Professional Engineer
by George Stankiewicz, P.E., LEED ® A. P.
School of
PE
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CONTENTS
Contents .....................................................................................................................................2
Preface .......................................................................................................................................6
Contents 
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Contents 3
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INDEX .....................................................................................................................................134
Contents 
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Sample 2:
fast facts
Sample 3:
This example text box shows necessary
equations.
Sample 4:
This symbol represents topics within the Refresher Course that are part of
the subject matter which will further help your understanding.
The information is intented for selfstudy and may not be
reviewed during the refresher course.
Contents 5
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PREFACE
fast facts
Each of us has different study habits and a preferred way of
learning. The material in the Refresher Course uses a technique which
helps quicken the pace of understanding of the subject matter. The
arrangement of the material follows a hierarchical pattern of learning
engaging three basic components:
Concept is a cognitive unit of meaning— an abstract idea or a
mental symbol sometimes defined as a "unit of knowledge" which
is built from other units. A concept is typically associated with a
corresponding representation, for example, the concept of
Trigonometry with Triangles. Often, a concept is not a single
thought, but a composite of simpler concepts.
Terminology refers to the typical words used in connection with
a concept. For example, the elements of the Law of Sine’s: sin a,
sin b, sin n.
Application refers to the typical manner in which the theory is used
in connection with a concept. For example, find the hypotenuse of
a right triangle when one side is 4units with an angle of 53° (4 ÷
sin 53° = 5).
Concept
Terminology
Application
Preface 
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The refresher course is organized in seven chapters as outlined below. Each chapter covers
materials which parallels the outline provided by the NCEES Exam Specifications for the
Construction Exam and is outlined in NCEES
Fundamental of Engineering
Supplied Reference Handbook 8 Edition 2nd Revision. th
The refresher class focus is on interpreting the Civil Engineering afternoon session 60 questions
in nine topic areas. The course provides a graduating series of problem statements to better
the understanding of the content for the Civil Engineering Exam.
CHAPTER ORGANIZATION
Preface 7
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Preface 
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CHAPTER 1 – SURVEYING
1
CHAPTER
Surveying
Construction Surveying
Concept
“State” of Soils
Terminology Average End Area
Earthwork Volume
Mass Haul Diagram
Application Swell
Shrinkage
Bank Soil
Stations
Cut
Fill
Borrow Pit
NCEES – FE Civil Engineering Topics Staking & Layout
I. Surveying 11% = 7/60 Differential Leveling
Benchmark
A. Angles, distances, and trigonometry
B. Area computations Back sight
C. Closure Foresight
D. Coordinate systems (e.g., GPS, state plane) Height of Instrument
E. Curves (vertical and horizontal) Terrain
F. Earthwork and volume computations Cumulative Volume
G. Leveling (e.g., differential, elevations, percent grades)
Chapter 1 – Surveying 9
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fast facts
Latitude of a line is the distance that the line extends in a north or south direction. A line that
runs towards north has positive latitude; a line that runs towards south has negative latitude.
Departure of a line is the distance that the line extends in an east or west direction. A line that
runs towards east has a positive departure; a line that runs towards west has a negative
departure.
p
Memorize
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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COORDINATE SYSTEM
fast facts
1. A Benchmark provides only elevation data.
4. The project site coordinates and datum are referenced by the State Plane
Coordinate System
Chapter 1 – Surveying 11
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Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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N 671588.23
B E 585724.45
____ft
N 671488.23
E 585234.45
A
300.00ft
400.00ft
C
N _________ Not to scale
E
1.  Question The northing and easting coordinates for point C is most nearly:
a. N 671248.23 E 585554.45
b. N 671188.2 E 585258.45
c. N 671317.08 E 585595.3
d. N 671317.08 E 585596.11
Solution:
Section the triangle and calculate using Pythagorean Theorem and the Law of Sine’s or use the
calculator Pol() Rec() function. See the annotated figure on the next page.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 13
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53.13°
N 671588.23
11.54° E 585724.45
Solution:: A’
B
500.00ft 25.33°
N 671488.23
E 585234.45
A
300.00ft
400.00ft
C’
C
N 671317.08 Not to scale
E 585596.11
p
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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a. 383.2
b. 383.276
c. 391.324
d. 391.300
118º48’07”
437.380m
383.276m
α = 118º48’07”  90º00’00”
α = 28.80
cos 28.80 = x .
437.38
p
X = (437.38)(0.8763)
X = 383.276m (answer is b)
Chapter 1 – Surveying 15
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a. N 273.34 W
b. N 3º 20’ 24” W
c. N 86º 39’ 36” W p
d. W 3º 20’ 24” N
Solution:
fast facts
In land navigation, azimuth is usually denoted as alpha, α, and defined as a horizontal angle
measured clockwise from a north base line or meridian. Azimuth has also been more
generally defined as a horizontal angle measured clockwise from any fixed reference plane or
easily established base direction line.
The reference plane for an azimuth in a general navigational context is typically true
north, measured as a 0° azimuth. In any event, the azimuth cannot exceed the highest
number of units in a circle – for a 360° circle; this is 359 degrees, 59 minutes, 59 seconds
(359° 59' 59").
For example, moving clockwise on a 360° degree circle, a point due east would have
an azimuth of 90°, south 180°, and west 270°.
In land surveying, a bearing is the clockwise or counterclockwise angle between north
or south and a direction. For example, bearings are recorded as N57°E, S51°E, S21°W,
N87°W, or N15°W. In surveying, bearings can be referenced to true north, magnetic north,
grid north (the Y axis of a map projection), or a previous map, which is often a historical
magnetic north.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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a. I & II
b. I, II, & III p
c. I, II, III, & IV
d. I, II, III, IV, & V
Solution: Item V – “Shrinkage is expressed as percent decrease from the natural state”.
(answer is c)
fast facts
An example of the relationships of a cubic yard of soil in three states: bank, loose,
and compacted. Swell and shrinkage are always measured in relation to the bank
condition. The numerical values are examples and are different for each type of soil.
(Note the inverse relationship between loose and compacted states of soil.)
1.25yd3
0.80yd3
1yd 3 25% swell
20%
shrinkage
Chapter 1 – Surveying 17
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A soil’s swell factor represents the fact that the volume of soil placed by nature in the
ground is not the same as the volume of the same mass of dirt excavated by the
contractor and placed in the dump truck. The same mass of soil occupies more volume
in the truck (loose cubic yards) than it does in the ground (bank cubic yards). The swell
factor is an adjustment representing this increase in volume. However, the swell factor
plays no part in the calculation of an earthwork’s balance. The swell factor is used to
determine the subsequent hauling and stockpiling requirements.
p
Swell is the percentage increase in volume caused by the excavation of soil. Physically,
the act of excavation breaks up the soil into particles and clods (lump of earth) of
various sizes. This creates more air pockets and results in an effective increase in the
soil’s void volume. An increase in volume also results in a decrease in density. This
decrease in density and increase in volume varies between soil types and is not
proportional due to the initial, natural void volume of the bank soil. The swell factor
equations are found in the Table below:
Swell Swell
Density Volume
Swell (%) = Bank Density x 100 V loose = 100% + % swell x Vbank = Vbank
1
Loose Density 100% Load Factor
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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Applying the equation, soil with a swell of 25% would have a load factor of 80% (the
inverse of 1.25). The load factor can be used to show the relationship between Loose
and Bank density by dividing the loose density by the load factor (i.e., 2100 / .79 =
2650).
Using dry clay (from the Table below) as an example, the calculations are derived as
follows: 2650lb/CY x .79 = 2100lb/CY; or, 2100lb/CY x 1.26 = 2650lb/CY
In addition to the swell factor and its associated load factor, soil also has a shrink factor.
While the first two relate the volume of an equal mass of bank soil in the ground with the
loose mass deposited in stockpiles or dump trucks by excavation, the shrink factor
relates the initial bank soil with the volume resulting from subsequent placement and
compaction of the loose soil into earthen structures.
Often this ratio is not a result of natural characteristics but is based on the construction
specifications. For example, clay soils used to construct a high density/low permeability
containment layer for landfills are typically constructed in controlled lifts of a certain
spread thickness which are then compacted to a final desired thickness. Typically, the
soil is spread out over the work area in loose lifts about 8 inches thick. Multiple passes
with a compacting roller (sheep foot roller or vibratory smooth drum roller) are then
performed to compact and knead the loose clay into a tight layer of about 6 inches
thickness. This results in a postcompaction volume that is approximately 25% smaller
than that of the initial loose placement volume. The resultant shrink factor equations are
found in the following Table:
Chapter 1 – Surveying 19
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Shrinkage Shrinkage
Density Volume
Shrinkage(%) = Bank Density x 100 V compacted = 100%  % shrinkage V bank
Compacted Density 1 100%
Suppose further that this clay is used to construct a landfill cover using compaction as
described above thereby reducing its volume to 0.53 cubic yard (given). The shrink
factor, then, would be 0.93 (0.53 / 0.57 = 0.93).
For planning purposes, the earthwork contractor will have to assume that for every 100
cubic yards he excavates he will need to haul 125 cubic yards so that he will be able to
place 93 cubic yards. All of these numbers affect his bottom line. The first determines
the amount of the excavation effort, the second determines his hauling requirements
and the third determines the overall cost of the finished project.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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Solution:
Chapter 1 – Surveying 21
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a. 3.0%
b. 3.5%
c. 4.0%
d. 5.5%
Solution:
At the borrow area, the dry unit weight is determined from the equation:
The shrinkage factor is the ratio of the volume of compacted material to the
volume of borrow material (based on dry unit weight), or:
fast facts
.
Step 1 Be certain to make comparisons based on the “state” (bank, loose,
compacted) of soil first, then  Step 2  analyze the soil using the equations for
swell and shrinkage using bank or compacted densities or volumes. Don’t mix
up the “units”. Bank soil is not the same as dry unit weight as it may have water
content and comparisons cannot be made until the soil’s common denominator
is found.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 23
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a. 9,500yd3
b. 10,000yd3
c. 11,700yd3
d. 12,380yd3
Calculate the required volume of soil that must be excavated from the
borrow area:
fast facts
The most common type of nondestructive field test is the nuclear density test
method. In this method the wet density of soil is determined by the attenuation
of gamma radiation. The water content is determined by the thermalization or
slowing of fast neutrons and direct probe readings over the in place test area.
The nuclear density test uses the laboratory dry density and optimum moisture
content to determine the inplace soil density.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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fast facts
Although earthwork optimization is related with both swelling and
compaction behavior of fill material, it is possible to combine these
characteristics by a unique swelling/shrinkage ratio that accounts for field
densities measured before excavation and after compaction.
Compaction is a soil densification process achieved by the
application of mechanical energy and improves several engineering
properties of soils. Commonly, it is essential to control certain compaction
parameters, namely, dry density and water content, with field tests
conducted throughout the earthwork construction. It is desirable that fill
material has a field unit weight as close as possible to the maximum dry
unit weight obtained by the laboratory Proctor test. The measure of the
closeness is defined as the relative compaction (RC), which is required to
be higher than a threshold value determined by the project specifications.
In order to determine the swelling/shrinkage behavior of a material,
field and laboratory tests should be performed to measure field dry unit
weight and maximum dry unit weight. Swelling/shrinkage parameters can
then be calculated using these test results based on the project
compaction criterion and the construction equipment being used.
However, soil behavior is inherently ambiguous and the actual
compaction control process is usually carried out while earthwork
construction is continuing. Therefore, for most of the highway designs,
swelling/shrinkage factors are selected from predetermined tables
according to specific soil types being considered.
The swelling/shrinkage behavior of soils can also be characterized
based on their particle size classifications (either fine or coarse grained
based on the amount passing No. 200 sieve). In this context, gradation
(well or poor) determined by the coefficient of curvature and coefficient of
uniformity parameters, can be taken into consideration for coarse grained
soils, whereas the plasticity index is the primary distinguishing variable for
expressing the swelling/shrinkage behavior of fine grained soils (silts and
clays). Natural water content is also a significant factor influencing the
shrinkage/swelling potential of both fine and coarse grained soils. For
finegrained soils, an increase in the plasticity index reduces the
swelling/shrinkage potential. At a certain applied energy level, the dry unit
weight of a soil reaches to the maximum level for optimum water content.
Therefore, the natural water content (either at wet or dry of optimum)
should also be considered to characterize swelling/shrinkage behavior.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 25
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fast facts
Compaction is achieved by inputting energy to expel the air and
water in the soil’s voids. The reduction of the voids creates the
following changes in the material:
ENERGY
AIR WATER
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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fast facts
100% B
Maximum achievable
98% density for the
compacting effort
Dry Density PCF
DRY MUD
A
% Moisture
Maximum density is found at point “B” and at the
intersection of Optimum Moisture Content point “A”
Chapter 1 – Surveying 27
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fast facts
Average end area method is the most widely used method to
calculate the volume of soil between stations in a roadway.
The format of the equation is shown below:
L ( A1 A2 )
V
2
Figure 1
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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[Hint:See CERM page 792; Paragraph 5 – CUT and FILL. In highway work,
payment is usually for cut, while in dam work it is usually for fill.]
p
fast facts
The precision obtained from the average end area is generally sufficient
unless one of the end areas is very small or zero. In that case, the volume
should be computed as a pyramid or truncated pyramid using the equation
below.
V pyramid = L Abase
3
Chapter 1 – Surveying 29
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Solution:
(a) Since Cut and fill quantities are not same, earthwork is NOT balanced
(answer is b)
(b) Since fill quantity is more than cut quantity, it is required to borrow earth
from offsite (answer is b)
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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2. Based on insitu (“in place”) volume, the number of acres at the borrow site that will be
disturbed based on the soil boring constraint is most nearly:
a. 595Ac
b. 789Ac
c. 856Ac
d. 992Ac
Solution:
1. The problem can be evaluated using the “truncated pyramid” equation; first, calculate the
base pyramid (the “landfill”); then, second, calculate the “capped” landfill using the given
dimension and subtract the amounts to obtain the net volume.
Calculate volume of base pyramid = V1
A1
36ft
A2
Cap Volume 3
[not to scale] 1
Chapter 1 – Surveying 31
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Calculate volume of “cap” by adding 1’6” to the base pyramid dimensions [Note the change in
dimensions]:
Solution:
2. Based on insitu (“in place”) volume, determine the number of acres at the borrow site
that will be disturbed based on the soil boring constraint of 3ft deep.
Use the computed volume from the calculations above.
Substitute known data into the equation; note that A1 = (S2 + 18)2 ; A2 = S22
Calculate A2 using the SOLVE function on your calculator or use quadratic equation:
3ft
1
3 S2
A2
9ft
[not to scale]
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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Solution:
Determine the cubic volume of the cut and the swell of the soil:
Evaluate the question using the equation for the volume of a cone and the
maximum incline of the sides of the cone are at the natural angle of repose
equal to the angle of internal friction.
r = h ÷ tan α°
168,000ft3 = (π 752 h) ÷ 3
Solve for: h = 28.53ft is less than the natural angle of repose therefore the
solution checks. (answer is b)
Chapter 1 – Surveying 33
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fast facts
Borrowpit leveling calculates the excavation volume by applying a grid to
the excavation area. The grids can be staked to squares of 10, 20, 50,
100, or more feet depending on the project size and the accuracy desired.
For each grid square, final elevations are established for each corner of
every grid square. These are subtracted from the existing elevations at the
same location to determine the depth of cut or height of fill at each corner.
For each grid square an average of the depths/heights of the four corners
is multiplied by the area of the square to determine the volume of
earthwork associated with the grid area.
The total earthwork volume for the project is calculated by adding the
volumes of each grid square in the excavation area. Follow the following
steps to evaluate and calculate the volume of soil at a borrow pit:
Step l
Determine by visual study of the site drawing if the net total will be
an import (more fill required than cut) an export (less fill required
than cut) or a blend (cut and fill about equal)
Step 2
Determine the pattern of calculation points or grid size.
Step 3
Determine elevations at each calculation location, the corners of
each grid.
Step 4
Calculate the cubic yards of cut or fill required in each grid cell.
Step 5
Add the individual Grid Cell quantities together to arrive at the total
cut, total fill volume and the import or volume export yardage
required for the job.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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Solution:
All the statements are true; (answer is c)
fast facts
Note that the refresher course questions force you to focus your
attention on the units. Throughout, the questions make it a point to mix up
the “units”, that is, FT3, CY, PCF, yd3, etc. The purpose for this is for those
that are not as familiar with the terminology to become acutely aware of the
differences.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 35
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a. 160yd3
b. 178yd3
c. 190yd3
d. 200yd3
Datum
Figure 1
Solution:
Find the average elevation:
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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a. 2,050
b. 2,250
c. 2,325
d. 2,350
Figure 1
Solution:
Chapter 1 – Surveying 37
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Figure 1
18.  Question For the project site shown in Figure 1, the amount of
import or export to bring the entire site to elevation 90ft is most nearly:
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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Solution:
Existing 90.50ft
Proposed 90.00ft
Cut 0.50ft
(answer is d)
fast facts
Many of the problems on the NCEES Civil PE exam will include
“extraneous” information that is not necessary to solve the problem. It is
important to remain focused on the information that is relevant and sift through
the distractions. Use a technique of underlining the relevant information in the
question so as to remain focused and not become distracted by irrelevant
content.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 39
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DIFFERENTIAL LEVELING
fast facts
A’ Horizontal Line
B
Earth’s surface
A HB
HA
Reference Surface
B
A
Using a level, the optical line of sight forms a horizontal plane which
is the same elevation as the telescope crosshairs. By reading a graduated
rod held at a point of known elevation (benchmark) a difference in
elevation can be measured and a height of instrument (HI) calculated by
adding the rod readings to the elevation benchmark. Once the height of
instrument is established, rod readings can be taken on subsequent points
and their elevations calculated by subtracting the readings from the height
of instrument.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
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a. I & II
b. I, II, & III
c. I, II, III, & IV
d. None
A total station is an
electronic/optical instrument
used in surveying.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 41
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a. +3.60ft
b. 11.08ft
c. 7.48ft
d. +7.48ft
BS FS
1.27 4.91
BS FS
BM 2.33 6.17
Elev. 356.68
TP1
[not to scale]
TP2
FIGURE 1
Solution:
BM + BS = HI
p
HI – FS = TP Elevation
Point BS HI FS Elevation
BM 1.27 357.95 356.68
TP1 2.33 355.37 4.91 353.04
TP2 6.17 349.20
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a. 1667.01
b. 1730.75
c. 1730.97
d. 1731.77
220.85ft
α=7°10’10”
T
HI=5.02ft
FIGURE 1
= 1730.97ft (answer)
p
Chapter 1 – Surveying 43
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a. 425.3
b. 433.3
c. 439.5
d. 441.2
72in. O.D.
Concrete Pipe (10in
Not to scale Wall Thickness)
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
44
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ahmed youssef (ahmed_usief@yahoo.com)
School of PE
Solution: Compute the horizontal and vertical distance between the existing and proposed.
Existing Conditions:
Δ Horizontal = (253+65.7) – (256+30.7) = (25,365.7) – (25,630.7) = 265.0ft
Δ Vertical = 438.33 – 429.05 = 9.28ft
Proposed Construction:
Δ Horizontal = (254+80.3)  (253+65.7) = (25,480.3)  (25,365.7) = 114.6ft
Δ Vertical = 114.6 x 9.28 = 4.0ft
265.0
Invert elevation = 438.33 – 4.0 = 434.33ft
Adjust for top of pipe. The top of pipe will be above the calculated invert elevation. Adjustment
must include the thickness of the pipe.
Chapter 1 – Surveying 45
This copy is given to the following student as part of School of PE course. Not allowed to distribute to others.
ahmed youssef (ahmed_usief@yahoo.com)
School of PE
ground rod
grade rod
grade rod HI
8.50’
grade point
Existing grade
50+00
55+00
[not to scale] Figure 1
a. 13.50ft
b. 18.00ft
c. 19.00ft
d. 23.50ft
Solution:
The Height of Instrument elevation can be calculated:
HI = 100.00ft + 8.5ft = 108.5ft
The grade rod reading at station 50+00 is calculated by:
HI – station 50+00 elevation = 108.50ft  95.00ft = 13.50ft
The distance between station 50+00 and 55+00 is 500ft
The slope is set at 2%, therefore; 2% x 500ft = 10ft elevation difference
between stations.
Add the results of the proposed roadbed slope which is 10ft to the
grade rod reading at station 50+00 to obtain the grade rod reading at
station 55+00 which is 23.50ft. (answer is d)
Chapter 1 – Surveying 
46
This copy is given to the following student as part of School of PE course. Not allowed to distribute to others.
ahmed youssef (ahmed_usief@yahoo.com)
School of PE
2
CHAPTER
Construction
Management
Construction Management
Concept
Quantity Takeoff
Productivity Analysis
Terminology Engineering Economics
Application
Takeoff
Factor Tables
Time Value of Money
Compound Interest
Present Worth
Future Worth
Annual Cost
NCEES – FE Civil Engineering Topics Rate of Return
Construction Management 10% = 6/60 Benefit/Cost Ratio
A. Procurement methods (e.g., designbuild, design Alternate Project Selection
bidbuild, qualifications based) Internal Rate of Return
B. Allocation of resources (e.g., labor, equipment,
materials, money, time)
C. Contracts/contract law
D. Project scheduling (e.g., CPM, PERT)
E. Engineering economics
F. Project management (e.g., owner/contractor/client
relations, safety)
G. Construction estimating
fast facts
I. Estimating is a complex process involving collection of available
and pertinent information relating to the scope of a project,
expected resource consumption, and future changes in resource
costs.
II. The estimating process involves a combination of evaluating
information through a mental process of visualization of the
constructing process for the project. This visualization is mentally
translated into an approximation of the final cost.
III. At the outset of a project, the estimate cannot be expected to carry
a high degree of accuracy, because little information is known. As
the design progresses, more information is known, and accuracy
should improve.
IV. Estimating at any stage of the project cycle involves considerable
effort to gather information. The estimator must collect and review
all of the detailed plans, specifications, available site data, available
resource data (labor, materials, and equipment), contract
documents, resource cost information, pertinent government
regulations, and applicable owner requirements. Information
gathering is a continual process by estimators due to the
uniqueness of each project and constant changes in the industry
environment.
V. Unlike the production from a manufacturing facility, each product of
a construction firm represents a prototype. Considerable effort in
planning is required before a cost estimate can be established.
Most of the effort in establishing the estimate revolves around
determining the approximation of the cost to produce the onetime
product.
24.  Question Which of the following statements about the construction contract
process are true:
I. Surety bond assures the project owner a guarantee of funds equivalent to a
promissory note. The surety bond is a promise to pay the owner a certain
amount if the contractor fails in fulfilling the terms of a contract.
IV. A bid bond is issued as part of a bidding process by the surety to the project
owner, to guarantee that the winning bidder will undertake the contract under
the terms at which they bid. The cash deposit is subject to full or partial
forfeiture if the winning contractor fails to either execute the contract or
provide the required performance and/or payment bonds. The bid bond
assures and guarantees that should the bidder be successful, the bidder will
execute the contract and provide the required surety bonds.
V. Bonds are not insurance. Bonds are a guarantee to pay made by a cosigner
who is liable only if the principal fails to discharge the obligations under the
Contract.
a. I & II
b. I, II, & III
c. I, II, III, & IV
d. I, II, III, IV, & V
COST ESTIMATING
Ironworker $78.00/hr
fast facts
The most common blunder during quantity take–off estimating is to omit the
“zero” position during the count. To help with the analysis, sketch the work so
as to better visualize the quantity takeoff. Also, material cost on a capital
improvement project is nontaxable. Remember that “distracters” are included
in questions to test your engineering judgment.
8in  concrete
20ft 2
a. $85,000.00
b. $90,160.00
c. $99,176.00
d. $109,094.00
b. The total material cost for the concrete curing compound is most nearly:
a. $1,120.00
b. $1,160.00
c. $1,200.00
d. $1,240.00
Solution:
fast facts
The manufacturer’s specification cannot be deviated from. This question
illustrates the importance of rounding up to meet the product specifications.
