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Marketing Management chapter 10 practice test

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Marketing Management
Chapter 10

Crafting the Brand Positioning


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All Cards 113

All marketing strategy is built on STP A


segmentation, targeting, and ________.
A) positioning
B) product
C) planning
D) promotion
E) performance

Page: 275

________ is the act of designing the A


company's offering and image to occupy a
distinctive place in the minds of the target
market.
A) Positioning
B) Valuation
C) Pricing
D) Commercialization

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E) Launching
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Page: 276

The goal of positioning is ________. A


A) to locate the brand in the minds of
consumers to maximize the potential benefit
to the firm
B) to discover the different needs and groups
existing in the marketplace
C) to target those customers marketers can
satisfy in a superior way
D) to collect information about competitors
that will directly influence the firms' strategy
E) to help the firm anticipate what the
actions of its competitors will be

Page: 276

The result of positioning is the successful B


creation of ________, which provides a cogent
reason why the target market should buy the
product.
A) an award-winning promotional campaign
B) a customer-focused value proposition
C) a demand channel
D) everyday low pricing
E) employee value proposition

Page: 276

Which of the following best describes a car C


company's value proposition?
A) We charge a 20% premium on our cars.
B) We target safety-conscious upscale
families.
C) We sell the safest, most durable wagon.
D) We are the market leader in the small car
category.
E) We focus on expanding in faster-growing
markets.

Page: 276

Which of the following best describes BR D


Chicken's value proposition?
A) We sell chicken at most major malls.
B) We undertake home delivery services.
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C) We target quality-conscious consumers of


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chicken.
D) We sell tender golden chicken at a
moderate price.
E) We charge a 10% premium on our
chicken.

Page: 276

The ________ defines which other brands a D


brand competes with and therefore which
brands should be the focus of competitive
analysis.
A) consumer profitability analysis
B) competitor indexing
C) service blueprint
D) competitive frame of reference
E) cluster analysis

Page: 276

________ refers to the products or sets of C


products with which a brand competes and
which function as close substitutes.
A) Consumer profitability analysis
B) Competitive frame of reference
C) Category membership
D) Value membership
E) Demand field

Page: 277

________ are defined as companies that satisfy B


the same customer need.
A) Communities
B) Competitors
C) Trendsetters
D) Industries
E) Task groups

Page: 278

A(n) ________ is a group of firms offering a C


product or class of products that are close
substitutes for one another.
A) community
B) task force
C) industry
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D) focus group
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E) umbrella brand

Page: 278

Which of the following statements about A


blue ocean thinking is true?
A) It involves designing creative business
ventures to positively affect both a
company's cost structure
and its value proposition to consumers.
B) In blue ocean thinking, industry
boundaries are defined and accepted, and
the competitive rules of the game are known.
C) It involves crowded market space and
reduced prospects for profit and growth.
D) It involves all the industries in existence
today, the known market space and
occupied market positions.
E) In blue ocean thinking, value to consumers
comes from reintroducing factors the
industry has previously offered.

Page: 278

Which of the following terms is most closely B


associated with the statement: "attributes or
benefits consumers strongly associate with a
brand, positively evaluate, and believe that
they could not find to the same extent with a
competitive brand"?
A) points-of-inflection
B) points-of-difference
C) points-of-parity
D) points-of-value
E) points-of-presence

Page: 280

________ are product associations that are not A


necessarily unique to the brand but may in
fact be shared with other brands.
A) Points-of-parity
B) Points-of-difference
C) Points-of-inflection
D) Points-of-presence

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E) Points-of-divergence
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Page: 280

The three criteria that determine whether a D


brand association can truly function as a
point-of-difference are ________.
A) comparability, authenticity, deliverability
B) desirability, peculiarity, deliverability
C) deviance, peculiarity, deformity
D) desirability, deliverability, differentiability
E) differentiability, authenticity, desirability

Page: 280

Which of the following criteria relates to C


consumers seeing the brand association as
personally relevant to them?
A) deliverability
B) authenticity
C) desirability
D) differentiability
E) feasibility

Page: 280

Which of the following criteria relates to the E


company having the internal resources and
commitment to feasibly and profitably create
and maintain the brand association in the
minds of consumers?
A) differentiability
B) peculiarity
C) desirability
D) believability
E) deliverability

