Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Hindi
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3
180720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer
is harmful.
1
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
4F 4F
4F 4F
4F 4F
y y
(1) 2F (2) 4F (3) 3F (4) 1F (1) 2F (2) 4F (3) 3F (4) 1F
3. A 400 pF capacitor is charged with a 100 V 3. 400 pF
100
battery. After disconnecting battery this capacitor
400 pF
is connected with another 400 pF capacitor. Then
:-
find out energy loss :- (1) 1 × 10–6 J
(1) 1 × 10–6 J
(2) 2 × 10–6 J
(2) 2 × 10–6 J
(3) 3 × 10–6 J (3) 3 × 10–6 J
(4) 4 × 10–6 J (4) 4 × 10–6 J
4. Two concentric coils of 10 turns on each are 4.
situated in the same plane. Their radii are 20 cm
10
20
and 40 cm and they carry respectively 0.2 and 40
0.2
0.3 ampere current in opposite directions. The 0.3
(/
2
)
magnetic field (in Wb/m2) at the centre is :-
:-
(1) (35/4)0 (2) (0/80) (1) (35/4)0 (2) (0/80)
(3) (7/80)0 (4) (5/4)0 (3) (7/80)0 (4) (5/4)0
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5. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d 5.
2d
apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing
out of the plane of the paper, as shown in figure. XX'
The variation of the magnetic field B along the
line XX' is given by :-
:-
B B
(1) (1)
X X' X X'
d d d d
B
B (2)
(2)
X X'
X X'
d d
d d
B
B (3)
(3)
X X'
X X'
d d
d d
B
(4)
B
(4)
X X'
X X'
d d
d d
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7. A current 'i' passes in the sides of an equilateral 7.
'a'
I
triangle of side 'a'. Magnetic flux density at the
centroid of the triangle is :-
:-
0 12I 0 6I 0 12I 0 6I
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 a 4 a 4 a 4 a
0 18I 0 24I 0 18I 0 24I
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 a 4 a 4 a 4 a
8. The magnetic field due to a straight wire of 8.
uniform cross-section and carrying a steady
current is represented by :- :-
11. In the Bohr's model of hydrogen atom the electron 11.
moves around the nucleus in a circular orbit of
5 × 10–11
radius 5 × 10–11 m with time period 1.5 × 10–16 s. 1.5 × 10–16
The current associated with the electron motion is:-
:-
(1) zero (2) 1.6 × 10–19 A (1) (2) 1.6 × 10–19 A
(3) 0.17 A (4) 1.07 × 10–3 A (3) 0.17 A (4) 1.07 × 10–3 A
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12. Electric current through a conductor varies with 12.
time as I(t) = 50 sin(100t). Here I is in amperes I(t) = 50 sin(100t). I
't'
and t in seconds. Total charge that passes any
1
1
t = 0 t
cross-section from t = 0 to t sec is :- 200
200
:-
(1) 1.2 C (2) 0.36 C (1) 1.2 C (2) 0.36 C
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
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15. Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 15.
R1, R2
R3
and R 3. If the power dissipated by the
P1, P2 P3
:-
configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P 1, P 2 and P 3
respectively, then :-
1 1 1
1 1
1 3V 1 1
3V
1
1
R1 R2
1 1
1 1
3V
1
R3
(1) P1 > P 2 > P 3 (2) P1 > P 3 > P 2
(1) P1 > P 2 > P 3 (2) P1 > P 3 > P 2
(3) P2 > P 1 > P 3 (4) P3 > P 2 > P 1
(3) P2 > P 1 > P 3 (4) P3 > P 2 > P 1
16. 100
B1
60 W
B2
16. A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3,
B3
250
are connected to a 250 V source, as shown in Fig.
W1, W2 W3
Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers of
:-
the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then :-
B1 B2
B1 B2
B3
B3
250V
250V
(1) W1 > W2 = W3
(1) W1 > W2 = W3
(2) W1 > W2 > W3
(2) W1 > W2 > W3
(3) W1 < W2 = W3
(3) W1 < W2 = W3
(4) W1 < W2 < W3
(4) W1 < W2 < W3
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17. Four identical resistors of 4 ohm each are 17.
4
joined in circuit as shown in the Fig. The B has B
2
emf 2 volt and its internal resistance is
negligible, the ammeter will read :- :-
3 3
(1) ampere (2) 2 ampere (1) (2) 2
8 8
1 1 1 1
(3) ampere (4) ampere (3) (4)
2 8 2 8
18. In the circuit show in Fig. charge stored in the 18. 2 F
:-
capacitor 2 F is :-
20 10
20 10
2F
2F
10 20
10 20
60V
60V
(1) 40 C (2) 60 C
(1) 40 C (2) 60 C (3) zero (4) 80 C (3) zero (4) 80 C
19. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the 19.