The sevenhundredths of a 5gallon container in the example is enough to
support the manufacturer’s position that the coverage rate was not met. Always
round up in this situation.
27.  Question A A concrete crew will use the available steel form
panels measuring 2’6” wide x 4’0” high to construct a 40’6” long by 3’2”
high by 1’6” wide concrete knee wall. The square foot of contact area for
the formwork is most nearly:
a. 105ft2
b. 134ft2
c. 266ft2
d. 368ft2
Solution:
The square foot of contact area consists of the surface of the formwork
“touched” by the concrete. Therefore, apply the equation to calculate the
contact area:
40’6”
1’6”
Plan View
1’6”
Concrete Knee
Wall 3’2”
fast facts
Cost per Square Foot of Contact Area
The cost of concrete formwork is influenced by three factors:
For example, slip forms have a high initial cost, but the average
potential reuse (usually over 100 times) reduces the final cost per square
foot of contact area for the type of formwork.
a. $8.75
b. $9.78
c. $10.12
d. $10.65
Solution:
29.  Question The Owner’s representative requested a cost proposal for the
Architect’s design change. The revised Scope of Work (SOW) is to provide a credit for
the installation of one layer of ½” Gypsum Wallboard (GWB) and provide a new
scope of work consisting of: (1) install two (2) layers of 5/8” Fire Code (FC) GWB
on the inside face of the existing framing system, (2) as part of the building code
requirement mud coat the first layer of the GWB, (3) mud coat and finish coat the
second layer of GWB, (4) and provide soundbatt insulation within the existing metal
stud wall cavity. The room is located within a warehouse with dimensions: 180ft x 200
ft; 10ft high floor to underside of deck dimension; and, eight (8) 6’0”wide x 10’0” high
openings. The total cost for the new scope of work is most nearly:
a. $19,500
b. $20,500
c. $21,000
d. $22,500
Work Crew
4 Carpenters
2 Laborers
Working Foreman
Labor Rates per hour
Carpenter Foreman (working) $46.35 fully burdened
Carpenter (journeyman) $38.85 fully burdened
Laborer $28.45 fully burdened
Work Crew Productivity (based on 8hr/day)
GWB 960 ft2/Work Crew Hr
Insulation 1,920 ft2/ Work Crew Hr
Tape &Spackle Mud Coat 2,800 ft2/ Work Crew Hr
Tape &Spackle Finish Coat 1,800 ft2/ Work Crew Hr
Material Costs price includes all taxes and delivery; add a 10% waste factor to all
materials.
200ft
Openings
(2) layers (typ)
GWB Interior
Side Only
180ft
[not to scale]
Step 4  Determine the Material List for the new Scope of Work
SUMMARY
Labor Cost $ 7,134.33
Material Cost $ 10,624.80 fast facts
SUBTOTAL $ 17,759.13
Construction Estimating calculates the
Contractor OH @ 10% $ 1,775.91
SUBTOTAL $ 19,535.04 total fully burden cost for labor, material
Contractor Profit @ 5% $ 976.75 and equipment. Once the “raw” costs
Grand Total $ 20,511.79 New Scope of Work are determined, the contractor’s Over
Head and Profit (plus Bond) are added
(answer is b)
to the bottom line costs.
fast facts
One board foot equals 144 cubic inches. The thickness in inches, times the
width in inches, times the length in inches, divided by 144 cubic inches,
equals total board feet in a piece of stock. For instance, a piece two inch
thick by twelve inches wide by twelve inches long would be 2" x 12" = 24" x
12" = 288 cubic inches ÷ 144 cubic inches = 2 board feet.
a. 533
b. 600
c. 667
d. 1,067
Solution:
fast facts
The questions on the NCEES exam generally do not include units with
the associated answer choices. You are more likely to see answers such as
20, 40, 60, and 80, rather than 20PSF, 40PSF, etc.
Read the problem statement carefully to ensure that you know what
units to solve for. Some of the answers are logical distracters and are only
included to test your “engineering judgment”.
Four minutes per question requires focusing your attention to the time
variable of the exam.
METHODS OF BUDGETING
CONSTRUCTIONHISTORIC DATA
32.  Question A concrete specialty company’s uses productivity
standards calculated as averages from historical data. On average
100square feet of formwork requires 6 hours of carpenter time and 5
hours of common laborer time. The wage rate for a carpenter is $38.97/hr
plus a 54% burden rate. The wage rate for common laborers is $14.87/hr
plus a 48% burden rate. The total square foot cost is most nearly:
a. $3.08/ft2
b. $3.25/ft2
c. $4.25/ft2
d. $4.70/ft2
Solution: Burden Rates are amounts charged over and above the actual
costs for labor, materials and/or taxes. Add the allotted burden rate to the
trade labor rate to determine the total SF cost.
fast facts
Labor burden is the cost to a company to carry their labor force aside
from salary actually paid to them. Simply stated, burden is the benefits and
taxes that a company must pay on their payroll. It is important to stress that
burden typically should not include any profit, markup or expenses unrelated to
employee compensation, but should be the actual cost to carry the labor. These
can include, but are not limited to, all of the following:
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
F
P = F(P/F, i, n) =
(1 i) n P
(F/P, i%, n) = (1 + %, i )n
(F/A, i%, n) = (1 + %, i )n  1 / i
fast facts
Factor Tables are derived from the equations shown in the introductory pages
of this section. The Factor Tables are a convenience, however, not all % factors are
available and although interpolation can be used, it is strongly recommended to
become as familiar with the equations. FE – Ref Hb. provides a summary of the
varying equations used in engineering economics.
F = Future Worth
P = Present Worth
The following factor table quick exercise uses the value of $1.00 using 10% for 10yrs.
Using the appropriate Factor Table found in the NCEES Supplied Reference Handbook, find
the appropriate answer. Use the Calculate “x” / Given “y” study aid.
a. 0.3855
b. 6.1446
c. 2.5937 p
d. 0.1627
e. 0.0627
f. 15.9374
g. 22.8913
b. If you deposit $1.00 at the end of every year for 10yrs the present value is?
a. 0.3855
b. 6.1446
c. 2.5937
d. 0.1627
e. 0.0627
f. 15.9374
g. 22.8913
a. 0.3855
b. 6.1446
c. 2.5937
d. 0.1627
e. 0.0627
f. 15.9374
g. 22.8913
d. The annual amount of interest deposited in the account with a starting balance of $1.00
at 10% for 10yrs is?
a. 0.3855
b. 6.1446
c. 2.5937
d. 0.1627
e. 0.0627
f. 15.9374
g. 22.8913
e. If you want to have $1.00 in the bank, deposit $_____every year for 10–years at 10% an
annual yielding account.
a. 0.3855
b. 6.1446
c. 2.5937
d. 0.1627
e. 0.0627
f. 15.9374
g. 22.8913
f. If you deposit $1.00 every year in an account yielding 10%, you will have this amount in
10yrs $__________.
a. 0.3855
b. 6.1446
c. 2.5937
d. 0.1627
e. 0.0627
f. 15.9374
g. 22.8913
g. If you deposit $1 in yr1; $2at the beginning of yr2; $3 at the beginning of yr3, and so
on to the 10th year, the present worth of the deposits is $__________.
a. 0.3855
b. 6.1446
c. 2.5937
d. 0.1627
e. 0.0627
f. 15.9374
g. 22.8913
33.  Question If you want to have $60,000 in 10 years, the amount that should be
put into a 6.0% (effective annual rate) savings account now is most nearly:
a. $33,503.69
b. $43,000.39
c. $48,475.09 p
d. $53,500.60
Solution:
This problem could also be stated: What is the equivalent present worth of $60,000 ten
years from now if monthly money is worth 6% per year?
34.  Question The cost of utilities, taxes and maintenance on a home is $3,000
per year. The amount of money that would have to be invested now at 8% to cover
these expenses for the next 5 years is most likely: (Assume no inflation or tax
increase).
a. $10,980
b. $11,980
c. $12,980
d. $13,980
Solution:
a. $1,899.00
b. $1,900.00
c. $1,995.10 p
d. $2,015.00
Solution:
fast facts
This question illustrates the importance of interpreting the information
provided before running through the computations. Although the nominal annual
rate is given as 7%, the monthly rate needs to be computed. A common approach
would be to use the CERM Appendix Factor Tables to find the monthly payments
which would yield:
(A/P, 7%, 30) = $300,000(A/P, 0.0806, 30) = $24,180/12 = $2,015. / month or a 1%
error.
Conclusion: Be familiar and comfortable with both the Factor Tables and the
Equations which comprise the results in the Tables.
36.  Question You wish to buy a house and you can afford to make
a down payment of $50,000. Your monthly mortgage payment cannot
exceed $2,000. If 30year loans are available at 7.5% annual interest rate
which is compounded monthly, the highest price that you may consider is
most nearly:
a. $332,000
p
b. $334,000
c. $336,000
d. $338,000
Solution:
fast facts
Alternate method  Use one year as the time period.
Then, n = 30 years, and i = (1 + 0.00625)12 – 1 = 7.763%
Then, (A*/P, 0.07763, 30) = 0.0867 [A* = 0.0867 P per year]
Your effective payment per year is:
A* = $2,000 x (F/A, 0.00625, 12) = $2,000 x12.4212 = $24,842
P ≤ (24,842 / 0.0867) + $50,000 = $336,533 same as before;
answer checks.
a. 18.00%
b. 18.25% p
c. 18.75%
d. 19.56%
The actual rate is, (18% / 12) = 1.5% per month. The effective annual rate
is:
i = (1 + .015)12 – 1 = 0.1956 or 19.56% if you do not pay anything each
month. (answer is d)
fast facts
This question illustrates that 18% interest per month is
equivalent to 19.56% effective annual rate. The terms are
synonymous as they are dependent upon a “point in time”.
fast facts
Compound interest is the concept of adding accumulated
interest back to the principal, so that interest is earned on interest
from that moment on. The act of declaring interest to be principal
is called compounding (i.e., interest is compounded). Interest rates
must be comparable in order to be useful, and in order to be
comparable, the interest rate and the compounding frequency must
be disclosed.
Since most people think of rates as a yearly percentage,
many governments require financial institutions to disclose a
(nominally) comparable yearly interest rate on deposits or
advances.
Compound interest rates may be referred to as annual
percentage rate, annual percentage yield, effective interest rate,
effective annual rate, and by other term. Compound interest may
be contrasted with simple interest, where interest is not added to
the principal (there is no compounding).
Note that the effective interest rate i depends on the
frequency of compounding. The following illustrates the effects of
compounding.
P
Uniform Series Future Worth Factor A A A A A
(1 i) n 1
F = A (F/A, i, n) = A
i
BenefitCost Ratio
B PW of benefits p
C PW of costs
fast facts
Engineering Economics applies the principles reviewed in the previous
section and allows the calculation for the time value of money to be evaluated at a
“common” point in time.
The majority of engineering economic analysis questions are alternative
comparisons. In these questions, two or more mutually exclusive investments
compete for limited funds.
To help with the analysis, cash flow diagrams can be drawn to help visualize
and simplify problems having diverse receipts and disbursements. The most
obvious advantage for the diagram is to clearly see the reference point in time.
Remember to pay particular attention to counting the “zero” position.
PRESENT WORTH
a.  $3,900
b.  $4,500 Total annual income: $55,000
Capital cost: $80,000
c. +$5,000 Annual operating cost: $28,600
d. +$6,000 Lifespan: 6 years
Solution:
p
Calculate the annual capital recovery with return:
fast facts
This question illustrates a counterintuitive result for the interpretation of the
data presented. At first glance, the business scenario appears that it should be
profitable. However, the high rate of 30% is intended to cover uncertainty during the
rental period. After computation, the results show that it does not cover uncertainty.
However, if the annual income were $60,000, then the net annual profit would
be 60,000  (30,272 + 28,600) = $1,128 and the truck rental would return a net profit.
This example will be solved using Future Worth analysis at the end of 3
years.
Net Future Worth (NFW) = Future Worth of Benefits – Future Worth of Costs
(answer is d)
ANNUAL COST
a. $10,000
b. $11,000
c. $13,000
d. $14,000
Solution:
MAINTENANCE COSTS
a. $10,000
b. $11,000
c. $12,000
d. $13,000
Step 1: Compute the Present Worth for five years using the single
payment present worth factors.
= $48,040.29
Step 2: With the PW of cost known, compute the EUAC using the
capital recovery factor.
= 48,040(.2439)
= $11,717.03 (answer is c)
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. Cannot be determined without additional information
A $10,000 $ 800
B $12,000 1,000
C $19,000 1,400
Solution:
Estimate the Net Present Worth (NPW) for each alternative and identify the
most economical alternative for construction.
Net Present Worth (NPW) = PW of benefits – PW of costs
Use the present worth factor for uniform series:
(P/A, i =5%, 25 yrs) = 14.094 (from the Factor Tables)
BENEFIT/COST ANALYSIS
The interest rate is 10% and the life of each option is 20 years. The
Benefit/Cost Ratio for the recommended option is most nearly:
a. 1.40
b. 1.46
c. 1.47
d. 1.48
fast facts
All comparisons must be made at a single time reference point. Use PW (Present
Value), FV (Future Value) or AW (Annual Worth) as a basis. (PW and AW are the
most commonly used). The analysis will be performed using Present Worth. If the
Benefit to Cost Ratio (B/C) > 1.0, then the project is a go.
Solution: Find the Benefit /Cost ratio for each option using the
conventional formulas found in the CERM11.
Set the equation to: Option X = (P/A, i. 10%) for each option.
Benefits (Option1) = Present Worth of $100,000 annual revenue for 20
years @10%
From the interest tables or by calculation:
PW (Benefits) = 8.514 x $100,000 = $851,400
Costs (Option 1) = Initial Cost + Present Worth of $10,000/year O&M
From the interest tables or by calculation:
PW (O&M) = 8.514 x $10,000 = $85,140
Solution:
a. 1.19
b. 1.23
c. 1.32
d. 1.38
Solution:
Device A:
PW of cost = $1000
PW of benefits = $300 (P/A, 7%, 5) = $1230
B = 1230 = 1.23
C 1000
Device B:
PW of cost = $2000
PW of benefits = $400 (P/A, 7%, 8) = $2388
B = 2388 = 1.19
C 2000
a. $120,000
b. $600,000
c. $1,200,000
d. $2,200,000
Solution:
EUAC = 80,000 (A/P, 10%, 20) – 20,000 (A/F, 10%, 20) + annual
operating cost
= $27,050 (answer is b)
a. $68,000
b. $93,000
c. $94,000
d. $118,000
Solution:
At the end of month 12, the contractor will have borrowed 12 payments of
$100,000 each. The owner is scheduled to pay the contractor at the end of
month 14 at which time the contractor will repay the bank. Use the
following equation to calculate the future value then extract the cost of
financing the project:
fast facts
Your calculator is an important tool during the exam. Select and use the
calculator approved by the NCEES. Use only your selected calculator for the
next few months to become comfortable with all of its relevant functions, and
give yourself enough time to learn how to use it effectively. There is a learning
curve with any new calculator. You will save time during the exam if you are
familiar with its functions. The SOLVE, POL(), REC() functions are all time
savers. Also, obtain an identical model to bring with you as a backup with
personal distinguishing identification marks.
Solution:
The contractor’s goal is to accept a purchase with Internal Rate of Return
(IRR) larger than the discount rate in which he can borrow money. The first
step is to identify the rate of return on the investment. An example would
be to use a geometrically rising series of values.
A typical means of computing IRR is to identify the discount rate that sets
the Net Present Value (NPV) to $ 0 (zero dollars).
Applying the concept yields an Internal Rate of Return (IRR) that must
satisfy the Contractor’s goal.
Find the NPV using a 15% IRR by establishing a zero sum equation
$0 = +$760
Therefore, $0 IRR = $760 which is > 15% IRR; the purchase is justified.
(answer is a)
fast facts
Percentage of a number
A percentage is a way of expressing a ratio or a fraction as a whole number, by using 100
as the denominator. One percent is one per one hundred or one hundredth of a whole
number; notation: 1%.
Below are the statements of main percentage problems and their solutions.
Percent Change
The equation is: (old value – new value) divided by old value;
Solution: Assigning duration of actives is the estimated or actual time that it will be required to
complete it. Accordingly:
fast facts
Scheduling procedures rely upon estimates of the durations of the various
project activities, as well as, the definitions of the predecessor relationships
among tasks.
where the Area of the formwork divided by the productivity times the crew
size.
This formula can be used for nearly all construction activities. The
calculation of a duration as is only an approximation to the actual activity
duration for a number of reasons. Further, productivity rates may vary. An
example of productivity variation is the effect of learning on productivity.
As a crew becomes familiar with an activity and the work habits of the crew,
their productivity will typically improve. The result is that productivity is a
function of the duration of an activity or project.
(answer is c)
54.  Question The total duration for the four activity project is most
nearly:
a. 1
Durations and Predecessors for a Four Activity Project Illustration
b. 2
c. 3
Activity Predecessor Duration (Days)
d. 4
Solution:
Scheduling work activity has associated time duration. The durations shown in the Table
were estimated for the project diagrammed below. The entire set of activities would then
require 3days, since the activities follow one another directly and require a total of 1.0 +
0.5 + 0.5 + 1.0 = 3days (answer is c). If another activity proceeded in parallel with this
sequence, the 3 day minimum duration of these four activities is unaffected. More than
3 days would be required for the sequence if there was a delay or a lag between the
completion of one activity and the start of another.
– ActivityonBranch
fast facts
Units of Time Convention
Units of time are often stated in terms of days. There are two types of convention:
1. “Beginningofday”  means that the finish date of the activities is defined in terms of
the beginning of the following day. For example, if the first activity in a network has a
duration of two days and if its start date is set at the beginning of Day 1, the following
calculation would be made:
or, (Early start time of Day 1) + (2day duration) = (Early start time of Day 3)
Clearly, the activity will actually be completed at the end of Day 2, but hand calculations
are easier to make if beginningofday convention is used. The project’s “earlystart”
date is for the first activity is 1.
2. “Endofday” – the early start is assigned 0, meaning that the endofday convention is
being used. The project’s “early start” date is for the first activity 0.
PRECEDENCE RELATIONSHIPS
• FinishtoStart – the most common, the predecessor activity must finish before
the successor activity can start
• Finish to Finish – The predecessor activity must finish before the successor
activity can finish
• StarttoStart – The predecessor activity must start before the successor activity
can start
• A lead is when the successor task begins before the predecessor task is complete
• A lag is when a successor task does not start immediately upon the completion of the
predecessor task
Electrical
Window
Doors
Roof
3 4
Material
Delivery Curtain
Wall
Drainage Plumbing
LEGEND
i ES Operation EF j
LS Duration LF
fast facts
The network illustrates the importance of procurement and material delivery in the
schedule. The “Material Delivery” component in the network tracks the delivery of the
Roof and Curtain Wall while the “dummy” activity places a logic link indicating that the
two components must be installed together.
• The series of activities which determines the earliest possible date of project
completion
• Early dates are calculated by a forward pass using a specified start date
• Late dates are calculated by a backwards pass using a specified completion date
(usually the early finish date)
• Uses deterministic dates (for example, the most likely date the activity will occur)
• Start date and calculated Early Finish and Late Finish dates for each activity
Note: There are many sign conventions used to display the type of information in schedule
analysis. Always interpret the project schedule using the legend provided. Samples are shown
below:
ACTIVITY Activity
(duration)
ES DURATION LS ES EF
EF FF TF LF LS LF
EF = ES + Duration
The forward pass works from left to right, calculating when tasks can end using their early start
date and the expected duration.
Note that Task F cannot begin until both C and E are finished.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
The early finish for the forward pass is also the late finish for the project. In
the backward pass we move from right to left using the late finish and the
duration to determine the late start.
LS = LF – Duration
CALCULATING FLOAT
Float for a task is the difference between the early start and the late start. In this case,
only tasks B and C have any float, 2 days in both cases. However, if task B is two days
late in starting, task C loses its float. Float is a property of a network fragment.
Task Duration Early Start Early Finish Late Start Late Finish Float
A 10 1 11 1 11 0
B 5 11 16 13 18 2
C 8 16 24 18 26 2
D 6 11 17 11 17 0
E 9 17 26 17 26 0
F 3 26 29 26 29 0
TF = LF  ES  DUR
LS LF
fast facts
Consider the construction of a building, there are various component
activities involved in the project as a whole. Some of these activities can run
concurrently, for example: purchase the doors, windows, mechanical components.
While others are consecutive, for example: the paint cannot be bought until it has
been chosen, the window cannot be painted until the window is installed.
Delaying the purchase of the windows is likely to delay the entire project  this
activity will be on the critical path and have no float and hence it is a “critical
activity”. A relatively short delay in the purchase of the paint may not
automatically hold up the entire project as there is still some waiting time for the
trim to be installed. There will be some “free float” attached to the activity of
purchasing the paint and hence it is not a critical activity. However, a delay in
choosing the paint in turn inevitably delays buying the paint which, although it may
not subsequently mean any delay to the entire project, it does mean that choosing
the paint has no “free float” attached to it. Despite having no free float of its own,
choosing the paint is involved with a path through the network which does have
“total float”. Therefore, float or slack is the amount of time that a task in a project
network can be delayed without causing a delay to: subsequent tasks (free float)
or project completion date (total float). Activities on the critical path have zero
free and total float. A critical activity typically has free float equal to zero, but an
activity that has zero free float may not be on the critical path.
RESOURCE LEVELING
56.  Question The project network with activities A, B, and C and
durations are as shown. Activity A has 3 days of total float and activity C
has 2 days of total float. Activity A requires 2 workers, B requires 4
workers, and C requires 2 workers. Apply the project network to the
following:
2
A = 2 days
B = 5 days
1 4
C = 3 days
3
8
8
A’ A’
Workers
6
Workers
6
A’ A’ C’ C’ C’
4 4
B’ B’ B’
2 B’ B’ B’ B’ B’
2 B’ B’
C’ C’ C’
0 1 2 3 4 5
0 1 2 3 4 5
Days
Days
Resource usage if all Resource usage if Activity C
Activities start on day one. is delayed 2 days, its total
float.
Solution:
1. (answer is b)
2. (answer is c)
57.  Question
1. A network diagram method that uses only finishtostart relationships and may
use dummy activities to define logical relationships is called:
a. Precedence diagramming method
b. Arrow diagramming method
c. Conditional diagramming method
d. A Gantt chart
Solution: (answer is b). the Arrow Diagramming Method is the only scheduling
technique that employs dummy activities.
3. Which of the following statements are true about the Critical Path Method:
II. Early dates are calculated by a forward pass using a specified start date
a. I
b. I & II
c. I, II, & III
d. none
Solution: (answer is c)
58.  Question
A B C
a. . 6 7 8
6 9
B C A
b. . 6 7 8
6 9
c. . C A B
6 7 8
6 9
d. .
C B A
6 7 8
6 9
Solution: (answer is c)
0 D
2
B
Solution: (answer is d)
59.  Question
Solution: (answer is d)
Solution: (answer is a)
Solution: (answer is b)
60.  Question
a. . 3
B D
1 A 2
5 F 6
C
E
4
b. .
4
C E
1 A 2 B 3
6
D
F
5
c. .
B C
1 A 2
5 F 6
D
E
4
d. .
D E
1 F 2
5 A 6
C
B
4
Solution: (answer is a)
2) The flow net of activities of a project is shown below. The duration of the
activities are written along their arrows. The critical path of activities is:
a. 124578
b. 123678
c. 123578
d. 12453678
O
3 6
M 2 R
L 7 3 S
2 7 8
1 Q
N 7
4 P
6
3 4 5
3
Solution: (answer is c)
O
3 6 R
M 10
14 A 2
S
L 6 7 8
1 2 7
8 N Q
P 12
10 4 5
8
4
CHAPTER 3  MATERIALS
3
CHAPTER
Materials
Materials
Concept
Properties of Materials
Terminology Equipment Production
fast facts
Knowledge of the mechanical properties is obtained by testing materials.
