Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
1. A system of identification which was used earlier than the fingerprint system, made by measuring
various bony structure of human body. Developed by Alphonse Bertillion.
a. Portrait Parle c. Tattoo
b. Anthropometry d. Photography
Note: Portrait Parle, Tattoo and photography did not served the purpose of identification using bone
measurement.
3. Is the basic principle involve in personal Identification which states that the greater the number of
similarity or difference the greater the probability for the identity or non identity to be conclusive.
a. Law of individuality
b. Law of multiplicity of evidence
c. Law of infallibility
d. Law of constancy
a, c, and d are principles of fingerprint identification.
9. Known as the Father of Modern Fingerprint, whose system of classification was spread in almost all
English speaking country.
a. Juan Vucitich c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Francis Galton d. William Herschel
Juan Vucetich = his system of classification was accepted by Spanish Speaking Countries.
Francis Galton = undertook the first definitive study and classification of F.P., statistical study to prove
uniqueness of F.P. and wrote the book “Finger Prints”.
William Herschel = first application of F.P. for identification and developed Chiroscopy.
10. Is the person who discover the two main layer of the friction skin (Epidermis and Dermis) and to
whom one of the thin layer of the friction skin was named.
a. Herman Welcker c. Marcelo Malpighe
b. Nehemiah Grew d. Dr. Henry Faulds
Herman Welcker = proved the principle of permanency by printing is palm twice with a lapse of 41
years.
Nehemiah Grew = the first to wrote a treaty on the study of ridges and sweat pores
Dr. Henry Faulds = a surgeon who gives value to latent prints.
11. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by
using his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
b. Capt James Parke
c. Gilbert Thompson
d. Dr. Henry P. De Forest
Dr. Henry P. De Forest =Utilized the first Municipal Civil use of fingerprint for Criminal Registration.
Capt. James L. Parke = Advocate the first state and penal use of fingerprint adopted in SingSing prison
Sgt. John Kenneth Ferrier = First fingerprint instructor at St. Louis Police Dept. Missouri.
12. Is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy number one, who attempt to destroy his
friction by applying a corrosive acid.
a. Robert James Pitts c. Roscoe Pitts
b. John Dillenger d. John Augustus
Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his friction ridges. Known as the Man without fingerprint.
Also known by the name Roscoe Pitts.
13. Is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the feet?
a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy d. Dactyloscopy
Chiroscopy – ( Greek word “ Cheir” – a hand, “Skopien” –to examine) study of the prints of the
palms of the hand.
Podoscopy – ( Greek word “Podo” – the foot, and Skopien – to the study of the footprints.
Poroscopy – (Greek word “poros” – a pare, and “Skopien” – to examine) study of the
arrangement of the sweat pores.
15. The word finger was derived from what Latin word?
a. dermis c. digitus
b. dactyl d. skopien
Polydactyl = born with more than the regular number of fingers.
Macrodactyl = enlarged finger.
Microdactyl = reduced/small finger.
Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth.
Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger.
16. The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be forged. Fingerprint is a
reliable and a positive means of identification.
a. principle of infallibility
b. principle of permanency
c. principle of individuality
Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification
1. Individuality = based on Statistical probability that no two persons have the same fingerprint.
(1:64,000,000,000 – Francis Galton).
2. Infallability = reliable, positive, not easy to be forged.
3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is unchangeable. (Herman Welcker)
17. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the surface on which ridges are visible?
a. dermis c. stratum corneoum
b. stratum mucusom d. sanguinal stratum
Epidermis =outer layer
Dermis =inner layer
Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum and stratum mucosum
18. Friction skin (Epidermal skin/ Papillary skin) may be damage permanently when which of its layer
was damage?
a. dermis c. dermal papillae
b. epidermis d. generating layer
21. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin (found between ridges).
a. pores c. indentions
b. furrows d. duct
Component parts of Friction skin
1. Ridge Surface
a. Ridges = elevated portion/hill like/black-lines.
b. Furrows = depressed portion/canal-like/ white space.
2. Sweat Pores= tiny/small openings/ tiny white dots.
3. Sweat Duct = passage way of sweat.
4. Sweat Glands= the producer of sweat.
23. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow to the other side
with a rise in the center?
a. loop c. tented arch
b. plain arch d. exceptional arch
Arch (5%) = Two types (2): plain (A) and tented arch (T) --- (a) uptrust, (b) angle, and (c) Incomplete loop
type.
= no ridge count.
Loop (60%)= Two types :radial and ulnar loop.
= core, dellta, a sufficient recurve, at least 1 ridge count.
Whorl (35%)= Four types (4) plain whorl (W), central pocket loop whorl (C), double loop whorl (D) and
accidental whorl (X).
= two or more deltas and at least one circuiting ridge.
24. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of
the loop?
a. Plain arch c. central pocket loop
b. tented arch d. accidental whorl
25. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have _______ridge count.
a. 1 b. at least 1 c. 2 d. 3
26. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridges makes a turn through one
complete circuit?
a. arch b. accidental whorl c. loop d. whorl
27. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
a. loop b. radial loop
c. ulnar loop d. tented arch
Radial loop (radius bone) = towards the thumb.
Ulnar loop (ulna bone) = towards the little finger.
28. The diagonal sign / means ________.
a. right hand ulnar c. left hand radial
b. left hand ulnar d. none
29. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete
circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it touches or cross the
circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common type of whorl.
a. plain whorl c. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl d. accidental whorl
Plain Whorl = lines from left to right delta cross/touch at least one circuiting ridge.
Central pocket loop whorl = lines from left to right delta does not cross/touch at least one circuiting
ridge.
Double loop whorl = two separate loop/shoulders.
Accidental whorl = combination of two patterns, except with plain arch.
30. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the combination?
a. ulnar loop b. plain whorl c. tented arch d. plain arch
32. Is a point along a ridge formation, which is found in front or near the center of the diverging
typelines.
a. core c. island ridge
b. delta d. convergence
33. What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation deltas which conform to the
definition of delta?
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
b. the one away from the core should be counted
c. the one which does not open towards the core is counted
d. the one towards the core should be counted
34. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
a. one b. two c. three d. Six
35. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side by side?
a. bifurcation c. convergence
b. divergence d. enclosure
37. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that meets to form the original figure?
a. bifurcation c. island ridge
b. lake ridge d. convergence
38. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the direction from which it started.
a. diverging ridge c. recurving ridge
b. converging ridge d. bifurcation
39. Is a pointalong the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward.
a. sufficient recurve c. appendage
b. obstruction ridge d. shoulder of loop
40. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from
the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the second type of central pocket loop.
a. bar c. uptrust
b. appendage d. obstruction
Appendage – is a short ridge found at the top or summit of a recurve.
Rod or Bar – is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve and directed towards the core or
parallel to the recurve.
Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient rise at the center.
41. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the line flow below the right delta and there are
three intervening ridge.
a. meeting whorl c. outer whorl
b. inner whorl d. central pocket loop whorl
Meeting whorl = there are two or less intervening ridge/s.
Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge and the tracing flows above/inside the right delta.
42. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular ridge which is not included as a ridge count
even if it has been cross by the imaginary line.
a. ending ridge c. incipient ridge
b. intervening ridge d. enclosure
43. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which resembles a fork structure
a. divergence c. convergence
b. bifurcation d. enclosure
44. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants stage which usually starts:
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
d. 5th to 6th months before birth
3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6ht months before birth.
Epidermis = temporary destruction
Dermis = permanent destruction
cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar.
45. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene between the delta and core of a loop?
a. ridge tracing c. ridge counting
b. ridge tracking d. ridge summing
Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right delta.
Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge and right delta.
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core.
46. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impression?
a. both little finger c. both thumb finger
b. all finger except thumb d. both index finger
Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card
Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling the finger from the tip to the end of the first
joint. Used for classification purposes.
Plain Impression = taken simultaneously by simply pressing the ten fingers. It serves as guide or
reference in checking the rolled impression.
47. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the fingerprint ink to the slab?
a. Fingerprint brush c. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. Fingerprint roller d. fingerprint card
Fingerprint card =where F.P. is recorded (8”X8”)
Ink slab = metal/glass plate where ink is spread.
48. Is the process of placing the letter symbols under each pattern as the results of the interpretation of
all ten fingers.
a. classification formula
b. reference classification (additional classification formula)
c. blocking out
d.fingerprint identification
50. Is the division in the classification formula which is always represented by numerical value
depending upon a whorl pattern appearing in each finger.
a. primary b. key c. final d. Major
Primary div. = derived from the sum of the numerator and denominator plus the pre-established
fraction of 1/1.
51. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl
pattern appears therein:
a. left little finger and right thumb
b. right thumb and left little finger
c. right little finger and left thumb
d. left thumb and right
52. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will
be the primary division?
a. 25/29 b. 29/25 c. 24/28 d. 28/24
P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 25/29
2 4 6 8 10 (fingers)
16 8 0 0 0 = 24
16 8 4 0 0= 28
1 3 5 7 9 (fingers)
53. What patterns are included in the secondary division in deriving the small letter category.
a. ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch
b. radial loop, ulnar and arch
c. radial, plain arch and tented arch
d. radial, ulnar, plain arch
Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index fingers) and small letters (from T, M, R, and L
fingers = r,a,t).
54. What would be the secondary divisions if all the right hand fingers are radial loops while all the left
hand fingers are tented arches.
a. 3Rr b. rR3r c. R3r d. R4r
3Tt tT3t T3t T4t
Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index fingers) and small letters (from T, M, R,
and L fingers = r,a,t).
55. What is the interpretation for a ridge count on the left index that reaches 8.
a. exceptional c. radial loop
b. inner loop d. outer loop
Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop and ridge tracing whorl appearing in the Index, Middle
and Ring fingers.
Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0)
Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13)
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O)
Arches = Dash (-)
56. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the numerical value of S in the left hand?
a. 1 to 11 c. 1 to 17
b. 18 to 22 d. 12 to 16
57. In a loop pattern, when the number of the ridges on the left thumb is 17 or more, it constitutes as:
a. exceptional c. isolation
b. alteration d. Conditional
Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers.
Loops = R. C. = S, M, L
Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I Arches = Dash (-)
58. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl in the little finger it is derived by:
a. getting the ridge count of the top loop (double loop whorl)
b. treating it as ulnar loop
c. getting the least ridge count (accidental whorl)
d. getting the delta opposite each hand
59. What division in the classification formula is derived from both little finger and is place at the
extreme right of the classification formula.
a. key b. final c. major d. secondary
60. The key division is the division in the classification which is located at the extreme left of the
classification formula and it is taken by getting the ridge count of _______?
a. loop pattern c. first loop
b. first radial loop d. first whorl
Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
= If there were no loops, get the ridge count of the First Whorl.
= Only numerator.
61. In case of a missing digits or an amputated finger, what will be the classification of said missing
finger?
a. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand
b. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Mutilated finger
d. None
One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted as the same as the corresponding digit of the other
hand.
Both are amputated or missing = plain whorl with meeting tracing.
If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:
FPC = M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
64. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to be used being easy to apply and less
destructive to the paper.
a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method
b. silver nitrate method d. dusting method
Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing prints in the crime scene.
65. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a latent fingerprint
impression dusted with black powder on a green background?
a. yellow filter c. red filter
b. green filter d. blue filter
66. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a latent fingerprint
impression dusted with gray powder on a yellow background?
a. yellow filter b. green filter
c. red filter d. violet filter
Opposite Colors:
Blue – Orange Green – Red Yellow – Violet
71. What modern method of developing print is best use when all conventional methods becomes
ineffective?
a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method
b. laser method d. dusting method
73. In filing classified fingerprint card what should be the first attempt to be made:
a. primary numerator
b. secondary numerator
c. primary denominator
d. secondary denominator
74. What division of the classification formula is left blank if all fingers are amputated.
a. Mayor and key c. key and final
b. Key and primary d. final and major
77. Reagents commonly used in liquid method are the following, except:
a. Silver nitrate c. victoria blue e. none
b. Ninhydrin d. tetra methyl benzidine
78. The type of latent print which is made from blood, dust or dirt?
a. Chance prints b. semi-visible
c. Visible prints d. fragmentary
80. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be preserved by:
a. Developing the latent print
b. Lifting the impression
c. Photography
d. Brushing it
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FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
= it is the application of the principles of photography to law or administration of justice.
Police photography = the application of photography to police work. Also known in its old usage as
black and white photography.
1. The word Photography was coined by _____?
a. John F. W. Herschel
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre (Daguerreo type
c. Henry Fox Talbot (Talo or Calo type)
d. Leonardo Da Venci
3. The theory of light which states that it is produced as an energy made by action of some small
particles such as electron and protons.
a. Wave theory c. Corpuscular theory
b. Modified wave theory d. spectrum theory
6. Is an electromagnetic energy which travels with the speed of 186, 000 miles per second
a. light b. energy c. rays d. radiation
7. Light travels in a form of a wave according to wave theory of Huygens. What is that unit of light
wavelength which is express in ten millionth part of a millimeter.
a. Millimicron c. Nanometer
b. Angstrom d. Micron
Millimicron / Nanometer = one millionth part of mm.
Micron = equivalent to one thousand part of millimicron.
9. Is the condition of the sunlight where object in an open space cast a transparent or bluish shadow.
a. bright light c. dull sunlight
b. hazy sunlight d. none of these
Dull sunlight = thick clouds covers the sun, no shadow will be produced.
Hazy sunlight = thin clouds covers the sun.
Bright sunlight = clear sky, well defined shadow, glossy object.