30
R
figure is 30 watts. The value of R is :- :-
– – – –
1V 100 3V 1V 100 3V
+ + + +
Input A A
Input B
B
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26. What will be the tension T needed to hold the 26.
cart in equilibrium, if there is no friction.
2kg
2kg
3kg
3kg
(1)2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 (1)2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
29. Three masses m1, m2 and m3 are attached to a 29.
m1, m2
m3
string - pulley system as shown. All the three
masses are held at rest and then released. To keep
m3
m3
m3 at rest, the value of mass m3 should be
2m1m2 2m1m2
(1) m3 =
(1) m3 =
m1 m2 m1 m2
m1m2 m1m2
(2) m3 = (2) m3 =
m1 m2 m1 m2
4m1m 2 4m1m 2
(3) m3 = m m (3) m3 = m m
1 2 1 2
(4) it should not possible (4) it should not possible
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30. Two monkeys of masses 10 and 8 kg are 30. 10 kg
8 kg
moving along a vertical rope, the former
2m/s2
climbing up with an acceleration of 2m/s2 while
the latter coming down with a uniform velocity 2m/s
of 2m/s. Find the tension in the rope at the fixed
support.
B
current
C
C D
D
o distance
o distance
(1) A (2) B (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D
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34. If n r and n b are respectively, the number of 34.
photons emitted by a red bulb and a blue of nr
nb
equal power in a given time, then
(1) nr = nb (1) nr = nb
(2) nr < nb (2) nr < nb
(3) nr > nb (3) nr > nb
(4) nothing can be predicted (4)
35. If the radiations of wavelength 2500Å and 5000Å 35. 2eV
2500Aº
5000Aº
are incident on a substance of work function 2eV
one by one then the ratio of the stopping potentials
for the emitted photoelectrons will be (approx)
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 6 : 1 (4) 8 : 1 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 6 : 1 (4) 8 : 1
E E E E
E E E E
37. Two particles have identical charges. If they are 37.
accelerated through identical potential differences,
then the ratio of their deBroglie wavelength would
be
(1) 1: 2 = 1 : 1
(1) 1 : 2 = 1 : 1
(2) 1: 2 = m2 : m1
(2) 1 : 2 = m2 : m1
(3) 1 : 2 = m 2 : m1 (3) 1 : 2 = m 2 : m1
per fusion reaction, 1H2 + 1H3 0n1 + 2He4, the 20 MeV
1 MW
mass of 1H2 consumed per day in a future fusion 1 H
2
40. List gives certain situations in which electric field 40.
is represented by electric lines of forces in x-y plane.
x-y
List gives corresponding representation of -
x-y
equipotential lines in x-y plane. Match the figures in
II
List with the figures in List and indicate your
:-
answer.
- I - II
List - I List - II
y y
y y Higher potential
Higher potential x x
(P) Electric lines (1)
x x
(P) Electric lines (1) of forces Lower potential
y y
y y Lower potential
Lower potential
x x
(Q) Electric lines (2)
x x
(Q) Electric lines (2) of forces Higher potential
of forces Higher potential
y y
Lowe r p ote ntia l
x x
x x
(R) Electric lines (3)
(R) Electric lines (3) of forces
of forces
y y
Highe r pote ntial
y y
Lower potentia l
Highe r pote ntia l
x x
x x
(S) Electric lines (4)
(S) Electric lines (4) of forces
of forces
Codes P Q R S
P Q R S
(1) 1 2 3 4 (1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1 (2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 2 1 (3) 3 4 2 1
(4) 2 1 3 4 (4) 2 1 3 4
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41. Two concentric conducting spheres are of radii 41.
r1 r 2
r1 and r2. The outer sphere is given a charge q.
q
The charge q’ on the inner sphere will be :- q'
(
(Inner sphere is grounded) :-
):
(1) q (1) q
(2) -q q' (2) -q q'
r1 r1
r1 r2 r1 r2
(3) q (3) q
r2 r2
y y
y/2 y/2
r r' r r'
2 2
r r r r
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 2 3 2
r 2r r 2r
(3) 3 (4) (3) 3 (4)
2 3 2 3
43. Two concentric conducting thin spherical shells A, 43.
rA
rB
(rB> rA)
and B having radii r A and r B (r B > r A ) are (spherical shells) A
B
QA
charged with charges Q A and –Q B (|Q B| > –QB (|QB| > |QA|) ()
|QA|). The electric field along a line, (passing
(along)
through the centre) varies with distance x
:–
from the centre as :-
(1) (2)
(1) (2) x x
x x
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44. Figure given shows four arrangement of 44.
charged particles, all at the same distance from
the origin. Rank the situations according to the
(V1, V2, V3, V4)
net electric potentials (V1, V2, V3, V4) at the
origin, most positive first :-
1 2
1 2
3 4 3 4
q3 q3
C C
q1 q2 q1 q2
A BD A BD
30 cm 30 cm
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53. If the internal energy of an ideal gas decreases 53.