Results from the tests depend on the size and shape of material to be tested
(specimen), how it is held, and the way of performing the test. The most
common procedures, or standards, that are used in Construction are published
by the ASTM.
Strength, hardness, toughness, elasticity, plasticity, brittleness, and
ductility and malleability are mechanical properties used as measurements of
how metals behave under a load. These properties are described in terms of
the types of force or stress that the metal must withstand and how these are
resisted.
Common types of stress are compression, tension, shear, torsion,
impact, or a combination of these stresses, such as fatigue. Compression
stresses develop within a material when forces compress or crush the material.
A column that supports an overhead beam is in compression, and the internal
stresses that develop within the column are compression.
Tension (or tensile) stresses develop when a material is subject to a
pulling load; for example, when using a wire rope to lift a load or when using it
as a guy to anchor an antenna. "Tensile strength" is defined as resistance to
longitudinal stress or pull and can be measured in pounds per square inch of
cross section. Shearing stresses occur within a material when external forces
are applied along parallel lines in opposite directions. Shearing forces can
separate material by sliding part of it in one direction and the rest in the
opposite direction.
Solution: This question aids to further Review Stress Strain Curves of Mechanical
Properties of Materials as shown in Figures 1, 2 and 3 below:
Chapter 3  Materials 
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Stress is force per unit area and is usually expressed in pounds per square inch. If the stress
tends to stretch or lengthen the material, it is called tensile stress; if to compress or shorten the
material, a compressive stress; and if to shear the material, a shearing stress.
Tensile and compressive stresses always act at rightangles to (normal to) the area being
considered; shearing stresses are always in the plane of the area (at rightangles to
compressive or tensile stresses).
Unit strain is the amount by which a dimension of a body changes when the body is subjected
to a load, divided by the original value of the dimension. The simpler term strain is often used
instead of unit strain.
Proportional limit is the point on a stressstrain curve at which it begins to deviate from the
straightline relationship between stress and strain.
Elastic limit is the maximum stress to which a test specimen may be subjected and still return
to its original length upon release of the load. A material is said to be stressed within the elastic
region when the working stress does not exceed the elastic limit, and to be stressed in the
plastic region when the working stress does exceed the elastic limit. The elastic limit for steel is
for all practical purposes the same as its proportional limit.
Yield point is a point on the stressstrain curve at which there is a sudden increase in strain
without a corresponding increase in stress. Not all materials have a yield point.
Yield strength, Sy, is the maximum stress that can be applied without permanent deformation of
the test specimen.
Ultimate strength, Su, (also called tensile strength) is the maximum stress value obtained on a
stressstrain curve. (answer is a)
Modulus of elasticity, E, (also called Young's modulus) is the ratio of unit stress to unit strain
within the proportional limit of a material in tension or compression.
Modulus of elasticity in shear, G, is the ratio of unit stress to unit strain within the proportional
limit of a material in shear.
Poisson's ratio, is the ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain for a given material subjected
to uniform longitudinal stresses within the proportional limit. The term is found in certain
equations associated with strength of materials.
p
62.  Question Which of the following stressstrain curves represents a soft and weak
material:
σ σ
a . c .
ε ε
b . σ d . σ
ε ε
Solution: As depicted, stress is on the yaxis while the xaxis represents strain. When a is
compared to b, the stress is less. Comparatively, both c and d are characteristically brittle and
fail relatively quickly when stress is applied (for example, concrete). (answer is a  “soft and
weak”)
p
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fast facts
The major distinction between ASD and LRFD is that the Allowable Stress
Design (ASD) compares actual and allowable stresses. Load and
Resistance Factor Design (LRFD) compares required strength to actual
strengths. The difference between designing for strengths vs. stresses does
not present much of a problem since the difference is normally just multiplying or
dividing both sides of the limit state inequalities by a section property.
Figure1 illustrates the member strength levels computed by the two methods on a
typical mild steel load vs. deformation diagram. The combined force levels, Load,
Moment, and Shear (Pa, Ma, Va)
for ASD are typically kept below
the yield load for the member by
computing member load capacity
as the nominal strength, Rn,
divided by a factor of safety,
that reduces the capacity to a
point below yielding. For LRFD,
the combined force levels
(ultimate) Load (Pu), Moment
(Mu), and Shear (Vu) are kept
below a computed member load
capacity that is the product of the
nominal strength, Rn, times a
resistance factor, .
When considering member Figure 1: ASD vs. LRFD Strength Comparison
strengths, the governance is to Rn/ = ASD Capacity
always keep the final design's Rn = LRFD Capacity
actual loads below yielding so as Rn = Nominal Capacity
to prevent permanent
deformations in the structure.
Consequently, if the LRFD approach is used, then load factors greater than 1.0 must
be applied to the applied loads to express them in terms that are safely comparable to
the ultimate strength levels. This is accomplished in the load combination equations
that consider the probabilities associated with simultaneous occurrence of different
types of loads. For structures subjected to highly unpredictable loads (live, wind, and
seismic loads for example) the LRFD eff is higher than the ASD which results in
stronger structures.
ELASTIC STRETCH
63.  Question A 70ft long, ¾” diameter, 6 x 7 FC wire rope is
resisting a tension force of 12kips. The elastic stretch of the steel wire
rope given the following properties is most nearly: E = 10,000ksi; A =
0.288in2
a. 0.75in
b. 3.5lb
c. 6.3in
d. 9.8in
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THERMAL EXPANSION
64.  Question A continuous mullion within an aluminum curtain wall
is supported on the edge of a spandrel beam at 40ft vertical intervals on a
20story building façade. The linear expansion (in) of the aluminum mullion
due to the 100°F thermal extremes and using a factor of safety of two is
most nearly:
a. 0.625
b. 1.10
c. 1.25 p
d. 1.55
Solution:
Apply the following thermal expansion equation (page 33 – Thermal deformations) using
the coefficient of linear expansion (α) from the Materials Table on page 38 for aluminum
alloy:
fast facts
Curtain wall is a term used to describe a building façade which does not carry any dead
load from the building other than its own dead load, and to transfer horizontal loads (wind loads)
applied on the curtain wall. These loads are transferred to the main building structure through
connections at floors or columns of the building. A curtain wall is designed to resist air and water
infiltration, wind forces acting on the building, seismic forces (usually only those imposed by the
inertia of the curtain wall), and its own dead load forces.
Curtain walls are typically designed with extruded aluminum members, although the first
curtain walls were made of steel. The aluminum frame is typically in filled with glass, which provides
an architecturally pleasing building, as well as benefits such as day lighting. However, parameters
related to solar gain control such as thermal comfort and visual comfort are more difficult to control
when using highlyglazed curtain walls. Other common infill include: stone veneer, metal panels,
louvers, and operable windows or vents.
Curtain walls differ from storefront systems in that they are designed to span multiple floors,
and take into consideration design requirements such as: thermal expansion and contraction;
building sway and movement; water diversion; and thermal efficiency for costeffective heating,
cooling, and lighting in the building.
a. 12,000
b. 20,000
c. 28,000
To Crane Hook
d. 40,000
Sling A
CG
Sling B
60ft
Spreader Beam = 60ft
40,000lbs
Section View
Not to Scale
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EQUIPMENT PRODUCTION
fast facts
In order to affect jobsite productivity, it is necessary to select equipment
with proper operating characteristics and a size based on site conditions. The
following is a listing of factors which can affect the selection and operation of
equipment.
Dump trucks are usually used as haulers for excavated materials as they
can move freely with relatively high speeds on city streets as well as on
highways.
a. 2,140yd3
b. 2,150yd3
c. 2,160yd3
d. 2,180yd3
( )( )( , )
P = = 2,160 − yd
(answer is c)
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a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
( )( )( , )
= = 1,728
= (40 ) = 347
Solution: Note that all the factors are less than 1, as such; the job site
productivity of the excavator per day is given by:
(. )(. )(. )(. )
(answer is d)
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OPERATING COSTS
a. 3.33gal/hr
b. 3.63gal/hr
c. 4.00gal/hr
d. 4.33gal/hr
Solution:
Step 1: Calculate the Time Factor (TF):
Time Factor = 50 x 100 = 83.3%
60
a. .50
b. .65
c. .78
d. .85
Solution:
Illustrate the Relationship between Productivity Index and Job Size
The labor productivity index “I” for the new job can be obtained by linear interpolation of
the available data as follows:
, ,
( . . ) .
, ,
The result implies that labor is 15% less productive on the large job than on the
standard project.
1.1
Productivity
1.0
.85
3 4 5 6 7
Laborhours (00,000)
Figure 1: Linear Interpolation of Productivity
Index and Job Size
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MATERIAL SPECIFICATIONS
a. I & II
b. I, II, & III
c. I, II, III, & IV
d. I, II, III, IV, & V
Solution: Statement V should read “Rather than specifying the required construction process,
these specifications refer to the required performance or quality of the finished facility. The exact
method by which this performance is obtained is left to the construction contractor.” For
example, traditional specifications for asphalt pavement specified the composition of the asphalt
material, the asphalt temperature during paving, and compacting procedures. In contrast, a
performance specification for asphalt would detail the desired performance of the pavement with
respect to impermeability, strength, etc. How the desired performance level was attained would
be up to the paving contractor. In some cases, the payment for asphalt paving might increase
with better quality of asphalt beyond some minimum
72.  Question Which of the following statements about error analysis are true:
I. The expected value (or: most likely; probable value) of a measurement is the value
that has the highest value of being correct.
II. The most probable values are the observed values corrected by an equal part of
the total error.
III. Measurements of a given quantity are assumed to be normally distributed.
IV. The interval between the extremes is known as the 50% confidence interval.
V. The probable error of a quantity that has a mean [ μ ] and a standard deviation [ s ]
represents that the probability is 50% (or; confidence interval) that a measurement of
that quantity will fall within the range of μ ± 0.6745 s or the probable ratio of
precision is μ / 0.6745 s.
a. I & II
b. I, II, & III
c. I, II, III, IV, & V
d. None of the above
73.  Question A survey crew’s field book shows the interior angles of a polygon traverse
were measured as: 69°, 168°, 99°, 99°and 107°. The most probable interior angles are most
nearly:
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a) 3.18
b) 3.53
c) 4.10
d) 4.26
p
(answer is b)
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fast facts
The following illustrates an easy way to remember the
components and basics of concrete mix design. The Table
shows an “approximation” technique for a utility concrete mix
design based on using a single bag cement field mixer. The
.
illustration is for a utility grade jobsite mix based on the
proportions of 1 : 2 : 3 with a w/c = .50. See CERM11 Table
49.2.
5gal
Volume:
Mix = 50# + 100# + 200# +300# = 650#
Normal weight of concrete 150#/ft3
650# ÷ 150#/ft3 4ft3 x 7sacks 28ft3 1yd3
fast facts
Admixtures in concrete are known as ingredients added to concrete immediately
before or during mixing (other than Portland cement, aggregates, and water).
3. Retarders (ASTM C494, Type B): Retard the setting time to avoid difficulties
with placing and finishing (typically used in hot weather). Example: lignins.
5. Water reducers (ASTM C494, Type A): Reduce water requirement to produce
concrete of a certain slump. Example: lignosulfonates.
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a) .41
b) .48
c) .49
d) .52
Batch Plt. 7 Load 2 Ticket 1487TCC
Volume 10CY Mix Description SOG 3000psi
Truck 41 w/c Date/Time 3/14/11 13:48
Solution:
Calculate the total weight of the water:
Water = 1964lb + (Sand 14,080lb x 3.8%) = 2499lb
p
Calculate the total Weight of Cement:
Type1 4045lb + FlyAsh 755lb = 4,800lb
Calculate the w/c ratio, since the units are the same, the ratio can be directly calculated:
w/c = 2,499lb ÷ 4,800lb = .5206 (answer is d)
fast facts
ASTM C 150 defines Portland cement as "hydraulic cement (cement that not only hardens by
reacting with water but also forms a waterresistant product) produced by pulverizing clinkers
consisting essentially of hydraulic calcium silicates, usually containing one or more of the forms of
calcium sulfate as an inter ground addition." Clinkers are nodules (diameters, 0.21.0 inch [525 mm])
of a sintered material that is produced when a raw mixture of predetermined composition is heated to
p
high temperature. The low cost and widespread availability of the limestone, shale’s, and other
naturally occurring materials make Portland cement one of the lowestcost materials widely used over
the last century throughout the world. Concrete becomes one of the most versatile construction
materials available in the world. Fly ash is one of the residues generated in the combustion of coal.
a. 25,480 psi
b. 4,250 psi
c. 3,800 psi
d. 3,250 psi
SOLUTION:
P
2
f’c = P/A = 120,000 lbf ÷ (π/4)(6 in) = 4,247psi
(answer = b)
12”
6”
p
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P
p
D=6”
12”
fast facts
The extent and size of cracking in concrete structures are affected by the tensile strength of
the concrete. The maximum load, P, that causes the cylinder to split in half is used to
calculate the split tensile strength. The tensile strength of concrete is relatively low, about
10% to 15% of the compressive strength.
Solution: d = answer
81.  Question An aggregate which may contain some moisture in the pores but
has a dry surface is known as:
a. Very dry aggregate
b. Dry aggregate
c. Saturated surface dry aggregate
d. Moist aggregate
Solution: b = answer
82.  Question The aggregate having all the pores filled with water but has a dry
surface is known as:
a. Very dry aggregate
b. Dry aggregate
c. Saturated surface dry aggregate
d. Moist aggregate
Solution: c = answer
Chapter 3  Materials 
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Solution: answer is a
Solution: b = answer
Solution: answer is d; note that increase in the volume of sand due to the presence of moisture
is referred to as the bulking of sand. The ratio of the volume of moist sand to the volume of dry
sand is known as the bulking factor. As such, fine sands bulk more than coarse sands.
ASPHALT PERFORMANCE
86.  Question A new local highway exit ramp is under construction. According
to the project specification, the American Association of State Highway and
Transportation Officials (AASHTO) design structural number for the road is 4. The
material specifications are as follows:
The Superpave plant mix asphalt concrete surface course with an experience
coefficient of 0.44 is to be placed on the top of the specified subbase and base course
materials. The required surface course thickness (in.) to meet the AASHTO project
specification requirements is most nearly:
a. 2
b. 3 p
c. 4
d. 5
Solution: The AASHTO structural number can be used to find the structural
Number (SN) to solve for the surface thickness. The SN is the sum of products of the
layer thicknesses and strength coefficients (ai = layer coefficient; Di = thickness of layer
(inches)):
D1 = 4 – (0.14)(6in)  (0.11)(12in)
0.44
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87.  Question The Highway Authority has scheduled for the next 3months to
replace the wearing surface of a major Interstate roadway. The scope of work for the
overlay project is to mill and pave while maintaining the AASHTO structural number of
6.6. The original pavement consists of 10in Portland cement treated base having a
strength coefficient of 0.20, and an 8in dense graded aggregate subbase. For a 3.2
mile portion of the project, the paving contract specification is to mill and replace 6in of
the surface with recycled asphalt concrete having a surface course strength coefficient
of 0.42 with the remaining 3in of the original pavement having a strength of 0.30. The
minimum strength coefficient for the subbase is most nearly:
a. 0.075
b. 0.102
c. 0.150 p
d. 0.205
Solution: Restate the information in the question and outline the numerical terms:
The AASHTO pavement structural number can be used to find the structural
Number (SN) to solve for the surface thickness (ai = layer coefficient; Di = thickness of
layer (inches):
INDEX
INDEX 
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INDEX 
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Practice Exams PE Civil Exam
________________________________________________________________
PE Civil
Practice Exams PE Civil Exam
________________________________________________________________
EIT Experts
P.O. Box 20803
San Jose, CA, 95120
ISBN : 9780996121576
i
Practice Exams PE Civil Exam
_______________________________________________________________
Preface
Beginning January 2015, the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and
Surveying (NCEES) changed the Civil Engineering Specification for Civil PE
exam. Now Civil PE are offered in the following Disciplines;
Transportation
Construction
Structure
Geotechnical Engineering
Water Resource and Environmental
a) Project Planning
b) Means and Methods
c) Soil Mechanics
d) Structural Mechanics
e) Hydraulics and Hydrology
f) Geometrics
g) Materials
h) Site Development
In this book we have presented four Style PE Civil Practice exam to prepare you
for the breadth part of exam. Problems in each specification have been separated.
This way you may concentrate on your area of strength if you want to.
I hope you find this book helpful for passing the PE Civil exam.
I
Practice Exams PE Civil Exam
_______________________________________________________________
Table of Content
II
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
1
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
1) Find the remaining amount of soil after excavation and embankment in cubic yard
considering swell coefficient as 0.26 and shrinkage coefficient as 0.1.
STA 12+10
STA 12+40
Fill= 0, C= 60 cf
STA 12+70
A) 32 B) 47 C) 78 D) 62
2
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
2) Find the elevation of BM2 if the following readings are given if the elevation of
BM1 is 01+30:
Station BS FS
BM1 3.3
TP 2.4 1.5
BM2 1.2
A) 1+30 B) 1+31.2
C) 1+33 D) 1+31.8
3
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
3) For the precast concrete bridge box girder which one is the most likely closer to
the required volume of concrete for one box? Thickness is 8” for two sides and bottom
chord and 4” for the top chord. Each corner has 3 by 3 inches hunches. Length of bridge
is given equal to 200’
A) 1500 cf
B) 1000 cf
C) 1825 cf
D) 1250 cf
4) Which one of these 4 cost functions shows more increasing in rate of expenses
over the time? (Horizontal axis shows time and vertical axis shows costs.)
A) B) C) D)
4
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
5) For the following paths find the critical path using the CPM?
Activity Time
A. 4 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 24 weeks
E. 28 weeks
F. 4 weeks
G. 8 weeks
H. 4 weeks
A) 44 B) 48
C) 60 D) 64
A) 35 B) 41
C) 23 D) 15
7) How many 4 by 8 in samples required for a 7000 sf shear wall with 180 cy3 of
concrete?
A) 2 specimens
B) 3 specimens
C) 4 specimens
D) 5 specimens
5
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
8) For the wall form work, if the height of wall is equal to 10 ft. and the distance
between inclined supports is 3 ft. find the force in the support assuming the 45 degree
angle for it.
A) 7500 lb.
B) 10607 lb.
C) 1500 lb.
D) 150 lb.
9) If the maximum moisture content is given equal to 17% and specific gravity of
soil is given equal to 2.67 find the dry density according to the modified proctor test
procedure.
A) 125 pcf
B) 95 pcf
C) 115 pcf
D) 150 pcf
10) In the temporary structure in the referred picture if the soil is undrained stiff clay
which one is correct?
6
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
11) Which one of the following compactors shall be used for the compaction just
behind the retaining wall?
12) A fine grained soil has a Liquid Limit (LL) of 70% and a Plasticity limit (PL) of
30%. The soil can be classified as:
A) CL
B) CI
C) CH
D) MI
13) For a fully braced retaining wall in the basement of a 10 stories building, which
formula will give the pressure at the bottom of the wall. (Height of wall is equal to 10 ft.)
7
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
14) The ground water level is at 9ft. below ground. What is the total stress at 15 ft.
below ground? Consider a footing on top layer with the width of 10 ft. which makes a
pressure of 150 psf. Use both figures to find the pressure.
ft
ft
A) 2200 psf
B) 1778 psf
C) 1200 psf
D) 1860 psf
8
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
15) A soil sample has 30% passing the No. 4 sieve and 10% passing the No. 200
sieve. The coefficient of uniformity is greater than 4. Classify the soil according to the
Unified Soil Classification System.
A) SPSM
B) SWSM
C) SP
D) GW
16) For the shown footing, find the maximum compressive stress. (P= 1000 lb. M=
500 lbft. B=D=width of footing = 9 ft.)
A) 20.3 psf
B) 8.2 psf
C) 16.5 psf
D) 12.3 psf
17) Referring to the figure, find the maximum tension force at the bottom chord if the
force is equal to 1000 lb. the length of span is 20 ft.(4@5’), and height of the truss is
given equal to 5 ft.
A) 1200 N
B) 1000 N
C) 5000 N
D) 2000 N
9
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
18) Which model has just compressive force in the diagonal members?
19) If a design engineer wants to use one of the following sections as a simple beam
on the sloped roof, which section(s) may give a better results?
A) I section
B) Z and angle sections
C) I and channel sections
D) Channel, Z, and Angle sections
10
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
20) For the beam in the referred picture find the maximum bending moment at the
midspan.
A) 6 KNm
B) 16.6 KNm
C) 14.3 KNm
D) 8.3 KNm
21) What is the ratio between plastic section modulus and elastic section modulus and
(shape factor) for the rectangular section as follows:
A) 1.5
B) 1.33
C) 2
D) 1.7
11
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
22) A contractor need to make a concrete with target strength of 4 KSI and 0.5KSI as
standard deviation. What should be the average of compressive strength tests for the
concrete mix design?
A) 4.7 KSI
B) 3.3 KSI
C) 4.1 KSI
D) 4.0 KSI
23) Concrete curing shall be maintained above 50 oF and in a moist condition for at
least:
24) Find the maximum bending moment on a beam with the length of 20 ft. for the
two 2000 lb. moving load (crane wheels) with the distance of 4 ft.
A) 20000 lbft
B) 16000 lbft
C) 19200 lbft
D) 18000 lbft
12
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
25) If the PVC station of 100+00 at 59 ft. elevation is connected to the PVT station at
104+00 referring to the following figure, find the station of the crest.
A) 101+23 ft.
B) 102+00 ft.
C) 101+50 ft
D) 101+15 ft.
26) A car is traveling at 50 mph in a county at night on a steep wet road with 6%
uphill slope. Find the stopping sight distance.
A) 300 ft.
B) 389 ft.
C) 112 ft.
D) 241 ft.
13
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
A) S5E
B) N85W
C) S85E
D) N5W
28) A horizontal curve is designed with a 1500 ft. radius. The tangent length is 400
ft. and the PT station is 20+00. Find the length of the curve?
A) 382 ft.
B) 540 ft.
C) 420 ft.
D) 781 ft.
14
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
29) In the following intersections layouts, which one is strongly recommended in the
both urban and the rural areas for the local road or street.
A B C D
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 9%
15
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
A) B) C)
34) A 3h storm over a 150 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 7*106 m3
With a peak discharge of 360 m3/Sec. What is the total excess precipitation?
A) 1.4 cm
B) 2.6 cm
C) 3.6 cm
D) 4.6 cm
35) A 3h storm over a 150 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 7*106 m3 with
a peak discharge of 360 m3/Sec. find the unit hydrograph discharge?
A) 78 m3/s.cm
B) 120 m3/s.cm
C) 210 m3/s.cm.
D) 260 m3/s.cm
16
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
36) What is the flow rate for a street V channel finished (clean) concrete channel with
a width of 1’, channel slope of 0.5%, with a “normal” water depth of 0.5’?
A) 0.55 cfs
B) 1.20 cfs
C) 0.25 cfs
D) 2.41 cfs
38) What is the definition According to the US environment protection (EPA) which
area needs permit for the land disturbing and it will called as “disturb”?
39) 8 MGD (million gallon per day) of water flows into the new schedule40 steel
pipe network as shows below. Find the rate of flow in the upper branch.
A) 1.1 MGD
B) 6.2 MGD
C) 5.0 MGD
D) 1.95 MGD
17
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
40) In a drainage project for an underground subway station if the required amount of
well drawdown is 3 ft. in the 50 ft. depth of the aquifer. The hydraulic conductivity is
given equal to 120 gal/(dayft2), well radius is equal to 0.3 ft. and the water table recover
at radius of 1000 ft. find the required pumping flow rate ?
A) 13524 gal/day
B) 71020 gal/day
C) 18520 gal/day
D) 5624 gal/day
18
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
Solutions
First Style exam
19
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
1) Find the remaining amount of soil after excavation and embankment in cubic yard
considering swell coefficient as 0.26 and shrinkage coefficient as 0.1.