Page: 280

Which of the following criteria relates to B


consumers seeing the brand association as
distinctive and superior to relevant
competitors?
A) desirability
B) differentiability
C) believability
D) deliverability

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E) deviance
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Page: 280

The brand must demonstrate ________, for it A


to function as a true point-of-difference.
A) clear superiority on an attribute or benefit
B) clear profitability to the company
C) clear similarity to the attributes of other
brands
D) technological advances for an attribute or
benefit
E) exploitation of competitors' weakness

Page: 280

The two basic forms of points-of-parity are E


________ and ________.
A) conceptual points-of-parity; competitive
points-of-parity
B) strategic points-of-parity; conceptual
points-of-parity
C) category points-of-parity; deliverable
points-of-parity
D) competitive points-of-parity; peculiar
points-of-parity
E) category points-of parity; competitive
points-of-parity

Page: 280

________ are attributes or benefits that D


consumers view as essential to a legitimate
and credible offering within a certain product
or service class.
A) Category points-of-difference
B) Conceptual points-of-parity
C) Competitive points-of-parity
D) Category points-of-parity
E) Competitive points-of-difference

Page: 280

Philip Morris bought Miller brewing and C


launched low-calorie beer, at a time when
consumers had the impression that low-
calorie beer does not taste as good as
normal beer. What does the company assure
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by stating that the beer tastes good?


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A) points-of-difference
B) points-of-presence
C) points-of-parity
D) points-of-conflict
E) points-of-inflection

Page: 280-281

Philip Morris bought Miller brewing and A


launched low-calorie beer, at a time when
consumers had the impression that low-
calorie beer does not taste as good as
normal beer. What did the company try to
build when they conveyed the fact that the
beer contained one third less calories and
hence it is less filling?
A) points-of-difference
B) points-of-conflict
C) points-of-parity
D) points-of-presence
E) points-of-inflection

Page: 280- 281

Consumers might not consider a hand D


sanitizer truly a hand sanitizer unless they are
gels designed to apply topically, contain
alcohol that kills the germs present on the
skin, and developed for use after washing
hands or for those times when soap and
water are not available. These service
elements are considered ________.
A) competitive points-of-difference
B) competitive points-of-parity
C) category points-of-difference
D) category points-of-parity
E) conceptual points-of-parity

Page: 280- 281

Nivea became the leader in the skin cream C


class on the "gentle", "protective" and
"caring" platform. The company further
moved into classes such as deodorants,
shampoos and cosmetics. Attributes like
gentle and caring were of no value unless
consumers believed that its deodorant was

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strong enough, its shampoo would cleanse


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and its cosmetics would be colorful enough.
This is an example of ________.
A) competitive points-of-parity
B) competitive points-of-difference
C) category points-of-parity
D) category points-of-difference
E) competitive points-of-presence

Page: 280- 281

________ are associations designed to C


overcome perceived weaknesses of the
brand.
A) Conceptual points-of-parity
B) Category points-of-difference
C) Competitive points-of-parity
D) Competitive points-of-difference
E) Category points-of-parity

Page: 281

As a marketing manager, which of the E


following would be the best purpose for your
organization's competitive points-of-parity?
A) to point out competitors' points-of-
difference
B) to emphasize competitors' points-of-
difference
C) to rationalize competitors' perceived
points-of-difference
D) to globalize competitors' perceived
points-of-difference
E) to negate competitors' perceived points-
of-difference

Page: 281

A marketer that wants to anchor a point-of- C


difference for Dove soap on brand benefits
might emphasize which of the following?
A) the soap is one-quarter cleansing cream
B) Dove products include bar soaps and
shampoos
C) Dove soap helps users have softer skin
D) the soap brand has global presence
E) the brand has recently launched soap for

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men
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Page: 283

Subway restaurants are positioned as D


offering healthy, great-tasting sandwiches.
________ allows the brand to create a point-
of-parity (POP) on taste and a point-of-
difference (POD) on health with respect to
quick-serve restaurants such as McDonald's
and Burger King and, at the same time, a
POP on health and a POD on taste with
respect to health food restaurants and cafés.
A) Category-based positioning
B) Need-based positioning
C) Noncomparitive positioning
D) Straddle positioning
E) Price-quality positioning