10. An artificial light source which contains in its tube certain powders capable of illuminating with some
support from small amount of electricity. It is commonly used in the house or commercial
establishment.
a. Incandescent lamp c. fluorescence lamp
b. photo flood lamp d. flash bulb
Sources of light
1. Natural light source such as sunlight, starlight, lightning etc.
2. Artificial /Man-made light (short duration and long continuous) Flash bulb, Incandescent lamp,
Fluorescent lamp, spotlight or reflectorized light.
11. Light in which there wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
eye?
a. visible c. invisible
b. natural d. artificial or man-made
Visible light =
Invisible light = (X-ray, ultra-violet light, and Infra-red light etc.)
12. What color will be produced by the combination of a red and blue color?
a. magenta c. yellow
b. cyan d. Green
Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red
Blue + Green = cyan
Green + Red = yellow
Blue + Red = magenta
Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta
13. How many photographic rays are there?
a. three b. five c. four d. nine
14. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?
a. infra-red c.ultra-violet
b. visible rays d. x-rays
X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron.
Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill.
Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron.
Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron
16. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at a given distance?
a. luminescence b. wattage
c. guide number d. light meter
Light meter = an accessory of a camera which measures the amount of reflected light.
61. Is a magnified photograph of small object obtained by attaching a camera to the ocular of a
compound microscope.
a. Photomicrography b. Microphotograph
c. Photomicrograph d. Photomacrograph
Photomicrography and photomacrography are process.
Photomacrograph = is an enlarged photograph.
Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph. making big object small.
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Forensic Ballistics
= it is the science of firearms identification by means of an ammunition fired from them
4. Is that branch of ballistics which treats of the motion of the projectile while it is in its flight?
a. Interior b. terminal c. exterior d. forensic
Interior = before leaving the gun muzzle.
Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle.
Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target.
5. Is a Greek word from which the word “ballistics” was derived which means “to throw”
a. Ballistics c. Ballein or ballo
b. Catapult d. Ballista
Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war machine) designed to throw stone to the enemy.
6. It refers to the motion of the projectile once it enters a rifled barrel of a gun.
a. Direct c. Transnational
b. Rotatory d. Twist
Direct = forward movement.
Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
Translational = change in the motion of the bullet.
8. Is the rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the forward movement of the bullet upon firing?
a. percussion action c. back fire
b. recoil d. ricochet
Percussion action = is the ignition of the priming mixture.
Jump = upward reaction of the gun.
9. Is the stillness or the steadiness of the bullet in flight? (Straight travel in flight)
a. key hole shot c. yaw
b. ricochet d. gyroscopic action
Recochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not penetrating or hitting a hard object.
Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
Key hole shot = thumbling of bullet in flight hitting the target sideways.
11. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, expressed in ft/sec?
a. muzzle velocity c. muzzle blast
b. velocity d. Trajectory
Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle point.
Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves the muzzle.
12. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot. Where the bullet travel straight.
a. Maximum range c. Maximum effective range
b. Accurate range d. Effective range
Range = imaginary straight distance between muzzle and the target.
Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal.
Maximum effective range = farther distance where bullet is still lethal.
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of travel.
14. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more than one inch diameter?
a. small arms c. artillery
b. machine gun d. Cannon
Artillery =more than one inch
Small Arms = less than one inch
Machine gun = automtic/continuous firing
Shoulder arm = carry/fired with the aid of the shoulder.
Hand gun = can be fired in one hand.
15. A type of a firearm in which the mechanism is so arranged that makes it capable of continuous firing
in a single press of a trigger and while the trigger is press.
a. machine gun c. sub-machine gun (SMG)
b. grease gun d. shoulder arm
SMG and grease gun are the same.
16. What type of a firearm is designed to propel a projectile by means of compressed air or strong
string?
a. air rifle c. Springfield armory
b. carbine d. musket
17. A type of a firearm which propels a number of lead pellets in one charge to a smooth bore barrel.
a. rifle c. machine gun
b. shotgun d. Musket
Smooth bore = without rifling
a. musket =muzzle loading/ancient weapon
b. shotgun = breech loading/a number of lead pellets.
Rifled bore = with rifling
a. rifle
b. carbine = short barrel rifle (less than 22”)
19. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating cylinder that serves as the magazine and which
successively places cartridge into position for firing.
a. pistol c. rifle
b. revolver d. Carbine
20. A type of a firearm in which pressure upon the trigger will both cock and release the hammer.
a. single action c. single shot
b. double action d. repeating arms
Single action =requires manual cocking.
21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land and grooves) only a few inch from the muzzle point?
a. cylinder type c. rifled bore
b. choke d. Paradox
23. Generally applied to all home made gun, just as the one used by juvenile delinquent in United States.
a. zip gun c. freakish gun
b. grease gun d. paltik
27. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the empty shells from the chamber?
a. Ejector c. Extractor
b. Firing pin d. Extractor pin
Extractor = causes the empty shell to be withdrawn/pull out from the chamber.
Ejector = causes the empty shell to be thrown out of the firearm.
28. In case that cartridge cases are found at the scene of firing it only means that_____firearm was
used.
a. single shot c. bold action
b. automatic d. double action
29. What is that condition in firing at which the cartridge took several seconds before it discharged upon
firing? (delayed in the discharged of the cartridge).
a. mis-fire c. hang fire
b. backfire d. Backshot
Misfire = failure to discharged.
Hangfire = delay in the discharged of firearm.
30. What is the steel block that closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge?
a. breechface c. breechblock
b. hammer d. chamber
Breechface = the flat surface where the base of the shell comes in contact when fired.
Chamber = part of the f/a where cartridge is placed when ready to be fired.
33. Primers are used for igniting the propellant charge by means of a blow from the firing pin on the
primer cup producing flames that passes through the:
a. Anvil c. Vent/ flash hole
b. Paper disc d. Primer cup
Anvil = solid metallic support.
Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect the priming mixture from moist.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the priming mixture.
34. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:
a. ammunition c. shotgun cartridge
b. cartridge d. missile
Ammunition =loaded shell.
Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet, gunpowder, primer, shell and wads.
35. Is that type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making:
a. dummy c. drill
b. blank d. live
36. Is the type of cartridge with a rim diameter which is smaller than the diameter of the body of the
cartridge?
a. Belted type c. Rimless
b. Rebated d. Rimmed type
37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is not found at the cavity rim of the cartridge
case?
a. Pin fire c. Center fire
b. Rimmed type d. Rim fire
39. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in determining calibers, when you talk of
9mm you are referring to?
a. .38 cal c. .45 cal
b. .357 cal d. .30 cal
41. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a bright flame at its base and usually
colored red-tip.
a. armor piercing c. tracer
b. incendiary d. explosive
Armor piercing = used in light metallic target/harden metal core.
Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue tip)
Explosive = design to fragment.
