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For all but the last the problem below, we assume that f is a function from
X to Y .
Problem 1 (Ex. 5.5). Suppose that f is surjective. Prove that every A ⊂ X
satisfies
Y r f (A) ⊂ f (X r A).
Show by example that the claim is false if we omit the hypothesis that f is
surjective.
Solution. Suppose y ∈ Y r f (A). By the surjectivity of f there is an x ∈ X
such that f (x) = y. As y 6∈ f (A) we must have x 6∈ A, and so x ∈ X r A.
Therefore y ∈ f (X r A).
Problem 2 (Ex. 5.6). (a) Suppose B ⊂ Y . Prove or give a counterexample
to each of the inclusions
B ⊂ f (f −1 (B)) f (f −1 (B)) ⊂ B.
A ⊂ f −1 (f (A)) f −1 (f (A)) ⊂ A.
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(c) First we prove the inclusion A ⊂ f −1 (f (A)). For any a ∈ A we have
f (a) ∈ f (A). This means precisely that a ∈ f 1 (f (A)).
Here is a counterexample to f −1 (f (A)) ⊂ A. Let f : {0, 1} →
− {2} be
defined by f (x) = 2, and let A = {0}.
(d) The inclusion A ⊂ f −1 (f (A)) was proved above. For the reverse inclusion
fix an x ∈ f −1 (f (A)). Then f (x) ∈ f (A) and so there is an a ∈ A such
that f (x) = f (a). By the injectivity of f , it follows that x = a, and so
x ∈ A.
(b) Show that the previous claim is false if we omit the hypothesis that f is
injective.
(c) Suppose that C, D ⊂ Y , and that f is surjective. Prove that
f −1 (C) ⊂ f −1 (D) =⇒ C ⊂ D.
(d) Show that the previous claim is false if we omit the hypothesis that f is
surjective.
Solution.
f : {1, 2} → {1}
which sends every elemnt of the domain to 1 (as any function with this
codomain must do). Let A = {1, 2}, B = {1}. Then f (A) = f (B) = {1},
so, in particular, f (A) ⊂ f (B). On the other hand, A is not a subset of
B.
• Suppose f −1 (C) ⊂ f −1 (D). To show that C ⊂ D, suppose y ∈ C. We
need to deduce that y ∈ D as well. Since f is surjective, there exists
some x ∈ X such that f (x) = y. In particular, x ∈ f −1 (C). But this
implies that x ∈ f −1 (D) as well since f −1 (C) ⊂ f −1 (D). This means
that f (x) ∈ D. But y = f (x), so y ∈ D.
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• For a counterexample where f is not surjective, consider the function
f : {1} → {1, 2}