Page: 283

BMW positioned itself as the only A


automobile that offered both luxury and
performance. At that time, consumers saw
U.S. luxury cars as lacking performance. It
was able to achieve a point-of-difference on
performance and a point-of-parity on luxury
with respect to U.S. luxury cars like Cadillac.
This is an example of ________.
A) straddle positioning
B) category-based positioning
C) need-based positioning
D) noncomparitive positioning
E) price-quality positioning

Page: 283

Marketers typically focus on ________ in C


choosing the points-of-parity and points-of-
difference
that make up their brand positioning.
A) brand equity
B) brand awareness
C) brand benefits
D) brand architecture
E) brand extensions

Page: 283

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________ are visual representations of C Sign in


consumer perceptions and preferences.
A) Procedural maps
B) Brain maps
C) Perceptual maps
D) Procedural models
E) Cognitive maps

Page: 283

Straddle positions ________. B


A) help firms to analyze who their
competitors are
B) allow brands to expand their market
coverage and potential customer base
C) are a necessity while creating a firm's
vision and mission statement
D) assist firms in collecting information on
competitors that will directly influence their
strategy
E) are ambiguous moral principles behind
the operation and regulation of marketing

Page: 283

Which of the following statements about D


brand mantras is true?
A) They guide only major decisions, they
have no influence on mundane decisions.
B) Their influence does not extend beyond
tactical concerns.
C) They must economically communicate
what the brand is and avoid communicating
what it is not.
D) They can provide guidance about what ad
campaigns to run and where and how to sell
the brand.
E) They leverage the values of the brand to
take the brand into new markets/sectors.

Page: 285

American Express'- "Worldclass Service, A


Personal Recognition," Mary Kay's -
"Enriching women's lives," Hallmark's-
"Caring Shared," and Starbucks'-"Rewarding
Everyday Moments" are examples of ________.

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A) brand mantras
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B) brand parity
C) brand identity
D) brand architecture
E) brand extension

Page: 284- 285

________ are short, three- to five-word A


phrases that capture the irrefutable essence
or spirit of the brand positioning and ensure
that the company's own employees
understand what the brand represents.
A) Brand mantras
B) Brand symbols
C) Brand logos
D) Brand alliances
E) Brand extensions

Page: 284- 285

A ________ is a translation of the brand D


mantra that attempts to creatively engage
consumers and others external to the
company.
A) brand vision
B) brand extension
C) brand architecture
D) brand slogan
E) brand alliance

Page: 286

BMW's "The ultimate driving machine," A


American Express' "Don't leave home
without it," New York Times' "All the news
that's fit to print," and AT&T's "Reach out
and touch someone" are all examples of
________.
A) brand slogan
B) brand personality
C) brand mission
D) brand architecture
E) brand vision

Page: 286

C
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A brand mantra should be ________.


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A) original, ambiguous, and straightforward
B) unique, complex, and inspirational
C) communicative, simple, and inspirational
D) competitive, sensitive, and simple
E) unique, sensitive, and explanatory

Page: 286

Brand mantras typically are designed to D


capture the brand's ________, that is, what is
unique about the brand.
A) points-of-conflict
B) points-of-parity
C) points-of-inflection
D) points-of-difference
E) points-of-presence

Page: 286

Points-of-parity are important while A


designing brand mantras for brands facing
________.
A) rapid growth
B) market saturation
C) slow and steady growth
D) rapid decline
E) stability in sales volume

Page: 286

For brands in more stable categories where A


extensions into more distinct categories are
less likely to occur, the brand mantra may
focus more exclusively on ________.
A) points-of-difference
B) points-of-presence
C) points-of-inflection
D) points-of-parity
E) points-of-conflict

Page: 286

Tums claims to have the most acid-reducing C


components of any antacid. In what way is
the brand's category membership being
conveyed?
A) comparing to exemplars
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B) relying on the product descriptor


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C) announcing category benefits
D) focusing on reliability
E) persuasion based on believability

Page: 288

The typical approach to positioning is to B


inform consumers of a brand's category
membership before stating its ________,
A) point-of-parity
B) point-of-difference
C) point-of-conflict
D) point-of-weakness
E) point-of-presence

Page: 288

In which of the following examples is a B


company communicating category
membership using a product descriptor?
A) Use Zipex for quick and thorough
cleaning.
B) Barry's Oats, when you want nutrition and
flavor.
C) Clarity offers you the best prices for the
best quality.
D) Choose Grissom's for an unparalleled
shopping experience.
E) Chloe: All you need for a beautiful you.