by the same amount as the work done by the
system, the process is :-
:-
(1) cyclic (2) isothermal (1) cyclic (2) isothermal
(3) adiabatic (4) isolated (3) adiabatic (4) isolated
54. The difference between heats of reaction at constant 54. ,
pressure and constant volume for the reaction, 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) at 25ºC
25ºC in kJ is :- (kJ)
:-
(1) –7.43 (2) +3.72 (3) –3.72 (4) +7.43 (1) –7.43 (2) +3.72 (3) –3.72 (4) +7.43
55. For a gaseous reaction, 55. ,
A(g) + 3B(g) 3C(g) + 3D(g) A(g) + 3B(g) 3C(g) + 3D(g)
The value of E is 17 Kcal at 27ºC. Value at 27ºC E 17 Kcal
H
H(KCal) will be :-
:-
(1) 15.8 (2) 18.2 (3) 20.0 (4) 16.4 (1) 15.8 (2) 18.2 (3) 20.0 (4) 16.4
56. A gas expands from 10 L to 30 L against a constant 56. 2 atm 10 L 30 L
external pressure of 2 atm. Heat equivalent to the
work done during the expansion is used to rise 300 k 5
temperature 5 mol of water at 300 K. The final
:–
temperature of water is :–
(specific heat of water = 4.18 Jg–1K–1) (= 4.18 Jg–1K–1 )
(1) 310 k (2) 290 k (1) 310 k (2) 290 k
(3) 494 k (4) 350 k (3) 494 k (4) 350 k
57. For the reaction X2O4 () 2XO2(g) U = 2.1 kcal, 57.
X2O4 () 2XO2(g) U = 2.1 kcal,
S = 20 cal k–1 at 300 K, G (kcal) is :– S = 20 cal k–1 at 300 K, G (kcal) is :–
(1) 2.7 (2) –2.7 (1) 2.7 (2) –2.7
(3) 9.3 (4) –9.3 (3) 9.3 (4) –9.3
58. For which process will H° & G° be expected 58. H° G°
to most similar ? (1) 2Al(s) + Fe2O3(s) 2Fe(s) + Al2O3 (s)
(1) 2Al(s) + Fe2O3(s) 2Fe(s) + Al2O3 (s) (2) 2Na(s) + 2H2O() 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
(2) 2Na(s) + 2H2O() 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
(3) 2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
(3) 2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
(4) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g) (4) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)
59. In a reversible adiabatic process S is :– 59.
S :–
(1) Infinity (1)
(2) Zero (2)
(3) Equal to CvdT (3) CvdT
v2 v2
(4) Equal to nRn v (4) nRn v
1 1
60. The standard electrode potential (reduction) of 60. 25°C Ag 0.800 V
Ag+|Ag is 0.800 V at 25°C. Its electrode potential
10 –3 M Ag +
Ag +
in a solution containing 10–3 M ion of Ag+ ions is:-
(1) 0.623 V (2) –0.977 V (1) 0.623 V (2) –0.977 V
(3) 0.892 V (4) 1.246 V (3) 0.892 V (4) 1.246 V
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61. The number of faradays required to produce one 61. H2 – O2