STA 12+10
STA 12+40
Fill= 0, C= 60 cf
STA 12+70
A) 32 B) 47 C) 78 D) 62
The Answers is A
This method is used widely and most of the estimators use this method where length is
much greater than width.
Earthworks Formulas
( )
=
L=Distance between
Also, 1 mile = 5280 ft. = 1760yards and 1 yard = 3 ft.
Each station introduce with the distance from the origin in feet, so STA 12+10 means:
1210 ft. Then distance between 2 stations in this problem is given equal to 30 ft. using the
average area method:
Vcut(ab)= (0+60)/2 * 30 = 30*30 = 900 cf
Vfill(ab)= (50+0)/2*30 = 25*30= 750 cf
Vcut(bc)= (20+60)/2 * 30 = 40*30 = 1200 cf
20
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
21
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
2) Find the elevation of BM2 if the following readings are given if the elevation of
BM1 is 01+30:
Station BS FS
BM1 3.3
TP 2.4 1.5
BM2 1.2
A) 1+30 B) 1+31.2
C) 1+33 D) 1+31.8
The Answers is B
The height between two points are given equal to: Back sight (BS)  Foresight (FS) =
height, positive answer means FS is higher than the BS.
BM1 to TP = BSFS= 3.31.5= +1.8
TP to BM2 = BSFS= 2.41.2= +1.2
Elevation at BM2 = Elevation at BM1 + height = 130 + 1.8 + 1.2 = 133=1+33
22
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
3) For the precast concrete bridge box girder which one is the most likely closer to
the required volume of concrete for one box? Thickness is 8” for two sides and bottom
chord and 4” for the top chord. Each corner has 3 by 3 inches hunches. Length of bridge
is given equal to 200’
A) 1500 cf
B) 1000 cf
C) 1825 cf
D) 1250 cf
The Answers is C
To find the answer the section can be divided in the certain geometric shapes. Then the
area of each section can be found. Volume is equal to the area multiplied by the length of
girder. All dimensions in inches have been converted to ft by dividing by 12.
A= ((36*4+(6648 ) *8*2+(36*8)+4*(3*3)/2))/(12*12) = 9.125 sf (area of section)
Volume = 9.125*200= 1825 cf
23
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
4) Which one of these 4 cost functions shows more increasing in rate of expenses over
the time? (Horizontal axis shows time and vertical axis shows costs.)
A) B) C) D)
The Answers is A
The question shows different cost functions. The choice B shows the decreasing in rate
over the time (Log function), choices C shows the constant expenses over the time.
Choice A, is an exponential function and shows for rate of change over the time than D.
24
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
5) For the following paths find the critical path using the CPM?
Activity Time
I. 4 weeks
J. 16 weeks
K. 8 weeks
L. 24 weeks
M. 28 weeks
N. 4 weeks
O. 8 weeks
P. 4 weeks
A) 44 B) 48
C) 60 D) 64
The Answers is D
Paths’ Lengths
ACDFH = 44
ACDGH = 48
ACEFH = 48
ACEGH = 52
BCDFH = 56
BCDGH = 60
BCEFH = 60
BCEGH = 64
25
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
A) 35 B) 41
C) 23 D) 15
The Answers is C
The best way to estimate the hourly cost is to find all expenditures and cost for a year,
then the hourly cost can be estimated prorate:
The total hauler cost = 109000+5000= $114,000
The hauler price per year: 114,000+/12= $ 9500 per year
Tires will work 4500 hr and every year 1500 years of operation is expected so:
4500/1500=3 years is the life time for the tires
Therefore, tire costs for a year is become: 21000/3 = $7000
Total annual expenditures = $9500+$7,000+$18000 = $34,500
Hourly rate = 34500/1500 hr/year = 23
26
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
7) How many 4 by 8 in samples required for a 7000 sf shear wall with 180 cy3 of
concrete?
A) 2 specimens
B) 3 specimens
C) 4 specimens
D) 5 specimens
The Answers is B
27
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
8) For the wall form work, if the height of wall is equal to 10 ft. and the distance
between inclined supports is 3 ft. find the force in the support assuming the 45 degree
angle for it.
A) 7500 lb.
B) 10607 lb.
C) 1500 lb.
D) 150 lb.
The Answers is B
Cc= 150*10 = 1500 psf/ft., is the lateral pressure at the base of the wall.
The pressure is distributed in the triangular form so the problem is like a beam with
triangular load.
We need to find the reaction of this beam then we can find the force in the lateral support.
So we can find RA as: RA
(1500 * 10/2)*1/3*3 = 7500 lb.
28
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
9) If the maximum moisture content is given equal to 17% and specific gravity of
soil is given equal to 2.67 find the dry density according to the modified proctor test
procedure.
A) 125 pcf
B) 95 pcf
C) 115 pcf
D) 150 pcf
The Answers is C
According to the modified proctor test procedure, the dry density is equal to:
62.4
= = = 114.59 /
1 0.17 + 1/2.67
+
29
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
10) In the temporary structure in the referred picture if the soil is undrained stiff clay
which one is correct?
The Answers is B
This is the definition for the temporary structures. In the clay soil the pressure has
trapezoid form and in sand it is uniform. In none of the conditions it has triangular form.
30
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
11) Which one of the following compactors shall be used for the compaction just
behind the retaining wall?
The Answers is C
As general rule, heavy compactor equipment cannot be driven within 3 feet (0.3 m) of the
back of the wall and based on definitions in this zone (settlement zone) only the small
plate compactor shall be used.
31
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
12) A fine grained soil has a Liquid Limit (LL) of 70% and a Plasticity limit (PL) of
30%. The soil can be classified as:
A) CL
B) CI
C) CH
D) MI
The Answers is C
For the fine grained soil according to the unified chart easily the soil classification can be
defined as follows:
PI= LLPL So, PI = 7030 = 40%
32
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
13) For a fully braced retaining wall in the basement of a 10 stories building, which
formula will give the pressure at the bottom of the wall. (Height of wall is equal to 10 ft.)
The Answers is B
Rankine and Coulomb theories assume that wall moves slightly and then active and
passive pressure will start acting on the wall. If the wall is fully braced or considered as at
rest, then K0 or at rest soil pressure coefficient shall be considered. Since in all
basements, walls are designed as perimeter walls and braced with floors, and other walls,
K0 shall be considered for them.
33
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
14) The ground water level is at 9ft. below ground. What is the total stress at 15 ft.
below ground? Consider a footing on top layer with the width of 10 ft. which makes a
pressure of 150 psf. Use both figures to find the pressure.
ft
ft
A) 2200 psf
B) 1778 psf
C) 1200 psf
D) 1860 psf
The Answers is B
To solve the problem, the amount of density for each layer shall be estimated.
For the first layer (Brown Silty Sand):
34
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
( ) = ℎ = 125.32 ∗ 9 = 1127.88
( ) = ℎ = 104.65 ∗ 6 = 627.9
Depth = 15’ width of footing is = 10ft. so stress shall be found in 3d and it is equal to =
0.15 q = 0.15*150 = 22.5 psf
35
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
15) A soil sample has 30% passing the No. 4 sieve and 10% passing the No. 200
sieve. The coefficient of uniformity is greater than 4. Classify the soil according to the
Unified Soil Classification System.
A) SPSM
B) SWSM
C) SP
D) GW
The Answers is D
According to the Unified Soil classification table the soil can be classified as GW. See
the below table.
10% passing Sieve #200 30% passing through #4 means less than 50% on #4
Uniformity is> 4
10% passing means more than 50% larger than #200 sieve and 30% passing from #4
means less than half is smaller than #4 so the soil can be (GW, GP, GM, or GC). The
uniformity bigger than 4 shows the soil is classified as GW.
36
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
16) For the shown footing, find the maximum compressive stress. (P= 1000 lb. M=
500 lbft. B=D=width of footing = 9 ft.)
A) 20.3 psf
B) 8.2 psf
C) 16.5 psf
D) 12.3 psf
The Answers is C
To find the stresses under the foundation three different conditions might be happened
which are shown in the below picture.
37
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
17) Referring to the figure, find the maximum tension force at the bottom chord if the
force is equal to 1000 lb. the length of span is 20 ft.(4@5’), and height of the truss is
given equal to 5 ft.
A) 1200 N
B) 1000 N
C) 5000 N
D) 2000 N
The Answers is B
To find the force in the bottom chord easily find the bending moment at midspan.
M/height of truss will give the forces in top and bottom chord. So:
M= PL/4 = 1000*20/4 = 5000 lb.
F= M/d = 5000/5 = 1000 lb.
38
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
18) Which model has just compressive force in the diagonal members?
The Answers is B
Pratt truss has all tension members while Howe has all compression members. All other
types have a mix of compression and tension diagonals. Since the question asked for just
compression the answer is Howe truss.
39
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
19) If a design engineer wants to use one of the following sections as a simple beam
on the sloped roof, which section(s) may give a better results?
A) I section
B) Z and angle sections
C) I and channel sections
D) Channel, Z, and Angle sections
The Answers is D
Angles and Z sections have 2 principle axis other than the X and Y axis, because are
asymmetric sections. So, if they use on top of the sloped roof the actual load will work on
their real axis and consequently it creates the minimum bending moments. With a proper
selection of roof angle and principle axis angles the biaxial bending moment on sloped
roof will be converted to the uniaxial bending moment. Channel has a center of rotation
which will help to decrease the effect of horizontal vector on the sloped roofs. So. All
three sections are suitable for the sloped roofs. I sections are the most deficient sections
on the sloped roofs, because always they face the biaxial bending moment and
consequently the designed sections have more weight that the Z, angle, or channels.
40
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
20) For the beam in the referred picture find the maximum bending moment at the
midspan.
A) 6 KNm
B) 16.6 KNm
C) 14.3 KNm
D) 8.3 KNm
The Answers is C
Using the super position law, the mid span bending moment is the sum of the bending
moment from the simple span beam and the cantilever over hang.
So :
Simple span beam (mid span) = wl^2/8 = 3*4^2/8 = 6 KNm
Overhang creates negative bending moment and the concentrated moment is positive so:
The negative bending moment at support = MwL^2/2 = 20 3*1.5^2/2 = +16.625
At the mid span half of this bending moment will be added to the mid span bending
moment (simple beam effect) so, the total moment = 16.625/2 + 6 = 14.3 KNm
41
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
21) What is the ratio between plastic section modulus and elastic section modulus and
(shape factor) for the rectangular section as follows:
A) 1.5
B) 1.33
C) 2
D) 1.7
The Answers is A
42
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
22) A contractor need to make a concrete with target strength of 4 KSI and 0.5KSI as
standard deviation. What should be the average of compressive strength tests for the
concrete mix design?
A) 4.7 KSI
B) 3.3 KSI
C) 4.1 KSI
D) 4.0 KSI
The Answers is A
43
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
23) Concrete curing shall be maintained above 50 oF and in a moist condition for at
least:
The Answers is D
44
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
24) Find the maximum bending moment on a beam with the length of 20 ft. for the
two 2000 lb. moving load (crane wheels) with the distance of 4 ft.
A) 20000 lbft
B) 16000 lbft
C) 19200 lbft
D) 18000 lbft
The Answers is D
The maximum bending moment for the moving load does not occur in the mid span. The
maximum bending moment for the 2 equal moving load is equal to:
= (1 − )
2 2
Where “a” is the distance between loads, L is the length of span, and P is the moving
load. So, M= 2000*20/2*(14/(2*20)) = 18000 lbft
45
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
25) If the PVC station of 100+00 at 59 ft. elevation is connected to the PVT station at
104+00 referring to the following figure, find the station of the crest.
A) 101+23 ft.
B) 102+00 ft.
C) 101+50 ft
D) 101+15 ft.
The Answers is A
P3149, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.4.6.
400 ft. vertical curve, therefore:
• PVI is at STA 100+00 and PVT is at STA 102+00
Elevation of the PVI is 59’ + 0.02(200) = 63 ft.
Elevation of the PVT is 63’ – 0.045(200) = 54 ft.
High point elevation requires figuring out the equation for a vertical curve
• At x = 0, y = c => c=59 ft.
• At x = 0, dY/dx = b = G1 = +2.0%
• a = (G2 – G1)/2L = (4.5 – 2)/(2(4)) =  0.8125
2
• y = 0.8125x + 2x + 59
• High point is where dy/dx = 0
• dy/dx = 1.625x + 2 = 0
• x = 1.23 stations = 01+23
Station of the crest = (1+23)+100+00=101+23
46
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
26) A car is traveling at 50 mph in a county at night on a steep wet road with 6%
uphill slope. Find the stopping sight distance.
A) 300 ft.
B) 389 ft.
C) 112 ft.
D) 241 ft.
The Answers is B
P32, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.2.2.
According to the AASHTO 2004 code, the stopping sight distance for horizontal curves is
equal to:
= 1.47. (2.5). +
30(0.347 + )
G is the slope of the road, for the uphill road = +0.06 (it will be negative for the downhill)
Friction coefficient = f = 0.1
V= 50 mph
S= 1.47 . 2.5 . 50 + 502/(30*(0.347+0.06) = 388.5 ft.
47
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
A) S5E
B) N85W
C) S85E
D) N5W
The Answers is C
A bearing of a line is the direction of the line with respect to any given meridian and is
described by 900 quadrant in which the line falls and by the acute angle between the line
and the meridian within the quadrant.
Since line BC lies in the second quadrant and so the angle should be measured between
line and S, So the angle is: 905 = 85o and the direction is S and E, So, S85E is the
answer.
48
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
28) A horizontal curve is designed with a 1500 ft. radius. The tangent length is 400
ft. and the PT station is 20+00. Find the length of the curve?
A) 382 ft.
B) 540 ft.
C) 420 ft.
D) 781 ft.
The Answers is D
P318, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.3.
Since we know R and T we can use T = R.tan(delta/2) to get delta
400=1500 tan(delta/2) then delta = 29.86 degrees
D = 5729.6/R. Therefore D = 3.82
L = 100(delta)/D = 100(29.86)/3.82 = 781 ft.
49
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
29) In the following intersections layouts, which one is strongly recommended in the
both urban and the rural areas for the local road or street.
A B C D
The Answers is C
P101, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 10.2.
According to the AASHTO definitions, the full and half cloverleaf intersections and
trumpet are recommended for the rural highways (A, B, and D) and not recommended for
the local roads. The diamond (C) is recommended for the urban and rural local roads.
50
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 9%
The Answers is A
P343, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.3.5.
For 70 mph, f = 0.16
2
Rv = V /15(f+e) or e + f = V2/15 R , then: e (super elevation) = 45^2/(15*700)0.16 =
0.03
51
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
The Answers is D
52
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
The Answers is D
P359, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.3.8.
53
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
A) B) C)
The Answers is D
According to the fluid mechanic principles, the pressure is not related to the shape, so at
the depth of “h” the amount of pressure is the same for all shapes.
54
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
34) A 3h storm over a 150 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 7*106 m3
With a peak discharge of 360 m3/Sec. What is the total excess precipitation?
A) 1.4 cm
B) 2.6 cm
C) 3.6 cm
D) 4.6 cm
The Answers is D
55
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
35) A 3h storm over a 150 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 7*106 m3 with
a peak discharge of 360 m3/Sec. find the unit hydrograph discharge?
A) 78 m3/s.cm
B) 120 m3/s.cm
C) 210 m3/s.cm.
D) 260 m3/s.cm
The Answers is A
56
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
36) What is the flow rate for a street V channel finished (clean) concrete channel with
a width of 1’, channel slope of 0.5%, with a “normal” water depth of 0.5’?
A) 0.55 cfs
B) 1.20 cfs
C) 0.25 cfs
D) 2.41 cfs
The Answers is A
n is 0.015,
hydraulic radius= (d Cos α)/2
1’
α = Arch tan (0.5/0.5) =45o
So, HR = 0.5* (cos 45) / 2 = 0.176
d=0.5’
S is 0.005 ft/ft, so
V = 2.2 ft/sec
Q = V*A= 2.2 ft/sec*(0.5*0.5)/2*2 sq.ft. = 0.55 cfs
57
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
The Answers is C
58
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
38) What is the definition According to the US environment protection (EPA) which
area needs permit for the land disturbing and it will called as “disturb”?
The Answers is B
US environment protection (EPA) effective March 10, 2003 any activity in the area of 1
or more acres needs NPDES (National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System) permit.
59
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
39) 8 MGD (million gallon per day) of water flows into the new schedule40 steel
pipe network as shows below. Find the rate of flow in the upper branch.
A) 1.1 MGD
B) 6.2 MGD
C) 5.0 MGD
D) 1.95 MGD
The Answers is B
Parallel pipes have three principles that govern the distribution of flow between the two
branches. 1 head loss are the same for each branch 2 head loss at each junction is the
same as each branches, 3 the total flow rate is the sum of the flow rates in the two
branches. According to the 3rd principle, Vt = Va + Vb
So:
Diameter = 8” flow area = 50.24 in2
Diameter = 4” flow area = 12.56 in2
Using the HazenWilliams expression for the velocity of flow in the pipe:
V= (0.55CD0.63hf0.54)/L0.54
V1= 0.55 * 80 * (8/12)0.63 * hf0.54 / 2000.54 = 1.95 hf0.54
The same for lower branch:
V2=2.28 hf0.54
. hf1=hf2
V1*A1/V2*A2 = (1.95 * 50.24) / (2.28*12.56) = 3.42, V2=0.29 V1
Vt =V1+V2 = V1.A1+0.29 V1.A2 = 1.29 V1.A1=1.29 Q1, then Q1= 5MGD/1.29 =
6.2MGD
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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40) In a drainage project for an underground subway station if the required amount of
well drawdown is 3 ft. in the 50 ft. depth of the aquifer. The hydraulic conductivity is
given equal to 120 gal/(dayft2), well radius is equal to 0.3 ft. and the water table recover
at radius of 1000 ft. find the required pumping flow rate ?
A) 13524 gal/day
B) 71020 gal/day
C) 18520 gal/day
D) 5624 gal/day
The Answers is A
( − )
=
1
( )
2
Where, K= hydraulic conductivity = 120 gal/ (dayft2)
For the maximum drawdown of well we need to check it at the well center, so:
y1= 5 ft. and, y2=503 = 47 ft.
Since we want to find the Q at the center of well we do not need the information about
the radius of well and radial distance and r1=r2
120(50 − 47 )
= = 13524.17 /
1000
( )
0.3
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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STA 12+10
STA 12+40
Fill= 0, C= 60 cf
STA 12+70
A) 31 B) 10 C) 20 D) 50
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
2) The elevation of station C is given equal to 01+20. If the back sight on A is 3.5 ft.
and the foresight for C in 5.1, another foresight reading on B shows 2.2 ft. Find the
elevation of the point B.
A) 1+20.5 B) 1+22.9
C) 1+17.1 D) 1+18
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
3) For the prestressed concrete bridge girder which one is the most likely closer to
the required volume of concrete for this girder if the length of girder is given equal to 30
ft. Height = 3 ft.
A) 3.95 cf
B) 152.3 cf
C) 118.8 cf
D) 145.8 cf
4) A precast concrete wall with the thickness of 8”, height of 8’ and width of 6’. A
hauler truck should carry these precast walls. The capacity of the hauler is 20 US tons.
How many pieces of wall can be transported by the hauler?
A) 10 B) 8
C) 12 D) 3
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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A  8 6 50 100
B A 2 1 80 140
C A 6 4 80 100
D B 2 1 100 150
E C 6 3 90 200
F E 3 1 80 160
A) $200 B) $120
C) $180 D) $140
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
6) The amount of sales for contract has given equal to $1,000,000 including
$100,000 for tax and $70,000 for the insurance. At the end of the project contractor has
owned $50,000 of equipment and tools (assets) in addition $400000 assets that he does.
Contractor paid $650,000 for the man power, equipment, and materials for this project.
Find the gross profit, operation profit, net profit, and return on assets.
7) The test strength of the 4 by 8 in. cylinder sample is taken as the average of the
strength of
A) 2 specimens
B) 3 specimens
C) 4 specimens
D) 5 specimens
67
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
8) For the scaffolding as shown in the picture estimate the axial force in the
bracings.
CH=200 lb
10’ 10’
A) 200 lb.
B) 141lb
C) 100 lb.
D) 282 lb.
9) In a proctor test the maximum dry density is given equal to 125 lb/cf with 20% of
water content. If the sample dry density of the road pavement equal to 123, what is the
amount of the relative compaction?
A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 98%
D) 100%
68
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
11) Design of a footing on the loose sand requires which one of the following
activities:
A) It is not possible
B) Loose sand should always be compacted prior to put footing on it.
C) No need for compaction because we design the footing based on the soil
strength.
D) Compaction is required if the modified proctor test is less than 50% for the
natural ground.
12) A fine grained soil has a Liquid Limit (LL) of 40% and a plasticity Index of 30%.
The soil can be classified as:
A) CL
B) CI
C) CH
D) MI
69
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
13) The diagram below shows the results of a standard compaction test. The Optimum
Moisture Content (O.M.C.) of the soil is
A) 12%
B) 17.5%
C) 18%
D) 22%
14) The ground water level is at 9ft. below ground. What is the total stress at the
bottom of the blue clay (i.e. at 23ft. below ground)?
ft
ft
ft
A) 2200 psf
B) 1759 psf
C) 1200 psf
D) 1860 psf
70
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
15) A soil sample has 70% passing the No. 4 sieve and 10% passing the No. 200
sieve. The coefficient of uniformity is 4 and the fines are nonplastic. Classify the soil
according to the Unified Soil Classification System.
A) SPSM
B) SWSM
C) SP
D) GWGM
16) For the shown footing, find the maximum compressive stress. (P= 1000 lb. M=
3000 lbft. B=D=width of footing = 9 ft.)
A) 60 psf
B) 30 psf
C) 49 psf
D) 12 psf
17) Referring to the figure, find the force in the member DB.
A) 1200 N
B) 800 N
C) 400 N
D) 600 N
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
18) Referring to the figure, adding a horizontal force P at point C and considering the
combination of all loads will:
19) If a design engineer wants to use one of the following sections as a simple beam,
which section has biaxial bending moment even if the load applies along the Y direction?
A) B) C) D)
20) For the beam in the referred picture which one shows the correct bending moment
diagram?
A B
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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C D
A) Shear force
B) Slope
C) Deflection
D) None of these
22) For an existing concrete water reservoir the contractor has tested the existing
compressive strength of concrete in 50 different location. The average of these tests
shows the value of 4.1 KSI and the standard deviation shows the value of 0.5 KSI. If the
contractor wants to take the risk of 10% for the rehabilitation of the structure, find the
target strength of the structure that should be considered for the new design? (Use normal
distribution function.)
A) 3.43 KSI
B) 4.77 KSI
C) 4.1 KSI
D) 4.6 KSI
73
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
24) The shear force at the center of a simply supported beam of span carrying a
uniformly distributed load of per unit length over the whole span is
A)
B)
C)
D) Zero
25) A 400 ft. equal tangent crest vertical curve has a PVC station of 100+00 at 59 ft.
elevation. The initial grade is 2.0 percent and the final grade is 4.5 percent. Determine
the elevation of the high point of the curve.
A) 60.23 ft.
B) 54.00 ft.
C) 50.43 ft.
D) 104+00 ft.
26) A car is traveling at 30 mph in a county at night on a flat wet road. Find the
stopping sight distance.
A) 300 ft.
B) 197 ft.
C) 112 ft.
D) 241 ft.
74
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
27) A roadway is being designed using a 45 mph design speed. One section of the
roadway must go up and over a small hill with an entering grade of 3.2 percent and an
existing grade of 2.0 percent. How long must the vertical curve be?
A) 115 ft.
B) 450 ft.
C) 317 ft.
D) 270 ft.
28) A horizontal curve is designed with a 1500 ft. radius. The tangent length is 400
ft. and the PT station is 20+00. What is the PI station?
A) 16+16.3
B) 12+16.3
C) 12+18.2
D) 16+18.2
29) In the following intersections layouts, which one is strongly recommended in the
urban area and not recommended in the rural areas for the collectors.