Page: 288

Industrial tools claiming to have durability, C


and antacids announcing their efficacy
convey a brand's category membership by
________.
A) relying on the product descriptor
B) comparing to exemplars
C) announcing category benefits
D) communicating deliverability variables
E) identifying counter examples

Page: 288

A well-known car manufacturing company A


introduces a new hatchback model by
describing its distinctive features and then
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stressing the speed and safety qualities of


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the car. Which of the following is the
company using to convey its membership in
the hatchback segment?
A) announcing category benefits
B) comparing to exemplars
C) relying on the product descriptor
D) using channel differentiation
E) maximizing negatively correlated
attributes

Page: 288

Which of the following ways to conveying a A


brand's category membership relates to well-
known,
noteworthy brands in a category helping a
brand specify its category membership?
A) comparing to exemplars
B) communicating deliverability variables
C) identifying counter examples
D) announcing category benefits
E) relying on the product descriptor

Page: 288

SJC is a new retailer that targets the youth B


market. SJC needs to make an impression
using advertising, and decides to use funny
or irreverent ads to get its point across. Each
ad features one of SJC's competitors and
conveys an advantage SJC has over that
competitor. Which of the following is the
company using to convey its membership in
the retail segment?
A) announcing category benefits
B) comparing to exemplars
C) relying on the product descriptor
D) using channel differentiation
E) maximizing negatively correlated
attributes

Page: 288

When Tommy Hilfiger was an unknown C


brand, advertising announced his
membership as a great U.S. designer by
associating him with Geoffrey Beene, Stanley

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Blacker, Calvin Klein, and Perry Ellis, who


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were recognized members of that category.
Tommy Hilfiger conveyed the brand's
category membership by ________.
A) relying on the product descriptor
B) focusing on reliability
C) comparing to exemplars
D) announcing category benefits
E) identifying counter examples

Page: 288

Ford Motor Co. invested more than $1 billion C


on a radical new 2004 model called the X-
Trainer, which combined the attributes of an
SUV, a minivan, and a station wagon. To
communicate its unique position—and to
avoid association with its Explorer and
Country Squire models—the vehicle,
eventually called Freestyle, was designated a
"sports wagon". According to the given
scenario, Ford Motor Co. conveyed their
brand's category membership by ________.
A) announcing category benefits
B) identifying counter examples
C) relying on the product descriptor
D) focusing on reliability
E) comparing to exemplars

Page: 288

One common difficulty in creating a strong, A


competitive brand positioning is that many
of the attributes or benefits that make up the
points-of-parity and points-of-difference are
________.
A) negatively correlated
B) always correlated
C) directly proportional
D) never correlated
E) positively correlated

Page: 288

________ is a company's ability to perform in C


one or more ways that competitors cannot
or will not match.
A) Brand positioning

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B) Market research
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C) Competitive advantage
D) Competitor analysis
E) Competitive intelligence

Page: 289

A ________ is one that a company can use as a B


springboard to new advantages.
A) sustainable advantage
B) leverageable advantage
C) realistic advantage
D) rational advantage
E) distinct advantage

Page: 289

Which of the following types of C


differentiation relates to companies having
better-trained personnel
who provide superior customer service?
A) channel differentiation
B) services differentiation
C) employee differentiation
D) image differentiation
E) product differentiation

Page: 290

Singapore Airlines is well regarded in large D


part because of the excellence of its flight
attendants. This is an example of ________
differentiation.
A) image
B) services
C) product
D) employee
E) channel

Page: 290

Which of the following types of B


differentiation refers to companies effectively
designing their distribution medium's
coverage, expertise, and performance to
make buying the product easier and more
enjoyable and rewarding?
A) service differentiation
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B) channel differentiation
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C) image differentiation
D) product differentiation
E) employee differentiation

Page: 290

Dayton, Ohio––based Iams found success E


selling premium pet food through regional
veterinarians, breeders, and pet stores. This is
an example of ________ differentiation.
A) service
B) employee
C) image
D) product
E) channel

Page: 290

Which of the following is an example of D


channel differentiation?
A) Berry's has an intensive training program
for its customer-facing employees, to ensure
a consistent service standard.
B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive
signature fragrance in all outlets so that
customers can associate the fragrance with
the hotel.
C) JEK's sophisticated customer database
allows the company to handle queries and
product returns much faster than
competitors.
D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket
aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that
customers were willing to pay more in stores.
E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers
to customize the color and some features of
its appliances before buying them.