1
H2O
mole of water from hydrogen - oxygen fuel cell
containing aqueous alkali as electrolyte is:- (1) 1 (2) 3
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4 (3) 2 (4) 4
62. The standard electrode potentials (reduction) of 62. Pt/Fe , Fe
3+ +2
Pt/Sn4+, Sn+2
Pt/Fe3+, Fe+2 and Pt/Sn4+, Sn+2 are +0.77 V and +0.77 V
0.15 V
0.15 V respectively at 25°C. The standard EMF
of the reaction Sn4+ + 2 Fe2+ Sn2+ + 2Fe3+ is:- Sn4+ + 2 Fe2+ Sn2+ + 2Fe3+ :-
(1) –0.62 V (2) –0.92 V (1) –0.62 V (2) –0.92 V
(3) +0.31 V (4) +0.85 V (3) +0.31 V (4) +0.85 V
63. The standard reduction potential E° of the 63.
following systems are :- System E°(volts)
System E°(volts) – + –
(i) MnO +8H +5e Mn +4H2O 2+
1.51
– + – 2+ 4
(i) MnO4 +8H +5e Mn +4H2O 1.51
4+ – 2+
(ii) Sn4+ + 2e– Sn2+ 0.15
(ii) Sn + 2e Sn 0.15 2– + – 3+
2– + – 3+ (iii)Cr2O +14H +6e 2Cr +7H2O 1.33
(iii)Cr2O7 +14H +6e 2Cr +7H2O 1.33 7
4+ –
(iv)Ce + e Ce 3+
1.61 (iv)Ce4+ + e– Ce3+ 1.61
The oxidising power of the various species
decreases in the order :
(1) Ce4+ > Cr2O72– > Sn4+ > MnO4–
(1) Ce4+ > Cr2O72– > Sn4+ > MnO4–
(2) Ce4+> MnO4– > Cr2O72– > Sn4+
(2) Ce4+> MnO4– > Cr2O72– > Sn4+
(3) Cr2O72– > Sn4+ > Ce4+ > MnO4– (3) Cr2O72– > Sn4+ > Ce4+ > MnO4–
(4) MnO4– > Ce4+ > Sn4+ > Cr2O72– (4) MnO4– > Ce4+ > Sn4+ > Cr2O72–
64. The e.m.f. of the following cell 64. 25°C
0.236 V
Ni(s) / NiSO4 (1.0 M) || H+ (1.0 M)|H2 (1 atm), Pt
at 25°C is 0.236 V. The electrical energy which
can be produced is :- Ni(s) / NiSO4 (1.0 M) || H+ (1.0 M)|H2 (1 atm), Pt
(1) 22.73 kJ (2) 45.55 kJ (1) 22.73 kJ (2) 45.55 kJ
(3) 19.30 kJ (4) 23.60 kJ
(3) 19.30 kJ (4) 23.60 kJ
H 2 (Pt) H 3O (aq) Ag 65.
1.023 V
x
65. Consider the cell Ag.
1atm pH 5.5 xM
The measured EMF of the cell is 1.023 V. What
H 2 (Pt) H 3O (aq) Ag
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67. The ionization constant of a weak electrolyte is 67.
25 × 10–6 while the equivalent conductance of its 25 × 10–6
0.01 M
0.01 M solution is 19.6 S cm2 eq–1. The equivalent 19.6 S cm eq
2 –1
K+ NO –3
Voltmeter
H 2(g) Cl2 (g)
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72. At certain Hill-station pure water boils at 99.725°C. 72.
99.725°C
If Kb for water is 0.513°C kg mol–1, the boiling point
K b = 0.513°C kg mol –1
of 0.69 m solution of urea will be : 0.69 m
(1) 100.079°C (1) 100.079°C
(2) 103°C (2) 103°C
(3) 100.359°C (3) 100.359°C
(4) Un predictable (4) Un predictable
73. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its 73.
boiling point. On the average the molecules in the
two phase have equal:
(1) inter-molecular forces (1)
(2) potential energy (2)
(3) total energy (3)
(4) kinetic energy (4)
74. Which compound corresponds Van't Hoff factor (i) 74.
to be equal to 2 in dilute solution: 2
:-
(1) K2SO4 (1) K2SO4
(2) NaHSO4 (2) NaHSO4
(3) Sugar (3) Sugar
(4) MgSO4 (4) MgSO4
75. The solubility product constant ksp of Mg(OH)2 75. Mg(OH)2 ksp
9.0 × 10–12
is 9.0 × 10–12. If a solution is 0.01 M with respect 0.01 M Mg+2
[OH–] ion
to Mg+2 ion, what is the max hydroxide ion Mg(OH)2
concentration which could be present without
causing the precipitation of Mg(OH)2
(1) 1.5 × 10–7 M (1) 1.5 × 10–7 M
4– 4–
(2) Si 6O18 (2) Si 6O18
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83. Give correct comparison :- 83.
:-
(1) BCl3 > AlCl3 acidic character (1)BCl3 > AlCl3 acidic character
(2) F2 > Cl2 (Bond energy) (2)F2 > Cl2 (
)
(3) C > Si > P > S (Catenation proporty) (3)C > Si > P > S (
)
(4) s – s > s–p > p – p (extent of overlapping) (4)s – s > s–p > p – p (
)
84. Arrange the following ions in the order of 84.
X–O
decreasing X–O bond length where X is the
X
:-
central atom :-
(1) ClO4– , SO42– , PO3– 4–
4 , SiO 4
– 2– 3– 4–
(1) ClO , SO , PO , SiO
4 4 4 4
(2) SiO 4– 3– 2– –
4 , PO 4 , SO 4 ,ClO 4
(2) SiO 4– 3– 2– –
4 , PO 4 , SO 4 ,ClO 4
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TOPIC : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants (Complete), Anatomy of Flowering Plant Upto Leaf,
Cell Bio, Photosynthesis, Reproduction System, Upto Porifera.
91. Given below a diagram of mature embryosac. 91.
Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select
A, B, C
D
correct option about them :-
:-
A A
B B
C C
D D
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95. Examine the figures (A–D) given below and select 95.
(A–D)
the right option out of 1–4, in which all the four 1–4
structures A, B, C and D are identified correctly:- A, B, C
D :-
'B' 'B'
'A' 'A'
'D' 'D'
'C' 'C'
A B C D A B C D
(1) Differentiating Lumen Sieve Tube Phloem (1)
vascular tissue element
(2) Axillary bud Lumen Companion Xylem
cell (2)
(3) Meristematic Branched Phloem Phloem (3)
zone pits parenchyma
(4) Leaf Simple Sieve pore Xylem
(4)
primordium Pits
96. Which abiotic agents are used by plants to acheive 96.
pollination ?