42. A type of a bullet made in order to inflict greater damage used by India. (expanding bullet)
a. Dum-Dum c. expanding bullet
b. baton round d. explosive e. mushroom bullet
Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point also called mushroom bullet.
43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading is known as:
a. Plated bullet c. Metal cased bullet
b. Jacketed bullet d. Metal point bullet
44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are made by dropping with the exception of the
very largest sizes which are made by molding are known as:
a. Soft shots c. Buck shots
b. Drop shots d. Chilled shots
45. A miscellaneous type of bullet design as anti riot, basically made from rubber at a larger caliber.
a. Discarding sabot c. Baton Round
b. Flechette d. Frangible
Discarding Sabot = design for greater velocity.
Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-like projectile.
46. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which serves as the projector for the propellant
against moisture?
a. Bullet c. Cartridge case
b. Primer d. Paper disc
47. Is that part of the cartridge case which characterized by a cylindrical grooves that prevents the bullet
from being push down to the cartridge?
a. Crimp c. Shoulder
b. Neck d. Cannelure
Crimp = prevent loss/pull out.
48. A cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet which may contains lubricating substances and
which can be the basis in determining its manufacturer.
a. Body c. ogive
b. Bullet crimp d. bullet cannelure
51. The don’t MAC rule in collection of physical evidence stands for: Mutilate, Alter and ____?
a. Cut c. contaminate
b. Consume d. conserve
52. Is the part of the cartridge case which holds the primer securely in a central position and providing a
solid support for the primer anvil?
a. Flash hole c. Extractor groove
b. Primer pocket d. Rim
Rim = limits the forward movement of the cartridge to the cylinder.
54. Is the helical groove mark found inside the bore of the barrel designed to impart rotation motion of
the bullet
a. lands c. rifling
b. grooves d. pitch of rifling
55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a firearm with
identical class characteristics as that of:
a. Browning c. Colt
b. Smith and Wesson d. Steyer
56. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a firearm is called as____?
a. land
b. one complete revolution of bullet
c. groove
d. range
59. Fired bullet found at the scene of the crime are usually marked at the ______.
a. Ogive c. Base e. none of the above
b. Nose d. Any of the above
61. It is the list of the people who have handled the physical evidence from the time of its discovery until
their final disposition in court.
a. Evidence list c. Chain link
b. Chain of events d. chain of custody
62. The basis in shell identification is________?
a. firing pin marks
b. breech face marks
c. Firing pin and/or breech face marks
d. extractor and ejector marks
63. Individual marks found at the interior portion of the bullet due to poor alignment of the cylinder
with bore of the firearm.
a. skid marks c. stripping marks
b. shaving marks d. slippage marks
Skid mark = due to forward movement of the bullet to the bore before it rotates.
64. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel is that it is useful in directly
identifying the:
a. bullet which caused the fatal wound
b. person who fired the particular firearm
c. gun from which a bullet was fired
d. possible direction of shot
65. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime scene?
a. picking it through the handle
b. picking it through the barrel
c. inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
d. inserting a rod at the barrel
67. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are determinable even before the manufacture of
the firearm?
a. Class Characteristics c. Individual Characteristics
b. Repetitive mark d. accidental mark
68. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are examined and compared under the comparison
microscope at the same time, level and direction and magnification and same image?
a. Pseudo match c. Juxtaposition
b. false match d. Sodo match
69. Is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object done by attaching a camera to
the ocular of a compound microscope?
a. Photomacrography c. Photomicrography
b. Microphotography d. Macrophotography
70. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?
a. touch the outside of the trigger guard c. be straighten along the barrel
b. grasp the stock d. be inside the trigger guard
71 . What is the secret of good shooting form?
a. relaxed and natural position
b. keeping the thumb along the hammer
c. proper sighting of the target
d. firing slowly and carefully
72. Are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface of the bullet due to the tool marks or other
irregularities in the interior surface of the bore?
a. Land marks c. Groove marks
b. Striation d. Accidental marks
73. Is an instrument used in determining the caliber of the bullet by getting a equivalent weight?
a. Caliper c. Micrometer
b. Torsion Balance d. Flat-form balance
75. An optical instrument used or designed to make simultaneous comparison of two specimens?
a. Comparison microscope c. Chronograph
b. Micrometer d. Shadowgraph
78.Firearms includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc. as mention in _______of the Revised Administrative
Code.
a. sec.788 b. sec.787 c. sec.878 d.sec.877
80. Low power gun are those firearms that uses projectile not more than 9mm or .38 cal. Except:
a. Magnum .22 c. magnum 357
b. Magnum 40 d. a and c only
81. Otherwise known as the Comprehensive Firearms and Ammunition Regulation Act?
a. R.A. 10591 c. R.A. 10592
b. R.A. 10158 d. R.A. 10354
82. Under the New law on firearms the following shall be considered firearm, EXCEPT.
a. Barrel c. Frame
b. Receiver d. Magazine
83. Refers to any handheld or portable weapon, whether a small arms or light weapon, that expels or is
designed to expel a bullet, shot, slug, missile or any projectile, which is deischarged by means of
expansive force of gases from burning gun powder or other form of combustion or any similar
instrument or implement.
a. Firearm c. Forfeited firearm
b. Antique firearm d. Confiscated firearm
84. The following are “Antique Firearms”, EXCEPT:
a. Firearm which was manufactured at least seventy-five (75) years prior to the current date but
not including replicas;
b. Firearm which is certified by the National Museum of the Philippines to be curio or relic of
museum interest.
c. Any other firearm which derives a substantial part of its monetary value from the fact that it is
novel, rare, bizarre or because of its association with some historical figure, period or event.
d. Firearms which was manufacture at least 70 years prior to the current date.
=====================================================================================================================
Questioned Document
1. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as____________.
a. Holograpic document
b. all of the above
c. Questioned document
d. disputed document
e. None of the above
Holograph = latin word “holo” and “graph” meaning “hand writing”.
2. It serves as the focal points of all document examination and it is where the document examiner relies
as to the determination of the appropriate examination and the extent of the problem involved.
a. Questioned document c. disputed document
b. Standard document d. evidential document
4. Specimen of writing which was executed in the regular course of one’s activities.
a. requested c. collected
b. executed at one time d. day to day standard
5. When document examiner as well as police are dealing with documents, the most common problem
they encountered are those concerning.
a. origin c. authorship
b. counterfeit d. content (alteration)
8. Is the combination of the basic designs of letter and the writing movement involved in the writing?
a. copy book form c. writing movement
b. system of writing d. line quality
Copy book form = the illustration of the basic designs of letter/fundamental to the writing system.
Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion of the pen.
9. Is the visible record of the written strokes resulting from a combination of various factors associated
to the motion of the pen. Is the overall quality of the strokes.
a. movement c. line quality
b. writing habits d. significant writing habits
Writing habits = any repeated elements of writing.
Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique and well-fixed.
Writing = visible result.
Handwriting = visible effect.
