. (b) 48. (b) 58. (b) 68. (d) 78. (a) 88. (d) 98. (b)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (c) 39. (d) 49. (a) 59. (c) 69. (c) 79. (a) 89. (d) 99. (c)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (a) 50. (a) 60. (a) 70. (d) 80. (b) 90. (b) 100. (d)
Solutions:
12. (b) 1 1 1 1
= + − =
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + |𝑥 2 − 8| 4 3 2 12
𝑑𝑓(𝑥) 1⁄12 1
Derivative of 𝑓(𝑥) is = 1 + 2𝑥 ∴ 𝑃(𝐴⁄𝐵 ) = =
𝑑𝑥
1⁄3 4
Derivative of 𝑓(𝑥)𝑎𝑡 𝑥 = 3 is
28. (d)
𝑑𝑓(𝑥) 1 1 3
| = 1 + (2×3) = 7
𝑑𝑥 𝑥=3 𝐴 = [1 5 1]
3 1 1
14. (b) Given Eigen values are -2 and 6
1 1 1 To find the another Eigen value
𝐴 = [1 −1 0] Characteristic equation, |𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = 0
1 1 1 1 1 3
1 1 1
|𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = |1 5 1| = 0
𝜌[𝐴] ~ [1 −1 0] 𝑅3 ↔ 𝑅1 − 𝑅3
3 1 1
0 0 0
1 1 1 𝜆3 − 7𝜆2 − 36 = 0
~ [0 2 0] 𝑅2 → 𝑅1 − 𝑅2 𝜆 = −2, 6, 3
0 0 0 Therefore, another Eigen value is 3
Number of non-zero columns = 2
Therefore, Rank of the matrix A = 2 30. (b)
Given: Trace = -2 and determinant = -35
16. (d)
1 1 To find the Eigen values:
Given, 𝑃(𝐴) = , 𝑃(𝐵) =
4 3 Trace is the sum of Eigen values
1
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = From answer choice,
2
Sum of Eigen values= −7 + 5
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
𝑃(𝐴⁄𝐵) = Determinant is the product of Eigen values
𝑃(𝐵)
Its product is −7×5 = −35
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) + 𝑃(𝐵) − 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵)
13
31. (d) The result is x = - 4 and y = 10
Given 𝑥 = 𝑎(cos 𝑡 + 𝑡 sin 𝑡) 50. (c)
𝑦 = 𝑎(sin 𝑡 − 𝑡 cos 𝑡)
Sample space = {Total number of tickets}
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑡
= . i.e., S = {1, 2, 3, . . . , 20}
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑥 n(S) = 20
= 𝑎[cos 𝑡 − (𝑡(− sin 𝑡) + cos 𝑡)] Event = {Event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5}
𝑑𝑡
= 𝑎[cos 𝑡 + 𝑡 sin 𝑡 − cos 𝑡] i.e., E = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 5, 10, 20}
= 𝑎𝑡. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑡 n(E) = 9
𝑑𝑦 Probability of getting a multiple of 3 or 5,
= 𝑎[−sin 𝑡 − (𝑡(cos 𝑡) + sin 𝑡)]
𝑑𝑡 𝑛(𝐸) 9
= 𝑎[− sin 𝑡 + 𝑡 cos 𝑡 + sin 𝑡] 𝑃(𝐸) = =
𝑛(𝑆) 20
= 𝑎𝑡. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑡
55. (a)
𝑑𝑦 𝑎𝑡. sin 𝑡 2
∴ = = tan 𝑡 Inverse Laplace transform of :
𝑑𝑥 𝑎𝑡. cos 𝑡 𝑠+1
1
37. (c) 𝐿−1 [ ] = 𝑒 𝑎𝑡
𝑑𝑥 1 + log 𝑥 − log 𝑥 𝑠−𝑎
∫ =∫ 𝑑𝑥 2 1
𝑥 log 𝑥 𝑥 log 𝑥 𝐿−1 [ ] = 2. 𝐿−1 [ ]
𝑠+1 𝑠+1
1 + log 𝑥 log 𝑥 = 2𝑒 −𝑡 [Since 𝑎 = −1]
=∫ 𝑑𝑥 − ∫ 𝑑𝑥
𝑥 log 𝑥 𝑥 log 𝑥 60. (a)
1 + log 𝑥 1 2 −1
=∫ 𝑑𝑥 − ∫ 𝑑𝑥 𝐴=[ ]
𝑥 log 𝑥 𝑥 −4 5
Characteristic equation, |𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = 0
Let 𝑢 = 𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 and 𝑑𝑢 = (1 + log 𝑥)𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑥 |𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = [2 − 𝜆 −1
]=0
−4 5 − 𝜆
∴∫ =∫ −∫
𝑥 log 𝑥 𝑢 𝑥 (2 − 𝜆)(5 − 𝜆) − 4 = 0
= log 𝑢 − log 𝑥 + 𝐶 𝜆2 − 7𝜆 + 6 = 0
= log(𝑥 log 𝑥) − log 𝑥 + 𝐶 𝜆 = 1, 6
Therefore Eigen values are 1 and 6.
= log 𝑥 + log(log x) − log x + C
𝑑𝑥 61. (a)
∫ = log(log x) + C 1 2
𝑥 log 𝑥 𝐴=[ ]
5 7
1
Inverse of matrix A is 𝐴−1 = |𝐴| [𝑎𝑑𝑗 𝐴]
38. (b) 1 2
2 3 |𝐴| = | | = (7 − 10) = −3
𝐴=[ ] 5 7
𝑥 𝑦 7 −2
𝑎𝑑𝑗 𝐴 = [ ]
Given Eigen values are 4 and 8 −5 1
1 −7 2
Sum of Eigen values = Sum of diagonal elements ∴ 𝐴−1 = [ ]
2 + 𝑦 = 12 3 5 −1
𝑦 = 10 68. (d)
Determinant of matrix = Product of diagonal
To find the greatest value of 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃:
elements
2𝑦 − 3𝑥 = 4×8 By using answer choices
20 − 3𝑥 = 32 If 𝜃 = 90°, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 90 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 90 = 1
𝑥 = −4 If 𝜃 = 60°, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 60 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 60
14
1 + √3 8 𝑥 0
= = 1.366 𝐴 = [ 4 0 2]
2
12 6 0
If 𝜃 = 30°, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 30 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 30
A is singular when |𝐴| = 0
1 + √3 8 𝑥 0
= = 1.366
2 |𝐴| = | 4 0 2| = 0
If 𝜃 = 45°, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 45 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 45 12 6 0
1 1 2 8(0 − 12) − 𝑥(0 − 24) + 0 = 0
= + = = 1.414 −96 + 24𝑥 = 0
√2 √2 √2
So, 𝑥 = 4
Among these values, the value of
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 is the greatest for 𝜃 = 45° 95. (d)
5 3
𝐴=[ ]
69. (c) 3 −3
(𝑥 2 −1) Characteristic equation, |𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = 0
To find the value olim f
𝑥→1 (𝑥−1)
(𝑥 2 − 1) (𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 − 1) |𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = [5 − 𝜆 3
]=0
= = (𝑥 + 1) 3 −3 − 𝜆
(𝑥 − 1) (𝑥 − 1)
(5 − 𝜆)(−3 − 𝜆) − 9 = 0
(𝑥 2 − 1)
∴ lim = 1+1= 2 𝜆2 + 2𝜆 − 24 = 0
𝑥→1 (𝑥 − 1)
𝜆 = 6, −4
79. (a)
4 1 Therefore Eigen values are 6 and - 4.
𝐴=[ ]
1 4 98. (b)
Characteristic equation, |𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = 0 0 2 2
|𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = [4 − 𝜆 1
]=0 𝐴=[ 7 4 8 ]
1 4−𝜆 −7 0 −4
(4 − 𝜆)(4 − 𝜆) − 1 = 0 −7 0 −4
𝜆2 − 8𝜆 + 15 = 0 𝜌[𝐴] ~ [ 7 4 8 ] 𝑅1 ↔ 𝑅3
𝜆 = 3, 5 0 2 2
Therefore Eigen values are 3 and 5. −7 0 −4
~ [ 0 4 4 ] 𝑅2 → 𝑅2 + 𝑅1
80. (b)
0 2 2
Ten items are chosen randomly,
−7 0 −4
Probability of defective item is10%, ~ [ 0 4 4 ] 𝑅1 → 𝑅2 − 2𝑅1
i.e., p = 0.01 0 0 0
Probability of non-defective item is q = 1 – p Number of non-zero columns = 2
q = 1 – 0.01 = 0.09 Therefore, Rank of the matrix A = 2
By using Binomial distribution,
99. (c)
P (Getting exactly 2 defective items) If X is uniformly distributed, then
= 𝑛𝐶𝑟 𝑝𝑟 𝑞 𝑛−𝑟 1 1
𝑓(𝑥) = = =1
= 10𝐶2 (0.01)2 . (0.09)10−2 𝑏−𝑎 1−0
1
= 45×(0.01)2 . (0.09)8
= 0.1937 ∴ 𝐸[𝑋 ] = ∫ 𝑥 3 (1)𝑑𝑥
3
0
1 1
93. (a) 𝑥4 1
3
= ∫ 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = [ ] =
4 0 4
0
15
2. ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Units for measurement – Description of Motion in One, Two and Three dimensions – Laws
of Motion – Work, Energy and Power – Rotational Motion – Gravitation – Heat and
Thermodynamics – Electrostatics – Electric Current – Magnetic Effect of Currents –
Magnetism – Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents and Electromagnetic
Waves – Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
1. Newton is unit of force. It is the unit in d) All of these

a) MKS system [EKT 1 2015 CSE] 6. When the separation between two charges is
b) CGS system made four times, the force between them
c) FPS system a) Increases four times [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
d) None of these b) Decreases four times
2. A Farad is defined as [EKT 1 2015 CSE] c) Increases sixteen times
a) Stat coulomb / volt d) Decreases sixteen times
b) Coulomb / volt 7. When a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is
c) Coulomb x volt induced in the conductor. This is known as
d) Stat coulomb x volt a) Joule’s law [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
3. Radioactivity is a property of b) Faraday’s law
a) Atomic nuclei [EKT 1 2015 CSE] c) Coulomb’s law
d) Ampere’s law
b) Excited electron
c) Gamma rays 8. X-rays are used for the study of crystal structure
d) Ultraviolet rays because _______ [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
a) X-rays are completely absorbed by the crystal
4. The liquid is flowing separately through each of
b) The wavelength of X-ray is of the same order of
two pipes whose diameters are in the ratio of 2:1,
magnitude in the inter-atomic spacing in crystals
if the ratio of the velocities of flow in the two pipes
c) The wavelength of X-rays is very small in
by 1:2, then the ratio of the amounts of the liquid
comparison with the inter-atomic spacing in
flowing per sec through the pipe will be
crystals
a) 2:1 [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
d) The crystals are completely transparent to X-rays
b) 1:1
c) 4:1 9. The number of images of an object held between
d) 1:8 two parallel plane mirrors.
a) Infinity
5. In MKS system, we measure b) 1
a) Mass in kilogram [EKT 1 2015 EEE] c) 3
b) Distance in meter d) 0
c) Time in second 10. Tesla is a measure of
16
a) Magnetic flux density [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
16. A block of ice in a room at normal temperature
b) Electric flux density
a) Does not radiate
c) Magnetic potential
b) Radiates less but absorbs more
d) Electric potential
c) Radiates more than it absorbs
11. Out of the following, which is not emitted by d) Radiates as much as it absorbs
radioactive substance? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
a) Electrons
b) Electromagnetic Radiations
17. In an electromagnetic wave, the phase
c) Alpha Particles
difference between electric field and magnetic field
d) Neutrons
is
12. Railway tracks are banked on curves a) 0
[EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] b) π / 4
a) So that necessary centrifugal force may be c) π / 2
obtained from the horizontal component & weight d) π
of the train
18. One Coulomb passing a point in one second is
b) To avoid frictional force between the tracks and
one [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
wheels
a) Ohm
c) So that necessary centripetal force may be
obtained from the horizontal component and b) Charge
weight of the train c) Ampere
d) So that the train may not fly off in the opposite d) Volt
direction 19. Which part of an atom has no electrical charge?
13. The time taken by the radioactive element to [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
reduce to 1 / e times is a) Electron
a) Half life b) Neutron
b) Mean life c) Proton
c) Half life / 2 d) Positron
d) Twice the mean life 20. Piezoelectric effect is carried out in ______
a) Composite Filter [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
14. The most abundant rare gas in the atmosphere
b) Constant K prototype filter
is [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
c) Crystal filter
a) He d) Ceramic filters
b) Ne
21. The ratio of radii of the first three Bhor orbits is
c) Ar
______
d) Xe
a) 1 : 2 :3
15. Maxwell’s electromagnetic equations are valid b) 1: 4 : 6
under all conditions except one that is c) 1 : 8 : 27
[EKT 2 2015 EEE] d) 1 : 4 : 9
a) They do not apply to non-isotropic media 22. Stars appears to move from east to west
b) They do not apply to non-homogeneous media because [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
c) They do not apply to media which move with a) All the stars move from east to west
respect to system coordinates b) The earth rotates from west to east
d) They do not apply to non-linear-media c) The earth rotates from east to west
17
d) The background of the stars moves from west to 30. Minimum number of unequal vectors which can
east give zero resultant are
a) Two
23. Rectifiers are used to convert
b) Three
a) Direct current to Alternating current
c) Four
b) Alternating current to Direct current d) More than four
c) High voltage to low voltage
d) Low voltage to high voltage
24. Metals are good conductors of electricity 31. Intensity of sound has
because a) An object existence
a) They contain free electrons b) A subject existence
b) The atoms are lightly c) No existence
c) They have high melting point d) Both subjective and objective existence
d) All of the above 32. Pick out the scalar quantity
a) Force
25. Let a thin capillary tube be replaced with b) Pressure
another tube of insufficient length then, we find
c) Velocity
water
d) Acceleration
a) Will overflow
b) Will not rise 33. Forged documents are detected by
c) Depressed a) Beta rays
d) Change its meniscus b) Infra-red rays
c) Ultraviolet rays
26. Light travels at the fastest speed in
d) Gamma rays
a) Glass
b) Water 34. _______ is used to measure the intensity of
c) Hydrogen light.
d) Vacuum a) Load cell
b) Lux meter
27. Supersonic plane fly with the speed
a) Less than the speed of sound c) Heliometer
b) Of sound d) Inkometer
c) Greater than the speed of sound 35. Specific gravity of milk can be measured by
d) Of light a) Elaeometer
28. Mach number is used in connection with the b) Dosimeter
speed of c) Lactometer
a) Sound d) Odometer
b) Aircraft
c) Spacecraft 36. A transformer works with
d) Ships a) Direct current
b) Alternating current
29. Sir C. V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his
c) Both AC & DC
work connected with which of the following
phenomenon of radiation? d) None of these
a) Scattering 37. At a place where the horizontal and vertical
b) Diffraction components of Earth’s magnetic field become
c) Interference equal, the angle of dip is
d) Polarization a) 0 degree
18
b) 30 degree a) Fermi
c) 45 degree b) Angstrom
d) 90 degree c) Newton
38. Which of the following is the necessary d) Tesla
condition for SHM? 45. Avogadro number is the number of molecules
a) Constant period in
b) Constant acceleration a) One litre of a gas at NTP
c) Displacement and acceleration are proportional b) One mole of a gas
d) Displacement and torque are proportional c) One gram of a gas
39. If the magnitude of displacement is equal to d) 1 kg of a gas
acceleration, then the period is, 46. First law of thermodynamics is a consequence
a) 1 s of the conservation of
b) π s a) Momentum
c) 2π s b) Charge
d) 4π s c) Mass
d) Energy
40. Which of the following does not affect the
velocity of sound? 47. The property of the system that does not
a) Temperature of the gas change during an a diabetic change is
b) Pressure of the gas a) Temperature
c) Mass of the gas b) Volume
d) Specific heat capacities of the gas c) Pressure
d) Heat
41. When a wave passes from one medium, to
another, there is change of 48. For an ant moving on the horizontal surface, the
a) Frequency and velocity number of degrees of freedom of the ant will be
b) Frequency and wavelength a) 1
c) Wavelength and velocity b) 2
d) Frequency, wavelength and velocity c) 3
d) 6
42. Out of the following pairs, choose the pair in 49. The internal energy of a perfect gas is
which the physical quantities do not have identical a) Partly kinetic and partly potential
dimension? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
b) Wholly potential
a) Pressure and Young's modules
c) Wholly kinetic
b) Planck's constant and Angular momentum
d) Depends on the ratio of two specific heats
c) Impulse and moment of force
d) Force and rate of change of linear Momentum 50. Which of the following will radiate heat to the
large extent?
43. The second overtone of an pipe has the same a) White polished surface
frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe of 2
b) White rough surface
m long. The length of the open pipe is,
c) Black polished surface
a) 2 m
d) Black rough surface
b) 4 m
c) 0.5 m 51. The nuclear particles which are assumed to hold
d) 0.75 m the nucleons together are
44. Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named a) Electrons [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
19
b) Positrons 58. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because
c) Neutrons soft iron has
d) Mesons a) Low susceptibility and low retentivity
b) High susceptibility and low retentivity
52. The number of images of an object held
between two parallel plane mirrors c) High susceptibility and high retentivity
a) Infinity d) Low permeability and high receptivity
b) 1 59. For which of the following substances, the
c) 3 magnetic susceptibility is independent of
d) 0 temperature?
a) Diamagnetic
53. Light passes through a closed tube which
b) Paramagnetic
contains a gas. If the gas inside the tube is gradually
c) Ferromagnetic
pumped out, the speed of light inside the tube
d) Diamagnetic and paramagnetic
a) Increases
b) Decreases 60. At Curie point, a ferromagnetic material
c) Remains constant becomes
d) First increases and then decreases a) Non – magnetic
54. A converging lens is used to form an image on a b) Diamagnetic
screen. When the lower half of the lens is covered c) Paramagnetic
by an opaque screen then, d) Strongly ferromagnetic
a) Half of the image will disappear 61. A current flows in a conductor from east to
b) Complete image will be formed west. The direction of the magnetic Held at a point
c) No image is formed above the conductor is _______
d) Intensity of the image is high a) Towards north
b) Towards south
55. Rainbow is formed due to the phenomenon of
c) Towards east
a) Refraction and absorption
d) Towards west
b) Dispersion and focussing
c) Refraction and scattering 62. A NOT gate can be implemented by
d) Dispersion and total internal reflection a) a single transistor
b) A single resistor
56. A bar magnet of mass 90 g has magnetic
c) A single diode
moment 3 A m2. If the intensity of magnetisation of
the magnet is 2.7 × 105 A m-1, find the density of the d) Two diodes
material of the magnet. 63. The spectrum of an oil flame is an example for
a) 4100 kg m-3 a) Line absorption
b) 8100 kg m-3 b) Band emission spectrum
c) 1200 kg m-3 c) Line emission spectrum
d) 6100 kg m-3 d) Continuous emission spectrum
57. The direction of a magnet in tan B position of a 64. There is a uniform magnetic field directed
deflection magnetometer is perpendicular and into the plane of the paper. An
irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing
a) North – South
into a circular loop in the plane of the paper. Then
b) East – West
______
c) North – West
a) AC is induced in the loop
d) South – West
b) No current is induced in the loop
20
c) Current is induced in the loop in the anti- a) Interference of sunlight reflected from the water
clockwise direction surface
d) Current is induced in the loop in the clockwise b) Scattering of sunlight by the water molecules
direction c) Image of sky in water
65. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted d) Refraction of sunlight
electrons in a photoelectric effect does not depend 72. When a person sitting on a swing stands up the
upon swing, the frequency of oscillation
a) Wavelength a) Increases
b) Frequency b) Decreases
c) Intensity c) Become infinite
d) Work function d) Does not change
66. The maximum number of possible interference 73. The audio signals of TV are
maxima when slit separation is equal to 4 times the a) Unmodulated.
wavelength of light used in a double slit experiment b) Velocity modulated
is c) Amplitude modulated
a) 1 d) Frequency modulated
b) 9
74. A dipole is placed in a uniform electric field with
c) 8
its axis parallel to the field. It experiences
d) 7
a) Only a net force
67. The most stable particle in Baryon group is b) Only a torque
a) Neutron c) Both a net force and torque
b) Omega – particle d) Neither a net force not a torque
c) Proton
75. In the case of insulators, as the temperature
d) Lamda – particle
decreases, resistivity
68. In which of the processes, does the internal a) Increases
energy of the system remain constant? b) Decreases
a) Adiabatic c) Becomes zero
b) Isochoric d) Remains constant
c) Isobaric
76. Electromagnetic induction is not used in
d) Isothermal
a) Transformer
69. A green leaf when seen in red light would b) Room heater
appear to be
c) AC generator
a) White
d) Choke coil
b) Cyan
77. _______ device does not allow d.c to pass
c) Magenta
through?
d) Yellow
a) Resistor
70. Solar spectrum is an example for b) Capacitor
a) Line emission spectrum c) Inductor
b) Continuous emission spectrum d) All the above
c) Band absorption spectrum
78. In an electromagnetic wave, the phase
d) Line absorption spectrum
difference between electric field and magnetic field
71. Blue colour of sea water is due to is
a) 0
21
b) 1 d) Beta particles
c) 2 86. The fundamental units of Length is _______
d) -1 a) Kilogram
79. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents b) Second
a) Distance c) Ampere
b) Acceleration d) Metre
c) Speed 87. A body at rest and body in motion remain in
d) All the above uniform in a straight line unless acted upon by an
external force called also _______
80. If the wavelength of the light is reduced to half,
a) Newton’s first law of motion
then the amount of scattering will
b) Newton’s second law of motion
a) Increase by 16 times
c) Newton’s third law of motion
b) Decrease by 16 times
d) None of the above
c) Increase by 256 times
d) Decrease by 256 times 88. Loudness of sound depends upon ______ of the
sound wave.
81. In hydrogen atom, which of the following
a) Frequency
transitions produce a spectral line of maximum
frequency? b) Wavelength
a) 2 → 1 c) Amplitude
d) Pitch
b) 6 → 2
c) 4 → 3 89. The reason behind decrease in the boiling point
d) 5 → 2 of water at higher altitudes is
a) High temperature
82. The photoelectric effect can be explained on
b) Low temperature
the basis of
a) Corpuscular theory c) High atmospheric pressure
b) Wave theory d) Low atmospheric pressure
c) Electromagnetic theory 90. The moment of inertia of a body does not
d) Quantum theory depend upon its
a) Axis of rotation
83. The wavelength of the matter wave is
b) Angular velocity
independent of
c) Form of mass
a) Mass
b) Velocity d) Position of axis of rotation
c) Momentum 91. Which method can be applied to determine
d) Charge purity of a metal?
84. The time taken by the radioactive element to a) Boyle’s law
reduce to I/e times is b) Pascal’s law
a) Half life c) Archimedes principle
b) Mean life d) Newton’s law
c) Half life/2 92. The instrument used to study the laws of
d) Twice the mean life vibrating string is ___
85. The ionisation power is maximum for a) Hydrometer
a) Neutrons b) Hygrometer
b) Alpha particles c) Sonometer
c) Gamma rays d) Electrometer
22
93. Which of the following is related to threshold 97. The field produced around a current carrying
frequency? conductor is
a) Photo current decreases with voltage a) Electric field
b) Photo electric emission is not possible b) Electro-magnetic field
c) Photo current increases with voltage
c) Magnetic field
d) Photo current is constant
d) Electrostatic field
94. Hydraulic press depends upon
98. Which of the following principles is associated
a) Coulomb’s law
with Optical fibre?
b) Pascal’s principle a) Scattering
c) Boyle’s law
b) Interference
d) Bernouli’s principle
c) Total internal reflection
95. The Newton’s first law is also referred to as d) Refraction
a) Law of inertia 99. Ultra violet radiations of the Sun do not reach
b) Law of friction the earth because of the layer of
c) Law of moments a) Ozone
d) Law of motion b) Carbon dioxide
96. Which device is used to convert solar energy c) Nitrogen
into electricity?
d) Ammonia
a) Daniel cell 100. A rear-view mirror for driving is
b) Solar cell or photovoltatic cell a) Convex
c) Electrochemical cell b) Concave
d) Vectorscope c) Inverted
Answer Key:
1. (a) 11. (d) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (c) 51. (d) 61. (a) 71. (b) 81. (a) 91. (c)
2. (d) 12. (c) 22. (b) 32. (b) 42. (c) 52. (a) 62. (a) 72. (a) 82. (d) 92. (c)
3. (a) 13. (b) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (d) 73. (d) 83. (d) 93. (b)
4. (a) 14. (a) 24. (b) 34. (b) 44. (a) 54. (b) 64. (c) 74. (d) 84. (b) 94. (b)
5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (b) 35. (c) 45. (b) 55. (d) 65. (c) 75. (a) 85. (b) 95. (a)
6. (d) 16. (b) 26. (d) 36. (b) 46. (d) 56. (b) 66. (b) 76. (b) 86. (d) 96. (b)
7. (b) 17. (a) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (d) 57. (b) 67. (c) 77. (b) 87. (a) 97. (c)
8. (b) 18. (c) 28. (b) 38. (c) 48. (b) 58. (b) 68. (d) 78. (a) 88. (c) 98. (c)
9. (a) 19. (b) 29. (a) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (a) 69. (d) 79. (b) 89. (d) 99. (a)
10.(a) 20. (c) 30. (b) 40. (b) 50. (d) 60. (c) 70. (d) 80. (c) 90. (b) 100. (a)
Solutions:
56. (b) Given: m = 90 × 10-3 kg
23
M = 3A m2
I = 2.7 × 105 A m-1
To find ρ:
𝑀
Intensity of magnetization, 𝐼 = 𝑉
𝑚
But, volume 𝑉 = 𝜌
𝑀𝜌
𝐼=
𝑚
𝐼𝑚 2.7×105 ×90×10−3
𝜌= = = 8100
𝑀 3
𝜌 = 8100 𝑘𝑔 𝑚−3
24
3. ENGINEERING GRAPHICS/DRAWING
Principles of Orthographic projections – Projections of points, lines, planes and solids –

Intersection of surfaces – Section of solids – Isometric projection – Introduction to Computer
Aided-Drafting - Auto-CAD.

1. The top, front, and bottom views align in this d) Second quadrant
manner 7. The section view drawing in which one fourth of an
a) Parallel to the frontal plane object has been marked for removal is known as
b) According to the planar views ______
c) Horizontal a) Half section
d) Vertical b) Full section
2. The main ingredients of pencil leads are c) Quarter section
a) Lead and Mercury d) None of these
b) Clay and lead 8. Identify the false statement related to mutliview
c) Lead and graphite drawings
d) Graphite and clay a) Based on orthographic projection
3. In first angle projection method, object is assumed b) Views are defined by planes of projection
to be placed in c) At least two views of the object
a) First quadrant d) Each view is a 3D pictorial image
b) Third Quadrant 9. Which of the following is not a pictorial drawing?
c) Second Quadrant a) Axonometric
d) Fourth Quadrant b) Isometric
4. In orthographic projections, the rays are assumed c) Perspective
to d) Multiview
a) Converge from station point 10. What are the three principle planes in
b) Be parallel orthographic projection?
c) Diverge from station point a) Front, horizontal, profile
d) None of these b) Back, top, profile
5. If a plane is parallel to the plane of projection, it c) Top, front, right side
appears: [EKT 1 2015 CSE] d) Front, top, profile
a) True size 11. When filling an area with a hatch pattern in Auto
b) Foreshortened CAD, the drafter needs to be able to ______
c) As an oblique surface a) Turn ISO grid off
d) As a line or edge b) See Ortho on
6. A point ‘P’ is above HP and in front of VP. The point c) See the entire bounding area to hatch
is in d) See the layer of Defpoints
a) Fourth quadrant 12. The dotted line represents
b) Third quadrant a) Hidden edges
c) First quadrant b) Centre line
25
c) Hatching line 20. This type of surface is tipped to all principal
d) Projection line planes of projection and does not appear true size in
13. This is the plane upon which the top view is any standard view:
projected a) Parallel
a) Horizontal b) Orthographic
b) Frontal c) Oblique
c) Base d) Foreshortened
d) Profile 21. In orthographic projection, visual rays are
14. A circle will appear on an isometric drawing as _______ to the projection plane.
a(n) _______ a) Tangent
a) Parabola b) Parallel
b) Circle c) Adjacent
c) Cycloid d) Perpendicular
d) Ellipse 22. Which among the following view is not a principal
15. _______ section is not in direct projection from view?
the view containing the cutting plane a) Front
a) Broken-out b) Bottom
b) Revolved c) Auxiliary
c) Removed d) Left side
d) Full 23. Which of the following is the softest pencil?
16. An advantage of this type of view is that each a) HB
view shows the object all the way through as if it b) 1B
were transparent: c) 2B
a) Planar d) 2H
b) Orthographic 24. Which among the following pairs of orthographic
c) Auxiliary views both show the height dimension?
d) Horizontal a) Left side and front
17. Which among the line is used for dimension line? b) Top and rear
a) Chain thin line c) Bottom and right side
b) Continuous thin d) Top and front
c) Continuous thick 25. Angles project true size only when the plane
d) Short zigzag thin containing the angle and plane of projection are this
18. An axonometric drawing which has all three axes a) Parallel [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
divided by equal angles is b) Perpendicular
a) Orthographic c) Aligned
b) Isometric d) Adjacent
c) Dimetric 26. Principal planes will appear as
d) Trimetric a) Skewed planes or edges
19. Hatching lines are drawn at ______ degree to b) Normal planes or edges
reference line c) Oblique planes or edges
a) 45 d) Normal planes or oblique planes
b) 30 27. In offset sections, offsets or bends in the cutting
c) 60 plane are all
d) 90 a) 180°
b) 90°
26
c) Either 90° or 180° 35. The height, width, depth of an object can be
d) 30°, 60° or 90° shown with a minimum of how many orthographic
28. Which among the following line is used for visible projection views?
outlines? a) Four
a) Continuous thin b) Six
b) Chain thin line c) Three
c) Continuous thick d) Two
d) Short zigzag line 36. When the line is parallel to VP and perpendicular
29. During operation, the two arms of the drafter to HP, we can get its true length in
remain at a) Top view
a) 180° b) Side View
b) 45° c) Front view
c) 90° d) Front view and side view
d) 270° 37. Isometric projection of a sphere is
30. In aligned system of dimensioning, the a) Ellipse
dimensions may be read from b) Circle
a) Only from bottom c) Hyperbola
b) Only from left side d) Parabola
c) Bottom of left hand edges 38. In an isometric sketch of a cube
d) Bottom or right hand edges a) The frontal face appears in its true shape
b) Only the depth distances must be reduced
31. Lines of an isometric drawing that are not parallel
c) All faces are equally distorted
to the isometric axes are called this
d) The receding axes are at 45° to the horizontal
a) Non isometric lines
b) Multiview lines 39. Which of the following position is not possible for
c) Dimetric lines a plane?
d) Trimetric lines a) Parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP
b) Perpendicular to both HP and VP
32. The mini drafter serves the purpose of everything
c) Parallel to both HP and VP
except
d) Perpendicular to Hp and parallel to VP
a) Set square
b) Scale 40. In a CAD system, you can draw an ellipse by
c) Compass specifying these
d) Protractor a) The center and radius
b) The bounding lines
33. Which of the following is the lightest pencil?
c) The midpoint and end points
a) HB
d) The center, minor and major axes
b) H
c) 2B 41. The lines used to create the auxiliary view should
d) 1B appear as ______ in the finished view.
a) Object lines
34. In oblique projection, important shapes should be
b) Parallel lines
in this position relative to the viewing plane
c) Reference lines
a) Adjacent
d) Construction lines
b) Perpendicular
c) Parallel 42. The side view of an object is drawn in
d) Rotated a) Vertical plane
b) Horizontal plane
c) Profile plane
27
d) Any of the above a) Sphere
43. A cylinder can be created by drawing a b) Extrude
rectangular shape then the ______ tool. c) Box
a) Sweep d) All of the above
b) Revolve 51. The following are the Solids of revolution except
c) Extrude a) Cylinder
d) None of these b) Cone
44. Oblique drawings are dimensioned in a similar c) Sphere
fashion as these types of drawings: d) Prism
a) Parallel 52. When setting up a mechanical drawing in
b) Angular AutoCAD the drafter should set the units to
c) Isometric a) Architectural [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
d) Orthographic b) Fractional
45. The front view of a rectangle, when its plane is c) Decimal
parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP is d) Metric
a) Rectangle
53. If an object lies in third quadrant, its position with
b) Point
respect to reference planes will be
c) Square
a) In front of VP and Above HP
d) Line
b) Behind VP and Above HP
46. CAD programs which incorporate parametric
c) Behind VP and Below HP
modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions
d) In front of VP and Below HP
control the ______.
a) Size and shape of the model features 54. Newer versions of Auto-CAD utilize the _______
b) Shading used to render the model to make block library management very easy.
c) Perspective of the model a) Modify
d) All of the above b) File or search
c) File or find
47. The following are the methods of drawing
d) Design center
isometric views except
a) Parallel line method 55. When an object is cut by a section plane parallel
b) Box method to HP and perpendicular to VP, then the sectional
c) Centre line method view of the object is obtained in
d) Offset method a) Top view
b) Left side view
48. Which of the following is not used to fix drawing
c) Right side view
sheet on the board?
d) Bottom view
a) Clips
b) Thread 56. The Conceptual Visual Style tool is located on the
c) Drawing pins _______ toolbar.
d) Adhesive tapes a) Modify
b) Visual styles
49. When the line is parallel to both HP and VP, we
c) 3D modeling
can get its true length in
d) None of these
a) Front view
b) Top view 57. The isometric axis is inclined at _______ degree
c) Both (a) and (b) to each other
d) Side view a) 60
b) 120
50. The 3D commands on the Modeling toolbar
c) 90
include _______
28
d) 150 b) Circles
58. The _______ dimension tool will place the length c) Horizontal lines
of an angled line. d) Vertical lines
a) Aligned 66. Which of the following position is not possible for
b) Linear a right solid?
c) Radial a) Axis perpendicular to both HP and VP
d) Angle b) Axis perpendicular to HP and parallel to VP
59. One quick way to view the entire drawing area is c) Axis parallel to both HP and VP
to use the Zoom command by typing d) Axis parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP
a) Type ALL enter [EKT 1 2015 MECH] 67. This is used in drawings to represent the edge of
b) Type SHOWALL enter a solid object:
c) Type Z enter E enter a) Line
d) Type Z enter A enter b) Surface
60. If a solid is cut by a cutting plane parallel to the c) Vertex
base of the solid and top part is removed, the d) Angle
remaining part is called 68. This is the intersection of the ground plane with
a) Truncated solid the picture plane:
b) Oblique solid a) Vanishing point
c) Frustum of a solid b) Horizon
d) None of these c) Ground line
61. This type of section is limited by a break line d) Station point
a) Revolved section 69. The bounding box method for setting up an
b) Removed section isometric drawing helps the drafter _______
c) Broken-out section a) Figure what lines are to be illustrated vertical and
d) Half section horizontal
62. The principle views associated with orthographic b) Confine the isometric drawing to its maximum
projection are _______. size
a) Front view c) Position the isometric drawing in paper space
b) Top view d) None of these
c) Right side view 70. Which of the following object gives a circular
d) All the above section, when it is cut completely by a section plane
63. The sectional plane are represented by with irrespective of the angle of the section plane?
a) Chain thin line a) Sphere
b) Chain thin line having thick edges b) Circular lamina
c) Continuous thin line c) Cylinder
d) Continuous thick line d) Cone
64. One way to evenly space dimensions on a 71. _______ command helps to visualize the objects
drawing is to use the ________ in a very clear way
a) Continue tool a) Display
b) Linear tool b) Modify
c) Dimension space tool c) Save
d) Baseline tool d) Undo
65. The offset tool should only be used for placing
_______ in an isometric drawing.
a) Squares
29
72. Line of intersection produces ______ point of c) Computer Architecture
contact d) Computer Aided Disk
a) Zero 80. The solid whose top is removed by cutting it by a
b) Equal plane inclined to its base
c) Minimum a) Frustum solid
d) Maximum b) Truncated solid
73. Intersection of surfaces is also known as _______ c) Full solid
a) Development of surface d) Rigid solid
b) Rigid surface 81. ______ command is used to set the drawing
c) Interpenetration surface boundaries.
d) None of these a) LIMITS
74. Hatching lines are ______ to each other and b) UNITS
equally spaced. c) DIMLINEAR
a) Not equal d) HATCH
b) Perpendicular 82. Which of the following position is not possible for
c) Parallel a straight line?
d) None of these a) Lines parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP
75. When the position of a point lies in the third b) Lines perpendicular to both HP and VP
quadrant, then it will be? c) Lines parallel to both HP and VP
a) Above HP and behind VP d) Lines inclined to both HP and VP
b) Below HP and behind VP 83. Which among the following commands are used
c) Above HP and in front of VP as dimensioning commands?
d) Below HP and in front of VP a) LINEAR
76. _______ is a solid whose axis is inclined to its base b) RADIAL
or end faces c) ANGULAR
a) Regular solid d) All of the above
b) Full solid 84. In the term orthographic, ortho means
c) Oblique solid a) View
d) Truncated solid b) Drawing
77. _______ command is used for creating one object c) Projection
parallel to one another at a specified distance d) Right angle
a) ARRAY 85. The imaginary plane is assumed to cut the object
b) HATCH required is called _______
c) MIRROR a) Horizontal plane
d) OFFSET b) Reference Plane
78. When a line is seen as point in the front view, c) Sectional plane
then the line is d) Vertical plane
a) Inclined to VP 86. If a point is situated in the first quadrant, its front
b) Parallel to VP and top views will always be
c) Perpendicular to HP a) Above XY line
d) Perpendicular to VP b) Above and below the XY line
79. The method of preparing engineering drawings c) Below XY line
by using computer software is known as d) None of these
a) Computer Aided Drafting 87. ________ model represents the entire volume of
b) System Software an object
30
a) Solid b) Center of projection
b) Surface c) Point of projection
c) Wireframe d) View point
d) None of these
95. When lines are drawn parallel to isometric axes,
88. The two ways of drawing orthographic the lengths are foreshortened to _______ times the
projections are actual lengths.
a) First angle and third angle a) 0.816
b) First angle and second angle
b) 2.99
c) Second angle and third angle
d) Second angle and fourth angle c) 1.01
89. _____ command is used to set the style for d) 1.52
isometric drawing. 96. The imaginary line joining the centers of area of
a) EXPLODE the bases is called its _______
b) REDO a) Oblique
c) UNDO b) Axis
d) SNAP c) Auxiliary view
d) Ground line
90. Orthographic projection represents three
dimensional objects in 97. The plane is at right angles to the two principal
a) One dimension planes called _______
b) Three dimension a) Horizontal plane
c) Two dimension b) Vertical Plane
d) All of the above c) Auxiliary Vertical Plane
d) Reference Plane
91. Which among the following are not the
applications of CAD? 98. ______ projection is used to prepare the pictorial
a) Panel design view of smaller objects
b) Satellite transmitting pictures a) Trimetric
c) Instrumentation design b) Dimetric
d) All of the above c) Perspective
d) Isometric
92. When a line is seen as point in top view, then the
line is 99. If the section plane is inclined to the plane of
a) Parallel to HP projection, then the section obtained is called
b) Inclined to HP _______ section.
c) Inclined to VP a) Apparent
d) Perpendicular to HP b) True shape
c) Horizontal
93. ________ command is used to measure
d) Vertical
horizontal or vertical distance between two points.
a) DIMRADIUS 100. In the third angle projection, the object is
b) DIMANGULAR assumed to be situated in the ______
c) DIMLINEAR a) First quadrant
d) DIMALIGNED b) Third quadrant
c) Fourth quadrant
94. The point, from which the observer is assumed to
d) Second quadrant
view the object, is called
a) Point of observer
31
Answer Key:
1. (d) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (d) 61. (c) 71. (a) 81. (a) 91. (d)
2. (d) 12. (a) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (c) 52. (c) 62. (d) 72. (d) 82. (b) 92. (d)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (c) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (c) 83. (d) 93. (c)
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (a) 34. (c) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (c) 84. (d) 94. (b)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (a) 35. (d) 45. (d) 55. (a) 65. (d) 75. (b) 85. (c) 95. (a)
6. (c) 16. (b) 26. (b) 36. (d) 46. (a) 56. (b) 66. (a) 76. (c) 86. (b) 96. (b)
7. (a) 17. (b) 27. (b) 37. (b) 47. (a) 57. (b) 67. (a) 77. (d) 87. (a) 97. (c)
8. (d) 18. (b) 28. (c) 38. (c) 48. (b) 58. (a) 68. (c) 78. (d) 88. (a) 98. (d)
9. (d) 19. (a) 29. (c) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (d) 69. (b) 79. (a) 89. (d) 99. (a)
10. (a) 20. (c) 30. (d) 40. (d) 50. (d) 60. (c) 70. (a) 80. (b) 90. (c) 100. (b)
32
1. ANALOG AND DIGITAL ELECTRONICS
Characteristics of diodes – BJT, FET, JFET and MOSFET – Amplifiers – Oscillators and feedback
amplifiers – Operational amplifiers – Simple active filters, VCOs and timers – Combinational
and sequential logic circuits – Multiplexer – Schmitt trigger – Multi-vibrators – Sample and
hold circuits – A/D and D/A converters – 8 bit-microprocessor.
1. Which number system has a base of 16? d) 8 byte

a) Binary 7. In binary number system the first digit (bit) from
b) Decimal right to left is called as
c) Hexadecimal a) First bit
d) Octal b) MSB, Most Significant Bit
2. Binary equivalent of (45)10 [EKT 1 2015 EEE] c) LSB, Least Significant Bit
a) (10101)2 d) Last bit
b) (11101)2 8. 1’s complement of 11001010 is
c) (11110)2 a) 00111100
d) (110101)2 b) 00110101
3. Logic gates required to built up a half adder circuit c) 10010110
are [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] d) 01101001
a) EX-OR gate and NAND gate 9. The practical use of binary-weighted digital to
b) EX-OR gate and AND gate analog converter is limited to
c) EX-OR gate and NOR gate a) Op-amp comparators
d) EX-OR gate and OR gate b) 8-bit D/A converter
4. Number of flip flops used in decade counter c) 4-bit D/A converter
a) 4 [EKT 1 2015 CSE] d) R/2R ladder D/A converters
b) 3 10. Which of these sets of logic gates are designated
c) 2 as universal gates?
d) None of these a) NOR, NAND, XNOR
5. AND operation is equivalent to b) OR, NOT, AND
a) Addition c) XOR, NOR, NAND
b) Union d) NOR, NAND
c) Division 11. Change in value of an analog signal to digital,
d) Intersection during conversion process produces
6. A 32 bit microprocessor has word length equal to a) Sampling error [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
[EKT 1 2015 CSE] b) Resolution error
a) 1 byte c) Nyquist error
b) 2 byte d) Quantization error
c) 4 byte
33
12. OR operation is equivalent to d) Priority encoder
a) Union 20. A binary number system has how many digits
b) Division a) 2
c) Intersection b) 1
d) Subtraction c) 0
13. Which is the example of digital device? d) 10
a) Record players 21. _______ is an active filter. [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
b) Thermistors a) Butterworth filter
c) Microprocessor b) Chebyshev filter
d) Sensors c) RC filter
14. How is a J-K Flip Flop made to toggle? d) Band pass filter
a) J=1, K=1 [EKT 1 2015 CSE] 22. Multiplication of 2 binary numbers A and B yields
b) J=0, K=1 11011; if A is 101 B is [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
c) J=1, K=0 a) 101
d) J=0, K=0 b) 111
15. The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal c) 110
number E5 is [EKT 2 2015 EEE] d) None of these
a) 427 23. Which gate acts as universal gate?
b) 3000 a) OR [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
c) 279 b) AND
d) 229 c) NAND
16. Sample and Hold circuits in ADC are designed to d) EX-OR
a) Sample and hold the output of the binary counter 24. How many input and output required for
during the conversion process demultiplexer?
b) Sample and hold the DAC staircase waveform a) Many inputs and one output
during the conversion process b) One input and one output
c) Stabilize the input analog signal during the c) Number of selection inputs and one output
conversion process d) One input and many outputs
d) Stabilize the comparator’s threshold voltage
25. In computer memory size, K indicates kilo, which
during the conversion process
is equal to [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
17. Which of the following is a digital device?
a) 1024
a) Regulator of a fan
b) 1000
b) Light switch
c) 100
c) Microphone
d) 10000
d) Resistance of a material
26. In an n-channel JFET, the gate is
18. 2’s complement of 10101011 is
a) Both n and p type
a) 10101011
b) Either n or p type
b) 00111100
c) n type
c) 01010101
d) p type
d) 10101100
27. A zener diode is used in
19. In a flash ADC, the output of each comparator is
a) Both voltage and amplifier circuit
connected to an input of a
b) Amplifier circuits
a) Demultiplexer
c) Voltage regulator circuit
b) Multiplexer
d) None of these
c) Decoder
34
28. If a signal is passing through a logic gate is d) Constant current region
inhibited by sending a low into one the input and the 36. A digital circuit that can store one bit is a
output is HIGH, the gate is a) Gate
a) NAND [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] b) Resistor
b) NOR c) XOR gate
c) OR d) Flip flop
d) AND
37. In a bipolar transistor, which current is largest?
29. An adder in which the bits of the operands are a) Collector current
added one after another is [EKT 2 2015 CSE] b) Base current
a) Half adder c) Emitter current
b) Full adder d) Base current or emitter current
c) Serial adder
38. Which of the following oscillators is suitable for
d) All of the above
frequencies in the range of MHz?
30. Enhancement is associated with a) Hartley
a) MOSFET b) Wein Bridge
b) JFET c) RC phase shift
c) Tunnel diode d) Both (a) and (b)
d) Photo diode
39. The Logic gate that will have HIGH or "1" at its
31. An astable multivibrator has output when one of its inputs is high is
a) No stable state [EKT 1 2015 EEE] a) NOT [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
b) One stable state b) NOR
c) Three stable states c) AND
d) Two stable states d) OR
32. In an npn transistor, the majority carriers in the 40. FET is a [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
base are a) Unipolar semiconductor device
a) Electrons b) Bipolar semiconductor device
b) Holes c) Non-semiconductor device
c) Both electrons and holes d) Both (a) and (c)
d) Either electrons or holes
41. Transfer of register from one register to another
33. In digital electronics, encoder is used to register is known as _______ register operation.
a) Convert coded information into non-coded form a) In between
b) Convert non-coded information into coded form b) Inside
c) Separate address bus and data bus c) Intra
d) None of these d) Inter
34. In 8085 microprocessor _______ is the 42. An ideal op-amp has [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
highestpriority interrupts [EKT 2 2015 EEE] a) Infinite input and output impedance
a) RST5.5 b) Very low input and output impedance
b) RST c) Infinite input impedance and zero output
c) Trap impedance
d) INTR d) Low input impedance and very high output
35. The normal operation of JFET is impedance
a) Either constant voltage or constant current regions 43. What is the input impedance of a common-gate
b) Both constant voltage and constant current configured JFET?
regions a) Very High
c) Constant voltage region b) High
35
c) Low b) VCO
d) Very low c) Comparator
44. A sequence of binary digits is known as d) Frequency synthesizer
a) Bit string 51. The function of Schmitt trigger is
b) Byte string a) To shape a wave [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
c) Input string b) To divide frequency
d) Word string c) To control frequency
45. The binary code of (21.125)10 is d) To give out a saw tooth wave
a) (10101.001)2 [EKT 2 2015 EEE] 52. At which the data can be applied to a gate is
b) (10100.001)2 known as _______ frequency.
c) (10101.010)2 a) Operating
d) (10100.111)2 b) Propagation
46. 1 Gigabyte = _______ c) Run time
a) 1024 Megabytes d) Truth
b) 1024 Kilobytes 53. In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are
c) 1024 Bytes based slightly above cut-off to avoid
d) 1024 Bits a) Negative feedback [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
47. The main difference between synchronous and b) Unusually high efficiency
asynchronous transmission is that c) Crossover distortion
a) The pulse height is different [EKT 1 2015 EEE] d) Low input impedance
b) The clocking is derived from the data in 54. Schmitt trigger can be used as a
synchronous transmission a) Comparator [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
c) The bandwidth required is different b) Square wave generator
d) The clocking is mixed with the data in c) Flip flop
asynchronous transmission d) All of these
48. Which of the following is not a 8 bit 55. Combinations that are not listed for the input
microprocessor [EKT 2 2015 EEE] variables are
a) Borrow
b) Don’t cares
c) Carry
d) Overflow
a) INTEL8085
56. The depletion mode MOSFET[EKT 1 2015 MECH]
b) MOTOROLA6800
a) Can operate with only positive gate voltages
c) ZILOG280
b) Can operate with positive as well as negative gate
d) FAIRCHILD9440
voltages
49. The CB configuration is used to provide which c) Can operate with only negative gate voltages
type of gain? d) Cannot operate in the ohmic region
a) Resistance
57. Which is the higher provided by a CE
b) Power
configuration?
c) Current
a) Current
d) Voltage
b) Voltage
50. ________ is used for keeping oscillator frequency c) Power
away from any drift d) Resistance
a) PLL [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
58. A full adder has
a) PLL
a) 2 inputs, 2 outputs
36
b) 3 inputs, 1 output 66. Convert the decimal number 187 to 8-bit binary
c) 2 inputs, 1 output [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
d) 3 inputs, 2 outputs a) (10111101)2
59. How will the electrons flow through a p-channel b) (11011101)2
JFET? c) (10111011)2
a) From Source to gate d) (10111100)2
b) From Source to drain 67. Schmitt trigger is otherwise known as
c) From drain to source a) Regenerative comparator
d) From drain to gate b) Crystal controlled oscillator
60. How many input and output required for c) Multivibrator
multiplexer? d) Multiplexer
a) Many inputs and one output 68. The number “FF” in the base-16 systems will be
b) Many inputs and many outputs equal to _______ in binary system.
c) One input and one output a) 11111111
d) One input and many outputs b) 10101010
61. With a JFET, a ratio of output current change c) 11001100
against an input voltage change is called d) 10011001
a) Gain 69. The type of bias most often used with E-MOSFET
b) Resistivity circuit is
c) Transconductance a) Voltage divider
d) Saturation b) Constant current
62. Master-slave flip flop consist of ______ flip flops. c) Drain feedback
a) 1 d) Zero biasing
b) 2 70. The graphical representation of the products in a
c) 4 truth table is called as
d) 3 a) T-map
63. Subtract (1010)2 from (1101)2 using 1st b) K-map
complement. [EKT 2 2015 EEE] c) Graphing
a) (1001)2 d) Mapping
b) (1100)2 71. A buffer amplifier should have
c) (0011)2 a) High input impedance and low output impedance
d) (0110)2 b) High input impedance and high output impedance
64. When the JFET is no longer able to control the c) Low input impedance and low output impedance
current, this point is called the d) Low input impedance and high output impedance
a) Breakdown region 72. Which type of JFET bias requires a negative supply
b) Pinch-off region voltage?
c) Saturation region a) Source
d) Depletion region b) Voltage divider
65. Which logic family provides minimum power c) Gate
dissipation? d) Feedback
a) ECL 73. Which among the following is an 8-bit
b) TTL microprocessor?
c) CMOS a) 8086
d) JFET b) 8085
c) 8051
37
d) All of the above c) Insulated
d) High resistance
74. Which of the following is the 1's complement of 82. Which of the following is not a 8 bit
10? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] microprocessor
a) 110 a) Static discharge
b) 1 b) Slew rate
c) 11 c) Maximum frequency
d) 10 d) Time constant
75. A transistor may be used as a switching device or 83. What logic function is obtained by adding n
as a inverter to the inputs of an AND gate?
a) Variable resistor a) OR [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
b) Rectifier b) NAND
c) Tuning device c) XOR
d) Fixed resistor d) NOR
76. A flip flop is a _______ circuit 84. Hartley oscillator is [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
a) Electrical a) An inductively coupled oscillator
b) Combinational b) Capacitor coupled oscillator
c) Analog c) Switchable for low frequencies
d) Sequential d) Resistance coupled oscillator
77. Conversion of decimal number (61)10 to its 85. A combinational logic circuit which is used when
binary number equivalent is [EKT 2 2015 CSE] it is desired to send data from two or more sources
a) 1100112 through a single transmission line is known as
b) 110011102 a) Decoder [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
c) 1111012 b) Encoder
d) 111112 c) Demultiplexer
d) Multiplexer
78. An op-amp zero crossing detector is basically
_______ converter [EKT 2 2015 EEE] 86. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is
a) Sine to square wave applied to a NOT gate, its output signal is
b) Square to sine wave a) 01011 [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
c) Sine to sine wave b) 10001
d) Sine to triangular wave c) 10101
d) 00101
79. The voltage across the zener diode is
87. Which type of signal is represented by discrete
a) Constant in both forward and reverse direction
values?
b) Constant in forward direction
a) Digital
c) Constant in reverse direction
b) Analog
d) None of these
c) Nonlinear
80. An RC oscillator uses d) Noisy signal
a) One RC combination
88. What type of gate can be used to add two bits?
b) At least three RC combinations
[EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
c) Two RC combinations
a) EX-NAND
d) None of these
b) EX-NOR
81. A voltage will influence current only if the circuit c) NOR
is _______ [EKT 2 2015 CSE] d) EX-OR
a) Closed
b) Open
38
89. Which of the following is the type of error 95. The full adder CKT adds _______ digit at a time.
associated with DAC? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
a) Offset error a) 2
b) Non-monotonic error b) 3
c) Non-monotonic and offset error c) 1
d) Incorrect output codes d) 4
90. A “U” shaped, opposite-polarity material built 96. The self bias provides
near a JFET-channel center is called the a) Large voltage gain
a) Heat sink b) Stable Q point
b) Drain c) High input impedance
c) Block d) High base current
d) Gate 97. When transistors are used in digital circuits they
91. Which power amplifier can deliver maximum load usually operate in the
power? a) Saturation and cut-off region
a) Class AB b) Breakdown region
b) Class B c) Active region
c) Class A d) Linear region
d) Class C 98. The hexadecimal number 'A0' has the decimal
92. JFET contains how many transistors? value equivalent to
a) 4 a) 160 [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
b) 3 b) 256
c) 1 c) 100
d) 2 d) 80
93. Which of the following is not a basic element 99. For a system to work, as oscillator the total phase
within the microprocessor? shift of the loop gain must be equal to
a) ALU [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] a) 270°
b) Register array b) 90°
c) Microcontroller c) 360°
d) Control unit d) 0°
94. In which of the following, operational amplifiers 100. Subtracting 0101 from 1110 in binary terms, we
are used? get [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
a) Instrumentation circuits a) 1010
b) Filters b) 0110
c) Oscillators c) 1001
d) All of the above d) 1100
39
Answer Key:
1.(c) 11.(d) 21.(a) 31.(a) 41.(d) 51.(a) 61.(c) 71.(a) 81.(a) 91.(d)
2.(a) 12.(a) 22.(d) 32.(a) 42.(c) 52.(a) 62.(b) 72.(c) 82.(b) 92.(d)
3.(b) 13.(c) 23.(c) 33.(b) 43.(d) 53.(c) 63.(c) 73.(b) 83.(d) 93.(c)
4.(a) 14.(a) 24.(d) 34.(c) 44.(a) 54.(d) 64.(a) 74.(b) 84.(a) 94.(c)
5.(d) 15.(d) 25.(a) 35.(d) 45.(a) 55.(b) 65.(d) 75.(a) 85.(d) 95.(b)
6.(c) 16.(c) 26.(d) 36.(d) 46.(a) 56.(b) 66.(c) 76.(d) 86.(a) 96.(b)
7.(c) 17.(b) 27.(c) 37.(c) 47.(d) 57.(c) 67.(a) 77.(c) 87.(a) 97.(a)
8.(b) 18.(c) 28.(a) 38.(a) 48.(d) 58.(d) 68.(a) 78.(a) 88.(b) 98.(a)
9.(c) 19.(d) 29.(c) 39.(d) 49.(d) 59.(c) 69.(c) 79.(c) 89.(c) 99.(c)
10.(d) 20.(a) 30.(a) 40.(a) 50.(a) 60.(a) 70.(b) 80.(b) 90.(d) 100.(c)
Solutions:
2. (a)
18. (c)
1’s complement of 10101011 is 01010100
Then add 1 to the result of 1’s complement, we get
2’s complement: 01010100 + 1 = 01010101
22. (d)
Multiplication of 2 binary numbers A and B =
11011
A = 101 then B = 11011 ÷ 101
Binary equivalent of (45)10 = (10101)2

8. (b)
1’s complement of 11001010 is 00110101
1’s complement of a binary number is obtained by By dividing 11011 by 101, we get remainder 10.
inverting all the bits in the binary representation 45. (a)
of the number. i.e., Swapping 0s and 1s and vice To find the binary equivalent of (21.125)10
versa. Binary equivalent of 21 is
15. (d)
Binary representation of the hexadecimal number
E5 is (11100101)2
To convert binary into decimal
(1×27 ) + (1×26 ) + (1×25 ) + (0×24 )
+(0×23 ) + (1×22 ) + (0×21 ) + (1×20 )
= 128 + 64 + 32 + 0 + 0 + 4 + 0 + 1
= (229)10
40
(21)10 = (10101)2
Binary equivalent of 0.125 is
(0.125×2) = 0.25 → Carry = 0 77. (c)
(0.25×2) = 0.5 → Carry = 0 To convert the decimal number 61 into binary
(0.5×2) = 1 → Carry = 1
(0.125)10 = (001)2
Hence, (21.125)10 = (10101.001)2
63. (c)
(1101)2 - (1010)2 by using 1’s complement
Minuend - 1101
1’s complement of subtrahend - 0101
Adding both we get - 1 0010
Here 1 is the carry; add it to 0010 => 0010 + 1
Thus the result is (0011)2
66. (c) (61)10 = (111101)2
To convert the decimal number 187 into 8-bit
binary 86. (a)
When an input electrical signal A=10100 is applied
to a NOT gate, the NOT gate inverts the value, then
its output signal is 01011
98. (a)
The hexadecimal number 'A0' has the decimal
value equivalent to
Binary number of (A0)16 = 10100000
To convert the binary number 10100000 into
decimal number by
(1×27 ) + (0×26 ) + (1×25 ) + (0×24 )
+(0×23 ) + (0×22 ) + (0×21 ) + (0×20 )
= 128 + 0 + 32 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0
= (160)10
1872 = (10111011)2 100. (c)