Page: 290

Which of the following is an example of B


image differentiation?
A) Berry's has an intensive training program
for its customer-facing staff, to ensure a
consistent service standard.
B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive
signature fragrance in all outlets so that

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customers can associate the fragrance with


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the hotel.
C) JEK's sophisticated customer database
allows the company to handle queries and
product returns much faster than
competitors.
D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket
aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that
customers were willing to pay more in stores.
E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers
to customize the color and some features of
its appliances before buying them.

Page: 290

Which of the following is an example of C


services differentiation?
A) Berry's has an intensive training program
for its customer-facing staff, to ensure a
consistent service standard.
B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive
signature fragrance in all outlets so that
customers can associate the fragrance with
the hotel.
C) JEK's sophisticated customer database
allows the company to handle queries and
product returns much faster than
competitors.
D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket
aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that
customers were willing to pay more in stores.
E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers
to customize the color and some features of
its appliances before buying them.

Page: 290

A radio ad by the dairy farmers of E


Washington State stated that the milk
produced in the state was of higher quality
because of the way the farmers treat their
cows. They said that the difference comes
from how comfortable they make their cows.
Among others, this differentiation could
certainly appeal to animal lovers and those
moving toward organic products. This is an
example of ________.
A) personnel differentiation

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B) channel differentiation
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C) service differentiation
D) product differentiation
E) image differentiation

Page: 290

A company which can differentiate itself by A


designing a better and faster delivery system
that provides more effective and efficient
solutions to consumers is most likely using
________ differentiation.
A) services
B) channel
C) image
D) product
E) employee

Page: 290

Suppliers who are dependable in their on- D


time delivery, order completeness, and
order-cycle time are most likely to be
differentiated based on ________.
A) resilience
B) innovativeness
C) insensitivity
D) reliability
E) expertise

Page: 290

Suppliers who are better at handling C


emergencies, product recalls, and inquiries
are most likely to be differentiated based on
their ________.
A) innovativeness
B) thoroughness
C) resilience
D) insensitivity
E) reliability

Page: 290

A supplier creates better information A


systems, and introduces bar coding, mixed
pallets, and other methods of helping the
consumer. The supplier is most likely to be
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differentiated on its ________.


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A) innovativeness
B) reliability
C) insensitivity
D) resilience
E) accuracy

Page: 290

Which of the following traits of a brand's B


ability to become a lovemark relates to
drawing together stories, metaphors,
dreams, and symbols?
A) intimacy
B) mystery
C) insensitivity
D) sensuality
E) practicality

Page: 291

Which of the following traits of a brand's A


ability to become a lovemark keeps the five
senses of sight, hearing, smell, touch, and
taste on constant alert for new textures,
intriguing scents and tastes, music, and other
such stimuli?
A) sensuality
B) intimacy
C) mystery
D) practicality
E) sensitivity

Page: 291

Which of the following traits of a brand's E


ability to become a lovemark implies
empathy, commitment, and passion?
A) practicality
B) sensuality
C) morality
D) mystery
E) intimacy

Page: 291

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Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau see


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________ as based on deep metaphors that
connect to
people's memories, associations, and stories.
A) cultural branding
B) narrative branding
C) brand journalism
D) emotional branding
E) personal branding

Page: 292

Which element of a brand story framework D


do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau
relate to the time, place, and context of the
brand story?
A) cast
B) pitch
C) narrative arc
D) setting
E) language

Page: 292

Which element of a brand story framework E


do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau
relate to the way the narrative logic unfolds
over time, including actions, desired
experiences, defining events, and the
moment of epiphany?
A) language
B) pitch
C) cast
D) setting
E) narrative arc

Page: 292

Which element of a brand story framework C


do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau
relate to the authenticating voice,
metaphors, symbols, themes, and leitmotifs?
A) narrative arc
B) context
C) language
D) setting

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E) cast
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Page: 292

Which of the following statements about the A


branding guidelines for a small business is
true?
A) A small business must creatively conduct
low-cost marketing research.
B) A small business must avoid leveraging
secondary brand associations.
C) A small business must separate the well-
integrated brand elements to enhance both
brand awareness and brand image.
D) A small business must disintegrate the
brand elements to maximize the contribution
of each of the three main sets of brand
equity drivers.
E) A small business must focus on building
more than two strong brands based on a
number of associations.