10. Refers to the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated specimen of individual’s handwriting.
a. Natural variation c. transitory change
b. permanent damage d. temporary defect
Transitory change = changes which are only temporary.
11. In document examination when referring to contemporary documents this refers to______?
a. Document which is more than 5 years before and after.
b. Document which are not more than 5 years before and after
c. Document which are more than 30 years
d. Document which are not more than 20 years
12. A type of a document which bears the seals of the office issuing and the authorized signature to such
document.
a. Public document c. private document
b. Official document d. commercial document
13. What is the first step in the procurement of handwriting exemplars?
a. Request for standard specimen
b. Study of the questioned specimen
c. Determine the writing instrument and paper used
d. Arrange for normal writing condition
14. Is a specimen of writing prepared with deliberate intent of altering the usual writing habits in the
hope of hiding his identity.
a. disguised writing c. hand lettering
b. cursive d. block capital
15. Refers to properties or marks, elements or qualities which serve to distinguish. Known as the basis of
identification.
a. Characteristics c. individual characteristics
b. class characteristics d. sample
Class/common/general characteristics or Gross = can be found in a group of writing.
16. A specimen of writing which was executed without intention of changing the usual writing habits. It
is executed normally by the writer.
a. Natural writing c. disguised writing
b. Guided writing d. assisted writing
17. Writing forms can either be a disconnected or joined letter writings. What specimen of writing is
characterized by disconnected style?
a. Hand lettering c. cursive writing
b. Manuscript form d. rounded
Cursive = letters are joined.
Connection = strokes joining two successive letters in a word.
18. A genuine signature which was used in the preparation of a simulated or traced forgery.
a. Authentic signature c. standard signature
b. Model signature d. evidential signature
19. It refers to the group of muscles which is responsible for the formation of the upward strokes.
a. Flexor b. Cortex c. Lumbrical d. Extensor
20. If John Loud is known for ball-point pen, who is for the fountain pen?
a. Lewis Watterman c. Laszlo Biro
b. John Parker d. Lewis Parker
21. Is a type of writing movement that gives a great freedom of movement. Also considered as the
most skillful type of movement.
a. finger movement c. hand movement
b. forearm movement d. whole arm movement
22. Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or wavering stroke which is perfectly apparent
even without magnification?
a. tremor c. tremor of illiteracy
b. tremor of old age d. tremor of fraud
Tremor of illiteracy = due to lack of skills.
Tremor of fraud = due to copying/imitation
23. A sign of forgery in guided hand signature is;
a. Good pen control c. Uneven alignment
b. Disconnected stroked d. Slanting strokes
Sign of genuine guided writing = abrupt change in direction.
24. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a specially designed back or chamber is
described as (used to prevent forgery).
a. ball point pen c. pencil
b. fountain pen d. fiber pen
25. What is that which widens the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a flexible pen point.
a. pen pressure c. shading
b. pen lifting d. retouching
Pen pressure = average/usual force applied in writing.
Pen emphasis = periodic increased in pressure/intermittently forcing the pen against paper surface.
Retouching = goes back over a defective stroke.
26. Are meant to those grace lines, superfluous strokes and are useful only for ornamentation and are
not essential to the legibility of the signatures and usually occurs among writers who attempt to express
some phase of their personalities.
a. diacritical marks c. idiosyncrasies
b. embellishments d. flourishing strokes
Diacritics = strokes added to complete certain letters.
27. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a defective portion of a writing stroke?
a. retracing c. patching
b. pressuring d. shading
28. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused by sudden removal of the writing instrument from the
paper surface?
a. tremor c. retouching
b. pen lifting d. hiatus
Hiatus = obvious gap.
29. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the beginning and continues beyond the end of a
vanishing point and are found on free natural writing and as a rule are important indication of
genuineness.
a. Ending stroke c. Terminal stroke
b. Flying start and finish d. Pen movement
30. Strokes which goes back over another writing strokes and which is slightly to occur due to lack of
movement control.
a. retouching c. retracing
b. shading d. patching
31. Is outer portion of a curve bend or crook?
a. humps b. staff/stem/shank
c. whirl d. central part
Whirl = long upward strokes.
Staff/stem/shank = long downward strokes.
Central part = the body of the letter.
32. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in almost all capital letters.
a. hitch c. beard
b. humps d. buckle knot
Hitch – introductory backward stroke.
33. Forged signature made by free hand movement and constant practice is called:
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Simple forgery d. spurious signature
44. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes the surface of the paper from the
back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification of water markings?
a. direct light c. side light
b. oblique light d. transmitted light
45. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by partially visible depression appearing
underneath the original writing.
a. invisible writing c. indented writing
b. obliterated writing d. contact writing
46. A type of conventional typewriter in which the characters are normally space 12 in one horizontal
a. pica c. elite
b. proportional spacing machine d. computer
47. Is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to the right or left of its proper position.
a. vertical mal alignment c. horizontal mal alignment
b. twisted letter d. off-its feet
48. What is that substance which is capable of bleaching an ink.
a. Sympathetic Ink c. Superimposing Ink
b. Ink Eradicator d. Invisible ink
49. Is the type of light examination best used in deciphering an obliterated writing and charred
document.
a. Ultra violet light c. Infra-red light
b. transmitted light d. x-ray
50. Is a type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter that can easily be corrected by simply cleaning
the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. temporary defect c. permanent defect
b. clogged type face d. actual breakage
=====================================================================================
Polygraphy
= scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of polygraph machine.
= also known as instrumental interrogation/ lie detector test.
1. The word Polygraph was derived from What word?
a. Poly and Graph c. Greek
b. Many writing chart d. Latin
The word Polygraph was derived from the Greek word “poly” which means “many or several” and
“graph” meaning “writing chart”
2. The first man noted for the used of the word “Polygraph”
a. Thomas Jefferson b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Galileo Galilee d. Sir James Mackenzie
Polygraph = is a scientific instrument capable of recording changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and
respiration as indicative of emotional disturbances.
3. Is the person who devise an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and
respiration simultaneously which he called the “Bread board Lie Detector”.
a. Cesare Lombroso (1895) b. John A. Larson
c. Sir James Mackenzie d. Leonarde Keeler
Pulselogim was invented by Galileo Galilee as 1st instrument used for measuring pulse beat.
Bread Board lie detector is the first portable polygraph machine invented by John Larson in 1921.
William Marston = utilized sphygmomanometer for detecting systolic blood pressure and developed the
discontinuous technique in questioning.
Sir James Mackenzie = is a heart specialist who described in two (2) British Journal a machine which he
called “Ink Polygraph”.
4. A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year 1926.
a. John A. Larson c. John E. Reid
b. Richard O. Arthur d. Leonarde Keeler
Richard D. Arthur = developed his own polygraph machine with two (2) galvanic skin resistance.
John E. Reid = developed his Reid polygraph known for the addition of muscular resistance. Later the
machine was adopted by the company and named after it “Stoelting Polygraph”.