?
(1) Animal & water (2) Insect & water (1) (2)
(3) Wind & water (4) Rocks & water (3) (4)
97. Hydrophily is present in :- 97.
(1) Sea grasses (2) Maize (1) (2)
(3) Lotus (4) Waterlily (3) (4)
98. An event unique to flowering plants is :- 98.
:-
(1) Endosperm formation (1)
(2) Seed formation (2)
(3) Fertilization (3)
(4) Double fertilization (4)
99. Dioecious plant prevents :- 99.
:-
(1) Autogamy (1)
(2) Geitonogamy (2)
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy (3)
(4) Xenogamy (4)
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100. If number of chromosomes in endosperm of 100.
48
Angiosperm are 48 then number of chromosomes
in megaspore mother cell of that plant would be?
?
(1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 16 (1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 16
101. Some stages of development of dicot embryo are 101.
given below :-
:-
(A) Proembryo (A)
(B) Globular stage (B)
(C) Heart shape (C)
(D) Mature embryo (D)
Arrange the given stages in correct sequence?
(1) A, B, C, D (2) C, D, B, A (1) A, B, C, D (2) C, D, B, A
(3) A, C, D, B (4) B, D, C, A (3) A, C, D, B (4) B, D, C, A
102. Single ovule is found in the ovary of :- 102.
(1) Wheat, paddy, mango (1)
(2) Wheat, papaya, mango (2)
(3) Orchids, papaya, mango (3)
(4) Papaya, Water melon, orchids (4)
103. How many plant structures in the list below are 103.
haploid in nature.
Antipodals, pollen grain, Tapetum, embryo sac,
ovule, synergids, nucellus, microspore, megaspore.
(1) 6 (2) 7 (1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 5 (4) 8 (3) 5 (4) 8
104. Read the following four statements (A-D): 104.
(A-D)
:
(A) Study of internal structure of plants is called (A)
anatomy. (
)
(B) Different organs in a plant show differences (B)
in their internal structure.
(C) Growth in plants is largely restricted to (C)
specialised regions of active cell division
called meristem.
(D) Meristem which occurs between mature (D)
tissues is known as intercalary meristem.
How many of the above statemens are correct?
(1) Three (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) One (4) Two (3) (4)
105. Which one occurs only in dicots ? 105.
?
(1) Collenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma (1) (2)
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem (3) (4)
106. Ground tissue is not differentiated in layers in – 106.
?
(1) Monocot root (1)
(2) Dicot root (2)
(3) Dicot stem (3)
(4) Monocot stem (4)
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107. Identify the labelled part (a), (b),(c) and (d) in the 107.
T.S. of dicot root given below and select correct
(a), (b),(c)
(d)
option about them.
(a) (a)
(b) (b)
(c) (c)
(d) (d)
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115. Find out the correct match from the following 115.
table :-
:-
(i) Elaioplasts 80s Store oil and (i) 80s
Ribosomes fats
(ii) Kinetochores Discoid, Actual site of (ii)
Proteinaceous attachment of
spindle fibres
(iii) Axoneme Possesses Form internal
Microfilament structure of
(iii)
only cilia and
flagella
(iv) Nuclear pore Nucleoplasmin Bidirectional
complex protein is movement of
(iv)
present RNA and
proteins
(1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, iv (1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iii (4) ii, iv (3) i, ii, iii (4) ii, iv
116. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of an 116.
electron micrograph of a section of chloroplast.
Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and A, B, C
D
select the correct option about their function :-
Outer membrane
Inner membrane
B B
A A
C C
D D
Starch granule
Lipid droplet
Options :- :-
Part A Part B Part C Part D
A
B
C
D
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117. Represented below is the graph showing action 117.
spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on
absorption spectrum of chlorophyll 'a'. Which
one of the following is correct for this ?
?
Light absorbed
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122. In Grana lamellae presence of which of the 122.
following Specify that 'z' scheme found only 'z'
in Grana lamellae ? ?
(1) PS-I & PS-II (1) PS-I PS-II
(2) PS-II & NADP reductase (2) PS-II NADP
(3) Presence of PS-I & NADP reductase (3) PS-I NADP
(4) Presence of Mg++ in lumen (4)
Mg++
123. If in a cell in G 2 phase, the number of 123.
G2
2n
chromosomes is 2n and the amount of DNA is
DNA 4C
G1
4C then which of the following is correct for
G1 phase and metaphase of this cell ?
?