68. (a) (1110)2 − (0101)2 = (1001)2
In hexadecimal, the binary value of F is 1111
Therefore, in binary system (𝐹𝐹)16 = 11111111
41
2. COMPUTER NETWORKS
ISO/OSI stack - LAN technologies (Ethernet, Token ring) - Flow and control techniques -
Congestion Control - TCP/UDP and sockets, IP4 - Application layer protocols (ICMP, DNS,
SMTP,POP, FTP, HTTP) - Basic concepts of hubs, switches, gateways, and routers - Network
security - Basic concepts of client-server computing
1. What is called a collection of interconnected a) Bus

networks? b) Ring
a) Internet c) Star
b) Intranet d) Irregular
c) Topology 7. Which layer decides which physical path the data
d) Interface should take?
2. The entities comprising the corresponding layers a) Network
on different machine are called b) Transport
a) Protocol c) Physical
b) Peers d) Data Link
c) Interface 8. Which of the following memories must be
d) Flow control refreshed many times per second?
3. A point-to-point transmission with one sender a) Static RAM [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
and one receiver is sometimes called b) Dynamic RAM
a) Multicasting c) EPROM
b) Unicasting d) ROM
c) Personal area network 9. Memories which can be read only are called
d) LAN memories.
4. Sending packets to a group of stations is known a) RAM
as b) ROM
a) Broadcasting c) PROM
b) Multicasting d) EPROM
c) Unicasting 10. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to
d) Point-to-point another LAN via the device is
5. If a computer on the network shares resources for a) Router [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
others to use, it is called b) Bridge
a) Server c) Repeater
d) Modem
b) Client 11. Ether LAN uses [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
c) Mainframe a) Polar encoding
d) Microcomputer b) Differential manchester encoding
6. Which topology is used for large networks? c) Manchester encoding
42
d) NRZ 19. The time required for fetching and execution of
12. Four bits are used for packed sequence one simple machine instruction is
numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a a) Delay time [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
computer network. What is the maximum window b) CPU cycle
size? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] c) Real time
a) 4 d) Seek time
b) 8 20. Which protocol reduces administrative
c) 15 overhead in a switched network by allowing the
d) 16 configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed to all
13. Which of the following technology can give high the switches in a domain? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
speed? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] a) STP
a) TTL b) VTP
b) CMOS c) DHCP
c) ECL d) ISL
d) NMOS 21. Which of the following statements are true
14. The access method used for magnetic tape is regarding the command ip route
a) Direct 172.16.4.0.255.255.255.0.192.168.4.2?
b) Random a) The command is used to establish a static route.
c) Sequential b) None [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
d) None of the above c) The command is used to configure the default
route.
15. A computer program consists of
d) The subnet mask for the source address is
a) System flowchart [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
255.255.255.0.
b) Program flowchart
c) Algorithms written in computer’s language 22. Process is [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
d) Discrete logical steps a) Contents of main memory
b) A job in secondary memory
16. Which method by passes the CPU for certain
c) A program in execution
types of data transfer? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
d) A program in High level language kept on disk
a) Software interrupts
b) Interrupt-driven I/O 23. Which of the following services use TCP?
c) Polled I/O a) FTP [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
d) Direct memory access (DMA) b) SMTP
c) TFTP
17. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are
d) All
further subdivided into [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
a) Clusters 24. What is a sub network? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
b) Sectors a) A network with more than one exit point.
c) Vectors b) A network with more than one exit and entry
d) Heads point.
c) A network with only one entry and no exit point.
18. Your router has the following IP address on
d) A network that has only one entry and exit time.
Ethernet: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can
be valid host Ids on the LAN interface attached to 25. Which of the following is used to hold ROM,
the router? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] RAM, CPU and expansion cards?
a) 1.172.16.1.100 a) Computer bus [EKT 2 2015 CSE4]
b) 172.16.1.98 b) Motherboard
c) 172.16.2.255 c) Cache memory
d) 172.16.3.0 d) All the above
26. Operating System [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
43
a) links a program with the subroutines it references 33. What is a Firewall in Computer Network?
b) Provides a layered, user-friendly interface a) The physical boundary of Network
c) Enables a programmer to draw a flowchart b) An Operating system of Computer Network
d) None of the above c) A System designed to prevent unauthorized
27. The register which contains the instruction that access
is to be executed is known as d) A web browsing Software
a) Index register [EKT 2 2015 CSE] 34. OSI Reference Model has ______ layers.
b) Instruction register a) 4
c) Memory address register b) 5
d) Memory data register c) 6
28. CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is d) 7
[EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] 35. The abbreviation of DHCP is
a) A method of determining which device has access a) Dynamic Host Control Protocol
to the transmission medium b) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
b) A method access control technique for multiple- c) Dynamic Hyper Control Protocol
access transmission media d) Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol
c) A very common bit-oriented technique for 36. How many bits in IPV4 Address?
multiple-access transmission media a) 8 bit
d) Network access standard for connecting stations b) 16 bit
to a circuit-switched network c) 32 bit
29. What flavour of Network Address Translation d) 64 bit
can be used to have one IP address allow many 37. The meaning of Bandwidth in Network is
users to connect the global internet? a) Transmission capacity of a communication
a) NAT [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] Channels
b) Static b) Connected Computers in the Network
c) Dynamic c) Class of IP used in Network
d) PAT d) None of the above
30. The method for updating the main memory as 38. What is the use of Bridge in Network?
soon as a word is removed from the Cache is a) To connect LANs
a) Write-through [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] b) To separate LANs
b) Write-back c) To control Network Speed
c) Protected write d) All the above
d) Cache-write Computer
39. The router operates in ______ layer of OSI
31. EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it Reference Model
to [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] a) Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
a) Ultraviolet rays b) Layer 3 (Network Layer)
b) Infrared rays c) Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
c) Burst of microwaves d) Layer 7 (Application Layer)
d) Intense heat radiations
40. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable?
32. What is a Computer Network? a) A packet may be lost
a) Collection of hardware components and b) Packets may arrive out of order
computer c) Duplicate packets may be generated
b) Interconnected by communication channels d) All of the above
c) Sharing of resources and information
41. The minimum header size of an IP packet is
d) All of the above
a) 16 bytes
44
b) 10 bytes a) Physical layer
c) 20 bytes b) Data link layer
d) 32 bytes c) Network layer
42. Which of following provides reliable d) Transport layer
communication? 50. The benefit of Networking is
a) TCP a) File Sharing
b) IP0 b) Easier access to Resources
c) UDP c) Easier Backups
d) All of the above d) All of the above
43. The address size of IPv6 is [EKT 2 2015 CSE] 51. _____ is not the Networking Devices.
a) 32 bit a) Gateways
b) 64 bit b) Linux
c) 128 bit c) Routers
d) 256 bit d) Firewalls
44. The function of CPU is [EKT 2 2015 CSE] 52. The size of MAC Address is
a) To provide a hard copy a) 16-bits
b) To read, interpret and process the information b) 32-bits
and instruction
c) 48-bits
c) To communicate with the operator
d) To provide external storage of text d) 64-bits
53. Which of the following can be Software?
45. What does Router do in a network?
a) Forwards a packet to all outgoing links a) Routers
b) Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link b) Firewalls
c) Determines on which outing link a packet is to be c) Gateway
forwarded d) Modems
d) Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the 54. The use of Ping command is
originated link
a) To test a device on the network is reachable
46. An example of the Internet is
b) To test a hard disk fault
a) Cell switched network
b) Circuit switched network c) To test a bug in a Application
c) Packet switched network d) To test a Pinter Quality
d) All of the above 55. Layer-2 Switch is also called
47. The protocol defines a) Multiport Hub
a) What data is communicated? b) Multiport Switch
b) How data is communicated? c) Multiport Bridge
c) When data is communicated? d) Multiport NIC
d) All of above
56. What is the difference between T568A and
48. The use of subnetting is T568B?
a) It divides one large network into several smaller
a) Difference in wire colour
ones
b) It divides network into network classes b) Difference in number of wires
c) It speeds up the speed of network c) Just different length of wires
d) None of above d) Just different manufacturer standards
49. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI 57. The example of MAC Address is
model? a) Transport Layer
45
b) Data Link Layer 65. Which layer is not network support layer?
c) Application Layer a) Transport Layer
d) Physical Layer b) Network Layer
c) Data Link Layer
58. What is Straight-through Cable?
d) Physical Layer
a) Four wire pairs connect to the same pin on each
end 66. The management of data flow between
computers or devices or between nodes in a
b) The cable which directly connects computer to
network is called
computer
a) Flow control
c) Four wire pairs not twisted with each other b) Data control
d) The cable which is not twisted c) Data Management
59. Which of the following languages is more suited d) Flow Management
to a structured program? [EKT 2 2015 CSE] 67. DHCP Server provides _____ to the client.
a) PL/1 a) Protocol
b) FORTRAN b) IP Address
c) BASIC c) MAC Address
d) Network Address
d) PASCAL
68. The data link protocol is
60. ________ interfaces between network medium
a) Ethernet
and devices.
b) point to point protocol
a) Data Link Layer
c) HDLC
b) The Physical Layer
d) all the above
c) Transport Layer
d) Network Layer 69. ______ is the duration of time it takes to send a
message from one end of a network to the other.
61. The ring network is
a) Round Trip Time (RRT)
a) ADI
b) Full Duplex Time (FDT)
b) ADDI
c) Circle Trip Time (CTT)
c) FDI
d) Data Travelling Time (DTT)
d) FDDI
70. A set of rules that govern all aspects of
62. _____ is not the possible ways of data exchange.
information communication is called _______
a) Simplex
a) Server
b) Multiplex
b) Internet
c) Half-duplex
c) Protocol
d) Full-duplex
d) OSI Model
63. The controlling access to a network by analyzing
71. Network of networks is known as
the incoming and outgoing packets is called
a) Intranet
a) IP Filtering
b) Internet
b) Data Filtering
c) Local Area Network
c) Packet Filtering
d) WAN
d) Firewall Filtering
72. The full form of RAID is
64. Which is the computer memory that does not
a) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
forget? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
b) Redundant Array of Important Disks
a) ROM
c) Random Access of Independent Disks
b) RAM
d) Random Access of Important Disks
c) NVRAM
d) All of the above 73. What is a stub network? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
46
a) A network with more than one exit point b) Frame
b) A network with more than one exit and entry c) Block
point d) Group
c) A network with only one entry and no exit point 82. The reliable communication is
d) A network that has only one entry and exit point. a) TCP
74. The Demilitarized Zone is b) IP
a) The area between firewall & connection to an c) UPD
external network d) All of them
b) The area between ISP to Military area 83. The size of Source and Destination IP address in
c) The area surrounded by secured servers IP header is
d) The area surrounded by the Military a) 4 bits
75. _____ is not the External Security Threats. b) 8 bits
a) Front-door Threats c) 16 bits
b) Back-door Threats d) 32 bits
c) Underground Threats 84. The natural mask for a class C Network?
d) Denial of Service (DoS) a) 255.255.255.1
76. Broadcasting in networking means b) 255.255.255.0
a) Addressing a packet to all machine c) 255.255.255.254
b) Addressing a packet to some machine d) 255.255.255.255
c) Addressing a packet to a particular machine 85. The purpose of the PSH flag in the TCP header is
d) Addressing a packet to except a particular a) Typically used to indicate end of message
machine b) Typically used to indicate beginning of message
77. What are the two main types of Access Control c) Typically used to push the message
Lists (ACLs)? [EKT 2 2015 CSE] d) Typically used to indicate stop the message
a) Extended and IEEE 86. The typical range of Ephemeral ports are
b) IEEE and Standard a) 1 to 80
c) Standard and Extended b) 1 to 1024
d) Specialized and Standard c) 80 to 8080
78. Which protocol defined in Transport Layer? d) 1024 to 65535
a) FTP 87. The class-based addressing is also known as
b) TCP a) Modern Model
c) UDP b) Classful Model
d) Both (b) and (c) c) Classless Model
79. The Protocols of Application is d) Heterogeneous Model
a) FTP 88. Which is the correct one in VLSM?
b) DNS a) Can have subnets of different sizes
c) Telnet b) Subnets must be in same size
d) All of above c) No required of subnet
80. The data is mirrored between two disks is d) All of above
a) RAID 0 89. The IP Address range of APIPA is
b) RAID 1 a) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.254
c) RAID 2 b) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.255
d) RAID 3 c) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
81. A single packet on a data link is known as d) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.255
a) Path [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
47
90. What does the port number in a TCP connection a) Control unit and registers
specify? b) Registers and main memory
a) It specifies the communication process on the c) Control unit and ALU
two end systems d) ALU and bus
b) It specifies the quality of the data & connection 97. ASCII stands for [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
c) It specify the size of data a) American Standard Code for Information
d) All of the above Interchange
91. Each area has a _______ agent which keeps b) All purpose Scientific Code for Information
track of all mobile hosts visiting the area. Interchange
a) Mobile c) American Security Code for Information
b) Home Interchange
c) Visitor d) American Scientific Code for Information
d) Foreign Interchange
92. Ad-hoc networks are also called as 98. What is the name of the technique in which the
a) MAN operating system of a computer executes several
b) MANET programs concurrently by switching back and forth
c) LAN between them? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
d) LANET a) Partitioning
93. Starting around 1988, the more advanced b) Multitasking
_______ twisted pairs were introduced c) Windowing
a) Category 3 d) Paging
b) Category 5 99. A program that converts computer data into
c) Category 8 some code system other than the normal one is
d) Category 10 known as [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
94. ISO stands for a) Encoder
a) International Standard Organization b) Simulation
b) International Student Organization c) Emulator
c) Integrated Services Organization d) Coding
d) Integrated Standard Organization 100. GIF stands for
95. The example of packet switched network is a) Group Interchange Format
a) X25 b) Graphical Interchange Format
b) X23 c) Group Information Format
c) X11 d) Graphical Information Format
d) X6
96. Which of the following are the two main
components of the CPU? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
48
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (b) 41. (c) 51. (b) 61. (d) 71. (b) 81. (b) 91. (b)
2. (b) 12. (c) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (a) 52. (b) 62. (b) 72. (a) 82. (a) 92. (b)
3. (b) 13. (d) 23. (d) 33. (c) 43. (a) 53. (b) 63. (c) 73. (d) 83. (d) 93. (b)
4. (b) 14. (c) 24. (d) 34. (d) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (a) 74. (a) 84. (b) 94. (a)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (c) 65. (a) 75. (c) 85. (a) 95. (a)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (c) 36. (c) 46. (a) 56. (d) 66. (a) 76. (a) 86. (d) 96. (c)
7. (c) 17. (b) 27. (c) 37. (a) 47. (d) 57. (b) 67. (b) 77. (c) 87. (b) 97. (a)
8. (b) 18. (c) 28. (b) 38. (a) 48. (a) 58. (a) 68. (a) 78. (d) 88. (a) 98. (c)
9. (c) 19. (b) 29. (d) 39. (a) 49. (a) 59. (d) 69. (a) 79. (d) 89. (c) 99. (a)
10. (b) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (d) 50. (b) 60. (d) 70. (c) 80. (b) 90. (a) 100. (a)
49
3. NETWORK THEORY DESIGN
Network Theorems: Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Reciprocity, Superposition, Compensation,

Miller’s, Tellegen’s and Maximum power transfer theorems - Impulse, step, ramp and
sinusoidal response analysis of first order and second order circuits - Two port parameters
and their interrelations - Application of Laplace transform and Fourier series in the context
of network analysis - Network synthesis

1. Superposition theorem can be applied only to d) Voltage sources
circuits having 7. In Thevenin’s equivalent circuit, the Thevenin
a) Resistive elements voltage (𝑉𝑇ℎ ) is
b) Linear bilateral elements a) Open circuit terminal voltage
c) Passive elements b) Short circuit terminal voltage
d) Non-linear elements c) Total voltage available in the circuit
2. To neglect a voltage source, the terminals across d) EMF of the battery nearest to the terminal
the source are 8. Nodal analysis is based on
a) Short circuited a) Law of conservation of energy
b) Open circuited b) KCL
c) Replaced by some resistances c) KVL
d) Replaced by an inductor d) Both KCL and KVL
3. A differentiation circuit has a 9. The energy stored will be least in
a) Infinite time constant [EKT 1 2015 EEE] a) Coil [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
b) Very high time constant b) Resistor
c) Very low time constant c) Capacitor
d) Zero time constant d) Same energy will be stored in all
4. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields 10. The first and last critical frequency of an RC
a) Equivalent current source and impedance in driving point impedance function must respectively
parallel be
b) Equivalent current source and impedance in series a) A zero and a zero
c) Equivalent current source b) A zero and a pole
d) Equivalent impedance c) A pole and a zero
5. Which of the following theorem is not applicable d) A pole and a pole
for both linear and non-linear circuits? 11. Norton’s theorem states that a complex network
a) Superposition theorem connected to a load can be replaced with equivalent
b) Thevenin’s theorem impedance
c) Norton’s theorem a) In series with a current source
d) None of these b) In parallel with a voltage source
6. In steady state condition, capacitor acts as a c) In parallel with a current source
a) Current sources d) In series with a voltage source
b) Short circuit 12. Superposition theorem is based on the concept
c) Open circuit of
50
a) Duality 20. How does the ‘𝜎’ of complex frequency variable
b) Linearity appear in time domain?
c) Reciprocity a) As a linear power
d) Non-linearity b) As an exponential power
13. When the power transferred to the load is c) As an iterative power
maximum, the efficiency of the power transfer is d) As a reactive power
a) 50% 21. In series R, L circuit power factor can be defined
b) 100% as
c) 75% a) R/Z
d) 25% b) P/S
14. Thevenin’s theorem is applied to networks with c) 𝑉𝑟 /𝑉
a) DC source only [EKT 2 2015 EEE] d) All of the above
b) AC source only 22. A DC voltage source is connected across a series
c) Both AC and DC source RLC circuit. Under steady state conditions, the
d) None of these applied DC voltage drops entirely across the
15. For steady state current, inductor acts as a) L only
a) Voltage sources b) R only
b) Open circuit c) C only
c) Short circuit d) R and L combination
d) Current sources 23. Which of the following is a bilateral element?
16. Two 2-port networks are connected in cascade. a) Capacitance
The combination is to be represented as a single 2- b) Constant voltage source
port network, by multiplying the individual c) Constant current source
a) Y parameter matrices d) None of these
b) Z parameter matrices 24. If admittance 𝑌(𝑆) has a term Ks, the realization
c) ABCD parameter matrices would give
d) h parameter matrices a) A conductance of value K
17. Thevenin resistance 𝑅𝑇ℎ is found b) A resistance of value K
a) Between same open terminals as for 𝐸𝑇ℎ c) An inductance of value K
b) By short circuiting the given two terminals d) Either (a) or (c)
c) Between any two open terminals 25. For attenuation of high frequencies we should
d) By removing voltage sources along with their use [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
internal resistances. a) Shunt capacitance
18. Which among the following is true at the b) Series capacitance
resonance? c) Inductance
a) 𝑋𝐿 > 𝑋𝐶 d) Resistance
b) 𝑋𝐿 < 𝑋𝐶 26. In active filters, inductances are divided because
c) 𝑋𝐿 = 𝑋𝐶 they
d) None of these a) Saturate quickly
19. Which of the following is/are called dynamic b) Are always associated with same resistance
element(s)? c) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturization
a) L and C d) Are non-linear
b) R and L
27. By which of the following elements transients will
c) R
not occur?
d) L
a) R
51
b) L 35. Transmission parameter is otherwise known as
c) C a) Z parameter
d) All of the above b) Y parameter
28. An RL admittance function can also be realized as c) ABCD parameter
a) LC impedance function d) h parameter
b) LC admittance function 36. If a resistor and an inductor are connected in
c) RC admittance function series across a voltage source. Which two parameters
d) RC impedance function in that circuit increase if frequency of voltage source
29. A terminal where three or more branches meet is increases?
known as a) Z and I
a) Anode b) 𝑉𝐿 and 𝑉𝑅
b) Terminus c) 𝑉𝐿 and Z
c) Node d) 𝑉𝐿 and I
d) Combination 37. Which of the following is the non-linear circuit
30. Permeability is analogous to parameter?
a) Resistivity a) Wire wound resistor
b) Conductivity b) Condenser
c) Retentivity c) Inductance
d) Coercivity d) Transistor
31. For occurrence of resonance, which of the 38. Under resonance condition, the phase angle
elements are required? between voltage phase and current phase is
a) L and C a) 90°
b) R and C b) 0°
c) L c) -90°
d) C d) 45°
𝐾
32. “Maximum power output is obtained from a 39. The realization of a term 0 in the impedance
𝑠
network when the load resistance is equal to the function will give
output resistance of the network as seen from the a) Even to even polynomials
terminals of the load”. The above statement is b) Even to odd or odd to even polynomials
associated with c) An inductance of value 𝐾0 in series
a) Norton’s theorem d) An inductance of value 1/𝐾0 in series
b) Thevenin’s theorem 40. KVL works on the principle of
c) Maximum power transfer theorem a) Law of conservation of energy
d) Superposition theorem b) Law of conservation of charge
33. In a purely inductive, the current ______the c) Both
voltage by ______ d) None of these
a) Lags, 45° 41. Double integration of a unit step function leads to
b) Leads, 90° a) A parabola
c) Lags, 40° b) An impulse
d) Lags, 0° c) A ramp
34. Resistor stores the energy in the form of d) A doublet
a) Electric field 42. Poles and zeroes are arranged alternatively on
b) Magnetic field imaginary axis, and then type of network is?
c) Both (a) and (b) a) RC network
d) None of these b) RL network
52
c) LC network c) Linear and bilateral component
d) RLC network d) Linear and bilateral component
43. A step voltage E is applied to an RL circuit. The 51. A capacitor used for power factor correction, its
rate of change of current is maximum at 𝑡 = single phase circuit decreases
a) Infinity a) Line current
b) Zero b) Power factor
c) L/R c) The line current and increases power factor
d) R/L d) Both line current and power factor
44. Which of the following is the passive element? 52. Which of the following cannot be connected in
a) Ideal voltage source series unless they are identical?
b) Ideal current source a) Current source
c) Capacitance b) Voltage source
d) None of these c) Both of above
45. In a practical voltage source, the terminal voltage d) Resistance
a) Is always equal to source voltage
53. KCL works on the principle of
b) Is always less than source voltage
a) Law of conservation of energy
c) Cannot be less than source voltage
b) Law of conservation of charge
d) Cannot be higher than source voltage
c) Both
46. Transients are present in the circuit, when the d) None of these
circuit is having
54. Thevenin’s impedance of an ac networks in
a) L
general
b) C
a) Resistance
c) Both L and C
b) R and L in series
d) Either L or C
c) R and C in series
47. A step voltage E is applied to an RL series circuit. d) Either R and L or R and C in series
At 𝑡 = 0, the current in the circuit is
55. For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal
a) Zero
resistance of the source should be
b) Infinity
a) Less than the load resistance
c) E/L
b) More than the load resistance
d) E/R
c) Equal to the load resistance
48. While calculating 𝑅𝑇ℎ in Thevenin’s theorem and d) None of the above
Norton equivalent
56. Which of the following is correct for a driving
a) Only current sources are made dead
point functions?
b) Only voltage sources are made dead
a) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be
c) All independent sources are made dead
negative
d) All voltage and current sources are made dead
b) The real parts of all poles must be negative
49. Poles and zeroes of a driving point function of a c) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be
network are simple and alternate on 𝑗𝜔 axis. The negative or zero
network consists of d) The real parts of all zeroes must be negative
a) L and C
57. Active filter consists of
b) R and C
a) Op-amp
c) R and L
b) Inductor
d) R, L and C
c) Capacitor
50. A capacitor is generally d) Op-amp and capacitor
a) Bilateral and active component
b) Non-linear and active component
53
58. To apply reciprocity theorem response to 65. A dependent source
excitation ratio is a) May be a current source or a voltage source
a) Mho b) Is always a voltage source
b) Ohm c) Is always a current source
c) Either Ohm or Mho d) None of these
d) No units 66. Advantage of active filter is
59. When a network function is expressed as a ratio a) Do not offer gain
of Laplace transforms of output to input variables of b) Easy to tune
a system, it is regarded as c) Both of the above
a) System function d) Derive high impedance load
b) Transfer function 67. If all the elements in a particular network are
c) Both (a) and (b) linear, then the superposition theorem would hold,
d) None of these when the excitation is
60. If doubling the voltage across a resistor doubles a) AC
the current through the resistor then b) DC
a) The resistor value decreased [EKT 2 2015 CSE] c) Either DC or AC
b) The resistor value did not change d) An impulse
c) The resistor value increased 68. What does the connectivity of energy source at
d) It is impossible to determine the change in the the port of network known as?
resistor value a) Transfer point
61. If impedance 𝑍𝐿 is connected across a voltage b) Driving point
source V with source impedance 𝑍𝑆 , then for c) Both (a) and (b)
maximum power transfer, the load impedance must d) None of these
be equal to 69. Link in network theory refers to
a) Source impedance 𝑍𝑆 a) 𝐵 − 𝑁 + 1
b) Real part of𝑍𝑆 b) 𝑁 − 1
c) Complex conjugate of 𝑍𝑆 c) 𝐵 − 𝑁 + 1
d) Imaginary part of 𝑍𝑆 d) 𝑁 − 𝐵 − 1
62. The superposition theorem requires as many 70. For maximum transfer of power, internal
circuits to be solved as there are resistance of the source should be
a) Nodes a) Less than the load resistance
b) Sources and nodes b) Greater than the load resistance
c) Sources c) Zero
d) Sources, nodes and meshes d) Equal to the load resistance
63. Transfer admittance function is the ratio of 71. In an electrical network, to neglect a current
Laplace transforms of ______ source, the current source is
a) Current at one port to current at other port a) Open circuited
b) Current at one port to voltage at other port b) Short circuited
c) Voltage at one port to voltage at other port c) Replaced by a capacitor
d) Voltage at one port to current at other port d) Replaced by an inductor
64. Reciprocity condition for h-parameter is 72. Whenever current is supplied by a source, its
a) ℎ12 = ℎ21 terminal voltage
b) ℎ12 = −ℎ22 a) Remains constant
c) ℎ12 = −ℎ21 b) Increases
d) ℎ11 ℎ22 − ℎ12 ℎ21 = 0 c) Decreases
d) Increases exponentially
54
73. Pick out the incorrect statement b) Planar network
a) Inductor is a passive element c) Non-planar network
b) Current source is an active element d) Neither planar nor non-planar network
c) Resistor is a passive element 82. h parameters of a transistor
d) Voltage source is a passive element a) Are constant [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
74. The circuit whose properties are same in either b) Vary with temperature
direction is known as c) Are dependent upon collector current
a) Bilateral circuit d) None of these
b) Unilateral circuit 83. The phase angle difference between current and
c) Reversible circuit voltage is 90°, the power will be
d) Irreversible circuit a) Maximum
75. A branch of a network is said to be active, when b) Minimum
it consists of one c) Zero
a) Voltage source d) VI
b) Resistor
84. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and
c) Capacitor
semiconductor diodes. The circuit will be known as
d) Inductor
a) Linear circuit
76. In case of ideal current sources, they have b) Non-linear circuit
a) Zero internal resistance c) Bilateral circuit
b) Large value of voltage d) None of the above
c) Large value of current
85. Kirchoff’s laws are valid for
d) Infinite internal resistance
a) Non-linear circuits only
77. A pole of driving point impedance is b) Passive time invariant circuits
a) Zero voltage for a finite value of driving voltage c) Linear circuit only
b) Zero current for a finite value of driving current d) Both linear and non-linear circuits
c) Zero current for a finite value of driving voltage
86. Which law plays a significant role in the loop
d) Zero voltage for a finite value of driving current
analysis of the network?
78. Kirchoff’s current law is applicable to only a) KVL
a) Junctions in a network b) KCL
b) Closed loop networks c) Law of superposition theorem
c) Electronic circuits d) None of these
d) Electric circuits
87. In two-port network 𝑍12 = 𝑍21 indicates which
property
79. In active filter, which element is absent? a) Linear
a) Inductor b) Unilateral
b) Capacitor c) Bilateral
c) Resistor d) Non-linear
d) All of the above 88. In a parallel RC circuit, the supply current always
80. Admittance is the reciprocal of ______ the applied voltage.
a) Impedance a) Out of phase with
b) Susceptance b) Remains in phase with
c) Reactance c) Leads
d) Conductance d) Lags
81. Nodal analysis can be applied for 89. Discrete values represent which type of signal
a) Both planar and non-planar network a) Continuous
55
b) Analog 95. Mesh analysis is applicable for
c) Digital a) Either Planar or non-planar networks
d) Decimal b) Both planar and non-planar networks
90. Superposition theorem is not applicable for c) Non-planar networks
a) Current calculations d) Planar networks
b) Power calculations 96. Linear circuit element is
c) Voltage calculations a) Capacitor
d) None of these b) Inductor
91. Which among the following is not a bilateral c) Resistor
element? d) All of these
a) Diode 97. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a
b) Resistor dielectric having [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
c) Capacitor a) High permittivity
d) Inductor b) Low permittivity
92. The unit of magnetic susceptibility is c) Very low permittivity
a) Wb-m^2 [EKT 2 2015 EEE] d) Same permittivity as that of air
b) Wb A-m
c) Wb/A-m 98. A branch of a network is said to be passive
d) Wb/m^2 a) Voltage source
b) Voltmeter
93. A non-linear network does not satisfy
c) Current source
a) Both homogeneity as well as superposition
d) Battery
condition
b) Superposition condition 99. In a series resonance circuit, impedance is
c) Homogeneity condition a) Zero
d) Homogeneity, superposition and associative b) Maximum
condition c) Minimum
d) None of these
94. In a pure inductive circuit, if the supply frequency
is reduced to half, the current will be 100. A network which contains one or more than one
a) Reduced by half source of emf is known as
b) Doubled a) Linear network
c) Four times high b) Active network
d) Reduced to one-fourth c) Multisource network
d)Non-linear network
56
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (a) 71. (a) 81. (a) 91. (a)
2. (a) 12. (b) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (c) 52. (a) 62. (c) 72. (c) 82. (c) 92. (c)
3. (c) 13. (a) 23. (a) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (b) 63. (b) 73. (b) 83. (c) 93. (a)
4. (a) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (a) 84. (b) 94. (b)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (b) 35. (c) 45. (d) 55. (a) 65. (a) 75. (a) 85. (c) 95. (d)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c) 36. (c) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (b) 76. (d) 86. (a) 96. (c)
7. (a) 17. (a) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (d) 67. (c) 77. (c) 87. (c) 97. (a)
8. (b) 18. (b) 28. (d) 38. (b) 48. (c) 58. (c) 68. (b) 78. (a) 88. (d) 98. (b)
9. (b) 19. (a) 29. (c) 39. (a) 49. (a) 59. (c) 69. (c) 79. (a) 89. (c) 99. (c)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (a) 50. (c) 60. (b) 70. (d) 80. (a) 90. (b) 100.(c)
57
4. SWITCHING THEORY
Traffic definitions – Introduction to switching networks – Classification of switching systems
– Grade of Service and blocking probability – Basics of Circuit switching and Packet switching
– Network traffic load and parameters – Modeling of switching systems – Blocking models
and loss estimates – Delay systems-Markovian queuing model – M/M/I model – Multiple
server-Finite sources.
1. Packet-switched networks can also be divided 6. In a ________ network, two types of addressing
into ______ subcategories virtual-circuit networks are involved: global and local.
and datagram networks. a) Datagram
a) Five b) Virtual-circuit
c) Circuit-switched
b) Three
c) Two
7. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200,
d) Four the number of crosspoints is ______.
2. In _______, each packet is treated independently a) 40,000
of all others. b) Less than 40,000
a) Circuit switching c) Greater than 40,000
d) Greater than 100,000
b) Datagram switching
8. A ________ network is made of a set of switches
c) Frame switching
connected by physical links, in which each link is
d) None of the above divided into n channels.
3. A queue is a ______? a) Circuit-switched
a) FIFO (First In First Out) list b) Line-switched
b) LIFO (Last In First Out) list. c) Frame-switched
c) Ordered array d) None of the above
d) Linear tree 9. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs,
4. In _______, resources are allocated on demand. we have ______ microswitches at each stage.
a) Circuit switching a) 2
b) Datagram switching b) 3
c) Frame switching c) 4
d) None of the above d) 8
5. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are 10. In _______, there is no resource allocation for a
separated from one another spatially. packet.
a) Time-division a) Circuit switching
b) Two-dimensional b) Datagram switching
c) Space-division c) Frame switching
d) Three-dimensional d) None of the above
58
11. A _______ network is a cross between a circuit- a) Six
switched network and a datagram network. It has b) Five
some characteristics of both. c) Four
a) Packet-switched d) Three
b) Frame-switched 19. The network layer in the Internet is designed as
c) Virtual-circuit a ________ network.
d) None of the above a) Circuit-switched
12. The most popular technology in time-division b) Datagram
switching is called the ________. c) Virtual-circuit
a) TSI d) None of the above
b) STI 20. A ________ switch combines space-division and
c) ITS time-division technologies to take advantage of the
d) None of the above best of both.
13. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a a) SSS
_______ network. b) TST
a) Virtual-circuit c) TTT
b) Datagram d) None of the above
c) Circuit-switched 21. In _______, the resources need to be reserved
d) None of the above during the setup phase; the resources remain
14. We can say that a packet switch has _______ dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer
types of components. phase until the teardown phase.
a) Four a) Frame switching
b) Three b) Datagram switching
c) Two c) Circuit switching
d) None of the above d) None of the above
15. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, 22. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n
the number of crosspoints is _______. must be equal to or greater than _______.
a) 20,000 a) 40
b) 40,000 b) 30
c) 30,000 c) 20
d) 10,000 d) 10
16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, 23. Circuit switching takes place at the _______
we have ______ stages. layer.
a) 2 a) Physical
b) 3 b) Data line
c) 4 c) Network
d) 8 d) Transport
17. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing 24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches
table that is based on the ______ address. in several (normally three) stages.
a) Destination a) Multiple path
b) Source b) Multiple crossbar
c) Local c) Multistage
d) None of the above d) None of the above
18. Traditionally, _______ methods of switching 25. In _______ there are no setup or teardown
have been important. phases.
59
a) Circuit switching 32. For a non-blocking cross bar configuration,
b) Datagram switching taking N as the number of subscribers, there will be
c) Frame switching ______ number of cross points and _______
d) None of the above number of switches for establishing connections
26. We can divide today's networks into ______ when all the subscribers are engaged.
broad categories. a) N/2, N2
a) Five b) N2, N/2
b) Four c) 2N, N2
c) Three d) N/2, N3
d) Two 33. Echo suppressor is detrimental to full duplex
27. A _______ switch is a multistage switch with operation because
microswitches at each stage that route the packets a) It disables one of the two pairs in a four-wire
based on the output port represented as a binary trunk line when a signal is detected on the other
string. pair
a) TSI b) It enables one of the two pairs in a four-wire
b) Banyan trunk line when a signal is detected on the other
c) Crossbar pair
d) None of the above c) It activates both the pairs of a four-wire trunk line
d) It is independent of line conditions.
28. The _______ address in the header of a packet
in a datagram network normally remains the same 34. Telephone companies normally provide a
during the entire journey of the packet. voltage of __________to power telephones.
a) Destination a) +24 volts DC
b) Source b) -24 volts DC
c) Local c) +48 volts DC
d) None of the above d) -48 volts DC
29. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the 35. The situation when both transmitter and
minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or receiver have to work in tandem is referred to as
equal to _______. a) Parallel
a) 42,000 b) Serial
b) 20,000 c) Synchronous
c) 18,000 d) Asynchronous
d) 15,200 36. Common channel signalling ________
30. The simplest type of switching fabric is the a) Uses the speech or data path for signalling.
______ switch b) Does not use the speech or data path for
a) Crossbar signalling.
b) Crosspoint c) Needs no additional transmission facilities.
c) TSI d) Finds it difficult to handle signalling during
D) STS speech.
31. The number of point to point links required in a 37. A large numbers of computers in a wide
fully connected network for 50 entities is geographical area can be efficiently connected
a) 1250 using
b) 1225 a) Twisted pair lines
c) 2500 b) Coaxial cables
d) 50 c) Communication satellites
d) All of the above
60
38. Which transmission mode is used for data d) Header
communication along telephone lines? 46. Routing processor searches routing table is
a) Parallel called
b) Serial a) Switch fabric
c) Synchronous b) Buffer
d) Asynchronous c) Table lookup
39. A sample rate of _______ is required for a good d) Rolling table
quality representation of telephone conversation. 47. A Virtual-Circuit Network (VCN) is normally
a) 4500 times per second. implemented in the
b) 700 integer sample points per minute. a) Session layer
c) 50 times per second per mile of distance b) Data link layer
travelled. c) Network layer
d) 8000 times per second. d) Physical layer
40. The ______ is a circuit-switched network, while 48. Which frame completes entries in switching
the ______ is a packet-switched network. tables?
a) Telephone, ATM a) Acknowledgment frame
b) SONET and FDDI b) Setup frame
c) Satellite, Telephone c) Routing frame
d) FDDI and SONET d) None
41. A Master group consists of 49. Which of the following is not one of the
a) 12 voice channels. assumptions of an M/M/1 model?
b) 24 voice channels a) Arrivals are independent of preceding arrivals
c) 60 voice channels. but the arrival rate does not change over time.
d) 300 voice channels b) Arrivals are served on a last-in, first-served basis
42. Direct inward dialing is used as a feature in c) Service times follow the negative exponential
a) PSTN. probability distribution
b) PBX. d) Arrivals follow the Poisson distribution and come
c) EPABX. from an infinite population
d) VPN. 50. Actual communication in a circuit-switched
43. Switching in Internets done by using datagram network requires
approach to packet switching at the a) One phase
a) Network layer b) Two phases
b) Application layer c) Three phases
c) Data link layer d) Four phases
d) Physical layer 51. In a packet-switched network, resources are
44. A Circuit-Switched Network is made of a set of allocated
switches connected by physical a) Randomly
a) Links b) On demand
b) Media c) Reserved already
c) Nodes d) Both a and c
d) Frames 52. Datagram switching is done at the
45. A switch in a datagram network uses a a) Network layer
a) Destination address b) Physical layer
b) Sender address c) Session layer
c) Routing table d) Data link layer
61
53. Setup, data transfer, and connection teardown a) Other connections
are three phases of b) Same connections
a) Circuit switching c) Other switches
b) Packet switching d) Other networks
c) Message switching 61. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network is
d) None an example of
54. Only one packet for each destination is allowed a) Packet switching network
at each tick; if there is more than one, they wait for b) Datagram Networks
next tick in c) Virtual circuit network
a) Banyan switch d) Message switched network
b) Batcher-banyan switch 62. Term that refers to switch does not keep
c) Crossbar switch information about connection state is
c) Time-space-time switch a) Connection setup
55. A switch that connects n inputs to m outputs in b) Connectionless
a grid, using electronic micro switches at each cross c) Switchless
point is called d) Teardown
a) Crossbar 63. The utilization factor for a system represents
b) Multipoint a) The steady state average waiting time
c) Multistage b) The probability that no one is in the system
d) Onstage c) The probability that the service facility is being
56. Circuit switching takes place at the used
a) Session layer d) The average number of customers in the queue
b) Application layer 64. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) inside a
c) Data link layer switch used in
d) Physical layer a) Space division switch
57. In Circuit Switching, resources need to be b) Crossbar switch
reserved during the c) Packet switch
a) Data transfer phase d) Time division switch
b) Teardown phase 65. Network where there is no resource reservation
c) Setup phase is called
d) Propagation phase a) Circuit-Switched Networks
58. Circuit Switched Networks are used in b) Message-switched networks
a) Cellular network c) Packet-switched networks
b) Satellite network d) Satellite network
c) Cable network 66. Identifier that is actually used for data transfer
d) Telephone network is called the
59. Term that performs physical and data link a) Virtual-circuit identifier
functions of packet switch is called b) Global address
a) Input port c) Local address
b) Output port d) Header
c) Routing processor 67. The bandwidth requirement of a telephone
d) Switching fabric channel is [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
60. Circuit-Switched Networks are not as efficient a) 3 KHz
as other two types of networks because resources b) 5 KHz
are unavailable to c) 10 KHz
62
d) 15 KHz c) Exchange Hardware
68. Busy hour traffic is the d) Signaling Purpose
a) Maximum average simultaneous traffic. 77. Trunks are the lines that run between
b) Traffic during peak hour. a) Subscribers and exchange
c) Traffic when all subscribers are engaged. b) Switching system and power plant
d) The duration of maximum calls. c) Local Area Network
69. The final selector is connected to the d) Switching systems
a) Calling subscriber 78. Example of circuit switching and S&F (Stored
b) Switching network. and Forward) switching is
c) Called subscriber a) Telephone and Post of Telegraph
d) Line finder. b) Video Signal Post or Telegraph
70. SPC stands c) Digital Signal Post or Telegraph
a) Standard Protocol Control d) None of above
b) Stored Program Control 79. Network Layer is used for
c) Signaling and switching Centre a) Breaking up the data in frames for transmission
d) Signaling Process Center b) Deal with Error correction
71. MAC address helps in c) Automatic Recovery of Procedure
a) Multimedia access control. d) Physical Architecture
b) Media access control. 80. Call request signal is:
c) Mobile access control. a) Seize signal
d) Master access point control b) Idle state signal
72. Distortion caused on telephone line by an c) Line identification signal
adjacent one is called d) Called subscriber alert signal
a) Cross Fire 81. Telephone Traffic is measured in
b) Inductive Disturbance a) Seconds
c) Cross Talk b) Hours
d) None of these c) Erlang
73. Erlang is used to d) Pulses per minute
a) Measure busy period 82. In step by step switching line finders are
b) Give total busy period in minutes connected to the
c) Measure average call rate a) Calling subscriber
d) Indicate total call period b) Switching network.
74. The grade of service is measured in c) Called subscriber
a) Percentage d) Between exchanges.
b) Number 83. MAC is the abbreviation for:
c) Fractional Number a) Multimedia access control
d) Logarithmic Number b) Media access control
75. Network with point-to-point link is known as c) Mobile access control
a) Fully Connected Network d) Master access point control
b) Half Connected Network 84. The function of ARQ in a network protocol is to:
c) Duplex Connected Network a) Auto request
d) None of these b) Acknowledge
76. SPC is used for c) Address request
a) Carrying Exchange Control Functions d) Abort
b) Carrying Subscriber Control Functions 85. Engaged tone is generated in the:
63
a) Telephone instrument of calling subscriber d) Node switching, packet switching, and message
b) Telephone instrument of called subscriber switching
c) Exchange 93. A circuit-switched network is made of switches
d) Repeater connected by physical links, in which each link is
86. In a single stage network: divided into
a) There is no redundancy a) n channels
b) There is redundancy b) n+1 channels
c) Alternative cross points are available c) 2n channels
d) Alternative paths are available d) n-1 channels
87. ARQ is transmitted in the event of: 94. A switched network consists of a series of
a) Loss of signal interlinked nodes is called
b) Error in received data a) Frames
c) Improve reliability b) Packets
d) During time out c) Switches
88. Computer to computer communication is: d) Links
a) Simplex 95. Which of the following is a reason to employ
b) Duplex queuing theory?
c) Half Duplex a) To reduce customer wait time in line.
d) Both Duplex and Half Duplex b) To reduce service times.
89. Packet switching is used for c) To generate more arrivals to the system.
a) Credit card verification d) To reduce worker idle time in line
b) Automated Teller Machine 96. In message switching system, an incoming
c) The internet and the World Wide Web message gets ______ especially if the required
d) All of the above route is busy
90. Analog signals can be _______ by combining a) Lost
them with a carrier frequency b) Stored in a queue & retransmitted
a) Carried c) Sampled
b) Transported d) Recovered
c) Multiplexed 97. What is the hardware, used to establish
d) Mixed connection as an electrical path between inlet and
91. The Signaling connection control part (SCCP) outlet pair in switching system, known as?
and message transfer part (MTP) together are a) Switching Matrix
referred to as b) Switching Network
a) Signal Switching Points (SSPs)
c) Both a and b
b) Signal Transfer Points (STPs)
c) Signal Control Points (SCPs) d) None of the above
d) Network service part (NSP) 98. Which kind of switching technique indicates
92. Three methods of switching are the transfer of coded values from input to output
a) Circuit switching, packet switching, and protocol during the same interval of time?
switching a) Space Switching
b) Circuit switching, packet switching, and message
b) Time Switching
switching
c) Combination Switching
c) Loop switching, packet switching, and message
switching d) None of the above
64
99. Times between two successive requests 100. One of most widely used exponential
arriving, called the ______ distributions is called a
a) Interarrival time a) Passion distribution
b) Arrival time b) Possible distribution
c) Poisson distribution c) Poisson distribution
d) Average residual service time d) Poisson association
Answer Key:
1.(c) 11.(c) 21.(c) 31.(c) 41.(d) 51.(b) 61.(c) 71.(b) 81.(c) 91.(d)
2.(b) 12.(a) 22.(d) 32.(b) 42.(c) 52.(a) 62.(b) 72.(c) 82.(a) 92.(a)
3.(a) 13.(a) 23.(a) 33.(a) 43.(a) 53.(a) 63.(c) 73.(a) 83.(b) 93.(c)
4.(b) 14.(a) 24.(c) 34.(d) 44.(a) 54.(b) 64.(d) 74.(c) 84.(a) 94.(a)
5.(c) 15.(b) 25.(b) 35.(c) 45.(c) 55.(a) 65.(c) 75.(a) 85.(c) 95.(a)
6.(b) 16.(b) 26.(c) 36.(c) 46.(c) 56.(d) 66.(a) 76.(a) 86.(b) 96.(b)
7.(b) 17.(a) 27.(b) 37.(d) 47.(b) 57.(c) 67.(a) 77.(b) 87.(b) 97.(c)
8.(a) 18.(d) 28.(a) 38.(b) 48.(a) 58.(d) 68.(b) 78.(a) 88.(b) 98.(a)
9.(c) 19.(b) 29.(d) 39.(c) 49.(b) 59.(a) 69.(c) 79.(d) 89.(d) 99.(a)
10.(b) 20.(b) 30.(a) 40.(a) 50.(c) 60.(a) 70.(b) 80.(a) 90.(c) 100.(c)
65
5. INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Operating System – RDBMS - Database design (integrity constraints, normal forms) - Query
languages (SQL) - File structures (sequential files, indexing, B and B+ trees) - Transactions
and concurrency control - Software engineering - Programming in C - Object Oriented
Programming.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
66
1. An example of a hierarchical data structure is 8. In order to allow only one process to enter its
a) Array [EKT 1 2015 CSE] critical section, binary semaphore is initialized to
b) Link list a) 0 [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
c) Tree b) 1
d) Ring c) 2
2. Which of the following system software does the d) 3
job of merging the records from two files int 9. The outstanding invoice file should be stared on a
a) Security software [EKT 1 2015 CSE] Pardon Access Storage Device if
b) Utility program a) Invoice data entry is on-line [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
c) Networking software b) Payment recording is done in a batch rode
d) Documentation program c) Inquiries concerning payable are to be answered
3. Virtual memory is ______ [EKT 1 2015 CSE] on-line
a) Is a method of memory allocation by which the d) Last record points to the first record
program is subdivided into equal portions, or pages 10. In SQL, which command(s) is/are used to
and core is subdivided into equal portions or blocks enable/disable a database trigger?
b) Consists of those addresses that may be generated a) ALTER DATABASE [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
by a processor during execution of a computation b) ALTER TABLE
c) Is a method of allocating time c) MODIFY TRIGGER
d) Allows multiple programs to reside in separate d) ALTER TRIGGER
areas of core at the time 11. The modify operation is likely to be done after
4. Which is a permanent database in the general a) Delete
model of compiler? [EKT 1 2015 CSE] b) Look-up
a) Literal table c) Insert
b) Identifier table d) All of these
c) Terminal table 12. ______ of the following is not a logical data-base
d) Source code structure? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
5. Operating system functions may include a) Tree
a) Input / output control [EKT 1 2015 CSE] b) Relational
b) Virtual storage c) Network
c) Multi-programming d) Chain
d) All of these
13. Which of the following tools is not used in
6. Moving process from main memory to disk is called modelling the new system? [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
_______ [EKT 1 2015 CSE] a) Decision tables
a) Scheduling b) Data dictionary
b) Caching c) Data flow diagrams
c) Swapping d) All of these
d) Spooling
14. Difference between Decision – Tables and
7. In which addressing mode the contents of a Decision Tree is _____ [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
register specified in the instruction are first a) Value to end user
decremented, and these contents are used as the b) Form of representation
effective address of the operands? c) One shows the logic while other shows the process
a) Index addressing [EKT 1 2015 CSE] d) All of the above
b) Indirect addressing
15. The reservation system of Indian railways is an
c) Auto increment
example of ______ [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
d) Auto decrement
a) Transaction processing system
67
b) Interactive decision support system 24. Which of the following is not database
c) Management controls system management software?
d) Expert system a) MySQL
16. The slowest transmission speeds are those of b) Oracle
a) Twisted-pair wire [EKT 2 2015 CSE] c) Sybase
b) Coaxial cable d) COBOL
c) Fibre-optic cable 25. A medium for transferring data between two
d) Microwaves locations is called [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
17. _______ is the process of carrying out commands. a) Network
a) Fetching b) Communication channel
b) Storing c) Modem
c) Executing d) Bus
d) Decoding 26. Mac Operating System is developed by which
18. What is part of a database that holds only one company
type of information? a) IBM
a) Report b) Apple
b) Field c) Microsoft
c) Record d) Samsung
d) File 27. 1024 bit is equal to how many byte?
d) WAIS19. ‘.MOV’ extension refers usually to what a) 1 Byte
kind of file? b) 128 Byte
a) Image file c) 32 Byte
b) Animation / movie file d) 64 Byte
c) Audio file 28. .gif is an extension of
d) MS Office document a) Image file
20. AM means ______ b) Video file
a) Angleo Marconi c) Audio file
b) Anno median d) Word file
c) Amplitude modulation 29. The head quarter of Microsoft office located
d) Amperes a) Texas
21. _______ is the first search engine in internet. b) NewYork
a) Google c) California
b) Archie d) Wasington
c) Altavista
30. Firewall in computer is used for
a) Security
22. How many bits used by the IPv6 address? b) Data Transmission
a) 32 bit c) Authentication
b) 64 bit d) Monitoring
c) 128 bit
31. What is the full form of PDF?
d) 256 bit
a) Printed Document Format
23. The first computer virus is known as b) Public Document Format
a) Rabbit c) Portable Document Format
b) Creeper virus d) Published Document Format
c) Elk Cloner
32. In which decade was the American Institute of
d) SCA Virus
Electrical Engineers (AIEE) founded?
68
a) 1850s 40. ______ is the brain of the Computer.
b) 1880s a) Network and LAN
c) 1930s b) CPU
d) 1950s c) Computer Language
33. ‘OS’ computer abbreviation usually means d) Bits
a) Order of Significance 41. Components of Personal Computer includes
b) Open Software a) Worker
c) Operating System b) Wage
d) Optical Sensor c) Hardware, Software and Data
34. ______ is a part of a database that holds only one d) Room
type of information. 42. Types of Network is _______
a) Report a) Local Area Network
b) Field b) Metropolitan Area Network
c) Record c) Wide Area Network
d) File d) None of these
35. ______ created Pretty Good Privacy (PGP). 43. Which is the type of Operating System?
a) Phil Zimmermann a) LINUX and MS-DOS
b) Tim Berners-Lee b) MIS
c) Marc Andreessen c) C+
d) Ken Thompson d) D++
36. Which is not an acceptable method of distributing 44. ______ is the information of MIS.
small power outlets throughout an open plan office a) Internet Explorer
area? b) Search
a) Power Poles c) Internet options
b) Power Skirting d) All of these
c) Flush Floor Ducting 45. Java is a
d) Extension Cords a) Product of Computer System
37. What do we call a network whose elements may b) Design
be separated by some distance? It usually involves c) Language of Computer
two or more small networks and dedicated high- d) Memory
speed telephone lines. 46. _______ is the part of LAN Topology.
a) URL a) Bus
b) LAN b) None
c) WAN c) Data
d) World Wide Web d) C++
38. System Software is 47. Analog Computer includes
a) Programming language a) Voltage meter
b) Word Processing b) Thermometer
c) Browsers c) Watches
d) Graphics d) All of these
39. RAM is
48. Input devices is _______
a) Random Access Memory a) Keyboard
b) Rate As Memory b) Mouse
c) Rate All Memory c) Touchpad
d) Rate as per Man d) All of these
69
49. Which of the following is not a web browser? 57. _______ software resides only in read only
a) MOSAIC memory and is used to control products and systems
b) WWW for the consumer and industrial markets.
c) Facebook a) Business
d) Netscape navigator b) Embedded
50. _______ is a programming language. c) System
a) HTTP d) Personal
b) HTML 58. ________ software makes use of non numerical
c) HPML algorithms to solve complex problems that are not an
d) FTP enable to computation or straightforward analysis.
51. _________ protocol is used to send e-mail a) Artificial Intelligence
a) HTTP b) Web-based
b) POP3 c) Embedded
c) SMTP d) Real time
d) SSH 59. _______ is a sub discipline of computer science
52. In which year ‘@’ sign was first chosen for its use that attempts to apply engineering principles to the
in e-mail address creation, operation, modification and maintanence
a) 1976 of the software components of various systems.
b) 1980 a) Computer Engineering
c) 1977 b) Hardware Engineering
d) 1972 c) Software Engineering
53. ________ computer program converts assembly d) Component Engineering
language to machine language. 60. Software maintenance refers to the support
a) Interpreter phase of software development which includes.
b) Compiler a) Correction
c) Assembler b) Adaption
c) Enhancement
d) Comparator
d) All the above
54. A folder in windows computer can’t be made with
61. ________ model stipulates that the requirements
the name
a) Can be completely specified before the rest of the
development can processed.
b) Con
a) Waterfall
c) Mak b) Rapid Application Development RAD)
d) Make c) Iterative Development
d) Incremental Development
55. ______ is the extension type of the excel 2007 62. State whether True or False for Rapid Application
files. Development (RAD).
a) .Xls a) RAD is not appropriate when technical risks are
b) .Xlsx high
c) .Xsl b) For large but scalable projects, RAD requires
d) None of the above sufficient human resources to create the right
56. FDDI used which type of physical topology? number of RAD teams
a) Bus a) True, False
b) Ring b) False, True
c) Star c) True, True
d) Tree d) False, False
70
63. Statistical testing is a software testing process in b) Effective programming
which the objective is to measure the ______ of the c) Strong programming
software rather than to discover software faults. d) Known programming
a) Availability 70. ________ is a classification scheme, which shows
b) Reliability how an object class is related to other classes
c) Reusability through common attributes and services.
d) All of the above a) Hierarchy
64. ____________ model couples the iterative b) Inheritances
nature of the prototyping with the controlled c) Taxonomy
systematic aspects of the linear sequential model. d) None of the above
a) Spiral 71. _______ is a list of names used by the systems,
b) Rapid Application Development (RAD) arranged alphabetically.
c) Iterative Development a) Data Library
d) Incremental Development b) Data Dictionary
65. ______ is a function of the number of failures c) Name Dictionary
experienced by a particular user of that software. d) System Dictionary
a) Software usability 72. The _______ model of system design is a
b) Software reliability distributed system model which show how data and
c) Software performance processing is distributed across a range of processors.
d) None of the above a) Repository
66. Reliability in a software system can be achieved b) Client-server
using which of the following strategies. c) Abstract machine
a) Fault avoidance d) None of the above
b) Fault tolerance 73. The main design activities in the software design
c) Fault detection process are
d) All the above i) System specification
ii) Component design
67. ________ strategy assumes that residual faults
iii) Interface design
remain in the system and can continue in operation
iv) Algorithm design
after some system failures have occurred.
a) ii, iii and iv only
a) Fault avoidance b) i, ii and iii only
b) Fault tolerance c) i, iii and iv only
c) Fault detection d) All i, ii, iii and iv
d) None of the above 74. The different types of software maintanence
68. ______ involves modifying the system so that the systems are
fault does not recur. a) Corrective maintanence
a) Failure detection b) Adaptive maintanence
b) Damage assessment c) Perfective maintanence
c) Fault recovery d) All the above
d) Fault repair 75. In the _______ traversal we process all of a
69. ________ is an approach to program vertex’s descendants before we move to an adjacent
development, whereby programmers assume that vertex.
there may be undetected faults or inconsistencies in a) Depth First
their programs. b) Breadth First
a) Defensive programming c) With First
71
d) Depth Limited 83. ________ is not the operation that can be
76. The number of comparisons done by sequential performed on queue.
search is _______ a) Insertion
a) (N/2) +1 b) Deletion
b) (N+1)/2 c) Retrieval
c) (N-1)/2 d) Traversal
d) (N+2)/2 84. There is an extra element at the head of the list is
77. In ______ search start at the beginning of the list called a ________
and check every element in the list. a) Antinel
a) Linear search b) Sentinel
b) Binary search c) List header
c) Hash search d) List head
d) Binary Tree search 85. A _______ is a graph that has weights of costs
78. Which of the following is not the internal sort? associated with its edges.
a) Insertion Sort a) Network
b) Bubble Sort b) Weighted graph
c) Merge Sort c) Both A and B
d) Heap Sort d) None A and B
79. A graph is said to be _______ if the vertices can 86. To insert a new node in linked list free node will
be split into two sets V1 and V2 such there are no be available in ________
edges between two vertices of V1 or two vertices of a) Available list
V2. b) Avail list
a) Partite c) Free node list
b) Bipartite d) Memory space list
c) Rooted 87. A singly linked list is also called as _______
d) Bisects a) Linked list
80. In a queue, the initial values of front pointer f rare b) One way chain
pointer r should be ______ and _______ respectively. c) Two way chain
a) 0 and 1 d) Right link
b) 0 and -1 88. A _______ list is a header list where the node
c) -1 and 0 points back to the header node.
d) 1 and 0 a) Circular header
81. The advantage of ________ is that they solve the b) Grounded header
problem if sequential storage representation. But c) Two way header
disadvantage in that is they are sequential lists. d) One way header
a) Lists 89. A doubly linked list has _______ pointers with
b) Linked lists each node.
c) Trees a) 0
d) Queues b) 1
c) 2
82. What will be the value of top, if there is a size of
d) 3
STACK_SIZE is 5?
a) 5 90. Header linked lists are frequently used for
b) 6 maintaining ______ in memory.
c) 4 a) Polynomials
d) None b) Binomial
72
c) Trinomial a) Pointer list
d) Quadratic equation b) Self pointer
91. The pointer that points to the first node inj the list c) Free pool
is ________
d) Own pointer
a) FIRST
95. Which of the following is two way list?
b) AVAIL
a) Grounded header list
c) TOP
b) Circular header list
d) REAR
92. Two-way list may be maintained in memory by c) Linked list with header and trailer nodes
means of _______ d) None of the above
a) Queues 97. A ________ is a header list where the last node
b) Linear arrays contains the null pointer.
c) Non linear arrays a) Grounded header list
d) Stacks b) Bottom header lists
93. A doubly linked list is also called as _______ c) Down header list
a) Linked list d) Dropped header list
b) One way chain 98. RLINK is the pointer pointing to the
c) Two way chain a) Successor node
d) Right link b) Predecessor node
94. The list that requires two pointer variables FIRST
c) Head node
and LAST is called _______
d) Last node
a) Circular list
b) Header list 99. Count function in SQL returns the number of
c) One way list a) Values
d) Two way list b) Distinct values
c) Groups
d) Columns
95. If the availability list is null, then the condition is 100. The statement SQL which allows changing the
said to be ______ definition of a table is?
a) Nil block a) Alter
b) Availability list underflow b) Update
c) Availability list overflow c) Create
d) Memory loss d) Select
96. The list which has its own pointer is called
Answer Key:
1. (c) 11. (b) 21. (b) 31. (c) 41. (c) 51. (c) 61. (a) 71. (b) 81. (b) 91. (a)
2. (b) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (b) 42. (d) 52. (d) 62. (c) 72. (b) 82. (c) 92. (b)
73
3. (b) 13. (d) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (a) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (d) 83. (d) 93. (c)
4. (c) 14. (b) 24. (d) 34. (b) 44. (d) 54. (b) 64. (a) 74. (b) 84. (b) 94. (d)
5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (b) 35. (a) 45. (c) 55. (b) 65. (b) 75. (d) 85. (c) 95. (b)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (b) 36. (d) 46. (a) 56. (b) 66. (d) 76. (b) 86. (b) 96. (c)
7. (d) 17. (c) 27. (b) 37. (c) 47. (d) 57. (b) 67. (b) 77. (a) 87. (b) 97. (d)
8. (b) 18. (b) 28. (a) 38. (a) 48. (d) 58. (a) 68. (d) 78. (c) 88. (a) 98. (a)
9. (c) 19. (b) 29. (d) 39. (a) 49. (c) 59. (c) 69. (a) 79. (b) 89. (c) 99. (a)
10.(d) 20. (c) 30. (a) 40. (d) 50. (c) 60. (d) 70. (c) 80. (a) 90. (a) 100. (c)
74
6. TELECOMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
Random signals and noise probability - Analog communication – Fundamentals of

information theory and channel capacity theorem - Digital communication systems - Basics
of TDMA, FDMA and CDMA - Fundamentals of mobile communication - Fundamentals of
optical fibre communication.