A B C D
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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A) 1 in 10
B) 1 in 20
C) 1 in 30
D) 1 in 40
31) Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, superelevation, sight distance and
grades, is worst affected by
76
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
34) A 2h storm over a 111 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 4*106 m3
With a peak discharge of 260 m3/Sec. What is the total excess precipitation?
A) 1.4 cm
B) 2.6 cm
C) 3.6 cm
D) 4.0 cm
35) A 2h storm over a 111 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 4*106 m3 with
a peak discharge of 260 m3/Sec., find the unit hydrograph discharge?
A) 72 m3/s.cm
B) 120 m3/s.cm
C) 210 m3/s.cm.
D) 260 m3/s.cm
36) What is the flow rate for a rectangular finished (clean) concrete channel with a
base width of 8’, channel slope of 0.5%, with a “normal” water depth of 2’?
A) 140 cfs
B) 8.5 cfs
C) 100 cfs
D) 200 cfs
37) The ratio of the depth of flow to the hydraulic radius for the most economical
trapezoidal section, in open channel flow is
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 2
D) 1.2
77
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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38) When does the silt fence barrier (below picture) be used for the sediment control?
39) 5 MGD (million gallon per day) of water flows into the new schedule40 steel
pipe network as shows below. Find the rate of flow in the upper branch.
A) 1.1 MGD
B) 3.9 MGD
C) 5.0 MGD
D) 1.95 MGD
78
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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79
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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Solutions
Second Style Exam
80
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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STA 12+10
STA 12+40
Fill= 0, C= 60 cf
STA 12+70
A) 31 B) 10 C) 20 D) 50
The Answers is A
This method is used widely and most of the estimators use this method where length is
much greater than width.
Earthworks Formulas
( )
=
L=Distance between
Also, 1 mile = 5280 ft. = 1760yards and 1 yard = 3 ft.
Each station introduce with the distance from the origin in feet, so STA 12+10 means:
1210 ft. Then distance between 2 stations in this problem is given equal to 30 ft. using the
average area method:
Vcut(ab)= (0+60)/2 * 30 = 30*30 = 900 cf
Vfill(ab)= (50+0)/2*30 = 25*30= 750 cf
Vcut(bc)= (20+60)/2 * 30 = 40*30 = 1200 cf
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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2) The elevation of station C is given equal to 01+20. If the back sight on A is 3.5 ft.
and the foresight for C in 5.1, another foresight reading on B shows 2.2 ft. Find the
elevation of the point B.
A) 1+20.5 B) 1+22.9
C) 1+17.1 D) 1+18
The Answers is B
The height between two points are given equal to: Back sight (BS)  Foresight (FS) =
height, positive answer means FS is higher than the BS.
This is a tricky question! Since we have the elevation of point “C” and FS at C and B, we
can consider BS for C and FS for B and no need for the information about A, so:
BS at C= 5.1 FS at B= 2.2
BSFS= 5.12.2= +2.9
Elevation at B = Elevation at C + height = 120 + 2.9 = 122.9=1+22.9
83
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
3) For the prestressed concrete bridge girder which one is the most likely closer to
the required volume of concrete for this girder if the length of girder is given equal to 30
ft. Height = 3 ft.
A) 3.95 cf
B) 152.3 cf
C) 118.8 cf
D) 145.8 cf
The Answers is C
To find the answer the section can be divided in the certain geometric shapes. Then the
area of each section can be found. Volume is equal to the area multiplied by the length of
girder. All dimensions in inches have been converted to ft by dividing by 12.
84
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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3’
1.29’
A=
2.5*0.5+((2.5+(6+2+2)/12)*0.5*1.5/12)+(6+(6+2+2))/12*0.5*2/12)+0.5*1.29+(6/12+2+
2/12)*0.5*3.5/12+(2+2/12)*7.5/12 = 3.95 sf
Volume = 3.95*30= 118.725 cf
85
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
4) A precast concrete wall with the thickness of 8”, height of 8’ and width of 6’. A
hauler truck should carry these precast walls. The capacity of the hauler is 20 US tons.
How many pieces of wall can be transported by the hauler?
A) 10 B) 8
C) 12 D) 3
The Answers is B
Concrete density is equal to 150 pcf, ASCE 710, table C3. So the weight of each piece
will be equal to:
W= 150 * (8/12 * 8 * 6) = 4800 lbs
1 US Ton = 2000 lbs, each wall = 4800/2000=2.4 ton,
Therefore; 20/2.4 = 8.33, so the truck can take 8 walls.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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A  8 6 50 100
B A 2 1 80 140
C A 6 4 80 100
D B 2 1 100 150
E C 6 3 90 200
F E 3 1 80 160
A) $200 B) $120
C) $180 D) $140
The Answers is D
According to the table the CPM chart represents the following free floats:
C E F
A
B D G
87
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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88
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
6) The amount of sales for contract has given equal to $1,000,000 including
$100,000 for tax and $70,000 for the insurance. At the end of the project contractor has
owned $50,000 of equipment and tools (assets) in addition $400000 assets that he does.
Contractor paid $650,000 for the man power, equipment, and materials for this project.
Find the gross profit, operation profit, net profit, and return on assets.
The Answers is B
89
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
7) The test strength of the 4 by 8 in. cylinder sample is taken as the average of the
strength of
A) 2 specimens
B) 3 specimens
C) 4 specimens
D) 5 specimens
The Answers is B
90
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
8) For the scaffolding as shown in the picture estimate the axial force in the
bracings.
CH=200 lb
10’ 10’
A) 200 lb.
B) 141lb
C) 100 lb.
D) 282 lb.
The Answers is B
91
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
9) In a proctor test the maximum dry density is given equal to 125 lb/cf with 20% of
water content. If the sample dry density of the road pavement equal to 123, what is the
amount of the relative compaction?
A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 98%
D) 100%
The Answers is C
RC or relative compaction is the relation between dry density of the specimen to the
maximum dry density. Maximum dry density can be obtained through test in the lab by
adding the certain amount of water. So in fact the water content is just the additional data.
So, RC=123/125*100 = 98.4%
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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The Answers is D
.
This is the definition for the water content.
w= mw/ms * 100%
93
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
11) Design of a footing on the loose sand requires which one of the following
activities:
A) It is not possible
B) Loose sand should always be compacted prior to put footing on it.
C) No need for compaction because we design the footing based on the soil
strength.
D) Compaction is required if the modified proctor test is less than 50% for the
natural ground.
The Answers is D
The compaction is required if the modified proctor test RC<50% for the natural ground or
RC<90% for the compacted fills. Choice B is not correct because it is not always required
and the RC value should be evaluated.
94
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
12) A fine grained soil has a Liquid Limit (LL) of 40% and a plasticity Index of 30%.
The soil can be classified as:
A) CL
B) CI
C) CH
D) MI
The Answers is A
For the fine grained soil according to the unified chart easily the soil classification can be
defined as follows:
95
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
13) The diagram below shows the results of a standard compaction test. The Optimum
Moisture Content (O.M.C.) of the soil is
A) 12%
B) 17.5%
C) 18%
D) 22%
The Answers is B
A typical proctor test curve shows the moisture content with the optimum water content
to make the zero air void and maximize the compaction effects. So, to find the optimum
water content the highest amount of density which represents compaction shall be
considered.
So, the maximum density happens when the water content is 17.5%.
96
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
14) The ground water level is at 9ft. below ground. What is the total stress at the
bottom of the blue clay (i.e. at 23ft. below ground)?
ft
ft
ft
A) 2200 psf
B) 1759 psf
C) 1200 psf
D) 1860 psf
The Answers is B
To solve the problem, the amount of density for each layer shall be estimated.
For the first layer (Brown Silty Sand):
1 1
= . = 2.70 ∗ 62.4 = 109.54 /
(1 + ) 1 + 0.538
No effective stress for the first layer shall be considered since it is not saturated, but for
the next two layers which are located below water table the effective stress can be
estimated. Water density = 62.4 lb/cf.
( ) = ℎ = 125.32 ∗ 9 = 1127.88
97
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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98
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
15) A soil sample has 70% passing the No. 4 sieve and 10% passing the No. 200
sieve. The coefficient of uniformity is 4 and the fines are nonplastic. Classify the soil
according to the Unified Soil Classification System.
A) SPSM
B) SWSM
C) SP
D) GWGM
The Answers is A
According to the Unified Soil classification table the soil can be classified as SPSM. See
the below table.
10% passing Sieve #200 70% passing through #4 means less than 50% on #4
10% passing means more than 50% larger than #200 sieve and 70% passing from #4
means more than half is smaller than #4 so the soil can be (SW, SP, SM, or SC). The
uniformity of 4 shows the soil is classified between SPSM because it is not between 1
and 3 or greater than 4. So, clearly from these information the soil is SPSM.
99
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
16) For the shown footing, find the maximum compressive stress. (P= 1000 lb. M=
3000 lbft. B=D=width of footing = 9 ft.)
A) 60 psf
B) 30 psf
C) 49 psf
D) 12 psf
The Answers is C
To find the stresses under the foundation three different conditions might be happened
which are shown in the below picture.
100
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
17) Referring to the figure, find the force in the member DB.
A) 1200 N
B) 800 N
C) 400 N
D) 600 N
The Answers is B
101
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
18) Referring to the figure, adding a horizontal force P at point C and considering the
combination of all loads will:
The Answers is B
102
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
19) If a design engineer wants to use one of the following sections as a simple beam,
which section has biaxial bending moment even if the load applies along the Y direction?
B) B) C) D)
The Answers is C
Angles have 2 principle axis other than the X and Y axis, because are asymmetric
sections. So, when a load applies in Y direction, because of the angle between principle
axis and Y axis, forces will be apply on both axis and create the biaxial forces and thus
biaxial bending moment.
103
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
20) For the beam in the referred picture which one shows the correct bending moment
diagram?
A B
C D
The Answers is C
Forces are applied at the end of the overhangs and creates equal amount of the bending
moment at the end of the beam. So, “C” is correct.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
A) Shear force
B) Slope
C) Deflection
D) None of these
The Answers is A
This is the definition in the strength of materials. Slope= dy/dx (derivation of deflection
y), Bending Moment = M = ds/dx (derivation of slope), Shear force= dM/dx (derivation
of bending moment),
So the shear force is the rate of changes (differential) of the bending moment.
105
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
22) For an existing concrete water reservoir the contractor has tested the existing
compressive strength of concrete in 50 different location. The average of these tests
shows the value of 4.1 KSI and the standard deviation shows the value of 0.5 KSI. If the
contractor wants to take the risk of 10% for the rehabilitation of the structure, find the
target strength of the structure that should be considered for the new design? (Use normal
distribution function.)
A) 3.43 KSI
B) 4.77 KSI
C) 4.1 KSI
D) 4.6 KSI
The Answers is A
106
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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107
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
The Answers is D
108
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
24) The shear force at the center of a simply supported beam of span carrying a
uniformly distributed load of per unit length over the whole span is
A)
B)
C)
D) Zero
The Answers is D
The shear force diagram for the simple beam is shown in the figure, so the shear force =
0.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
25) A 400 ft. equal tangent crest vertical curve has a PVC station of 100+00 at 59 ft.
elevation. The initial grade is 2.0 percent and the final grade is 4.5 percent. Determine
the elevation of the high point of the curve.
A) 60.23 ft.
B) 54.00 ft.
C) 50.43 ft.
D) 104+00 ft.
The Answers is A
P3149, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.4.6.
400 ft. vertical curve, therefore:
• PVI is at STA 102+00 and PVT is at STA 104+00
Elevation of the PVI is 59’ + 0.02(200) = 63 ft.
Elevation of the PVT is 63’ – 0.045(200) = 54 ft.
High point elevation requires figuring out the equation for a vertical curve
• At x = 0, y = c => c=59 ft.
• At x = 0, dY/dx = b = G1 = +2.0%
• a = (G2 – G1)/2L = (4.5 – 2)/(2(4)) =  0.8125
2
• y = 0.8125x + 2x + 59
• High point is where dy/dx = 0
• dy/dx = 1.625x + 2 = 0
• x = 1.23 stations
Find elevation at x = 1.23 stations
2
• y = 0.8125(1.23) + 2(1.23) + 59
• y = 60.23 ft.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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26) A car is traveling at 30 mph in a county at night on a flat wet road. Find the
stopping sight distance.
A) 300 ft.
B) 197 ft.
C) 112 ft.
D) 241 ft.
The Answers is B
P32, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.2.2.
According to the AASHTO 2004 code, the stopping sight distance for horizontal curves is
equal to:
= 1.47. (2.5). +
30(0.347 + )
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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27) A roadway is being designed using a 45 mph design speed. One section of the
roadway must go up and over a small hill with an entering grade of 3.2 percent and an
existing grade of 2.0 percent. How long must the vertical curve be?
A) 115 ft.
B) 450 ft.
C) 317 ft.
D) 270 ft.
The Answers is C
P3149, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.4.6.
The Kvalue method of analysis used in the green book is a simplified method of
choosing a stopping sight for the crest vertical curve.
= =
 − 
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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28) A horizontal curve is designed with a 1500 ft. radius. The tangent length is 400
ft. and the PT station is 20+00. What is the PI station?
A) 16+16.3
B) 12+16.3
C) 12+18.2
D) 16+18.2
The Answers is D
P318, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.3.
Since we know R and T we can use T = R.tan(delta/2) to get delta
400=1500 tan(delta/2) then delta = 29.86 degrees
D = 5729.6/R. Therefore D = 3.82
L = 100(delta)/D = 100(29.86)/3.82 = 781 ft.
PC = PT – PI = 2000 – 781 = 12+18.2
PI = PC +T = 12+18.2 + 400 = 16+18.2.
Note: cannot find PI by subtracting T from PT!
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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29) In the following intersections layouts, which one is strongly recommended in the
urban area and not recommended in the rural areas for the collectors.
A B C D
The Answers is C
P101, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 10.2.
According to the AASHTO definitions, the full and half cloverleaf intersections and
trumpet are recommended for the rural highways (A, B, and D), and the diamond (C) is
recommended for the urban.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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A) 1 in 10
B) 1 in 20
C) 1 in 30
D) 1 in 40
The Answers is A
P343, AASHTO Geometric DesignGreen Book 2011, 2011, 6th ed., 3.3.5.
For 45 mph, f = 0.16
2
Rv = V /15(f+e) or e + f = V2/15 R , then: e (super elevation) = 45^2/(15*500)0.16 =
0.11 say 0.1
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31) Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, superelevation, sight distance and
grades, is worst affected by
The Answers is D
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The Answers is D
This is the definition in job site and surveying order. It is required to first fix the Bench
Marks (BM) according to local agencies files. B and C will be conducted with reference
to the BMs. A is an individual action but to do so, the proper location for tests shall be
chosen based on the BMs.
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The Answers is B
A siphon is a bent or curved tube that carries fluid from a container at a high elevation to
another container at lower elevation however, the fluid seems to flow “uphill” in a
siphon. See the following picture.
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34) A 2h storm over a 111 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 4*106 m3
With a peak discharge of 260 m3/Sec. What is the total excess precipitation?
A) 1.4 cm
B) 2.6 cm
C) 3.6 cm
D) 4.0 cm
The Answers is C
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35) A 2h storm over a 111 km2 area produces a total runoff volume of 4*106 m3 with
a peak discharge of 260 m3/Sec., find the unit hydrograph discharge?
A) 72 m3/s.cm
B) 120 m3/s.cm
C) 210 m3/s.cm.
D) 260 m3/s.cm
The Answers is A
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36) What is the flow rate for a rectangular finished (clean) concrete channel with a
base width of 8’, channel slope of 0.5%, with a “normal” water depth of 2’?
A) 140 cfs
B) 8.5 cfs
C) 100 cfs
D) 200 cfs
The Answers is A
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37) The ratio of the depth of flow to the hydraulic radius for the most economical
trapezoidal section, in open channel flow is
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 2
D) 1.2
The Answers is C
The most efficient open channel cross section will maximize the flow for the given
Manning coefficient, slope, and flow area. The most efficient trapezoid channel is always
one which the flow depth is twice the hydraulic radius. If the side slope is adjustable, the
sides of the most efficient trapezoid should be inclined at 60 degree.
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38) When does the silt fence barrier (below picture) be used for the sediment control?
The Answers is B
Choice “A” is the definition for bale slope barrier, “C” is the definition of a spillway, “D”
is the ditch with silt fencing. The barrier should be used at the toe of a slope when the
ditch does not exist.
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39) 5 MGD (million gallon per day) of water flows into the new schedule40 steel
pipe network as shows below. Find the rate of flow in the upper branch.
a. MGD
B) 3.9 MGD
C) 5.0 MGD
D) 1.95 MGD
The Answers is B
.
Parallel pipes have three principles that govern the distribution of flow between the two
branches. 1 head loss are the same for each branch 2 head loss at each junction is the
same as each branches, 3 the total flow rate is the sum of the flow rates in the two
branches. According to the 3rd principle, Vt = Va + Vb
So:
Diameter = 8” flow area = 50.24 in2
Diameter = 4” flow area = 12.56 in2
Using the HazenWilliams expression for the velocity of flow in the pipe:
V= (0.55CD0.63hf0.54)/L0.54
V1= 0.55 * 80 * (8/12)0.63 * hf0.54 / 2000.54 = 1.95 hf0.54
The same for lower branch:
V2=2.28 hf0.54
. hf1=hf2
V1*A1/V2*A2 = (1.95 * 50.24) / (2.28*12.56) = 3.42, V2=0.29 V1
Vt =V1+V2 = V1.A1+0.29 V1.A2 = 1.29 V1.A1=1.29 Q1, then Q1= 5MGD/1.29 =
3.87MGD
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The Answers is A
P433, AASHTO LRFD Bridge Design Specification 2010, 5th ed. 4.6.2.
Live load distribution is prorated to the tributary width, slab, and girders’ stiffness in the
AASHTO bridge design manual, 2010. Dead loads are distributed only with the tributary
width. So A is not correct. All other choices are definitions and correct.
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1) For the given following data on precedence relationship and duration network, find the
project duration (total float) by using the critical path method (CPM).
A Field Surveying  10
B Soil studies  15
C Conceptual design A 12
D Structural Basic A 14
design
A) 116 B) 44
C) 57 D) 55
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2) A surveyor recorded the following leveling measurements. Then he changed the position
of the level with the new height of the level and read 2 new numbers for the BS and FS for the
same spots (A&B) that he read in the first measurements. If the height of level in the first
measurement was 3.5 ft and in the second reading was 4.5 ft, find the elevation of “B” for both
measurements.
Station BS FS
B 1.5
A) 1+30 B) 1+31.2
C) 1+33 D) 1+31.8
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3) You are a contractor and have made a bid sheet for a construction project as follows.
Excavation for this project is to occur in the winter meaning it will take more time for the
crew to complete this task. You have calculated that this extra time will increase the labor
cost by 27%. How much are you charging the client for the excavation work given the new
situation?
A) $271,252
B) $318,553
C) $336,352
D) $395,007
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A)
B)
C)
D)
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5) For a retaining wall with 9’ height find the maximum lateral pressure on the wall forms.
6) The following formwork should support the 22’ by 20’ slab. Find the live load from
personnel and equipment acting temporary during construction on this formwork if it is
classified as heavy duty construction.
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7) An auger works on the pile foundations as shown in the following picture. The pile diameter
is given equal to 4’ and pile depth is 60’. If price of auger including the freight expenses is
$1,000,000. The expected cost including 20% profit for each cubic yard is determined as
$100 per cubic yard. How many piles should this auger make to compensate the original
price from the profit?
A) 1200 pile
B) 2000 piles
C) 1786 piles
D) 2500 piles
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8) The clay stratum is shown in the profile below. It is known that the voids ratio of the red
point is 0.9. Assume the compression index is known to be 0.64. Determine the value of
pressure when voids ratio is 0.8.
Elev.: 0 ft.
Unit weight:
130lb/ft3
Elev.: 30ft
Unit weight:
Elev.: 35ft
120lb/ft3
A) 38 B)43 C) 60 D)74
10) In which condition the soil may have the maximum consolidation?
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11) As shown in the figure below, a clay layer exists between two sandy soil layers. The
underground water level is 1 m below the ground. The second sandy soil layer contains
confined water. At a point A, which is 7 m below the ground (in the second sandy soil layer),
the head of water pressure is 1 m above the ground. It is known that the unit weight of soil
above the water level is 16.5 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight of the first layer of sandy soil
below the water level is 19.2 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight of the second layer of sandy
soil is 20.2 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight of the clay soil is 18.4 kN/m3, Determine the
effective vertical soil pressure at point A.
H0=1m
1
H1=2 m
W. L. Sandy soil 1
H2=1m 1sat
H3=2 m 2 Clay
H4=2 m 3sat
Sandy soil 2
A
12) What is the cause for the swell of soils during the excavation?
A) Occures in the clayey soil when a higher moisture content existed than pior to excavation.
B) Occures in the fine sand during excavation becasuse of increasing the void ratios
C) Occures in all type of soils due to increasing the prosity
D) Swell is just an assumption to have safety factor for the earth work estimations.
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13) An uniform desposit soil is shown in the following diagram. Information of soil in each
layer is given. Calculate the effective stress for a soil element at point A.
14) For the following beam if load w=3 KN/m what force should apply on BD so that the shear
Force at A is zero?
W =3 KN/m F=?
A B C D
4m 2m 2m
A) 24KN.
B) 44KN.
C) 64KN.
D) 84KN.
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15) In the below picture, find the maximum shear and moment in a simply supported beam that is
loaded with uniform load of w0.
A) V= w0L, M= w0L2/4
B) V= w0L/2, M= w0L/8
C) V= w0L/2 , M= w0L2/8
D) V= 2 w0L, M= w0L2/12
16) A 10 ft long simply supported concrete beam subject to a uniformly distributed load is
reinforced with two #6 bars at a depth of 13 in. The cross section is 6 in wide and 16 in tall.
The factored shear load at the supports is 6.6 kips. Assume # 3 stirrups are used for shear
support. f = 60000 psi, f = 4000 psi. Determine the required spacing for shear
reinforcement at the supports in the beam.
A) 8 in B) 44 in
C) 6.5 in D) 24 in
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17) Refer to the picture below, which pattern shows the pure shear crack in the reinforced
concrete beam test results?
A) 37 B) 18
C) 28 D) 30
18) A circular beam with 6” diameter that is 20 ft long is fixed to a wall at one end and free at
the other. A uniformly distributed load of 0.3 kip/ft respectively are applied to the beam. The
beam is fully braced. Find the maximum elastic stress.
A) 25 KSI B) 50 KSI
C) 41 KSI D) 34 KSI
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19) A set of interior columns are being designed. The columns are continuously braced
perpendicular to the frame. The girders between the columns are W 16 X 45 members and
the Columns are W 12 X 79. The columns span 35 feet apart and are 20 feet in height.
Assume Fy = 50ksi and Fu = 65ksi. Columns are not braced in plane. The base of each
column is tied to the foundation and all other connections are rigid. Determine the available
critical stress assuming K = 1.2.
20) A gutter at the side of a street has a curb height of 8 inches, slope along the length of the
street of 0.7%, and Manning n=0.032. The pavement slopes from the center of the street to the
gutter at 5%. What is the flow capacity of this gutter?
A) 4.9 cfs
B) 8.0 cfs
C) 11.1 cfs
D) 14.7 cfs
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21) Water from a 175ac light industrial watershed is collected and drained by a trapezoidal open
channel. The channel (Manning' roughness coefficient, = 0.02) has a 4.5ftwide bottom
and 1:1 sides. The channel direction is perpendicular to a road where twin, sidebyside 54
indiameter corrugated metal pipe (CMP) culverts take the water under the roadway. The
average slope of the channel and culverts is 0.75% (i.e., 0.0075 ft/ft). The time for runoff
from the farthest part of the watershed to begin contributing to the flow is 35 min.  Using the
rational method and assuming the intensity after 35 min is 2 in/hr, what is the runoff?