(1) G1 phase = 2n, 4C Metaphase = 4n, 4C (1) G1
= 2n, 4C
= 4n, 4C
(2) G1 phase = 4n, 2C Metaphase = 2n, 2C (2) G1
= 4n, 2C
= 2n, 2C
(3) G1 phase = 2n, 2C Metaphase = 2n, 4C (3) G1
= 2n, 2C
= 2n, 4C
(4) G1 phase = 4n, 4C Metaphase = 4n, 2C (4) G1
= 4n, 4C
= 4n, 2C
124. Given below is a schematic break up of the 124.
phases/stages of cell cycle :-
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130. Which statements are correct : 130.
:
(a) A sperm head contains DNA and an Acrosome. (a)
DNA
(b) An acrosome is specialized lysosome that (b)
contain enzyme that enable sperm to
ATP
produce the ATP needed to proper
themselves out of the male reproductive
(c) Mitochondria in the mid piece of a sperm (c)
ATP
produce ATP for sperm motility
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b (3) a, c (4) b, c (1) a, b, c (2) a, b (3) a, c (4) b, c
131. The following refers to schematic representation 131.
of oogenesis. Iedntify A to E correctly A E
Oogonia Oogonia
mitotic mitotic
A Differentiation A Differentiation
Primary oocyte Primary oocyte
st
I meiotic division Ist meiotic division
B----------------- (completed prior to B----------------- (completed prior to
C----------------- ovulation) C----------------- ovulation)
D----------------- D-----------------
First secondary oocyte First secondary oocyte
Polar body Polar body
E E
Second
ovum Second
ovum
Polar body Polar body
(1) (A) Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty (1) (A)Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty
(D) Adult reproductive life (E) child hood (D)Adult reproductive life (E) child hood
(2) (A) Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood (2) (A)Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life (D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(3) (A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth (3) (A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth
(C) puberty (D) child hood (E) Fetal life (C)puberty (D) child hood (E) Fetal life
(4) (A) Birth (B) child hood (C) Fetal life (4) (A)Birth (B) child hood (C) Fetal life
(D) puberty (E) adult reproductive life (D) puberty (E) adult reproductive life
132. Seminal plasma which is rich in :- 132.
?
(1) Glucose, Calcium, Potassium (1)
(2) Mannose, Phosphate, Sucrose (2)
(3) Fructose, Calcium and certain energy (3)
(4) Carbohydrate, Vitamin, protein (4)
133. Find out wrong statement :- 133.
:-
(1) The secretions of bulbourethral glands also (1)
helps in the lubrication of penis.
(2) The male sex accessory ducts includes rete
(2)
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens.
(3) The presence or absence of hymen in
female is not a reliable indicator of virginity (3)
or sexual experience.
(4) The first milk which comes out from the
mothers mammary glands just after child (4)
birth is known as colostrum its harmful for
the new born infant.
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134. Read the following statement carefully :- 134.
:-
(1) After ovulation a corpus luteum form from (1)
the ruptured follicle and begins to secrete
progesteron and estrogen.
(2) The cavity of cervix is called cervical canal (2)
in which mucosol fold present which
secrete mucosol secretion.
(3) The first menses is called menopause and
(3)
the parmanent cessation of menses is called
menarch.
(4) Nitric oxide cause smooth muscle within
(4)
erectile tissue to contract which result in
widening of blood sinuses of penis.
(5) Myometrium the layer of uterine linning
(5)
that is partially shed during can menstrual
cycle.
How many the statement is/are wrong ?
?
Estrogen Estrogen
and progesteron and progesteron
B B
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136. Find out the correct match from the following 136.
table :-
-I
-II
-III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i) 15
th
- 28th
(i) Luteal phase Duration Corpus 23
15th to 28th luteum attains
day maximum
size on 23th
day (ii)
6th -13th 14
(ii) Proliferative Duration On 14th day
phase 6th to 13th ovulation
day occurs and
corpus luteum
develops (iii) Follicular 16 17
(iii) Follicular Duration Corpus
phase
phase 16-17 day luteum
degenerates
(1) (i) (2) (i)
(ii)
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) (4) (ii)
(iii)
(3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii)
137. Find out the correct match from the following 137.
table.
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)
138. Find out the correct match from the table :- 138.
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139. Consider the following four statements (a-d) 139.
(a-d)
and select the option which includes all the
correct ones only :- (a)
(a) The secondary oocyte forms a new membrane
called zona pellucida surrounding it.
(b) The graffian follicle further changes into (b)
the tertiary follicle
(c) No more oogonia are formed and added (c)
after birth
(d) Many oogonia are formed after birth (d)
Options :- :-
(1) a, b, c (2) a, c (1) a, b, c (2) a, c
(3) a, d (4) a, b, d (3) a, d (4) a, b, d
140. Select wrong statement :- 140.
(1) One ovum is released during the middle of (1)
each menstrual cycle
(2) Mentruation only occurs if the released (2)
ovum is not fertilized
(3) Lack of menstruation always will be
(3)
indicator of pregnancy
(4) The secretion of gonadotropins increases (4)
gradually during the follicular phase
141. 141.