1. In a communications system, noise is most likely
to affect the signal 5. Indicate the true statement. Most receivers
a) At the transmitter conforms to the
b) In the channel a) Amplitude-modulated group
c) In the information source b) Frequency-modulated gr
d) At the destination c) Super heterodyne group
2. Indicate the false statement. Fourier analysis d) Tuned radio frequency receiver group
shows that a saw tooth wave consist of 6. Indicate the false statement. The need for
a) Fundamental and sub harmonic sine waves modulation can best be exemplified by the
b) A fundamental sine wave and an infinite number following.
of harmonics a) Antenna lengths will be approximately λ/4 long
c) Fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose b) An antenna in the standard broadcast AM band
amplitude decreases with the harmonic number is 16,000 ft
d) Sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small c) All sound is concentrated from 20 Hz to 20 kHz
enough to ignore in practice d) A message is composed of unpredictable
3. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used variations in both amplitude and frequency
to 7. Indicate the true statement. The process of
a) Reduce the bandwidth used sending and receiving started as early as
b) Separate differing transmissions a) The middle 1930s
c) Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over b) 1850
long distances c) The beginning of the twentieth century
d) Allow the use of practicable antennas d) The 1840s
4. Indicate the false statement. From the 8. Which of the steps is not included in the process
transmitter the signal deterioration because of of reception?
noise is usually a) Decoding
a) Unwanted energy b) Encoding
b) Predictable in character c) Storage
c) Present in the transmitter d) Interpretation
d) Due to any cause
75
9. The acoustic channel is used for which of the 15. Indicate the noise whose source is in a category
following? different from that of the other three.
a) UHF communications a) Solar noise
b) Single-sideband communication b) Cosmic noise
c) Television communications c) Atmospheric noise
d) Person-to-person voice communications d) Galactic noise
10. Amplitude modulation is the process of 16. Indicate the false statement. The square of the
a) Superimposing a low frequency on a high thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is
frequency proportional to
b) Superimposing a high frequency on a low a) Its resistance
frequency b) Its temperature
c) Carrier interruption c) Boltzmann’s constant
d) Frequency shift and phase shift d) The bandwidth over which it is measured
11. One of the following types of noise becomes of 17. Which of broad classifications of noise are most
great importance at high frequencies. It is the difficult to treat?
a) Shot noise a) Noise generated in the receiver
b) Random noise b) Noise generated in the transmitter
c) Impulse noise c) Externally generated noise
d) Transit-time noise d) Internally generated noise
12. Indicate the false statement. 18. Space noise generally covers a wide frequency
a) HF mixers are generally noisier than HF spectrum, but the strongest interference occurs
amplifiers. a) Between 8 MHz and 1.43 GHz
b) Impulse noise voltage is independent of b) Below 20 MHz
bandwidth. c) Between 20 to 120 MHz
c) Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at d) Above 1.5 GHz
which it is measured. 19. When dealing with random noise calculations it
d) Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type. must be remembered that
13. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is a) All calculations are based on peak to peak values
doubled. The noise power generator is therefore b) Calculations are based on peak values
a) Halved c) Calculations are based on average values
b) Quadrupled d) Calculations are based on RMS values
c) Doubled 20. Which of the following is the most reliable
d) Unchanged measurement for comparing amplifier noise
14. One of the following is not a useful quantity for characteristics?
comparing the noise performance of receivers: a) Signal-to-noise ratio
a) Input noise voltage b) Noise factor
b) Equivalent noise resistance c) Shot noise
c) Noise temperature d) Thermal noise agitation
d) Noise figure 21. Which of the following statements is true?
76
a) Random noise power is inversely proportional to 27. The modulation index of an AM wave is
bandwidth changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
b) Flicker is sometimes called demodulation noise a) Unchanged
c) Noise is mixers is caused by inadequate image b) Halved
frequency rejection c) Doubled
d) A random voltage across a resistance cannot be d) Increase by 50 percent
calculated 28. One of the advantages of the base modulation
22. If the plate supply voltage for a plate- over collector modulation of a transistor class C
modulated class C amplifier is V, the maximum amplifier is
plate-cathode voltage could be almost as high as a) The lower modulating power required
a) 4 V b) Higher power output per transistor
b) 3 V c) Better efficiency
c) 2 V d) Better linearity
d) 1 V 29. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two
23. In a low-level AM system, amplifiers following sine waves with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4;
the modulated stage must be the total modulation index
a) Linear devices a) Is 1
b) Harmonic devices b) Cannot be calculated unless the phase relations
c) Class C amplifiers are known
d) Nonlinear devices c) Is 0.5
d) Is 0.7
24. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM
wave is suppressed, the percentage power saving 30. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting
will be because
a) 50 a) It is more noise immune than other modulation
b) 150 systems.
c) 100 b) Compared with other systems it requires less
d) 66.66 transmitting power
c) Its use avoids receiver complexity.
25. Leak-type bias is used in a plate-modulated
d) No other modulation system can provide the
class C amplifier to
necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
a) Prevent tuned circuit damping
b) Prevent excessive grid current 31. What is the ratio of modulating power to total
c) Prevent over modulation power at 100 percent modulation?
d) Increase the bandwidth a) 1:3
b) 1:2
26. The output stage of a television transmitter is
c) 2:3
most likely to be a
a) Plate-modulated class C amplifier
b) Grid-modulated class C amplifier 32. Indicate the false statement regarding the
c) Screen-modulated class C amplifier advantages of SSB over double sideband, full-
d) Grid-modulated class A amplifier carrier AM
a) More channel space is available.
77
b) Transmitter circuits must be more stable, giving 38. One of the following cannot be used to remove
better reception. the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the
c) The signal is more noise-resistant a) Filter system
d) Much less power is required for the same signal b) Phase-shift method
strength c) Third method
33. When the modulation index of an AM wave is d) Balanced modulator
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled. The 39. R3E modulation is sometimes used to
AM system being used is a) Allow the receiver to have a frequency
a) Single-sideband, full carrier (H3E) synthesizer
b) Vestigial sideband (C3F) b) Simplify the frequency stability problem in
c) Single-sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E) reception
d) Double-sideband, full carrier (A3E) c) Reduce the power that must be transmitted
34. Indicate which one of the following advantages d) Reduce the bandwidth required for transmission
of the phase cancellation method of obtaining SSB 40. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
over the filter method is false: same carrier, it is necessary to use
a) Switching from one sideband to the other is a) ISB
simpler. b) Carrier insertion
b) It is possible to generate SSB at any frequency. c) SSB with pilot carrier
c) SSB with lower audio frequencies present can be d) None of the Above
generated
41. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally
d) There are more balanced modulators; therefore
used for
the carrier is suppressed better.
a) HF point-to-point communications
35. The most commonly used filters in SSB b) Mono aural broadcasting
generation are c) TV broadcasting
a) mechanical d) Stereo broadcasting
b) RC
42. In the stabilize reactance modulator AFC
c) LC
system,
d) low-pass
a) The discriminator must have a fast time constant
36. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find to prevent demodulation
a b) The higher the discriminator frequency, the
a) Class C audio amplifier better the oscillator frequency stability
b) Tuned modulator c) The discriminator frequency must not be too low,
c) Class B - RF amplifier or the system will fail
d) Class A - RF output amplifier d) Phase modulation is converted into FM by the
37. Indicate in which one of the following only one equalizer circuit
sideband is transmitted. 43. In the spectrum of a frequency-modulated
a) H3E wave
b) A3E a) The carrier frequency disappears when the
c) B8E modulation index is large
d) C3F
78
b) The amplitude of any sideband depends on the c) Pre amplifying the whole audio band
modulation index d) Converting the phase modulation to FM
c) The total number of sidebands depends on the 49. Since noise phase-modulates the FM wave, as
modulation index the noise sideband frequency approaches the
d) The carrier frequency cannot disappear carrier frequency, the noise amplitude
44. The difference between phase and frequency a) Remains constant
modulation b) Is decreased
a) is purely theoretical because they are the same c) Is increased
in practice d) Is equalized
b) is too great to make the two system compatible 50. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the
c) Lies in the poorer audio response of phase modulation index is halved, and the modulating
modulation voltage remains constant. The modulation system
d) Lies in the different definitions of the modulation is
index a) Amplitude modulation
45. Indicate the false statement regarding the b) Phase modulation
Armstrong modulation system c) Frequency modulation
a) The system is basically phase, not frequency d) Any of the three
modulation, 51. Indicate which one of the following is not an
b) AFC is not needed, as crystal oscillator is used. advantage of FM over AM:
c) Frequency multiplication must be used a) Better noise immunity is provided
d) Equalization is unnecessary b) Lower bandwidth is required
46. An FM signal with a modulation index mf is c) The transmitted power is more useful
passed through a frequency Tripler. The wave in the d) Less modulating power is required
output of the Tripler will have a modulation index 52. One of the following is an indirect way of
of generating FM. This is the
a) mf/3 a) Reactance FET modulator
b) mf b) Varactor diode modulator
c) 3mf c) Armstrong modulator
d) 9mf d) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator
47. An FM signal with a deviation δ is passed 53. In an FM stereo multiplex transmission, the
through a mixer, and has its frequency reduced a) Sum signal modulates 19 kHz subcarrier
fivefold. The deviation in the output of the mixer is b) Difference signal modulates the 19 kHz
a) 5δ subcarrier
b) Indeterminate c) Difference signal modulates the 38 kHz
c) δ/5 subcarrier
d) δ d) Difference signal modulates the 67 kHz
48. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise subcarrier
immunity by 54. Indicate which of the following statements
a) Boosting the bass frequencies about the advantages of the phase discriminator
b) Amplifying the higher audio frequencies over the slope detector is false:
79
a) Much easier alignment b) 900 kHz
b) Better linearity c) 1650 kHz
c) Greater limiting d. 2100 kHz
d) Fewer tuned circuits 60. In a ratio detector
55. Show which of the following statements about a) The linearity is worse than in phase discriminator
the amplitude limiter is untrue: b) Stabilization against signal strength variations is
a) The circuit is always biased in class C, by virtue of provided
the leak-type bias. c) The output is twice that obtainable from a similar
b) When the input increases past the threshold of phase discriminator
the limiting, the gain decreases to keep the output d) The circuit is the same as in a discriminator,
constant. except that the diodes are reversed
c) The output must be tuned 61. The typical squelch circuit cuts off
d) Leak-type bias must be used a) An audio amplifier when the carrier is absent
56. In a radio receiver with simple AGC b) RF interference when the signal is weak
a) An increase in signal strength produces more c) An IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum
AGC d) An IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum
b) The audio stage gain is normally controlled by 62. Indicate the false statement in connection with
the AGC communications receivers.
c) The faster the AGC time constant the more a) The noise limiter cuts off the receiver’s output
accurate the output during a noise pulse.
d) The highest AGC voltage is produced b) A product demodulator could be used for the
57. In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver, the reception of Morse code.
a) Local oscillator operates below the signal c) Double conversion is used to improve image
frequency rejection
b) Mixer input must be tuned to the signal d) Variable sensitivity is used to eliminate selective
frequency fading
c) Local oscillator frequency is normally double the 63. The controlled oscillator synthesizer is
IF sometimes preferred over the direct one because
d) RF amplifier normally works at 455 kHz above the a) It is a simpler piece of equipment
carrier frequency b) Its frequency stability is better
58. To prevent overloading of the IF amplifier in a c) It does not require crystal oscillator
receiver, one should use d) It is relatively free of spurious frequency
a) Squelch 64. The frequency generated by each decade in a
b) Variable sensitivity direct frequency synthesizer is much higher than
c) Variable selectivity the frequency shown; this is done to
d) Double conversion a) Reduce the spurious frequency problem
59. A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 b) Increase the frequency stability of the
kHz is tuned to a signal at 1200 kHz. The image synthesizer
frequency is c) Reduce the number of decades
a) 750 kHz d) Reduce the number of crystals required
80
65. Indicate which of the following circuits could 71. Three-point tracking is achieved with
not demodulate SSB: a) Variable selectivity
a) Balance modulator b) The padder capacitor
b) Product modulator c) Double spotting
c) BFO d) Double conversion
d) Phase discriminator 72. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is
66. If a FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a tuned to a frequency higher than the incoming
transistor receiver, this will have the effect of frequency
a) Improving the effectiveness of the AGC a) To help the image frequency rejection
b) Reducing the effect of negative-peak clipping b) To permit easier tracking
c) Reducing the effect of noise at low modulation c) Because otherwise an intermediate frequency
depths could not be produced
d) Improving the selectivity of the receiver d) To allow adequate frequency coverage without
67. Indicate the false statement. The switching
superheterodyne receiver replaced the TRF 73. If the intermediate frequency is very high
receiver because the latter suffered from (indicate false statement)
a) Gain variation over the frequency coverage a) Image frequency rejection is very good
range b) The local oscillator need not be extremely stable
b) Insufficient gain and sensitivity c) The selectivity will be poor
c) Inadequate selectivity at high frequencies d) Tracking will be improved
d) Instability 74. A low ratio of the ac to the dc load impedance
68. The image frequency of a superheterodyne of a diode detector results in
receiver a) Diagonal clipping
a) Is created within the receiver itself b) Poor AGC operation
b) Is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection c) Negative-peak clipping
c) Is not rejected be the IF tuned circuits d) Poor AF response
d) Is independent of the frequency to which the 75. One of the following cannot be used to
receiver is tuned demodulate SSB:
69. One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a) Product detector
a superheterodyne receiver is to b) Diode Balance modulator
a) Provide improved tracking c) Bipolar transistor balanced modulator
b) Permit better adjacent-channel rejection d) Complete phase-shift generator
c) Increase the tuning range of the receiver 76. Indicate the false statement. Noting that no
d) Improve the rejection of the image frequency carrier is transmitter with J3E, we see that
70. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will a) The receiver cannot use a phase comparator for
therefore also have poor AFC
a) Blocking b) Adjacent-channel rejection is more difficult
b) Double-spotting c) Production of AGC is a rather complicated
c) Diversion reception process
d) Sensitivity d) The transmission is not compatible with A3E
81
77. When a receiver has good blocking c) EBCDIC
performance, this means that d) CCITT-2
a) It does not suffer from double-spotting 84. A forward error-correcting code corrects errors
b) Its image frequency rejection is poor by
c) It is unaffected by AGC derived from nearby a) Requiring partial retransmission of the signal
transmissions b) Requiring retransmission of the entire signal
d) Its detector suffers from burnout c) Requiring no part of the signal to be
78. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for retransmitted
demodulation. This enables it satisfactorily to d) Using parity to correct the errors in all cases
receive
85. Full duplex operation
a) Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier
a) Requires two pairs of cables
b) Single-sideband, reduced-carrier
b) Can transfer data in both directions at once
c) ISB
c) Requires modems at both ends of the circuit
d) Single-sideband, full-carrier
d) All of the above
79. Digital signals
86. The RS-232 interface
a) Do not provide a continuous set of values
a) Interconnects data sets and transmission circuit
b) Represent values as discrete steps
b) Uses several different connectors
c) Can utilize decimal or binary systems
c) Permits custom wiring of signal lines to the
d) All of the above
connector pins as desired
80. The event which marked the start of the d) All of the above
modern computer age was
87. Switching systems
a) Design of the ENIAC computer
a) Improve the efficiency of data transfer
b) Development of the Hollerith code
b) Are not used in data systems
c) Development of the transistor
c) Require additional lines
d) Development of disk drives for data storage
d) Are limited to small data networks
81. The baud rate
88. The data transmission rate of a modem is
a) Is always equal to the bit transfer rate
measured in
b) Is equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal
a) Bytes per second
channel
b) Baud rate
c) Is not equal to the signaling rate
c) Bits per second
d) Is equal to one-half the bandwidth of an ideal
d) Megahertz
channel
89. Broadband long-distance communications
82. The Shannon-Hartley law
were made possible by the advent of
a) Refers to distortion
a) Telegraph cables
b) Defines bandwidth
b) Repeater amplifiers
c) Describes signaling rates
c) HF radio
d) Refers to noise
d) Geostationary satellites
83. The code which provides for parity checks is
90. Following type of multiplexing cannot be used
a) Baudot
for analog signaling [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
b) ASCII
82
a) FDM d) Maximum number of quantizing levels in a
b) TDM channel
c) CDM 96. Given a carrier frequency of 100 KHz and a
d) None of these modulating frequency of 5KHz, the bandwidth of
AM transmission is [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
91. Most commonly used filter in SSB generation a) 5 KHZ
are [EKT 1 2015 EEE] b) 200 KHZ
a) Mechanical filter c) 10 KHZ
b) RC filter d) 20 KHZ
c) LC filter
d) Low pass filter 97. In a modulation system, if modulating
92. Following is/are property/properties of frequency is doubled, the modulation index also
quantization [EKT 1 2015 EEE] becomes double, the system is
a) It is an nonlinear process a) FM [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
b) It is an irreversible process b) AM
c) It maps a larger set of input c) PM
d) All of these d) Both FM and AM
93. The signal is extended from 96 KHz to 100 KHz, 98. Losses in optical fibers can be caused by
so the minimum sampling frequency required is (indicate the false statement)
a) 8 KHz [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] a) Impurities
b) 200 KHz b) Microbending
c) 4 KHz c) Attenuation in the glass
d) 100 KHz d) Stepped index operation
94. Quantizing noise occurs in [EKT 1 2015 EEE] 99. Fidelity in a communication receiver is provided
a) PCM by [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
b) TDM a) Mixer stage
c) FDM b) Detector stage
d) PPM c) Various amplifier sections
95. The Shannon’s Theorem sets limit on the d) Audio stage
[EKT 1 2015 EEE] 100. Modulation system used for video modulation
a) Highest frequency that may be sent over channel in TV transmission is
b) Maximum capacity of a channel with a given a) DSB [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
noise level b) VSB
c) Maximum number coding levels in a channel c) SSB
d) SSBSC
83
Answer Key:
1.(b) 11.(d) 21.(c) 31.(a) 41.(c) 51.(b) 61.(a) 71.(b) 81.(b) 91.(a)
2.(a) 12.(b) 22.(a) 32.(b) 42.(c) 52.(c) 62.(d) 72.(d) 82.(d) 92.(d)
3.(a) 13.(d) 23.(a) 33.(c) 43.(b) 53.(c) 63.(d) 73.(d) 83.(b) 93.(b)
4.(b) 14.(a) 24.(d) 34.(d) 44.(d) 54.(c) 64.(a) 74.(c) 84.(c) 94.(a)
5.(c) 15.(c) 25.(b) 35.(a) 45.(d) 55.(a) 65.(d) 75.(c) 85.(d) 95.(b)
6.(a) 16.(c) 26.(b) 36.(c) 46.(c) 56.(a) 66.(b) 76.(b) 86.(a) 96.(c)
7.(d) 17.(a) 27.(d) 37.(a) 47.(d) 57.(b) 67.(b) 77.(c) 87.(d) 97.(c)
8.(b) 18.(c) 28.(a) 38.(d) 48.(b) 58.(b) 68.(c) 78.(d) 88.(c) 98.(d)
9.(d) 19.(d) 29.(c) 39.(b) 49.(b) 59.(d) 69.(d) 79.(d) 89.(b) 99.(d)
10.(a) 20.(b) 30.(c) 40.(a) 50.(c) 60.(a) 70.(a) 80.(c) 90.(b) 100.(b)
84
7. MICROWAVE ENGINEERING
Waveguides and its components - Klystrons - Travelling wave tubes - Magnetron - Microwave
measurements - Introduction to microstrip lines - Microwave network analysis - Microwave
semiconductor devices – Monolithic microwave integrated circuits.

1. In a Klystron amplifier, the input cavity is called a) Amplifier
a) Pierce gun b) Microwave oscillator
b) Catcher c) Phase shifter
c) Buncher d) Both amplifier and phase shifter
d) Collector 8. In a travelling wave tube, the amplitude of
2. The wavelength correspond to microwave range resultant wave travelling down the helix ______
frequency is a) Increases linearly
a) 3 to 30GHz b) Increases exponentially
b) 0.3 to 3GHz c) Decreases exponentially
c) 30 to 300GHz d) Is almost constant
d) 3 to 300GHz 9. The frequency of the oscillation generated by a
3. Travelling Wave Tube (TWT) is a _______ magnetron, is mainly determined by
a) Oscillator a) The dimension of each cavity resonator
b) Tuned amplifier b) The flux density of the external magnet
c) Wideband amplifier c) The number of the cavity resonators
d) Both amplifier and oscillator d) The ratio of the DC cathode voltage to the
4. Which among the following is used as a high magnetic flux density
power microwave oscillator? 10. A space between two cavities in two cavity
a) Magnetron klystron is called ______
b) Klystron a) Normal space
c) Reflex klystron b) Running space
d) Thyratron c) Free space
5. Microwave resonators are used in d) Drift space
a) Microwave narrow band amplifier
b) Microwave frequency meters 11. A travelling wave tube amplifies by virtue of
c) Microwave oscillators a) The effect of an external magnetic field
d) All of the above b) The energy contained the cavity resonators
6. What is the purpose of electromagnetic field c) The energy liberated from the collector
which surrounds a travelling wave tube? d) The absorption of energy by the signal from an
a) To slow down the signal on the helix electron stream
b) To velocity modulate the electron 12. The main advantage of microwave is that
c) To keep the electrons from spreading out a) Highly directive
d) To accelerate the electron b) Greater Signal to Noise ratio
7. A reflex klystron function as c) High penetration power
85
d) Moves at the speed of light 20. In a two cavity klystron, the input cavity
13. In a directional coupler, resonator is also known as______
a) Directivity equals the sum of isolation and a) Buncher cavity [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
coupling b) Catcher cavity
b) Isolation equals the product of coupling and c) Velocity modulator
directivity d) Accelerator
c) Isolation equals the sum of coupling and 21. Which among the following devices uses a slow
directivity wave structure?
d) Coupling equals the sum of isolation and a) TWT
coupling b) Reflex cavity oscillator
14. At what position is the input signal inserted into c) Klystron multi-cavity amplifier
a TWT? d) Klystron two-cavity amplifier
a) At the control grid of the electron gun 22. In multi-cavity klystron additional cavities are
b) At the collector inserted between buncher and catcher cavities to
c) At the collector end of the helix achieve ______
d) At the cathode end of the helix a) Higher bandwidth
15. Klystron operates on the principle of ______ b) Higher efficiency
a) Amplitude Modulation c) Higher gain
b) Phase Modulation d) Higher frequency
c) Frequency Modulation 23. Klystron oscillators are most often used in the
d) Velocity Modulation frequency range of
16. _______ is the progressive decrease of signal a) 10 to 10000MHz
strength with increasing distance. b) 300 to 3000MHZ
a) Modulation c) 3000 to 30000MHz
b) Radiation d) 30 to 30000MHz
c) Attenuation 24. The modes in the reflex klystron ______
d) Propagation a) Are caused by spurious frequency modulation
17. Which among the following devices uses a b) Result from excessive transit time across
helix? resonator gap
a) Klystron amplifier c) Are just for theoretical consideration
b) TWT d) Give same frequency but different transit time
c) Klystron Oscillator 25. The action of backward wave oscillator is similar
d) Both (a) and (c) to that of
18. In a high power microwave pulse of the order of a) Magnetron
megawatts can be generated by _______ b) Klystron amplifier
a) Klystron c) Reflex klystron oscillator
b) TWT d) Travelling wave tube
c) Magnetron 26. Oscillators of a klystron tube are maintained by
d) Gunn diode a) Circulating bunches of electrons within the
19. A waveguide section in a microwave circuit acts cavities
as ______ b) Feedback between the accelerating grid and the
a) Band stop filter repeller
b) Band pass filter c) Plate to cathode feedback
c) Low pass filter d) Bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids
d) High pass filter
86
27. The main frequency determining element of a d) Complex impedance
klystron is _______ 35. The correct sequence of parts in klystron
a) Its mode of operation amplifier is
b) Its resonant cavity a) Cathode, catcher cavity, buncher cavity
c) The accelerating voltage b) Anode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity
d) The repeller voltage c) Anode, catcher cavity, bucher cavity
28. PIN diode has d) Cathode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity
a) 𝑝+ and 𝑛+ are separated by intrinsic layer 36. In a klystron amplifier the bunching effect
b) 𝑝− and 𝑛− are separated by intrinsic layer a) Converts current modulation into velocity
c) 𝑝 + and 𝑛− are separated by intrinsic layer modulation of beam
d) None of the above b) Converts velocity modulation into frequency
29. A reflex klystron oscillator uses modulation of beam
a) Two cavity resonators c) Converts current modulation into phase
b) One cavity resonator modulation of beam
c) Three cavity resonators d) Converts velocity modulation into current
d) None of these modulation of beam
30. The cutoff wavelength in circular waveguide 37. In a reflex klystron oscillator, repeller electrode
a) Guide diameter is at
b) Cube of guide diameter a) High positive potential
c) Square of guide diameter b) Negative Potential
d) Square root of guide diameter c) Low positive potential
31. Most commonly used cross section of a d) Zero potential
waveguide is a 38. What is the cut off frequency of a waveguide?
a) Rectangle a) Lowest frequency the waveguide operates
b) Circle b) Highest frequency the waveguide operates
c) Triangle c) Only frequency the waveguide operates
d) Square d) Same as the operating frequency
32. What is the wavelength of a wave in a 39. IN a TWT, the axial component of electric field
waveguide? advances along the tube at a velocity that is
a) Greater than in space a) May be even more than speed of light
b) Inversely proportional to the phase velocity b) About 50% of speed of light
c) Inversely proportional to the group velocity c) Almost equal to speed of light
d) Depends only on the waveguide dimensions and d) A small fraction of speed of light
the free-space wavelength
40. A magnetic field is introduced into waveguide
33. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
by a
a) Air pressure
a) Probe
b) Electrons
b) Stripline
c) Electric and magnetic fields
c) Resistor
d) Holes
d) Capacitor
34. IF VSWR is infinite, the transmission line is
41. When the electric field in a waveguide is
terminated in
perpendicular to the direction of wave
a) Short circuit
propagation, the mode is said to be
b) Open circuit
a) Horizontal polarization
c) Either (a) or (b)
b) Vertical polarization
87
c) Transverse magnetic d) Cavity resonator
d) Transverse electric 50. In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation of
42. A reflex klystron oscillator is a the electron beam is produced by the
a) High efficiency device a) Buncher cavity
b) High power device b) Catcher cavity
c) Low power device c) Cathode
d) Both (a) and (b) d) Collector
43. A device used for coupling microwave energy is 51. Which of the following is not a microwave tube?
known as a) Klystron
a) Loop b) Magnetron
b) Resonator c) TWT
c) Transmitter d) Cathode-ray tube
d) Waveguide 52. The frequency determining portion of a
44. The angle between electric and magnetic fields magnetron is
in a waveguide is a) A resonant cavity
a) 90° b) An open line
b) 180° c) A cathode
c) 0° d) A shorted line
d) 45° 53. Which among the following is not a negative
45. In a waveguide the energy is propagated by resistance device?
a) Current variations a) Tunnel diode
b) Varying electric fields b) Gunn diode
c) Varying magnetic and electric fields c) Varactor diode
d) Voltage different d) IMPATT diode
46. The operating frequency of klystrons and 54. The gain of a travelling wave tube is
magnetrons is set by the proportional to
a) Cavity resonators a) Resonant cavity
b) Number of cavities b) Type of input and output coupling
c) DC supply voltage c) Length of tube
d) Input signal frequency d) None of these
47. A magnetron is used only as a/an 55. Which among the following can be used for
a) Frequency multiplier amplification of microwave energy?
b) Mixer a) Varactor diode
c) Amplifier b) TWT
d) Oscillator c) Gunn diode
48. The most widely used microwave antenna is d) Klystron
a) Hyperbolic antenna 56. A disadvantage of microstrip line as the
b) Parabolic antenna connections of compared to stripline is that of
c) Horn antenna former
d) Half-wave dipole antenna a) Are bulky
49. For proper operation, a magnetron must be b) Are more likely to radiate
accompanied by a c) Are more expensive and complex
a) High DC voltage d) Do not lend them to printed circuit
b) Strong electric field 57. Which among the following antenna is best
c) Permanent magnet excited from a waveguide? [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
88
a) Biconical 65. The main benefit of using microwave is
b) Dicone a) Greater transmission distances
c) Helical b) Lower cost equipment
d) Horn c) Simpler equipment
58. TWT is preferred to multicavity klystron d) More spectrum space for signals
amplifier because it is 66. The usable bandwidth of ridge waveguide is
a) Produces a higher output power a) Almost same as that of rectangular waveguide
b) Has higher number of modes b) Lower than that of rectangular waveguide
c) More efficient c) Very small as compared to that of rectangular
d) Greater Bandwidth waveguide
59. The main advantage of a TWT over a klystron d) Higher than that of rectangular waveguide
for microwave amplification is 67. Which among the following is not used as a
a) Lower cost microwave mixer or detector?
b) Smaller size a) PIN diode
c) Higher power b) Backward diode
d) Wider bandwidth c) Schottky barrier diode
60. Which device has internal positive feedback? d) Crystal diode
a) Reflex klystron amplifier 68. A microstrip line has dielectric having relative
b) Two cavity klystron amplifier permittivity 𝜀𝑟 . The effective dielectric constant is
c) Multi-cavity klystron amplifier a) Less than 𝜀𝑟
d) All of the above b) More than 𝜀𝑟
61. In a TWT, the electron beam is density c) Equal to 1
modulated by d) Zero
a) Permanent magnet 69. Which among the following is not a
b) Cavity resonator disadvantage of microwaves?
c) Helix a) Line of sight transmission
d) Modulation transformer b) Higher cost equipment
62. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the c) Circuits are more difficult to analyze
magnetron as a radar transmitter output tube d) Conventional components are not usable
because it is [EKT 2 2015 EEE] 70. A travelling wave tube consists of
a) Capable of a longer duty cycle a) Electron gun, collector and repeller
b) A more efficient amplifier b) Electron gun, helix and collector
c) More broadband c) Electron gun, helix and repeller
d) Less noisy d) Buncher cavity and catcher cavity
63. Attenuator is used in the travelling wave tube 71. Which among the following frequency bands
to fall under microwave frequency?
a) Prevent saturation
a) UHF, SHF and EHF
b) Increase gain
c) Prevent oscillation b) UHF and SHF
d) All of the above c) VLF, LF and MF
64. The electric field in a TWT due to applied signal d) SHF and EHF
a) Is directed along the helix axis 72. Which among the following is used in
b) Is directed radially from helix axis Integrated Circuits?
c) Is inclined to the helix axis by about 60°
a) Shield cable
d) Is inclined to the helix axis by about 45°
b) Coaxial line
89
c) Microstrip line b) As a shunt mounted switch
d) Twin wire line c) Both are series and shunt mounted switch
73. The largest application of microwave is d) None of these
a) Cooking 80. Waveguides are pressurized above normal
b) Communication atmospheric pressure for
c) Research a) Improving conductivity of walls
d) Industrial heating b) Increasing the power handling capacity
74. In Gunn diode electrons are transferred from c) Varying the wave impedance
a) Valley to domain formation d) Preventing higher modes from propagation
b) Ridge guide is essentially a form of capacitively 81. Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are
loaded guide usually made with
c) Domain to valley formation a) PCBs
d) Low to high mobility energy bands b) Parallel wires
75. Waveguides are not used for frequencies below c) Twisted pair
[EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] d) Coax
a) 500MHz 82. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely
b) 100GHz used in what type of circuits?
c) 1GHz a) Mixer
d) 10GHz b) Frequency multiplier
76. An ideal directional coupler has ______ c) Oscillator
directivity and ______ insertion loss d) Amplifier
a) Zero, zero 83. Which type of diodes does not ordinarily
b) Infinity, zero operate with reverse bias?
c) Zero, infinity a) IMPATT
d) Infinity, infinity b) Varactor
77. The most commonly used magnetron is c) Tunnel
a) Flat plate d) Snap-off
b) Inclined plate 84. A common application for magnetron is in
c) Parallel plate a) Two-way radio
d) Cylindrical b) Satellites
78. In microwave communication links the fading c) TV sets
due to rain occurs. The methods to solve this d) Radar
problem include 85. In a microwave power measurement using
a) Polarization shifting and code diversity Bolometer, the principle of working is variation of
b) Amplitude trimming and phase correction a) Cavity generation with heat generated by power
c) Antenna replacement and feed correction b) Inductance with absorption of power
d) Path diversity and frequency diversity c) Capacitance with absorption of power
79. A PIN diode can be used d) Resistance with absorption of power
a) As a series mounted switch
90
86. Microwaves are d) Insertion loss when switch is on and isolation loss
a) Absorbed by ionosphere when switch is off
b) Reflected by ionosphere 93. In TE and TM modes of rectangular waveguides
having propagation in z-direction
c) Neither reflected nor absorbed by ionosphere
a) In TE mode 𝐻𝑧 is zero and in TM mode 𝐸𝑧 is zero
d) Both reflected and absorbed by ionosphere
b) Both 𝐸𝑧 and 𝐻𝑧 are zero
87. A microwave junction is matched at all ports if
the S matrix has c) In TE mode 𝐸𝑧 is zero and in TM mode 𝐻𝑧 is zero
a) All diagonal elements zero d) Both 𝐸𝑧 and 𝐻𝑧 are non zero
b) All diagonal elements complex 94. In a TWT, the phase velocity of the axial
component of the field on the slow wave structure
c) All diagonal elements equal but not zero
is kept
d) None of these
a) Equal to velocity of light in free space
88. In microstrip line has dielectric material most
b) Slightly more than velocity of electron
commonly used as
c) Equal to velocity of electron
a) Rubber
d) Slightly less than the velocity of electron
b) Silicon
95. A TEM wave is incident normally on a perfect
c) Bakelite
conductor. The E and H fields at boundary will
d) Plastic respectively be
89. When microwave signals follow the curvature a) Maximum and minimum
of earth, this is known as
b) Minimum and Minimum
a) Ionospheric reflection
c) Maximum and Maximum
b) Tropospheric scatter
d) Minimum and maximum
c) Ducting
96. Most of the power measuring microwave
d) The Faraday Effect devices measure
90. In a TWT, the loss in attenuator is a) Instantaneous power
a) Much higher than the forward gain of tube b) Peak power
b) Much less than forward gain of tube c) Average power
c) Almost finite d) None of these
d) Almost equal to forward gain of tube 97. Ionospheric preparation is not possible for
91. Klystron amplifier is not used to amplifier very microwaves because
weak microwave signals due to a) Microwave will penetrate through the
a) High gain ionospheric layers
b) Low noise for weak signals b) There will be dispersion of microwave energy
c) Low gain for weak signals c) There will be an abrupt scattering in all directions
d) High noise d) Microwaves will be fully absorbed by ionospheric
92. Performance of a PIN diode is represented by layers
a) Isolation loss when switch is off 98. Which one of the following is transferred
electron device?
b) Insertion loss when switch is off
a) BARITT diode
c) Insertion loss when switch is off and isolation loss
when switch is on b) Gunn diode
91
c) IMPATT diode
d) Step recovery diode 100. At microwave frequencies the size of the
99. Microwave antenna aperture efficiency antenna becomes
depends on a) Large
a) Antenna aperture b) Very large
b) Surface losses c) Very small
c) Feed pattern d) Small
d) Low side lobe level
Answer Key:
1. (c) 11.(d) 21.(a) 31.(a) 41.(d) 51.(d) 61.(c) 71.(a) 81.(a) 91. (d)
2. (a) 12.(a) 22.(c) 32.(a) 42.(c) 52.(a) 62.(a) 72.(c) 82.(b) 92. (d)
3. (c) 13.(c) 23.(c) 33.(c) 43.(d) 53.(c) 63.(c) 73.(b) 83.(c) 93. (c)
4. (a) 14.(a) 24.(d) 34.(c) 44.(a) 54.(c) 64.(a) 74.(b) 84.(d) 94. (c)
5. (d) 15.(d) 25.(d) 35.(d) 45.(c) 55.(b) 65.(d) 75.(a) 85.(d) 95. (d)
6. (c) 16.(c) 26.(d) 36.(d) 46.(a) 56.(b) 66.(d) 76.(d) 86.(c) 96. (c)
7. (b) 17.(b) 27.(b) 37.(b) 47.(d) 57.(c) 67.(a) 77.(d) 87.(a) 97. (a)
8. (b) 18.(c) 28.(a) 38.(a) 48.(c) 58.(d) 68.(a) 78.(d) 88.(b) 98. (b)
9. (a) 19.(d) 29.(b) 39.(d) 49.(c) 59.(d) 69.(b) 79.(c) 89.(c) 99. (a)
10.(d) 20.(a) 30.(a) 40.(a) 50.(b) 60.(a) 70.(b) 80.(b) 90.(d) 100.(c)
92
8. ANTENNA AND WAVE PROPOGATION
Antenna parameters – Aperture antennas - Reciprocity Theorem - Phased array antenna -
Mechanism of radio wave propagation - Theory of ground wave, space wave, sky wave and
troposcatter propagation.

1. What is the purpose of antenna is the receiving a) Sky wave
process? b) Ground wave
a) Intercept RF signals radiated by the distant end c) Direct wave
radio d) Skip wave
b) Radiate RF energy into space 7. Name the components in the radiation field
c) Extract the desired electro-magnetic waves from a) Induction and magnetic
the air b) Electric and magnetic
d) Demodulate received RF signals c) Induction and convection
2. Name the three components of ground waves? d) Induction and radiation
a) Direct wave, Ground wave and Sky wave
8. The polarization of a radiated wave is
b) Ground wave, Sky wave and Skip wave
determined by
c) Direct wave, Ground refracted wave and Skip
a) The direction of the electric lines of force
wave
b) The frequency of the transmitted wave
d) Direct wave, Ground reflected wave and Surface
c) The direction of the receiving station
wave
d) The impedance match of the transmission line
3. In Sky wave propagation, ________ provides the
signal paths between transmitter and receiver. 9. Which propagation wave provides the best
a) Ionosphere communication in the VHF band?
b) Atmosphere a) Ground wave
c) Troposphere b) Sky wave
d) Stratosphere c) Skip wave
d) Surface wave
4. At low frequencies, which among the following
wave propagation is used for communications? 10. What are the two types of antenna
a) Direct wave polarization?
b) Ground wave a) Horizontal and vertical
c) Sky wave b) Horizontal and electrical
d) Skip wave c) Induction and electromagnetic
d) Transmitting and receiving
5. Transmitting antenna converts the transmitter
output power into a(n) 11. _______ is used for transmitting and receiving
a) Radiation pattern radio waves?
b) Induction field a) Transmitter
c) Magnetic field b) Antenna
d) Electromagnetic field c) Demodulator
d) Receiver
6. What is the component of ground wave which
provides the best communication is UHF band? 12. Which type of antenna polarization is used in
medium and low frequencies?
93
a) Induction a) First Nulls Bandwidth
b) Horizontal b) Beamwidth
c) Electrical c) Half Power Bandwidth
d) Vertical d) None of these
13. Identify the correct order of the regions of 21. _______ is inversely proportional to beam area
atmosphere with respect to their heights? a) HPBW
a) Troposphere, Ionosphere, Stratosphere b) Directivity
b) Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere c) FNBW
c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere d) Beamwidth
d) Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere 22. Directivity is ______ resolution
14. Where does a ground travel? a) Less than
a) Skyward b) Greater than
b) Near the skip zone c) Not equal to
c) Near the earth’s surface d) Equal to
d) Skyward and near the earth’s surface 23. ______ is an important parameter for antenna
15. The term defines the periodic increase and temperature.
decrease of received radio strength is a) Beam area
a) Fading b) Directivity
b) Reflection c) Gain
c) Noise d) Beam efficiency
d) Interference 24. Which among the following is the virtual
16. Name the type(s) of radio wave propagation resistance?
is/are useful at medium frequency band? a) Radiation resistance
a) Sky and ground b) Physical resistance
b) Ground only c) Heat resistance
c) Sky only d) All of the above
d) Sky and reflected 25. Mention the theorem which can be applied to
17. What is the purpose of receiving antenna? both circuit and field theories
a) Operates as a signal source for the receiver a) Equality of Patterns
b) Sends received signals to the modulator b) Huygen’s Theorem
c) Radiates energy into space c) Reciprocity Theorem
d) Varies the frequency of a radio wave d) Poynting Vector Theorem
18. How many types of antennas are used in 26. Directivity is always ______ gain
communications? a) Lesser than
a) Two b) Greater than
b) Infinite c) Equal to
c) Four d) Greater than or equal to
d) Three 27. Antenna Aperture is same as ______
19. What is the dimensional quantity of radiation a) Length
pattern? b) Area
a) 1D c) Width
b) 5D d) Volume
c) 2D 28. The arrays of antenna are spaced equally along
d) 3D a straight line is called ______
20. 3-dB bandwidth is otherwise known as ______ a) Stone’s array
94
b) Non linear array 36. The high frequency current is converted into
c) Broadside array electromagnetic waves by _______
d) Linear array a) Microphone
29. In a _______ array, the radiation along Y- b) Loudspeaker
direction c) Antenna
a) Nonlinear d) Amplifier
b) Linear 37. Which among the following that defines the low
c) Broadside signal strength in antenna?
d) End-fire a) Major lobes
b) Null
30. Mention the element(s) of Yagi-Uda antenna
c) Minor lobes
a) Reflector
d) Antenna patterns
b) Folded dipole
c) Director 38. The measurement of a unilateral property of
d) All of the above directivity is _______
a) Beamwidth
31. What is the radiation pattern of Yagi-Uda
b) Antenna gain
antenna?
c) Phase angle
a) Omnidirectional
d) Bandwidth
b) Bidirectional
c) Unidirectional 39. Which of the following element improves the
d) None of these directivity of an antenna?
a) Director element
32. For small distances the earth can be considered
b) Reflector element
as _______ region
c) Driven element
a) Flat
d) Parasitic element
b) Conductor
c) Curved 40. The measurement which defines how the
d) Dielectric antenna concentrates its radiated power in a given
direction is _______
33. Name the process of reduction of signal
a) Efficiency
strength due to variation in refractive index.
b) Power
a) Fading
c) Polarization
b) Wave tilting
d) Gain
c) Diffraction
d) Scattering 41. To make more directional, either its size must
be increased or [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
34. The earth can be considered as which region for
a) Its Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
large distances?
b) The number of its feed horns must be radiated
a) Flat
c) The frequency of its transmission must be
b) Dielectric
increased
c) Curved
d) Its footprint must be increased
d) Conductor
42. For transmission line load matching over a
35. Name the wave which travels in the line of sight
range of frequencies, it is best to use a
distance.
a) Single stub [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
a) Reflected
b) Broadband directional coupler
b) Scattered
c) Double stub
c) Direct
d) Balun
d) Refracted
43. Ideally Voltage Wave Standing Ratio should be
95
a) As small as possible [EKT 1 2015 EEE] 51. The ratio of maximum radiation density to the
b) As large as possible average radiation intensity is _______
c) As close to unity as possible a) Power gain
d) Infinity b) Directive gain
44. A Yagi-Uda antenna produces c) Transmission gain
a) Broadside pattern [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] d) Aperture gain
b) End-fire array 52. When antennas are closed to the ground, then
c) Figure of eight pattern its polarization is ________
d) Helical pattern a) Circular
45. Which layer of the atmosphere is used the most b) Horizontal
for communication? c) Vertical
a) Ionosphere [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] d) Elliptical
b) Troposphere 53. ________ energy which radiates in the form of
c) Mesosphere radio waves, infrared waves, light waves, x-rays etc.
d) Stratosphere a) Ultraviolet
46. The parasitic element of an antenna will b) Heat
a) Decrease its directivity c) Radiant
d) Electromagnetic
b) Increase its directivity
c) Give the antenna unidirectional 54. Which among the following is used to achieve
d) Both (a) and (b) maximum possible energy transferred between
transmitting and receiving stations at particular
47. What is meant by driven element?
distances?
a) Always the rearmost element
a) Amplifier
b) The element fed by the transmission line
b) Parabolic reflector
c) The element connected to the rotator
c) Microphone
d) Always the forward most elements
d) Director
48. Medium frequency waves travel mainly as
55. Which element is added to increase the gain of
a) Sky waves [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
Yagi-Uda arrays?
b) Ground waves
a) Using many dipole
c) Space waves
b) Using many reflector
d) Surface waves
C) Using many director
49. Which among the following factors that d) All of these
determine the radiation resistance of an antenna? 56. ______ defines the orientation of the electric
a) It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical field signal propagated from the antenna.
b) Transmission line length and height of the a) Polarization
antenna b) Side lobes
c) The location of the antenna with respect to C) Directivity
nearby objects d) Gain
d) Sunspot activity and the time of day 57. _______is a radiation from an antenna at other
50. What is the angle between the half-power angles than the desired direction
radiation points? a) Directivity
a) Beamwidth b) Side lobe
b) Critical angle C) Field strength
c) Angle of elevation d) Antenna direction
d) Azimuth
96
58. Ratio of the radiation resistance to the total C) Conical horn
resistance of the system is called _______ d) Folded dipole
a) Antenna gain 66. Which among the following terms that is not
b) Beamwidth related to Yagi-Uda antenna?
C) Efficiency of an antenna a) Parasitic elements
d) Directivity of an antenna b) High gain
59. Which lobe contains the maximum radiation? C) Good bandwidth
a) Major lobe d) Folded dipole
b) Side lobe 67. Antenna gain means
C) Back lobe a) The ratio if the signal in the forward direction to
d) Minor lobe the signal in the back direction
60. Which among the following element is used to b) The ratio of the amount of power produced by
supply power from the transmitter through the the antenna compared to the output power of the
transmission line? transmitter
a) Director element C) The final amplifier gain minus the transmission
b) Driven element losses
C) Parasitic element d) The numerical ration relating the radiated signal
d) Reflector element strength of an antenna to that of another antenna.
61. Radiation pattern of slot antenna is _______ 68. A parameter used to calculate the receiving
a) Omnidirectional power of an antenna is _______
b) Bidirectional a) Efficiency
C) Unidirectional b) Directivity
d) None of these C) Effective length
62. The antennas are mounted vertically from the d) Effective aperture
earth’s surface at low and medium frequencies, and 69. Ratio of the radiated power to the power
then the effective length is referred to as _______ density of the incident wave is _______
a) Actual height a) Scattering Aperture
b) Actual length b) Loss Aperture
C) Effective height C) Collecting Aperture
d) None of these d) Physical Aperture
63. _______ is known as a single directive antenna 70. Angular separation between the first nulls of
a) Corner director the pattern is called ______
b) Corner dipole a) First Null Bandwidth
C) Corner reflector b) Half Power Bandwidth
d) Yagi antenna C) Beamwidth
64. Antenna array having one active dipole element d) None of these
and two or more parasitic element is known as 71. ________ is the fictitious resistance in the far-
a) Slot antenna field region.
b) Yagi-Uda antenna a) Heat resistance
C) Log-periodic antenna b) Physical resistance
d) Horizontal antenna C) Radiation resistance
65. _______ antenna is very useful as a multiband d) None of these
HF receiving antenna. 72. Which among the following is called a
a) Yagi-Uda directional antenna with two or more elements?
b) Log periodic a) Array
97
b) Loop 80. An antenna that transmits or receives equally
C) Ground plane well in all directions is said to be _______
d) Folded dipole a) Bidirectional
73. _______ is defined as the ratio of focal length b) Omnidirectional
to the mouth of the parabola C) Unidirectional
a) Foci d) Quasidirectional
b) Aperture 81. The antenna’s polarization is _______, when
C) Focal point the magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to
d) Major axis the earth.
74. _______ of an antenna is inversely proportional a) Vertical
to the frequency b) Horizontal
a) wavelength C) Circular
b) Power d) None of these
C) Radiation resistance 82. Ratio of the main beam area to the total beam
d) Size area is called _____
75. Ratio of the radiated to the reflected energy is a) FNBW
called ______ b) Beamwidth
a) Radiation efficiency C) Beam efficiency
b) Radiation constant d) HPBW
C) Radiation antenna 83. Antenna input impedance is otherwise known
d) Radiation resistance as ________
76. A transponder is a satellite equipment which a) Characteristic impedance
a) Receives a signal from earth station and b) Mutual impedance
amplifies [EKT 2 2015 CSE] C) Self impedance
b) Changes the frequency of the received signal d) Feed point impedance
C) Retransmits the received signal 84. ________ property describes the
d) Does all of the above-mentioned functions interchangeability for the transmitting and
77. _______ lobes are adjacent to the main lobe. receiving operations.
a) Back a) Accuracy
b) Side b) Reciprocity
C) Minor C) Efficiency
d) None of these d) Polarization
78. _______ lobes are in exactly opposite direction 85. _______ antenna is circularly polarized
of the front lobe a) Helical
a) Major lobe b) Small circular loop
b) Minor lobe C) Parabolic reflector
C) Side lobe d) Yagi-Uda
d) Back lobe 86. Which among the following antenna element
79. Name the field pattern that is close to the that is directly connected to the transmission lines
antenna and receives from or is driven by the source?
a) Induction field a) Parasitic array
b) Far-field b) Parasitic element
C) Capture field C) Driven element
d) Radiation field d) Driven array
98
87. Which among the following antenna element b) Reflector
that is not directly connected to the transmission c) Parasitic element
lines? d) Driven element
a) Parasitic array 95. Which among the following array is a
b) Driven element frequency-independent?
C) Parasitic element a) Log periodic dipole array
d) Driven array b) Yagi-Uda array
88. Which is a wide bandwidth multi-element c) Broadside array
array? d) Collinear array
a) Log periodic 96. To improve the performance, then what will be
b) End-fire added to the Yagi-Uda array?
C) Broadside a) More number of directors
d) Yagi-Uda b) More number of reflectors
89. Which polarization does occur when there is a c) More number of parasitic elements
mix of linear and circular? d) More number of driven elements
a) Elliptical 97. The frequency is reflected back to the earth is
b) Horizontal known as _______
C) Vertical a) Critical frequency
d) Collinear b) Gyro frequency
90. The maximum radiation is toward the _______ c) Radio frequency
in Yagi –Uda antenna. d) Microwave frequency
a) Reflector 98. _______ antennas are used to convert spherical
b) Director waves into flat plane waves by using microwave
C) Driven element lens.
d) Sky a) Horn antenna
91. _________ is a parameter used to measure how b) Slot antenna
much noise produced by an antenna. c) Lens antenna
a) Antenna temperature d) Reflector antenna
b) Antenna Gain 98. _______ antennas are used to convert spherical
C) Beam efficiency waves into flat plane waves by using microwave
d) Radiation resistance lens.
92. An antenna which emits electromagnetic waves a) Horn antenna
b) Slot antenna
through an opening is called ______
c) Lens antenna
a) Log periodic antenna
d) Reflector antenna
b) Yagi-uda antenna
C) Aperture antenna 98. _______ antennas are used to convert spherical
d) Broadside array waves into flat plane waves by using microwave
lens.
93. Which among the following is not a driven
a) Horn antenna
array?
b) Slot antenna
a) End-fire
c) Lens antenna
b) Broadside
d) Reflector antenna
c) Collinear
d) Yagi 99. The change in the channel impulse response
rate is more than the transmitted signal is known as
94. Which among the following element is longer?
_______
a) Director
a) Fast fading
99
b) Slow fading of the earth’s magnetic flux density is called
c) Flat fading _______
d) Frequency selective fading a) Gyro frequency
100. The frequency whose period is equal to the b) Critical frequency
period of an electron in its orbit under the influence c) Radio frequency
d) Microwave frequency
Answer Key:
1. (a) 11. (b) 21. (b) 31. (c) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (a) 71. (c) 81. (b) 91. (a)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (c) 52. (c) 62. (c) 72. (a) 82. (c) 92. (c)
3. (a) 13. (c) 23. (c) 33. (a) 43. (c) 53. (d) 63. (c) 73. (b) 83. (d) 93. (d)
4. (b) 14. (c) 24. (a) 34. (c) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (b) 74. (d) 84. (b) 94. (b)
5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (c) 35. (c) 45. (a) 55. (c) 65. (b) 75. (a) 85. (a) 95. (a)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (b) 36. (c) 46. (d) 56. (a) 66. (b) 76. (d) 86. (c) 96. (b)
7. (b) 17. (d) 27. (b) 37. (b) 47. (b) 57. (b) 67. (d) 77. (b) 87. (c) 97. (a)
8. (a) 18. (b) 28. (d) 38. (a) 48. (a) 58. (c) 68. (d) 78. (d) 88. (a) 98. (c)
9. (a) 19. (d) 29. (c) 39. (d) 49. (c) 59. (a) 69. (a) 79. (a) 89. (a) 99. (b)
10. (a) 20. (c) 30. (d) 40. (d) 50. (a) 60. (b) 70. (a) 80. (b) 90. (b) 100.(a)
100
9. RADAR THEORY
Radar range equation – Frequencies of operation – Fundamentals of Moving Target Indicator

(MTI) – Pulse Doppler Radar – Tracking radar.