A) 308 B) 180
C) 228 D) 340
22) A parking lot adjoining a shopping center has a surface area of 3.5 acres. A rainstorm that
delivers rainfall at a rate of 2.5 inches/hour occurs. The parking area has a runoff coefficient
C=0.7. What is the peak runoff from the parking lot during this rainstorm?
23) A 10 acre basin stores approximately 7.0 inches of water. What is the runoff for the
given basin for a 2hr storm with an average of 0.5 in/hr of rainfall?
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24) A horizontal pipeline carries water at a discharge of 13.5 cfs. Upstream of a contraction the
pipe diameter is 24 inches and pressure is 14 psi, while downstream of the contraction the
diameter is 18 inches. Neglecting head loss, what is the pressure downstream?
A) 11.2 psi
B) 13.7 psi
C) 14.2 psi
D) 15.9 psi
25) Which one has more pressure at the depth of h = 10 ft? (the inclined surfaces has the
measure of angle of 60 degree.)
26) Find the bending moment in the below beam for the concentrated load given equal to 5 Kips?
10ft 10ft
H= 5ft
A) 25 Kipsft B) 5 kipsft
C) 0.00 Kipsft D) none of them
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27) An equaltangent crest vertical curve is to connect grades of +2.0% and 3%. The design
sight distance on the curve is 645 ft. Determine the minimum length of the curve to meet the
sign distance requirement. (Assume the height of driver’s eyes above the roadway surface is
3.5 ft, and the height of object above the roadway surface is 2.0 ft.)
28) A horizontal circular curve has an intersection angle of 16. The length of middle ordinate
(M) is 8.00 ft. The radius (ft) of the curve is most nearly
PI
T T
M =8.00 ft
PC LC PT
R I =16 R
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8:008:15 1400
8:158:30 1600
8:308:45 2200
8:459:00 1800
A) 0.795 B) 0.880
C) 0.650 D) 0.945
30) A sieve analysis on a nonorganic soil reveals that 82% of the soil passes No. 200 sieve
(0.075 mm). The liquid limit of the soil is 24%, and the soil has a medium toughness and a
very slow dilatancy. Classify the soil according to the Unified Soil Classification system
(USCS).
A) GC B) ML C) CL D) CH
31) In a falling head permeability test on a soil sample, the following data are available:
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32) A concrete mixture has a 60:40 ratio of coarse aggregates to fine aggregates. When mixed
separately, 250lbs of coarse aggregates are capable of fitting in a 3ft3 container and 200lbs of
fine aggregates are capable of fitting in a 2ft3 container. Determine the bulk density of the
concrete mixture with a 50:50 ratio.
A) 80lb/ft3
B) 87lb/ft3
C) 90lb/ft3
D) 97lb/ft3
33) Find the bending moment in the below beam for the uniform load given equal to 5 Kips/ft?
A) 250 kipsft
B) 125 kipsft
C) 62.5 kipsft
D) 500 kipsft
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34) For the shown structure, the horizontal length is 10ft and vertical length is given as 8 ft. The
force applied at the midspan and is equal to 20 Kips. The inclined support is a roller support.
Find the bending moment in the structure?
35) Given a soil fill sample with a weight of 62 lbs and a total volume of 864 in3 and a water
content of 15%, determine the percent relative compaction of the sample if the maximum dry
unit weight is 115pcf.
A) 93.8% B) 95.2%
C) 102% D) 127%
36) For the reinforced concrete slabs like the following picture, if the width is given equal to 20’,
then what would be the maximum length of the slab if the designer wants to have two way
slab and have the following reinforcement arrangement?
A) 40’ B) 10’
C) 20’ D) 50’
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37) For the following excavation shown below the contractor has used the nailing system to
secure the project. Who should be the first person for inspection of the nailing system?
Depth of excavation = 30 ft
A) 22.6 ft B) 30 ft C) 32 ft D) 21.2 ft
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39) Refer to the figures, the net excavation (yd3) from section 78 (14+20) (100s of ft) to section
80 (15+80) is most nearly:
A) 3462 B) 59788
C) 4000 D) 2214
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40) The site manager put the mark of “C” and the following numbers on the lath stake. The
ground elevation is given equal to +20.00. The surveyor measured 1’ for the distance
between horizontal line and the ground surface. With that sign what would be the final
elevation:
19
1’
A) +21.90 B) +19.10
C) +17.10 D) +18.10
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Solutions
Third Style Exam
148
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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1) For the given following data on precedence relationship and duration network, find the
project duration (total float) by using the critical path method (CPM).
A Field Surveying  10
B Soil studies  15
C Conceptual design A 12
D Structural Basic A 14
design
A) 116 B) 44
C) 57 D) 55
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The Answers is C
F10
2 4 I5
B15
E20
G10 5
0 C12
A10 H20
1 3
D14
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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2) A surveyor recorded the following leveling measurements. Then he changed the position
of the level with the new height of the level and read 2 new numbers for the BS and FS for the
same spots (A&B) that he read in the first measurements. If the height of level in the first
measurement was 3.5 ft and in the second reading was 4.5 ft, find the elevation of “B” for both
measurements.
Station BS FS
B 1.5
A) 1+30 B) 1+31.2
C) 1+33 D) 1+31.8
The Answers is D
This is the surveying problem for the using of the level measures. The height between two points
are given equal to: Back sight (BS)  Foresight (FS) = height, positive answer means FS is higher
than the BS.
The tricky part is the height of the level does not effect on the elevation measurements, so there
is no relation between the heights of level for different readings.
A to B = BSFS= 3.31.5= +1.8
Elevation at B = Elevation at A + height = 130 + 1.8 = 131.8=1+31.8
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3) You are a contractor and have made a bid sheet for a construction project as follows.
Excavation for this project is to occur in the winter meaning it will take more time for the
crew to complete this task. You have calculated that this extra time will increase the labor
cost by 27%. How much are you charging the client for the excavation work given the new
situation?
A) $271,252
B) $318,553
C) $336,352
D) $395,007
The new labor cost for the excavation = $75,636+$75,636*27% = $96057.72 The cost of the
equipment stay the same, thus the direct cost of the excavation is = $96057.72+$175,194 =
$271,251.72.
The charge to the client is $271,251.72*1.24=$336,352.13
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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A)
B)
C)
D)
The Answers is D
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5) For a retaining wall with 9’ height find the maximum lateral pressure on the wall forms.
The Answers is B
According to the ASCE 3702 the lateral pressure from fresh concrete is to be taken as the
hydrostatic pressure:
= ∗
W= concrete density = 150pcf so, Cc=150*9 =1350 psf
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6) The following formwork should support the 22’ by 20’ slab. Find the live load from
personnel and equipment acting temporary during construction on this formwork if it is
classified as heavy duty construction.
The Answers is B
ASCE 3702
Area of the formwork = 22*20 = 440 sf > 400 sf
So, the following reduction may be used for the actual live load on the form work:
15
= 0.25 +
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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7) An auger works on the pile foundations as shown in the following picture. The pile diameter
is given equal to 4’ and pile depth is 60’. If price of auger including the freight expenses is
$1,000,000. The expected cost including 20% profit for each cubic yard is determined as
$100 per cubic yard. How many piles should this auger make to compensate the original
price from the profit?
A) 1200 pile
B) 2000 piles
C) 1786 piles
D) 2500 piles
The Answers is C
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8) The clay stratum is shown in the profile below. It is known that the voids ratio of the red
point is 0.9. Assume the compression index is known to be 0.64. Determine the value of
pressure when voids ratio is 0.8.
Elev.: 0 ft.
Unit weight:
130lb/ft3
Elev.: 30ft
Unit weight:
Elev.: 35ft
120lb/ft3
The Answers is C
Step1: Initial effective consolidation stress can be calculated based on the information mentioned
above,
= +
= (130 / )(30 ) + (120 / − 62.5 / )(35 − 30 ) = 4188 /
Step2: Based on the equation shown below, the voids ratio can be solved by,
. .
= 10 = (4188 / )10 . = 6000 /
~6000lb/ft2
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A) 38 B)43 C) 60 D)74
The Answers is A
Step 1:
From the figure shown, it can be found that when = , the friction angle is 36.
Step2:
For a friction angle of 36, the bearing capacity ratio for the vertical effective stress at the
elevation of the foundation base, , is 38.
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10) In which condition the soil may have the maximum consolidation?
The Answers is B
Choice “A” Less than passing from Seive #4 means the soil is granular and no consulidation will
occure for these kind of soils. Elastic setlemnt expected which is not the question, however it is
usually less than consulidation.
Coice “D” shows silt, consulidation is likely but the it is less than clay.
Choice “B” shows Clay soil because of size and the plasticity, so the consolidation of this soil
has the maximum value.
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11) As shown in the figure below, a clay layer exists between two sandy soil layers. The
underground water level is 1 m below the ground. The second sandy soil layer contains
confined water. At a point A, which is 7 m below the ground (in the second sandy soil
layer), the head of water pressure is 1 m above the ground. It is known that the unit weight
of soil above the water level is 16.5 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight of the first layer of
sandy soil below the water level is 19.2 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight of the second
layer of sandy soil is 20.2 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight of the clay soil is 18.4 kN/m3,
Determine the effective vertical soil pressure at point A.
H0=1m
1
H1=2 m
W. L. Sandy soil 1
H2=1m 1sat
H3=2 m 2 Clay
H4=2 m 3sat
Sandy soil 2
A
The Answers is C
Effective stress is equal to the total stress minus pore water pressureu. = − u.
The total stress is calculated by = γ H + γ H + γ H + γ H = (16.5 kN/
m )(2 m) + (19.2 kN/m )(1 m) + (18.4 kN/m )(2 m) + (20.2 kN/m )(2 m) = 129.4 kPa
The pore water pressure u is calculated by u = γ H = (9.8 kN/m )(1 m + 2 m + 1 m + 2 m +
2 m) = 78.4 kPa
The effective stress is
u = − u = 129.4 kPa − 78.4 kPa = 51 kPa
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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12) What is the cause for the swell of soils during the excavation?
A) Occures in the clayey soil when a higher moisture content existed than pior to excavation.
B) Occures in the fine sand during excavation becasuse of increasing the void ratios
C) Occures in all type of soils due to increasing the prosity
D) Swell is just an assumption to have safety factor for the earth work estimations.
The Answers is A
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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13) An uniform desposit soil is shown in the following diagram. Information of soil in each
layer is given. Calculate the effective stress for a soil element at point A.
The Answers is C
Step 1: From the diagram, we can see that there are two layers of soil. For each layer, we need to
calculate the unit weight. Equation about unit weight is given as,
+
=
1+
The voids ratio is unknown. Therefore, we need to calculate voids ratio of each layer first.
Step 2: Equation of void ratio of soil is shown as,
To determine the value of void ratio, we need to find volume of voids, , and volume of
solids, . To determine the voids ratio, we can deduce its equation by,
= = = = = =
Therefore, for each layer, the voids ratio can be calculated by,
30%
= = (14 / ) = 0.80
(9.8 / )(53%)
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40%
= = (14 / ) = 0.57
(9.8 / )(100%)
Step 3: For the layer above groundwater level, the unit weight is equal to,
+ 2.6 + (53%)(0.8)
= = (9.8 / ) = 16.5 /
1+ 1 + 0.80
For the layer below groundwater level, the unit weight is equal to,
+ 2.6 + (100%)(0.57)
= = (9.8 / ) = 19.8 /
1+ 1 + 0.57
Step 4: The total stress at point A can be then calculated as,
= + = (16.5 / )(4 ) + (19.8 / )(2 ) = 105.6
The pore water pressure is given as,
u= = (9.8 / )(2 ) = 19.6
Effective pressure at point A can be finally calculated by,
= − = 105.6 − 19.6 = 86
~85kPa
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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14) For the following beam if load w=3 KN/m what force should apply on BD so that the shear
Force at A is zero?
W =3 KN/m F=?
A B C D
4m 2m 2m
A) 24KN.
B) 44KN.
C) 64KN.
D) 84KN.
The Answers is A
To solve the problem the typical solution is to writ the equation of equilibrium, but a short
cut method is given as follows:
VB= F/2,
3*4 + F/2 = 0
So; F=24 KN
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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15) In the below picture, find the maximum shear and moment in a simply supported beam that
is loaded with uniform load of w0.
A) V= w0L, M= w0L2/4
B) V= w0L/2, M= w0L/8
C) V= w0L/2 , M= w0L2/8
D) V= 2 w0L, M= w0L2/12
The Answers is C
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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∑Fy = 0, R1 = R2 = w0L/2
= − = −
2
V= w0L/2
Step 4: Draw the Moment diagram; Moment diagram is result of integration of shear diagram.
Nothing that the moment at x = 0 is zero.
= − − =0+ − = ( − )
2 2 2 2
It can be seen that the maximum bending moment occurs at the center of the beam where the
shear stress is zero (at the middle of the beam).
When = M=
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16) A 10 ft long simply supported concrete beam subject to a uniformly distributed load is
reinforced with two #6 bars at a depth of 13 in. The cross section is 6 in wide and 16 in tall.
The factored shear load at the supports is 6.6 kips. Assume # 3 stirrups are used for shear
support. f = 60000 psi, f = 4000 psi. Determine the required spacing for shear
reinforcement at the supports in the beam.
A) 8 in B) 44 in
C) 6.5 in D) 24 in
The Answers is C
Step 1: Determine the shear condition of the beam by comparing the given factored
shear force to the shear capacity of the concrete. Use the appropriate equation.
1
=2 = 2(6 )(13 ) 4000 = 9.87
1000
Now determine the factors to be tested based on an applied load factor. According to
The resistance factors table a factor of 0.75 is to be used for shear and torsion.
= (0.75)(9.87 ) = 7.4
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(0.75)(9.87 )
= = 3.7
2 2
= (2)(0.11 ) = 0.22
(0.22 )(60000 )
= = = 44
50 (50 )(6 )
(0.22 )(60000 )
= = = 46
0.75 0.75(6 ) 4000
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17) Refer to the picture below, which pattern shows the pure shear crack in the reinforced
concrete beam test results?
A) 37 B) 18
C) 28 D) 30
The Answers is D
The pure shear crack happens at the supports and at the web of the beam. It is inclined. Bending
crack is vertical and shearflexure cracks have the inclined to vertical pattern.
Choice “A” shows the pure flexural crack, Choices “B” and “C” shows the shearflexure
interaction pattern.
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18) A circular beam with 6” diameter that is 20 ft long is fixed to a wall at one end and free at
the other. A uniformly distributed load of 0.3 kip/ft respectively are applied to the beam.
The beam is fully braced. Find the maximum elastic stress.
A) 25 KSI B) 50 KSI
C) 41 KSI D) 34 KSI
The Answers is D
Step 1: The maximum moment will be at the fixed end of the beam. Equations for moment for
beams can be found in AISC table 323.
wL
M =
2
Step 2: Calculate the bending moment, moment of inertia, and section modulus:
kip
0.3 (20 ft)
ft
M = = 60 kip − ft
2
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19) A set of interior columns are being designed. The columns are continuously braced
perpendicular to the frame. The girders between the columns are W 16 X 45 members and
the Columns are W 12 X 79. The columns span 35 feet apart and are 20 feet in height.
Assume Fy = 50ksi and Fu = 65ksi. Columns are not braced in plane. The base of each
column is tied to the foundation and all other connections are rigid. Determine the available
critical stress assuming K = 1.2.
The Answers is D
Step 1: We need to determine the slenderness ratio for our column. First determine the effective
length of the column and the radius of gyration for our member. The effective length is Kl = 24 ft
for our column. Find the appropriate radius of gyration.
Calculate the slenderness ratio as a function of the effective length and the radius of
gyration using appropriate equation.
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in
Kl (1.2)(20ft)(12 ft )
= = 94.4
r 3.05in
Step 2: Using the appropriate table we can associate the slenderness ratio of our column
with an available critical stress.
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20) A gutter at the side of a street has a curb height of 8 inches, slope along the length of the
street of 0.7%, and Manning n=0.032. The pavement slopes from the center of the street to
the gutter at 5%. What is the flow capacity of this gutter?
A) 4.9 cfs
B) 8.0 cfs
C) 11.1 cfs
D) 14.7 cfs
The Answers is B
Step 1: When the gutter is full, the water extends a distance =8/0.05=160 inches=13.3 feet from
the curb. The cross sectional area A=0.5(13.3)(8/12)=4.44 ft2, and wetted perimeter P=
8/12+13.3 = 14 ft, hydraulic radius Rh=(4.44)/(14)=0.317 ft.
K
Step 2: Manning’s equation for the discharge Q ARh2 / 3 S 1/ 2 , where K=1 for metric units,
n
K=1.49 for USCS units, n = Manning roughness coefficient
Rh=A/P = hydraulic radius, A = cross sectional area, P = wetted perimeter, S = channel slope, so
Q=(1.49/0.032)(4.44)(0.317)2/3 (.7/100)1/2 = 8.0 cfs.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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21) Water from a 175ac light industrial watershed is collected and drained by a trapezoidal
open channel. The channel (Manning' roughness coefficient, = 0.02) has a 4.5ftwide
bottom and 1:1 sides. The channel direction is perpendicular to a road where twin, sideby
side 54indiameter corrugated metal pipe (CMP) culverts take the water under the roadway.
The average slope of the channel and culverts is 0.75% (i.e., 0.0075 ft/ft). The time for
runoff from the farthest part of the watershed to begin contributing to the flow is 35 min. 
Using the rational method and assuming the intensity after 35 min is 2 in/hr, what is the
runoff?
A) 308 B) 180
C) 228 D) 340
The Answers is C
= =( . ) ( )=
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22) A parking lot adjoining a shopping center has a surface area of 3.5 acres. A rainstorm that
delivers rainfall at a rate of 2.5 inches/hour occurs. The parking area has a runoff
coefficient C=0.7. What is the peak runoff from the parking lot during this rainstorm?
The Answers is C
Q=CiA
where Q is the discharge, C is the runoff coefficient, i is the rainfall intensity in inches/hour, and
A is the drainage area in acres.
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23) A 10 acre basin stores approximately 7.0 inches of water. What is the runoff for the given
basin for a 2hr storm with an average of 0.5 in/hr of rainfall?
The Answers is B
= .
= ∗ . =
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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24) A horizontal pipeline carries water at a discharge of 13.5 cfs. Upstream of a contraction the
pipe diameter is 24 inches and pressure is 14 psi, while downstream of the contraction the
diameter is 18 inches. Neglecting head loss, what is the pressure downstream?
A) 11.2 psi
B) 13.7 psi
C) 14.2 psi
D) 15.9 psi
The Answers is B
p1 V12 p V2
z1 z2 2 2
Step 1: The Bernoulli equation states that 2g 2 g , where z =
elevation, p = pressure, V = average velocity, g = acceleration of gravity , and = specific
weight of water. Let point 1 be upstream of the contraction, and point 2 downstream.
Step 2: Since pipe is horizontal, z1=z2. Area A1= D2/4 = 3.14 ft2, A2= 3.14(18/12)2/4=
1.77ft2. V1=Q1/A1= (13.5)/(3.14)= 4.3 ft/sec, V2=Q2/A2= (13.5)/(1.77)=7.63 ft/sec. Also
p1=14 psi = 14(144)=2020 lbs/ft2, p1/ =4900/62.4 = 32.3 ft.
p2 p1 V12 V22
Step 3: Rearranging the Bernoulli Eq gives 2 g 2 g =32.3 + (4.3)2/2/32.2 
(7.63)2/2/32.2 = 31.7 ft; p2=31.7(62.4 lbs/ft3)/144=13.7 psi.
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25) Which one has more pressure at the depth of h = 10 ft? (the inclined surfaces has the
measure of angle of 60 degree.)
The Answers is A
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26) Find the bending moment in the below beam for the concentrated load given equal to 5
Kips?
10ft 10ft
H= 5ft
A) 25 Kipsft B) 5 kipsft
C) 0.00 Kipsft D) none of them
The Answers is C
This is not a beam, so there is not a bending moment. This is a truss with axial forces.
So M=0.00
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27) An equaltangent crest vertical curve is to connect grades of +2.0% and 3%. The design
sight distance on the curve is 645 ft. Determine the minimum length of the curve to meet the
sign distance requirement. (Assume the height of driver’s eyes above the roadway surface is
3.5 ft, and the height of object above the roadway surface is 2.0 ft.)
The Answers is B
Step 1:
If we assume that the curve length (L) is greater than the sight distance (S), under the standard
criteria of the heights of driver’s eyes and objects above the roadway surface, the minimum
curve length is
=
2,158
Step 2:
The grades of the two tangents are g1=+2.0% and g2=3.0%, respectively. Therefore, the
absolute value of algebraic difference in grades (%) is
= −  = 2 − (−3) = 5
Step 3:
(5)(645)
= = ≅ 963.91
2,158 2,158
which is greater than the sight distance, so the assumption that is correct.
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28) A horizontal circular curve has an intersection angle of 16. The length of middle ordinate
(M) is 8.00 ft. The radius (ft) of the curve is most nearly
PI
T T
M =8.00 ft
PC LC PT
R I =16 R
The Answers is D
The relationship between the length of middle ordinate (M), radius of the curve (R), and
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8:008:15 1400
8:158:30 1600
8:308:45 2200
8:459:00 1800
A) 0.795 B) 0.880
C) 0.650 D) 0.945
The Answers is A
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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30) A sieve analysis on a nonorganic soil reveals that 82% of the soil passes No. 200 sieve
(0.075 mm). The liquid limit of the soil is 24%, and the soil has a medium toughness and a
very slow dilatancy. Classify the soil according to the Unified Soil Classification system
(USCS).
A) GC B) ML C) CL D) CH
The Answers is A
Step 1:
Because 82% of the soil is smaller than No. 200 sieve size, which is larger than 50%, the soil is
finegrained according to the Unified Soil Classification table
Step 2:
Because the liquid limit (24%) is less than 50%, the soil is low plastic. Therefore, the second
letter of the USCS group symbol is L.
Step 3:
Because the soil is nonorganic, the first letter of the USCS group symbol is not O. Because the
soil has a medium toughness and a very slow dilatancy, it contains more clay than silt. The first
letter of the USCS group symbol is C according to the Unified Soil Classification table.
Therefore, the soil is classified as CL according to USCS.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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31) In a falling head permeability test on a soil sample, the following data are available:
The Answers is B
Step 1:
From a falling head test, coefficient of permeability, k, is calculated by
2.303aL h
k= log ( )
At h
Where a = area of reservoir tube; L = length of flow; A=crosssectional area of soil; tE=elapsed
time during falling head test; h1=initial head; h2=final head.
Step 2:
From the given information, it is known that
( )
= = = 0.503 cm , L = 10 cm, A = 60 cm , t = 20 minutes = 20 minutes ×
Therefore,
2.303aL h 2.303(0.503cm )(10 cm) 120 cm
k= log = log
At h (60 cm )(1200 seconds) 108 cm
= 7.36 × 10 cm/sec
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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32) A concrete mixture has a 60:40 ratio of coarse aggregates to fine aggregates. When mixed
separately, 250lbs of coarse aggregates are capable of fitting in a 3ft3 container and 200lbs
of fine aggregates are capable of fitting in a 2ft3 container. Determine the bulk density of
the concrete mixture with a 50:50 ratio.
A) 80lb/ft3
B) 87lb/ft3
C) 90lb/ft3
D) 97lb/ft3
The Answers is C
Step 1. Determine the bulk unit weights of each type of aggregate with the following
formula:
250 83
= =
3
200 100
= =
2
Step 2. Since it’s a 60:40 ratio, simply take the percentage of each density and divided by 2.
= 0.6(83) + 0.4(100) = 90
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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33) Find the bending moment in the below beam for the uniform load given equal to 5 Kips/ft?
A) 250 kipsft
B) 125 kipsft
C) 62.5 kipsft
D) 500 kipsft
The Answers is C
In general this is a truss and technically there is not bending moment in whole structure. But the
members may get the flexure if the forces are not applied on the joints.
In this case, there is uniform force on the 2 members of the truss. So each member individually
will have bending moment. Therefore,
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34) For the shown structure, the horizontal length is 10ft and vertical length is given as 8 ft. The
force applied at the midspan and is equal to 20 Kips. The inclined support is a roller
support.