A A
B B
C C
D D
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142. 142.
Pituitary Gland
Posterior
Anterior
H
FS LH LH H
LH FS LH LH
LH
(–FSH)
(+LH) (–FSH)
(+LH)
Follicle
Estrogen (A) (C) (C)
Progesterone Estrogen (A) Progesterone
(B) (B)
See the diagram carefully and choose correct
option.
A B C A B C
(1) Progesterone Menstruation Corpus albicans (1) Progesterone Menstruation Corpus albicans
(2) Estrogen Ovulation Corpus luteum (2) Estrogen Ovulation Corpus luteum
(3) Relaxin Secondary Corpus luteum (3) Relaxin Secondary Corpus luteum
oocyte oocyte
(4) Estrogen Second polar Cumulus (4) Estrogen Second polar Cumulus
body ooporus body ooporus
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151. The figure shown four animals (a), (b), (c), (d). 151.
(a), (b), (c)
(d)
Select the correct answer with respect to a
common characteristics of two of these animals:-
:-
(1) (a) and (b) have true coelom (1) (a)
(b)
(2) (c) and (d) have true coelom (2) (c)
(d)
(3) (b) and (c) show radial symmetry (3) (b)
(c)
(4) (a) and (c) show radial symmetry (4) (a)
(c)
152. Which one of the following statements about 152.
the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and
Penguin is correct ? ?
(1) All are bilaterally symmetrical (1)
(2) Penguin is homoiothermic while the (2)
remaining three are poikilothermic (3)
(3) Leech is a fresh water form while all others
are marine (4)
(4) Spongilla has special collared cells called
choanocytes, not found in the remaining three.
153. Mark the incorrect statements :- 153. :-
(a) Opioid receptors are present in PNS and GIT (a)
PNS
GIT
(b) Heroin is smack, white, odourless but not (b)
bitter crystaline compound
(c) Artificial cannabinoids are obtained from
(c)
inflorescences of plant Cannabis sativa
(d) Coca alkaloid is obtained from Erythroxylam
(d)
Coca, native to South-America. It interferes
with the transport of neuro transmitter
acetylcholine
(e) These days opioids are also being abused (e)
by some sportpersons
(1) a, d (1) a, d
(2) b, c, e (2) b, c, e
(3) a, d, e (3) a, d, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e (4) a, b, c, d, e
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154. Genetic defect in which adenosine deaminase 154.
deficiency occurs :-
:-
(1) Rhematoid arthritis (1)
(2) SCID (2) SCID
(3) AIDS (3) AIDS
(4) Cystis fibrosis (4)
155. Evolution of man took place in :- 155.
:-
(1) Central Africa (1)
(2) Central Asia (2)
(3) Australia (3)
(4) America (4)
156. Which of the following is the correct order of 156.
evolutionary history of man ? ?
(1) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal,
Cro-magnon (1)
(2) Peking man, Homosapiens, cro-magnon,
(2)
Neanderthal
(3) Peking man, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens,
(3)
Heidelberg,
(4) Peking man, Cro-magnon, Homo sapiens,
(4)
Neanderthal
157. What kind of evidence suggested that man is 157.
more closely related with chimpanzee than with
:-
other hominoid apes :- (1)
(1) Evidence from fossil remains
(2)
(2) Evidence from sex chromosomes
(3) Evidence from DNA from chromosomes only (3)
DNA
(4) Comparison of chromosomes morphology (4)
158. Which of the following is more close to man? 158.
?
(1) Lemur (2) Gibbon (1) (2)
(3) Chimpanzee (4) Orangutan (3) (4)
159. Which of the following has the lowest cranial 159.
?
capacity ?
(1) (2)
(1) Monkey (2) Chimpanzee
(3) Modern man (4) Java ape man (3) (4)
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161. The pH of human urine is 161.
pH
(1) 6.0 (2) 7.0 (1) 6.0 (2) 7.0
(3) 5.4 (4) 8.0 (3) 5.4 (4) 8.0
162. Which one of the following scientist's name 162.
is correctly matched with the theory put forth
:-
by him :- (1)
-
(1) de Vries - Natural selection
(2) -
(2) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis
(3) Weismann - Theory of continuity of Germplasm (3) -
(4) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired characters (4) -
163. If you go back in the history approx. 4000 million 163.
4000
years back when atmosphere was reducing the
:-
organism were :- (1)
(1) Autotroph, aerobic
(2)
-
,
(2) Chemo-autotroph, anaerobic
(3) Chemo-heterotroph, anaerobic (3)
,
(4) Heterotroph, anaerobic (4)
,
164. One of the following can be used as an illustration 164.
to demonstrate process of evolution in animals :- :-
(1) Extinction of some animals like cheetah (1)
(2) Occurrence of tadpole in the life history of frog (2)
(3) Presence of egg laying mammals in Australia (3)
(4) Increasing incidents of DDT resistance in (4)