1. The target cross section is changing, the best a) 270 km/hr, 540 km/hr, 810 km/hr
system for accurate tracking is [EKT 2 2015 EEE] b) 270 km/hr, 900 km/hr, 940 km/hr
a) Monopulse c) 180 km/hr, 360 km/hr, 540 km/hr
b) Conical scanning d) 200 km/hr, 400 km/hr, 600 km/hr
c) Sequential locking 7. In a radar system it is observed that the echo
d) Lobe switching received in after 9.15 ×𝜇 sec. The distance of the
2. The use of RADAR for Military and civil stationary object from the radar is:
application is to [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] a) 1.372 km
a) Find the velocity of moving and civil application b) 2.372 km
is to c) 2.444km
b) Detection of far off object in air d) None of these
c) Surveillance 8. The maximum range of pulsed radar depends on
d) All of the above _______
3. The beam width required for a satellite antenna a) Pulse peak power
for full global coverage is approximately b) Pulse duration
a) 1 c) Pulse energy
b) 5 d) Pulse repetition rate
c) 18 9. The microwave tube amplifier that uses an axial
d) 4 magnetic field and radial electric field is
4. The peak transmitted power in a radar system is a) Reflex klystron
increased by a factor of 16 the maximum range will b) CFA
be increased by a factor of [EKT 2 2015 EEE] c) Coaxial magnetron
a) 2 d) Travelling wave magnetron
b) 4 10. If the target cross-section keeps changing the
c) 8 best system for tracking is ________
d) 16 a) Conical scanning
5. The Doppler shift causes by a vehicle moving b) Lobe scanning
towards radar at 96 km/h, if radar operates at 10 c) Helical scanning
GHz: d) Monopulse
a) 3.98 KHz 11. The instrument Landing System (ILS) uses
b) 1.78 KHz _______
c) 3 KHz a) Glide path localizer
d) None of these b) Master and slave stations
6. For an MTI radar, the first three blind speeds at c) MTI
2 GHz when PRF is 1 KHz: d) None of the above
101
12. The COHO is MTI radar operates at ________ d) Match the phase of COHO and output oscillator
a) Transmitted frequency 20. The type of radar that is used to eliminate
b) Intermediate frequency clutter in navigational application is ________
c) Received frequency a) Pulse radar
d) None of the above b) Tracking radar
13. Frequency in UHF range propagate by means of c) MTI radar
_______ d) Monopulse radar
a) Ground waves 21. In case of a radar receiver the IF bandwidth
b) Sky waves inversely proportional to ________
c) Surface waves a) Pulse interval
d) Space waves b) Pulse repetition frequency
14. The following instrument is used in aeroplane c) Square root of the peak transmitted power
to measure its height above ground: d) Pulse width
a) MGTI 22. After a target has been acquired by Radar, the
b) CW Radar best scanning system for tracking is ________
c) Doppler Radar a) Conical
d) Radar Altimeter b) Spiral
15. Type A scope in RADAR system displays c) Helical
_________ d) None of these
a) Target azimuth angle and range 23. The Doppler shift is given by ________
𝑉
b) Target range alone a) ∆𝑓 = 𝑟
𝜆
c) Target azimuth angle alone
𝑉𝑟
d) None of these b) ∆𝑓 = √
𝜆
16. Radar becons are used for ________ 2𝑉𝑟
c) ∆𝑓 =
a) Target identification 𝜆
𝑉𝑟
b) Navigation d) ∆𝑓 =
2𝜆
c) Causing significant extensions of the maximum 24. Blind speed causes target appear _______
range a) Moving
d) All of these b) Stationary
17. The Doppler Effect is used for ________ c) Distinguish correctly
a) Pulsed radar d) None of these
b) CW radar 25. Which of the following diode is used as a
c) MTI detector in radar?
d) Both (a) and (c) a) Gunn diode
18. A solution of the blind speed problem is to b) Schottky diode
________ c) IMPATT diode
a) Change the Doppler frequency d) Any of the above
b) Vary the PRF 26. Most of the aircraft Surveillance Radars
c) Use monopulse operated in
d) Use MTI a) X-band
19. The quartz delay line in MTI radar is used to b) C-band
________ c) L-band
a) Match the signal with echo d) S-band
b) Subtract a complete scan from previous scan 27. Indicate which one of the following application
c) Match the phase of COHO and STALO or advantages of radar becomes false _______
102
a) Target identification 35. An altimeter is basically _______
b) Navigation a) A CW radar
c) Very significant extension of the maximum range b) A PM radar
d) More accurate tracking of enemy target c) A Doppler radar
28. LORAN system uses _______ d) A device to indicate the direction at height
a) Master and slave stations 36. In case the ratio of the antenna diameter to the
b) Localizer and glide path wavelength in radar system is high, this likely not to
c) Homing path result in
d) Two radars a) Increased capture area
29. The term RADAR stands for ________ b) Good target discrimination
a) Radio direction and reflection c) Difficult target acquisition
b) Radio waves dispatching and receiving d) Large maximum range
c) Radio waves dispatching and receiving 37. The resolution of a pulsed radar can be
d. Radio detection and Ranging improved by
30. In a radar, in case the return echo arrives after a) Increasing pulse width
the allowed pulse interval, then ________ b) Decreasing pulse width
a) It will not be received c) Increasing the pulse amplitude
b) The receiver will get over loaded d) Decreasing the pulse repetition
c) It may interface with the operation of the 38. The maximum unambiguous range of pulse
transmitter radar depends upon
d) The target will appear closer than it really is a) Width of transmitted pulses
31. Flat topped rectangular pulses are used in Radar b) Peak power of the transmitted signal
transmitter to ________ c) Pulse repetition rate of the transmitted signal
a) Allow good minimum range and accurate range d) Signal to noise ratio of the radar receiver
transmission 39. In one of the following radar, the transmitted
b) Prevent frequency changes in magnetron beam is steered in angle electronically ________
c) Get better echoes free from noise a) Monopulse radar
d) Both (a) and (b) b) Pulse compressor radar
32. PPI in radar system stands for ________ c) Phased array radar
a) Plan position indicator d) MTI
b) Pulse position indicator 40. In radar systems, the term ‘rat-race’ is used in
c) Plan position image connection with ________
d) Prior position identification a) Ionosphere reflection
33. Radar detection is limited to line of sight b) Faraday rotation
because _______ c) Duping
a) Of curvature of the earth d) Ionospheric scatter
b) The waves are not reflected by the ionosphere 41. Sometimes microwave signals follow the
c) Long wavelengths are used earth’s curvature. This is due to ________
d) Short wavelengths are used a) Ionosphere reflection
34. The polarization required in ground wave b) Faraday rotation
propagation is c) Ducting
a) Horizontal (linear) d) Ionospheric scatter
b) Vertical (linear) 42. An ideal pulse radar receiver ________
c) Circular a) Should have a very large BW
d) Elliptical b) Should not have a very large BW
103
∆𝑡
c) Should have a small BW c) R =
19.36
d) None of these ∆𝑡
d) R =
43. In both sequential lobing and conical scan 2.36
tracking techniques of radar, the measurements of 49. The Range in meters is calculated by the
angular errors in two orthogonal co-ovelinates formula _______
𝑐∆𝑡
(azimuth and elevation) require that a minimum of a) R =
2
_________ 𝑐∆𝑡
b) R = 𝝀
a) Three pulses be processed 2
𝑐∆𝑠
b) Two pulses be processed c) R =
2
c) Four pulses be processed 𝑐∆𝑡
d) R =
3
d) Only one pulse be processed
50. Doppler frequency for radar ________
44. In antenna measurements using two aperture 2𝑣
a) fd = 𝑡
antenna of dimensions D1 and D2, the minimum 𝜋
2𝑣𝑡
separation between the two should be (in free b) fd =
𝜆
space wavelength of radiation used) 2𝑣𝑡
c) ) fd =
a) (D1 + D2) / 2𝛌 𝜌
2𝑣𝑡
b) (𝐷12 + 𝐷22 ) / 8𝛌 d) ) fd =
𝛿
c) (𝐷12 + 𝐷22 ) / 𝛌 51. TRAPATT diode is preferred over IMPATT diode
d) (𝐷12 + 𝐷22 ) / 2𝛌 because of
45. Fading is _______ a) High η
a) Change in polarization only at receiver end b) Less sensitivity to harmonics
b) Change in frequency only at receiver end c) Lower noise
c) Fluctuation in signal strength at receiver d) Ability to operate at higher frequencies
d) Change in phase only at receiver end 52. Operating frequency of the reflex klystron is as
46. Doppler Effect is employed in which of the high as
following? a) 70,000 MHz
1) Moving target plotting on PPI b) 50,000 MHz
2) The MTI system c) 20,000 MHz
3) FM radar d) 10,000 MHz
4) CW radar 53. _______ is unlikely to be used as a pulsed
Select the correct answer using the codes given device.
below ______ a) BWO
a) 2, 3 and 4 b) TWT
b) 1, 2 and 3 c) CFA
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) Multi-cavity klystron
d) 1, 3 and 4
54. Consider a radar having the capture area of
47. Which is one of the components of radar receiving antenna A. The maximum range will be
system? proportional to _____
a) Transmitter a) √𝐴
b) Antenna
b) 1 / √𝐴
c) Receiver
c) A
d) All
d) 𝐴2
48. The range of radar can be calculated as _______
∆𝑡 55. On ________ factor the maximum range of
a) R = radar depends.
12.36
∆𝑡
b) R = a) Pulse duration
11.36
104
b) Pulse energy d) Velocity modulation
c) Pulse frequency 63. The secondary cavity in a two cavity klystron is
d) None of the above called
56. In MTI radar, the quartz delay line is used to a) Buncher cavity
_______ b) Catcher cavity
a) Match the phase of COHO and output oscillator c) Velocity modulation cavity
b) Match the phase of COHO and STALO d) None of these
c) Match the signal with echo 64. In TWT, attenuator is put ________
d) Subtract a complete scan from previous scan a) At the beginning
57. In radar when the return echo arrives after the b) In the middle
allocated pulse interval, then ________ c) At the end
a) The receiver will get overloaded d) Anywhere
b) It may interfere with the operation of the 65. In both the sequential-lobing and conical-scan
transmitter tracking techniques of radar, the measurements of
c) The target will appear closer than it really is angular errors in two orthogonal coordinates
d) It will not be received (azimuth and elevation) require that a minimum of
58. In MTI radar, COHO operates ________ ______
a) Pulse repetition frequency a) Three pulses be processed
b) At supply frequency b) Two pulses be processed
c) Station frequency c) Four pulses be processed
d) At intermediate frequency d) Only one pulse be processed
59. Let the maximum of radar be doubled with all 66. To increase the radar range of ground and
the other factors remaining constant. The peak surface targets to see well beyond the normal radar
power must be increased ________ horizon, the electromagnetic wave propagation
a) 32 fold adopted is ______
b) 4 fold a) Ionosphere scatters
c) 16 fold b) Troposcatter
d) 8 fold c) Ground wave propagation
60. ______ is a thyristor equivalent of a thyratron d) Duct
tube? 67. The transmit time (in cycles) for the electrons in
a) SCR the repeller space of a reflex klystron oscillator for
b) Diac sustaining oscillations is [n is any integer including
c) Triac zero].
d) None of the above a) 2(n-1)
61. The modes in a reflex klystron ________ b) 2n-1
a) Give the same frequency but different transmit c) n + ½
times d) n + ¾
b) Result from excessive transit time across the 68. Radiation from a helical antenna is ________
resonator gap a) Plane polarized
c) Are caused by spurious frequency modulation b) Partially plane polarized
d) Are just for theoretical considerations c) Circularly polarized
62. Klystron operates on the principle of ________ d) Elliptically polarized
a) Amplitude modulation 69. In microwave radar, pulse repetition frequency
b) Frequency modulation is used to resolve range and Doppler ambiguities
c) Pulse modulation using ________
105
a) CW radar c) Is not suited for pulse operation
b) Pulsed radar d) Has a high repeller voltage to ensure small transit
c) Moving target indicator time
d) Pulse-Doppler radar 78. A ________ has a pencil beam to receive echoes
70. The abbreviation of DME is _________ from target.
a) Distance modifying equipment a) Ground radar
b) Depth measuring equipment b) Weather radar
c) Distance measuring exchanger c) Tracking radar
d) Distance measuring equipment d) None
71. In a klystron amplifier the input cavity is called 79. The microwave tube amplifier that uses an axial
________ magnetic field and radial electric field is ________
a) Buncher a) Reflex klystron
b) Catcher b) CFA
c) Pierce gun c) Coaxial magnetron
d) Collector d) Travelling wave magnetron
72. A multicavity klystron is used in _______ 80. The cause of “second time around” echoes is
a) UHF TV transmitter _______
b) Radar transmitter a) Echoes that arrive after transmission of the next
c) Satellite communication pulse
d) All b) Extreme ends of bandwidth
c) Second time reflection from target
73. The abbreviation of LORAN is _______
d) Echoes returning from targets beyond the
a) Long Radar Navigation System
cathode ray tube range
b) Long Range Navigation System
c) Limited range Navigation System 81. VOF stands for ________
d) Limited Radar Navigation System a) Visually operated radar
b) Voltage output of regulator
74. Radar altimeter is used for determining
c) VHF omni range
_______ of plane above ground.
a) Width
b) Height 82. In synchronization with the antenna, the
c) Both (a) and (b) deflection coils must be rotated to ensure correct
d) None of the above a) Bearing of target displayed
b) Range of target displayed
75. _______ satellite is used to provide
c) Frequency of transmission
communication over polar region.
d) Amplitude of echoes
a) Geostationary satellite
b) Geosynchronous satellite 83. Let the maximum range of radar be doubled
c) Molniya Satellite with all the other factors remaining constant. The
d) None peak power must be increased ________
a) 32 fold
76. Radar principle is used in ________
b) 4 fold
a) Detection of aircraft
c) 16 fold
b) Burglar alarms
d) 8 fold
c) Garage door openers
d) All the above 84. Radar displays ________
a) A-scope
77. Multicavity klystron ________
b) B-scope
a) Is not a microwave device
c) PPI
b) Is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
106
d) All d) Inclined to the helix axis by about 45 degree
85. Standard mismatching in microwave circuits 92. The frequency range of TWT is ________
have SWR from ________ a) 0.5 GHz to 90 GHz
a) 1:0.5 to 2:1 b) 0.4 GHz to 50 GHz
b) 1.2:1 to 2:1 c) 0.5 GHz to 80 GHz
c) 0.5:1 to 2:1 d) None of these
d) 1.33:1 to 2:1
86. The remedy for the problem of “blind speed” is 93. The efficiency of TWT is about
_______ a) 5 to 11 %
a) Variation of PRF b) 11 to 20 %
b) Use of monopulse c) 5 to 15 %
c) Change in Doppler frequency d) 5 to 20%
d) Use of MTI
94. If a microstrip is enclosed in a metal enclosure
87. Let the cross-section of a target is changing. In a) The radiation losses are increased
this case tracking is generally done by _______ b) The radian losses are reduced RL
a) Duplex scanning c) The capacitance becomes zero
b) Monopulse d) The inductance becomes zero
c) Duplex switching
95. In laboratory experiment the output from reflex
d) Any of the above
klystron is moderated by square wave because
88. The reverse voltage applied to a varactor diode ________
_______ a) It is easy to generate a square wave
a) Is less than avalanche breakdown voltage b) Crystal diode operates in square law region of I-
b) Is more than avalanche breakdown voltage V characteristics
c) May be more or less than a avalanche breakdown c) It prevents frequency modulation
voltage d) Detector circuit is less complicated
d) Is very high as compared to avalanche
96. The maximum range of a radar, when the
breakdown voltage
transmitted power is 250 Kw, cross sectional area
89. _____ radar ,the transmitted beam is steered in of the target is 12.5 sq m, minimum power received
angle electronically. is 10-13 watt, receiver gain is 2000 and operating
a) Monopulse radar wavelength = 16 cm.
b) Pulse compressed radar a) 390.22 km
c) Phased array radar b) 930 km
d) MTI c) 200.39 km
90. The doppler shift when tracking a car moving d) None of these
away from radar at 100 miles/hour. If radar is 97. A radar operating at 3 GHz radiating power of
operating at 1 GHz. 200 kW. The power of the reflected signal at the
a) 333.34 Hz radar with a 20 m2 target at 300 nautical miles, (Ae
b) 628.34 Hz = 9 m2) is
c) 389.43 Hz a) 27.034 × 10-15 watt
d) None of these b) 34.027 × 10-15 watt
91. The electric field in a TWT due to applied signal c) 24.027 × 10-15 watt
is d) None of these
a) Directed along the helix axis 98. An S-band radar transmitting at 3 GHz radiates
b) Directed radially from helix axis 200 kW. The signal power density at ranges 100
c) Inclined to the helix axis by about 60 degree nautical miles if the Ae = 9 M2, is
107
a) 5.248 mw/m2 b) 717 km
b) 5.428 Mw/m2 c) 700 km
c) 24.3 Mw/m2 d) None of these
d) None of these 100. A radar system transmits pulses of duration of
99. The maximum range of radar which operates at 2 𝜇𝑠 and repetition rate of 1 KHz. The maximum and
a frequency of 10 GHz, peak pulse power of 600 kW. minimum ranges for radar are respectively
If the antenna effective area is 5 m2 and the area of a) Rmax = 150 km, Rmin = 300m
target is 20 m2, minimum receivable power is 10-13 b) Rmax = 1500 km, Rmin = 300m
watt, is c) Rmax = 3000 km, Rmin = 300m
a) 200 km d) None of these
Answer Key:
1. (a) 11. (a) 21. (d) 31. (d) 41. (c) 51. (a) 61. (a) 71. (d) 81. (c) 91. (a)
2. (d) 12. (b) 22. (b) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (d) 62. (a) 72. (d) 82. (a) 92. (a)
3. (c) 13. (d) 23. (c) 33. (a) 43. (d) 53. (a) 63. (b) 73. (b) 83. (c) 93. (d)
4. (a) 14. (d) 24. (b) 34. (b) 44. (c) 54. (a) 64. (a) 74. (b) 84. (d) 94. (b)
5. (b) 15. (b) 25. (b) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (c) 85. (b) 95. (b)
6. (a) 16. (d) 26. (c) 36. (a) 46. (a) 56. (d) 66. (b) 76. (d) 86. (a) 96. (c)
7. (a) 17. (d) 27. (d) 37. (b) 47. (d) 57. (c) 67. (d) 77. (b) 87. (b) 97. (a)
8. (a) 18. (b) 28. (c) 38. (c) 48. (a) 58. (d) 68. (c) 78. (c) 88. (a) 98. (a)
9. (b) 19. (b) 29. (b) 39. (c) 49. (a) 59. (c) 69. (c) 79. (b) 89. (c) 99. (b)
10.(d) 20. (c) 30. (d) 40. (b) 50. (b) 60. (a) 70. (d) 80. (a) 90. (a) 100.(b)
Solutions:
4. (a) = 26.7 m/sec
1
𝜆 = 0.03 m
Since 𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥 ∝ 𝑃𝑡 4
2𝑣
1 ∆𝑓 = = 1.78 KHz
𝜆
𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥1 𝑃𝑡 4
= ( 1) 6. (a)
𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥2 𝑃𝑡2
If 𝑃𝑡1 = 𝑃𝑡 Given: f = 2×109 Hz
and 𝑃𝑡2 = 16𝑃𝑡 PRF = 1×103 Hz
𝑐
1 𝜆= = 0.15m
𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥1 𝑃𝑡 4 𝑓
then =( )
𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥2 16 𝑃𝑡 Blind speeds are given by
1 𝑛𝜆
𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥1 = 𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥2 𝑣𝑏 = 𝑃𝑅𝐹 ( )
2 2
(𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥2 ) = 2(𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥1 ) Now, for n = 1 𝑣𝑏 = 270 km/hr
for n = 2 𝑣𝑏 = 540 km/hr
5. (b)
for n = 3 𝑣𝑏 = 810 km/hr
Given: v = 96 km/h
f = 10 ×109 Hz 7. (a)
v = 96×1000 m/hr ∆𝑡 = 9.15 𝜇 sec
108
𝑐∆𝑡 Pt = 200 kW = 200×103 watts
𝑅=
2 R = 100 nautical miles (100 nm)
3×108 ×9.15×10−6 R = 100 nm = 1.852×105 m
𝑅=
2 Ae = 9 m2
= 1.372 km
𝛌 = 0.1 m
90. (a) 4𝜋𝐴𝑒
Gt = = 11.3×103
Given: v = 100 miles/hr 𝜆2
f = 1 GHz Now, power density by directive antenna is given

1 mile/hr = 0.5 m/s by,
𝑃𝑡 𝐺𝑡
100 miles/hr = 100×0.5 = 50 m/sec P=
4𝜋𝑅 2
𝑐 200×103 ×11.3×103
𝛌= = 0.3 m/sec =
𝑓 4𝜋×(1.852×105 )2
Car is moving away from radar, therefore = 5.248 mW/m2
𝜃 = 00 and cos 00 = 1
2𝑣 cos 𝜃 99. (b)
Doppler shift ∆𝑓 = = 333.34 Hz
𝜆 Given: Pt = 600 kW
96. (c) Pt = 600×103 watts
1
𝑃𝑡 𝐺𝑡2 𝜆2 𝑆 4 S = 20 m2
𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 =[ ] Ae= 5 m2
(4𝜋)3 𝑃𝑚𝑖𝑛
Put given values as, f= 10×109 Hz
𝑃𝑡 =250×103 watt, 𝑆 = 12.5 m2, 𝛌 = 0.03m
𝑃𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 10−13 , 𝐺𝑡 = 2000, 𝜆 = 0.16m Pmin = 10−13 watts
4𝜋𝐴𝑒
𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 200.39 km Gt = = 69.813×103
𝜆2
1
97. (a) 𝑃𝑡 𝐺𝑡2 𝜆2 𝑆 4
Rmax= [(4𝜋)3 ]
Given: 𝑓 = 3×109 Hz 𝑃𝑚𝑖𝑛
1
𝑃𝑡 = 200×103 watt =
[(600×103 )(69.813×103 )(5×20)]4
(4𝜋2 )(10−13 )
S = 20 m2 3
= 717.639×10
R = 300nm
= 717km
= 300×1852 m
= 555600 m 100. (b)
= 5.556×105 m Pulse repetition freq.
𝛌=
𝑐
= 0.1 m fr= 1×103 Hz
𝑓
P.W. (pulse width) = 2𝜇sec
4𝜋𝐴𝑒
𝐺𝑡 = = 11.3×103 Rmax =
𝑐
=
3×108
= 150×103 m
𝜆2 2𝑓𝑟 2×103
𝑃𝑡 𝐺𝑡 𝐴𝑒 𝑆 𝐶×𝑃𝑊
𝑃𝑟 = Rmin =
(4𝜋)2 𝑅4 2
3×108 ×2×10−6
= 27.034×10−15 watt =
2
98. (a) = 300 m

Given: f = 3 GHz = 3×109 Hz
10. INSTRUMENTATION
109
Accuracy, precision and repeatability – Electronic instruments for measuring basic
parameters – Theory of Oscilloscope – Signal generators – Signal analyzers – Characteristics
and construction of transducers.
1. Transducer is a device which [EKT 1 2015 EEE] c) Humidity

a) Converts one form of power in to the other d) Both (a) and (b)
b) Is similar to transformer 8. The microcomputer performs its computations in
c) Helps in measuring electricity a) Mechanical form
d) Converts one form of energy in to other b) Either digital or analog form depending on their
2. An ammeter is a applications
a) Integrating instrument c) Analog form
b) Recording instrument d) Digital form
c) Absolute instrument 9. Precision of an instrument is defined as
d) Secondary instrument a) Change in output for every change in input
3. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring b) Closeness of output to the true value
system are c) Degree of freedom from random errors
a) Accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility d) Both (a) and (b)
b) Accuracy and reproducibility 10. The error of an instrument is normally given as a
c) Static error percentage of
d) Drift and dead zone a) Full scale value
4. An oscilloscope indicates b) Mean value
a) DC value of voltage c) RMS value
b) Peak to peak value of voltage d) Measured value
c) RMS value 11. The instruments are used for the measurement
d) Average value of pressure is/are
5. To increase the current sensitivity below 10mV, a) Fiber optic pressure sensors
electronic instrument uses b) Diaphragms
a) Amplifiers c) Bellows
b) Modulator d) All of these
c) Transducer 12. For measuring current at high frequency, we
d) Oscillator should use
6. The scale of rectifier instrument is a) Thermocouple instrument
a) Both linear and non-linear b) Moving iron instrument
b) Non-linear c) Electrostatic instrument
c) Linear d) None of these
d) Either linear or non-linear 13. Accuracy of an measuring instrument indicates
7. Potentiometer transducers are used for the the
measurement of a) Closeness of the output reading to the true value
a) Pressure b) Ratio of output value to the input value
b) Displacement c) Change in output with each change in input
110
d) Degree of freedom from random errors c) LVDT
14. Systematic errors are d) Strain gauge
a) Observational errors 22. For an instrument, the degree of repeatability or
b) Environmental errors reproducibility in measurements is an alternative
c) Instrumental errors way of
d) All of the above a) Accuracy
15. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature b) Sensitivity
coefficient is c) Precision
a) Zero d) Linearity
b) Positive 23. Strain gauge is a
c) Negative a) Active device and converts mechanical
d) None of these displacement into a change of resistance
16. The resistance can be measured most accurately b) Passive device and converts electrical
by displacement into a change of resistance
a) Multi-meter c) Passive device and converts mechanical
b) Bridge method displacement into a change of resistance
c) Megger d) Active device and converts electrical displacement
d) Voltmeter-ammeter method into a change of resistance
17. It is required to study the transients during 24. ______ is used to measure the amplitudes of two
switching process. Which CRO should be preferred? signals and also the phase difference between them
a) Dual beam CRO a) Waveform meter
b) Storage oscilloscope b) Phase meter
c) Dual traces CRO c) Vector voltmeter
d) Ordinary CRO d) Digital voltmeter
18. Electronic voltmeters can be designed to 25. A power factor meter has
measure a) One current circuit and two pressure circuits
a) Only very small voltages b) One current circuit and one pressure circuit
b) Both very small and very high voltages c) Two current circuits and one pressure circuit
c) Only very high voltages d) None of these
d) None of these 26. For measurement of surface temperature of
19. In a CRO, the frequency of output of time base solids, the elements of RTD is usually in the shape of
generator a) Bar
a) Is adjustable b) Flat grid
b) Is only one constant value c) Coil
c) Varies automatically d) Either (a) or (b)
d) Either (a) or (c) 27. If the instrument is to have a wide range, the
20. An Ohmmeter is a instrument should have
a) Dynamometer instrument a) Exponential scale
b) Moving iron instrument b) Logarithmic scale
c) Moving coil instrument c) Linear scale
d) None of these d) Square-law scale
21. Which of the following does not use the principle 28. In electronic voltmeters, the measuring device is
of change in inductance? a
a) Reluctance pick up a) Dynamometer instrument
b) Inductance displacement transducer b) Moving iron instrument
111
c) Moving coil instrument c) Saw tooth waveform
d) None of these d) All of these
29. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to 37. Which of the following instrument can be used
full scale deviation of the instrument is called for both AC and DC?
a) Accuracy or precision a) PMMC
b) Static sensitivity b) Moving iron type
c) Linearity c) Induction type
d) Dynamic deviation d) None of these
30. Shaft encoder is used to measure 38. Bourdon tube is used for the measurement of
a) Linear acceleration gauge pressure of
b) Linear velocity a) Gas
c) Linear position b) Liquid fluid
d) Angular position c) Both (a) and (b)
31. The linear variable differential transformer d) None of these
(LVDT) transducer is 39. A thermocouple instrument can be used for the
a) Inductive transducer measurement of
b) Non-inductive transducer a) AC only
c) Capacitive transducer b) DC only
d) Resistive transducer c) Both DC and AC
32. The rectifier instrument is not free from d) Either DC or AC
a) Wave shape error 40. Which of the following is measured by using a
b) Temperature error vector voltmeter?
c) Frequency error a) Amplifier gain and phase shift
d) All of the above b) Filler transfer function
33. A dual trace CRO has c) Complex insertion loss
a) One electron gun d) All of the above
b) One electron gun with one two-pole switch 41. The instrument having its deflection depends
c) Two electron guns with two one-pole switch upon average value is
d) Two electron guns a) Rectifier type
34. The repeat accuracy of an instrument can be b) Induction type
judged from its c) Hot wire
a) Static error d) Moving iron
b) Dynamic error 42. Advantage of passive instrument is
c) Standard deviation of error a) Sensitive
d) Linearity error b) Accurate
35. Using of high permeability core in moving iron c) It does not need power supply
instrument helps in d) Cheap
a) Decreasing sensitivity 43. Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so
b) Reducing temperature error that
c) Reducing size of meter a) Its sensitivity is high
d) Increasing sensitivity b) It may draw current minimum possible
36. An rms reading voltmeter can accurately measure c) Its range is high
voltages of d) Its accuracy is high
a) Sine waveform 44. The transducer used for the measurements is/are
b) Square waveform a) Resistance temperature detectors
112
b) Thermistors d) That it measures the amplitude of a single at two
c) Ultrasonic points and at the same time measures their phase
d) All of these difference
45. Piezoelectric effect can be used to measure 52. A transducer that converts measurand into the
a) Force form of pulse is called
b) Strain a) Digital transducer
c) Acceleration b) Analog transducer
d) All of the above c) Pulse transducer
46. In electronic voltmeter, the range of input d) Passive transducer
voltages can be extended by using 53. The output reading of an instrument is
a) Input attenuator a) Exponentially proportional to the quantity being
b) Functional switch measured
c) Rectifier b) Inversely proportional to the quantity being
d) Balanced bridge DC amplifier measured
47. The response of thermistor overs the whole of its c) Linearly proportional to the quantity being
temperature range is measured
a) Non-linear d) Not related to the quantity being measured
b) Linear 54. A ohmmeter is basically a
c) Almost linear a) Watt meter
d) Either (b) or (c) b) Multi-meter
48. Self generating type transducers are ______ c) Voltmeter
transducers d) Ammeter
a) Passive 55. Which of the following is a digital transducer?
b) Active a) Encoder
c) Secondary b) Strain gauge
d) Inverse c) Thermistor
49. For the measurement of pressure the d) LVDT
instruments used can be 56. The wave applied to X plates, for obtaining trace
a) Electro-mechanical of voltage wave is
b) Electronic a) Sinusoidal wave
c) Mechanical b) Saw tooth wave
d) All of these c) Rectangular wave
50. The measurement of digital voltmeter is d) Either (a) or (c)
a) 100kV to 100MV 57. Resolution of a transducer depends on
b) 1kV to 1MV a) Length of wire
c) 1V to 1kV b) Diameter of wire
d) 1V to 1MV c) Material of wire
51. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based d) Excitation voltage
on 58. Which of the following is not the type of digital
a) Same as digital meter voltmeter?
b) That it works on the principle of complex variation a) Integrating
c) That it measures the response of linear ramp b) Potentiometric type
voltage c) Ramp
d) None of these
113
59. Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are d) Clock pulses are generated
examples of 67. The capacitive transducers are normally
a) Passive transducers employed for _______ measurements.
b) Active transducers a) Dynamic
c) Primary transducers b) Static
d) Analog transducers c) Transient
60. The use of thermocouple meters for an AC d) Both static and dynamic
measurement leads to a scale which is 68. The input impedance of CRO is about
a) Exponential a) 100 ohm
b) Linear b) 10 ohm
c) Square law c) 1 mega ohm
d) Logarithmic d) Zero
61. Inverse transducer is a device which converts 69. Piezoelectric transducers are
a) An electrical quantity into thermal energy a) Passive transducers
b) An electrical quantity into mechanical quantity b) Inverse transducers
c) An electrical quantity into a non-electrical quantity c) Active transducers
d) An electrical quantity into light energy d) Digital transducers
62. LVDT is a 70. In the beginning all the outputs of the successive
a) Acceleration transducer approximation type register is at
b) Velocity transducer a) Logic zero
c) Pressure transducer b) Logic one
d) Displacement transducer c) Toggling
63. Which of the following can be measured with the d) None of these
help of piezoelectric crystal? 71. In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages
a) Velocity a) Vary unequally depending on the core position
b) Force b) Vary equally depending on the core position
c) Sound c) Are independent of the core position
d) Pressure d) Are always in phase quadrature
64. It is required that a strain gauge has gauge factor 72. When measuring phase angle between two
of 100. The proper strain gauge is waves using a CRO, the time base generator is
a) Nichrome strain gauge connected to
b) Constantan strain gauge a) Y plate
c) Semiconductor strain gauge b) X plate
d) Alloy strain gauge c) X and Y plates
65. Which of the following draws minimum power d) Neither X nor Y Plates
from source? 73. Which of the following instruments is used almost
a) PMMC exclusively to measure radio frequency currents?
b) Moving iron voltmeter a) Rectifier
c) Electrostatic voltmeter b) Moving iron
d) Electronic voltmeter c) Thermocouple
66. In a ramp type DVM, the multivibrator d) Moving coil
determines the rate at which the 74. Introduction of dielectric
a) Measurement cycles are initiated a) Reduces the breakdown voltages
b) It oscillates b) Reduces the mechanical voltage
c) Its amplitude varies c) Increases the capacitance
114
d) Increases the size of the capacitor b) Secondary emission
75. A linear displacement digital transducer generally c) Deflection
uses d) Diffusion
a) BCD 83. The speed transducer using a drag cup rotor has
b) Gray code the main advantage of
c) Straight binary code a) Low energy requirement
d) Hexadecimal code b) Cheap construction
76. A capacitance transducer can be used to c) Very high accuracy
measured d) None of these
a) Displacement 84. Q meter is used to measure the properties of
b) Thickness of sheet a) Inductive coils
c) Level of fluids b) Non-inductive coils
d) All of the above c) Capacitive coils
d) Both (a) and (c)
77. The increase in intensity of trace in a CRO causes
a change in 85. The decibel is a measure of
a) Accelerating voltage a) Voltage
b) Gain of Y amplifier b) Current
c) Frequency of time base c) Power level
d) Beam current d) Power
78. The main advantage of crystal oscillator is that its 86. A voltmeter using thermocouple measures
output is a) Average value
a) Variable frequency b) RMS value
b) 50Hz to 60Hz c) Peak value
c) DC d) Peak to peak value
d) A constant frequency range 87. Heating effect of current is used in
79. Which of the following effects is used in a) Both ammeter and voltmeter
measuring power? b) Ammeter
a) Induction c) Voltmeter
b) Seebeck d) Wattmeter
c) Ferrari
d) Hall 88. A digital frequency counter can be converted to
80. The difference between the measured value and DVM by addition of a suitable
true value is called a) D/A converter
a) Gross error b) Power amplifier
b) Absolute error c) Operational amplifier
c) Probable error d) Voltage controlled oscillator
d) Relative error
81. In a thermocouple temperature transducer, the 89. Pressure transducer for measuring blood
output voltage is usually measured by
pressure is
a) High resistance milli-voltmeter a) Fiber optic transducer
b) High resistance voltmeter b) Resistive transducer
c) High resistance ammeter c) Strain gauge transducer only
d) None of these d) Strain gauge or capacitive transducer
82. Storage oscilloscope operates on the principle of 90. Which of the following is not a mechanical
a) Primary emission pressure sensing element?
115
a) Diaphragm c) Unit step
b) Bourdon tube d) None of these
c) U-tube 96. Which of the following can measure pressure
d) Bellows directly? [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
91. Quartz and Rochelle salt belongs to ______ of a) LVDT
piezoelectric materials b) Strain gauge
a) Fiber group c) Rotameter tube
b) Natural or synthetic group d) Bourdon tube
c) Synthetic group 97. The sensitivity factor of a strain gauge is normally
d) Natural group of the order of
92. In CRO, the time base signal is applied to a) 5 to 10
a) Both X-plate and Y-plate b) 1 to 1.5
b) Either X-plate or Y-plate c) 1.5 to 2.0
c) Y-plates d) 0.5 to 1.0
d) X-plates 98. In a strain measuring device using a strain gauge,
93. The effect of lead resistance is important in the output quantity is
measurement of a) Voltage
a) Resistance of shunt b) Impedance
b) Resistance of ammeter c) Resistance
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
d) None of these 99. Which of the following is a desirable
94. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the characteristic of an instrument?
variation of a) High fidelity
a) Permanence b) High drift
b) Mutual inductance c) High measuring lag
c) Self inductance d) Poor reproducibility
d) Reluctance 100. In a CRO, which is not a part of an electron gun?
95. The response of a system to a sinusoidal input is a) Accelerating anode
called _______ response. b) X-Y plates
a) Frequency c) Cathode
b) Impulse d) Grid
Answer Key:
1. (d) 11. (d) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (d) 61. (c) 71. (a) 81. (a) 91. (d)
2. (d) 12. (a) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (c) 52. (c) 62. (d) 72. (d) 82. (b) 92. (d)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (c) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (c) 83. (a) 93. (c)
116
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (a) 34. (c) 44. (d) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (c) 84. (d) 94. (b)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (a) 35. (d) 45. (d) 55. (a) 65. (d) 75. (b) 85. (c) 95. (a)
6. (c) 16. (b) 26. (b) 36. (d) 46. (a) 56. (b) 66. (a) 76. (d) 86. (b) 96. (d)
7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (b) 37. (b) 47. (a) 57. (b) 67. (a) 77. (d) 87. (a) 97. (c)
8. (d) 18. (b) 28. (c) 38. (c) 48. (b) 58. (d) 68. (c) 78. (d) 88. (a) 98. (a)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (c) 39. (c) 49. (d) 59. (d) 69. (b) 79. (a) 89. (d) 99. (a)
10.(a) 20. (c) 30. (d) 40. (d) 50. (d) 60. (c) 70. (a) 80. (b) 90. (c) 100. (b)
117
11. ELECTRONIC DEVICES
Energy bands in Silicon - Intrinsic and extrinsic Silicon - Carrier transport in Silicon -
Generation and recombination of carriers - p-n junction diode - Zener diode - Tunnel diode -
BJT, JFET, MOS capacitor, MOSFET - LED, PIN and avalanche photo diode - Basics of LASER -
Device technology.
1. In class A operation of an amplifier the current 7. ______ is used for generating time varying wave
flows through the active device for ______ forms.
a) Whole of the input cycle [EKT 2 2015 EEE] a) MOSFET
b) Half of the input cycle b) PIN diode
c) More than half of the input cycle c) Tunnel diode
d) More than three fourth of the input cycle. d) UJT
2. P Type Semiconductor material as a whole is 8. What are the two main types of Access Control
a) Positively charges [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] Lists (ACLs)? [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
b) Negatively charged a) Standard
c) Electrically neutral b) IEEE
d) Dipole c) None
3. The general characteristic of semi conductors is d) Specialized
a) Linear device [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] 9. Crossover distortion does not occur in __________
b) Non linear device amplifiers. [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
c) Parabolic characteristic devices a) Push-pull
d) None of the above b) Class A
4. The amount of photoelectric emission current c) Class B
depends on d) Class AB
a) Frequency of incident radiation 10. Which resistive component is designed to be
b) Intensity of incident radiation temperature sensitive? [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
c) Both frequency and intensity of incident radiation a) Thermistor
d) None of the above b) Rheostat
5. The primary function of the bias circuit is to c) Potentiometer
a) Hold the circuit stable at Vcc [EKT 2 2015 MECH] d) Photoconductive cell
b) Hold the circuit stable at Vin 11. In a directional coupler [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
c) Ensure proper gain is achieved a) Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity
d) Hold the circuit stable at the designed Q-point b) Coupling (dB) equals isolation plus directivity
6. Permeance of a magnetic circuit corresponds to c) Directivity (dB) equals isolation plus coupling
the following quantity in electrical circuit d) Isolation (dB) equals (coupling) (directivity)
a) Conductivity 12. A transponder is a satellite equipment which
b) Resistivity [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT]
c) Conductance a) Receives a signal from earth station and amplifies
d) Resistance b) Changes the frequency of the received signal
118
c) Retransmits the received signal d) Equal to Vp
d) Does all of the above-mentioned functions 21. In zener and avalanche breakdown diodes,
13. Tracking of extra terrestrial objects requires current flow is due to ______
a) High transmitting power [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] a) Minority carriers
b) Very sensitive receiver b) Majority carriers
c) Fully steerable antenna c) Minority as well as majority carriers
d) All of the above d) None of these
14. A wrist grounding strap contains which of the 22. The breakdown that occurs in reverse bias
following: [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] conditions in narrow junction diodes is
a) Surge protector a) The zener breakdown [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
b) Capacitor b) The avalanche breakdown
c) Voltmeter c) Either zener or avalanche breakdown
d) Resistor d) None of these
15. A JFET ______ [EKT 2 2016 CSE/IT] 23. The dynamic impedance of zener diode
a) Is a current-controlled device a) Increases with increase in current through it
b) Has a low input resistance b) Decreases with increase in current through it
c) Is a voltage-controlled device c) Is independent of current passing through it
d) Is always forward-biased d) None of these
16. Crossover distortion occurs in _______ 24. In a voltage multiplier circuit diodes and
amplifiers. [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE] capacitors are suitable for _______
a) Class B a) High voltage and high current device
b) Class A b) High voltage low current device
c) Push-pull c) Low voltage low current device
d) Class AB d) Low voltage high current device
17. Emitter follower is used for _______ 25. In a zener diode _______
a) Reducing the gain [EKT 1 2015 EEE] a) Forward voltage rating is high
b) Increasing the distortion b) Negative resistance characteristic exists
c) Impedance matching c) Sharp breakdown occurs at low reverse low
d) None of these voltage
18. For Gunn diodes, semiconductor material d) None of these
preferred is [EKT 1 2015 EEE] 26. In a n-type semiconductor, the concentration of
a) Silicon minority carriers mainly depends upon ______
b) Germanium a) The doping technique
c) Gallium Arsenide b) The number of donor atoms
d) All of these c) The temperature of the material
19. The output of laser is _______ d) The quality of the intrinisic material, Ge or Si
a) Infrared [EKT 1 2015 EEE] 27. Donor type impurities ______
b) Polarized a) Create excess holes
c) Narrow beam b) Can be added to germanium, but not to silicon
d) Coherent c) Must have only three valence electrons
20. In a JFET drain current is maximum when VGS is d) Must have only five valence electrons
_______ [EKT 1 2015 EEE] 28. When the temperature of an intrinsic
a) Zero semiconductor is increased
b) Negative a) Resistance of the semiconductor increases
c) Positive b) Heat energy decreases the atomic radius
119
c) Holes are created in the conduction band 36. An electron in the conduction band _____
d) Energy of the atoms is increased a) Is bound to its parent atom
29. The movement of a hole is brought about by b) Is located near the top of the crystal
a) The vacancy being filled by a free electron c) Has no charge
b) The vacancy being filled by a valence electron from d) Has a higher energy than an a electron in the
a neighbouring atom. valence band
c) The movement of an atomic core 37. In amplifier applications FET is operated in the
d) The atomic core changing from a + 4 to a + 5 charge a) Controlled resistor region
30. If a small amount of antimony is added to b) Controlled source region
germanium c) Avalanche breakdown region
a) The resistance is increased d) None of these
b) The germanium will be a p-type semiconductor 38. In an FET as VGS is changed from zero to increasing
c) The antimony becomes an acceptor impurity reverse bias, the value of gm
d) There will be more free electrons than holes in the a) Increases
semiconductor b) Decreases
31. The conduction band ______ c) Remains constant
a) Is always located at the top of the crystal d) Falls suddenly to zero
b) Is also called the forbidden energy gap 39. The quiescent collector current Ic of a transistor is
c) Is a range of energies corresponding to the free increased by changing the biasing resistance. As a
electrons result gm will _____
d) Is not an allowed energy band a) Not be affected
32. Among these configuration in the lowest input b) Decrease
impedance is obtained by ______ c) Increase
a) CE d) Increase or decrease depending on bias stability
b) CC 40. In a silicon sample the electron concentration
C) CB drops linearly from 1018cm-3 to 1016cm-3 over a length
d) CE and CB of 2.0 μm. The current density due to the electron
33. Among the three configurations the highest diffusion current is (Dn=35 cm2/s)
output impedance is obtained by _______ a) 9.3 × 104 A/cm2
a) CE b) 2.8 × 104 A/cm2
b) CC c) 9.3 × 109 Acm2
c) CB d) 2.8 × 109 A/cm2
d) CE and CB 41. At very high temperature n-type semiconductor
34. A germanium atom contains _______ behaves as ______
a) Four protons a) Metal
b) Only two electron orbits b) Insulator
c) Four valence electrons c) Extrinsic semiconductor
d) Five valence electrons d) None of the above
35. When atom are held together by the sharing of 42. At very high temperature p-type semiconductor
valence electrons behaves as ______
a) They form a covalent bond a) Intrinsic semiconductor
b) The valence electrons are free to move away from b) Metal
the atom c) Extrinsic semiconductor
c) Each atom becomes free to move d) None of the above
d) Each shared electron leaves a hole
120
43. The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is 51. For a forward biased pn-junction diode diffusion
caused by ______ capacitance varies
a) Fast turn-on a) Linearly with current
b) Fast turn-off b) Square of current
c) Large collector-base reverses bias c) Inversely with current
d) Large emitter-base reverses bias d) Does not vary with current
44. On increasing very high temperature in p-type 52. The switching speed of pn-junction depends
semiconductor to the Fermi level will move primarily on
a) Upward a) Mobility of majority carriers in n-region
b) Downward b) Mobility of minority carriers in p-region
c) Anywhere c) Lifetime of minority carriers in p-region
d) None of these d) Lifetime of minority carriers in n-region
45. Velocity of an electron is ______
a) Proportional to mobility 53. In p-type semiconductor, there are
b) Inversely proportional to mobility a) No majority carriers
c) Constant b) Electrons as majority carriers
d) Proportional to the square of mobility c) Immobile positive ions
46. Fermi level for an intrinsic semiconductor lies d) Immobile negative ions
a) Near valence band 54. p-type semiconductor as a whole _______
b) Near conduction band a) Positively charged
c) Middle of valence and conduction band b) Negatively charged
d) Can lie anywhere c) Electrically neutral
47. If the resistance in a circuit with constant voltage d) Half of it positively charged and rest half negatively
increases, the current will charged
a) Increase [EKT 2 2015 CSE] 55. Which of the following statement is not true for a
b) Decrease hole?
c) Stay the same a) Holes may constitute an electric current
d) Not enough information b) Holes can be considered as a net positive charge
48. Fermi level for p-type semiconductor lies c) Holes can exist in any material including
a) Near valence band conductors
b) Near conduction band d) Holes can exist in certain semiconductor materials
c) In valence band only
In conduction band 56. The difference between a hole and a electron is
49. In a n-type semiconductor, as the donar that hole
impurities ND increases, the fermi level EF is a) Has no inertia
a) Remains alerted b) Has no mass
b) Moves towards valence band c) Has no momentum
c) Moves towards conduction band d) Always remains in the valence band
d) Shifting demands on temperature 57. A Clipper circuit always _______
50. In a n-type semiconductor, as temperature T a) Need a dc source
increases, the fermi level b) Clips both cycles of input signal
a) Moves towards conduction band c) Clips upper portion of the signal
b) Moves towards middle of forbidden energy gap d) Clips some part of the input signal
c) Does not shift 58. The primary function of a clamper circuit is to
d) Shifting depends on concentration of donor atoms a) Suppress variations in signal voltage
121
b) Raise positive half cycle of the signal a) Applied voltage
c) Lower negative half cycle of the signal b) Concentration gradient
d) Introduce a dc level into an ac signal c) Concentration
59. Depletion layer width ______ under _______ d) All of these
condition and ______ under _______ condition. 67. The bulk resistance of a diode is _______
a) Decreases, forward biased, increases, reverse a) The resistance of junction only
biased b) The resistance of p material only
b) Increases, forward biased, decreases reverse c) The resistance of n material only
biased d) The resistance of p and n material only
c) Decreases, reverse biased, Increases, forward 68. When the gate of a P- channel junction field
biased effect transistor is more positive, the drain current
d) None of these a) Is increased [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
60. When a diode is heavily doped ______ b) Is reduced
a) The zener voltage will be low c) Remains unaltered
b) The avalanche voltage will be high d) Decreases
c) The depletion region will be thin 69. When p-side is lightly doped as compare to the n-
d) The leakage current will be low side then penetration of depletion region
61. Leakage current of a junction diode ______ a) Is more on the p-side
a) Is due to majority carriers b) Is more on the n-side
b) Decreases with decreasing temperature c) Same on the both side
c) Is in mA or μA range d) None of these
d) None of these 70. Factors deciding the built in potential or barrier
62. A pn-junction has a thickness of the order of potential
a) 1 cm a) The intrinsic concentration before doping
b) 1 mm b) The level of doping on p and n sides
c) 106 cm c) Temperature
d) 1012 cm d) All of the above
63. Which diode(s) has (have) a zero voltage drop in 71. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the free electron
the ideal model? concentration depends on _____
a) Si a) Effective mass of electrons only
b) Ge b) Effective mass of holes only
c) Both Si and Go c) Temperature of the semiconductor
d) Neither Si nor Ge d) Width of the forbidden energy band of the
64. Bridge rectifiers are preferred because semiconductor
a) They require small transformer 72. In the standard TTL the totem pole stage refers to
b) Less peak inverse voltage [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
c) Both (A) and (B) a) The multi emitter I/p stage
d) None of these b) Phase shifter
65. Reverse saturation current in a pn-junction diode c) O/p buffer
_______ d) Open collector o/p stage
a) Increases with increasing reverse voltage 73. The units of (q/KT) are _______
b) Decreases with increasing reverse voltage a) V
c) Independent from the reverse voltage b) V-1
d) None of these c) J
66. Drift current in a pn-junction is influenced by d) J/K
122
74. N-Type silicon is obtained by doping silicon with d) The diffusion capacitance is much higher than the
________ depletion capacitance, when is forward biased.
a) Germanium 81. Under low level injection assumption, the
b) Aluminium injected minority carrier current for an extrinsic
c) Boron semiconductor is essentially the
d) Phosphorous a) Diffusion current
75. The band gap of silicon at room temperature is b) Drift current
______ c) Recombination current
a) 1.3 eV d) Induced current
b) 0.7 eV 83. SCR can be turned on by
c) 1.1 eV a) Applying anode voltage at sufficiently fast rate
d) 1.4 eV b) Applying sufficiently large anode voltage
76. In an N type silicon crystal at room temperature, c) Increasing the temperature of SCR to a sufficiently
which of the following can a concentration of 4×1019 large value
cm-3? d) Applying sufficiently large gate current
a) Silicon atoms
84. An infrared LED is usually fabricated from
b) Holes
a) Ge
c) Dopant atoms
b) Si
d) Valence atoms
c) GaAs
77. The ratio of the mobility to the diffusion d) GaAsP
coefficient in a semiconductor has the units
85. In a forward biased photo diode, with increase in
a) V-1
incident light intensity, the diode current
b) cm, V-1
a) Increases
c) V.cm-1
b. Remains constant
d) V.sec
c) Decreases
78. The diffusion capacitance of a PN junction d) Remains constant, but the voltage drop across the
a) Decrease with increasing current and increasing diode increases
temperature
86. In MOSFET devices, the N-channel type is better
b) Decreases with decreasing current and increasing
than the P-channel type in the following respects
temperature
a) It has better noise immunity
c) Increases with increasing current and increasing
b) It is faster
temperature
c) It is TTL compatible
d) Does not depend on current and temperature
d) None
79. _____ is NOT associated with a PN junction?
87. In a MOSFET, the polarity of the inversion layer is
a) Junction capacitance
the same as that of the
b) Charge storage capacitance
a) Charge on the gate electrode
c) Depletion capacitance
b) Minority carriers in the drain
d) Channel length modulation
c) Majority carriers in the substrate
80. The switching speed of P+N junction depends d) Majority carriers in the source
primarily on
88. ______ effects can be caused by a rise in the
a) All
temperature.
b) The depletion capacitance increases with decrease
a) Increase in MOSFET current
in the reverse bias
b) Increase in BJT current
c) The diffusion capacitance increases with increase
c) None
in the forward bias
d) Decrease in BJT current
123
89. _______ can be used as a voltage controlled 2. Mobility increases
capacitor. 3. Velocity saturates
a) MOSFET 4. Velocity increases
b) JFET a) 1 and 4 only
c) Both A and B b) 1 and 3 only
d) None c) All of the above
90. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in d) None of these
saturation decreases with increase in _______ 96. The ratio of diffusion constant to mobility of
a) Gate voltage carrier _______
b) Drain voltage a) Depends on temperature
c) Source voltage b) Varies within lifetime
d) Body voltage c) Universal constant
91. The value of resistor creating thermal noise is d) None of these
doubled .the noise power generated is 97. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is
a) Halved [EKT 2 2015 EEE] _______
b) Doubled a) Four
c) Unchanged b) Three
d) Doubled c) One
92. A voltage will influence current only if the circuit d) Two
is [EKT 2 2015 CSE] 98. In a p-n-p transistor, current carriers are
a) Open a) Acceptor ions
b) Insulated b) Donor ions
c) High resistance c) Free electrons
d) Closed d) Holes
93. Diffusion current in a pn-junction is influenced by 99. At the base emitter junction of a transistor, one
_______ finds ______
a) Applied voltage a) Reverse bias
b) Concentration gradient b) A wide depletion layer
c) Concentration c) Low resistance
d) All of these d) None of these
94. Drift current in a pn-junction is influenced by 100. Most of the majority carriers from emitter
a) Applied voltage a) Recombine in the base
b) Concentration gradient b) Recombine in the emitter
c) Concentration c) Pass through the base region to the collector
d) All of these d) None of the above
95. Under high electric fields, in a semiconductor
increasing electric field
1. Mobility decreases
124
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (a) 21. (b) 31. (c) 41. (a) 51. (a) 61. (b) 71. (c) 81. (a) 91. (c)
2. (a) 12. (d) 22. (a) 32. (c) 42. (a) 52. (d) 62. () 72. (c) 82. (d) 92. (d)
3. (b) 13. (d) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (c) 53. (d) 63. (c) 73. (b) 83. (c) 93. (b)
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (b) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (c) 64. (c) 74. (d) 84. (c) 94. (a)
5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (a) 35. (d) 45. (a) 55. (c) 65. (c) 75. (c) 85. (a) 95. (b)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c) 36. (a) 46. (c) 56. (a) 66. (a) 76. (c) 86. (b) 96. (a)
7. (d) 17. (c) 27. (d) 37. (a) 47. (b) 57. (d) 67. (d) 77. (a) 87. (d) 97. (d)
8. (a) 18. (c) 28. (d) 38. (b) 48. (a) 58. (d) 68. (b) 78. (b) 88. (b) 98. (b)
9. (b) 19. (d) 29. (b) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (a) 69. (a) 79. (d) 89. (a) 99. (c)
10.(a) 20. (a) 30. (d) 40. (b) 50. (b) 60. (c) 70. (d) 80. (a) 90. (b) 100.(c)
Solutions:
40. (b)
We know that electron current density
𝑑𝑛
𝐽𝑛 = 𝑞 𝐷𝑛
𝑑𝑥
1018 − 1016
𝐽𝑛 = 1.6×10−19 ×35 ( )
2×10−4
= 2.8×104 𝐴/𝑐𝑚2
125
12. ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Single phase transformer – Three phase transformer – Energy conversion principles – DC

Machines – Single phase and Three phase induction motors – Starting motors: Servo and
stepper motors – Synchronous machine generators.

1. The two windings of a transformer is b) The angular displacement cannot be precisely
a) Conductively linked controlled
b) Inductively linked c) It cannot be used for positioning of work tables
c) Not linked at all and tools in NC machines
d) Electrically linked d) It cannot be used for positioning of work tables
2. A salient pole synchronous motor is running at and tools in NC machines
no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor 6. The power factor of a squirrel cage induction
will motor is
a) Come to stop a) Low at light load only
b) Continue to run at synchronous speed b) Low at heavy load only
c) Continue to run at a speed slightly more than c) Low at light and heavy load both
the synchronous speed d) Low at rated load only
d) Continue to run at a speed slightly less than the 7. The generation voltage is usually
synchronous speed a) Between 11 KV and 33 KV
3. The DC series motor should always be started b) Between 132 KV and 400 KV
with load because c) Between 400 KV and 700 KV
a) At no load, it will rotate at dangerously high d) None of the above
speed 8. When a synchronous motor is running at
b) It will fail to start synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
c) It will not develop high starting torque a) Damping torque
d) All are true b) Eddy current torque
4. The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase c) Torque aiding the developed torque
50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is d) No torque
about 9. If a transformer primary is energized from a
a) 50 Hz square wave voltage source, its output voltage will
b) 20 Hz be
c) 2 Hz a) A square wave
d) Zero b) A sine wave
5. In a stepper motor the angular displacement c) A triangular wave
a) Can be precisely controlled d) A pulse wave
126
10. In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic b) Wound rotor induction motor
torque developed is proportional to c) Synchronous motor
a) 𝐼𝑎 d) DC shunt motor
b) 𝐼𝑎2 17. A hysteresis motor
1
c) a) Is not a self-starting motor
𝐼𝑎
1 b) Is a constant speed motor
d)
𝐼𝑎2
c) Needs dc excitation
11. In a DC machine, the armature mmf is d) Cannot be run in reverse speed
a) Stationary with respect to armature 18. The most suitable servomotor for low power
b) Rotating with respect to field applications is
c) Stationary with respect to field a) A dc series motor
d) Rotating with respect to brushes b) A dc shunt motor
12. In a transformer the voltage regulation will be c) An ac two-phase induction motor
zero when it operates at d) An ac series motor
a) Unity p.f 19. The size of a conductor used in power cables
b) Leading p.f depends on the
c) Lagging p.f a) Operating voltage
d) Zero p.f leading b) Power factor
13. The emf induced in the primary of a c) Current to be carried
transformer d) Type of insulation used
a) Is in phase with the flux 20. Out of the following methods of heating the
b) Lags behind the flux by 90 degree one which is independent of supply frequency is
c) Leads the flux by 90 degree a) Electric arc heating
d) Is in phase opposition to that of flux b) Induction heating
14. The relative speed between the magnetic c) Electric resistance heating
fields of stator and rotor under steady state d) Dielectric heating
operation is zero for a
21. An alternator is delivering rated current at
a) DC machine
rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If
b) 3 phase induction machine
it is required to deliver rated current at rated
c) Synchronous machine
voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required
d) All of these
excitation will be
15. The current from the stator of an alternator is a) Less
taken out to the external load circuit through b) More
a) Slip rings c) More or less
b) Commutator segments d) The same
c) Solid connections
22. A ceiling fan uses
d) Carbon brushes
a) Split-phase motor
16. A motor which can conveniently be operated b) Capacitor start and capacitor run motor
at lagging as well as leading power factors is c) Universal motor
a) Squirrel cage induction motor d) Capacitor start motor
127
23. A stepper motor is a) Increases
a) A dc motor b) Does not change
b) A single-phase ac motor c) Decreases
c) A multi-phase motor d) Increases proportionately
d) A two phase motor 30. A synchro has
24. The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to a) A 3-phase winding on rotor and a single-phase
a) Provide strength to the cable winding on stator
b) Provide proper insulation b) A 3-phase winding on stator and a commutator
c) Prevent the moisture from entering the cable winding on rotor
d) Avoid chances of rust on strands c) A 3-phase winding on stator and a single-phase
25. The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a winding on rotor
a) DC motor d) A single-phase winding on stator and a
b) Induction motor commutator winding on rotor
c) Synchronous motor 31. The size of the feeder is determined primarily
d) Universal motor by
26. A 1 : 5 step-up transformer has 120V across the a) The current it is required to carry
primary and 600 ohms resistance across the b) The percent variation of voltage in the feeder
secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary c) The voltage across the feeder
current equals d) The distance of transmission
a) 0.2 Amp 32. In a three phase transformer, if the primary
b) 5 Amps side is connected in star and secondary side is
c) 10 Amps connected in delta, what is the angle difference
d) 20 Amps between phase voltages in the two cases?
27. In a 3-phase synchronous motor a) Delta side lags by -30°
a) The speed of stator MMF is always more than b) Star side lags by -30°
that of rotor MMF c) Delta side leads by 30°
b) The speed of stator MMF is always less than that d) Star side leads by -30°
of rotor MMF 33. To achieve low PT error, the burden value
c) The speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed should be
while that of rotor MMF is zero a) Low
d) Rotor and stator MMF are stationary with b) High
respect to each other c) Medium
28. In a capacitor start single-phase induction d) None of the above
motor, the capacitor is connected 34. Slip of the induction machine is 0.02 and the
a) In series with main winding stator supply frequency is 50 Hz. What will be the
b) In series with auxiliary winding frequency of the rotor induced emf?
c) In series with both the windings a) 10 Hz
d) In parallel with auxiliary winding b) 50 Hz
29. As the voltage of transmission increases, the c) 1 Hz
volume of conductor d) 2500 Hz
128
35. The synchronous reactance of the b) Shunt capacitors
synchronous machine is c) Shunt filters
a) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short d) Static compensators
circuit current at constant field current 41. An AC tachometer is just a ______ with one
b) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open phase excited from the carrier
circuit current at constant field current a) Two-phase A.C. servomotor
c) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short b) Two-phase induction motor
circuit current at different field current c) A.C. operated universal motor
d) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open d) Hybrid stepper motor
circuit current at different field current
42. The torque, in a ______ is proportional to the
36. In case of a universal motor, torque pulsation square of the armature current
is minimized by a) DC shunt motor
a) Load inertia b) Stepper motor
b) Rotor inertia c) 2-phase servomotor
c) Both rotor and load inertia d) DC series motor
43. The eddy current loss in an AC electric motor is
37. Inverse definite minimum time lag relay is also 100 watts at 50 Hz. Its loss at 100 Hz will be
called a) 25 watts
a) Pilot relay b) 59 watts
b) Differential relay c) 100 watts
c) Over current relay d) 400 watts
d) Directional over current relay 44. A commutator in a DC machine
38. The speed-torque characteristics of a DC series a) Reduces power loss in armature
motor are approximately similar to those of the b) Reduces power loss in field circuit
a) Universal c) Converts the induced AC armature voltage into
b) Synchronous direct voltage
c) DC shunt d) Is not necessary
d) Two phase
45. The efficiency of a transformer is mainly
39. The torque-speed characteristics of an a.c. dependent on
operated universal motor has a ______ a) Core losses
characteristic and it ______ be started under no- b) Copper losses
load condition c) Stray losses
a) inverse, can d) Dielectric losses
b) nearly inverse, can
46. The all-day efficiency of a transformer depends
c) inverse, cannot
on [EKT 1 2015 CSE]
d) nearly inverse, cannot
a) Its copper loss
40. In order to reduce the harmful effects of b) Its iron loss
harmonics on the A.C. side of a high voltage D.C. c) Both (a) and (b)
transmission system _______ are provided d) None of these
a) Synchronous condensers
129
47. One of the characteristic of single phase motor 53. Electric ovens using heating elements of
is that it [EKT 1 2015 CSE] ______ can produce temperature upto 3000°C
a) Is self starting a) Nickel
b) Is not self starting b) Graphite
c) Requires only one winding c) Chromium
d) Can rotate in one direction only d) Iron
48. A synchronous motor is operating on no-load 54. In DC generators, armature reaction is
at unity power factor. If the field current is produced actually by
increased, power factor will become a) Its field current
a) Leading & current will decrease b) Armature conductors
b) Lagging & current will increase c) Field pole winding
c) Lagging & current will decrease d) Load current in armature
d) Leading & current will increase 55. Two transformers operating in parallel will
49. The introduction of interpoles in between the share the load depending upon their
main pole improves the performance of D.C a) Rating
machines, because b) Leakage reactance
a) The interpole produces additional flux to c) Efficiency
augment the developed torque d) Per-unit impedance
b) The flux waveform is improved with reduction 56. As compared to shunt and compound DC
in harmonics motors, the series DC motor will have the highest
c) The inequality of air flux on the top and bottom torque because of its comparatively _______ at
halves of armature is removed the start
d) A counter e.m.f. is induced in the coil a) Lower armature resistance
undergoing commutation b) Stronger series field
50. Slip rings for induction motor are made of c) Fewer series turns
a) Copper [EKT 1 2015 CSE] d) Larger armature current
b) Phosphor Bronze 57. If Current in a circuit is 0 Ampere, it is likely that
c) Aluminium [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
d) Carbon a) Circuit is open
51. The direction of rotation of hysteresis motor is b) Circuit is closed
reversed by c) Resistance is too low
a) Shift shaded pole with respect to main pole d) Voltage is too high
b) Reversing supply lead 58. Regenerative braking
c) Either (a) or (b) a) Can be used for stopping a motor
d) Neither (a) nor (b) b) Cannot be easily applied to DC series motors
52. Low head plants generally use c) Can be easily applied to DC shunt motors
a) Pelton Turbines d) Cannot be used when motor load has
b) Francis Turbine overhauling characteristics
c) Pelton or Francis Turbine
d) Kaplan Turbines
130
59. At present level of technology, which of the 65. The temperature of resistance furnaces can be
following method of generating electric power controlled by changing the:
from sea is most advantageous? a) Applied voltage
a) Tidal power b) Number of heating elements
b) Ocean thermal energy conversion c) Circuit configuration
c) Ocean currents d) All of the above
d) Wave power 66. The line trap unit employed in carrier current
60. If the field circuits of an unloaded salient pole relaying
synchronous motor gets suddenly open circuited, a) Offers high impedance to 50 Hz power
then frequency signal
a) The motor stops b) Offers high impedance to carrier frequency
b) It continues to run at the same speed signal
c) Its runs at the slower speed c) Offers low impedance to carrier frequency
d) It runs at a very high speed signal
61. Electric resistance seam welding uses d) Both (a) and (c)
__________ electrodes. 67. Oil is provided in an oil filled transformer for
a) Pointed a) Insulation
b) Disc b) Cooling
c) Flat c) Both cooling and insulation
d) Domed d) Lubrication
62. No load current in a transformer: 68. The basic function of transformer is to change?
a) Lags the applied voltage by 90° a) The level voltage
b) Lags the applied voltage by somewhat less than b) The level frequency
90° c) Power factor level
c) Leads the applied voltage by 90° d) Power level
d) Leads the applied voltage by somewhat less 69. Transformer is used for
than 90° a) To step down voltage
63. The armature of a dc machine is laminated to b) To step up and step down primary voltage
reduce: c) To step up voltage
a) Eddy current loss d) None of above
b) Hysteresis loss 70. Breather is provided in a transformer to
c) Copper loss a) Absorb moisture of air during breathing
d) Friction and windage losses b) Filter of transformer oil
64. A single phase Hysteresis motor c) Provide cold air in transformer
a) Can run at synchronous speed only d) None of above
b) Can run at sub synchronous speed only 71. The leakage flux in a transformer depends
c) Can run at synchronous and super synchronous upon
speed a) The load current
d) Can run at synchronous and sub synchronous b) The frequency
speed c) The mutual flux
131
d) The applied voltage 79. Lamination of transformer core is made of
72. Commutator is used in [EKT 1 2015 EEE] a) Cast iron
a) DC generator b) Silicon steel
b) AC generator c) Cast steel
c) Invertors d) Aluminium
d) Convertors 80. Which of the following is minimized by
73. The stator of an induction motor is made of laminating the core of a transformer?
a) Carbon [EKT 1 2015 EEE] a) Eddy current loss
b) Wood b) Hysteresis loss
c) Copper stampings c) Copper loss
d) Silicon steel laminators d) Stray loss
74. An ideal DC generator is one that has ______ 81. The input power under no load condition of
voltage regulation [EKT 1 2015 EEE] transformer consists of
a) Low a) Core losses and very small amount of copper
b) High loss in primary
c) Zero b) Copper loss in transformers
d) Positive c) Core loss in transformers
75. The main purpose of performing open circuit d) None of above
test in a transformer is to measure its 82. Transformers operating in parallel will share
a) Core loss the load depending upon their
b) Copper loss a) Rating
c) Insulation resistance b) Percentage impedance
d) Total loss c) Leakage reactance
76. Principle of hysteresis is not used in d) None of above
a) Electrical water geyser [EKT 1 2015 EEE] 83. Which of the following is not a basic element
b) Electrical motor of a transformer?
c) Multi-vibrators a) Primary winding
d) Schmitt-trigger b) Secondary winding
77. Noise of transformer mainly due to c) Mutual flux
a) Noise generated by cooling fans d) Core
b) Magnetostriction in iron core 84. At relatively light load, transformer efficiency
c) Mechanical vibration is low because
d) All of above a) Transformer losses are high
78. What is the condition for maximum efficiency b) Secondary output is low
of a transformer? c) Fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
a) When copper loss = core loss d) Cu loss is small
b) When transformer run by unity power factor 85. A transformer transform
c) When copper loss = eddy current loss a) Voltage and current
d) When copper loss = hysteresis loss b) Voltage
c) Current
132
d) Frequency 92. Which of the following losses remain constant
86. When AC supply is given to the transformer, during normal operation of transformer?
the flux will depend on a) Copper loss
a) Current b) Transformer all losses
b) Voltage c) Core loss
c) Frequency d) None of above
d) Voltage and frequency 93. Transformer core are laminated in order to
87. No-load test on a transformer is carried out to a) Simplify its construction
determine b) Minimize eddy current loss
a) Copper loss c) Reduce cost
b) Magnetizing current and no-load current d) Reduce hysteresis loss
c) Magnetizing current 94. The main purpose of performing short circuit
d) All of above test in a transformer is to measure its
88. Which of the following losses varies with load a) Copper Loss
in transformer? b) Core Loss
a) Copper loss c) Total Loss
b) Core loss d) Insulation resistance
c) Transformer all losses 95. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer
d) None of above should have
89. A transformer has negative voltage regulation a) Low resistance
when its load power factor is b) Low reluctance
a) Lagging c) High resistance
b) Leading d) High reluctance
c) Unity 96. No-load current in a transformer
d) None of above a) Lags behind the voltage by about 75°
90. The essential condition for parallel operation b) Leads the voltage by about 75°
of two single-phase transformer is that they c) Lags behind the voltage by about 15°
should have the same d) Leads behind the voltage by about 25°
a) Polarity 97. Which of the following is not a part of
b) KVA ratings transformer?
c) Voltage ratio a) Breather
d) None of the above b) Conservator
91. Which one is used for constant street light c) Exciter
load? d) Buchholz relay
a) Current transformer 98. While conducting short-circuit test on a
b) Constant current transformer transformer the following side is short circuited
c) Power transformer a) Low voltage side
d) Potential transformer b) High voltage side
c) Primary side
d) Secondary side
133
99. Permeance of a magnetic circuit corresponds 100. Which of the following motors would not be
to the following quantity in electrical circuit suitable for use as servomotors? [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
a) Conductivity [EKT 1 2015 CSE] a) AC induction motor
b) Resistivity b) Brushless AC motor
c) Conductance c) Stepper motor
d) Resistance d) Permanent magnet DC moto
Answer Key:
1.(b) 11.(c) 21.(b) 31.(a) 41.(d) 51.(a) 61.(b) 71.(a) 81.(a) 91.(b)
2.(b) 12.(b) 22.(d) 32.(c) 42.(d) 52.(a) 62.(b) 72.(a) 82.(a) 92.(c)
3.(a) 13.(c) 23.(d) 33.(a) 43.(d) 53.(c) 63.(a) 73.(d) 83.(c) 93.(b)
4.(c) 14.(d) 24.(a) 34.(c) 44.(c) 54.(d) 64.(a) 74.(c) 84.(c) 94.(a)
5.(a) 15.(c) 25.(d) 35.(a) 45.(a) 55.(a) 65.(d) 75.(a) 85.(a) 95.(b)
6.(a) 16.(c) 26.(a) 36.(c) 46.(c) 56.(d) 66.(b) 76.(c) 86.(d) 96.(a)
7.(a) 17.(b) 27.(d) 37.(b) 47.(b) 57.(a) 67.(c) 77.(b) 87.(b) 97.(c)
8.(d) 18.(b) 28.(b) 38.(a) 48.(a) 58.(b) 68.(a) 78.(a) 88.(a) 98.(a)
9.(a) 19.(c) 29.(c) 39.(c) 49.(d) 59.(a) 69.(b) 79.(b) 89.(b) 99.(c)
10.(b) 20.(c) 30.(c) 40.(c) 50.(b) 60.(b) 70.(a) 80.(a) 90.(a) 100.(c)
Solutions:
26. a) = 0.02x 50 = 1.0 Hz
I1= V1 /R1 = 120/600 = 0.2 43. d)
(η = 100%, losses are zero ∴V1 = VR = I1R1) Eddy current losses 𝛼 𝑓 2
New loss 𝛼 (2𝑓)2
34. c)
New loss 𝛼 4𝑓 2
Given: s = 0.02, f = 50 Hz
∴ 4 times
Therefore, frequency of rotor induced emf = s f
134
13. CONTROL ENGINEERING
Application of open loop and closed loop systems - Principles of feedback - Determination of
transfer function by block diagram reduction method - Time domain analysis of first and
second order systems - Transient and steady-state errors - Damping and oscillations - Routh
and Nyquist techniques - Bode plots - Root loci - Lag, lead and lead-lag compensation - State
space model - State transition matrix - Controllability and observability.