Find the bending moment in the structure?
The Answers is C
This question shows the condition for the instable structure. If all reactions of a structure passes
through one point then we cannot write the equation of equilibrium and we will lose one
equation.
Then before any actions occures in this structure the structure will fail and thus there is no
bending moment in this structure.
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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35) Given a soil fill sample with a weight of 62 lbs and a total volume of 864 in3 and a water
content of 15%, determine the percent relative compaction of the sample if the maximum
dry unit weight is 115pcf.
A) 93.8% B) 95.2%
C) 102% D) 127%
The Answers is A
Step 1
The relative compaction cannot exceed 100%. That being known answers C and D are eliminated. To
determine the relative compaction we must determine the dry unit weight of the fill sample. Then we can
compare it to the maximum dry unit weight.
62
1 62
864 0.5
12
= = = = 107.8
,% 15% 1.15
1+ 1+
100% 100%
Step 2
The relative compaction is the dry unit weight of the sample divided by the maximum unit weight:
107.8
× 100% = × 100% = 93.8%
, 115
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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36) For the reinforced concrete slabs like the following picture, if the width is given equal to
20’, then what would be the maximum length of the slab if the designer wants to have two
way slab and have the following reinforcement arrangement?
A) 40’ B) 10’
C) 20’ D) 50’
The Answers is A
ACI 31808, 13.6.1.2. : Panels shall be rectangular with a ratio of longer to shorter span less
than or equal to 2 for the 2 way slabs. (Also see below picture)
So, = 2 ∗ 20 = 40′
The slab can have 40’ to be considered as a two way slab. Thus the distribution of bending
moment in both direction needs reinforcement for negative and positive bending moment in both
directions.
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37) For the following excavation shown below the contractor has used the nailing system to
secure the project. Who should be the first person for inspection of the nailing system?
The Answers is A
The competent person is not necessarily have sufficient knowledge about the nailing. Choices
“B” and “D” are also are not correct. For all excavations a trained person should be the first who
enter.
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38) Find the zone of influence for the following excavation where there is no soldier piles.
Neglect the brick made counterforts.
Depth of excavation = 30 ft
A) 22.6 ft
B) 30 ft
C) 32 ft
D) 21.2 ft
The Answers is A
Adjacent Construction Project Manual, Office of Joint Development & Adjacent Construction,
September 16, 2013 (Revision 5)
An envelope starting at a point two feet below the lowest point of the underground structure or
excavation continuing upward at a forty five (45) degree angle from the horizontal at the vertical
projection of the outside limits of the Public structure.
An envelope starting at a point two feet below the lowest point of Public structure continuing
upwards at a forty five (45) degree angle from the horizontal, up to the horizontal projection of
the outside limits of the adjacent underground structure or excavation, projected at grade level.
So, depth of excavation = 30 and according to the code 2’ should be added so, 30+2 =32
Horizontal distance considering the 45 degree = 32*Cos (45) = 22.6 ft
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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39) Refer to the figures, the net excavation (yd3) from section 78 (14+20) (100s of ft) to section
80 (15+80) is most nearly:
A) 3462 B) 59788
C) 4000 D) 2214
The Answers is D
Sec 79 & 78: There is excavation and embankment between these two sections:
( . )
= ∗ (1500 − 1420) = 27208
( . )
= ∗ (1500 − 1420) = 16852
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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40) The site manager put the mark of “C” and the following numbers on the lath stake. The
ground elevation is given equal to +20.00. The surveyor measured 1’ for the distance
between horizontal line and the ground surface. With that sign what would be the final
elevation:
19
1’
A) +21.90 B) +19.10
C) +17.10 D) +18.10
The Answers is B
The sign of “C” means: Cut is required. And the horizontal line shows the reference point for it.
The number on stake shows the required cut below the horizontal line.
So, the final elevation will be equal to 1.9’ below the horizontal line. Since the distance between
the ground and the horizontal is 1’, then it is necessary for the (1.91) =0.9’ for excavation. The
final ground elevation will be: +20.00 – 0.9 = 19.10
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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1) The Building Cost Index (BCI) for structural iron work developed by which formula?
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2) You are replacing 12, 18” wide 2 use beams and 10, 24” wide 1use beams. How much
A) $135.10
B) $72.60
C) $75.00
D) $145.50
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3) A project is described by the following precedence table. The project manager wants to
decrease the normal project time by 4 days. Most nearly, how much will it cost to reduce the
project completion time by four days?
A  8 6 50 100
B A 2 1 80 140
C A 6 4 80 100
D B 2 1 100 150
E C 6 3 90 200
F E 3 1 80 160
A) 200 B) 120
C) 180 D) 140
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3) A dumphauler has a purchase price of $109,000. Freight for delivery is $1000. Tires are an
additional 21,000 with the estimated life time of 4500 hours. The hauler expected to operate
1500 hours annually and for 11 years. Maintenance fees for the hauler is estimated at
$18000. What is the beforetax estimated hourly cost of operation excluding operator labor
cost?
A) 35 B) 41
C) 24 D) 15
A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 3
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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5) The Figure below shows a scaffolding for a bridge as a heavy construction. If the deck
thickness of the bridge is given equal to 4’, and the span length between scaffolding columns is
given equal to 4’, find the axial force in those columns for the dead and personnel and equipment
combination. (No variable material on the scaffolding will be stored.)
A) P= 2400 lbs
B) P=13440 lbs
C) P= 9600 lbs
D) P= 1200 lbs
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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6) If the weight of the white car is 1.5 US tons, for lifting up by a crane like the left figure,
find the minimum safe resistive moment for the crane to prevent of an accident shown in the
right figure if the required lever arm is 30’. If the weight of crane is given equal to 10 tons, then
find the required distance between cranes jacks on the ground
30’
200
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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7) For the following haul road crown what is the maximum possible slope?
A) 6%
B) 12%
C) 3%
D) 1%
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8) Point A is 5 m below the ground. The underground water level is 2 m below the ground.
There are two deposits of sandy soil at the site. The first deposit of soil has a depth of 3 m, and a
total unit weight (above the water level) of 13.2 kN/m3, a saturated unit weight of 16.5 kN/m3.
The second deposit of soil has a saturated unit weight of 17.6 kN/m3. Determine the effective
vertical soil pressure at point A.
1
H1=2 m
W. L. Sandy soil 1
H2=1m 1sat
H3=2 m 2sat
Sandy soil 2
A
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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10) A 2.4m thick clay layer is between two saturated 3m sand layers. The average effective
vertical stress in the clay (at the depth of 5.4 m) is given equal to 30 kPa. Determine the total
stress at the depth of 5.4m.
A) 54 B) 84 C) 79 D) 30
11) Determine the lateral force (per unit length of wall) on the frictionless retaining wall, as
shown in the figure below. The soil behind of the wall is clean sand with a saturated unit weight
of 20.0 kN/m3 and angle of internal friction of 36. Groundwater level is at the surface of the
ground.
Groundwater Level
12) A uniform deposit soil is shown in the following diagram. Information of soil in each
layer is given. Assume that the effective stress at point A is 100kPa, determine the value of H2.
H1=3m γ = 16 /
H2 γ = 17 /
H3=2m
γ = 18 / A
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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13) Information of a soil is shown in the following diagram. Assume that the surcharge is
40kPa acting at the top of soil as shown in the diagram. If the effective pressure at point A is
150kPa. Determine the water content of this soil.
14) A load of 12000 lb is going to put 10 ft from the left support on a long beam. If the
maximum permissible bending stress is 24,000 psi. Determine the minimum section modulus for
the supposed beam. E = 30 × 106 psi.
A) 12 in3
B) 35 in3
C) 40 in3
D) 25 in3
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15) Determine h if the maximum slope on the beam shown below is measured as 0.02 rad.
A) 4.38 in
B) 5.26 in
C) 6.15 in
D) 7.07 in
16) A 15 ft long reinforced concrete cantilever beam is subject to factored shear of 105 kips
at the fixed end. The shear support from the concrete is 57 kips. The beam cross section is 18 in
by 28 in. f = 60000 psi, f = 4000 psi. The depth of the steel is 25 in. #3 stirrups are used.
Determine the required spacing for the shear reinforcement at the support.
A) 12 in B) 4.4 in
C) 12.5 in D) 3.9 in
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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17) The column shown is a W 21 X 50 steel member. The applied dead load is 7 kips.
Neglect selfweight. The column length is 12 ft tall. The column is not braced along the length.
Assume Fy = 50ksi. Determine the effective length of the column.
A) 12 ft B) 14.4 ft
C) 24.2 ft D) 9.5 ft
18) A simply supported and fully braced beam spans 30 ft and carries a dead and live
distributed load of 0.5 kip/ft and 0.8 kip/ft respectively. Using the 1.2D + 1.6L combination. If
the Plastic section modulus is given equal to 55 in3 for the assumed section, find the maximum
stress in the section. (The beam made of steel with 50 KSI strength.)
A) 50 KSI B) 46 KSI
C) 30 KSI D) 38 KSI
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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A) k = 2.1 B) k = 1.33
C) k = 1.0 D) k = 1.2
20) Three rain gages are located within or nearby a watershed, whose total area is 1100 acres.
Using the Thiessen polygon method, the portions of the watershed associated with gages A, B,
and C are 520, 310, and 270 acres, respectively. For a particular storm, it is determined that the
excess rainfall for these 3 portions of the watershed is 0.95, 1.23, and 1.44 inches, respectively.
What is the volume of runoff from this watershed for this storm?
A) 19.2 MG
B) 28.3 MG
C) 34.3 MG
D) 44.7 MG
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21) At the design discharge, an existing single circular culvert has the following
characteristics: headwater elevation = 5.5 ft above invert, culvert diameter= 2.5 ft, critical depth
= 1.9 ft, uniform depth = 1.7 ft, and the outlet is free. Which of the following describes the
culvert flow under these conditions?
22) Runoff from a 3acre site is to be drained by a channel. The time of concentration for
this site is 40 minutes. The site has a runoff coefficient C=0.2. Rainfall quantities to be used for
design are 0.5 inches for a storm of duration 20 minutes, 0.7 inches for duration 40 minutes, and
0.9 inches for duration 60 minutes. For what discharge should this channel be designed?
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24) All three pipes in the figure below have the same length and are connected in parallel.
The diameters are given. Determine the ratio of velocities in the branches. Assume the friction
factor for all the lines to be the same.
25) What is the approximate runoff for a watershed with the given hydrograph?
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Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
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26) Two pipelines carry water from a common starting point to a common end point. The
two pipes have the same friction factor f and diameter, but pipe 1 is twice as long as pipe 2.
What fraction of the discharge between the start and end points flows through pipe 1?
27) A 600 ft long equaltangent crest vertical curve connects grades of +4.0% and 2.5%. The
point of vertical intersection (PVI) is located at station 123+00 with an elevation of 62.80 ft.
What is the elevation of the PVT?
28) A horizontal circular curve has a radius of 120 ft. The station of PC is sta 22+10.00. At
point X (station 22+60.00) on the curve, a stake is to be placed. The deflection angle between
tangent PIPC and chord XPC is most nearly
PI
T T
X Station
22+60.00
PC LC PT
Station
22+10.00
R=120 ft d
R
29) What is the minimum Average Daily Traffic (ADT) passing in one lane with the speed of
50 mph in the level terrain?
A) 15002000 B) 4001500
C) >2000 D) = 2000
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30) Particle size analysis was carried out on a soil with the results shown in the following
table. Classify the soil according to the Unified Soil Classification system (USCS).
A) GC B) GP C) SP D) SM
31) The subgrade of a highway is compacted from a natural soil layer. It is known that the
natural soil has a total unit weight of 20 kN/m3, and a dry unit weight of 18 kN/m3. It needs to
be compacted to attain a dry unit weight of 19 kN/m3 and a water content of 15%. What is the
total unit weight of the compacted soil?
32) An engineer specifies that the concrete structure must have a strength to withstand an
object with a diameter of 0.75 inches and a force of 2500 lbs. Determine the required average
compressive strength for a plant where the standard deviation is unknown given the equations.
The following table may be consulted:
= + . = + . −
A) 5659 psi
B) 6259 psi
C) 6659 psi
D) 7059 psi
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33) The stressstrain test of a steel bar shows in the following graph. Which point shows the
yield stress?
A) C
B) B
C) A
D) D
34) A circular foundation on the soil with a diameter of 10 feet is tested to find the allowable
bearing capacity. If the soil fails under a force of 500,000 lb, and the factor of safety considered
as 3, find the allowable stress of soil.
35) A new roadway construction requires the sub base soil to have a dry density of 125 pcf
and optimum moisture content (OMC) of 12.5%. A smooth drum roller will be used to compact
the soil in 4inchthick lifts while the width is 32 ft. The soil has been tested in place and the
results show moisture content of 6%. The water must be added to the stationing length of 100ft
to obtain the required moisture content for compaction. How many gallons per yard must be
added to meet the requirements?
A) 3.42 gal/yd2
B) 5.63 gal/yd2
C) 2.34 gal/yd2
D) 2.93 gal/yd2
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36) For the reinforced concrete slabs like the following picture, if the width is given equal to
20’, then what would be the maximum length of the slab if the designer wants to have two way
slab and have the following reinforcement arrangement? (The slab supported by edge beam in
two sides and there is no edge beam at the other sides.)
20’
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37) For the following bridge shown in the following picture, what is the maximum distance
between the net and the bridge deck that a fall can be arrested by that net?
A) 10’ B) 15’
C) 30’ D) 20’
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38) For the excavation shown in the below figure, find the lateral earth pressure on each
supporting structures if the spacing of them are about 10’. (Ka=0.3, Soil density = 150 pcf)
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39) 100 yd3 of bank run soil is excavated and stockpiled before being transported and
subsequently compacted. Swell and shrinkage factors for the soil are given equal to 0.30 and
0.12 respectively. The final volume of the compacted earth is most nearly.
A) 130 B) 65
C) 88 D) 112
40) For the following picture which shows a ditch checks for erosion control, which answer
is the best description of both ditches?
Figure 1 Figure 2
A) 1: Rock ditch for grade <6%, 2: Bale ditch for grade >6%
B) 1: Bale ditch for grade >6%, 2: Rock ditch for grade <6%,
C) 1: Rock ditch for grade >6%, 2: Bale ditch for grade <6%
D) 1: Rock ditch for grade >2%, 2: Bale ditch for grade <2%
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Solutions
Fourth Style Exam
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1) The Building Cost Index (BCI) for structural iron work developed by which formula?
The Answers is D
The Engineering Newsrecords BCI is developed with the explanation of both A & C. The
explanation of “B” is about the Construction Cost Index (CCI).
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2) You are replacing 12, 18” wide 2 use beams and 10, 24” wide 1use beams. How much
A) $135.10
B) $72.60
C) $75.00
D) $145.50
The Answers is A
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3) A project is described by the following precedence table. The project manager wants to
decrease the normal project time by 4 days. Most nearly, how much will it cost to reduce the
project completion time by four days?
A  8 6 50 100
B A 2 1 80 140
C A 6 4 80 100
D B 2 1 100 150
E C 6 3 90 200
F E 3 1 80 160
A) 200 B) 120
C) 180 D) 140
The Answers is D
According to the table the CPM chart represents the following free floats:
A C E F
B D G
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Path 1: ABDG= 16
Path 2: ABDEFG=25
In order to reduce the overall project duration by 4 days, the mot inexpensive operation is to
allocate additional resources (crash) to activities C, D, and A.
For 4 days we can consider C for 2 days and A for the other 2 days. So
The total additional cost due the project crash = 100+40= $140
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3) A dumphauler has a purchase price of $109,000. Freight for delivery is $1000. Tires are an
additional 21,000 with the estimated life time of 4500 hours. The hauler expected to operate
1500 hours annually and for 11 years. Maintenance fees for the hauler is estimated at
$18000. What is the beforetax estimated hourly cost of operation excluding operator labor
cost?
A) 35 B) 41
C) 24 D) 15
The Answers is C
The best way to estimate the hourly cost is to find all expenditures and cost for a year, then the
hourly cost can be estimated prorate:
Tires will work 4500 hr and every year 1500 years of operation is expected so: 4500/1500=3
years is the life time for the tires
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A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 3
The Answers is A
The complete solution to this problem requires calculating the ES, LS, EF, LF, and the float (as
follows).
ES LS EF LF Float
1 0 0 3 3 0
2 3 7 13 17 4
3 3 3 9 9 0
4 9 9 17 17 0
5 17 17 21 21 0
Short Cut
There is no need to calculate anything in this problem. Task 5 is the finishing task of this project
and therefore, must be on the critical path. All tasks that are on critical path have always zero
floats. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.
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5) The Figure below shows a scaffolding for a bridge as a heavy construction. If the deck
thickness of the bridge is given equal to 4’, and the span length between scaffolding columns is
given equal to 4’, find the axial force in those columns for the dead and personnel and equipment
combination. (No variable material on the scaffolding will be stored.)
A) P= 2400 lbs
B) P=13440 lbs
C) P= 9600 lbs
D) P= 1200 lbs
The Answers is B
According to the load classification, the 75 psf live load is used for the heavy construction with
motorized buggies and heavy equipment. There is no variable material on scaffolding so only the
live load of the personnel and their equipment shall be considered.
The area on each column is less than 400sf so no reduction of live loads shall be considered.
Concrete density = 150 pcf
So, Dead load = 4*150= 600 lb/sf
Live load= 75 lb/sf
U=1.2D+1.6L = 1.2*600+1.6*75= 840 lb/sf
For the 4’*4’ scaffolding grid the axial force will be equal to: 840*4*4= 13440 lbs
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6) If the weight of the white car is 1.5 US tons, for lifting up by a crane like the left figure,
find the minimum safe resistive moment for the crane to prevent of an accident shown in the
right figure if the required lever arm is 30’. If the weight of crane is given equal to 10 tons, then
find the required distance between cranes jacks on the ground
30’
The Answers is C
The resistive moment should be equal to or bigger than the overturning moment.
Moverturning= Force * Lever arm = 1.5* 2000 lbs * 30’ = 90,000 lbft
So, to have the safe lifting the resistive moment (MR) should be bigger than the overturning
moment: MR≥ 90,000 lbft
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7) For the following haul road crown what is the maximum possible slope?
A) 6%
B) 12%
C) 3%
D) 1%
The Answers is C
The ideal crown slope is 3%. Lower slopes my allow water to pool on the road and more than
3% cause the uneven tire wear.
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8) Point A is 5 m below the ground. The underground water level is 2 m below the ground.
There are two deposits of sandy soil at the site. The first deposit of soil has a depth of 3 m, and a
total unit weight (above the water level) of 13.2 kN/m3, a saturated unit weight of 16.5 kN/m3.
The second deposit of soil has a saturated unit weight of 17.6 kN/m3. Determine the effective
vertical soil pressure at point A.
1
H1=2 m
W. L. Sandy soil 1
H2=1m 1sat
H3=2 m 2sat
Sandy soil 2
A
The Answers is B
Effective stress is equal to the total stress minus pore water pressure . = − .
Step 1:
The total stress is calculated by = + + =( . / )( )+
( . / )( )+( . / )( )= .
Step 2:
The pore water pressure is calculated by = =( . / )( + )=
.
Step 3:
The effective stress is
=− = . − . = .
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The Answers is B
According to the below picture and using any different expressions to find the ultimate bearing
stress (i.e. Terzaghi’s theory, Hansson, etc.) , the more depth of footing increase the q0 and thus
the bearing pressure. So the more depth, the more bearing stress. So the footing which is
embedded shows more bearing more than the on surface footing with the same size.
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10) A 2.4m thick clay layer is between two saturated 3m sand layers. The average effective
vertical stress in the clay (at the depth of 5.4 m) is given equal to 30 kPa. Determine the total
stress at the depth of 5.4m.
A) 54 B) 84 C) 79 D) 30
The Answers is B
The relation between total stresses, pore pressure, and effective stresses are described as:
= − =( − )
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11) Determine the lateral force (per unit length of wall) on the frictionless retaining wall, as
shown in the figure below. The soil behind of the wall is clean sand with a saturated unit weight
of 20.0 kN/m3 and angle of internal friction of 36. Groundwater level is at the surface of the
ground.
Groundwater Level
The Answers is C
Step 1:
Based on the Rankine theory, the Rankine active earth pressure coefficient K = tan 45° −
°
=tan 45° − = 0.260.
Step 2:
At the surface of the ground, the vertical effective stress and the pore water pressure are both
zero, σ = u = 0.
At the base of the wall,
kN kN
σ = − u = (γ − γ )H = 20 − 9.8 (6 m) = 61.2 kPa
m m
kN
u = γ H = 9.8 (6 m) = 58.8 kPa
m
Step 3:
The active lateral earth pressure at the base of the wall, σ , is
σ = K σ = 0.260 × 61.2 kPa = 15.9 kPa
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Step 4:
Based on the distributions of lateral earth pressure and pore water pressure,
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12) A uniform deposit soil is shown in the following diagram. Information of soil in each
layer is given. Assume that the effective stress at point A is 100kPa, determine the value of H2.
H1=3m γ = 16 /
H2 γ = 17 /
H3=2m
γ = 18 / A
The Answers is A
Step 1: From the diagram, we can see that there are three layers of soil. For the first layer above
groundwater level, the unit weight is equal to,
= 16 /
For the second layer above groundwater level, the unit weight is equal to,
= 17 /
For the third layer below groundwater level, the unit weight is equal to,
= 18 /
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=2
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13) Information of a soil is shown in the following diagram. Assume that the surcharge is
40kPa acting at the top of soil as shown in the diagram. If the effective pressure at point A is
150kPa. Determine the water content of this soil.
The Answers is C
Step 1: From the diagram, we can see that there is only one layer of soil. The effective pressure
at point A can be calculated by,
= + = 40 + (6 ) = 130
Solving this equation, we can know the value of density of this soil as,
= 15 /
Step 2: According to equations of the density of this soil can be described as,
+
=
1+
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Therefore,
+ 2.7 +
= = (9.8 / ) = 15 /
1+ 1+1
= 36%
(36%)(1.0)
= = = 13.3%
2.7
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14) A load of 12000 lb is going to put 10 ft from the left support on a long beam. If the
maximum permissible bending stress is 24,000 psi. Determine the minimum section modulus for
the supposed beam. E = 30 × 106 psi.
A) 12 in3
B) 35 in3
C) 40 in3
D) 25 in3
The Answers is C
0 =  RB (30) + P (20)
RB = 12000(20)/30
RB= 8000 lb
Step 2: Draw free body diagram of the section under the load and determine the maximum
moment:
∑MV = 0 0=  RB (10) + M
= 8000 (10 ft)
= 80,000 lb·ft
Step 3: Calculate the S, Section Modulus, from the maximum normal stress:
, ∙ ( )
S> =
S > 40 in3
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15) Determine h if the maximum slope on the beam shown below is measured as 0.02 rad.
A) 4.38 in
B) 5.26 in
C) 6.15 in
D) 7.07 in
The Answers is B
Step 1: The slope at the free end of cantilever beam is the maximum. Using any mechanics of
material book, the maximum slope can be calculated as
− − −
= = = = −0.02
24 ℎ 2 ℎ
24
12
Step 2: determine h
(100 / )(36 )
ℎ = = = 145.8
(0.02)2 (0.02)2 200 × 10 (4 )
ℎ = 5.26
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16) A 15 ft long reinforced concrete cantilever beam is subject to factored shear of 105 kips
at the fixed end. The shear support from the concrete is 57 kips. The beam cross section is 18 in
by 28 in. f = 60000 psi, f = 4000 psi. The depth of the steel is 25 in. #3 stirrups are used.
Determine the required spacing for the shear reinforcement at the support.
A) 12 in B) 4.4 in
C) 12.5 in D) 3.9 in
The Answers is D
Step 1: The given ultimate shear at the support is greater than the shear that the concrete
can support. Knowing this we will calculate required spacing using the appropriate
relationships. Determine the shear that will need to be carried by the steel and the spacing
to do so. This will require a resistance factor to be considered. Use the resistance factor
table. For shear use 0.75.