5. An Australian Magistrate who described the work of investigator/detectives as “Search for Truth”
a. Dr. Paul Kirk c. August Vollmer
b. Dr. Hans Gross d. Angelo Mosso
Dr. Paul Kirk = the father of criminalitistics in U.S.
August Vollmer = the first head of the first comprehensive crime laboratory in U.S.
Angelo Mosso= the one who studied fear as a strong influence in detecting deception and also
utilized sphygmomanometer.
6. The person who made the first suggestion for using the Psycho Galvanic reaction for detecting
deception and we stated that galvanic skin phenomenon is under the influence of exciting mental
impressions and the will has no effect upon it.
a. Veraguth c. Sticker
b. Harold Burtt d. Vittorio Bennussi
Vittorio Benussi= devised a system of computing the ratio between inhale and exhale and exhale of the
subject.
Harold Burtt“= respiration & systolic B.P.”
Sticker =“Activity of Sweat Glands & Electro dermal Response.”
7. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph chart and the test called Backster Zone Comparison
Technique. (numerical scoring)
a. Cleve Backster c. C.D. Lee
b. Richard D. Arthur d. Galilleo
Richard D. Arthur = developed two (2) galvanic skin resistance.
C.D. Lee = developed “psychograph machine”
Galilleo = developed the first instrument to record pulse beat called “pulselogium”
8. Is an ancient method of detecting deception practice in Bengal, India where accused to proved his
innocent would touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal.
a. boiling water ordeal c. red hot iron ordeal
b. ordeal of balance d. Ordeal of heat and fire
9. The Raid polygraph differs from the keeler’s in the following respect except:
a. An adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal bellows are inserted in the chair arm
rests.
b. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine to form closed pneumatic
systems.
c. Three additional recordings are made by this method
d. There is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing.
12. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to the credibility and competence of the
examiner?
a. Indirectly proportion
b. Supplementary to investigation
c. Substitute to investigation
d. Directly proportion
Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute for investigation.
13. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, EXCEPT.
a. It rings a bell
b. It has a dial indicator
c. It flash a light
d. It is like an X-ray
14. Is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which states that the polygraph machine is an instrument
capable of making records of various human functioning simultaneously in a chart paper.
a. mechanical leg basic premise
b. physiological leg basic premise
c. psychological leg basic premise
d. psycho motor leg basic premise
15. A type of deceit for the purpose of humor, when the falsehood is generally understood, is often
regarded as not immoral and is widely practiced by humorists and comedians.
a. White lie c. Jocose lie
b. Emergency lie d. Malicious lie
White lie (officious)=where the lie is harmless, and there are circumstances where there is an
expectation to be less than totally honest through necessity or pragmatism.
Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for example, harm to a
third party would result.
16. A Hindu book of science and health which is considered one of the earliest reference on detecting
deception.
a. Ayur Vida
b. Dharmasatra of Gautama
c. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
d. Omerta
Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the nature of lying.
Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)
19. Is that part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of the subject with the
usual length of 10 inches.
a. beaded chain
b. finger electrode plate
c. rubber convulated tube
d. blood pressure cuff
20. Is that section of the polygraph machine designed to run the paper at a regular speed of 6 inches per
minutes.
a. keymograph c. pen and inking system
b. pnuemograph d. galvanogaph
21. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial artery.
a. arm cuff c. Wrist cuff
b. infant cuff d. hand cuff
Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery.
24. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of?
a. 100 yards c. 100 ft
b. 100 meters d. 100 km
25. Is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child acquires from his surrounding once he learn to
go out and socialized with his neighborhood.
a. Personality c. Heredity
b. Environment d. Education
26. What should be the attitude of a polygraph examiner in confronting subject in a polygraph test.
a. arrogant c. authoritative
b. cordial but firm d. antagonistic
PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E
Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of the parents to the offspring upon conception.
Education = formal process of learning in an accredited/ recognized institution.
27. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination are all ___ and this creates a
set of distortion.
a. Terrified c. convenient
b. nervous d. confident
28. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?
a. reschedule the examination
b. prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
c. call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
d. do not continue with the pre test and ask the subject for his available date for reschedule.
29. Is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at the middle of the diastolic stem.
a. Dicrotic c. Diastotic
b. Diastolic d. Systolic
Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.
Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
30. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test.
a. 60 –65 c. 6- 12
b. 70 – 75 d. 13- 15
13- 15 – cyclic rate of respiration.
33. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?
a. X/60/1.5 A c. XX/60/1.5 A
b. X/50/2.5 A d. XXX/60/2.5 A
34. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated questions because this will:
a. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
b. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
c. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
d. Embarash him and cause him to answer he does not know
35. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator to:
a. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment
b. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement
c. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
d. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s evaluation.
36. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere during the interrogation?
a. interrogator’s behavior
b. the type of crime involved
c. questioning style of the interrogator
d. the subject’s personal history
38. Is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test, which is designed to prepare or conditionthe
subject for the actual test.
a. Initial Interview
b. Pre-test Interview
c. Instrumentation
d. Post test Interview/Interrogation
Stages in the Conduct of Polygraph Examination
Initial interview =between subject & Investigator.
= designed to obtain information.
1. Pre-test Interview includes: appraisal of constitutional rights, taking subject consent, Filing-up of
the PDS and determine the Physical, mental, psychological condition of the subject.
2. Actual test/Instrumentation = begin with the attachment of the various component parts.
3. Post-test Interview/Interrogation = after test.
39. It is conducted for the purpose of obtainingconfession or an admission from the subject once
deception is observed.
a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview
b. Instrumentation d. post-test interview or interrogation
40. Refers to any outside force coming from the environment, which could excite a receptor or any of
his organs.
a. Stimulus c. Reaction
b. Response d. Emotion
Stimulus = refers to any force or motion coming from the environment and which reach an
organism has the tendency to arouse.
Fear = it refers to an emotional response to specific danger that appears to be beyond a persons
defensive power.
Response =the reaction to a stimulus, in response to, in answer to.
Reaction = an action in mental attitude evoke by external influence.
41. Is the type of question designed to established normal response from the subject?
a. relevant c. irrelevant
b. control d. knowledge
42. “ Did you shot Rose last night?” is an example of what question?
a. irrelevant question c. control question
b. relevant question d. none of the above
Irrelevant = not related to the facts in issue. Always answerable by “yes” and design to established the
norms of the subject.
Relevant = to establish specific response.
43. Is that type of questions given to determine information known or the subject possess regarding the
crime or the criminal or his whereabouts?
a. evidence connecting question
b. knowledge question
c. sacrifice questions
d. control questions
44. Is a type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of questions that are purely
fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one that is under investigation.
a. general question test c. peak of tension test
b. guilt complex test d. silent answer test
General Question test = series of relevant and irrelevant answerable by either yes or no.