1. In an open loop control system 6. Which of the following statements is not
a) Output is independent of control input necessarily correct for open control system?
b) Output is dependent on control input a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for
c) Only system parameters have effect on the control providing the control action
output b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
d) None of the above c) Less expensive
2. For open control system which of the following d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
statements is incorrect? 7. In open loop system
a) Less expensive a) The control action depends on the size of the
b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the system
required quality of the output b) The control action depends on system variables
c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy c) The control action depends on the input signal
d) Errors are caused by disturbances d) The control action is independent of the output
3. A control system in which the control action is 8. Which of the following has tendency to oscillate?
somehow dependent on the output is known as a) Open loop system
a) Closed loop system b) Closed loop system
b) Semiclosed loop system c) Both (a) and (b)
c) Open system d) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) None of the above 9. A good control system has all the following
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value features except
of feedback gain the overall gain of the system will a) Good stability
a) Decrease b) Slow response
b) Increase c) Good accuracy
c) Be unaffected d) Sufficient power handling capacity
d) Any of the above 10. A car is running at a constant speed of 50 km/h,
5. Which of the following is an open loop control which of the following is the feedback element for
system? the driver?
a) Field controlled D.C. motor a) Clutch
b) Ward Leonard control b) Eyes
c) Metadyne c) Needle of the speedometer
d) Stroboscope d) Steering wheel
135
11. The initial response when the output is not equal c) Car starter
to input is called d) Electric switch
a) Transient response 19. Which of the following devices are commonly
b) Error response used as error detectors in instruments?
c) Dynamic response a) Vernistats
d) Either of the above b) Microsyns
12. A control system working under unknown c) Resolvers
random actions is called d) Any of the above
a) Computer control system 20. Which of the following should be done to make
b) Digital data system an unstable system stable?
c) Stochastic control system a) The gain of the system should be decreased
d) Adaptive control system b) The gain of the system should be increased
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function
system. should be increased
a) Open d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function
b) Closed should be increased
c) Partially closed 21. Which of the following increases the steady state
d) Any of the above accuracy?
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the a) Integrator
controlled output is called a b) Differentiator
a) Feedback c) Phase lead compensator
b) Stimulus d) Phase lag compensator
c) Signal 22. A.C. servomotor resembles
d) Gain control a) Two phase induction motor
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open b) Three phase induction motor
loop system by which of the following? c) Direct current series motor
a) Servomechanism d) Universal motor
b) Feedback 23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback
c) Output pattern which of the following will not decrease?
d) Input pattern a) Band width
16. _______ is a part of the human temperature b) Overall gain
control system. c) Distortion
a) Digestive system d) Instability
b) Perspiration system 24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
c) Ear a) Oscillations
d) Leg movement b) Step input
17. By which of the following the control action is c) Negative sign
determined when a man walks along a path? d) Positive sign
a) Brain 25. The output of a feedback control system must e a
b) Hands function of
c) Legs a) Reference and output
d) Eyes b) Reference and input
18. Which is a closed loop system? e) Input and feedback signal
a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft d) Output and feedback signal
b) Direct current generator 26. _______ is an open loop control system.
136
a) Ward Leonard control b) Damping of the system
b) Field controlled D.C. motor c) The gain of the system
c) Stroboscope d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
d) Metadyne 34. Which of the following statements is correct for
27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to any closed loop system?
suffer from a) All the co-efficient can have zero value
a) Saturation in amplifying stages b) All the co-efficient are always non-zero
b) Loss of gain c) Only one of the static error co-efficient has a finite
c) Vibrations non-zero value
d) Oscillations d) None of the above
28. Zero initial condition for a system means 35. Which of the following statements is correct for a
a) Input reference signal is zero system with gain margin close to unity or a phase
b) Zero stored energy margin close to zero?
c) Initial movement of moving parts a) The system is relatively stable
d) System is at rest and no energy is stored in any of b) The system is highly stable
its components c) The system is highly oscillatory
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate d) None of the above
which of the following? 36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive
bond width in control systems should be avoided?
a) The order of the system [EKT 1 2015 EEE] a) It leads to slow speed of response
b) The time constant b) It leads to low relative stability
c) The output for any given input c) Noise is proportional to band width
d) The steady state gain d) None of the above
30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier. 37. In a stable control system backlash can cause
a) Remains unaffected which of the following?
b) Decreases by the same amount as the gain a) Under damping
increase b) Over damping
c) Increases by the same amount as the gain decrease c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
d) Decreases by the same amount as the gain d) Low-level oscillations
decrease 38. In an automatic control system which of the
31. On which of the following factors does the following elements is not used?
sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes a) Error detector
and load disturbances depend? b) Final control element
a) Frequency c) Sensor
b) Loop gain d) Oscillator
c) Forward gain 39. In a control system the output of the controller is
d) All of the above given to
32. The transient response, with feedback system, a) Final control element
a) Rises slowly b) Amplifier
b) Rises quickly c) Comparator
c) Decays slowly d) Sensor
d) Decays quickly 40. A controller, essentially, is a
33. The second derivative input signals modify which a) Sensor
of the following? b) Clipper
a) The time constant of the system c) Comparator
137
d) Amplifier c) Inductance
41. Which of the following is the input to a d) Capacitance
controller? 49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered
a) Servo signal analogous to
b) Desired variable value a) Heat flow
c) Error signal b) Reciprocal of heat flow
d) Sensed signal c) Reciprocal of temperature
42. The on-off controller is a _____ system. d) Temperature
a) Digital 50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
b) Linear a) Charge
c) Non-linear b) Current
d) Discontinuous c) Inductance
43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is d) Resistance
analogous to 51. The transient response of a system is mainly due
a) Momentum to
b) Velocity a) Inertia forces
c) Displacement b) Internal forces
d) Mass c) Stored energy
d) Friction
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical
system analogy, is considered analogous to 52. ______ signal will become zero when the
a) Voltage feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
b) Current a) Input
c) Capacitance b) Actuating
d) Charge c) Feedback
d) Reference
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the
current is considered analogous to 53. A signal other than the reference input that tends
a) Velocity to affect the value of controlled variable is known as
b) Pressure (a) Disturbance
c) Air flow (b) Command
d) Air flow rate (c) Control element
(d) Reference input
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy,
voltage is considered analogous to 54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the
a) Head following?
b) Liquid flow (a) Linear and time-in variant systems
c) Liquid flow rate b) Linear and time-variant systems
d) None of the above c) Linear systems
d) Non-linear systems
47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage
analogy, is analogous to 55. From which of the following transfer function can
a) Charge be obtained?
b) Resistance a) Signal flow graph
c) Reciprocal of inductance b) Analogous table
d) Reciprocal of conductance c) Output-input ratio
d) Standard block system
48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
a) Current 56. What is the reference input minus the primary
b) Charge feedback?
138
a) Manipulated variable b) Laplace Transform
b) Zero sequence c) Fourier Integral
c) Actuating signal d) Either (b) or (c)
d) Primary feedback 65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
57. The term backlash is associated with a) Smaller damping ratio
a) Servomotors b) Larger damping ratio
b) Induction relays c) Constant damping ratio
c) Gear trains d) None of the above
d) Any of the above 66. Static error co-efficient are used as a measure of
58. With feedback _______ increases. the effectiveness of closed loop systems for specified
a) System stability ________ input signal.
b) Sensitivity a) Acceleration
c) Gain b) Velocity
d) Effects of disturbing signals c) Position
d) All of the above
59. By which of the following the system response
can be tested better? 67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor
a) Ramp input signal stability at
b) Sinusoidal input signal a) Low frequencies
c) Unit impulse input signal b) Reduced values of open loop gain
d) Exponentially decaying signal c) Increased values of open loop gain
60. In a system zero initial condition means that
a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any 68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.
of its components a) No pole
b) The system is working with zero stored energy b) Net pole
c) The system is working with zero reference signals c) Simple pole
d) None of these d) Two poles
61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates 69. The type 1 system has ______ at the origin.
a) Reduced velocity lag error a) No pole
b) Increased velocity lag error b) Net pole
c) Increased speed of response c) Simple pole
d) Reduced time constant of the system d) Two poles
62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of 70. The type 2 system has at the origin.
a) Amplidyne set a) No net pole
b) Resistance-capacitance parallel circuit b) Net pole
c) Motor-generator set c) Simple pole
d) Any of the above d) Two poles
63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is 71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2
analogous to system are
a) Capacitance a) Constant, constant
b) Reciprocal of capacitance b) Constant, infinity
c) Current c) Zero, constant
d) Resistance d) Zero, zero
64. The frequency and time domain are related 72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured
through which of the following? when the input to the system is unit _______
a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral Function.
139
a) Parabolic c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Ramp d) Either (a) and (b)
c) Impulse 80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays
d) Step a) Independent of frequency
73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration b) Inverse proportional to frequency
is c) Increases linearly with frequency
a) Unity d) Decreases linearly with frequency
b) Infinity 81. In a stable control system saturation can cause
c) Zero which of the following?
d) 10 a) Low-level oscillations
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a b) High-level oscillations
system and the output remains below a certain level c) Conditional stability
for all the time, the system is d) Over damping
a) Not necessarily stable 82. Which of the following can be measured by the
b) Stable use of a tacho-generator?
c) Unstable a) Acceleration
d) Always unstable b) Speed
75. Which of the following is the best method for c) Speed and acceleration
determining the stability and transient response? d) Displacement
a) Root locus 83. Which is not a final control element?
b) Bode plot a) Control valve
c) Nyquist plot b) Potentiometer
d) None of the above c) Electro-pneumatic converter
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which d) Servomotor
of the following? 84. Which of the following is the definition of
a) Frequency response proportional band of a controller?
b) Absolute stability a) The range of air output as measured variable varies
c) Relative stability from maximum to minimum
d) Time response b) The range of measured variables from set value
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes c) The range of measured variables through which
which of the following? the air output changes from maximum to minimum
a) Lead-compensation d) Any of the above
b) Lag-compensation 85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve
c) Lead-lag compensation used as final control element converts
d) None of the above a) Pressure signal to electric signal
78. Technique is not applicable to nonlinear system? b) Pressure signal to position change
a) Nyquist Criterion c) Electric signal to pressure signal
b) Quasi linearization d) Position change to pressure signal
c) Functional analysis 86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the
d) Phase -plane representation following?
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly a) Differential bellows and strain gauge
underdamped system which of following b) Selsyn
compensators may be used? c) Strain gauge
a) Phase-lead d) Strain gauge and potentiometer
b) Phase-lag
140
87. Which of the following devices is used for 94. Which of the following is true about critically
conversion of co-ordinates? damped system?
a) Microsyn a) ξ = 1
b) Selsyn b) ξ < 1
c) Synchro-resolver c) ξ > 1
d) Synchro-transformer d) None of these
88. The effect of error damping is to 95. If the transfer function of a system is 1/(Ts+1), the
a) Provide larger settling lime steady state error to unit step input is
b) Delay the response a) T [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
c) Reduce steady state error b) Zero
d) Any of the above c) Infinite
89. Which technique gives quick transient and d) None of these
stability response? 96. ______ compensator increases the bandwidth of
a) Root locus the closed loop control system
b) Bode a) Lag Compensator
c) Nyquist b) Lead Compensator
d) Nichols c) Lag-Lead Compensator
90. A closed loop system is distinguished from open d) None of these
loop system by which of the following?
97. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) Servomechanism
a) PERT is probabilistic [EKT 2 2016 MECH]
b) Feedback
b) CPM is deterministic
c) Output pattern
c) In CPM is event oriented
d) Input pattern
d) None of these
91. As compared to a closed loop system an open
98. Which of the following technique requires less
loop system is [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
time?
a) More stable as well as more accurate
a) Gilbert’s test
b) Less stable as well as less accurate
b) Kalman’s test
c) More stable but less accurate
c) Jordaan’s test
d) Less stable but more accurate
d) None of these
92. In a closed loop control system
99. Close loop control system is better than the open
a) Control action depends upon the output and also
loop system due to [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
on the input command [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
a) Highest levels of amplification
b) Output signal is fed back to be compared with the
b) Feedback control
reference signal
c) Robust design features
c) The accuracy is better than in the open loop system
d) Easy to manufacture
d) All of the above
100. In a PID controller, the values of proportional,
93. The difference of the reference input and the
integral and derivative are dependent on
actual output signal is called [EKT 1 2015 EEE]
[EKT 1 2015 EEE]
a) Error signal
a) Future, past and present errors respectively
b) Controlling signal
b) Present, past and future errors respectively
c) Actuating signal
c) Past, present and future errors respectively
d) Transfer function
d) Present, future and past errors respectively
Answer Key:
141
1.(a) 11.(a) 21.(a) 31.(d) 41.(b) 51.(c) 61.(a) 71.(c) 81.(a) 91.(c)
2.(b) 12.(c) 22.(a) 32.(d) 42.(a) 52.(b) 62.(c) 72.(b) 82.(b) 92.(d)
3.(a) 13.(a) 23.(a) 33.(d) 43.(d) 53.(a) 63.(b) 73.(b) 83.(b) 93.(a)
4.(a) 14.(b) 24.(d) 34.(c) 44.(a) 54.(a) 64.(a) 74.(a) 84.(c) 94.(a)
5.(a) 15.(b) 25.(a) 35.(c) 45.(d) 55.(a) 65.(a) 75.(a) 85.(b) 95.(b)
6.(b) 16.(b) 26.(b) 36.(c) 46.(a) 56.(c) 66.(d) 76.(c) 86.(a) 96.(c)
7.(d) 17.(d) 27.(a) 37.(d) 47.(b) 57.(d) 67.(b) 77.(b) 87.(c) 97.(c)
8.(b) 18.(a) 28.(d) 38.(d) 48.(a) 58.(a) 68.(a) 78.(a) 88.(c) 98.(b)
9.(b) 19.(d) 29.(c) 39.(a) 49.(d) 59.(c) 69.(c) 79.(a) 89.(a) 99.(b)
10.(c) 20.(b) 30.(c) 40.(c) 50.(c) 60.(a) 70.(d) 80.(c) 90.(b) 100.(b)
142
14. ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Equations of equilibrium in space and its application – Simple problems on friction –

Kinematics of particles for plane motion – Elementary particle dynamics – Generalized
Hooke’s law and its application – Design problems on axial stress, shear stress and bearing
stress – Material properties for dynamic loading – Bending shear and stresses in beams –
Determination of principle stresses and strains – analytical and graphical – Material
behaviour and design factors for dynamic load – Design of circular shafts for bending and
torsional load only - Deflection of beam for statically determinate problems – Theories of
failure

1. What is the branch of engineering mechanics a) Couple
which refers to the study of stationary rigid body? b) Moment
a) Statics c) Torque
b) Kinetics d) All of the above
c) Kinematics 6. What is a concurrent force system?
d) Dynamics a) All forces act at the same point.
2. What is the branch of engineering mechanics b) All forces have the same line of action.
which refers to the study of rigid body in motion c) All forces are parallel with one another.
under the action of forces? d) All forces are in the same plane.
a) Statics 7. When will a three-force member be considered in
b) Strength of materials equilibrium?
c) Kinematics a) When the sum of the two forces is equal to the
d) Dynamics third force.
3. What is the branch of engineering mechanics b) When they are concurrent or parallel.
which refers to the study of rigid body in motion c) When they are coplanar.
without reference to the force that causes the d) All of the above
motion? 8. A roller support has how many reactions?
a) Statics a) None
b) Kinetics b) 1
c) Kinematics c) 2
d) Dynamics d) 3
4. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid 9. A link or cable support has how many reactions?
body together? a) None
a) Natural force b) 1
b) External force c) 2
c) Internal force d) 3
d) Concentrated force
10. A build-in, fixed support has how many reactions
5. What refers to a pair of equal, opposite and and moment?
parallel forces? a) 1 reaction and 1 moment
143
b) 2 reactions and 1 moment a) When it is unit less
c) 1 reaction and 2 moments b) When the dimensions of the various terms on the
d) 2 reactions and no moment left side of the equation is not the same as the
11. Which support has one moment? dimensions of the various terms on the right side.
a) Frictionless guide c) When the degree of the left side of the equation is
b) Pin connection the same as the right side.
c) Fixed support d) When the dimensions of various terms on the left
d) Roller side of the equation is the same as the dimensions of
the various terms on the right side.
12. What is the science that describes and predicts
the effect on bodies at rest or in motion by forces 18. What refers to the branch of mathematics which
acting on it? deals with the dimensions of quantities?
a) Engineering Mechanics a) Unit analysis
b) Theory of Structures b) Dimensional analysis
c) Mechanics of Materials c) System analysis
d) Strength of Materials d) Homogeneity analysis
13. What refers to a negligible body when compared 19. What is a “simple beam”?
to the distances involved regarding its motion? a) A beam supported only at its ends.
a) Particle b) A beam supported with a fixed support at one end
b) Atomic substance and non on the other end.
c) Element c) A beam with more than two supports.
d) Quarks d) A beam with only one support at the midspan
14. The resulting force of a distributed load is always 20. “The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid
acting at: body remains unchanged if a force acting at a given
a) The center of the beam subjected to the point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same
distributed load magnitude and direction, but acting at a different
b) The centroid of the area of the loading curve point provided that the two forces have the same line
c) The 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the of action”. This statement is known as ______.
loading curve a) Pappus Propositions
d) The 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the b) Principle of Transmissibility
loading curve c) Parallelogram Law
d) Varignon’s Theorem
15. The resultant force of a distributed load is always
equal to: 21. “If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle
a) Twice the area under the loading curve can be represented by the two sides of a triangle
b) Half the area under the loading curve taken in order that the third side represents the
c) The area under the loading curve resultant in the opposite order”. This statement is
d) One-fourth the area under the loading curve known as _______.
a) Principle of Transmissibility
16. When a body has more supports than are
b) Parallelogram Law
necessary to maintain equilibrium, the body is said to
c) Varignon’s Theorem
be ________.
d) Triangle Law of Forces
a) In static equilibrium
b) In dynamic equilibrium 22. “If a number of concurrent forces acting
c) Statically determine simultaneously on a particle, are represented in
d) Statically indeterminate magnitude and direction by the sides of polygon
taken in order, then the resultant of this system of
17. When does an equation be considered
forces is represented by the closing side of the
“dimensionally homogeneous”?
144
polygon in the opposite in the opposite order”. This c) Is less than
statement is known as _______. d) Is equal to
a) Principle of Transmissibility 29. When a block is place on an inclined plane, its
b) Parallelogram Law steepest inclination to which the block will be in
c) Polygon Law equilibrium is called
d) Triangle Law of Forces a) Angle of friction
23. A beam with more than one supports is called b) Angle of reaction
a) cantilever beam c) Angle of normal
b) Simple beam d) Angle of repose
c) Complex beam 30. What is usually used to move heavy loads by
d) Continuous beam applying a force which is usually smaller that the
24. A truss consisting of coplanar members is called weight of the load?
________. a) Axle
a) Plane truss b) Incline plane
b) Space truss c) Wedge
c) Ideal truss d) Belt
d) Rigid truss 31. The angle of inclined plane of a jack screw is also
25. A truss consisting of non-coplanar members is known as ________.
called ________. a) Angle of thread
a) Plane truss b) Angle of lead
b) Space truss c) Angle of friction
c) Ideal truss d) Angle of pitch
d) Rigid truss 32. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is
26. What method of determining the bar force of a the point at which the entire _______ acts regardless
truss if only few members are required? of the orientation of the body.
a) Methods of joints a) Mass
b) Method of section b) Weight
c) Maxwell’s diagram c) Mass or weight
d) Method of superposition d) Volume
27. Which of the following statements about friction 33. Second moment of area is the product of:
is FALSE? a) Area and square of the distance from the reference
a) The direction of frictional force on a surface is such axis
as to oppose the tendency of one surface to slide b) Area and distance from the reference axis
relative to the other. c) Square of the area and distance from the reference
b) The total frictional force is dependent on the area axis
of contact between the two surfaces. d) Square of the area and square of the distance from
c) The magnitude of the frictional force is equal to the the reference axis
force which tends to move the body till the limiting 34. Moment of inertia of an area about an axis is
value is reached. equal to the sum of moment of inertia about an axis
d) Friction force is always less than the force required passing through the centroid parallel to the given axis
to prevent motion. and _______.
28. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the a) Area and square of the distance between two
normal force and the resultant force ______ the parallel axes
angle of friction. b) Area and distance between two parallel axes
a) May be greater than or less than c) Square of the area and distance between two
b) Is greater than parallel axes
145
d) Square of the area and square of the distance a) Force, mass, velocity, time
between two parallel axes b) Force, mass, acceleration
35. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia? c) Force, mass, distance, velocity
a) Kg-m4 d) Force, weight, distance, time
b) Kg-m3 42. Which of the following set of quantities that
c) Kg-m describe motion and uses the principle of impulse
d) Kg-m2 and momentum?
36. The number of independent degrees of freedom a) Force, mass, velocity, time
is: b) Force, mass, distance, velocity
a) Square root of the square of the difference of total c) Force, mass, distance, velocity
degrees of freedom – number of constrain equations d) Force, weight, distance, time
b) Square root of the total degrees of freedom – 43. The principles of kinetics of particles are derived
number of constrain equations from which law?
c) Total degrees of freedom – number of constrain a) Newton’s first law
equations b) Newton’s second law
d) Total degrees of freedom – half the number of c) Newton’s third law
constrain equations d) d’Alembert’s principle
37. What velocity is normally referred to as the 44. What type of impact is when the motion of one
derivative of position vector with respect to time? or both of the colliding bodies is not directed along
a) Decreasing velocity the line impact?
b) Average velocity a) Central impact
c) Instantaneous velocity b) Eccentric impact
d) Increasing velocity c) Direct impact
38. What refers to a force by which work done on a d) Oblique impact
particle as it moves around any closed path is zero? 45. What type of impact is when the centers of mass
a) Natural force of colliding bodies are not located on the line of
b) Virtual force impact?
c) Conservative force a) Central impact
d) Non-conservative force b) Eccentric impact
39. When a force causes a change in mechanical c) Direct impact
energy when it moves around a closed path, it is said d) Oblique impact
to be _______ force. 46. If the coefficient of restitution is zero, the impact
a) Natural is
b) Virtual a) Partially plastic
c) Conservative b) Perfectly inelastic
d) Non-conservative c) Perfectly elastic
40. The following are quantities that describe motion d) Partially elastic
and uses Newton’s law of motion and d’Alembert’s 47. A uniform circular motion can be considered as a
principle except one. Which one? combination of ______.
a) Time a) Linear velocity and impulse
b) Mass b) Simple harmonic motion and momentum
c) Acceleration c) Two simple harmonic motions
d) Force d) Rectilinear translation and curvilinear translation
41. Which of the following set of quantities that 48. One calculates the work of a force on a rigid body
describe motion and uses the principle of work and exactly the same as one would calculate the work for
energy? a particle.
146
a) Power of a couple 56. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to
b) Work of a force the direction of the force, the moment exerted by the
c) Work of a couple force ___________.
d) Work-energy relation a) Increases
49. A type of force acting on a body caused by the b) Decreases
friction between the body and the ground. c) Is unchanged
a) Load d) Becomes zero
b) Shear 57. The moment of force is zero when
c) Bear a) The applied force is zero.
d) Mass b) The force is applied at the moment axis.
50. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to c) The line of action of the force is parallel to the axis
a) Lbm-ft/s2 d) All of the above
b) G-cm/s2 58. _______ is finding a single force which shall be
c) Kg-m/s2 equal to two or more given forces when acting in
d) Kgf given directions.
51. When a body is in contact with the ground, the a) Resolution of forces
force that is reflected back to the body is called b) Integration of forces
a) Ground reflected force c) Composition of forces
b) Gravity reflected force d) Quantization of forces
c) Ground reaction force 59. He is the father of the modern engineering
d) Gravity reaction force mechanics
52. The gravity in the moon is about a) Gilbert Lewis
a) 1.6 m/s2 b) Stephen Timoshenko
b) 2.6 m/s2 c) J. Gordon
c) 3.6 m/s2 d) A. Cotrell
d) 0.6 m/s2 60. It is a method of applying mechanics that
53. The ground reaction force on a body can be assumes all objects are continuous.
represented by single force acting on a point called a) Discrete Mechanics
a) Center of force b) Finite Element Method
b) Center of reaction c) Continuum Mechanics
c) Center of reflection d) Contact Mechanics
d) Center of pressure 61. Which of the following is an example of contact
54. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on force?
which of the following? a) Gravitational force
a) Mass of the load b) Magnetic force
b) Acceleration of gravity c) Air resistance force
c) Moment arm d) Electric force
d) All of the above 62. It occurs when an object is moving across a
55. The perpendicular distance of the force from the surface.
point about which the body will turn is called a) Dynamic friction
a) Moment arm b) Static friction
b) Moment distance c) Kinetic friction
c) Lever arm d) Sliding friction
d) A or C 63. Which of the following statements is correct?
147
a) The coefficient of static friction is always less than c) Particle Derivative
1 d) Quantum Derivative
b) The coefficient of static friction is typically greater 70. Material derivative is also known as
than the coefficient of kinetic friction. a) Substantial derivative
c) The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater b) Commoving derivative
than the coefficient of static friction. c) Convective derivative
d) The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are d) All of the above
always equal.
71. The vector connecting the positions of a particle
64. The equations that apply to bodies moving in the undeformed and deformed configuration is
linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform called the
accelerations are often referred to as a) Displacement vector
a) UVATS b) Position vector
b) SUVAT c) Displacement field
c) UVATS d) Position field
d) Either of the above 72. A _______ is a vector field of all displacement
65. “Observed from an internal reference frame, the vectors for all particles in the body.
net force on a particle is proportional to the time rate a) Position field
of change of its linear momentum”. This is known as b) Action field
Newton’s _______ of motion. c) Displacement field
a) Zeroth Law d) Path field
b) First Law 73. _______ is the study of the physics of continuous
c) Second Law solids with a defined rest shape.
d) Third Law a) Continuum Mechanics
66. It is also known as quantity of motion. b) Solid Mechanics
a) Momentum c) Fluid Mechanics
b) Force d) Discrete Mechanics
c) Mass 74. It is an experimental method for visualizing and
d) Acceleration analyzing fluid flow.
67. This concept assumes that the substance of the a) Particle Image Velocimetry
body is distributed throughout and completely fills b) Particle Image Accelerometry
the space it occupies. c) Particle Image Flowmeter
a) Finite Element d) Particle Image Viscosimetry
b) Contact 75. A fluid at rest has no
c) Discrete a) Longitudinal stress
d) Continuum b) Shear stress
68. In fluids, ______ is used to assess to what extent c) Tensile stress
the approximation of continuity can be made. d) Compressive stress
a) Brayton Number 76. A property of fluids which is the force generated
b) Knudsen Number by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.
c) Reynolds Number a) Compressibility
d) Prandtl Number b) Plasticity
69. It is the time rate of change of any property of a c) Elasticity
continuum for a specified group of particles of the d) Viscosity
moving continuum body. 77. These equations state that changes in
a) Material Derivative momentum of fluid particles depend only on the
b) Continual Derivative
148
external pressure and internal viscous forces acting b) Lie anywhere on the area
on the fluid. c) Lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
a) Navier – Stokes Equations d) Not lie on the line of symmetry
b) Torricelli Equations 85. The second moment of area is an important value
c) Reynolds Equations which is used to _______. It can also be called
d) Lagrangian Equations moment of inertia.
78. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a) Determine the state of stress in a section
a fluid, the fluid continues to flow b) Calculate the resistance to buckling
a) Newtonian fluid c) Determine the amount of deflection in a beam
b) Non-Newtonian fluid d) All of the above
c) Lagrangian fluid 86. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F =
d) Non-Lagrangian fluid 20i + 60j – 90k (N).
79. Which of the following is an example of a) 130 N
Newtonian fluid? b) 120 N
a) Oobleck c) 100 N
b) Pudding d) 110 N
c) Water 87. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U
d) Paint = 8i – 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.
80. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant a) 18
velocity, then b) 16
a) No forces are acting on the object. c) 14
b) The forces acting the object are balanced. d) 12
c) The object is in equilibrium state. 88. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of
d) Either of the above their components by U = 𝑈𝑥 i – 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j
81. It is an additional force that exactly balances a – 3k. Determine the component Ux.
resultant force. a) 5.67
A) Reactant b) 6.67
b) Equilibrant c) 7.67
c) Buoyant d) 8.67
d) Reverse effective force 89. It is the resistance that occurs when a round
82. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10° and 15 N object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat surface.
at 100° is a) Rolling resistance
a) 18 N at 246° b) Rolling friction
b) 18 N at 66° c) Rolling drag
c) 25 N at -114° d) Either of the above
d) 25 N at 66° 90. Which of the following affects the magnitude of
83. It is a point within an object from which the force rolling resistance an object generates?
of gravity appears to act a) Type of material
a) Center of gravity b) Dimensions
b) Centroid c) Both A and B
c) Center of mass d) None of the above
d) All of the above are correct 91. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless
84. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid quantity also known as
will a) Coefficient of rolling friction
a) Lie somewhere along the line symmetry b) Coefficient of friction
149
c) Coefficient of resistance a) Algebraic sum of the horizontal components of all
d) Rolling friction constant the forces should be zero
92. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies b) Algebraic sum of the vertical components of all the
the force put into it. forces should be zero
a) Factor of safety c) Algebraic sum of moments of all the forces about
b) Mechanical factor any point should be zero
c) Mechanical advantage d) All of the above
d) Mechanical coefficient 97. It is the rate of change of velocity
93. It is the study that describes the motion of a) Displacement
macroscopic objects. b) Acceleration
a) Quantum mechanics c) Momentum
b) Classical mechanics d) Impulse
c) Discrete mechanics 98. The SI unit for angular velocity is
d) Continuum mechanics a) Degrees per second
94. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and b) Revolutions per second
leaning against a rough vertical wall. The force of c) Miles per second
friction will act [EKT 1 2015 MECH] d) Radians per second
a) Towards the wall at its upper end 99. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same
b) Away from the wall at its upper end speed as they had prior to the collision are known as
c) Downward at its upper end _______.
d) Upward at its upper end a) Elastic collisions
95. The slope on the road surface generally provided b) Inelastic collisions
on the curves is known as c) Static collisions
a) Angle of friction [EKT 1 2015 MECH] d) Plastic collisions
b) Angle of repose 100. The time derivative of angular momentum is
c) Angle of banking called
d) None of these a) Angular velocity
96. For any system of coplanar forces, the condition b) Angular acceleration
of equilibrium is that the [EKT 1 2015 MECH] c) Work
d) Torque
150
Answer Key:
1.(a) 11.(c) 21.(d) 31.(a) 41.(c) 51.(c) 61.(c) 71.(a) 81.(b) 91.(a)
2.(d) 12.(a) 22.(c) 32.(b) 42.(a) 52.(a) 62.(d) 72.(c) 82.(a) 92.(c)
3.(c) 13.(a) 23.(d) 33.(a) 43.(b) 53.(d) 63.(b) 73.(b) 83.(d) 93.(b)
4.(c) 14.(b) 24.(a) 34.(a) 44.(d) 54.(d) 64.(d) 74.(a) 84.(a) 94.(d)
5.(a) 15.(c) 25.(b) 35.(d) 45.(b) 55.(d) 65.(c) 75.(b) 85.(d) 95.(c)
6.(a) 16.(a) 26.(b) 36.(c) 46.(b) 56.(c) 66.(a) 76.(d) 86.(d) 96.(d)
7.(b) 17.(d) 27.(b) 37.(c) 47.(c) 57.(d) 67.(d) 77.(a) 87.(a) 97.(b)
8.(b) 18.(b) 28.(c) 38.(c) 48.(b) 58.(c) 68.(b) 78.(a) 88.(d) 98.(d)
9.(b) 19.(a) 29.(d) 39.(d) 49.(b) 59.(b) 69.(a) 79.(c) 89.(d) 99.(a)
10.(b) 20.(b) 30.(c) 40.(a) 50.(c) 60.(c) 70.(d) 80.(d) 90.(d) 100.(d)
Solutions:
86. (d) 88. (d)
Given F = 20i + 60j – 90k (N). Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of
Magnitude of Force= √202 + 602 + 902 their components by
= √12100 = 110N U = 𝑈𝑥 i – 4j + 6k
V = 3i + 2j – 3k
87. (a)
The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is
Given two vectors: zero.
U = 8i – 6j + 4k So, (U. V) = 0
V = 3i + 7j + 9k (Ux i – 4j + 6k) . (3i + 2j – 3k) = 0
Dot product of the two vectors 3𝑈𝑥 − 8 − 18 = 0
= (8𝑖 – 6𝑗 + 4𝑘). ( 3𝑖 + 7𝑗 + 9𝑘) 3𝑈𝑥 = 26
= 24 − 42 + 36 = 18
151
15. THERMODYNAMICS
Basic concept of First-law and second law of Thermodynamics – Concept of entropy and
reversibility, availability and unavailability and irreversibility – Classification and properties
of fluids – Incompressible and compressible fluids flows – Effect of Mach number and
compressibility – Continuity momentum and energy equations – Normal, oblique shocks
and One dimensional isentropic flow – Flow or fluids in duct with frictions that transfer –
Flow through fans, blowers and compressors – Axial and centrifugal flow configuration.

1. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot 6. The type of rotary compressor used in gas
cycle? [EKT 2 2016 MECH] turbines, is of ______. [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
a) It is used as the alternate standard of comparison a) Centrifugal type
of all heat engines b) Axial flow type
b) All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle c) Radial flow type
c) It provides concept of maximizing work output d) None of these
between the two temperature limits 7. The compresses airline should ______ to check
d) All the above moisture troubles.
2. The divergent portion of a venturimeter is made a) Rise gradually towards the point of use
longer than convergent portion in order to b) Drop gradually towards the point of use
a) Avoid the tendency of breaking away the stream c) Be laid horizontally
of liquid [EKT 2 2016 MECH] d) None
b) To minimize frictional losses 8. Reheating in a gas turbine plant is done ______
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Increase the power output [EKT 2 2016 MECH]
d) None of these b) Increase the compressor work
3. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with ______. c) Increase the turbine work
a) Conservation of work [EKT 2 2016 MECH] d) Decrease the thermal efficiency
b) Conservation of heat 9. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine.
c) Conservation of heat into work a) Requires less space for installation
d) Conversion of work into heat b) Has compressor and combustion chamber
4. ______ does the pressure in centrifugal air c) Has less efficiency [EKT 2 2016 MECH]
compressor depends upon. d) All of these
a) Compression index 10. The intercooling in multistage compressors is
b) Inlet-temperature done ______
c) Impeller tip velocity a) To cool the air at delivery
d) All of these b) To cool the air during compression
5. The temperature at which the volume of a gas c) To minimize the work of compression
becomes zero is called _____. [EKT 2 2015 MECH] d) None of these
a) Absolute scale of temperature 11. When the Mach number is more than 6, the
b) Absolute zero temperature flow is called? [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
c) Absolute Temperature a) Subsonic flow
d) None of these b) Sonic flow
152
c) Super-sonic flow d) None
d) Hyper-sonic flow 19. _______ has the minimum atomic mass.
12. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure a) Oxygen
[EKT 1 2015 MECH] b) Sulphur
a) Its temperature increases but volume decreases c) Nitrogen
b) Its volume increases but temperature decreases d) Carbon
c) Both temperature and volume increases 20. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
d) Both temperature and volume decreases a) 3 to 6
13. As per Charles' law, the volume of a given mass b) 5 to 8
of a perfect gas varies _______ as its absolute c) 15 to 20
temperature, when the absolute pressure remains d) 20 to 30
constant. 21. _______ variables control the physical
a) Directly [EKT 1 2015 MECH] properties of a perfect gas.
b) Indirectly a) Pressure
c) No relation b) Temperature
d) None of the above c) Volume
14. In an extensive property of a thermodynamic d) All of the above
system _____ [EKT 1 2015 MECH] 22. The unit of temperature in S.I units is _______
a) Extensive heat is transferred a) Centigrade
b) Extensive work is done b) Celsius
c) Extensive energy is utilized c) Fahrenheit
d) None of these d) Kelvin
23. The unit of energy in S.I units is _______
15. Rotary compressors are used for delivering a) Watt
[EKT 1 2015 MECH] b) Joule
a) Small quantities of air at high pressures c) Joule/s
b) Large quantities of air at high pressures d) None
c) Small quantities of air at low pressure
24. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very
d) Large quantities of air at low pressures
high pressure occupies _______
16. A rotary compressor is driven by an ______
a) More volume
a) Electric motor [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
b) Less volume
b) Engine
c) Same volume
c) Either A or B
d) None
d) None of these
25. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is _______
17. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas
a) Kg/cm2
turbine cycle are _______
b) Mm of water column
a) Low
c) Pascal
b) Very low
d) Dynes per square cm
c) High
d) Very high 26. Friction factor for fluid flow in pipe does not
depend upon the [EKT 2 2015 CSE]
18. ______ is the lightest and most volatile liquid
a) Pipe length
fuel?
b) Pipe roughness
a) Gasoline
c) Fluid density & viscosity
b) Kerosene
d) Mass flow rate of fluid
c) Fuel oil
27. Absolute zero pressure will occur_______
153
a) At sea level a) Heat
b) At the center of the earth b) Work
c) When molecular momentum of the system c) Kinetic energy
becomes zero d) Thermal conductivity
d) Under vacuum conditions 36. _______ parameters is constant for a mole for
28. No liquid can exist as liquid at most of the gases at a given temperature and
a) Vacuum pressure.
b) Zero pressure a) Enthalpy
c) Centre of earth b) Volume
d) In space c) Mass
29. Superheated vapour behaves _______ d) Entropy
a) Exactly as gas 37. The value of air delivered by the compressor is
b) As steam called [EKT 2 20125 MECH]
c) As ordinary vapour a) Free air delivery
d) Approximately as a gas b) Compressor capacity
30. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal c) Swept volume
to _______ d) None of these
a) 0.17 38. The change in enthalpy of a system is the heat
b) 0.21 supplied at _______
c) 0.24 a) Constant pressure
d) 1.0 b) Constant temperature
31. Gases have _______ c) Constant volume
a) Only one value of specific heat d) None
b) Two values of specific heat 39. One watt is equal to _______
c) Three values of specific heat a) 1 Nm/s
d) No value of specific heat b) 1 Nm/mt
c) 1 Nm/hr
32. Work done in a free expansion process is
d) 1 kNm/hr
_______
a) + ve 40. The work done is zero for the following process
b) – ve _______
c) Zero a) Constant volume
d) Maximum b) Free expansion
c) Throttling
33.) _______ quantity is not the property of the
d) All of the above
system.
a) Pressure 41. _______ processes is irreversible process.
b) Temperature a) Isothermal
c) Specific volume b) Adiabatic
d) Heat c) Throttling
d) All of the above
34. On weight basis, air contains following parts of
oxygen 42. Minimum work in compressor is possible is
a) 21 possible when the value of adiabatic index n is
b) 23 equal _______
c) 25 a) 0.75
d) 73 b) 1
c) 1.27
35. ______ item is not a path function.
154
d) 1.35 c) Higher
43. Entropy change depend on _______ d) None
a) Heat transfer 51. _______ quantities is not the property of the
b) Mass transfer system.
c) Change of temperature a) Pressure
d) None b) Temperature
c) Specific volume
44. For reversible adiabatic process, change in
d) Heat
entropy is _______
52. Properties of substances like pressure,
a) Maximum
temperature and density, in thermodynamic
b) Minimum
coordinates
c) Zero
a) Path functions
d) Negative
b) Point functions
45. An actual engine is to be designed having same c) Cyclic functions
efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is d) Real functions
_______ 53. The mixture of ice and water form a _______
a) Feasible a) Closed system
b) Impossible b) Open system
c) Possible c) Isolated system
d) Possible, but with a lot of sophistications d) Heterogeneous system
46. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at 54. The addition of heat at a constant pressure to
a) Constant pressure a gas results in _______
b) Constant volume a) Raising its temperature
c) Constant temperature b) Raising its pressure
c) Raising its volume
d) None
d) Raising its temperature and doing external work
47. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a sign
55. The Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
of approaching _______
a) Reversible engine
a) Fine weather
b) Irreversible engine
b) Rains
c) New engine
c) Storm
d) Petrol engine
d) Cold wave
56. The measurement of temperature is based on
48. _______ cycles is not a reversible cycle.
a) Thermodynamic properties
a) Carnot
b) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b) Ericsson
c) First law of thermodynamics
c) Stirling
d) Second law of thermodynamics
57. The compressed air coming out from a
49. _______ cycle has maximum efficiency.
punctured football _______
a) Rankine
a) Becomes hotter
b) Stirling
b) Becomes cooler 1
c) Carnot
c) Remains at the same temperature
d) Brayton
d) None
50. A closed cycle gas turbine gives _______
58. I kgf/cm2 is equal to _______
efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas
a) 760 mm Hg
turbine.
b) Zero mm Hg
a) Same
c) 735.6 mm Hg
b) Lower
d) 1 mm Hg
155
59. The barometric pressure is equal to _______ b) Cv/Cp
a) 760 mm Hg c) Cp-Cv
b) Zero mm Hg d) Cp+Cv
c) 735.6 mm Hg 68. The behavior of gases can be fully determined
d) 1 mm Hg by _______
60. Kelvin Planck’s law deals with _______ a) 1 law
a) Conservation of heat b) 2 laws
b) Conservation of work c) 3 laws
c) Conservation of heat into work d) 4 laws
d) None
69. Boyle’s law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to
61. The thermodynamic difference between a
gases under _______
Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and
a) All ranges of pressures
the Carnot cycle is that _______
b) Only small range of pressures
a) Carnot cycle can’t work with saturated steam
c) High range of pressures
b) Heat is supplied to water at temperature below
d) None
the maximum temperature of the cycle.
c) A rankine cycle receives heat at two places 70. The same volume of all gases would represent
d) Rankine cycle is hypothetical their
62. The unit of time in S.I units is _______ a) Densities
a) Second b) Specific weights
b) Minute c) Molecular weights
c) Hour d) None
d) Day 71. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency
63. The unit of length in S.I units is _______ of dual combustion cycle is _______
a) Meter a) Less than Diesel cycle
b) Centimeter b) Greater than Diesel cycle
c) Kilometer c) Less than Diesel cycle and greater than Otto cycle
d) Millimeter d) Greater than Diesel cycle and less than Otto cycle
64. The general gas equation is _______ 72. Compression ratio for Diesel engines is
a) PV = Nrt a) 15 to 20
b) PV = mRT b) 3 to 6
c) PV = C c) 5 to 8
d) None d) 20 to 30
65. The unit of pressure in S.I units is _______ 73. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle
a) Kg/cm2 efficiency for the same compression ratio and heat
b) Mm of water column input because in Otto cycle _______
c) Pascal a) Expansion and compression are isentropic
d) Dynes per square cm b) Maximum temperature is higher
66. The specific heat of air at constant pressure is c) Combustion is at constant volume
equal to _______ d) Heat rejection is lower
a) 0.17 74. The gas constant is equal to the _______ of two
b) 0.21 specific heats.
c) 0.24 a) Ratio
d) 1.0 b) Product
67. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to c) Sum
a) C/Cv d) Difference
156
75. The one kg of carbon produces _______ kg of downward movement of the piston can be
carbon dioxide. approximated as [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
a) 3/7 a) Isobaric process
b) 11/3 b) Adiabatic process
c) 4/11 c) Throttling process
d) 11/7 d) Isothermal process
76. The area under the temperature-entropy curve 83. The processes or systems that do not involve
(T-s curve) of any thermodynamic process heat are called _______
represents _______ a) Isothermal processes
a) None of these b) Equilibrium processes
b) Either heat absorbed or heat rejected c) Thermal processes
c) Heat absorbed d) Adiabatic processes
d) Heat rejected 84. If all variables of a stream are independent of
77. _______ evaluates thermodynamic time it is said to be in _______
parameters. a) Steady flow
a) First law of thermodynamics b) Unsteady flow
b) Second law of thermodynamics c) Uniform flow
c) Third law of thermodynamics d) Closed flow
d) None 85. A control volume refers to _______
78. _______ deals with equivalence of different a) A fixed region in space
forms of energies. b) A specified mass
a) First law of thermodynamics c) An isolated system
b) Second law of thermodynamics d) A closed system
c) Third law of thermodynamics 86. The average molecular kinetic energy of a gas
d) None depends on _______
79. Which of the following is the intensive a) Pressure
property? b) Volume
a) Temperature c) Temperature
b) Viscosity d) Number of moles
c) Density 87. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas
d) All of these turbine is cooled at [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
80. Thermodynamics is applicable to _______ a) Constant volume
a) Only to microscopic systems b) Constant temperature
b) Only to macroscopic systems c) Constant pressure
c) Only to homogeneous systems d) None of these
d) Only to heterogeneous systems 88. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle
81. The inlet pressure is always _______ the deviation from the blade angle is a function of
discharge pressure. a) Blade camber [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
a) Equal to b) Blade camber and incidence angle
b) Less than c) Space-chord ratio
c) More than d) Blade camber and space-chord ratio
c) Done 89. A container with rigid walls filled with a sample
82. Air is being forced by the bicycle pump into a of ideal gas. The absolute temperature of the gas is
tyre against a pressure of 4.5 bars. A slow doubled. What happens to the pressure of the gas?
a) Doubles
157
b) Quadruples a) Constant
c) Triples b) Increased
d) Decreased to one-half c) Reduced
90. _______ mechanism of heat transfer is involved d) None
in heating a pot with water on a stove. 96. A two stroke engine gives ____ mechanical
a) Convection efficiency than a four stroke cycle engine.
b) Conduction a) Higher
c) Radiation b) Lower
d) Induction c) Equal
91. _______ mechanism of heat transfer is involved d) None of the above
in heat flow from Sun to Earth. 97. All the four operations in two stroke engine are
a) Convection performed in _______ number of revolution of
b) Conduction crank shaft.
c) Radiation a) Two
d) Induction b) Four
c) Five
92. _______ is the process of heat transfer by the
d) One
movement of mass from one place to another.
a) Convection 98. In diesel engine, the compression ratio is
b) Conduction _______ than expansion ratio?
c) Radiation a) Constant
d) Induction b) Equal
c) Decreases
d) Increases
93. _______ is the example of open system.
99. Compressor Capacity is _______
a) Air compressor
a) Volume of air delivered
b) Piston
b) Volume of air sucked
c) Thermal power plant
c) Both a and b
d) None
94. _______ is the general gas energy equations.
100. For delivering large amount of air at low
a) dH = dE + dW
pressure _______
b) dE = dH + dW
a) Rotary compressors are used
c) dH = dE –dW
b) Reciprocating compressors are used
d) None
c) All engines are used
95. The efficiency of the diesel cycle approaches d) All the above
the Otto cycle efficiency when the cut off ratio is
158
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (d) 21. (d) 31. (b) 41. (c) 51. (d) 61. (b) 71. (d) 81. (b) 91. (c)
2. (c) 12. (d) 22. (d) 32. (c) 42. (b) 52. (b) 62. (a) 72. (a) 82. (d) 92. (a)
3. (d) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (d) 43. (a) 53. (d) 63. (a) 73. (d) 83. (d) 93. (a)
4. (d) 14. (d) 24. (a) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (b) 74. (d) 84. (a) 94. (a)
5. (b) 15. (d) 25. (c) 35. (d) 45. (d) 55. (a) 65. (c) 75. (b) 85. (a) 95. (c)
6. (b) 16. (c) 26. (a) 36. (b) 46. (c) 56. (b) 66. (c) 76. (b) 86. (c) 96. (a)
7. (b) 17. (b ) 27. (c) 37. (b) 47. (c) 57. (b) 67. (c) 77. (c) 87. (c) 97. (d)
8. (a) 18. (a) 28. (c) 38. (a) 48. (e) 58. (c) 68. (d) 78. (a) 88. (d) 98. (b)
9. (d) 19. (d) 29. (d) 39. (a) 49. (c) 59. (a) 69. (b) 79. (d) 89. (a) 99. (a)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (c) 40. (d) 50. (c) 60. (c) 70. (c) 80. (b) 90. (a) 100.(a)
159
16. THEORY OF MACHINES
Kinematic and dynamic analysis of plane mechanisms – Cams, Gears and epicyclic gear
trains, flywheels, governors – Balancing of rigid rotors, balancing of single and multicylinder
engines – Linear vibration analysis of mechanical systems (single degree of freedom) –
Critical speeds and whirling of shafts – Flywheels, balancing of rotors and reciprocating
machinery – Balancing machines, governors, free and forced vibration of damped and
undamped single degree of freedom systems, isolation, whirling of shafts, gyroscope.