Page: 293- 294

All marketing strategy is built on true


segmentation, targeting, and positioning.

Page: 275

Positioning is the act of designing the true


company's offering and image to occupy a
distinctive place in the minds of the target
market.

Page: 276

The result of positioning is the successful false


creation of an employee-focused value
proposition.

Page: 276

Positioning requires that marketers define false


and communicate only the differences
between their brand and its competitors.

Page: 276

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The competitive frame of reference defines true Sign in


which other brands a brand competes with.

Page: 276

Category membership is seen as the true


products which function as close substitutes
of a brand.

Page: 277

A company is more likely to be hurt by false


current competitors than by emerging
competitors or new technologies.

Page: 277

The industry concept of competition reveals false


a broader set of actual and potential
competitors than competition defined in just
the market concept.

Page: 278

Using the industry approach, competitors are false


defined as companies that satisfy the same
customer need.

Page: 278

To analyze its competitors, a company needs true


to gather information about both the real
and the perceived strengths and weaknesses
of each competitor.

Page: 279

Associations that make up points-of- false


difference are based exclusively on product
features.

Page: 280

Points-of-parity are attributes or benefits false


consumers strongly associate with a brand
and believe that they could not find to the
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same extent with a competitive brand.


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Page: 280

Points-of-parity may be shared among two true


or more brands.

Page: 280

Category points-of-parity are unique to a false


brand.

Page: 280

Category points-of-parity may change over true


time due to technological advances, legal
developments, or consumer trends.

Page: 281

Category points-of-parity are associations false


designed to overcome perceived weaknesses
of the brand.

Page: 281

A competitive point-of-parity negates true


competitors' perceived points-of-difference.

Page: 281

Trying to be all things to all people leads to false


highest-common-denominator positioning,
which is typically effective.

Page: 282

Straddle positioning refers to a brand using false


different positioning with different
categories of competitors.

Page: 283

Occasionally, a company will be able to true


straddle two frames of reference with one set
of points-of-difference and points-of-parity.

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Page: 283

Perceptual maps provide quantitative true


portrayals of market situations and the way
consumers view different products, services,
and brands along various dimensions.

Page: 283

The purpose of brand mantras is to ensure true


that employees and external marketing
partners understand what the brand is to
represent to the customers.

Page: 284

Brand mantras must communicate both what true


a brand is and what it is not.

Page: 285

Brand mantras are typically designed to false


capture the brand's points-of-parity, that is,
what is unique about the brand.

Page: 286

Brands are never affiliated with categories in false


which they do not hold membership.

Page: 287

There are situations in which consumers false


know a brand's category membership but
may not be convinced the brand is a valid
member of the category.

Page: 287

The typical approach to positioning is to true


inform consumers of a brand's membership
before stating its point-of-difference.

Page: 288

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The product descriptor that follows the true Sign in


brand name is often a concise means of
conveying category origin.

Page: 288

If Barry compares his organization's products true


to those of leaders in the field, then he is
conveying category membership by
"comparing to exemplars".

Page: 288

A good illustration of negatively correlated false


attributes or benefits is good taste versus
bad taste.

Page: 288

A leverageable advantage is one that a true


company can use as a springboard to new
advantages.

Page: 289

Competitive advantage is a company's ability true


to perform in one or more ways that
competitors cannot or will not match.

Page: 289

The means of differentiation that are often true


most compelling to consumers relate to
aspects of the product and service.

Page: 290

Companies cannot achieve differentiation by false


differentiating their channels, as this is not
the purpose of a distribution channel.

Page: 290

A good positioning should contain points- false


of-difference and points-of-parity that have
rational but not emotional components.
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Page: 290

Brand storytelling is a less-structured true


approach to brand positioning.

Page: 291-292

Narrative branding is based on deep true


metaphors that connect to people's
memories, associations, and stories.

Page: 292

Cultural branding is essential for small firms, false


but ineffective for large companies.

Page: 293

Small businesses must focus on building one true


or two strong brands based on one or two
key associations.

Page: 293

While creating a loyal brand community is false


useful for large companies, it is not cost-
effective for small firms.

Page: 293

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