Peak of tension test = there is only one relevant questions usually at the center and a series of irrelevant
question (padding question).
SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response is required.
Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to overly responsive subject.
Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test.
45. Is a force questioning of a person who is reluctant to give an information.
a. Interview c. Confession
b. Interrogation d. Admission
48. Is that part of the galvanograph component which converts electrical to mechanical current:
a. Amplifier unit c. finger electrode assembly
b. resonance control d. sensitivity knob
49. In any interrogation the belief that man is fallible human being should not be overlooked and
therefore polygraph examiners are always subject to _________?
a. precision of diagnosis c. errors
b. certainty of interpretations d. none of these
50. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the polygraph examiner done every after
taking each chart.
a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview
b. chart probing d. post-test interview or interrogation
=====================================================================================
Forensic Medicine
1. Is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?
a. H2S c. CO2
b. CO d. H2O
CO is a poisonous gas that liberates from the unburned part of the ordinary cumbustibles.
2. In the schematic outline on the isolation and identification of some common poisons, the specimen
should first be:
a. alkaline solution (Na(OH))
b. distilled with or without stem
c. ether-extracted
d. mixed with chemical antidotes.
5. What will be the possible child of a man with Group A and Type M blood with woman of Group B,
type N blood.
a. AB, N b. B,N c. O, M d. AB, MN
Anti -A (blue) and anti –B (yellow) used for blood grouping
6. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers? (Stainless steel, lead, cast iron
are examples).
a. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
b. etching solution
c. colloidal magnesium
d. borax solution
10. Is the chemical substance found in all cells whose composition have been passed on from parents to
their children.
a. RNA b. DNA
c. Genotype d. Phenotype
19. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.
a. cuticle b. Cortex c. medulla d. Shalf
20. The cuticle of the animal hair is:
a. rounded c. oblong
b. serrated d. circular
21. It is the ratio between the width of the medulla and the width of the whole hair?
a. medulary index c. medula
b. medulary ratio d. medula radius
22. In 1858, who published the first textbook in legal medicine?
a. Dr. Rafael Genard y Mas
b. Dr. Sixtodelos Angeles
c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
d. Dr. Mariano Lara
23. A gait similar to that of a duck is?
a. paretic c. spastic
b. waddling d. cow’s
24. On what months of the fetus life the Hair of eyebrow and eye-lashes begin to appear?
a. 4th months c. 3rd months
b. 5th months d. 6th months
rd
3 = nails begins to appear.
4th = hair on the head starts to grow.
5th = Nails are distinct. Skin shows sebaceous secretion. Dental gum appears at the mandible.
25. It is a complete and persistent cessation of vital reactions such as respiration, circulation and almost
all brain functions.
a. death c. apparent death
b. somatic death d. mollecular death
26. Which of the following is a more conclusive sign of death–
a. cessation of respiration
b. cooling of the body
c. cessation of heart function and circulation
d. heating of the body
27. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the dependent portion
of the body.
a. Rigor mortis c. livor mortis
b. algor mortis d. none of the above
28. Molecular death is a kind of death where:
a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the body
b. It occurs immediately after death
c. It is usually pronounced by the physician
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body
29. The elements of violent death are the following EXCEPT one.
a. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted was in normal health
b. That death maybe expected from physical injuries
c. That death ensued within a reasonable time
d. That death ensued from a lingering illness
30. X and Y are husband and wife, X has a mistress, Miss W, to whom he has a son (C ), a 2 years old
baby. What kind of death is involved if X killed his illegitimate child (C).
a. Homicidal death c. Murder
b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death
31. What if it is Y who killed (C)?
a. Homicidal death c. Murder
b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death
32. The sum total of all reaction of tissues or organs for which the activities of the living cells are
necessary.
a. physical reaction c. chemical reaction
b. vital reaction d. inflammation
33. Is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler component associated with the evolution
of foul smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color of the body
a. putrefaction c. maceration
b. auto digestion d. saponification
34. What is a waxy substance derived from the body fat and is caused by hydrolysis and hydrogenation
of adipose tissue.
a. adipocere c. saponification
b. lipo d. none of these
35. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force.
a. violent death c. sudden death
b. natural death d. none of these
36. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or
some internal changes. It is usually observed in the first two hours of death
a. post mortem caloricity c. algor mortis
b. heat stiffening d. rigor mortis
37. The act or practice of killing or bringing about the death of a person who suffers from incurable
disease or condition.
a. Euthanasia c. pathological death
b. suicide d. none of these
38. The following judicial executions were exercised in the Philippines except.
a. judicial hanging c. electrocution
b. musketry d. lethal injection
39. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, Cadaveric spasm will suggest
_____?
a. duration of death c. age of the victim
b. cause of death d. none of the above
40. Stage of muscular change, which occurs 3-6 hours after death characteristics by stiffening of the
muscles.
a. livor mortis c. secondary flascidity
b. algor mortis d. post-mortem rigidity
41. Post mortem lividity or livormortes is a very good basis for determining the
a. time of death
b. relative position of the assailant
c. position maintained by the body after death
d. cause of death
42. The following are muscle changes after death except:
a. primary flascidity c. rigor mortis
b. secondary flascidity d. post-mortem lividity
43. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of death. What is that
condition characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain group of muscles.
a. heat stiffening c. cold stiffening
b. livor mortis d. cadaveric spasm
44. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense fire___
a. charring c. exhumation
b. cremation d. baking
45. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and no longer responds to
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.
a. Primary flaccidity
b. Post mortem rigidity
c. stage of secondary flaccidity
d. Putrefaction
e. decomposition
46. Moggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days from death.
A l day c. 3 days
b. 2 days d. 4 days
47. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours after death?
a. 24 hours c. 36 hours
b. 12 hours d. 48 hours
48. Period of time wherein human bone will not exhibit change according to Alphonse Bertillon.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
49. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as Philippines –
a. 12 – 24 hours c. 36 – 48 hours
b. 24 – 48 hours d. 48 – 72 hours
50. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.
a. defense wound
b. self inflicted wound
c. patterned wound
d. mutilated wound
51. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
a. punctured wound c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound d. incised wound
52. It is a formation of a soft freoble brownish white greasy substance in the soft tissues after death.
a. Mummification c. Putrefaction
b. saponification d. decomposition
53. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
a. 2 – 3 hours c. 4 – 5 hours
b. 3 – 4 hours d. 5 – 6 hours
54. A person who is considered dead if no rate of fall of body temperature is about
a. 10 - 15°F c. 15– 20°F
b. 20 – 25° F d. 25 – 30° F
55. Period of time wherein the body would b e completely skeletonized under normal conditions in
tropical countries
a. 1 month c. 6 months
b. 3 months d. 12 months
56. As a general rule, if there is no heart action for a period of ___death is regarded as certain.
a. 5 minutes c. 7 minutes
b. 6 minutes d. 8 minutes
57. Stages in blood changes where blood goes to the dependent portion of the body but not yet solidify.
a. livor mortis c. hypostatic lividity
b. diffusion lividity d. cadaveric spasm
58. An adult has only ____bones
a. 200 b. 202 c. 204 d. 206
59. The following are indication of gunshot wound of entrance.
a. that the size is smaller than the exit
b. that the edge is inverted
c. that the shape is round or oval
d. that the edge is everted
e. a, b, and c only
60. Vital reaction is/are present on the following EXCEPT:
a. Ante Mortem injuries c. Stab wound over the body
b. fist blow over the body d. Post mortem injuries
61. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill – treat or incapacitated for work or require medical
attendance for a period of one to 9 days.