1. A higher pair has a) Theory of machines
a) Point contact b) Applied machines
b) Surface contact c) Mechanism
c) No contact d) Kinetics
d) None of the above 7. ________ is an inversion of Single slider crank
2. ______ gear is used for connecting two coplanar chain.
and intersecting shafts. a) Beam engine
a) Spur gear b) Rotary engine
b) Helical gear c) Oldham’s coupling
c) Bevel gear d) Elliptical trammel
d) None of the above 8. _______ is an example of lower pair.
3. The module of a gear is a) Shaft revolving in a bearing
a) D/T b) Straight line motion mechanisms
b) T/D c) Automobile steering gear
c) 2D/T d) All the above
d) 2T/D 9. The pitch point on a cam is _______
4. ______ type of gear train the first gear and the a) Any point on pitch curve
last gear are co-axial. b) The point on cam pitch curve having the
a) Simple gear train maximum pressure angle
b) Compound gear train c) Any point on pitch circle
c) Reverted gear train d) None of the above
d) None of the above 10. A circular bar moving in a round hole is an
5. _______ type of gearing is used in steering example of
system of an automobile. a) Incompletely constrained motion
a) Rack and pinion b) Partially constrained motion
b) Worm and wheel c) Completely constrained motion
c) Spiral gears d) Successfully constrained motion
d) None of the above 11. The kinematic pairs are those which have two
6. _______ disciplines provides study of the relative elements that
motion between the parts of a machine and the a) Have line contact
forces acting on the parts. b) Have surface contact
160
c) Permit relative motion a) Perpendicular to sliding surfaces
d) Are held together b) Along sliding surfaces
12. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon c) Somewhere in between above two
a) Offset between centre lines of cam and follower d) None of the above
b) Lift of follower 21. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent
c) Angle of ascent when
d) All a) The mass of two are same
13. The cam size depends upon b) E.g. of two coincides
a) Base circle c) M.I of two about an axis through e.g. is equal
b) Pitch circle d) All of the above
c) Prime circle 22. Bifilar suspension method is used to determine
d) Outer circle a) Natural frequency of vibration
14. A circle passing through the pitch point with its b) Position of balancing weights
center at the center of cam axis is known as c) Moment of inertia
a) Pitch circle d) Centripetal acceleration
b) Base circle 23. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a
c) Prime circle four bar mechanism lies on
d) Outer circle a) Right side pivot of this link
15. The cylindrical cams can be classified as b) Lift side pivot of this link
a) Circular c) A point obtained by intersection on extending
b) Tangent adjoining links
c) Reciprocating d) None of the above
d) None of the above 24. The number of links and instantaneous centers
16. Klein’s construction can be used when in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
a) Crank has a uniform angular velocity a) 4, 4
b) Crank has non-uniform velocity b) 4, 5
c) Crank has uniform angular acceleration c) 5, 4
d) There is no such criterion d) None
17. Klein’s construction is useful to determine 25. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three
a) Velocity of various parts bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous
b) Acceleration of various parts centers lie on
c) Displacement of various parts a) A triangle
d) All of the above b) A point
c) Two line
18. Corioli’s component is encountered in
d) A straight line
a) Quick return mechanism of shaper
b) Four bar chain mechanism 26. In a shaper mechanism, the Corioli’s
c) Slider crank mechanism component of acceleration will
d) All the above a) Not exist
b) Exist
19. The number of centers in a crank driven slider
c) Depend on position of crank
crank mechanism are
a) 0
b) 2 27. The magnitude of tangential acceleration is
c) 4 equal to
d) 6 a) Velocity2 × crank radius
b) Velocity × crank radius
20. Corioli’s component acts
161
c) (Velocity/crankradius) a) Input link and coupler
d) Velocity × crank radius2 b) Input link and fixed link
28. The tangential acceleration direction is c) Output link and coupler
a) Along the angular velocity d) Output link and fixed link
b) Opposite to angular velocity 36. ______ is an inversion of Double slider crank
c) May be any one of these chain.
d) None of the above a) Coupling rod of a locomotive
29. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a b) Scotch yoke mechanism
smaller base circle will give c) Hand pump
a) A small value of pressure angle d) Reciprocating engine
b) A large value of pressure angle 37. A ball and a socket forms a
c) There is no such relation with pressure angle a) Turning pair
d) None of the above is true b) Rolling pair
30. Cam angle is defined as the angle c) Screw pair
a) During which the follower returns to its initial d) Spherical pair
position 38. ______ of arc of contact is given by Arc of
b) Of rotation of the cam for a definite approach + Arc of recess.
displacement of the follower a) Length
c) Moved by the cam from the instant the follower b) Breadth
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position. c) Width
d) Moved by the cam from beginning of an ascent d) None
to the termination of descent 39. In a system subjected to damped forced
31. ______ is a higher pair. vibrations, the ratio of maximum displacement to
a) Turning pair the deflection is known as
b) Screw pair a) Critical damping ratio
c) Belt and pulley b) Damping factor
d) None of the above c) Logarithmic decrement
32. ______ is an open pair. d) Magnification factor
a) Journal bearing 40. Whirling speed of the shaft is the speed at
b) Ball and Socket joint which
c) Leave screw and nut a) Shaft tends to vibrate in longitudinal direction
d) None of these b) Torsional vibrations occur
33. A rigid body possesses _____ degrees of c) Shaft tends to vibrate vigorously in transverse
freedom. direction
a) One d) Combination of transverse and longitudinal
b) Two vibration occurs
c) Four 41. A pulley and belt in a belt drive form a
d) Six a) cylindrical pair
34. _______ is an inversion of Single slider crank b) turning pair
chain. c) rolling pair
a) Beam engine d) sliding pair
b) Rotary engine 42. Minimum number of teeth for involute rack and
c) Oldham’s coupling pinion arrangement for pressure angle of 20 degree
d) Elliptical trammel is
35. Transmission angle is the angle between a) 18
162
b) 20 b) Double slider kinematic chain
c) 30 c) Four bar chain
d) 34 d) None of the above
43. In a Hooke’s joint, maximum velocity ratio 51. According of D’ Alembert’s principle, the body
between driving and driven shaft is possible if 𝜃 is is in equilibrium position if
a) 0 a) Inertia force is applied in the direction opposite
b) π to the resultant force
c) 2 π b) Inertia force is applied in the same direction of
d) all of the above the resultant force
44. According to loop closure equation, in a closed c) Both a and b
loop mechanism the sum of relative position d) None of the above
vectors for the links is 52. The trifilar suspension system is used to
a) Less than 1 determine mass moment of inertia of
b) Zero a) Disc
c) Greater than 1 b) Flywheel
d) None of the above c) Both a and b
45. Why is double Hooke’s joint used? d) None of the above
a) To obtain uniform velocity ratio 53. On which factors does law of friction depend?
b) To obtain variable velocity ratio a) Nature of material
c) Both a and b b) Area of contact between surfaces
d) None of the above c) Velocity of sliding
46. Shaft with taper key is an example of d) All of the above
a) Incompletely constrained motion 54. _____ are crank effort diagrams.
b) Completely constrained motion a) Turning moment diagram is drawn on cartesian
c) Successfully constrained motion co-ordinates
d) All of the above b) Turning moment diagram is drawn on polar co-
47. _______ kinematic pairs is classified depending ordinates
upon the mechanical arrangement between the c) Turning moment (T) is plotted against crank
links. angle 𝜃 for various crank positions
a) Primatic pair d) All of the above
b) Revolute pair 55. Torsional pendulum is used to determine mass
c) Force closed pair moment of inertia of
d) Sliding pair a) Flywheel
48. Cam and follower is an example of b) Rigid bar
a) Force closed pair c) Both a and b
b) Unclosed pair d) None of the above
c) Open pairs 56. _______ involves designing of machine
d) All of the above components concerning its shape and size.
49. The Watt’s mechanism is based on a) Kinetics
a) Inversions of single slider chain mechanism b) Kinematics
b) Inversions of double slider chain mechanism c) Synthesis
c) Inversions of four bar chain mechanism d) All of the above
d) Inversions of five bar chain mechanism 57. Kinetics is defined _______
50. The Scotch yoke mechanism is the inversion of a) It deals with the study of relative motion
a) Single slider kinematic chain between different components of a machine
163
b) It deals with the forces acting on different 65. Which statement is true?
components a) To prevent heat generated due to friction, rope
c) It deals with the inertia forces acting on different brake dynamometers are provided with cooling
components of the engine water
d) All of the above c) In pneumatic brakes, the ratio between hydraulic
58. Which statement is true? pressure and air pressure is 15:1
a) A resistant body transmits required motion and d) All the above statements are false
forces with deformation 66. ______ condition is true for uniform wear
b) Flexible links transmit compressive force theory.
c) Structures transmit mechanical work a) P = constant
d) All of the above b) P/r = constant
59. The relative motion between links is more than c) P.r = constant
one direction which is unpredictable is known as d) None of the above
a) Completely constrained motion 67. ______ is used to determine safe design of
b) Incompletely constrained motion bearings.
c) Successfully constrained motion a) Uniform wear theory
d) None of the above b) Uniform pressure theory
60. The double block brake is a type of c) Both a and b
a) Band brake d) None of the above
b) Internal expanding shoe brake 68. _____ clutch is known as wet clutch.
c) Shoe brake a) Single plate clutch
d) None of the above b) Multi plate clutch
61. ______ type of brakes have wooden blocks c) Both a and b
placed inside flexible steel band. d) None of the above
a) Block brake 69. In centrifugal clutches, when is the contact
b) Band brake between shoe friction lining and surface of drum
c) Band and Block brake observed?
d) Pivoted block brake a) When centrifugal force is less than spring force
62. ______ is absorbed by the brakes of an elevator b) When centrifugal force is equal to spring force
during braking process. c) When centrifugal force is greater than spring
a) Potential energy force
b) Kinetic energy d) None of the above
c) Both a and b 70. Calculate torque acting on the crank, if
d) None of the above tangential force acting on the engine is 150 kN, 300
63. Identify the type of absorption dynamometer? mm is the crank radius.
a) Epicycle dynamometer a) 45 kN.m
b) Prony brake dynamometer b) 500 kN/m
c) Torsion dynamometer c) 2 kN/m
d) Tatham dynamometer d) None of the above
64. ______ parameters can be measured using a 71. When the particle moves along a straight path,
dynamometer. then the particle has
a) Force a) Tangential acceleration only
b) Torque b) Centripetal acceleration only
c) Power c) Both tangential and centripetal acceleration
d) All of the above d) All
164
72. When a particle moves with a uniform velocity 79. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such
along a circular path, then the particle has a way that the relative motion between the links is
a)Tangential acceleration only completely constrained, is called a
b) Centripetal acceleration only a) Structure
c) Both tangential and centripetal acceleration b) Mechanism
d) Centripetal acceleration only c) Kinematic chain
73. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it d) Inversion
oscillates with a small amplitude under the action 80. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is
of the force of gravity, the body is known as equivalent to
a) Simple pendulum a) One binary joint
b) Torsional pendulum b) Two binary joints
c) Compound pendulum c) Three binary joints
d) Second’s pendulum d) Four binary joints
74. In a reciprocating steam engine, which of the 81. A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism
following forms a kinematic link? when
a) Cylinder and piston a) None of the links is fixed
b) Piston rod and connecting rod b) One of the links is fixed
c) Crank shaft and flywheel c) Two of the links are fixed
d) Flywheel and engine frame d) All of the links are fixed
75. The motion of a piston in the cylinder of a steam 82. The mechanism forms a structure, when the
engine is an example of number of degrees of freedom (n) is equal to
a) Completely constrains motion a) 0
b) Incompletely constrained motion b) 1
c) Successfully constrained motion c) 2
d) None of these d) -1
76. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a 83. The component of the acceleration, parallel to
a) Sliding pair the velocity of the particle, at the given instant is
b) Rolling pair called
c) Screw pair a) Radial component
d) Turning pair b) Tangential component
77. When the elements of the pair are kept is c) Coriolis component
contact by the action of external forces, the pair is d) None of these
said to be a 84. Joule is a unit of
a) Lower pair a) Force
b) Higher pair b) Work
c) Self closed pair c) Power
d) Force closed pair d) None
78. _______ is a turning pair. 85. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work
a) Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam, by virtue of its position, is called
engine a) Potential energy
b) Shaft with collars at both ends fitted in a circular b) Kinetic energy
hole c) Electrical energy
c) Lead screw of a lathe with nut d) Chemical energy
d) Ball and socket joint 86. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies
is
165
a) Zero d) None
b) Between zero and one 94. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the
c) One forced vibration to the deflection due to the static
d) More than one force, is known as
87. The device used to keep the variables at a a) Damping factor
constant desired value is called a b) Damping coefficient
a) Process controlled c) Logarithmic decrement
b) Regulator d) Magnification factor
c) Deviation sensor 95. The factor which effects the critical speed of a
d) Amplifier shaft is
88. The transfer function of a 4 to 1 reduction gear a) Diameter of the disc
box is b) Span of the shaft
a) 4 c) Eccentricity
b) 2 d) All of the above
c) 1/4
96. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when
d) 1/2
the particles of a body moves
89. A simple Bourdon tube pressure gauge is a a) Perpendicular to its axis
a) Closed-loop control system b) Parallel to its axis
b) Open-loop control system c) In a circle about its axis
c) Manually operated system d) None of the above
d) None of these
97. When a body is subjected to transverse
90. The analysis of mechanism deals with vibrations, the stress induced in a body will be
a) The determination of input and output angles of a) Shear stress
a mechanism b) Tensile stress
b) The determination of dimensions of the links in c) Compressive stress
a mechanism d) All
c) The determination of displacement, velocity and
98. The partial balancing means
acceleration of the links in a mechanism
a) Balancing partially the revolving masses
b) Balancing partially the reciprocating masses
91. A shaft carrying two rotors as its ends will have c) Best balancing of engines
a) No node d) All of the above
b) One node
99. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are
c) Two nodes
connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis
d) Three nodes
of the shaft. This arrangement is called
92. A shaft carrying three rotors will have a) Spur gearing
a) No node b) Helical gearing
b) One node c) Bevel gearing
c) Two nodes d) Spiral gearing
d) Three nodes
100. The size of a gear is usually specified by
93. At a nodal point in a shaft, the amplitude of a) Pressure angle
torsional vibration is b) Circular pitch
a) Zero c) Diametral pitch
b) Minimum d) Pitch circle diameter
c) Maximum
166
Answer Key:
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (a) 61. (c) 71. (a) 81. (b) 91. (b)
2. (c) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (a) 52. (c) 62. (a) 72. (b) 82. (a) 92. (c)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (c) 33. (d) 43. (d) 53. (a) 63. (b) 73. (c) 83. (b) 93. (a)
4. (c) 14. (c) 24. (d) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (c) 64. (d) 74. (c) 84. (b) 94. (d)
5. (a) 15. (d) 25. (d) 35. (c) 45. (a) 55. (a) 65. (b) 75. (a) 85. (a) 95. (d)
6. (b) 16. (a) 26. (b) 36. (b) 46. (c) 56. (c) 66. (c) 76. (c) 86. (a) 96. (b)
7. (a) 17. (b) 27. (b) 37. (d) 47. (c) 57. (c) 67. (b) 77. (d) 87. (b) 97. (b)
8. (d) 18. (a) 28. (c) 38. (a) 48. (d) 58. (a) 68. (b) 78. (b) 88. (c) 98. (b)
9. (b) 19. (b) 29. (b) 39. (d) 49. (c) 59. (b) 69. (b) 79. (c) 89. (b) 99. (a)
10.(a) 20. (a) 30. (b) 40. (c) 50. (b) 60. (c) 70. (a) 80. (c) 90. (c) 100.(d)
Solutions:
70. (a) (T) = n μ Rd (Fc - Fs)

Given: Spring force = 700 N, Centrifugal force = Solution:
4000 N, coefficient of friction = 0.3, number of (T) = n μ Rd (Fc - Fs)
shoes = 4, inner radius of the drum = 560 / 2 =80
mm. Substituting the given values we get,
Convert radius of rim from mm to m i.e. 0.285 m T = 4 × 0.3 × 0.285 × (4000-700)
Formula: Frictional torque transmitting capacity of
T = 1108.8 N
the clutch for number of shoes
167
17. FLUID MECHANICS/HYDRAULIC MACHINES
Fluid flow concepts – Transport theorem – Fluid kinematics – Potential flow – Governing
equations of fluid flow – Dimensional Analysis – Viscous flow and Turbulence – Boundary
Layer flows – Closed conduit flows – Hydrodynamic lubrication – Free surface flow –
Compressible flows – Hydraulic Turbines: Impulse and Reaction Turbines – Centrifugal and
Axial flow pumps

1. The cavitation will begin when 5. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds
a) The pressure at any location reaches an absolute number is
pressure equal to the saturated vapour of the liquid a) Less than 2000
b) Pressure becomes more than critical pressure b) Between 2000 and 4000
c) Flow is increased c) More than 4000
d) Pressure is increased d) Less than 4000
2. The principle of similitude forms the basis of 6. The cavity is caused by
a) Comparing two identical equipments a) High velocity
b) Designing models so that the result can be b) High pressure
converted to prototypes c) Weak material
c) Comparing similarity between design and actual d) Low pressure
equipment
7. The pressure in Pascal’s at a depth of 1 m below
d) Hydraulic designs the free surface of a body of water will be equal to
3. For similarity, in addition to models being a) 1 Pa
geometrically similar to prototype, the following in
b) 91 Pa
both cases should also be equal
c) 981 Pa
a) Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
d) 9810 Pa
b) Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
8. At the center line of a pipe flowing under
c) Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface
pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the
tension
shear stress will be
d) All the four
a) Minimum
4. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of
b) Maximum
conservation of
c) Zero
a) Mass
d) Could be any value
b) Momentum
9. In order that flow takes place between two
c) Energy
points in a pipeline, the differential pressure
d) Work between these points must be more than
a) Frictional force
168
b) Viscosity 16. Hydrometer is used to determine
c) Surface friction a) Specific gravity of liquids
d) All of the above b) Specific gravity of solids
10. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, c) Specific gravity of gases
when the following quantities are same d) Density
a) Friction loss and flow 17. The total energy of each particle at various
b) Length and diameter places in the case of perfect incompressible fluid
c) Flow and length flowing in continuous stream
d) Friction factor and diameter a) Keeps on increasing
11. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Reynolds b) Keeps on decreasing
number is c) Remains constant
a) Less than 2000 d) Unpredictable
b) Between 2000 and 4000 18. The normal depth in open channel flow is the
c) More than 4000 depth of flow corresponding to
d) Less than 4000 a) Steady flow
12. A large Reynold number is indication of b) Unsteady flow
a) Smooth and streamline flow c) Laminar flow
b) Laminar flow d) Uniform flow
c) Steady flow 19. The upper surface of a weir over which water
flows is known as
d) Highly turbulent flow
a) Crest
13. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes
equation are b) Nappe
a) Gravity, pressure and viscous c) Sill
b) Gravity, pressure and turbulent d) Weir top
c) Pressure, viscous and turbulent 20. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is
d) None of the above a) Unity
14. Reynolds number is significant in b) Greater than unity
a) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion c) Greater than 2
b) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as d) Greater than 10
with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc. 21. The region between the separation streamline
c) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where and the boundary surface of the solid body is
there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, known as
and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls a) Wake
d) All of the above b) Drag
15. The Pitot tube is used for measurement of c) Lift
a) Pressure d) Boundary layer
b) Flow 22. The flow in which conditions do not change with
c) Velocity time at any point, is known as
d) Discharge a) One dimensional flow
169
b) Uniform flow c) Hot wire anemometer
c) Steady flow d) Pitot tube
d) Turbulent flow 29. _______ instrument can be used for measuring
23. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical speed of an aeroplane.
in magnitude and direction at every point, for any A Venturimeter
given instant, is known as b) Orifice plate
a) One dimensional flow c) Rotameter
b) Uniform flow d) Pitot tube
c) Steady flow 30. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
d) Turbulent flow a) Decreases linearly with elevation
24. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain b) Remains constant
such velocities that varies from point to point in
c) Varies in the same way as the density
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to
instant, is known as d) Unpredictable
a) One dimensional flow 31. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude
decreases
b) Uniform flow
a) Linearly
c) Steady flow
b) First slowly and then steeply
d) Turbulent flow
c) Unpredictable
25. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is
being opened is d) None of the above
a) Steady 32. The pressure of the order of 10 ’’’ torr can be
measured by
b) Unsteady
a) Bourdon tube
c) Laminar
b) Pirani Gauge
d) Vortex
c) Micro- manometer
26. Mercury is often used in barometer because
d) Ionisation gauge
a) It is the best liquid
33. The operation of McLeod gauge used for low
b) The height of barometer will be less
pressure measurement is based on the principle of
c) Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be
a) Gas law
neglected
b) Boyle’s law
d) Both (b) and (c)
c) Charle’s law
27. Barometer is used to measure
d) Pascal’s law
a) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
34. The specific weight of sea water is more that of
b) Atmospheric pressure
pure water because it contains
c) Very low pressure
a) Dissolved air
d) Difference of pressure between two points
b) Dissolved salt
28. _______ can be used for measuring speed of a
c) Suspended matter
submarine moving in deep sea.
d) All the above
a) Venturimeter
35. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the
b) Orifice plate
smallest possible area due to force of
170
a) Surface tension a) h
b) Viscosity b) wh
c) Friction c) w/h
d) Cohesion d) h/w
36. Falling drops of water become spheres due to 42. The units of kinematic viscosity are
the property of a) Metres2 per sec
a) Adhesion b) Kg sec/metre
b) Cohesion c) Newton-sec per metre
c) Surface tension d) None of the above
d) Viscosity 43. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is
37. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces known as
as compared to cohesion forces are a) Specific viscosity
a) Less b) Viscosity index
b) More c) Kinematic viscosity
c) Equal d) Coefficient of viscosity
d) There is no such criterion 44. ______ is the unit of kinematic viscosity.
38. The point in the immersed body through which a) Pascal
the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to
b) Poise
act is known as
c) Stoke
a) Meta center
d) Faraday
b) Center of pressure
45. A one dimensional flow is one which
c) Center of gravity
a) Is uniform flow
b) Is steady uniform flow
39. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on
an immersed body is called c) Takes place in straight lines
a) Upthrust d) Involves zero transverse component of flow
b) Buoyancy 46. The alcohol is used in manometers because
c) Center of pressure a) It has low vapour pressure
d) All the above are correct b) It is clearly visible
40. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a c) It has low surface tension
floating body are d) It can provide longer column due to low density
a) The meta-center should lie above the center of 47. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced
gravity slightly, it oscillates about
b) The center of buoyancy and the center of gravity a) E.g of body
must lie on the same vertical line b) Center of pressure
c) A rightning couple should be formed c) Center of buoyancy
d) All the above are correct d) Metacentre
41. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the 48. Buoyant force is
depth of any point from the surface, then pressure
a) Resultant force acting on a floating body
intensity at that point will be
171
b) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced a) Pressure in gases
c) Force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium b) Liquid discharge
d) The resultant force on a body due to the fluid c) Pressure in liquids
surrounding it d) Gas velocities
49. Ratio of inertia force to surface Tension is 56. Rotameter is a device used to measure
known as
a) Absolute pressure
a) Mach number
b) Velocity of fluid
b) Froude number
c) Flow
c) Reynold’s number
d) Rotation
d) Weber’s number
57. Flow of water in a pipe about 3 meters in
50. The ratio of inertia force to elastic force is diameter can be measured by
known as
a) Orifice plate
a) Mach number
b) Venturimeter
b) Froude number
c) Rotameter
c) Reynold’s number
d) Pitot tube
d) Weber’s number
58. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
51. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
a) Pascal law
a) At the centroid
b) Newton’s law of viscosity
b) Above the centroid
c) Boundary layer theory
c) Below the centroid
d) Continuity equation
d) At metacentre
59. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the
52. The time oscillation of a floating body with acceleration of any fluid particle is
increase in metacentric height will be
a) Constant
a) Same
b) Variable
b) Higher
c) Zero
c) Lower
d) Never zero
d) Unpredictable
60. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the
53. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is flow is
a) At the centre of gravity a) Steady
b) Above the centre of gravity b) Unsteady
c) Below be centre of gravity c) Uniform
d) Unpredictable d) Laminar
54. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should 61. Uniform flow occurs when
be installed in
a) The flow is steady
a) Vertical line
b) The flow is streamline
b) Horizontal line
c) Size and shape of the cross section in a particular
c) Inclined line with flow downward length remain constant
d) In any direction and in any location d) Size and cross section change uniformly along
55. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure length
172
62. Gradually varied flow is a) Increases
a) Steady uniform b) Decreases
b) Non-steady non-uniform c) Data insufficient to predict
c) Steady non-uniform d) Remains unchanged
d) True one-dimensional 69. The most commonly used joint in the
63. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse underground pipe lines is the
direction is known as a) Coupling
a) One dimensional flow b) Expansion joint
b) Uniform flow c) Sleeve joint
c) Steady flow d) Flange
d) Turbulent flow 70. _____ denotes the effect of compressibility in
64. The flow in which each liquid particle has a fluid flow.
definite path and their paths do not cross each a) Mach number
other is called b) Weber number
a) One dimensional flow c) Euler number
b) Uniform flow d) Reynolds number
c) Steady flow 71. Molten soap mass is transported by a _____
d) Streamline flow pump.
65. The nominal size of the discharge pipe of a a) Reciprocating
pump is usually_____ the nominal size of the inlet b) Diaphragm
pipe.
c) Gear
a) Twice
d) Centrifugal
b) Smaller than
72. Foot valves provided in pumps are _______
c) Same as valve.
d) Larger than a) Three/four way
66. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a b) Pressure reducing
closed conduit is c) Directional control
a) Parabolic d) Relief
73. The normal range of exit cone angle of
b) Hyperbolic
venturimeter is
c) Logarithmic
a) 15 to 25
d) Linear b) 7 to 15
67. With increasing flow rate, the hydraulic c) 2 to 5
efficiency of a centrifugal pump d) 5 to 8
a) Decreases and then increases 74. The laminar flow of a Newtonion fluid ceases to
exist, when the Reynolds number exceeds
b) Remains constant
a) 4000
c) Increases and then decreases
b) 1500
d) Monotonically decreases c) 3000
68. If the discharge of a centrifugal pump is d) 2100
throttled, then its suction lifts 75. When the momentum of one fluid is used for
moving another fluid, such a device is called
173
a) Jet pump a) C.G of body
b) Acid egg b) Center of pressure
c) Blower c) Center of buoyancy
d) None of these d) Metacentre
75. The power loss in an orifice meter is _____ that 82. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the
in a venturimeter. divergent portion of a Venturimeter
a) Same as a) Remains constant
b) Data insufficient, cannot be predicted b) Increases
c) More than c) Decreases
d) Less than d) Depends upon mass of liquid
76. The terminal velocity of a particle moving 83. When the Mach number is between _____ the
through a fluid varies as dpn. What is the value of flow is called super-sonic flow.
n1 for Newton’s regime? a) 1 and 2.5
a) 0.5 b) 2.5 and 4
b) 1.5 c) 4 and 6
c) 2 d) 1 and 6
d) 1 84. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
77. The nominal size of the discharge pipe of a a) At the centre of gravity
pump is usually ______ the nominal size of the inlet b) Above the centre of gravity
pipe. c) Below be centre of gravity
a) Smaller than d) None
b) Larger than
85. A flow is called super-sonic if the
c) Twice
a) Velocity of flow is very high
d) Same as
b) Discharge is difficult to measure
78. The fluid property, due to which, mercury does
c) Mach number is between 1 and 6
not wet the glass is
d) None of these
a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity 86. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow
c) Cohesion everywhere within the fluid is
d) Adhesion a) Maximum
b) Minimum
79. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes
c) Zero
relative motion between its different layers is
d) Nonzero finite
called
a) Surface tension 87. Which is the correct statement?
b) Coefficient of viscosity a) The absolute roughness of a pipe decreases with
c) Viscosity time
d) Osmosis b) A pipe becomes smooth after using for long time
c) The friction factor decreases with time
80. A weir is said to be narrow-crested weir, if the
d) The absolute roughness increases with time
width of the crest of the weir is ____ has the height
of water above the weir crest. 88. The speed of a pressure wave through a pipe
a) Equal to depends upon
b) Less than a) The length of pipe
c) More than b) The viscosity of fluid
d) None c) The bulk modulus for the fluid
d) The original head
81. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced
slightly, it oscillates about
174
89. When time of closure tc = L/vo (where L is c) Specific gravity
length of pipe and vo is speed of pressure wave), d) None of these
the portion of pipe length subjected to maximum 95. The flow of water through the hole in the
head is bottom of a wash basin is an example of
a) L/4 a) Steady flow
b) L/3 b) Uniform flow
c) L/2 c) Free vortex
d) L d) Forced vortex
90. If the elevation of hydraulic grade line at the 96. A flow in which the viscosity of fluid in
junction of three pipes is above the elevation of dominating over the inertia force is called
reservoirs B and C and below reservoir A, then the a) Steady flow
direction of flow will be b) Unsteady flow
a) From reservoir A to reservoirs B and C c) Laminar flow
b) From reservoir B to reservoirs C and A d) Turbulent flow
c) From reservoir C to reservoirs A and B
97. The value of coefficient of discharge is ______
d) Unpredictable
the value of coefficient of velocity.
91. A notch is used to measure ______ of liquids. a) Less than
a) Pressure b) Same as
b) Discharge c) More than
c) Velocity d) None
d) Volume
98. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of
92. Euler’s number is the ratio of ______ force to diameter (d) is
pressure force. a) d/6
a) Inertia b) d/4
b) Gravity c) d/2
c) Viscous d) d
d) None of these
99. A flow whose streamline is represented by a
93. A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its straight line is called ______ dimensional flow.
density does not change during the flow is called a) One
______ flow b) Two
a) Incompressible c) Three
b) Compressible d) Four
c) Viscous
100. The body will float if the force of buoyancy is
d) None of these
______ the weight of the liquid displaced.
94. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a a) Equal to
standard temperature and pressure is called b) Less than
a) Specific weight c) More than
b) Mass density d) None
175
Answer Key:
1. (a) 11. (a) 21. (a) 31. (b) 41. (b) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (c) 81. (d) 91. (b)
2. (b) 12. (e) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (a) 52. (c) 62. (c) 72. (c) 82. (c) 92. ()
3. (d) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (b) 43. (c) 53. (c) 63. (a) 73. (b) 83. (d) 93. (a)
4. (c) 14. (b) 24. (d) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (d) 74. (d) 84. (c) 94. (a)
5. (c) 15. (c) 25. (b) 35. (a) 45. (d) 55. (d) 65. (b) 75. (c) 85. (c) 95. (c)
6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (c) 76. (a) 86. (d) 96. (c)
7. (d) 17. (c) 27. (b) 37. (b) 47. (d) 57. (d) 67. (d) 77. (c) 87. (c) 97. (a)
8. (d) 18. (d) 28. (d) 38. (b) 48. (d) 58. (d) 68. (a) 78. (a) 88. (a) 98. (b)
9. (d) 19. (c) 29. (d) 39. (b) 49. (d) 59. (c) 69. (c) 79. (c) 89. (c) 99. (a)
10.(a) 20. (d) 30. (c) 40. (d) 50. (a) 60. (b) 70. (a) 80. (b) 90. (c) 100.(c)
176
18. MANUFACTURING SCIENCE
Foundry Technology - Melting furnaces - Special casting processes - Gating and riser design -
Casting defects - Arc welding, TIG, MIG, submerged arc, resistance welding, Gas welding,
Flash butt welding, Solid state welding - Welding metallurgy - Forming Technology - Powder
metallurgy.

1. Which type of process the machining can be c) Protects casting from oxidation
a) Hot working d) Forms slag
b) Cold working 7. Plastic bottles are manufactured using the
c) Both (a) and (b) process of
d) None of these a) Blow molding
2. By cold working of materials, the fatigue strength b) Injection molding
a) Increases c) Atomizing
b) Decreases d) Die casting
c) Remains same 8. ARC blow occurs in _______ welding
d) None of these a) AC
3. During welding, when the weld reduces the cross b) DC
sectional thickness of the base metals, it is called c) Gas
______ d) Resistance
a) Lack of penetration 9. Which one of the following welding processes
b) Spattering uses non-consumable electrode?
c) Undercutting a) Gas metal arc welding
d) Blow hole b) Submerged arc welding
4. On increasing the thickness, the furnace will drop c) Gas tungsten arc welding
furnace d) Flux coated arc welding
a) Temperature inside the outer surface of furnace 10. What type of fusion welding process is used for
walls will drop welding sheet metals of all engineering metals
b) Temperature inside the furnace will drop (except Cu, Ag) in automobile and air craft
c) Energy consumption will increase industries, pipe and tubing production?
d) Heat loss through furnace walls will increase a) Thermit welding
5. Induction furnaces are used for b) Electroslag welding
a) Conductivity c) Resistance welding
b) Melting of aluminium d) Submerged arc welding
c) Heat of insulator
d) Heat treatment of casting 11. In an arc furnace, the choke is provide to
a) Improve power factor
6. Which of the following is not a function of flux b) Reduce the surge severity
that is added during casting of cast iron? c) Stabilize the arc
a) Absorb impurities d) All of above
b) Replenishes material losses
177
12. High speed cutting tools operate at cutting molten electrode metal fills up the arc gap is known
speeds _______than carbon steel tools as
a) 2 to 3 times lower a) ARC
b) 2 to 3 times higher b) Short ARC
c) 5 to 8 times higher c) ARC length
d) 8 to 20 times higher d) ARC blow
13. The main application of indirect arc furnace is 19. For intermittent work, which of the following
to melt furnace is suitable?
a) Non-ferrous metals a) Indirect arc furnace
b) Steel b) Core furnace
c) Iron c) Either of above
d) None of these d) Neither of above
14. Blow holes are casting defects 20. In a particular type of welding, flux is prepared
(a) Which occur due to some sand shearing from in the form of a coarse powder and granulated flux
the core surface is spread over the joint. What is this type of welding
(b) Which takes the form of internal voids of surface process called?
depression due to excessive gaseous material not a) Electric arc welding
able to escape b) Submerged arc welding
(c) Which occur due to discontinuity in metal c) MIG welding
casting resulting from hindered contraction d) TIG welding
(d) Caused by two streams of metals that are too 21. Direct resistance heating is used in
cold to fuse properly a) Resistance welding
15. Induction hardening is possible in b) Electrode boiler
a) Non-conducting material c) Salt-bath furnace
b) AC supply only d) None of these
c) Ferrous material 22. The power factor will be leading in case of
d) DC supply only a) Inductance heating
16. Low frequency supply is necessary for direct b) Resistance heating
core type induction furnaces because c) Dielectric heating
a) With normal frequency supply the d) Electric arc heating
electromagnetic forces cause severe stirring action 23. Which of the following is a heat treatment
in the molten metal. furnace?
b) Magnetic coupling between the primary and a) Annealing furnace
secondary circuit is poor. b) Muffle furnace
c) Both (a) and (b) c) Reheating furnace
d) None of these d) Rotary Kiln
17. Induction heating takes place in 24. For arc furnaces the voltage high current power
a) Conducting but non-magnetic materials supply is needed because
b) Conducting materials may be magnetic or non- a) Life of the roof refractory is increased
magnetic materials b) Maximum secondary voltage is also limited to
c) Insulating materials 275V
d) Conducting and magnetic materials c) Heavy current produce large amount of heat
18. If a gas metal arc process uses a low arc voltage resulting in higher temperature
and the arc is continuously interrupted as the d) All of these
178
25. The common welding error that occurs due to a) Reduced radiation loss
shrinkage of weld metal, faulty clamping of parts, b) Large surface area per unit bath volume
faulty penetration or overheating at joints is called? c) Low power consumption
a) Distortion d) All of these
b) Warping 33. An electric furnace producing heat by means of
c) Porous weld an electric arc struck between each of three
d) Poor fusion electrodes and the charge is called ______ furnace.
26. For arc heating, the electrodes used are made a) Arc
of b) Resistance
a) Tungsten c) Low frequency induction
b) Copper d) None of these
c) Graphite 34. It is desirable to keep the arc length short in
d) Aluminium order to
27. Which is the most thermally efficient furnace? a) Increase the life of roof refractory
a) Boiler furnace b) Have better heating
b) Reverberatory furnace c) Have better string action and reduce oxidation
c) Reheating furnace d) All of the above
d) Rotary kilns 35. Which of the following joint have high corrosion
28. Resistance ovens are used for resistance?
a) Drying of varnish coating, drying and baking of a) Bolted joint
potteries. b) Riveted joint
b) Domestic and commercial heating. c) Welding joint
c) Vulcanizing and hardening of synthetic material. d) None of these
d) All of the above 36. Large tonnage of refractory bricks are died in a
29. In arc furnace, energy losses that take place in a) Muffle furnace
the furnace are b) Shaft furnace
a) Losses through water cooling c) Tunnel kiln
b) Losses through walls d) Rotary hearth furnace
c) Losses through escape gasses
d) All of the above
30. In DC arc welding, if leads are arranged in work 37. In fusion welding, penetration is the ratio of
as Negative pole of the welding arc and electrode a) Depth of the weld to its length
as Positive pole of the welding arc, the b) Length of the weld to its depth
arrangement is known as c) Width of the weld to its depth
a) Fusion d) Depth of the weld to its width
b) Reverse polarity 38. The method of heating used for non conducting
c) Forward welding materials is
d) Direct polarity a) Radiant heating
31. Cement kiln is a b) Dielectric heating
a) Rotary kiln c) Resistance heating
b) Natural draft furnace d) Induction heating
c) Batch furnace 39. Which of the following is not a directly fired
d) Tunnel kiln furnace?
32. The arc furnace of conical shapes have the a) By-product coke oven
advantage(s) of b) Calcination kiln
179
c) Sintering furnace 47. Advantage of using electron beam welding
d) Open hearth furnace is/are
40. In induction heating, which of the following is of a) Welds are clean
high value? b) Absence of porosity
a) Frequency c) Distortion less
b) Voltage d) All of these
c) Current 48. Which of the following types is not fillet weld?
d) Power factor a) T joint
41. Which of the following ray is not produced b) Lap joint
during welding? c) Butt joint
a) Gamma rays d) Corner joint
b) Visible light rays 49. Turn down ratio of burner gives an idea of the
c) Ultraviolet rays _______ in the furnace.
d) Infrared rays a) Range of fuel firing rates
42. Heat transfer rate to the stock/charge in the b) Volume of the combustion chamber
furnace does not depend upon the c) Maximum heat input rate only
a) Thickness of the stock d) Minimum heat input rate only
b) Size of furnace 50. Which of the following processes do not use flux
c) Use of waste heat recovery equipments during welding?
d) Emissivity of refractory walls a) Submerged arc
43. _______ atmosphere is maintained inside an b) Oxyfuel
iron blast furnace c) Flux cored arc
a) Oxidising d) Friction
b) Reducing 51. The voltage-current characteristics of the arc
c) Decarburising welding must be
d) Inert a) Exponentially rising
44. For a good weld, cross section of the added b) Straight line
metal should be ______ and oxidation should be c) Drooping
_______ d) Parabolic
a) Large, maximum 52. In reverberatory furnace, a charge is heated
b) Large, minimum mainly by
c) Small, minimum a) Radiation of heat from the roof of the
d) Small, maximum combustion chamber
b) Natural convection
45. The material of the heating element for a c) Conduction
furnace should have d) None of these
a) Lower melting point
b) High specific resistance 53. Green sand mold indicates that
c) Higher temperature coefficient a) Mold is green in colour
d) All of these b) Mold contains moisture
c) Mold has been totally dried
46. Which of the following is an example of fusion d) Polymeric mold has been cured
welding?
a) Thermit welding with pressure 54. Non-consumable electrodes are made of
b) Resistance welding a) Carbon
c) Forge welding b) Graphite
d) Arc welding c) Same material as the metal pieces to be welded
180
d) Either carbon or graphite 62. The purpose of controlling the furnace
55. The thermal efficiency of a steel slab reheating atmosphere is to prevent surface attack by
furnace (walking beam type) may be about ______ a) Decarburising
a) 40% b) Oxidation/scaling
b) 15% c) Sulphur penetration
c) 85% d) Either of the above
d) 65% 63. High furnace temperature cannot be achieved
56. Which of the following is not a resistance by use of a lean fuel gas in the furnace by
welding? a) Preheating the fuel gas
a) Spot welding b) Increasing the draft in the furnace
b) Butt welding c) Oxygen enrichment of combustion air
c) Pressure welding d) Preheating the combustion air
d) Percussion welding 64. Which flame is suitable for welding steel?
57. The assemblage of parts that are joined by a) Neutral flame
welding is called a _______ b) Oxidising flame
a) Solidification c) Carburising flame
b) Oxidation d) None of above
c) Fusion 65. The primary purpose of a sprue in a casting
d) Weldment mold is to
58. Which of the following engineering materials is a) Feed molten metal from the pouring basin to the
the most suitable candidate for hot chamber die gate
casting? b) Acts as a reservoir for molten metal
a) Titanium c) Feed the casting at a rate consistent with the rate
b) Copper of solidification
c) Tin d) Help feed the casting until all solidification takes
d) Low carbon steel place
59. Which of the following is an example of plastic 66. Which furnace employs preheating, heating,
welding? and soaking zones?
a) Gas welding a) Soaking pit
b) Arc welding b) Reheating furnace
c) Forge welding c) Open hearth furnace
d) Thermit welding d) Cupola
60. The current is not passed continuously in 67. Hardness of green sand mold increases with
a) Seam welding a) Increase in both moisture content and
b) Flash welding permeability
c) Percussion welding b) Increase in moisture content beyond 6%
d) Projection welding c) Decrease in permeability
d) Increase in permeability
61. In resistance welding, two electrodes are made
of 68. In inert gas metal arc welding
a) Aluminium a) Argon is used for welding thick materials and
b) Copper helium is used for welding thin materials
c) Iron b) Argon is used for welding thin materials and
d) Bronze helium is used for welding thick materials
c) Both argon and helium are used for welding thick
materials
181
d) Both argon and helium are used for welding thin b) Dry sand
materials c) Green sand
69. In which of the following process, heat is d) Loam sand
created by blacksmith fire 76. An example of shaft furnace is the
a) Spot welding a) Soaking pit
b) Projection welding b) L.D converter
c) Forge welding c) Glass melting tank
d) Seam welding d) Blast furnace
70. Electrodes used in carbon arc welding are made 77. Arc welding is also known as
up of a) Plastic welding
a) Carbon b) Pressure welding
b) Graphite c) Non-pressure welding
c) Zinc d) None of these
d) Either carbon or graphite 78. Which of the following is a natural draft
71. Which is the continuous furnace? furnace?
a) Coke ovens a) Blast furnace stoves
b) Annealing furnace b) Power plant boilers
c) Glass tank furnace c) Sintering furnace
d) None of these d) None of these
72. Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to 79. The voltage needed in resistance welding does
compensate for shrinkage when not depend upon
a) The temperature of liquid metal drops from a) Composition
pouring to freezing temperature b) Area
b) The metal changes from liquid to solid state at c) Thickness of weld
freezing temperature d) Length of weld
c) The temperature of the solid phase drops from 80. In which of the following types of castings, the
freezing to room temperature molten metal is allowed to solidify upto the
d) The temperature of metal drops from pouring to required thickness?
room temperature a) Slush casting
b) Die casting
73. Which of the following is not true for gas
welding? c) Permanent mold casting
a) It is suitable for thin sheets d) Semi permanent mold casting
b) Heat affected zone and distortion are less as 81. In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size
compare to arc welding 25.000±0.040mm mate with holes of size
c) It is slower than arc welding 25.000±0.020 mm. The maximum possible
d) There are safety problems in storing and clearance in the assembly will be
handling the gases a) 10 microns [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
74. Tunnel kilns are usually used for b) 20 microns
c) 30 microns
a) Drying/tempering of refractories
d) 60 microns
b) Roasting of pyrites
c) Melting of glass 82. Which of the following is false regarding
d) Reheating of slabs material to be welded and its corresponding
75. According to their use, which of the following is welding process?
not a type of molding sand? a) High carbon steel - Shielded metal arc, Flux cored
a) Wet sand arc, and submerged arc welding
182
b) High alloy steels – GMAW and GTAW welding c) Lead sulphide
c) Stainless steel – GTAW, GMAW and shielded d) Zinc chloride
metal arc welding 91. The electric furnace in which heat is produced
d) Aluminium alloys – GMAW or GTAW process by a combination of induced current and skin effect
83. An expendable pattern is used in is called _______ furnace.
a) Slush casting a) High frequency induction
b) Centrifugal casting b) Low frequency inductance
c) Investment casting c) Resistance
d) Squeeze casting d) Arc
84. Which of the following is not a hearth furnace? 92. In metal arc welding, the filler material required
a) Reheating furnace is
b) Cupola a) Iron
c) Glass tank furnace b) No filler is required
d) Open hearth furnace c) Copper
85. Which among the following is true about riser? d) Aluminium
a) It permits the molten metal to rise above the 93. The crystal structure of 𝛼-iron
highest point in the casting a) Simple cubic
b) Filling up of mold cavity can be visually checked b) Face centered cubic
from it c) Body centered cubic
c) The casting solidifies directionally towards riser d) Close packed hexagonal
d) All of the above 94. _______ is an indirectly heated furnace
86. Example of a periodic furnace is the a) Soaking pit
a) Blast furnace stove b) Muffle furnace
b) Blast furnace c) Reheating furnace
c) Coke oven heating chamber d) Open hearth furnace
d) Rotary kilns 95. The product from the blast furnace is called
87. Which of the following is not a casting defect? a) Cast iron
a) Swell b) Wrought iron
b) Hot tears c) Pig iron
c) Hot cracks d) Steel
d) Shrinkage 96. Arc drawn between two electrodes produces
88. The heat generated in resistance welding is heat has a temperature
expressed by a) Between 0-600℃
a) 2𝐼𝑅𝑡 b) Between 500-1000℃
b) 𝐼𝑅𝑡 2 c) Between 1000-3500℃
c) 𝐼𝑅2 𝑡 d) Of the order of 4000℃
d) 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡 97. Annealing improves
89. In casting, scrabs or buckles occurs due to a) Grain size
a) Excessive mold hardness by ramming b) Mechanical properties
b) Very large casting c) Electrical properties
c) Sand casting from the core surface d) All of above
d) Misalignment of pattern parts 98. Ceramic coating material for furnace refractory,
90. The commonly used flux in brazing is which increases its emissivity and thus the radiation
a) Borax heat transfer rate in the furnace, comprises of
b) Rosin a) Beryllium
183
b) Zircon powder d) Varying the arc length
c) Graphite powder 100. The structure which have the highest packing
d) Thoria of atoms are
99. In submerged arc furnace the power is a) Simple cubic lattice
controlled by b) Body centered cubic lattice
a) Varying the voltage applied to the electrodes c) Hexagonal close packed lattice
b) Varying the spacing between the electrodes d) None of these
c) Either (a) or (b)
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (b) 71. (c) 81. (d) 91. (a)
2. (a) 12. (b) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (c) 52. (a) 62. (d) 72. (c) 82. (a) 92. (b)
3. (c) 13. (a) 23. (a) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (b) 63. (b) 73. (b) 83. (c) 93. (c)
4. (a) 14. (b) 24. (d) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (a) 84. (b) 94. (b)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (b) 35. (c) 45. (b) 55. (a) 65. (a) 75. (a) 85. (d) 95. (b)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c) 36. (c) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (b) 76. (d) 86. (a) 96. (c)
7. (a) 17. (a) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (d) 57. (d) 67. (c) 77. (c) 87. (c) 97. (a)
8. (b) 18. (b) 28. (d) 38. (b) 48. (c) 58. (c) 68. (b) 78. (a) 88. (d) 98. (b)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (d) 39. (a) 49. (a) 59. (c) 69. (c) 79. (a) 89. (c) 99. (d)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (a) 50. (d) 60. (a) 70. (d) 80. (a) 90. (a) 100.(c)
184
19. MATERIALS SCIENCE
Basic concept on structure of solids - Common ferrous and non-ferrous materials and their
applications - Heat-treatment of steels - Non-metals-plastics – Ceramics - Composite
materials and nano-materials

1. Malleable cast iron is produced a) Amount of carbon it contains
a) By adding magnesium to molten cast iron b) Amount of cementite it contains
b) From white cast iron by annealing process c) Amount of alloying it contains
c) By quick cooling of molten cast iron d) Method of manufacturing of steel
d) None of these 8. Which of the following is not basic component
2. Steel containing up to 0.15% carbon, is called of Materials science?
a) Dead mild steel a) Cost
b) Mild steel b) Properties
c) Medium carbon steel c) Structure
d) High carbon steel d) Performance
3. Tungsten when added to steel _______ the 9. Free cutting steels
critical temperature. a) Contain carbon in free form
a) Does not effect b) Require minimum cutting force
b) Lowers c) Is used where rapid machining is the prime
c) Raises requirement
d) None of these d) Can be cut freely
4. The electric process of steel making is especially 10. The most malleable metal is
adopted to [EKT 2 2016 EEE/ECE]
a) Magnet steel a) Iron
b) Alloy and carbon tool steel b) Platinum
c) High speed tool steel c) Gold
d) All of these d) Silver
5. When the steel is normalized, its 11. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes
a) Ductility decreases a) Reduced neutron absorption cross-section
b) Ultimate tensile strength b) Improved weldability
c) Yield point increases c) Embrittlement
d) All of these d) Corrosion resistance
6. Which of the following when used in ordinary 12. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic
low carbon steels, makes the metal ductile and of stainless steel can be increased by
good bending qualities? a) Normalising
a) Sulphur b) Hardening and cold working
b) Phosphorus c) Martempering
c) Manganese d)Full annealing
d) Silicon 13. The heat treatment process used for castings
7. The hardness of steel depends upon the a) Carburising
[EKT 2 2016 MECH] b) Noramlising
185
c) Annealing d) Silicon steel
d) Tempering 21. Monel metal is an alloy of
14. Bronze is an alloy of a) Nickel and copper
a) Copper and zinc b) Nickel and chromium
b) Copper and tin c) Nickel, Chromium and iron
c) Copper, tin and zinc d) Copper and chromium
d) None of these 22. Strong and ductile materials
15. The materials in which the atoms are arranged a) Polymers
regularly in some directions but not other b) Ceramics
a) Crystalline material c) Metals
b) Amorphous material d) Semiconductors
c) None of these 23. Which of the following statements are true for
d) Mesomorphous material annealing of steels?
16. The hardness is the property of a material due a) Steels are heated to 500 to 700°C
to which it b) Cooling is down slowly and steadily
a) Can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets c) Internal stresses are relieved
b) Can be drawn into wires d) All of these
c) Breaks with little permanent distortion 24. Quenching is not necessary when hardening is
d) Can cut another metal done by
17. The toughness of a material ______ when it is a) Case hardening
heated. b) Flame hardening
a) Decreases c) Nitriding
b) Increases d) Any of these
c) Remains same 25. The property of a material necessary for
d) None of these forgings, in stamping images on coins and in
18. Beryllium bronze has ornamental work, is [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
a) High yielding point a) Elasticity
b) High fatigue limit b) Plasticity
c) Both (a) and (b) c) Ductility
d) None of these d) Malleability
19. Which of the following statement is wrong? 26. The coordination number of a face centered
[EKT 1 2015 MECH] cubic space lattice is
a) The spheroidising process is usually applied to a) 6
high carbon tool steels which are difficult to b) 12
machine c) 18
b) In spheroidising process, the cementite in the d) 20
granular form is produced in the structure of steel 27. Thermoplastic materials are those materials
c) The annealing process causes complete which
recrystallisation in steels which have been a) Do not become hard with the applications of
severely cold worked and a new grain structure is heat and pressure and no chemical change occurs
formed b) Are flexible and can withstand considerable
d) None of these wear under suitable conditions
20. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts c) Are formed into shape under heat and pressure
is and results in a permanently hard product
a) Nickel steel d) Are used as a friction lining for clutches and
b) Chrome steel brakes
c) Nickel-chrome steel
186
28. The process used for relieving the internal 35. The material widely used for making
stresses previously set up in the Metal and for pendulums of clocks is
increasing the machinability of steel, is a) Stainless steel
b) High speed steel
a) Full annealing
c) heat resisting steel
b) Normalising
d) Nickel steel
c) Spheroidising
36. Brass is an alloy of
d) Process annealing
a) Copper and zinc
29. In induction hardening _______ is high
b) Copper and tin
a) Current
c) Copper, tin and zinc
b) Voltage
d) None of these
c) Frequency
37. Which of the following display properties
d) Temperature
similar to that of steel?
30. When low carbon steel is heated up to upper
a) Blackheart cast iron
critical temperature
b) Whiteheart cast iron
a) There is no change in grain size
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) The average grain size is a minimum
d) None of these
c) The grain size increases very rapidly
38. A small percentage of boron is added to steel
d) The grain size first increases and then decreases
in order to
very rapidly
a) Increase wear resistance
31. Silicon in cast iron [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
b) Increase hardenability
a) Makes the iron soft and easily machinable
c) Reduce machinability
b) Increases hardness and brittleness
d) Increase endurance strength
c) Makes the iron white and hard
39. The blade of a power saw is made of
d) Aids fusibility and Fluidity
a) Boron steel
32. The property of a material essential for spring
b) High speed steel
materials is
c) Stainless steel
a) Stiffness
d) Malleable cast iron
b) Ductility
40. Which of the following has maximum
c) Resilience
malleability?
d) Plasiticity
a) Lead
33. Thermosetting plastics are those materials
b) Soft steel
which
c) Wrought iron
a) Are formed into shape under heat and pressure
d) Copper
and results in a permanently hard product
41. Silicon is added in low carbon steels to
b) Do not become hard with the application of
a) Make the steel tougher and harder
heat and pressure and no chemical change occurs
b) Make the steel of good bending qualities
c) Are flexible and can withstand considerable
c) Raise the yield point
wear under suitable conditions
d) All of these
d) Are used as a friction lining for clutches and
42. Smelting is the process of
brakes
a) Removing the impurities like clay, sand etc from
34. Duplex process of steel making is a
the iron ore by washing with water
combination of [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
b) Expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and
a) Basic Bessemer and acid open hearth processes
arsenic from the iron ore by heating in shallow
b) Acid Bessemer and basic open hearth processes
kilns
c) Acid Bessemer and acid open hearth processes
c) Reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of
d) Basic Bessemer and basic open hearth
a flux
processes
187
d) All of the above 51. The casting ability of aluminium increases
43. The type of space lattice found in alpha-iron is when _______ is added to aluminium.
a) Face centered cubic space lattice a) Copper
b) Body centered cubic space lattice b) Magnesium
c) Close packed hexagonal space lattice c) Silicon
d) None of these d) Lead and Bismuth
44. Cast iron is manufactured in 52. A tensile test is performed on a mild steel
a) Blast furnace round bar. Its diameter after fracture will
b) Cupola [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
c) Bessemer converter a) Remains same
d) Open hearth furnace b) Increase
45. When steel containing more than 0.8% carbon c) Decrease
is cooled slowly below the lower critical point, it d) Depend upon rate of loading
consists of 53. Chilled cast iron is produced
a) Mainly pearlite a) By adding magnesium to molten cast iron
b) Mainly ferrite b) By quick cooling of molten cast iron
c) Ferrite and pearlite c) From white cast iron by annealing process
d) Pearlite and cementite d) None of these
46. Which of the following is a point imperfection? 54. Iron ore is, usually found in the form
a) Vacancy a) Oxides
b) Interstitial imperfection b) Carbonates
c) Frenkel imperfection c) Sulphides
d) All of these d) All of these
47. In acidic Bessemer process, the furnace is lined 55. Cast iron is a
with a) Brittle material
a) Silica bricks b) Malleable material
b) A mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks c) Ductile material
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Tough material
d) None of these 56. Manganese is added in low carbon steel to
48. In a unit cell of a body centered cubic space a) Make the steel tougher and harder
lattice, there are ______ atoms b) Raise the yield point
a) 6 c) Make the steel ductile and of good bending
b) 9 qualities
c) 14 d) All of the above
d) 17 57. Which of the following is an amorphous
49. Shock resisting steels would have material?
a) Toughness a) Mica
b) Low tensile strength b) Silver
c) Low wear resistance c) Lead
d) Low hardness d) Glass
50. Which of the following gives the correct order 58. Silicon when added to copper improves
of increasing hot hardness of cutting a) Hardness
tool materials? b) Hardness and strength
a) Diamond, Carbide, High speed steel c) Machinability
b) Carbide, Diamond, High speed steel d) Ductility and strength
c) High speed steel, Carbide, Diamond 59. Sulphur in cast iron
d) High speed steel, Diamond, Carbide a) Makes the iron white and hard
188
b) Makes the iron soft and easily machinable 67. The machinability of steel is improved by
c) Increases hardness and brittleness adding
d) Aids fusibility and fluidity a) Nickel
60. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be b) Chromium
suitable for cutting c) Nickel and chromium
a) Steel d) Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
b) Brass 68. Which of the following process of steel making
c) Cast iron is in operation of Tata Iron and Steel Works,
d) Aluminium Jamshedpur?
61. Wrought iron a) Open hearth process
a) Is a ductile material b) Duplex process
b) Can be easily forged or welded c) Bessemer process
c) Cannot stand sudden and excessive shocks d) Electric process
d) All of these 69. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms
62. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding to the total volume of the unit cell is called
______ to the molten cast iron. a) Coordination number
a) Chromium b) Space lattice
b) Nickel c) Atomic packing factor
c) Copper d) None of these
d) Magnesium 70. Normalising of steel is done to
63. The temperature in the upper part of the blast a) Refine the grain structure
furnace (zone of reduction) is ______ that of the b) Remove strains caused by cold working
middle part c) Remove dislocations caused in the internal
a) Equal to structure due to hot working
b) Less than d) All of the above
c) Greater than 71. The measure of ductility is
d) None of these a) Percentage elongation
64. The property of a material which enables it to b) Modulous of resilience
retain the deformation permanently, is called c) Modulous of toughness
a) Brittleness d) Ultimate tensile strength
b) Ductility 72. Connecting rod is usually made from
c) Plasticity a) Low carbon steel
d) Malleability b) High carbon steel
65. All of the following alloying elements of steel c) Medium carbon steel
increase hardness but sacrifice ductility, except d) High speed steel
[EKT 2 2015 CSE] 73. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic
a) Nickel nearly at [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
b) Vanadium a) 103 cycles
c) Molybdenum b) 104 cycles
d) Chromium c) 106 cycles
66. Steel contains d) 109 cycles
a) 80% or more iron 74. Free carbon in iron makes the metal
b) 50% or more iron a) Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline
c) Alloying elements like chromium, tungsten, structure
nickel and copper b) Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline
d) Elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in structure
varying quantities c) Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
189
d) Soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline 82. Which of the following property is desirable
structure for materials used in tools and machines?
75. Which of the following impurity in cast iron a) Elasticity
makes it hard and brittle? b) Plasticity
a) Silicon c) Ductility
b) Sulphur d) Malleability
c) Manganese 83. Which of the following is a mesomorphous
d) Phosphorous material?
76. The capacity of a strained body for doing work a) Silver
on the removal of the straining force, is called b) Lead
[EKT 2 2015 MECH] c) Mica
a) Strain energy d) Brass
b) Resilience 84. The temperature point at which the change
c) Proof resilience ends on heating the steel is called
d) Impact energy a) Lower critical point
77. Which of the following material has maximum b) Upper critical point
ductility? c) Point of recalescence
a) Aluminium d) Point of decalescence
b) Copper 85. Which one is not the purpose of heat
c) Mild steel treatment of steels? [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
d) Nickel a) Changing the composition of steel on the
78. Pick out the composite from the list surface
a) Wood b) Changing the percentage of carbon and Si in the
b) Steel bulk
c) Nylon c) Increasing or decreasing the grain size
d) Mica d) removing undesirable residual stresses
79. Nanoparticles are 86. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the
a) Zero dimensional nanomaterial plastic range is called
b) One dimensional nanomaterial a) Resilience
c) Two dimensional nanomaterial b) Fatigue strength
d) Three dimensional nanomaterial c) Toughness
80. Micro-structure of a material is generally d) Creep
examined by 87. Which of the following solids are malleable and
a) Naked eye ductile?
b) Optical microscope a) Ionic solids
c) X-ray techniques b) Covalent solids
d) None of these c) Metallic solids
81. The malleability is the property of a material d) None of these
by virtue of which a material 88. Cast iron has
[EKT 2 2015 MECH] a) High compressive strength
a) Regains its shape and size after the removal of b) Good casting characteristic
external forces c) Excellent Machinability
b) Retains the deformation produced under load d) All of these
permanently 89. Which of the following property is desirable in
c) Can be drawn into wires with the application of parts subjected to shock and impact loads?
a tensile force a) Strength
d) Can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets b) Stiffness
190
c) Brittleness d) Generators and transformers in the form of
d) Toughness laminated cores
90. Time dependent permanent deformation is
called [EKT 2 2015 MECH] 96. The process which improves the machinability
a) Plastic deformation of steels, but lowers the hardness and tensile
b) Elastic deformation strength, is [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
c) Creep a) Normalising
d) Inelastic deformation b) Full annealing
91. The cutting tools are made from c) Spheroidising
a) Nickel steel d) Process annealing
b) Chrome steel 97. The temperature point at which the change
c) Nickel-chrome steel starts on heating the steel is called
d) High speed steel a) Lower critical point
92. The lower critical temperature b) Upper critical point
a) Decreases as the carbon content in steel c) Point of recalescence
increases d) Point of decalescence
b) Increases as the carbon content in steel 98. The hoop stress in a thin cylindrical shell is
increases [EKT 2 2015 EEE]
c) Depends upon the rate of heating a) Longitudinal stress
d) Is same for all steels b) Compressive stress
93. The steel widely used for making precision c) Radial stress
measuring instruments is d) Circumferential tensile stress
a) Nickel steel 99. The heat treatment process used for softening
b) Nickel-chrome steel hardened steel is
c) High speed steel a) Annealing
d) Chrome-vanadium steel b) Normalising
94. The ductility is the property of a material due c) Tempering
to which it d) Carburising
a) Can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets 100. Steel containing 0.8 to 1.5% carbon, is known
b) Can be drawn into wires as
c) Breaks with little permanent distortion a) Medium carbon steel
d) Can resist fracture due to high impact loads b) Dead mild steel
95. Silicon steel is widely used in c) Mild steel
a) Connecting rods d) High carbon steel
b) Cutting tools
c) Motor car crankshafts
191
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (a) 71. (a) 81. (d) 91. (d)
2. (a) 12. (b) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (c) 52. (c) 62. (d) 72. (c) 82. (a) 92. (d)
3. (c) 13. (b) 23. (d) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (b) 63. (b) 73. (c) 83. (c) 93. (a)
4. (d) 14. (b) 24. (c) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (d) 84. (b) 94. (b)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (b) 35. (d) 45. (d) 55. (a) 65. (a) 75. (b) 85. (a) 95. (d)
6. (c) 16. (d) 26. (b) 36. (a) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (b) 76. (b) 86. (a) 96. (c)
7. (a) 17. (a) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (d) 67. (d) 77. (c) 87. (c) 97. (a)
8. (a) 18. (c) 28. (d) 38. (b) 48. (b) 58. (b) 68. (b) 78. (a) 88. (d) 98. (d)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (c) 39. (d) 49. (a) 59. (c) 69. (c) 79. (a) 89. (d) 99. (c)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (a) 50. (c) 60. (a) 70. (d) 80. (d) 90. (c) 100. (d)
192
20. MACHINE DRAWING
Development and intersection of surfaces – Conventional representation of machine

elements – Materials. Surface finish and tolerances – Sectional views – Drawing of screw
thread – Locking devices – Fasteners – Keys and cotters – Knuckle joints – Riveted joints –
Shaft couplings and bearings – Pipe joints.