DDT
mosquitoes
165. Which one of the following sequences was 165.
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic
:-
evolution :-
(1)
(1) Variations, natural selection, overproduction
(2)
(2) Overproduction, variations, natural selection
(3) Variations, Over production, natural selection (3)
(4) Natural selection, Over reproduction, Variations (4)
166. Organic evolution would have not been taken 166.
:-
place :-
(1)
(1) If individuals in a population did not show
genetic variations
(2)
(2) If individuals did not inherit characters
acquired during their life to their offsprings
(3) If somatic variations did not inherit (3)
(4) If somatic variations were not transferred (4)
to genetic variations
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167. Match the excretory organs listed under column 167.
I
II
I with the animals given under column II.
Choose the answer which gives the correct
:-
combination of alphabets of the two columns:-
I II
Column I
Column II (
) (
)
(Excretory
(Animals)
organs) A. p.
A. Nephridia p. Hydra
B. q.
Malpighian
B. q. Leech
tubules
C.
r.
C. Protonephridia r. Shark
D. s.
D. Kidneys s. Round worms
t.
t. Cockroach
(1) A = q; B = t; C = s; D = r
(1) A = q; B = t; C = s; D = r
(2) A = s; B = q; C = p; D = t
(2) A = s; B = q; C = p; D = t
(3) A = t; B = q; C = s; D = r (3) A = t; B = q; C = s; D = r
(4) A = q; B = s; C = t; D = p (4) A = q; B = s; C = t; D = p
168. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound 168.
:-
in humans is synthesised :- (1)
(1) In the liver, but eliminated mostly through
kidneys (2)
(2) In kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
(3) In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys (3)
(4) In liver and also eliminated by the same (4)
through bile
169. ATP binding sites are found on:- 169. ATP
:-
(1) Actin (1)
(2) Myosin (2)
(3) Troponin (3)
(4) Tropomyosin (4)
170. During the contraction of striated muscles fibres 170.
:-
(1) Length of sarcomere increases. (1)
(2) Width of I band decreases (2) I
(3) Length of thin filaments decreases (3)
(4) Width of H-zone remain unchanged (4) H-
171. Which option correct for Rigor mortis ? 171. Rigor mortis
?
(1) Auto immune disorder (1)
(2) Absence of fresh ATP supply (2) ATP
(3) It persists up to 5 days (3)
(4) Paralysis of muscles (4)
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172. Which option is true for cardiac muscles. :- 172.
:-
(1) Branched, Voluntory, Striped (1)
(2) Unbranched, Involuntory, Striped (2)
(3) Branched, Involuntory, Striped (3)
(4) Branched, Voluntory, Nonstriped (4)
173. How many character in the list given below are 173.
incorrect for skeletal muscles :-
:-
Unbranched, Uninucleated, Cylindrical,
,
, ,
,
Multinucleated, Branched, intercalated disc, ,
, ,
Involuntory, Voluntory, Striated, Never fatigue.
(1) (2)
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Five (4) Four (3) (4)
174. Which type of movement is seen in human 174.
:-
body (1) (2)
(1) Amoeboid (2) Ciliary
(3) Muscular (4) All (3) (4)
(b)
(a b) :-
is converted into energy. (a & b)
(1) ,
is :-
(1) Chemical, Mechanical (2)
,
(2) Physical, Mechanical (3)
,
(3) Mechanical, Chemical
(4)
,
(4) Physical, Chemical
176. The main source of energy during muscle 176.
______
?
contraction is ______ :- (1)
(1) Protein
(2)
(2) Fat
(3)
(3) Glycogen
(4) Ammino acid (4)
177. Which muscle are mainly related for changes 177.
in body posture :-
(1) Cardiac muscle (1)
(2) Unstriped muscle (2)
(3) Smooth muscle (3)
(4) Skeletal muscle (4)
178. What will happen if there is a low Ca +2 178.
Ca+2
concentration in body fluid ? ?
(1) Weakening and paralysis of muscle (1)
(2) Rapid spasms in muscle (2)
(3) Progressive degeneration of muscle (3)
(4) Slow contraction in muscle (4)
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179. Identify the correct option in given diagram :- 179.
:-
(D) (D)
Z line Z line
(C) (C)
(1) A = made up of actin & myosin filaments (1) A =
(2) B = made up of only myosin filaments (2) B =
(3) C = made up of one I band + Two half A band (3) C = I
+
A
(4) D = made up of only myosin filaments (4) D =
180. Which Ions reduced exitability of muscle ? 180.
(1) Ca+2 (2) Mg+2 (1) Ca+2 (2) Mg+2
(3) Na+ (4) K+ (3) Na+ (4) K+
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