a. slight physical
b. less serious physical injury
c. serious physical injury
d. mutilation
62. Stab wound is produced by
a. sharp edges and sharp pointed instrument
b. sharp edged instrument
c. blunt instrument
d. Sharp pointed instrument
sharp edge instrument = incised wound
blunt = lacerated wound
rough object = abrasion
sharp pointed = punctured wound
63. Solution of the natural continuity of any tissue of the living body is called
a. fracture c. wound
b. dislocation d. contusion
64. Points to be considered in reporting of wound
a. character of wound
b. location of wound
c. number of wound
d. measurement of wound
e. all of the above
65. A wound which is the result of instinctive reaction of self-protection is what special type of wound.
a. defense c. offensive
b. self inflicted wound d. Patterned
66. When the head is free and mobile, a blow on the back of the head may produce laceration in the
front part of the brain. This is what type of injury.
a. direct or coup injury c. remote
b. contre-coup injury d. coup-contre- coup injury
Coup injury = the wound/injury is found in the site of application of force.
Contre coup = opposite the site
Coup-contre coup = on the site and opposite site.
Locus minoris = not on the site nor opposite but on the weak part of the body.
Extensive injury = great destruction or scatered wound/injury
66. wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger one’s life
a. non-mortal wound c. trauma
b. mortal wound d. coup injury
67. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be
ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is
approximately.
a. 6 inches c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches d. 24 inches
68. A physical injury which is found at the site and also at the opposite of the application of force
a. extensive injury c. contre-coup injury
b. coup injury d. coup-contre coup injury
69. When the person was stabbed by an ice-pick, what wound would be exhibited.
a. punctured wound c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound d. incised wound
70. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it
stands for.
a. Deonaturalacide
b. deoxyribonucleic acid
c. dynamic natural antibody
d. deocxyribonuclic acid
71. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the development of
complications which becomes the cause of death.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b. Immediate or primary cause of death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death
72. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than 24 hours hence are
useful to approximate the time of death.
a. flies b. earthworms c. bees d. butterflies
73. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.
a. Autopsy c. medical examination
b. embalming d. post-mortem examination
74. In the determination of the sex of the skeleton, the following bones must be studied, except.
a. sacrum c. sternum
b. skull d. none of these
75. What test determines cessation of respiration?
a. Winslow’s test c. Diaphanus test
b. magnus test d. none of these
76. Legal medicine is that branch of medicine which deals with the application of medical knowledge to
the purpose of _____.
a. law and justice
b. determination of cause of death
c. identifying the victim
d. none of these
77. Medical jurisprudence is that branch of _____which deals with the regulation and organization of
medical profession.
a. law c. justice
b. medicine d. jurisprudence
78. The following are methods of approximating the height of a person, except.
a. two times the length from the vertex of the skull to the coccyx.
b. Two times the length of one arm plus 12 inches for the clavicle and 1.5 inches for the sternum
c. The distance between the tips of the middle fingers of both hands with the arms extended
laterally.
d. None of these
79. Refers to the stiffening of the muscles due to the solidification the body is exposed to freezing
temperature.
a. cold stiffening c. froze stiffening
b. iced stiffening d. none of these
80. The following are important of cadaveric lividity, EXCEPT.
a. sign of death
b. determines whether the position of the body has been changed
c. may indicate the cause of death
d. none of these
81. EXCEPT one, the following are characteristics of cadaveric spasm
a. a natural phenomena which occur after death
b. appears immediately after death
c. involves only a group of muscles
d. all of these
82.Is a form of ligature strangulation in which the force applied to the neck is derived from the
gravitational drag of the weight of the body?
a. hanging c. lynching
b. strangulation by ligature d. none of these
83. Smothering means ________
a. blockage of the external air-passages
b. blockage of the upper airways
c. deprivation of oxygen
d. none of these
84. ______is associated with the failure of the arterial blood to become normally saturated with oxygen.
a. Anoxic death
b. anemic anoxic death
c. stagnant anoxic death
d. none of these
85. It is produced by compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is tightened by a force other
than the weight of the body.
a. strangulation by ligature c. throttling
b. hanging d. gagging
86. This is a form of asphyxial death whereby the constrict force applied in the neck is the hand.
a. Throttling c. mugging
b. gagging d. none of these
87. According to Phopel, there are five level of stiffening of the joints. What level is that where some
stiffening allows relaxed repetitive movement of the hands?
a. level IV c. level III
b. level II d. level I
88. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles occurring at the moment of death, usually associated
with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or even fatigue?
a. heat stiffening c. cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis d. cold stiffening
89. What is the other name for cells clump?
a. overlapping c. clumping
b. agglutinate d. constipation
90. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled away from the surface skin?
a. slight skin c. incipient ridge
b. burned skin d. scarf skin
91. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the approximate time of death for it starts at about 2
to 6 hrs and completes at ______?
a. 36 hrs b. 24 hrs
c. 12 hrs d. 48 hrs
92. In which instance can you get more evidence of poisoning?
a. When the victim survive
b. When the victim died
c. When the suspect was arrested
d. When the victim is aware of the poisoning
93. When there is poisoning?
a. When the substance was introduced to the body.
b. When the poison combined with the food.
c. When the substance is absorbed by the body and act chemically.
d. When the substance is introduced to the body and absorbs.
94. Is a pathological classification of death which is characterized by increasing dypsnea.
a. Coma c. Syncope
b. Asphyxia d. Somatic
95. What causes the pink color of blood and tissue of a gunshot wound of entry?
a. Carbon monoxide c. carbon dioxide
b. cellulose nitrite d. Hydrogen disulfide
Smokeless powder = nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine.
96. It is a type of virginity in which a woman has awareness and had sexual indulgence but the hymen is
considered in tact
a. Virgo Intacta c. Moral Virginity
b. Demi Virgin d. Physical Virginity
Moral virginity = innocent mind
Physical virginity (True Physical/ False Physical) = No actual experience.
Demi Virginity = had sexual experience but hymen is intact.
Virgo Intacta = raptured hymen but never gave birth.
97. Which of the following is a potential biological agent?
a. Viagra c. Antrax
b. Hydrogen d. Smallpox
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