1. The ultimate strength of steel in tension in d) Shore's sceleroscope
comparison to shear is in the ratio of 7. Resilience of a material is important, when it is
a) 1 : 1 subjected to
b) 2:1 a) Combined loading
c) 3 : 2 b) Fatigue
d) 2 : 3 c) Thermal stresses
2. The property of a material which enables it to d) Shock loading
resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as 8. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at upper end
a) Elasticity and loaded by a falling weight at lower end, the
b) Endurance shock load produced can be decreased by
c) Strength a) Decreasing the cross-section area of bar
d) Toughness b) Increasing the cross-section area of bar
3. A hot short metal is c) Remain unaffected with cross-section area
a) Brittle when cold d) Would depend upon other factors
b) Brittle when hot
c) Brittle under all conditions 9. Other method of reducing shock load in the
d) Ductile at high temperature above case can be
a) To decrease length
4. Guest's theory of failure is applicable for b) To increase length
following type of materials c) Unaffected by length
a) Brittle d) Other factors would decide same
b) Ductile
c) Elastic 10. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar;
d) Plastic then the stress induced in bar will
5. Rankine's theory of failure is applicable for a) Be independent of ratio of mass of load W to
following type of materials mass of bar y
a) Brittle b) Increase with increase in y
b) Ductile c) Decrease with decrease in y
c) Elastic d) Depend on other considerations
d) Plastic 11. Brittle coating technique is used for
6. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be a) Determining brittleness
roughly predicted from following hardness test b) Protecting metal against corrosion
a) Brinell c) Protecting metal against wear and tear
b) Rockwell d) Experimental stress analysis
c) Vicker
193
12. The endurance limit of a material with finished 19. The rated life of a bearing varies
surface in comparison to rough surface is a) Directly as load
a) More b) Inversely as square of load
b) Less c) Inversely as cube of load
c) Same d) Inversely as fourth power of load
d) More or less depending on quantum of load 20. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing
13. The maximum stress due to stress a) Metal strength by cycling
concentration in a bar having circular transverse b) Metal hardness by surface treatment
hole, as compared to its static c) Metal resistance to corrosion by coating
stress without hole will be d) Fatigue limit by overstressing the metal by
a) Same in both cases successively increasing loadings
b) 2 times more 21. Ball bearing type screws are found in following
c) 3 times more application
d) 4 times more a) Screw jack
14. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by b) Aeroplane engines
a) Electroplating c) Crane
b) Polishing d) Steering mechanism
c) Coating 22. A self locking screw has
d) Shot peening a) Fine threads
15. Stress concentration in static loading is more b) Coarse threads
serious in c) Coefficient of friction > tangent of load angle
a) Ductile materials d) Hole for inserting split pin
b) Brittle materials 23. Machine screws are
c) Equally serious in both cases a) Similar to small size tap bolts except that a
d) Depends on other factors greater variety of shapes of heads are available
16. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more b) Slotted for a screw driver and generally used
serious in with a nut
a) Ductile materials c) Used to prevent relative motion between two
b) Brittle materials parts
c) Equally serious in both cases d) Similar to stud
d) Depends on other factors 24. Rivets are generally specified by
17. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum a) Thickness of plates to be riveted
stress that a member can withstand for an infinite b) Length of rivet
number of load applications without failure when c) Diameter of head
subjected to d) Nominal diameter
a) Dynamic loading 25. Which is correct statement related to “Stress
b) Static loading concentration in static loading” is?
c) Combined static and dynamic loading a) Very serious in brittle materials and less serious
d) Completely reversed loading in ductile materials
18. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength can b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious
be increased by in brittle materials
a) Cold working c) Equally serious in both types of materials
b) Shot peening d) Seriousness would depend on other factors
c) Grinding and lapping surface 26. Which is correct statement related to “Stress
d) hot working concentration in cyclic loading” is?
194
a) Very serious in brittle materials and less serious 34. In nitrated parts, the origins of the fatigue
in ductile materials cracks will occur at
b) Very serious in ductile materials and less serious a) Surface
in brittle materials b) Just below the surface
c) Equally serious in both types of materials c) Within the core
d) Seriousness would depend on other factors d) None of the above.
27. In testing a material for endurance strength, it 35. Which is correct statement?
is subjected to a) A member made of steel will generally be more
a) Static load rigid than a member of equal load-carrying ability
b) Dynamic load made of cast iron
c) Impact load b) A member made of cast iron will generally be
d) Completely reversed load more rigid than a member of equal load carrying
28. If a material fails below its yield point, failure ability made of steel
would be due to c) Both will be equally rigid
a) Straining d) Which one is rigid will depend on several other
b) Fatigue factors
c) Creep 36. Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured
d) Sudden loading by
29. The fatigue limit of a material a) Young's modulus
a) Is greatly decreased by poor surface conditions b) Coefficient of elasticity
b) Remains same irrespective of surface conditions c) Elastic limit
c) Depends mainly on core composition d) Endurance limit.
d) Is dependent upon yield strength of material 37. In most machine members, the damping
30. Cold working capacity of the material should be
a) Increases the fatigue strength a) Low
b) Decreases the fatigue strength b) Zero
c) Has no influence on fatigue strength c) High
d) Alone has no influence on fatigue strength d) Could be anything
31. Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to 38. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the
static loading is endurance limit in flexure is
a) Same a) 0.33
b) Higher b) 0.4
c) Lower c) 0.5
d) Depends on other factors d) 0.55
32. Residual stress in materials 39. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as
a) Acts when external load is applied compared to ultimate strength in tension is
b) Becomes zero when external load is removed a) Same
c) Is independent of external loads b) 1/2
d) Is always harmful c) 1/3
d) 2/3
33. The building up of worn and undersized parts,
subjected to repeated loads by electroplating is 40. The endurance limit in shear of carbon steel can
a) Best method be obtained by multiplying the endurance limit in
b) Extremely hazardous flexure by a factor of
c) Has no effect as regards fatigue strength a) 0.25
d) Cheapest method b) 0.45
195
c) 0.55 47. For applications involving high stresses in one
d) 0.75 direction only the following type of thread would
41. A bolt be best suited
a) Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the a) ISO metric thread
other b) Acme thread
b) Has head at one end and other end fits into a c) Square thread
tapped hole in the other part to be joined d) Buttress thread
c) Has both the ends threaded 48. The function of a washer is to
d) Is provided with pointed threads a) Provide cushioning effect
41. The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as b) Provide bearing area
a) Major diameter c) Absorb shocks and vibrations
b) Minor diameter d) Provide smooth surface in place of rough surface
c) Pitch diameter 49. Cap screws are
d) Core diameter a) Similar to small size tap bolts except that a
42. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable greater variety of shapes of heads are available
for b) Slotted for a screw driver and generally used
a) Ductile materials with a nut
b) Brittle materials c) Used to prevent relative motion be-tween parts
c) Elastic materials d) Provided with detachable caps
d) All of the above 50. An alien bolt is
43. The following type of nut is used with alien bolt a) Self locking bolt
a) Alien nut b) Same as stud
b) Hexagonal nut c) Provided with hexagonal depression in head
c) Slotted nut d) Used in high speed components
d) Any one of the above. 51. The deflection of a cantilever beam under load
44. A stud W is 8. If its width is halved, then the deflection
a) Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the under load W will be
other a) 28
b) Has head at one end and other end fits into a b) 8/2
tapped hole in the other part to be joined c) 48
c) Has both the ends threaded d) 8/4
d) Has pointed threads 52. Which of the following is a permanent
45. Shear stress theory is applicable for fastening?
a) Ductile fnaterials a) Bolts
b) Brittle materials b) Keys
c) Elastic materials c) Cotters
d) All of the above d) Rivets
46. A tap bolt 53. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at edge,
a) Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the the distance from the centre line of the rivet hole
other to the nearest edge of the plate in terms of dia. of
b) Has head at one end and other end fits into a rivet d should be equal to
tapped hole in the other part to be joined a) d
c) Has both the ends threaded b) 1.25 d
d) Has pointed threads c) 1.5 d
d) 1.75 d
196
54. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 75%, a) Wood-ruff key
then the ratio of diameter of rivet to the pitch is b) Feather key
equal to c) Flat saddle key
a) 0.2 d) Gib head key
b) 0.25 61. A key made from a cylindrical disc having
c) 0.50 segmental cross-section, is known as
d) 0.669 a) Wood-ruff key
55. Transverse fillet welded joints are designed for b) Feather key
a) Tensile strength c) Flat saddle key
b) Compressive strength d) Gib head key
c) Shear strength 62. A tapered key which fits in a keyway in the hub
d) Bending strength and is flat on the shaft, is known as
56. Jam nut is a locking device in which a) Wood-ruff key
a) One smaller nut is tightened over main nut and b) Feather key
main nut tightened against smaller one by c) Flat saddle key
loosening, creating friction jamming d) Gib head key
b) A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot 63. Fibrous fracture occurs in
reduced by tightening a screw a) Ductile material
c) A hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut b) Brittle material
and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the c) Elastic material
bolt causing a tight grip d) Hard material
d) Through slots are made at top and a cotter-pin is
passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and 64. Turn buckle has
cotter spitted and bent in reverse direction at other a) Right hand threads on bout ends
end b) Left hand threads on both ends
c) Left hand threads on one end and right hand
57. The pitch of threads on a Jock nut in comparison threads on other end
to pitch of nut is d) No threads
a) Same
b) Coarser 65. Eye bolts are used for
c) Finer a) Foundation purposes
d) Very coarse b) Locking devices
c) Absorbing shock and vibrations
58. Buttress threads are usually found on d) Lifting and transportation of machines and
a) Screw cutting lathes cubicles.
b) Feed mechanisms
c) Spindles of bench vices 66. If threads on a bolt are left hand, threads on nut
d) Railway carriage couplings. will be
a) Right hand with same pitch
59. In order to obtain bolt of uniform strength b) Left hand with same pitch
a) Increase shank diameter c) Could be left or right hand
b) Increase its length d) Right hand with fine pitch
c) Drill an axial hole through head up to threaded
portion so that shank area is equal to root area of 67. Applications in which stresses are encountered
thread in one direction only uses following type of threads
d) Tighten die bolt properly a) Metric
60. A key capable of tilting in a recess milled out in b) Buttress
a shaft is known as c) Acme
d) Square
197
68. The draw of cotter need not exceed 76. A tube has the following advantage over pipe
a) 3 mm a) Lighter and easier to handle
b) 5 mm b) Greater shock absorption
c) 10 mm c) Smoother inside walls
d) 20 mm d) All of the above
69. A bench vice has following type of threads 77. The strap end of a connecting rod of steam
a) Metric engine is joined by
b) Square a) Gib of cotter joint
c) Buttress b) Sleeve and cotter joint
d) Acme c) Spigot socket cotter joint
70. The valve rod in a steam engine is connected to d) Knuckle joint
an eccentric rod by 78. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when
a) Cotter joint making
b) Bolted joint a) A butt weld
c) Knuckle joint b) A fillet weld
d) Universal coupling c) A sleeve weld
71. Taper on the cotter and slot is provided d) A socket weld
a) On both the sides 79. The shear plane in case of bolts should
b) On one side only a) Be across threaded portion of shank
c) On none of the sides b) Be parallel to axis of bolt
d) May be provided anywhere c) Be normal to threaded portion of shank
72. The function of cutting oil when threading a d) Never be across the threaded portion
pipe is to 80. When a nut is tightened by plaping a washer
a) Provide cooling action below it, the bolt will be subjected to following type
b) Lubricate the dies of loads
c) Help remove chips a) Compression
d) All of the above b) Tension
73. Silver-based solder is used for c) Shear
a) Flaring d) Combined loads
b) Brazing 81. Gear box is used
c) Soft soldering a) To produce torque
d) Fusion welding b) For speed reduction
74. For tight leakage joints, following type of thread c) To obtain variable speeds
is best suited d) To increase efficiency of system
a) Metric 82. The piston rod of a steam engine is usually
b) Buttress connected to the crosshead by means of
c) Square a) Bolted joint
d) NPT (national pipe threads). b) Knuckle joint
75. In order to permit the thermal c) Cotter joint
expansion/contraction of tubing, it should be d) Universal joint
a) Crimped 83. Which of the following pipe joints would be
b) Honed suitable for pipes carrying steam?
c) Flared a) Flanged
d) Bent b) Threaded
c) Bell and spigot
198
d) Expansion c) 0.01 I/L
84. Spring index is d) 0.001 I/L
a) Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter 92. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the
b) Load required to produce unit deflection assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the
c) Its capability of storing energy assembly is subjected to a compressive load, then
d) Indication of quality of spring a) Rod is under compression [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
85. The shearing stresses in the inner face as b) Tube is under compression
compared to outer face of the wire in a heavy close c) Both rod and tube are under compression
coiled spring is d) Tube is under tension and rod is under
a) Larger compression
b) Smaller 93. The shear force and bending moment are zero
c) Equal at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries a a)
d) Larger/smaller depending on diameter of spring Point load at the free end [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
coil b) Point load at the middle of its length
c) Uniformly distributed load over the whole length
86. Form coefficient of spring is
a) Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
94. The moment of resistance of a balanced
b) Load required producing unit deflection
reinforced concrete beam is based on the stresses
c) Its capability of storing energy
in [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
d) Concerned with strength of wire of spring
a) Steel only
87. Spring stiffness is b) Concrete only
a) Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter c) Steel and concrete both
b) Load required to produce unit deflection d) None of these
c) Its capability of storing energy 95. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled
d) Its ability to absorb shocks together by means of [EKT 2 2016 MECH]
88. When a close coiled helical spring is a) Bolts and nuts
compressed, its wire is subjected to b) Studs
a) Tension c) Headless tapper bolts
b) Shear d) None of these
c) Compression 96. A transmission shaft includes
d) All of the above a) Counter shaft [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
89. If a spring is cut down into two springs, the b) Line shaft
stiffness of cut springs will be c) Overhead shaft
a) Half d) All of these
b) Same
97. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical
c) Double
portion is recessed to receive the tip of the locking
d) Unpredictable
set screw, is called
90. Belt slip may occur due to a) Castle nut [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
a) Heavy load b) Jam nut
b) Loose belt c) Ring nut
c) Driving pulley too small d) Sawn nut
d) All of the above
98. Aircraft body is usually fabricated by
91. A bar of length ‘L ‘ meters extends by ‘ l ‘mm
a) Welding
under a tensile force of ‘P’. The strain produced in
b) Precasting
the bar is [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
c) Rivetting
a) I/L
d) Casting
b) 0.1 I/L
199
99. In hydrodynamic bearings 100. Antifriction bearings are
a) The oil film pressure is generated only by the a) Sleeve bearings
rotation of the journal b) Hydrodynamic bearings
b) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under c) Thin lubricated bearings
pressure d) None of the above
c) Do not require external supply of lubricant
d) Grease is used for lubrication
Answer Key:
1.(c) 11.(d) 21.(d) 31.(c) 41.(a) 51.(c) 61.(a) 71.(b) 81.(c) 91.(d)
2.(d) 12.(a) 22.(c) 32.(c) 42.(b) 52.(d) 62.(c) 72.(a) 82.(c) 92.(c)
3.(b) 13.(c) 23.(b) 33.(a) 43.(d) 53.(c) 63.(a) 73.(b) 83.(d) 93.(c)
4.(b) 14.(d) 24.(d) 34.(d) 44.(c) 54.(b) 64.(c) 74.(d) 84.(a) 94.(c)
5.(a) 15.(b) 25.(a) 35.(b) 45.(a) 55.(a) 65.(d) 75.(d) 85.(a) 95.(a)
6.(a) 16.(a) 26.(c) 36.(d) 46.(b) 56.(a) 66.(b) 76.(d) 86.(c) 96.(d)
7.(d) 17.(d) 27.(d) 37.(c) 47.(d) 57.(a) 67.(b) 77.(a) 87.(b) 97.(c)
8.(a) 18.(d) 28.(b) 38.(d) 48.(b) 58.(d) 68.(a) 78.(a) 88.(a) 98.(c)
9.(b) 19.(c) 29.(a) 39.(d) 49.(a) 59.(c) 69.(d) 79.(d) 89.(c) 99.(a)
10.(a) 20.(d) 30.(a) 40.(d) 50.(c) 60.(a) 70.(c) 80.(b) 90.(d) 100.(d)
200
21. AUTOMOTIVE ENGINEERING
Introduction, power plant, fuel system, electrical system and other electrical fittings –
Lubricating system and cooling systems – Chassis and transmission – Axles, clutches,
propeller shafts and differential – Condition for correct steering, steering gear mechanisms,
automotive air conditioning – Tyres – Effect of working parameters on knocking and
Reduction of knocking – Forms of combustion chamber for SI and CI engines and Rating of
fuels – Additives and Emission

1. The number of points at which the engine-clutch- a) 0.1
gear box unit is supported on the chassis frame is b) 0.4
______ c) 0.8
a) One d) 1.2
b) Two 7. The maximum value of axial force at the clutch
c) Three which a driver can apply while driving, without
d) Four getting fatigued is approximately
2. The weight of the vehicle produces in the side a) 10 N
members of the frame ______ b) 100 N
a) Vertical bending c) 500 N
b) Horizontal bending d) 5000 N
c) Torsion 8. The maximum intensity of pressure which the
d) All of these clutch facing can withstand without being damaged
3. The frame may get distorted to a parallelogram is about
shape due to ______ a) 10 Pa
a) Weight of vehicle b) 10 kPa
b) Weight of passengers c) 100 kPa
c) Cornering force d) 1000 kPa
d) Wheel impact with road obstacle 9. The clutch is located between the transmission and
4. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum the
torque which is _______ a) Engine
a) Equal to the maximum engine torque b) Rear axle
b) 80 percent of the maximum engine torque c) Propeller shaft
c) 150 percent of the maximum engine torque d) Differential
d) None of the above 10. The parts of the cover assembly that hold the
5. The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch pressure plate against the clutch plate are the
should be a) Release levers
a) Minimum b) Thrust bearings
b) Maximum c) Structs
c) Zero d) Springs
d) None of the above 11. In a clutch with coil springs, the wear of the clutch
6. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is facing will cause the clamping load to
approximately a) Increase
201
b) Decrease b) Ring gear
c) Remain constant c) Planet carrier
d) Become infinite d) None of the above
12. Free pedal play in car clutches is about 20. In a simple epicyclic gear set, the output member
a) 3 mm to increase torque in reverse is always the _______
b) 30 mm a) Ring gear
c) 60 mm b) Planet carrier
d) 100 mm c) Sun gear
13. Clutch facings are usually attached to the plate by d) None of the above
a) Steel rivets 21. The central gear of an epicyclic gear set is called
b) Brass rivets a _______
c) Aluminium screws a) Ring gear
d) Steel screws b) Sun gear
14. By using synchronizing device, the two involved c) Planet gear
adjacent gears have their speeds ______ d) Internal gear
a) Increased 22. Critical whirling speed of a shaft is increased by
b) Reduced _______
c) Equalized a) Increasing its length
d) Unequalized b) Decreasing its length
15. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than c) Decreasing its diameter
spur gears in a transmission are _______ d) None of the above
a) High strength and low cost 23. The function of a universal joint is to allow the
b) High strength and less end thrust propeller shaft to _______
c) Low noise level and high strength a) Change length
d) Low noise level and economy b) Bend sideways
16. Increase of torque in a vehicle is obtained by c) Transfer torque at an angle
a) Decreasing speed d) Change inclination
b) Decreasing power 24. The central portion of a propeller shaft is made
c) Decreasing petrol consumption from a _______
d) All of the above a) Steel shaft
17. The purpose of transmission in an automobile is b) Gun metal shaft
______ c) Steel tube
a) To vary the speed of automobile d) Cast iron rod
b) To vary the torque at the road wheels 25. A two-piece propeller shaft requires _______
c) To vary the power of automobile a) One universal joint
d) None of the above b) A centre support bearing
18. The object of air conditioning a car is to control c) The shaft to be solid
there in the _______ d) None of the above
a) Temperature and Pressure 26. The inner end of the axle shaft is splined to the _
b) Pressure and humidity a) Sun gear
c) Humidity and temperature b) Planet pinion
d) None of these c) Crown wheel
d) Differential cage
19. In a simple planetary gear set, the output
member to increase torque is always the _______ 27. Hypoid gears special lubricant because
a) Sun gear a) Teeth are made of soft material
202
b) Teeth are made of hard material b) Shaping with pinion cutter
c) Such gears rotate faster c) Shaping with rack cutter
d) Sliding action is there between the teeth d) Milling
28. The smallest gears inside the differential casing 36. In the design of shift, pulley and key, which is the
are _______ weakest member? [EKT 2 2016 MECH]
a) Pinion gears a) Shaft
b) Sun gears b) Pulley
c) Side gears c) Key
d) Ring gears d) None of these
29. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if 37. Knowing the IHP and FHP of an engine, we can
a) Un-sprung mass is kept minimum calculate _______
b) Sprung mass is kept minimum [EKT 2 2015 MECH] a) Compression ratio
c) Vehicle mass is kept minimum b) Rpm
d) All of these c) SAF
30. The type of rear axle used on trucks is ______ d) BHP
a) Semi-floating 38. The ratio between the power output of an engine
b) Fully-floating and the energy in the fuel burned to produce that
c) Three-quarter floating power is called _______
d) None of these a) Volumetric efficiency
31. Salisbury type rear axle casing is also known as b) Thermal efficiency
_______ c) Mechanical efficiency
a) Banjo type casing d) None
b) Unitized carrier casing 39. The power used in overcoming friction in the
c) Separate carrier casing engine is called _______
d) None of these a) BHP
32. The effect of having excess camber is ______ b) IHP
a) Excessive steering alignment torque c) FHP
b) Hard steering [EKT 1 2015 MECH] d) All
c) Too much traction 40. In the diesel engine, the compression ratio is as
d) Uneven tyre wear high as _______
33. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark a) 10:1
takes place at spark plug, the condition is called b) 15:1
c) 5:1
a) Detonation [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
d) None
b) Ignition
c) Pre-ignition 41. The temperature indicating instrument in
d) Rumble vehicles indicates the temperature of _______
34. The diagram which shows the correct crank a) Engine piston
positions corresponding to the opening and closing b) Engine cylinder
of the valves, is known as _______ c) Lubricating oil
a) Indicator diagram [EKT 1 2015 MECH] d) Jacket cooling water
b) Axial force diagram 42. The two general types of tyres are _______
c) Valve timing diagram a) Tube type and tubeless
d) None of these b) Solid and tubeless
35. Internal gears can be made by _______ c) Air and pneumatic
a) Hobbing [EKT 2 2015 MECH] d) Split rim and drop centre
203
43. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type 51. The function of a stabilizer in an automobile is to
tyre is ________ decrease the tendency to ________
a) Slow air leakage a) Roll
b) Better fuel efficiency b) Pitch
c) Less chances of running flat c) Yaw
d) All of these d) Dip
44. The two advantages of using helical gears rather 52. The angle formed by the line joining the stub axle-
than spur gears in a transmission system are ______ steering arm ball joints with the vertical, when this
a) Strength and cost line slants forward at the top is called
b) Strength and less end thrust a) Positive camber
c) Noise level and strength b) Negative camber
d) Noise level and economy c) Positive castor
45. _______ is not a type of gearbox. d) Negative castor
a) Linear mesh gearbox 53. The inclined angle is the sum of the _______
b) Sliding mesh gearbox a) Camber and castor
c) Constant mesh gearbox b) Castor and S.A.I
d) Synchromesh gearbox c) Camber and S.A.I
46. Overdrive is placed ________ d) Camber and toe-in
a) Before gearbox 54. The most popular manual steering gear for cars
b) In between propeller shaft and gear box today is _______
c) After propeller shaft a) Rack and pinion type
d) In between engine and gear box b) Worm and wheel type
47. Which of the following is true? c) Cam and roller type
a) High torque is required at the start of the vehicle d) Worm and nut type
b) Low torque is required at high speeds 55. The steering ratio for manual steering of cars is
c) Gearbox helps in smooth running of vehicle approximately ________
d) All of the above a) 5
48. The override consists of ______ gear train. b) 15
a) Simple c) 50
b) Compound d) 100
c) Epicyclic 56. The type of steering gear used in a Maruti 800 car
d) Reverted is _______
49. A machine member used to connect engine shaft a) Rack and pinion
to gear box is called _______ b) Worm and roller
a) Differential c) Worm and wheel
b) Clutch d) None of these
c) Flywheel 57. On cars having rack and pinion steering, the gear
d) Propeller shaft rack is attached to ________
a) Relay rod
50. _______ type of clutch does not require clutch
b) Pitman axis
pedal.
c) Cross shaft
a) Hydraulic torque converter
d) Tie rod
b) Propeller shaft
c) Differential 58. The permissible mixing of cross-ply and radial-ply
d) Crankshaft automobile tyres allows ________
a) Cross-ply tyres on left wheels
b) Cross-ply tyres on right wheels
204
c) Cross-ply tyres on front wheels c) Aspect ratio
d) Cross-ply tyres on rear wheels d) Rated strength
59. The purpose of tyre rotation on automobiles is to 67. The type of wheel which cannot be used with a
________ tubeless tyre is ________
a) Avoid ply separation a) Disc wheel
b) Equalize wear b) Wire wheel
c) Get better ride c) Light alloy wheel
d) None of the above d) Composite wheel
60. ‘Heel and toe wear’ in tyres is caused by 68. For identification, the colour of tail lights in a car
a) Excessive acceleration and braking is ________
b) Overinflation a) White
c) Underinflation b) Red
d) Excessive camber c) Green
61. Out of round brake drums cause the tyres to wear d) Yellow
_______ 69. The two quantities used for specifying an
a) On the inside electrical wire are ________
b) On the outside a) The colour and length
c) In single spots b) The length and diameter
d) Uniformly all rounds c) The diameter and number of strands
62. An overinflated tyre will wear the treat most near d) The colour and diameter
the _______ 70. The type of reflector used for automobile head
a) Edges lamp is ________
b) Corners a) Spherical
c) Outside b) Parabolic
d) Centre c) Hyperbolic
63. An underinflated tyre will wear the tread most _ d) None of these
a) Near centre 71. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine
b) Near the edges increases, its efficiency will _______
c) In the lateral direction a) Increase
d) In the cross section b) Decrease
64. The disadvantage of radial ply tyre compared to c) Remain same
cross-ply tyre is _______ d) Unpredictable
a) Uncomfortable ride at low speeds 72. All heat engines utilize _______
b) Uncomfortable ride at high speeds a) Low heat value of oil
c) Higher cornering power b) High heat value of oil
d) Lower rolling resistance c) Net calorific value of oil
65. The purpose of tyre sipes is to ________ d) Calorific value of fuel
a) Increased tread life 73. An engine indicator is used to determine the
b) Decrease noise level a) Speed
c) Provide softer ride b) Temperature
d) Increase traction c) Volume of cylinder
66. The term ‘ply rating’ with reference to a tyre d) m.e.p and I.H.P.
refers to the ________ 74. The fuel oil compression guarantees for I.C.
a) Actual number of plies engine are usually based on
b) Recommended inflation pressure a) Low heat value of oil
205
b) High heat value of oil 82. A battery can be charged by _______
c) Net Calorific value of oil a) Adding distilled water
d) Calorific value of fuel b) Adding sulphuric acid
75. Pick up the wrong statement. c) Applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of
a) 2-stroke engine can run in any direction charging
b) In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4- d) None
strokes 83. The best fuels for compression ignition engines
c) Petrol engines work on otto cycle are _______
d) Petrol engines occupy more space than diesel for a) Straight chain paraffin
same power output b) Aromatics
76. The petrol engines are also known as c) Branched chain paraffin
a) Spark ignition (S.I) engines d) Naphthalene
b) Compression ignition (C.I) engines 84. An oil filter bypass valve opens when the
c) Stream engines a) Engine is cold
d) None of these b) Engine overheats
77. The petrol engine works on c) Oil filter becomes clogged
a) Otto cycle d) Engine runs at high speed
b) Carnot cycle 85. Damper is also known as _______
c) Diesel cycle a) Shock absorber
d) Rankine cycle b) Torsion bar
78. The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a c) Spring
torque converter is about _______ d) Radius rod
a) 2.5 86. The main function of a resonator is that it
b) 10 a) Regulates the intake air flow rate
c) 25 b) Reduces the intake air noise
d) 40 c) Enhances intake efficiency
79. The cetane rating of Diesel fuel is in the order d) Regulates the intake air temperature
of___ 87. The rating of C.I. engine fuel (Diesel) is given by
a) 25 _____
b) 45 a) Octane number
c) 70 b) Performance number
d) 90 c) Cetane number
d) None of these
80. In radial tyres ________
88. In a four wheel drive (4WD), the numbers of gear
a) One ply layer runs diagonally one way and another
boxes are _______
layer runs diagonally the other way
a) 1
b) All plies run parallel to one another and vertical to
b) 2
tyre bead
c) 3
c) Inner tubes are always used
d) 4
d) None of these
89. In a Diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
81. The timing belt is attached to the camshaft pulley a) An electric spark
and ________ b) The heat of compression
a) Timing belt drive pulley c) The hot exhaust
b) Distributor d) None of these
c) Radiator fan pulley 90. ______ is not an interns combustion engine
d) Alternator pulley a) 2-stroke petrol engine
206
b) 4-stroke petrol engine 96. _______ type of bearing is used for main bearings
c) Diesel engine and connecting rod bearings.
d) Steam turbine a) Ball bearings
91. The most effective method of controlling S.I. b) Plain bearings
engine exhausts emission by ______ c) Needle roller bearing
a) Recirculating exhaust d) Taper roller bearing
b) Using catalytic converter 97. The main cause for the change in engine oil
c) Using some additives in the fuel viscosity is _______
d) None of these a) Humidity
92. If clearance volume of I.C. engines is increased, b) Temperature
the compression ratio will c) Vibration
a) Increase d) Contamination
b) Decrease 98. ________ is the process of breaking up or a liquid
c) Remain constant into fine droplets by spraying.
d) Be doubled a) Vaporisation
93. Engine oil is stored in _______ when the engine b) Carburetion
is not running. c) Injection
a) Oil pan d) Atomisation
b) Cylinder head 99. The commonly used antifreeze solution in
c) Oil pump automobiles is _______
d) Separate oil tank a) Carbon disulphide
94. Damper in an automobile is used to _______ b) Ethylene glycol
a) Absorb the energy c) Ammonium chloride
b) Dissipate the energy d) Freon-12
c) Release the energy 100. The two speed reverse gear arrangements is
d) Increase the energy generally provided in case of _______
95. _______ is not a part of the chassis. a) Passenger cars
a) Wheels b) Matadors
b) Front axle c) Tractors
c) Steering system d) Trucks
d) Seats
Answer Key:
1. (c) 11. (b) 21. (b) 31. (b) 41. (d) 51. (a) 61. (c) 71. (b) 81. (a) 91. (b)
2. (a) 12. (b) 22. (b) 32. (d) 42. (a) 52. (d) 62. (d) 72. (a) 82. (c) 92. (b)
3. (d) 13. (b) 23. (c) 33. (c) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (d) 83. (d) 93. (a)
4. (c) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (c) 44. (c) 54. (a) 64. (a) 74. (b) 84. (c) 94. (b)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (b) 35. (b) 45. (a) 55. (b) 65. (d) 75. (d) 85. (a) 95. (d)
6. (b) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (c) 46. (b) 56. (a) 66. (d) 76. (a) 86. (b) 96. (b)
7. (b) 17. (b) 27. (d) 37. (d) 47. (d) 57. (d) 67. (b) 77. (a) 87. (c) 97. (b)
8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (a) 38. (b) 48. (c) 58. (c) 68. (b) 78. (a) 88. (b) 98. (d)
9. (a) 19. (c) 29. (a) 39. (c) 49. (b) 59. (b) 69. (c) 79. (b) 89. (b) 99. (b)
10.(d) 20. (a) 30. (b) 40. (b) 50. (c) 60. (a) 70. (b) 80. (b) 90. (d) 100.(c)
207
22. POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Steam power plant-Steam boilers - Steam condensers - Cooling towers – Cogeneration and
combined cycles – Nuclear power plants – Hydroelectric power plants – Power plant
economics.

1. What is the efficiency of a nuclear power plant in c) Accelerates neutrons
comparison to conventional and nuclear d) Eats up neutrons
consideration is 7. The reflector in nuclear power plants _______
a) Higher cost of nuclear fuel neutron leakage.
b) High initial cost a) Increases
c) High heat rejection in condenser b) Decreases
d) Lower temperature and pressure conditions c) Have no effect on
2. The control rods in the control system of nuclear d) None of these
reactors are used to 8. The nuclear reactors are used
a) Absorb excess neutrons a) To produce heat for thermoelectric power
b) Control fuel consumption b) To produce fissionable material
c) Control temperature c) To propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
d) All of these d) All of these
3. Electron volt is the unit of 9. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is
a) Atomic power a) CO2
b) Energy b) Pressurised water
c) Voltage c) Mixture of water and steam
d) Radio activity d) Liquid metal
4. The isotopes of same elements have 10. Ferrite material is
a) Same atomic number and different masses a) The most fissionable material
b) Same chemical properties but different atomic b) The basic fuel for nuclear paints
numbers c) Basic raw material for nuclear plants
c) Different masses and different atomic numbers d) The material which absorbs neutrons and
d) Different chemical properties and same atomic undergoes spontaneous changes leading to the
numbers formation of fissionable material
5. The artificial radioactive isotopes find application 11. Which types of neutrons are more effective in
in triggering fission?
a) Power generation a) Fast
b) Nucleonic devices b) Slow
c) Nuclear fission c) In bulk
d) Medical field d) Static
6. _______ is more appropriate for a moderator. 12. Moderator is _____ in boiling water reactor.
a) Does not absorb neutrons a) Coolant itself
b) Absorbs neutrons b) Ferrite rod
c) Graphite rod
208
d) Liquid sodium metal d) Pu
13. In nuclear fission 21. ______ can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant.
a) The original elements change into completely a) Light or heavy water
different elements b) Molten lead
b) The electrons of the element change c) Carbon dioxide
c) The molecules rearrange themselves to form other d) Freon
molecules 22. A fast breeder reactor
d) None of the above a) Uses graphite rods as moderator
14. The fast breeder reactor uses the following b) Has powerful moderator
moderator c) Has no moderator
a) Demineralised water d) Uses ferrite material as moderator
b) Carbon dioxide 23. Maximum percentage of energy is released as
c) Heavy water _____ in a fission process.
d) No moderator is used a) Kinetic energy of neutrons
15. 𝑈235 will undergo fission by b) Kinetic energy of fission products
a) High energy (fast) neutrons alone c) Instantaneous release of gamma rays
b) Low energy (slow) neutrons alone d) Gradual radioactive decay of fission products
c) Either fast or slow neutrons 24. The total energy released in fission of U is
d) Medium energy neutrons a) 5 MeV
16. U238 will undergo fission by b) 10 MeV
a) High energy (fast) neutrons alone c) 199 MeV
b) Low energy (slow) neutrons alone d) 168 MeV
c) Either fast or slow neutrons 25. _______ is the heaviest.
d) Medium energy neutrons a) Neutron
17. The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the b) Proton
turbine with the following reactor c) Atom
a) Pressurised water d) Electron
b) Boiling water 26. A nuclear fission produces energy of following
c) Gas cooled order in MeV
d) Liquid metal cooled a) 20
18. The unit of radioactivity is b) 200
a) Electron volt c) 2000
b) Electron ampere d) 20,000
c) Curie 27. The material most commonly used for shielding is
d) MV a) Carbon
19. Plutonium (Pu239) is produced b) Lead
a) Artificially c) Concrete
b) When U238 is irradiated by neutrons d) All of these
c) By fission of Th232 28. The reactors for propulsion applications use
d) As basic raw material a) Natural uranium
b) Molten lead
20. ______ is the primary fuel. c) Any form of uranium
a) U233 d) Thorium
b) U 29. A moderator generally used in nuclear power
c) U238 plants is
209
a) Graphite a) The amount of energy extracted per kg of steam is
b) Heavy water increased
c) Concrete b) The steam, converted into water, can be re-
d) Graphite and concrete circulated with the help of pump
30. ______ particles is the highest. c) Both (A) and (B)
a) Nucleus d) None of the above
b) Electron 38. In thermal power plants, the dust of flue gases is
c) Proton trapped by
d) Meson a) Precipitator
31. The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants b) Economizer
is c) Superheater
a) U233 and Pu239 d) Air preheater
b) U235 and Th232 39. ______ is not a component of Thermal power
c) U235 and Pu238 plant
d) U233 and Pu238 a) Condenser
32. The pressurized water reactor is designed b) Cooilng tower
a) For boiling pi water in the core c) Turbine
b) To use liquid sodium metal as coolant d) Fuel tank
c) To use intermediate coolant 40. With the increase in ______ the efficiency obeys
d) To prevent the water coolant from boiling in the the law of diminishing returns
core a) Pressure
33. ______ are ferrite materials. b) Temperature
a) U233 and Pu239 c) Volume
b) U d) All of the above
c) U238 and Pu239 41. Fluid fuels are handled by
d) U238 and Th239 a) Burners
34. Which is the wrong statement fast breeder b) Stokers
reactors? c) Both (A) and (B)
a) Operate at extremely high power densities d) None of the above
b) Are liquid metal cooled 42. A ‘stroker’ is a power operated fuel ______
c) Produce more fuel than they consume mechanism
d) Use water as coolant a) Burning
35. The nuclear radiators produced in a reactor which b) Feeding
must be shielded are c) Handling
a) Electrons d) Storage
b) Protons 43. _______ methods used for burning of coal is
c) Neutron and gamma rays a) Stroker firing
d) None of these b) Pulverized fuel firing
36. In thermal power plant, turbine is placed c) Both (A) and (B)
a) Before boiler d) None of the above
b) In between boiler and generator 44. _______ is not a pulverized fuel burner.
c) After generator a) Tangential burner
d) Any of the above b) Turbulent burner
37. In the steam condensing power plants c) Cyclone burner
d) Radial burner
210
45. ______ type of burner, liquid fuel is raised by a) Solar, wind and biomass
capillary action. b) Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
a) Wick burners c) Wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
b) Re-circulating burner d) None of the above
c) Rotating cup burner 54. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at
d) All the above a) Tarapore
46. _______ is ash handling system. b) Kota
a) Hydraulic system c) Kalpakkam
b) Pneumatic system d) None of the above
c) Steam jet system 55. The _____ energy is converted into electrical
d) All of the above energy in fuel cell.
47. _____ is dry type dust collectors. a) Mechanical
a) Spray type b) Chemical
b) Packed type c) Heat
c) Impingement type d) Sound
d) cyclone separator 56. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is
48. The major constituent of fly ash is equal to
a) Silicon dioxide a) Rankine cycle efficiency
b) Aluminium oxide b) Carnot cycle efficiency
c) Calcium oxide c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
d) Magnesium oxide d) Boiler efficiency
49. A Fluidised bed may be defined as the bed of 57. The main source of production of biogas is
_____ particles. a) Human waste
a) Liquid b) Wet cow dung
b) Solid c) Wet livestock waste
c) Both (A) and (B) d) All above
d) None of the above 58. The solar thermal power generation can be
50. The spreader stroker, secondary air is supplied achieved by
a) Through holes a) Using focusing collector or heliostates
b) Through nozzles b) Using flat plate collectors
c) From bottom side c) Using a solar pond
d) Any of the above d) Any of the above system
51. Which is the largest thermal power station is 59. Feed water is heated by ____ in regenerative
located at cycle.
a) Kota a) Exhaust gases
b) Sarni b) Heaters
c) Chandrapur c) Draining steam from the turbine
d) Neyveli d) All above
52. The percentage 𝑂2 by weight in atmospheric air 60. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power
is plant may be in the range of
a) 18 % a) 15 to 20 per cent
b) 23 % b) 35 to 45 per cent
c) 77 % c) 70 to 80 per cent
d) 79 % d) 90 to 95 per cent
53. The commercial sources of energy are 61. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
211
a) Utilise heat of fuel gases b) Forced fan
b) Increase thermal efficiency c) Induced and forced fan
c) Improve condenser performance
d) All of the above
d) Reduce loss of heat
70. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by
62. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour
cycle because it has a) Forced fan
a) Higher critical temperature and pressure b) Chimney
b) Higher saturation temperature than other fluids c) Steam jet
c) Relatively low vapourisation pressure
d) Only motion of locomotive
d) All above
71. For the same draught produced the power of
63. Binary’s vapour cycles are used to
induced draught fan as compared to forced draught
a) Increase the performance of the condenser
fan is
b) Increase the efficiency of the plant
c) Increase efficiency of the plant a) Less
d) Increase efficiency of the turbine b) More
64. The steam power station requires space c) Same
a) Equal to diesel power station d) Not predictable
b) More than diesel power station
72. The artificial draught is produced by
c) Less than diesel power station
d) None a) Air fans
65. Economiser is used to heat b) Steam jet
a) Air c) Fan or steam jet
b) Feed water d) All of the above
c) Fuel gases
73. The efficiency of chimney is approximately
d) All above
a) 80 %
66. The modern steam turbines are
a) Impulse turbines b) 40 %
b) Reaction turbines c) 20 %
c) Impulse-reaction turbines d) 0.25 %
74. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for
67. The draught which a chimney produces is called maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam
a) Induced draught through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated
b) Natural draught is
c) Forced draught
a) 0.6
d) Balanced draught
b) 0.578
68. The draught produced by steel chimney as
compared to that produced by brick chimney for the c) 0.555
same height is d) 0.5457
a) Less 75. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of
b) More maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through
c) Same a nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
d) May be more or less a) 0.555
69. The artificial draught is produced by b) 0.578
a) Induced fan c) 0.5457
212
d) 0.6 unloading the coal for small power plant is
76. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle a) Lift trucks
for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is b) Coal accelerators
approximately by equation.
c) Tower cranes
a) pv = C
d) Belt conveyor
b) pv1A = C
84. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing
c) pv1i =C unit is delivered to a bunker and then to the various
d) pv burners
77. Compounding of steam turbine is done for a) Unit
a) Reducing the work done b) Central
b) Increasing the rotor speed c) Metre
c) Reducing the rotor speed d) None
d) Balancing the turbine 85. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators
78. The value of the reheat factor is of the order are used to remove
a) 0.8 to 1.0 a) Dust
b) 1.0 to 1.05 b) Clinkers
c) 1.1 to 1.5 c) Iron particles
d) Above 1.5 d) Sand
79. The deaerative heating is done to 86. What is the unit of heat rate?
a) Heat the water a) kj / KW
b) Heat the air in the water b) KW / kJ
c) Remove dissolved gases in the water c) kJ
d) None d) KW
80. Which is the example of overfeed type stoker is 87. The pump is a
a) Chain grate a) Reversible adiabatic expansion of steam
b) Spreader b) Constant pressure heat addition
c) Travelling grate c) Reversible adiabatic compression
d) All of the above
d) Constant pressure heat rejection
81. Bucket elevators are used for
88. _____ is the actual turbine inlet temperature in
a) Carrying coal in horizontal direction
Rankine cycle.
b) Carrying coal in vertical direction
c) Carrying in any direction a) 700C
d) None b) 800C
82. The amount of air which is supplied for complete c) 550C
combustion is called
d) 1150C
a) Primary air
89. The modem steam plants works on
b) Secondary air
_____cycles
c) Tertiary air
a) Carnot cycle
b) Rankine cycle
83. Method which is commonly applied for
c) Otto cycle
213
d) Bell-Coleman cycle through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated
90. ______ is the most important factor under is
consideration for the site selection of a thermal a) 0.6
plant. b) 0.578
a) Availability of fuel c) 0.555
b) Availability of water d) 0.5457
c) Distance from the populated area 96. Incase of reaction steam turbine
d) Cost and the type of land a) There is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving
91. The maximum percentage gain in regenerative blades
feed heating cycle thermal efficiency b) There is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
a) Increases with number of feed heaters increasing c) There is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
b) Decreases with number of feed heaters increasing d) None of the above
c) Remains same unaffected by number of feed 97. Curtis turbine is
heaters
a) Reaction steam turbine
b) Pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
92. The mercury is a choice with steam in binary
c) Pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
vapour cycle because it has
d) Velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
a) Higher critical temperature and pressure
98. Rateau steam turbine is
b) Higher saturation temperature than other fluids
a) Reaction steam turbine
c) Relatively low vapourisation pressure
b) Velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
d) All the above
c) Pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
93. The fan is located ______ for the induced
draught. d) Pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
a) Near bottom of chimney 99. Parson’s turbine is
b) Near bottom of furnace a) Pressure compounded steam turbine
c) At the top of the chimney b) Simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
d) Anywhere permissible c) Simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
94. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of d) Multi wheel reaction steam turbine
a) Forced draught system 100. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of
reaction is
b) Induced draught system
a) 75 %
c) Balanced draught system
b) 100 %
d) Natural draught system
c) 50 %
95. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for
maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam d) 60 %
Answer Key:
214
1. (d) 11. (b) 21. (a) 31. (a) 41. (c) 51. (c) 61. (b) 71. (b) 81. (b) 91. (a)
2. (a) 12. (a) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (b) 52. (b) 62. (d) 72. (d) 82. (b) 92. (d)
3. (b) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (b) 43. (c) 53. (b) 63. (b) 73. (d) 83. (b) 93. (a)
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (d) 44. (d) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (b) 84. (b) 94. (c)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (c) 45. (a) 55. (b) 65. (b) 75. (c) 85. (c) 95. (b)
6. (a) 16. (a) 26. (b) 36. (b) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (c) 76. (a) 86. (a) 96. (a)
7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (d) 57. (d) 67. (b) 77. (c) 87. (d) 97. (b)
8. (d) 18. (c) 28. (b) 38. (a) 48. (a) 58. (d) 68. (b) 78. (c) 88. (c) 98. (c)
9. (c) 19. (b) 29. (d) 39. (d) 49. (b) 59. (c) 69. (d) 79. (c) 89. (b) 99. (d)
10.(d) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (a) 50. (b) 60. (b) 70. (c) 80. (d) 90. (b) 100.(c)
215
23. INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
System design – Plant layout – Applications of engineering economic analysis and break–
even analysis for product selection – Process selection and capacity planning –
Predetermined time standards – System planning – forecasting methods based on
regression and decomposition – Design and balancing of multi model and stochastic
assembly lines – Inventory management –JIT systems – Strategic sourcing – Managing inter
plant logistics.

1. A graphical device used to determine the break- c) Time when industry will undergo loss
even point and profit potential under varying d) The time when company can make maximum
conditions of output and costs, is known as profits
a) Gnatt chart 6. In the cost structure of a product, the selling
b) Flow chart price is determined by the factors such as
c) Break-even chart a) Sales turn over
d) PERT chart b) Lowest competitive price
2. Break-even analysis consists of c) Various elements of the cost
a) Fixed cost d) All of the above
b) Variable cost 7. Work study is concerned with
c) Fixed and variable costs a) Improving present method and finding standard
d) Operation costs time
3. Break-even analysis shows profit when b) Motivation of workers
a) Sales revenue > total cost c) Improving production capability
b) Sales revenue = total cost d) Improving production planning and control
c) Sales revenue < total cost 8. Basic tool in work study is
d) Variable cost < fixed cost a) Graph paper
4. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of b) Process chart
a) Fixed cost c) Planning chart
b) Variable cost d) Stop watch
c) Fixed cost + variable cost 9. In perpetual inventory control, the material is
d) Fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads checked as it reaches its
5. The break-even point represents a) Minimum value
a) The most economical level of operation of any b) Maximum value
industry c) Average value
b) The time when unit can run without i loss and d) Middle value
profit 10. Material handling in automobile industry is
216
done by c) Total work content + basic time
a) Overhead crane d) Total work content + delay contingency
b) Trolley allowance
c) Belt conveyor 18. Work study is done with the help of
d) All of the above a) Process chart
11. String diagram is used when b) Material handling
a) Team of workers is working at a place c) Stop watch
b) Material handling is to be done d) All of the above
c) Idle time is to be reduced 19. Scheduling gives information about
d) All of the above a) When work should start and how much work
12. Work study is most useful should be completed during a certain period
a) Where production activities are involved b) When work should complete
b) In judging the rating of machines c) That how idle time can be minimized
c) In improving industrial relations d) Proper utilization of machines
d) In judging the output of a man and improving it 20. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used
to
13. Micromotion study is
a) Determine overhead expenses
a) Enlarged view of motion study
b) Provide a basis for setting piece prices or
b) Analysis of one stage of motion study
incentive wages
c) Minute and detailed motion study
c) Determine standard costs
d) Subdivision of an operation into therbligs and
d) Determine the capability of an operator to
their analysis
handle the number of machines
14. In micromotion study, therblig is described by
21. Job evaluation is the method-of determining
a) A symbol the
b) An event a) Relative worth of jobs
c) An activity b) Skills required by a worker
d) Standard symbol and colour c) Contribution of a worker
15. The allowed time for a job equals standard time d) Contribution of a job
plus
22. Micromotion study is
a) Policy allowance
a) Analysis of a man-work method by using a
b) Interference allowance motion picture camera with a timing device in the
c) Process allowance field of view
d) Learning allowance b) Motion study observed on enhanced time
16. Micromotion study involves following number intervals
of fundamental hand motions c) Motion study of a sequence of operations
a) 8 conducted systematically
b) 12 d) Study of man and machine conducted
c) 16 simultaneously
d) 20 23. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found
17. The standard time for a job is by
a) Total work content a) Work sampling
b) Basic time + relaxation time b) Time study
217
c) Method study d) Efficient working of machine
d) Work study 31. ABC analysis deals with
24. TMU in method time measurement stands for a) Analysis of process chart
a) Time motion unit b) Flow of material
b) Time measurement unit c) Ordering schedule of job
c) Time movement unit d) Controlling inventory costs money
d) Technique measurement unit 32. Process layout is employed for
25. Time study is a) Batch production
a) The appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of b) Continuous type of product
work involving human effort c) Effective utilization of machines
b) Machine setting time d) All of the above
c) Time taken by workers to do a job 33. For a product layout the material handling
d) Method of fixing time for workers equipment must
26. Work sampling observations are taken on the a) Have full flexibility
basis of b) Employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
a) Detailed calculations c) Be a general purpose type
b) Convenience d) Be designed as special purpose for a particular
c) Table of random numbers application
d) Past experience 34. Travel charts provide
27. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method a) An idea of the flow of materials at various stages
time measurement system equals b) A compact estimate of the handling which must
a) 0.0001 minute be done between various work sections
b) 0.0006 minute c) The information for changes required in
c) 0.006 minute rearranging material handling equipment
d) 0.001 minute d) An approximate estimate of the handling which
28. Basic motion time study gives times for basic must be done at a particular station
motions in ten thousandths of 35. Product layout is employed for
a) Second a) Batch production
b) Minute b) Continuous production
c) Hour c) Effective utilization of machine
d) Day d) All of the above
29. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is 36. The process layout is best suited where
used for a) Specialization exists
a) Improving a work method b) Machines are arranged according to sequence of
b) Improvising a work method operation
c) Designing a work method c) Few number of non-standardized units are to be
d) Reducing inventory costs. produced
30. Gnatt chart provides information about the d) Mass production is envisaged
a) Material handling 37. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
b) Proper utilization of manpower a) Product layout
c) Production schedule b) Functional layout
218
c) Automatic material handling equipment a) Conveyors
d) Specialization of operation b) Cranes and hoists
38. Military organization is known as c) Trucks
a) Line organization d) Locos
b) Line and staff organization 46. Routing prescribes the
c) Functional organization a) Flow of material in the plant
d) All of the above b) Proper utilization of man power
39. The main disadvantage of line organization is c) Proper utilization of machines
a) Top level executives have to do excessive work d) Inspection of final product
b) Structure is rigid 47. Queuing theory deals with problems of
c) Communication delays occur a) Material handling
d) All of the above b) Reducing the waiting time or idle time
40. The main advantage of line organization is its c) Better utilization of man services
a) Effective command and control d) Effective use of machines
b) Defined responsibilities at all levels 48. Standard time is defined as
c) Rigid discipline in the organization a) Normal time + allowances
d) All of the above. b) Normal time + idle time + allowances
41. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of c) Normal time + idle time
working known as d) Only normal time for an operation
a) Line organization 49. Father of industrial engineering is
b) Line and staff organization a) Jeck Gilberth
c) Functional organization b) Gnatt
d) Effective organization c) Taylor
42. The salient feature of functional organization is d) Newton
a) Strict adherence to specification 50. The grouping of activities into organizational
b) Separation of planning and design part units is called
c) Each individual maintains functional efficiency a) Corporate plans
d) All of the above b) Higher level management
43. The most popular type of organization used for c) Functional authority
Civil Engineering Constructions is d) Departmentation
a) Line organization 51. Which of the following organization is preferred
b) Line and staff organization in automobile industry?
c) Functional organization a) Functional organization
d) Effective organization b) Line organization
44. Templates are used for c) Staff organization
a) a planning layout d) Line and staff organizations
b) Flow of material 52. Which of the following organizations is best
c) Advancing a programme in automatic machines suited for steel plants?
d) Copying complicated profiles a) Functional organization
45. In steel plant the most important system for b) Line organization
materials handling is c) Staff organization
219
d) Line, staff and functional organizations c) Probability
53. The wastage of material in the store is taken d) All of the above
into account by the following method in the 60. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute
evaluation of the material issued from the store is
a) Inflated system (a) Management
b) Primary cost method b) Labour court
c) Current value method c) High court/supreme court
d) Fixed price method d) Board of directors
54. Which of the following is independent of sales 61. Under the Apprenticeship Act
forecast? a) All industries have to necessarily train the
a) Productivity apprentices
b) Inventory control b) Industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to
c) Production planning their requirement
d) Production control c) All industries employing more than 100 workers
55. Gnatt charts are used for [EKT 2 2016 MECH] have to recruit apprentices
a) Forecasting sales d) Only industries employing more than 500
b) Production schedule workers have to recruit apprentices
c) Scheduling and routing 62. Standing orders which are statutory are
applicable to
d) Linear programming
a) All industries
56. Inventory management consists of
b) All process industries and thermal power plants
a) Effective running of stores
c) Only major industries
b) State of merchandise methods of strong and
maintenance etc d) All industries employing more than 100 workers.
c) Stock control system 63. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
d) All of the above a) Batch production
57. Inventory control in production, planning and b) Job production
control aims at c) Mass production
a) Achieving optimization d) All of the above
b) Ensuring against market fluctuations 64. The technique of value analysis can be applied
c) Acceptable customer service at low capital to
investment in inventory a) Complicated items only
d) Discounts allowed in bulk purchase b) Simple items only
58. In inventory control, the economic order c) Crash-programme items only
quantity is the d) Any item
a) Optimum lot size 65. Value engineering aims at finding out the
b) Highest level of inventory a) Depreciation value of a product
c) Lot corresponding to break-even point b) Resale value of a product
d) Capability of a plant to produce c) Major function of the item and accomplishing the
59. Statistical quality control techniques are based same at least cost without change in quality
on the theory of d) Break-even point when machine re-quires
a) Quality change
b) Statistics 66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material
220
is checked when it reaches its to the balanced
a) Minimum value a) Process layout
b) Maximum value b) Product layout
c) Average value c) Fixed position layout
d) Alarming value d) Plant layout
67. Merit Rating is the method of determining 74. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass
worth of production?
a) A job a) Process layout
b) An individual employee b) Product layout
c) A particular division in workshop c) Fixed position layout
d) Machine d) Plant layout
68. Material handling and plant location is analyzed 75. Which of the following layouts is suited to job
by production?
a) Gnatt chart a) Process layout
b) Bin chart b) Product layout
c) Emerson chart c) Fixed position layout
d) Travel chart d) Plant layout
69. Works cost implies 76. The employees provident fund act is applicable
a) Primary cost to
b) Factory cost a) All industries
c) Factory expenses b) All industries other than small and medium
d) Primary cost + factory expenses industries
70. Motion study involves analysis of c) Volunteers
(a) Actions of operator d) The industries notified by Government
b) Layout of work place 77. The amount deducted from the salary of
workers towards employee’s provident fund is
c) Tooling and equipment
a) Credited into reserves of company
d) All of the above
b) Deposited in nationalized bank
71. Standard time as compared to normal time is
c) Deposited in post office
a) Greater
d) Deposited in the account of worker with
b) Smaller
Provident Fund Commissioner.
c) Equal
78. The deductions for, employees provident fund
d) There is no such correlation start
72. Pick up the incorrect statement about a) Immediately on joining the service
advantages of work sampling
b) After 60 days of joining the service
a) Permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
c) After 100 days of joining the service
b) Simultaneous study of many operators may be
d) After 240 days of joining the service
made by a single observer
79. Tick the odd man out
c) Calculations are easier, method is economical
and less time consuming a) Taylor
d) No time measuring devices are generally needed b) Drucker
73. In which of the following layouts, the lines need c) McGregor
221
d) Galileo d) Queuing theory
80. Current assets include 87. In crash program for a project
(a) Manufacturing plant a) Both direct and indirect costs, increase
b) Manufacturing plant and equipment b) Indirect costs increase and direct costs decrease
c) Inventories c) Direct costs increase and indirect costs decrease
d) Common stock held by the firm d) Cost is no criterion
81. The objective of time study is to determine the 88. If the diameter of the hole is subject to
time required to complete a job by considerable variation, then for locating in jigs and
a) Fast worker fixtures, the pressure type of locator used is
b) Average worker a) Conical locator [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
c) Slow worker b) Cylindrical locator
d) New entrant c) Diamond pin locator
82. Job enrichment technique is applied to d) Vee locator
a) Reduce labour monotony 89. A single point thread cutting tool should ideally
b) Overcome boring and demotivating work have [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
c) Make people happy a) Zero rake angle
d) All of the above b) Positive rake angle
83. For ship vessel industry the following layout is c) Negative rake angle
best suited d) Point angle
a) Process layout 90. The main object of scientific layout is
b) Product layout a) To produce better quality of product
c) Fixed position layout b) To utilize maximum floor area
d) Plant layout c) To minimize production delays
84. Routing is essential in the following type of d) All of these [EKT 2 2016 MECH]
industry 91. Break-even analysis can be used for
a) Assembly industry a) Short run analysis
b) Process industry b) Long run analysis
c) Job order industry c) Average of above two run analysis
d) Mass production industry d) There is no such criterion
85. An optimum project schedule implies 92. CPM has following time estimate
a) Optimum utilization of men, machines and a) One time estimate
materials b) Two time estimate
b) Lowest possible cost and shortest possible time c) Three time estimate
for project d) Four time estimate
c) Timely execution of project 93. PERT has following time estimate
d) To produce best results under given constraints a) One time estimate
86. Graphical method, simplex method, and b) Two time estimate
transportation method are concerned with
c) Three time estimate
a) Break-even analysis
d) Four time estimate
b) Value analysis
94. Cast iron during machining produces
c) Linear programming
a) Continuous chips [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
222
b) Discontinuous chips 98. The cutting tool in a milling machine is mounted
c) Continuous chips with built-up edge on [EKT 1 2015 MECH]
d) None of these a) Spindle
95. Production cost refers to prime cost plus b) Arbor
a) Factory overheads [EKT 1 2015 MECH] c) Column
b) Factory and administration overheads
d) Knee
c) Factory, administration and sales overheads
d) Factory, administration, sales overheads and 99. The aim of value engineering is to
profit a) Find the depreciation value of a machine
96. In value engineering, the term value refers to b) Determine the selling price of the product
a) Manufacturing cost of the product c) Minimize the cost without changing the quality
b) Selling price of the product [EKT 1 2015 MECH] of the product [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
c) Total cost of the product d) All of the above
d) Utility of the product 100. In PERT analysis, a critical activity has
97. The tool made of cemented carbide wear out a) Maximum float [EKT 2 2016 MECH]
faster at [EKT 2 2016 MECH] b) Zero float
a) Slow speeds c) Maximum cost
b) Medium speeds d) Minimum cost
c) Fast speeds
d) Very fast speeds
Answer Key:
1.(c) 11.(a) 21.(a) 31.(d) 41.(c) 51.(d) 61.(d) 71.(a) 81.(b) 91.(a)
2.(c) 12.(a) 22.(a) 32.(a) 42.(d) 52.(a) 62.(d) 72.(a) 82.(d) 92.(a)
3.(a) 13.(d) 23.(a) 33.(d) 43.(a) 53.(a) 63.(c) 73.(b) 83.(c) 93.(c)
4.(a) 14.(d) 24.(b) 34.(b) 44.(a) 54.(a) 64.(d) 74.(b) 84.(a) 94.(b)
5.(c) 15.(a) 25.(a) 35.(b) 45.(d) 55.(b) 65.(c) 75.(a) 85.(b) 95.(a)
6.(d) 16.(c) 26.(c) 36.(c) 46.(a) 56.(d) 66.(a) 76.(d) 86.(c) 96.(d)
7.(a) 17.(d) 27.(b) 37.(a) 47.(b) 57.(c) 67.(b) 77.(d) 87.(c) 97.(a)
8.(d) 18.(c) 28.(b) 38.(a) 48.(a) 58.(a) 68.(d) 78.(d) 88.(a) 98.(b)
9.(a) 19.(a) 29.(d) 39.(d) 49.(b) 59.(c) 69.(d) 79.(d) 89.(b) 99.(c)
10.(a) 20.(a) 30.(c) 40.(d) 50.(d) 60.(c) 70.(a) 80.(a) 90.(d) 100.(b)
223
24. FLIGHT MECHANICS
Atmosphere – Classification of aircraft - Airplane (fixed wing aircraft) configuration and

various parts – Airplane performance – Primary flight instruments – Drag polar – Take-off
and landing – Steady climb and descent – absolute and service ceiling – Cruise, cruise climb,
endurance or loiter – Load factor, turning flight, V-n diagram – Winds: head, tail and cross
winds – Static stability – Longitudinal and Directional stability.

1. _______ engines should be used by a subsonic b) Less longitudinal ststic stability
passenger transport airplane for minimum specific c) Same longitudinal ststic stability
fuel consumption. d) More longitudinal static stability for an aft tail
a) Turbojet engine with afterburner airplane if aerodynamic center of the larger wing is
b) Turbofan engine behind the center of gravity of the airplane
c) Ramjet engine 6. Two airplanes are identical except for the
d) Scramjet engine location of the wing. The longitudinal static stability
2. An artificial satellite remains in orbit and does of the airplane with low wing configuration will be
not fall to the earth because a) More than the airplane with high wing
a) The centrifugal force acting on it balances the configuration
gravitational attraction b) Less than the airplane with wing configuration
b) The on-board rocket motors provide continuous c) Same as the airplane with high wing
boost to keep it in orbit configuration
c) Its transverse velocity keeps it from hitting the d) More if elevator is deflected
earth although it fails continuously 7. For a fixed center of gravity location of an
d) Due to its high speed it derives sufficient lift from airplane, when the propeller is mounted on the
the rarefied atmosphere nose of the fuselage
3. The number of natural frequencies of an elastic a) Longitudinal static stability increases
beam with cantilever boundary condition is b) Longitudinal static stability decreases
a) 1 c) Longitudinal static stability remains same
b) 3 d) Longitudinal static stability is maximum
c) 1000 8. Let an airplane in a steady level flight be trimmed
d) Infinite ata a certain speed. A level steady flight at a higher
4. For maximum range of a glider, which of the speed could be achieved by changing
following conditions is true? a) Engine throttle only
a) Lift to drag ratio is maximum b) Elevator only
b) Rate of descent is minimum c) Throttle and elevator together
c) Descent angle is maximum d) Rudder only
d) Lift to weight ratio is maximum 9. For an elastic anisotropic solid, the number of
5. An airplane with a larger wing as compared to a independent elastic constants in its constitutive
smaller wing will necessarily have equations is
a) More longitudinal static stability a) 2
b) 9
224
c) 21 16. Two airfoils of the same family are operating at
d) 36 the same angle of attack. The dimensions of one
10. The drag divergence Mach number of an airfoil airfoil are twice as large as the other one. The ratio
a) Is a fixed number for a given airfoil of the minimum pressure coefficient of the larger
b) Is always higher than the critical Mach number airfoil to the minimum pressure coefficient of the
c) Is equal to the critical Mach number at zero angle smaller airfoil is
of attack a) 4.0
d) Is the Mach number at which a shock wave first b) 2.0
appears on the airfoil c) 1.0
d) 0.5
11. ______ thermodynamic cycle does an ideal
ramjet operates. 17. If horizontal tail area is increased while the
a) The Rankine cycle elevator to horizontal tail area is kept same, then
b) The Brayton cycle a) Both longitudinal static stability and elevator
c) The Carnot cycle control power will increase
d) The Otto cycle b) Only longitudinal static stability will increase
c) Only elevator control will increase
12. Across a normal shock
d) Neither stability nor control power changes
a) Both total temperature and total pressure
decrease 18. ______ materials should be selected to design
b) Both total temperature and total pressure an axial flow turbine operating at high
remain constant temperature.
c) Total pressure remains constant but total a) Steel alloy
temperature decreases b) Titanium alloy
d) Total temperature remains constant but total c) Nickel alloy
pressure decreases d) Aluminium alloy
13. The Joukowski airfoil is studied in aerodynamics 19. Which one of the following statements is true?
because a) The isentropic efficiency of a compressor is
a) It is used in many aircraft constant throughput the compressor
b) It is easily transformed into a circle, b) Flow separation problems are more critical for
mathematically the axial compressors than for thye centrifugal
c) It has a simple geometry compressors
d) It has the highest lift curve slope among all c) The pressure ratio of a centrifugal compressor
airfoils approaches zero as the compressor mass flow rate
approaches zero
14. Total pressure at a point is defined as the
d) Centrifugal compressors are always designed
pressure when the flow is brought to rest
with multiple stages
a) Adiabatically
b) Isentropically 20. An athlete starts running with a speed V0.
c) Isothermally Subsequently, his speed decreases by an amount
d) Isobarically that is proportional to the distance that he has
already covered. The distance covered will be
15. Two pipes of constant sections but different
a) Linear in time
diameters carry water at the same volume flow
b) Quadratic in time
rate. The Reynolds number, based on the pipe
c) Exponential in time
diameter, is
d) Logarithmic in time
a) The same in both pipes
b) Is larger in the narrow pipe 21. At a stationary point of a multi-variable
c) Is smaller in the narrower pipe function, which of the following is true?
d) Depends on the material of the pipes a) Curl of the function becomes unity
225
b) Gradient of the function vanishes d) Decreased at the perigee
c) Divergence of the function vanishes 29. One of the inertia for high-speed airplanes is
d) Gradient of the function is maximum that the critical Mach number should be as highj as
22. The purpose of a fuel injection system in the possible. Therefore, high-speed subsonic airplanes
combustor is are usually designed with
a) To accelerate the flow in the combustor a) Thick airfoils
b) To increase the stagnation pressure of the fuel- b) Thin airfoils
air mixture c) Laminar flow airfoils
c) To ignite the fuel-air mixture d) Diamond airfoils
d) To convert the bulk fuel into tiny droplets 30. The drag of an aircraft in steady climbing flight
23. ______ values is nearer to the vaccum specific at a given forward speed is
impulse of a rocket engine using liquid hydrogen a) Inversely proportional to climb angle
and liquid oxygen as propellants. b) Higher than grag in steady level flight at the same
a) 49 sec forward speed
b) 450 sec c) Lower than drag in steady level flight at the same
c) 6000 sec forward speed
d) 40000 sec d) Independent of climb angle
24. The system shows the following type of 31. The parameters that remain constant is a
coordinate coupling cruise-climb of an aircraft are
a) Static coupling a) Equivalent airspeed and lift coefficient
b) Dynamic coupling b) Altitude and lift coefficient
c) Static and dynamic coupling c) Equivalent airspeed and altitude
d) No coupling d) Lift coefficient and aircraft mass
25. The lift curve slope of this wing is 32. The maximum thickness to chord ratio for the
a) 0.10 per deg NACA 24012 airfoil is
b) 0.092 per deg a) 0.01
c) 0.075 per deg b) 0.12
d) 0.050 per deg c) 0.24
26. The span efficiency factor of the wing is d) 0.40
a) 1.0 33. The maximum possible value of pressure
b) 0.91 coefficient Cp in incompressible flow is
c) 0.75 a) 0.5
d) 0.63 b) 1
27. The compressor pressure ratio is c) 𝜋
a) 0.22 d) 𝛼
b) 0.28 34. An irrotational and invised flow can become
c) 3.50 rotational on passing through a
d) 3.90 a) Normal shock wave
28. To transfer a satellite from an elliptical orbit to b) Oblique shock wave
a circular orbit having radius equal to the apogee c) Curved shock wave
distance of the elliptical orbit, the speed of the d) Mach wave
satellite should be 35. Laminar flow airfoils are used to reduce
a) Increased at the apogee a) Trim drag
b) Decreased at the apogee b) Skin friction drag
c) Increased at the perigee c) Induced drag
226
d) Wave drag b) Product of speed and radial distance from the
36. The degree of reaction of an impulse turbine center of the earth
a) 1 c) Rate of area swept by the radial vector from the
b) 0.75 center of the orbit
c) 0.5 d) Rate of area swept by the radial vector from the
d) 0 center of the earth
37. In a convergent-divergent (CD) nozzle of a 43. The velocity required for a space craft to escape
rocket motor, the wall heat flux is maximum at earth’s gravitational field depends on
a) The exit of the divergent portion of the CD nozzle a) The mass of the spacecraft
b) The entry to the convergent portion of the CD b) The distance between earth’s center and the
nozzle spacecraft
c) The throat of the CD nozzle c) The earth’s rotational speed about its own axis
d) The mid-length of the divergent portion of the d) The arth’s orbital speed
CD nozzle 44. Which one is true as the altitude increases in
stratosphere of International Standard
38. In a scramjet engine, the Mach number at the
At5mosphere?
entry to the combustion chamber is around
a) Temperature increases and dynamic viscosity
a) 0
decreases
b) 0.3
b) Temperature remains constant and pressure
c) 2
increases
d) 6
c) Temperature decreases and sound speed
39. In the absence of body moments, the symmetry decreases
of the stress tensor is derived from d) Temperature remains constant and density
a) Force equilibrium conditions decreases
b) Moment equilibrium conditions
45. Which of the following statements is true?
c) Linear relations nbetween stresses and strains
a) Wing dihedral reduces roll stability while a low
d) Compatibility conditions
wing increases roll stability
40. In a 3-D orthotropic material, the number of b) Wing dihedral increases roll stability while a low
elastic constants in linear stress-strain relationship wing reduces roll stability
is c) Wing dihedral, as well as low wing reduces roll
a) 3 stability
b) 5 d) Wing dihedral, as well as low wing increases roll
c) 9 stability
d) 21
46. The primary function of the fin in the vertical
41. The compatibility conditions in theory of tail of an aircraft is to provide
elasticity ensure that a) Yaw control
a) There is compatibility between various direct b) Yaw stability
and shear stresses c) Roll damping
b) Relationships between stresses and strains are d) Roll stability
consistent with constitutive relations
47. An aircraft requires the trailing edge of the
c) Displacement are single-valued and continuous
elevator to be deflected upwards from its initial
d) Stresses satisfy bi-harmonic equation
positions to lower the trim speed. Which of the
42. _______ quantities remains constant for a following statements about the static stick-fixed
satellite is an elliptical orbit around the earth. stability of the aircraft is true?
a) Kinetic energy a) The aircraft is unstable
b) The aircraft is neutrally stable
227
c) The aircraft is stable a) Thrust increases but burn time decreases
d) The stability of the aircraft cannot be determined b) Thrust decreases and burn time decreases too
from the given information c) Thrust remains same but burn time increases
48. If the flow Mach number in a turbulent d) Thrust increases but burn time remains same
boundary layer over a flat plate is increased 55. For aflow through a Prandtl-Meyer expansion
keeping the Reynolds number unchanged, the skin wave
friction coefficient Cf a) Mach number stays constant
a) Decreases b) Entropy stays constant
b) Increases c) Temperature stays constant
c) Remains constant d) Density stays constant
d) Initially decreases, followed by a rapid increase 56. A conventional altimeter is a
49. In a supersonic wind-tunnel design., an oblique a) Pressure transducer
shock diffuser is preferred over a normal shock b) Temperature transducer
diffuser because c) Density transducer
a) It reduces total pressure loss d) Velocity transducer
b) The flow is slowed down more rapidly 57. Thrust available from a turbojet engine
c) The flow is accelerated more rapidly a) Increases as altitude increases
d) It increases total pressure loss b) Increases up to the tropopause and then
50. The variation of downwash along the span of an decreases
untwisted wing of elliptic planform is c) Remains constant at all altitudes
a) Sinusoidal d) Decreases as altitude increases
b) Parabolic 58.The short period damped frequency is
c) Elliptic a) 2.6 rad/s
d) Constant b) 0.2 rad/s
51. Flow past an airfoil is to be modelled using a c) 2.5 rad/s
vortex sheet. The strength of the vortex sheet at d) 0.02 rad/s
the trailing edge will be 59. An aircraft is climbing at a constant speed in a
a) 0 straight line at a steep angle of climb. The load
b) 1 factor it sustains during the climb is
c) 2π a) Equal to 1.0
d) ∞ b) Greater than 1.0
52. Which one of the following high lift device c) Positive but less than 1.0
results in higher stalling angle? d) Dependent on the weight of the aircraft
a) Split flap 60. In a general case of a homogeneous material
b) Fowler flap under thermo-mechanical loading the number of
c) Plain flap distinct components of the state of stress is
d) Leading edge flap a) 3
53. A turbojet engine is operating with afterburner b) 4
off. If the afterburner is switched on, then c) 5
a) Both thrust and sfc decrease d) 6
b) Thrust increases and sfs decreases 61. The eigen values of a real symmetric matrix are
c) Thrust decreases and sfc increases always
d) Both thrust and sfc increase a) Positive
54. The initial temperature sensitivity of burn rate b) Imaginary
of a solid rocket motor propellant is positive. If the c) Real
initial temperature increases then d) Complex conjugate pairs
228
62. The absolute ceiling of an aircraft is the altitude a) Sweep back, anhedral and low wing
above which it b) Sweep forward, dihedral and low wing
a) Can never each c) Sweep forward, anhedral and high wing
b) Cannot sustain level flight at aconstant speed d) Sweep back, dihedral and high wing
c) Can perform accelerated flight as well as straight 69. _____ flight instruments is used on an aircraft
and level flight at a constant speed to determine its attitude in flight.
d) Can perform straight and level flight at a a) Vertical speed indicator
constant speed only b) Alimeter
63. The angular momentum, about the centre of c) Artificial Horizon
mass of the earth, of an artificial satellite in ahighly d) Turn-bank indicator
elliptical orbit is
70. _____ is favourable for an airplane operation.
a) A maximum when the satellite is farthest from
a) Tail wind in cruise and head wind in landing
the earth
b) Tail wind in both in cruise and landing
b) A constant
c) Head wind both in cruise and landing
c) Proportional to the speed of the satellite
d) Head wind in cruise and tail wind in landing
d) Proportional to the square of the speed of the
satellite 71. Which of the following is true with respect to
Phugoid mode of an aircraft?
64. For a multi-stage axial compressor with
a) Frequency is directly proportional to flight speed
constant diameter hub
b) Frequency is inversely proportional to flight
a) Blade height decreases in the flow direction
speed
b) Blade height increases in the flow direction
c) Frequency is directly proportional to the square
c) Blade height remains constsnt
root of flight speed
d) Blade height first increases and then decreases
d) Frequency is inversely proportional to the square
in the flow direction
root of flight speed
65. How does the specific thrust, at constant
72. Which of the following statements is not true
turbine inlet temperature, produced by a turbofan
for a supersonic flow?
engine change with an increase in compressor
a) Over a gradual expansion, entropy remains
pressure ratio
constant
a) Increases
b) Over a sharp expansion corner, entropy can
b) Decreases
increase
c) First increases and then decreases
c) Over a gradual compression, entropy can remain
d) First decreases and then increases
constant
66. Among the choices given below, the Specific d) Over a sharp compression corner, entropy
Impulse is maximum for a increases
a) Cryogenic Rocket
73. The critical Mach number for a flat palte of zero
b) Solid Rocket
thickness, at zero angle of attack, is
c) Liquid Rocket
a) 1
d) ramjet
b) 4
67. The maximum operating flow rate through a c) 0
centrifugal compressor at a given RPM is limited by d) 2
a) Impellor roll
74. ________ criteria leads to maximum turn rate
b) Surge
and minimum radius in a level turn flight.
c) Choking of diffuset throat
a) Highest possible load factor and highest possible
d) Inlet flow distortion
velocity
68. _____ is the most stable configuration of an b) Lowest possible load factor and lowest possible
airplane in roll. velocity
229
c) Highest possible load factor and lowest possible 81. It is seen that the drag polar of a certain aerofoil
velocity is symmetric about the Cd axis. This drag polar could
d) Lowest possible load factor and highest possible refer to
velocity a) NACA 0012
75. An Euler-Bernoulli beam in bending is assumed b) NACA 4415
to satisfy c) NACA 23012
a) Both plane stress as well as plane strain d) None of the above
conditions 82. The aerodynamic centre of a supersonic
b) Plane strain condition but not plane stress aerofoil, with chord c, is located at
condition a) The leading edge
c) Plane stress condition but not plane strain b) 0.25c
condition c) 0.5c
d) Neither plane strain condition nor plane stress d) 0.75c
condition 83. Winglets are used on wings to minimize
76. An impulsive launch of a rocket minimizes the a) Skin friction drag
loss of burn-out velocity due to b) Profile drag
a) Aerodynamic drag force only
c) Wave drag
b) Gravitational force only
c) Both aerodynamic drag and gravitational forces d) Induced drag
d) Reaction jet control force 84. A main objective by-pass in a turbo-fan engine
77. Multi-staging in rockets improves the burn-out is to increase
performance by increasing mainly stage-wise a) Mass flow rate through engine inlet
a) Payload mass ratios b) Turbine inlet temperature
b) Structural mass efficiencies
c) Mass flow rate through exhaust nozzle
c) Propellant masses
d) Control system masses d) Compressor pressure ratio
78. Lift on an aircraft climbing vertically up is 85. The pressure ratio in any one stage of a jet
a) Equal to its weight engine compressor is limited by
b) Zero a) Entry stagnation temperature in that stage
c) Equal to the drag b) Entry Mach number in that stage
d) Equal to the thrust
c) Pressure gradient induced separation in that
79. If an aircraft is performing a positive yawing stage
manoeuvre, the side slip angle
d) Mass flow rate in that stage
a) Is always zero
b) Is never zero 86. Thermodynamic cycle on which the jet engine
c) Is always negative operates can be
d) Could be any value a) Open Rankine cycle only
80. For an airplane to be statically stable, its centre b) Either open or closed Rankine only
of gravity must always be c) Open Brayton cycle only
a) Ahead of wing aerodynamic centre
d) Open or closed Brayton cycle
b) Aft of the wing aerodynamic centre
c) Ahead of neutral point 87. In general, for any given solid subjected to
d) Aft of neutral point arbitrary loading, which of the following
statements is always true?
a) Volume does not vary with loading
230
b) Mass does not vary with loading b) Static pressure increases, static temperature
c) Density does not vary with loading increases
d) Volume, mass and density vary with loading c) Static temperature increases, total pressure
decreases
88. The thrust produced by a turbojet engine
d) Static pressure increases, total temperature
a) Increases with increasing by a turbojet engine
decreases
b) Decreases with increasing compressor pressure
94. _______ aircraft engines has the highest
ratio
propulsive efficiency at a cruising Mach number of
c) Remains constant with increasing compressor less than 0.5?
pressure ratio
a) Turbofan engine
d) First increases and then decreases with
b) Turbojet engine
increasing compressor pressure ratio
c) Turboprop engine
89. The vertical ground load factor on a stationary
aircraft parked in its hangar is d) Ramjet engine
a) 0 95. Combustion in gas turbine engines is ideally
represented as the following process
b) -1
a) Adiabatic
c) Not defined
b) Isentropic
d) 1
c) Isobaric
90. In most airplanes, the Dutch roll mode can be
excited by applying d) Isochoric
a) A step input to the elevators 96. For a given chamber pressure, the thrust of a
rocket engine is highest when
b) A step input to the rudder
a) The rocket is operating at its design altitude
c) A sinusoidal input to the aileron
b) The rocket is operating in vaccum
d) An impulse input to the elevators
c) The rocket is operating in sea-level
91. With increase in airfoil thickness, the critical
Mach number for an airfoil is likely to d) There is a normal shock in the rocket nozzle
a) Decrease 97. The damping ratio in phugoid motion for gliders
is usually less compared to powered aircraft
b) Increase
because
c) Reamin unchanged
a) Gliders are unpowered
d) Be undefined
b) Gliders are light
92. _______ airfoil will have location of the
c) Lift to drag ratio is higher for gliders
maximum camber at half chord length from the
leading edge. d) Gliders fly at low speed
a) NACA 5212 98.During an aircraft cruising flight, the altitude
above the ground is usually measured using
b) NACA 1225
a) Dynamic pressure
c) NACA 2215
b) Static pressure
c) NACA 2512
c) Radar
93. Which of the following statement is not true
across an oblique shock wave? d) Laser range finder
a) Static temperature increases, total temperature 99. Indicated airspeed is used by a pilot during
remains constant a) Take-off
231
b) Navigation a) Wings level constant altitude flight
c) Setting the engine RPM b) Unaccelerated climb
d) Setting the elevator angle c) Unaccelerated descent
100. The pitch angle and the angle of attack for a d) Landing
fixed wing aircraft are equal during
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (b) 21. (b) 31. (a) 41. (c) 51. (a) 61. (b) 71. (b) 81. (a) 91. (c)
2. (c) 12. (d) 22. (d) 32. (b) 42. (b) 52. (a) 62. (c) 72. (b) 82. (c) 92. (b)
3. (d) 13. (c) 23. (b) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (d) 63. (b) 73. (a) 83. (d) 93. (c)
4. (a) 14. (b) 24. (b) 34. (c) 44. (a) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (c) 84. (a) 94. (c)
5. (d) 15. (b) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (b) 55. (b) 65. (a) 75. (d) 85. (c) 95. (c)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c) 36. (d) 46. (b) 56. (b) 66. (c) 76. (b) 86. (c) 96. (b)
7. (b) 17. (a ) 27. (c) 37. (b) 47. (a) 57. (a) 67. (d) 77. (a) 87. (b) 97. (c)
8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (a) 38. (c) 48. (a) 58. (a) 68. (d) 78. (b) 88. (d) 98. (b)
9. (a) 19. (a) 29. (b) 39. (b) 49. (a) 59. (d) 69. (c) 79. (d) 89. (d) 99. (a)
10.(b) 20. (c) 30. (c) 40. (c) 50. (d) 60. (c) 70. (a) 80. (c) 90. (b) 100.(a)
232
25. AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
Stress and Strain – Flight Vehicle Structures – Flexural shear flow in thin-walled sections –
Buckling – Failure theories – Loads on aircraft – Structural Dynamics – Damping and
resonance – Dynamics of continuous systems

1. Ailerons are used to control _______ b) Guest’s or Treca’s theory
a) Yaw of aircraft c) Haig’s theory
b) Pitch [EKT 1 2015 MECH] d) Rankine’s theory
c) Roll 7. The assumption in the theory of bending of
d) None of these beams,is:
2. A material is said to be perfectly elastic if a) each layer is independent to expand or to
a) It regains its original shape partially on removal contract
of the load b) Young’s modulus is same in tension as well as in
b) None of these compression
c) It does not regain its original shape at all c) material is isotropic
d) It regains its original shape on removal of the d) all the above
load 8. If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor
3. The principal planes are subjected to of safety in elastic design, the following __
a) None of these a) Q = S × F
b) Tangential stresses only b) Q = S + F
c) Normal stresses only c) Q = S – F
d) Normal stresses as well as tangential stresses d) Q = F – S
4. Which of the following is the correct statement?
9. In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a
a) All
triangular section, is ________
b) For channels, the shear centre does not concides
a) 2.34
its centroid
b) 1.5
c) For 1 sections, the shear centre coincides with
c) 2.5
the centroid of the cross section of the beam
d) 1.34
d) Bending loads should pass through the shear
centre to avoid twisting 10. The shape factor of standard rolled beam
section varies from
5. Shear strain energy theory for the failure of a
a) 1.10 to 1.20
material at elastic limit, is due to
b) 1.20 to 1.30
a) Haig
c) 1.40 to 1.50
b) Von Mises
d) 1.30 to 1.40
c) Guest or Treces
d) St. Venant 11. In plastic analysis, the shape factor for
rectangular section, is
6. The total strain energy theory for the failure of a
a) 1.4
material at elastic limit is known as
b) 1.5
a) St. Venant’s theory
c) 1.6
233
d) 1.7 d) Creep
12. A truss containing j joints and m members, will 20. Cleavage fracture appears
be a simple truss if a) Bright
a) j = 3m-2 b) Dull
b) m = 2j-3 c) Difficult to identify
c) j = 2m-3 d) None
d) m = 3j-2 21. Brittle fracture is more dangerous than
13. The point of contraflexure is the point where _ ductile fracture because _______
a) B.M. is minimum a) No warning sign
b) B.M. is maximum b) Crack propagates at very high speeds
c) B.M. changes sign c) No need for extra during crack propagation
d) S.F. is zero d) All
14. ________ aero engines has the highest 22. The most often machine components fail by
propulsive efficiency. a) Buckling
a) Turbojet engine without afterburner b) Creep
b) Turbojet engine with afterburner c) Fatigue
c) Turbofan engine d) All
d) Ramjet engine 23. The need of failure theories is ________
15. The stoichiometric fuel-to-air ratio in an aircraft a) To design structural components and calculate
engine combustor varies with the compressor ratio margin of safety
as follows b) To guide in materials development
a) Increases linearly c) To determine weak and strong directions
b) Decreases linearly d) All the above
c) Is independent 24. The failure in metallic materials is characterized
d) Increases nonlinearly by ________
16. _______ fails by rupturing. a) Yield strength
a) Brittle Material b) Torsional strength
b) Ductile Material c) Tensile strength
c) Composite Material d) Compressive strength
d) Smart material 25. The energy stored in a body when strained
17. Failure due to excessive deformation is within elastic limit is known as ________
controlled by _______ a) Resilience
a) Material properties b) Proof resilience
b) Design & Dimensions c) Strain energy
c) Both d) Impact energy
d) None 26. _______ theory is suitable for brittle materials.
18. Failure due to excessive deformation is a) Max. Principal stress theory
controlled by b) Max. Strain theory
a) Yield strength c) Max. Shear stress theory
b) Tensile strength d) Distortion energy theory
c) Young’s modulus 27. Maximum principal stress theory was
19. The time dependent yield is known as postulated by ________
a) Fracture a) St. Venant
b) Fatigue b) Mohr
c) Buckling c) Rankine
234
d) Tresca 35. _______ is used for servicing and repairs of the
28. The maximum shear stress theory was aircraft.
postulated by ________ a) Apron
a) St. Venant b) Hanger
b) Mohr c) Terminal building
c) Rankine d) Holding apron
d) Tresca 36. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width
29. Strain energy theory was postulated by of safety area for instrumntal runway should be
a) Rankine a) 78 m
b) Mohr b) 150 m
c) Tresca c) 300 m
d) Haigh d) 450 m
30. _______ theory overestimates the behaviour of 37. As per ICAO, for A,B,C type of airports,
ductile materials maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal
a) Max. Principal stress theory grades in percentage respectively are ________
b) Max. Principal strain theory a) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
c) Max. Shear stress theory b) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
d) Distortion energy theory c) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
31. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum d) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
turning radius of taxiway is ______ 38. The engine failure case for determining the
a) 60 m basic runaway length may require ________
b) 120 m a) Only clearway
c) 180 m b) Only stop way
d) 240 m c) Either a clearway or a stopway
32. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width d) Eithert a clearway or a stopway or both
of safety area for instrumental runway should be 39. The minimum width of clearway is _______
a) 78 m a) 50 m
b) 150 m b) 100 m
c) 300 m c) 150 m
d) 450 m d) 250 m
33. _______ is an example of failure in flexible 40. The minimum width of clearway is
pavements. a) 50 m
a) Alligator cracking b) 100 m
b) Mud pumping c) 150 m
c) Warping cracks d) 250 m
d) Shrinkage cracks
41. Find the stagnation temperature of air
34. The main disadvantage of angle nose out flowingnat a velocity of 300 m/s, if the static
parking configuration of aircraft is that the temperature is 2050 C. Cp = 1.005 kJ / kg K.
a) aircraft rear loading door is far away from a) 249.80 C
terminal building b) 349.90 C
b) hot blast is directed towards the terminal c) 546.80 C
building d) 109.40 C
c) overall apron area required is more
42. For determining the basic runway length, the
d) all the above
landing case requires that aircraft should come to a
235
stop within p% of the landing distance. The value of a) 4.8 kmph
p is ________ b) 6.4 kmph
a) 40 % c) 8.0 kmph
b) 50 % d) 9.6 kmph
c) 60 % 50. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from
d) 75 % the boundary of the heliport should be
43. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways a) 1:2
are ________ b) 1:5
a) Yellow c) 1:8
b) White d) 1:40
c) Black 51. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting
d) Red along the property of landing and takeoff area
44. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of should be ________
parallel lines starting from a distance of _______ a) 2.5 m
a) 3m from runway end b) 5.0 m
b) 6m from runway end c) 7.5 m
c) 10m from runway end d) 10.0 m
d) 15m from runway end 52. The size of landing area for multiengined
45. The width and interval of transverse centre line helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is
bars along the extended centre line of runway, in a) 22.5 × 22.5 m
approach lighting system are ______ b) 30 m × 30 m
a) 3m and 30m c) 22.5 m × 30 m
b) 4.2m and 30m d) 60 m × 120 m
c) 4.2m and 50m 53. An airplane travels at Mach 1.2 at an elevation
d) 3m and 45m where the temperature is -400 C. Dtermine the
46. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is _______ velocity of the plane in km/h. Assume 𝛾 = 1.4.
a) Equal to empty operating weight a) 1422.13 km/h
b) Equal to maximum landing weight b) 6543 km/h
c) Less than empty operating weight c) 1322.14 km/h
d) Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the d)432.8 km/h
maximum pay load 54. Castor angle is defined as the angle ______
47. The engine failure case for determining the a) Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
basic runway length may require and the direction of movement of the nose gear
a) Only clearway b) Between the direction of wind and the
b) Only stop way longitudinal axis of the runway
c) Either a clearway or a stopway or both c) Between the true speed of the aircraft and the
d) None of these crosswind component
48. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, d) Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
the crosswind component should not exceed 55. Air is flowing at constant temperature through
a) 15 kmph a 75 mm dia. horizontal pipe (f =0.02). At entrance,
b) 25 kmph
the velocity of air = 100 m/s, temperature = 500 C
c) 35 kmph
d) 45 kmph and pressure = 2.04 bar. What is the maximum pipe
49. Calm period is the percentage of time during length for this flow and how much heat is
which wind intensity is less than _______ transferred to the air per kg of air?
a) 20.75 kJ/kg
236
b) 83.65 kJ/kg d) Mach wave
c) 41.35 kJ/kg 62. Laminar flow airfoils are used to reduce
d) 95.15 kJ/kg a) Trim grag
b) Skin friction drag
56. To transfer a satellite from an elliptical orbit
c) Induced drag
having, radius equal to the apogee distance of the
d) Wave drag
elliptical orbit, the speed of the satellite should be
63. The degree of reaction of an impulse turbine is
_______
_____
a) Increased at the apogee
a) 1
b) Decreased at the apogee
b) 0.75
c) Increased at the perigee
c) 0.5
d) Decreased at the perigee
d) 0
57. The service ceiling of a transport aircraft is
64. In a convergent divergent nozzle of a rocket
defined as the altitude _______
motor, the wall heat flux is maximum at ______
a) that is halfway between sea-level and absolute
ceiling a) The exit of the divergent portion of the CD nozzle
b) At which it can cruise with one engine b) The entry to the convergent portion of the CD
operational nozzle
c) At which its maximum rate of climb is zero
d) At which its maximum rate of climb is 0.508 m/s c) The throat of the CD nozzle
58. The drag of an aircraft in steady climbing flight d)The mid-length of the divergent portion of the CD
at a given forward speed is _______ nozzle
a) Inversely proportional to climb angle 65. In a scramjet engine, the Mach number at the
b) Higher than drag in steady level flight at the same entry to the combustionchamber is around
forward speed a)0
c) Lower than drag in steady level flight at the same b) 0.3
forward speed c) 2
d) Independent of climb angle d) 6
59. The parameters that remain constant in a 66. The compatibility conditions in theory of
cruise-climb of an aircraft are _______ elasticity ensure that _______
a) Equivalent airspeed and lift coefficient a) There is compatibility between various direct and
b) Altitude and lift coefficient shear stresses
c) Equivalent airspeed and altitude b) Relationships between stresses and strains are
d) Lift coefficient and aircraft mass constsnt with constitutive relations
c) Displacements are single-valued and continuous
60. The maximum thickness to chord ratio for the d) Stresses satisfy bi-harmonic equation
NACA 24012 airfoil is _______ 67. In a 3-D orthotropic material, the number of
a) 0.01 elastic constants in linear stress-strain relationship
b) 0.12 is _______
c) 0.24 a) 3
d) 0.40 b) 5
61. An irrotational and inviscid flow can become c) 9
rotational on passing through a _______ d) 21
a) Normal shock wave 68. In the absence of body moments, the symmetry
b) Oblique shock wave of the stress tensor is derived from
c) Curved shock wave a) Force equilibrium conditions
237
b) Moment equilibrium conditions d) 4
c) Linear relations between stresses and strains 75. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from
d) Compatibility conditions the boundary of the heliport should be
69. ______ is the most stable configuration of an a) 1:2
airplane in roll. b) 1:5
a) Sweep back, anhedral and low wing c) 1:8
b) Sweep forward, dihedral and low wing d) 1:40
c) Sweep forward, anhedral and high wing 76. Lift of an aircraft when it is flying straight and
d) Sweep back, dinhedral and high wing level is [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
70. ______ of the following flight instruments is a) Equal to weight
used ona aircraft to dtermine its attitude in flight. b) Slightly higher than the weight
a) Vertical speed indicator c) Double the weight
b) Altimeter d) None of the above
c) Artificial Horizon 77. The efficiency of a jet engine as compared to
d) Turn-bank indicator propeller is higher at [EKT 2 2015 MECH]
71. A supersonic airplane is expected to fly at both a) Low speeds
subsonic and supersonic speeds during its whole b) High speeds
flight course. Which one of the following c) Low altitudes
statements is TRUE? d) High altitudes
a) Airplane will experience less stability in pitch at 78. The trust produced by a turbojet engine
supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds a) Increases with increasing compressor pressure
b) Airplane will feel no change in pitch stability ratio
c) Airplane will experience more stability in pitch at b) Decreases with increasing compressor pressure
supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds ratio
d) Pitch stability cannot be inferred from the c) Remains constant with increasing compressor
information given pressure ratio
72. _______ is favourable for an airplane operation. d) First increases and then decreases with
a) Tail wind in cruise and head wind in landing increasing compressure pressure ratio
b) Tail wind both in cruise and landing 79. The vertical ground load factor on a stationary
c) Head wind both in cruise and landing aircraft parked in its hangar is ______
d) Head wind in cruise and tail wind in landing a) 0
73. Which one is true with respect to Phugoid mode b) -1
of an aircraft? c) Not defined
a) Frequency is directly proportional to flight speed d) 1
b) Frequency is inversely proportional to flight 80. ______ engines should be used by a subsonic
speed passenger transport airplane for minimum specific
c) Frequency is directly proportional to the square fuel consumption.
root of flight speed a) Turbojet engine with afterburner
d) Frequency is inversely proportional to the square b) Turbofan engine
root of flight speed c) Ramjet engine
74. The critical Mach number for a flat plate of zero d) Scramjet engine
thickness, at zero angle of attack is ______ 81. The number of natural frequencies of an elastic
a) 1 beam with cantilever boundary conditions is
b) 2 _______
c) 3 a) 1
b) 3
238
c) 1000 a) Both total temperature and total pressure
d) Infinite decrease
82. For maximum range of a glider, which of the b) Both total temperature and total pressure
following conditions is true? remain constant
a) Lift to drag ratio is maximum c) Total pressure remains constant but
b) Rate of descent is minimum totaltemperature decreases
c) Descent angle is maximum d) Total temperature remains constsnt but total
d) Lift to weight ratio is maximum pressure decreases
89. The Joukowskii airfoil is studied in
83. An airplane with a larger wing as compared to a
aerodynamics because ______
smaller wing will necessarily have _______
a) It is used in many aircraft
a) more longitudinal static stability
b) It is easily transformed into a circle,
b) less longitudinal static stability
mathematically
c) same lonmgitudinal static stability
c) It has a simple geometry
d) more longitudinal static stability for an aft
d) It has the highest lift curve slope among all
airplane if aerodynamic center of the larger wing is
airfoils
behind the center of gravity of the airplane
90. One of the criteria for high speed airplanes is
84. Let an airplane in a steady level flight be that the critical Mach number should be as high as
trimmed at a certain speed. A level and steady flight possible. Therefore, high-speed subsonic airplanes
at a higher speed could br achieved by changing are usually designed with _______
_______ a) Thick airfoils
a) Engine throttle only b) Thin airfoils
b) Elevator only c) Laminar flow airfoils
c) Throttle and elevator together d) Diamond airfoils
d) Rudder only 91. For an elastic anistropic solid the number of
85. The total pressure at a point is defined as the independent elastic constants in its constitutive
pressure when the flow is brought to rest ______ equations is
a) Adiabatically a) 2
b) Isentropically b) 9
c) Isothermally c) 21
d) Isobarically d) 36
86. The drag divergence Mach number of an airfoil 92. For a flow through a Prandtl-Meyer expansion
is ______ wave ________
a) Is fixed number for a given airfoil a) Mach number stays constant
b) Is always higher than the critical Mach number b) Entropy stays constant
c) Is equal to the critical Mach number at zero angle c) Temperature stays constant
of attack d) Density stays constant
d) Is the Mach number at which a shock wave first 93. A conventional alimeter is a
appears on the airfoil a) Pressure transducer
87. ______ thermodynamic cycles does an ideal b) Temperature transducer
Ramjet operate. c) Density transducer
a) The Rankine cycle d) Velocity transducer
b) The Brayton cycle 94. An unswept fixed-winged aircraft has a large roll
c) The Carnot cycle stability if the wing is placed
d) The Otto cycle a) Low on the fuselage and has negative dihedral
88. Across a nornal shock _______
angle
239
b) Low on the fuseangle and has positive dihedral 98. An aircraft is climbing at a constant speed in a
angle straight line at a steep angle of climb. The load
c) High on the fuselage and has negative dihedral factor it sustains during the climb is
angle a) Equal to 1.0
d) High on the fuselage and has positive dihedral b) Greater than 1.0
angle c) Positive but less than 1.0
95. Thrust available from a turbojet engine d) Dependent on the weight of the aircraft
a) Increases as altitude increases
b) Increases up to the tropopause and then 99. In a general case of a homogeneous material
decreases under thermo-mechanical loading the number of
c) Remains constant at all altitudes distinct components of the state of stress is
d) Decreases as altitude increases a) 3
96. Which of these is used as a high lift device? b) 4
a) Aileron [EKT 2 2015 MECH] c) 5
b) Rudder d) 6
c) Elevators 100. The eigen-values of a real symmetric matrix
d) Flaps are always
97. The short period damped frequency is _______ a) Positive
a) 2.6 rad/s b) Imaginary
b) 0.2 rad/s c) Real
c) 2.5 rad/s d) Complex conjugate pairs
d) 0.02 rad/s
Answer Key:
1. (c) 11. (b) 21. (d) 31. (c) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (c) 81. (d) 91. (a)
2. (a) 12. (b) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (c) 52. (d) 62. (b) 72. (a) 82. (a) 92. (b)
3. (c) 13. (c) 23. (d) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (c) 63. (d) 73. (b) 83. (d) 93. (a)
4. (a) 14. (c) 24. (a) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (a) 84. (c) 94. (b)
5. (c) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (b) 55. (c) 65. (c) 75. (c) 85. (b) 95. (d)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (c) 46. (d) 56. (a) 66. (c) 76. (a) 86. (b) 96. (d)
7. (d) 17. (c) 27. (c) 37. (a) 47. (c) 57. (d) 67. (c) 77. (d) 87. (b) 97. (a)
8. (a) 18. (c) 28. (d) 38. (d) 48. (c) 58. (c) 68. (b) 78. (d) 88. (d) 98. (c)
9. (a) 19. (d) 29. (d) 39. (c) 49. (b) 59. (a) 69. (d) 79. (d) 89. (b) 99. (b)
10. (a) 20. (a) 30. (b) 40. (c) 50. (c) 60. (b) 70. (c) 80. (b) 90. (b) 100.(c)
240
Solutions:
41. (a) 55. (c)
2
𝐶 a = √𝛾𝑅𝑇
𝑡0 = 𝑡 +
2𝐶𝑝 = √1.4×287×323 = 360.3 m/s
3002 M = C/a
= 205 +
2×103 ×1.005 = 100/360.3 = 0.2775
= 249.80 C 𝑓𝐿𝑚𝑎𝑥 1
𝐶2 = + ln(𝛾𝑀2 ) − 1
Note: The kinetic energy term must be expressed 𝐷ℎ 𝛾𝑀2
2
in the same units as enthalpy. When enthalpy is 0.075 1
𝐿𝑚𝑎𝑥 = [ + ln(1.4×0.27752 )
expressed in k J / kg, the kinetic energy must also be 0.02 1.4×0.27752
expressed in k J /kg. If care is not taken, the value 103 − 1]
will introduce a serious error.
= 22.68m.
53. (c)
T = - 40 + 273 = 233 K. Mach number at exit = 1/√𝛾 = 1/√1.4
1
Velocity of sound, a = 20.25 (233) 2 = 0.845
= 306.05 m/s 𝐶22 −𝐶12
𝐶 Heat transferred, 𝑞1−2 =
2
Since M = ,
𝑎 𝑎 2 (𝑀22 −𝑀12 ) 360.32 (0.8452 −0.27752 )
C = Ma = =
2 2
= 1.2 × 306.05 = 41347.6 J/kg (or) 41.35 kJ/kg
= 367.26 m/s or 1322.14 km/h
241
26. AERODYNAMICS
Basic Fluid Mechanics – Incompressible irrotational flow - Helmholtz and Kelvin theorem –
Singularities and superposition –– Boundary layer on a flat plate – Airfoils and wings – Lift
generation – Thin airfoil theory – Wing theory – Induced drag – Qualitative treatment of low
aspect ratio wings – Viscous Flows – Compressible Flows.

1. _____ is the interaction of moving objects with a) Thrust
the atmosphere. b) Drag
a) Supersonic flight c) Gravity none
b) Aerodynamics d) None
c) The sound barrier 8. An aileron
d) A sonic boom a) Increases lift
2. What is the noise you hear after a high-speed b) Controls the up and down motion of a plane
plane files by? c) Tilts the aircraft clockwise or counter clockwise
a) Supersonic flight d) Moves the plane right and left
b) Aerodynamics 9. _______ moves the plane right and left.
c) The sound barrier a) Elevator
d) A sonic boom b) Flap
3. A flap c) Thrust
a) Increases lift d) None
b) Controls the up and down motion of a plane 10. An elevator
c) Tilts the aircraft clockwise or counter clockwise a) Increases lift
d) Moves the plane right and left b) Controls the up and down motion of a plane
4. The gravity is c) Tilts the aircraft clockwise or counter clockwise
a) The force that holds a plane back d) Moves the plane right and left
b) The force that moves a plane forward 11. ________ is the wrong statement.
c) The downward force on a plane a) Fluids are capable of flowing
d) The upward force on a plane b) Fluids conform to the shape of the containing
5. Lift is vessels
a) The force that holds a plane back c) When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain
b) The force that moves plane forward tangential forces
c) The downward force on a plane d) When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear
d) The upward force on a plane forces
6. Drag is 12. ______ is the property of fluid by virtue of
a) The force that holds a plane back which it offers resistance to shear.
b) The force that moves a plane forward a) Surface tension
c) The downward force on a plane b) Adhesion
d) The upward force on a plane c) Cohesion
7. The force that moves a plane forward is d) Viscosity
242
13. Which statement is false? a) Acts in the plane of the interface normal to any
a) Its vapour pressure is low line in the surface
b) It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined b) It is also known as capillarity
tube c) It is a function of the curvature of the interface
c) Its density is less d) Has no units
d) It provides longer length for a given pressure 22. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon
difference fluid is
14. A better liquid combination is one having a) Linear
______ for manometer. b) Parabolic
a) Higher surface tension c) Hyperbolic
b) Lower surface tension d) Inverse type
c) Surface tension is no criterion 23. The bulk modulus of elasticity
d) Low density and viscosity a) Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
15. _______ meters is not associated with viscosity. b) Increases with pressure
a) Red wood c) Is large when fluid is more compressible
b) Say bolt d) Is directly proportional to flow
c) Engler 24. A balloon lifting in air follows the following
d) Orsat principle
16. The units of viscosity are a) Law of gravitation
a) meter2 per sec b) Archimedes principle
b) kg sec/metre c) Principle of buoyancy
c) newton-sec per metre2 d) All of the above
d) None 25. The value of coefficient of compressibility for
17. The kinematic viscosity is dependent upon water at ordinary pressure and temperature in
a) Pressure kg/cm is equal to
b) Distance a) 1000
c) Level b) 2100
d) Density c) 2700
18. The units of surface tension are d) 21,000
a) Energy/unit area 26. An isentropic process is
b) Distance a) Irreversible and adiabatic
c) Both of the above b) Reversible
d) It has no units c) Reversible and Isothermal
19. The increase of temperature results in d) None
a) Increase in viscosity of gas 27. Gain in intrinsic energy is equal to
b) Increase in viscosity of liquid a) Net heat supplied + Net input
c) Decrease in viscosity of gas b) Net heat supplied + Net output
d) Decrease in viscosity of liquid c) Net heat transferred + Net output
20. The surface tension has the units of d) None
a) Newtons m 28. Entropy of process remains constant, if process
b) Newtons is
c) Newtons/m a) Irreversible
d) None b) Isobaric
21. The surface tension c) Reversible
d) Isochoric
243
29. All real fluids are 37. The flow is said to be subsonic when Mach
a) Incompressible number is
b) Compressible to some extent a) Equal to unity
c) Compressible to any extend b) Less than unity
d) None c) Greater than unity
30. A change in the state of a system at constant d) None of the above
volume is called 38. The region outside the Mach cone is called
a) Isobaric process a) Zone of action
b) Isochoric process b) Zone of silence
c) Isothermal process c) Control volume
d) Adiabatic process d) None of the above
31. _______ is a process during which no heat is 39. A stagnation point is the point on the immersed
transferred to or from the gas. body where the magnitude of velocity is
a) Isochoric process a) Small
b) Isobaric process b) Large
c) Adiabatic process c) Zero
d) Isothermal process d) None of the above
32. The sonic velocity is largest in 40. A convergent-divergent nozzle is used when the
a) Water discharge pressure is
b) Steel a) Equal to the sonic speed
c) Kerosene b) Less than the sonic speed
d) Air c) More than the sonic speed
33. An isentropic flow is one which is d) None of the above
a) Isothermal 41. A critical pressure ratio, the velocity at the
b) Adiabatic throat of a nozzle is
c) Adiabatic and irreversible a) Equal to the sonic speed
d) Adiabatic and reversible b) Less than the sonic speed
34. Indica upto what Mach number can a fluid flow c) More than the sonic speed
be considered incompressible? d) None of the above
a) 0.1 42. The sonic velocity in a fluid medium is directly
b) 0.3 proportional to
c) 0.8 a)Mach number
d) 1.0 b) Pressure
35. _______ is the basic equation of compressible c) Square root of temperature
fluid flow. 43. Across a normal shock
a) Continuity equation a) The entropy remains constant
b) Momentum equation b) The pressure and temperature rise
c) Energy equation c) The velocity and pressure decrease
d) All of the above3 d) The density and temperature decrease
36. The velocity of disturbance in case of fluids is 44. A normal shock wave
______ the velocity of the disturbance in solids. a) Is reversible
a) Less than b) Is irreversible
b) Equal to c) Is isentropic
c) More than d) Occurs when approaching flow is supersonic
244
45. In a supersonic flow, a diffuser is a conduit d) Compressibility
having 53. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to
a) Gradually decreasing area property of liquid known as
b) Converging-diverging passage a) Adhesion
c) Constant area throughout its length b) Cohesion
d) None of the above c) Surface tension
46. Fluid is a substance that d) Viscosity
a) Cannot be subjected to shear forces 54. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist
b) Always expands until it fills any container tensile stress is known as
c) Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of a) Compressibility
its motion b) Surface tension
d) Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear c) Cohesion
force d) Adhesion
47. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance 55. The property of a fluid by which molecules of
to change of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other
a) Pressure is called
b) Flow a) Adhesion
c) Shape b) Cohesion
d) Volume c) Surface tension
48. In a static fluid d) Compressibility
a) Resistance to shear stress is small 56. The viscosity of a gas
b) Fluid pressure is zero a) Decreases with increase in temperature
c) Linear deformation is small b) Increases with increase in temperature
d) Only normal stresses can exist c) Is independent of temperature
49. The practical fluids d) Is independent of pressure of very high pressure
a) Are viscous intensities
b) Possess surface tension 57. Newton’s law of viscosity relates
c) Are compressible a) Intensity of pressure and rate of angular
d) Possess all the above properties deformation
50. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is b) Shear stress and rate of angular deformation
a) Incompressible c) Shear stress, viscosity and temperature
b) Inviscous d) Viscosity and rate of angular deformation
c) Viscous and incompressible 58. The total pressure on a plane surface inclined at
d) Inviscous and compressible an angle 9 with the horizontal is equal to
51. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for a) PA
water at 00 C is b) pA sin 9
a) 1 c) pA cos 9
b) 1000 d) pA tan 9
c) 100 59. The centre of buoyancy always
d) 101.9 a) Coincides with the centre of gravity
52. The property of a fluid by which its own b) Coincides with the centroid of the volume of fluid
molecules are attracted is called displaced
a) Adhesion c) Remains above the centre of gravity
b) Cohesion d) Remains below the centre of gravity
c) Viscosity
245
60. If the weight of a body immersed in a fluid c) A cylinder
exceeds the buoyant force, then the body will d) An airfoil
a) Rise until its weight equals the buoyant force 67. For hydro-dynamically smooth boundary, the
b) Tend to move downward and it may finally sink friction coefficient for turbulent flow is
c) Float a) Constant
d) None of the above b) Dependent only on Reynolds number
61. A floating body is said to be in a state of stable c) A function of Reynolds number and relative
equilibrium roughness
a) When its metacentric height is zero d) Dependent on relative roughness only
b) When the metacentre is above the centre of 68. The value of friction factor ‘f’ for smooth pipes
gravity for Reynolds number 106 is approximately equal to
c) When the metacentre is below the centre of a) 0.1
gravity b) 0.01
d) Only when its centre of gravity is below its centre c) 0.001
of buoyancy d) 0.0001
62. The point in the immersed body through which 69. The separation of flow occurs when
the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to a) The pressure intensity reaches a minimum
act is known as b) The cross-section of a channel is reduced
a) Center of gravity c) The boundary layer comes to rest
b) Center of buoyancy d) All of the above
c) Centre of pressure
70. The Prartdtl mixing length is
d) Metacentre
a) Zero at the pipe wall
63. The motion of air mass in a tornado is a b) Maximum at the pipe wall
a) Free vortex motion c) Independent of shear stress
b) Forced vortex motion d) None of the above
c) Free vortex at center and forced vortex outside
71. The maximum thickness of boundary layer in a
d) Forced vortex at center and free vortex outside
pipe of radius r is
64. In case of an airfoil, the expansion of flow a) 0
occurs 𝑟
b)
a) At the extreme rear of body 2
c) r
b) At the extreme front of body
d) 2r
c) Midway between rear and front of body
d) Anywhere between rear and front of body 72. Liquids
depending upon Reynolds number a) Cannot be compressed
b) Occupy definite volume
65. When an ideal fluid flows past a sphere,
c) Are not affected by change in pressure and
a) Highest intensity of pressure occurs around the
temperature
circumference at right angles to flow
b) Lowest pressure intensity occurs at front
stagnation point 73. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a
c) Lowest pressure intensity occurs at rear resistance is known as
stagnation point a) Volumetric strain
d) Total drag is zero b) Volumetric index
c) Compressibility
66. ______ the friction drag is generally larger than
d) Adhesion
pressure drag.
a) A circular disc or plate held normal to flow 74. If no resistance is encountered by
b) A sphere displacement, such a substance is known as
246
a) Fluid c) Takes place in straight lines
b) Water d) Involves zero transverse component t of flow
c) Gas 83. In isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
d) Ideal fluid a) Decreases linearly with elevation
75. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the b) Remains constant
following c) Varies in the same way as the density
a) Newton’s law of motion d) Unpredictable
b) Newton’s law of viscosity 84. The dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids
c) Pascal’s law with rise in temperature
d) Continuity equation a) Increases
76. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in b) Decreases
all directions at a point only if c) Remains unaffected
a) It is incompressible d) None
b) It has uniform viscosity 85. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise
c) It has zero viscosity in temperature
d) It is at rest a) Increases
77. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be the b) Decreases
same in all the directions when the fluid is c) Unpredictable
a) Moving d) Remains unaffected
b) Viscous 86. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio
c) Viscous and static of specific heats y when
d) Viscous and moving a) Flow is uniform and steady
78. ______ is dimensionless. b) Process is isentropic
a) Specific weight c) Process is isothermal
b) Specific volume d) Process is isentropic and specific heat does not
c) Specific speed change with temperature
d) Specific gravity 87. In an isothermal process, the internal energy
79. A perfect gas gas molecules
a) Has constant viscosity a) Increases
b) Has zero viscosity b) Decreases
c) Is in compressible c) Remains constant
d) None of the above d) Shows unpredictable behaviour
80. A fluid equilibrium can’t sustain 88. ______ processes is irreversible process.
a) Tensile stress a) Isothermal
b) Compressive stress b) Adiabatic
c) Shear stress c) Throttling
d) Bending stress d) All the above
81. The units of kinematic viscosity are 89. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of
a) Metres2 per sec conservation of
b) Kg sec/metre a) Mass
c) Newton-sec per metre b) Momentum
d) None of the above c) Energy
d) Work
82. A one dimensional flow is one which
a) Is uniform flow 90. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes
b) Is steady uniform flow equation are
247
a) Gravity, pressure and viscous c) Velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
b) Gravity, pressure and turbulent d) All the above
c) Pressure, viscous and turbulent 96. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
d) Gravity, viscous and turbulent a) Pascal law
91. A large Reynold number is indication of b) Newton’s law of viscosity
a) Smooth and streamline flow c) Boundary layer theory
b) Laminar flow d) Continuity equation
c) Steady flow 97. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
d) High turbulent flow a) Incompressible
92. According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady b) Inviscous
ideal fluid flow c) Viscous and incompressible
a) Principle of conservation of mass holds d) Inviscous and incompressible
b) Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional 98. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a
c) Total energy is constant throughout resistance is known as
d) The energy is constant along a stream-line but a) Volumetric strain
may vary across streamlines b) Volumetric index
93. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s equation c) Compressibility
have dimension of d) None
a) Energy 99. The gates of aerofoil section in between the
b) Work outer and the inner ring of guide wheel are called
c) Mass as
d) Length a) Guide gates
94. The total energy of each particle at various b) Guide vanes
places in the case of perfect incompressible fluid c) Scrolling gates
flowing in continuous stream d) Scrolling vanes
a) Keeps on increasing 100. Minimum work in compressor is possible
b) Keeps on decreasing when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
c) Remains constant a) 0.75
d) Unpredictable b) 1
95. The equation of continuity holds good when the c) 1.27
flow d) 2
a) Is steady
b) Is one dimensional
248
Answer Key:
1. (b) 11. (d) 21. (a) 31. © 41. (a) 51. (d) 61. (b) 71. (c) 81. (c) 91. (d)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (a) 32. (b) 42. (c) 52. (b) 62. (c) 72. (d) 82. (d) 92. (d)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (d) 43. (b) 53. (c) 63. (d) 73. (c) 83. (c) 93. (d)
4. (c) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (b) 44. (d) 54. (c) 64. (a) 74. (d) 84. (b) 94. (c)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (d) 35. (d) 45. (a) 55. (a) 65. (d) 75. (d) 85. (a) 95. (d)
6. (a) 16. (b) 26. (b) 36. (a) 46. (d) 56. (b) 66. (d) 76. (d) 86. (d) 96. (d)
7. (a) 17. (d) 27. (c) 37. (b) 47. (c) 57. (b) 67. (b) 77. (d) 87. (c) 97. (d)
8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (a) 38. (b) 48. (d) 58. (a) 68. (b) 78. (d) 88. (c) 98. (c)
9. (b) 19. (d) 29. (b) 39. (c) 49. (d) 59. (b) 69. (c) 79. (d) 89. (c) 99. (b)
10.(b) 20. (c) 30. (b) 40. (a) 50. (c) 60. (b) 70. (a) 80. (c) 90. (a) 100. (b)
249

Ekt Ebook

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Originaltitel

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Ekt Ebook

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

EKT (Engineering Knowledge Test)

Pattern and time duration of EKT:

When is EKT conducted?

What is the cut-off marks for clearing EKT?

Exam Yaer Cut Off Marks (EEE, CS/IT & Mechanical)

EKT PAPER BLUEPRINT

S. No Machine Automotive Power Plant Industrial Flight Aircraft Aerody

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Newton is unit of force. It is the unit in d) All of these

Principles of Orthographic projections – Projections of points, lines, planes and solids –

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which number system has a base of 16? d) 8 byte

Binary equivalent of (45)10 = (10101)2

1872 = (10111011)2 100. (c)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What is called a collection of interconnected a) Bus

Network Theorems: Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Reciprocity, Superposition, Compensation,

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Random signals and noise probability - Analog communication – Fundamentals of

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Radar range equation – Frequencies of operation – Fundamentals of Moving Target Indicator

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

f = 1 GHz Now, power density by directive antenna is given

98. (a) = 300 m

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Transducer is a device which [EKT 1 2015 EEE] c) Humidity

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Single phase transformer – Three phase transformer – Energy conversion principles – DC

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Equations of equilibrium in space and its application – Simple problems on friction –

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

70. (a) (T) = n μ Rd (Fc - Fs)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Development and intersection of surfaces – Conventional representation of machine

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Atmosphere – Classification of aircraft - Airplane (fixed wing aircraft) configuration and

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Das könnte Ihnen auch gefallen