= − = 84.33
#3 stirrups are used for this system. Look up the area for a #3 bar at the appropriate table.
The area is 0.11 in2 the total shear area will be double since it crosses the cross section
twice.
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= (2)(0.11 ) = 0.22
Step 2: Calculate the maximum spacing and make sure they are not less than the required
spacing calculated. To know which set of maximums to use calculate the limit and test
against Vs.
1
4 = 4(18 )(25 ) 4000 = 113.84
1000
113.84 84.33
= = 12.5 24
2
Both of these are greater than the value we calculated for spacing.
~3.9 in
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17) The column shown is a W 21 X 50 steel member. The applied dead load is 7 kips.
Neglect selfweight. The column length is 12 ft tall. The column is not braced along the length.
Assume Fy = 50ksi. Determine the effective length of the column.
A) 12 ft B) 14.4 ft
C) 24.2 ft D) 9.5 ft
The Answers is D
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Step 1: We first need to determine an effective length factor for the column. The top end of our
system is fixed in translation but free in rotation, and the bottom end is fixed in both translation
and rotation. See the appropriate table which is shown above. For our system select an effective
length factor of 0.8 for design.
~9.5 ft
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18) A simply supported and fully braced beam spans 30 ft and carries a dead and live
distributed load of 0.5 kip/ft and 0.8 kip/ft respectively. Using the 1.2D + 1.6L combination. If
the Plastic section modulus is given equal to 55 in3 for the assumed section, find the maximum
stress in the section. (The beam made of steel with 50 KSI strength.)
A) 50 KSI B) 46 KSI
C) 30 KSI D) 38 KSI
The Answers is B
Step 1: Substitute the distributed dead load (wD) and distributed live load (wL) into the equation
to get the factored distributed load (wu).
Now we calculate the maximum moment on the beam. Maximum moment equations for a
distributed load on a simple beam can be found in AISC table 323.
kip
w L 1.88 (30 ft)
ft
M = = = 211.5 kip − ft
8 8
.ϕM = ϕM
ϕM = ϕF Z = Stress . Z
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Take the maximum moment on the beam and set this equal to our moment capacity then find a
required section modulus.
in
M = 211.5 kip − ft 12 = stress .55
ft
= 46.1 KSI
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A) k = 2.1 B) k = 1.33
C) k = 1.0 D) k = 1.2
The Answers is A
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20) Three rain gages are located within or nearby a watershed, whose total area is 1100 acres.
Using the Thiessen polygon method, the portions of the watershed associated with gages A, B,
and C are 520, 310, and 270 acres, respectively. For a particular storm, it is determined that the
excess rainfall for these 3 portions of the watershed is 0.95, 1.23, and 1.44 inches, respectively.
What is the volume of runoff from this watershed for this storm?
A) 19.2 MG
B) 28.3 MG
C) 34.3 MG
D) 44.7 MG
The Answers is C
Step 1: The volume of runoff is equal to the product of the watershed area and the excess
rainfall depth.
Step 2: Here the volume = (0.95 in)(1/12 ft/in)(520 acres)(43560 ft2/acre)+ (1.23 in)(1/12
ft/in)(310 acres)(43560 ft2/acre) + (1.44 in)(1/12 ft/in)(270 acres)(43560 ft2/acre)=4.59x106 ft3 =
34.3 MG (million gallons)
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21) At the design discharge, an existing single circular culvert has the following
characteristics: headwater elevation = 5.5 ft above invert, culvert diameter= 2.5 ft, critical depth
= 1.9 ft, uniform depth = 1.7 ft, and the outlet is free. Which of the following describes the
culvert flow under these conditions?
The Answers is B
Step 1: Since the critical depth is greater than the uniform depth, the culvert slope is steep.
Therefore the culvert is under inlet control.
Step 2: Since the headwater elevation above the invert is more than 1.2 times the pipe diameter,
the inlet will be submerged, and an orifice flow condition exists at the inlet.
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22) Runoff from a 3acre site is to be drained by a channel. The time of concentration for
this site is 40 minutes. The site has a runoff coefficient C=0.2. Rainfall quantities to be used for
design are 0.5 inches for a storm of duration 20 minutes, 0.7 inches for duration 40 minutes, and
0.9 inches for duration 60 minutes. For what discharge should this channel be designed?
The Answers is B
Q=CiA
where Q is the discharge in cfs, C is the runoff coefficient for the watershed, i is the
Step 2: In applying the rational method, rain falling over a time period equal to the time
of concentration of the watershed should be used. In this case, the time of concentration
is given as 40 minutes, or 0.67 hours, and the corresponding rainfall amount is 0.7 inches. So
the rainfall intensity is
Step 3: Solver for the discharge Q = C i A= (0.2) (1.04) (3) = 0.63 cfs
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The Answers is B
The total precipitation is the sum of all the rainfall over a given period of time for a watershed.
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24) All three pipes in the figure below have the same length and are connected in parallel.
The diameters are given. Determine the ratio of velocities in the branches. Assume the friction
factor for all the lines to be the same.
The Answers is C
fA( )( ) = f ( )( ) = f ( )( )
( ) = ( ) = ( )
( ) = ( ) = ( )
. .
2 2 2
1 VA = 1.2 VB = 1.5VC
Let Vc = 1
Then
1.5 (1)2 = 1.2 VB2
. ( )
VB = [ ]
.
VB =1.118
Also
1.5 (1)2 = VA2
. ( )
VA = [ ]
.
VA = 1.224
V to V toV = 1 to 1.118 to 1.224
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25) What is the approximate runoff for a watershed with the given hydrograph?
The Answers is C
Step 1: Divide the area under the hydrograph into easily calculable areas
. ∗( . . )
Triangle 1 = ∗ 3600 = 8190
. ∗( . . )
Triangle 2 = ∗ 3600 = 6300
. ∗( . . )
Triangle 3 = ∗ 3600 = 2700
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26) Two pipelines carry water from a common starting point to a common end point. The
two pipes have the same friction factor f and diameter, but pipe 1 is twice as long as pipe 2.
What fraction of the discharge between the start and end points flows through pipe 1?
The Answers is B
Step 1: For 2 pipes in parallel, the head loss in each pipe is equal.
Step 2: Using the Darcy Weisbach equation, equating the head losses in pipes 1 and 2 gives f1
(L1/D1) V12/2g = f2 (L2/D2) V22/2g
Step 3: Given that f1 = f2, D1 = D2, we get that V12/V22 = (L2/L1)=0.5, or V1/V2 =(0.5)1/2
= 0.71. Since the diameters and pipe areas are the same Q1/Q2 = 0.71. Then Q1/(Q1+Q2)=
1/(1+1/0.71)=0.41 = 41%
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27) A 600 ft long equaltangent crest vertical curve connects grades of +4.0% and 2.5%. The
point of vertical intersection (PVI) is located at station 123+00 with an elevation of 62.80 ft.
What is the elevation of the PVT?
The Answers is A
g1=4.0% g2 =2.5%
PVT
PVC
L = 600 ft
600
= = 300
2 2
Step 2:
The grade between PVI and PVT is g2=2.5%. Therefore, the vertical distance between PVI and
PVT is
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28) A horizontal circular curve has a radius of 120 ft. The station of PC is sta 22+10.00. At
point X (station 22+60.00) on the curve, a stake is to be placed. The deflection angle between
tangent PIPC and chord XPC is most nearly
PI
T T
X Station
22+60.00
PC LC PT
Station
22+10.00
R=120 ft d
R
The Answers is C
Step 1:
The curve length between X and PC is
l = (sta 22 + 60.00) − (sta 22 + 10.00) = 50 ft
Step 2:
° °( )
The angle for curve length l is d = = = 23.873°.
( )
Step 3:
The deflection angle between tangent PIPC and chord XPC is half of the angle for curve length
l
1 23.873°
α= d= = 11.9366° ≅ 11°56 12"
2 2
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29) What is the minimum Average Daily Traffic (ADT) passing in one lane with the speed of
50 mph in the level terrain?
A) 15002000 B) 4001500
C) >2000 D) = 2000
The Answers is C
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30) Particle size analysis was carried out on a soil with the results shown in the following
table. Classify the soil according to the Unified Soil Classification system (USCS).
A) GC B) GP C) SP D) SM
The Answers is B
Step 1:
Because only 5% of the soil is smaller than No. 200 sieve size, the soil is coarsegrained
according to the Unified Soil Classification table
Step 2:
The gravel fraction of the soil is those larger than No. 4 sieve size, which is (10040)=60. The
sand fraction of the soil is those larger than No. 200 sieve size but less than No. 4 sieve size,
which is (405)=35. Since 60>35, there are more gravels than sands in the coarse fraction of the
soil. The first letter of the USCS group symbol is G according to the Unified Soil Classification
table
Step 3:
Because the clay+silt fraction of the soil (fraction smaller than No. 200 sieve size) is very small
(4%), the gravel contains little fines (clean). Therefore, the second letter of the USCS group
symbol is either W or P.
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Step 4:
From the gradation curve table, it is known that the grain size corresponding to 10% finer on
grain size curve ( ) is 0.25 mm, the grain size corresponding to 30% finer on grain size curve
( ) is 0.85 mm, the grain size corresponding to 60% finer on grain size curve ( ) is 9.5 mm.
Therefore, the coefficient of uniformity ( )is
9.5
= = = 38
0.25
The coefficient of curvature ( )is
( ) (0.85 )
= = = 0.30
(0.25 )(9.5 )
Step 5:
Because is outside of the range of 1 to 3, the soil is poorly graded. Therefore, the second letter
of the USCS group symbol is P.
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31) The subgrade of a highway is compacted from a natural soil layer. It is known that the
natural soil has a total unit weight of 20 kN/m3, and a dry unit weight of 18 kN/m3. It needs to
be compacted to attain a dry unit weight of 19 kN/m3 and a water content of 15%. What is the
total unit weight of the compacted soil?
The Answers is A
Step 1:
From the given information, it is known that after compaction the subgrade soil has a dry
unit weight ( ) of 19 kN/m3 and a water content () of 15%.
Step 2:
The total unit weight of the compacted soil is
= ( + )= ×( + %) = .
Note: It can be calculated to see that the water content of the compacted soil is higher
than that of the uncompacted soil, therefore water must be added during compaction.
However, this is irrelevant to the question in this problem.
258
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
32) An engineer specifies that the concrete structure must have a strength to withstand an
object with a diameter of 0.75 inches and a force of 2500 lbs. Determine the required average
compressive strength for a plant where the standard deviation is unknown given the equations.
The following table may be consulted:
= + . = + . −
A) 5659 psi
B) 6259 psi
C) 6659 psi
D) 7059 psi
The Answers is D
Step 1. Determine the pressure exerted on the structure with the following equation:
2500
= = 5659
∗ 0.75
4
Step 2. Use the chart provided to calculate the required average compressive strength.
NOTE: f’c > 5000psi.
= + 1400
259
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
33) The stressstrain test of a steel bar shows in the following graph. Which point shows the
yield stress?
A) C
B) B
C) A
D) D
The Answers is D
This is the definition for the strain stress curve. All practice codes consider lower yield point
as the yield stress.
260
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
34) A circular foundation on the soil with a diameter of 10 feet is tested to find the allowable
bearing capacity. If the soil fails under a force of 500,000 lb, and the factor of safety considered
as 3, find the allowable stress of soil.
The Answers is A
Step 1:
Step 3:
The ultimate compressive strength, , is equal to the normal stress at failure. = =
. .
Step 4:
The allowable stress of soil = qu/FS = 44.209/3 = 14.73 psi
261
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
35) A new roadway construction requires the sub base soil to have a dry density of 125 pcf
and optimum moisture content (OMC) of 12.5%. A smooth drum roller will be used to compact
the soil in 4inchthick lifts while the width is 32 ft. The soil has been tested in place and the
results show moisture content of 6%. The water must be added to the stationing length of 100ft
to obtain the required moisture content for compaction. How many gallons per yard must be
added to meet the requirements?
A) 3.42 gal/yd2
B) 5.63 gal/yd2
C) 2.34 gal/yd2
D) 2.93 gal/yd2
The Answers is D
= ( )×
8.33 /
%− %
×
100
32 × 100 ( . ) × (4 /12 / ) 12.5% − 6%
= 125 × × = 1040.42 / .
8.33 / 100
1040.42 / .
= = 2.93 /
(32 × 100 / )/9 /
*See Fundamentals of Building Construction: Materials and Methods Wiley
262
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
36) For the reinforced concrete slabs like the following picture, if the width is given equal to
20’, then what would be the maximum length of the slab if the designer wants to have two way
slab and have the following reinforcement arrangement? (The slab supported by edge beam in
two sides and there is no edge beam at the other sides.)
20’
The Answers is B
ACI 31808, 13.6.1.6. & 7: For panel with beams between supports on all sides moment
distribution is permitted.
According to the code the stiffness of beams will create the support on all sides, therefore the
two way slab can be created. Panels with beams on two parallel edges is the one way slab so at
no circumstances the designer cannot create the two way slab unless the designer add two beams
on other edges or design the slab without beams on all edges. (i.e., according to the code 13.2.4.,
beams should be monolithic (or fully composite with slab) to make the two way slab, or
according to 13.2.1., the slabs without beams on all sides the slab can have the two way slab
behavior.
So, in this question the slab is the one way slab at all conditions.
263
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
37) For the following bridge shown in the following picture, what is the maximum distance
between the net and the bridge deck that a fall can be arrested by that net?
A) 10’ B) 15’
C) 30’ D) 20’
The Answers is C
264
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
38) For the excavation shown in the below figure, find the lateral earth pressure on each
supporting structures if the spacing of them are about 10’. (Ka=0.3, Soil density = 150 pcf)
The Answers is A
265
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
39) 100 yd3 of bank run soil is excavated and stockpiled before being transported and
subsequently compacted. Swell and shrinkage factors for the soil are given equal to 0.30 and
0.12 respectively. The final volume of the compacted earth is most nearly.
A) 130 B) 65
C) 88 D) 112
The Answers is C
Swell is measures with respect to the banked condition. The stockpiled and transported volume
will be: = (1 + )∗ = (1 + 0.30) ∗ 100 = 130
Shrinkage coefficient gives the compacted volume, so the answer is:
= (1 − ℎ )∗ = (1 − 0.12) ∗ 100 = 88
266
Practice Problems PE Style Exam (AM)
_________________________________________________________________
40) For the following picture which shows a ditch checks for erosion control, which answer
is the best description of both ditches?
Figure 1 Figure 2
A) 1: Rock ditch for grade <6%, 2: Bale ditch for grade >6%
B) 1: Bale ditch for grade >6%, 2: Rock ditch for grade <6%,
C) 1: Rock ditch for grade >6%, 2: Bale ditch for grade <6%
D) 1: Rock ditch for grade >2%, 2: Bale ditch for grade <2%
The Answers is C
Experiences show that for the grade< 6% the bale ditch check the erosion, and the rock ditch
works for grade >6%.
267
CHAPTER 7
WATER TANK
7.1 INTRODUCTION
As per Greek philosopher Thales, “Water is the source of every creation.” In day to day life one
cannot live without water. Therefore water needs to be stored for daily use. Over head water tank
and underground water reservoir is the most effective storing facilities used for domestic or even
industrial purpose.
Depending upon the location of the tank the tanks can be named as overhead, on ground or
underground. The tanks can be made in different shapes usually circular and rectangular shapes
are mostly used. The tanks can be made of RCC or even of steel. The overhead tanks are usually
elevated from the roof top through column. In the other hand the underground tanks are rested on
the foundation. Different types of tanks and their design procedure is discussed in subsequent
portion if this chapter.
The water tanks in this chapter are designed on the basis of no crack theory. The concrete used
are made impervious.
Basing on the location of the tank in a building s tanks can be classified into three categories.
Those are:
• Underground tanks
• Tank resting on grounds
• Overhead tanks
In most cases the underground and on ground tanks are circular or rectangular is shape but the
shape of the overhead tanks are influenced by the aesthetical view of the surroundings and as
well as the design of the construction.
Steel tanks are also used specially in railway yards. Basing on the shape the tanks can be
circular, rectangular, square, polygonal, spherical and conical. A special type of tank named
Intze tank is used for storing large amount of water for an area.
The overhead tanks are supported by the column which acts as stages. This column can be
braced for increasing strength and as well as to improve the aesthetic views.
WATER TANK
One of the vital considerations for design of tanks is that the structure has adequate resistance to
cracking and has adequate strength. For achieving these following assumptions are made:
• Concrete is capable of resisting limited tensile stresses the full section of concrete
including cover and reinforcement is taken into account in this assumption.
• To guard against structural failure in strength calculation the tensile strength of
concrete is ignored.
• Reduced values of permissible stresses in steel are adopted in steel are adopted in
design.
The simplest from of water tank is circular tank for the same amount of storage the circular tank
requires lesser amount of material. More over for its circular shape it has no corner and can be
made water tight easily. It is very economical for smaller storage of water up to 20000000 liters
and with diameter in the range of 5 to 8 m. The depth of the storage is between 3 to 4 m. The
side walls are designed for hoop tension and bending moments.
To ensure impervious concrete mixture linear than M 20 grade is not normally recommended to
make the walls leak proof the concretes near the water face need to such that no crack occurs. To
ensure this member thicknesses are so designed that stress in the concrete is lesser then the
permissible as given in table 7.1.
The stress in steel must not be allowed to exceed the following values under different positions
to prevent cracking of concrete.
• When steel is placed near the face of the members in contact with liquid 115 N/ sq
mm for ms Bars and 150 N/ sq mm for HYSD bars.
• When steel is placed on face away from liquid for members less then 225 mm in
thickness same as earlier.
• When steel is placed on the face away from the liquid for members 225 mm or
more in thickness: 125 N/ sq mm for M.S. bars and 190 N/sq mm for HYSD bars.
265
WATER TANK
Table 7.1 Permissible Stresses In Concrete (For calculations relating to resistance to concrete)
Permissible Stresses
Grade of Concrete Shear = a/bd
Direct Tension σst Tension Due to bending
(N/mm2) σcbt (N/mm2) (N/mm2)
The floor slab should be strong enough to transmit the load from the liquid and the structure
itself to the ground without subsidence. The floor slab is usually 150 to 200 mm thick and is
reinforced with nominal reinforcement, which may be provided in the form of mesh both at top
and bottom face of the slab. Before laying the slab the bade has to be rammed and leveled then
a75 mm thick layer of lean concrete of M 100 grade should be laid and cured. This layer should
be covered with tar to enable the floor slab act independently on the bottom layer. I n water
logged soils the bottom layer of concrete should preferably be of M 15 grade.
Minimum reinforcement required for 199mm thick sections is 0.3 % of the area of concrete
section which reduced linearly to 0.2% for 450 mm thick sections. In case of floor slab for tank
resting on ground the minimum reinforcement from practical consideration should not be less
then 0.3% of the gross sectional area of the floor slab.
If the thickness of the section (wall, floor or roof slab of the tank) works out to be 225 mm and
above two layers of reinforcing steel shall be placed, one near each of the section to make up the
minimum reinforcement requirements.
266
WATER TANK
The design of circular tanks can be carried out by one of the following three methods:
The value of coefficient k and f depend upon H/D and H/t ratio, which is tabulated in Table 7.2.
DESIGN PROCEDURE:
Step 1: Dimensions
Basing on the amount of water that needs to be stored the dimensions of the tanks
are calculated.
Depending upon the depth of liquid (H) the thickness of the wall is assumed from
the empirical formula
t = (30 H + 50 ) mm (74)
267
WATER TANK
Factor F K
H/t 10 20 30 40 10 20 30 40
0.1 0.075 0.047 0.036 0.028    
0.2 0.046 0.028 0.022 0.015  0.50 0.45 0.40
0.3 0.032 0.019 0.014 0.010 0.55 0.43 0.38 0.33
0.4 0.024 0.014 0.010 0.007 0.50 0.39 0.35 0.30
0.5 0.020 0.012 0.009 0.006 0.45 0.37 0.32 0.27
1.0 0.012 0.006 0.005 0.003 0.37 0.28 0.24 0.21
2.0 0.006 0.003 0.002 0.002 0.30 0.22 0.19 0.16
4.0 0.004 0.002 0.002 0.001 0.27 0.20 0.17 0.14
By knowing the values of H/D and H/t from table 7.2 we can obtain the value of F and k.
Step 3:
By using the values of coefficients F and k the following dimensions are calculated
Step 4:
• The thickness provided for the wall from maximum bending moment
consideration should be checked.
• Sufficient area of steel must be provided at the height h to resist maximum
tension.
268
WATER TANK
• Above height h the area of reinforcement can be uniformly decreased and below
this the area of steel is maintained constant.
• In this method it is assumed that the cantilever effect of the wall will be present
for a height of approximately one fourth of the height of wall that is H/4 or 1 m
whichever is more.
• The hydrostatic pressure distribution on the wall is shown in Figure 6.1 (a) the
pressure varies from zero at A to maximum value at B. This is represented by ordinate
BC of the pressure triangle ABC. Draw a horizontal line intersecting the pressure
diagram at P at a height of H/4 or 1m whichever is more. Thus the cantilever action will
be effective up to the height (h) =BP and hoop tension will be predominant from P to A
having its maximum value at P.
269
WATER TANK
• The bottom height of the wall i.e. h = BP will be designed as a cantilever fixed at
B and subjected to a triangular load given by area PBC of pressure triangle. The load
from cantilever action thus varies from zero at P to wH at B.
w(H − h )D
1
T= (75)
2
• Reinforcement for hoop tension may be provided near both faces. The spacing of
hoop reinforcement (rings) is kept uniform from P to B. At heights above P, the spacing
of rings can be increased.
• From the capacity of the water tank the values of tank diameters (D) and depth of
water (H) are determined.
t = (30 H + 60 ) mm
• Hoop tension
270
WATER TANK
Table 7.3 Coefficient for bending moment in cylindrical tank wall (Fixed at base and free at top)
• Bending Moment
Table 7.4 Coefficient for tension in cylindrical tank wall (Fixed at base and free at top)
In case of small amount of water storage rectangular tanks are more economical then circular
because the construction of circular tanks requires complicated and costly formwork. Moreover
compartmentation in a rectangular tank is much easier then the circular tanks. Moreover uses of
rectangular tanks make the full use of the space available. The main components of a rectangular
tank are side wall, base slab and roof slab.
The design of the sidewalls is carried out by approximate method. The method is broadly
categorizes as follows:
272
WATER TANK
• The tank walls are designed as horizontal slabs continuous al along and subjected
to a triangular load due to the water pressure varying from zero at the top to maximum
height of h =H/4 of 1 m above the base whichever is greater.
• For the bottom portion the wall is considered as a vertical cantilever fixed at the
base and subjected to triangular loading given by the area P.F.G of the diagram varying
from zero at P and maximum wH at the base.
• Maximum pressure
Maximum pressure (p) for design of wall for horizontal bending per unit height at level
of P = w (Hh) per m (77)
273
WATER TANK
1
B.M at the end of the span = pB 2 (producing tension on water force)
12
1
B.M at the center of span = pB 2 (producing tension on outer force)
16
The water pressures on short walls are transformed into tension to the long walls.
274
WATER TANK
• For rectangular tanks in which ratio of length to width is more than 2, the long
walls are treated as vertical cantilever fixed art the base while the short walls are treated
as horizontal slabs (bending horizontally) spanning between the long walls and fixed at
ends. The lower portion of the short wall for a height of h = H/4 or 1 m whichever is
greater is considered to act as vertical cantilever fixed at the base.
• Bending moments.
1 H 1
Maximum bending moment in long walls = w × H × H × = wH 3 (7.12)
2 3 6
For short walls the maximum bending moment at level P may be taken as follows:
Since the short wall as well as long walls are subjected to bending moment and direct
tension or pull (acting at center of wall) it will be necessary to design the wall section for
combined effect of these two.
276
WATER TANK
Reinforcement:
• Long wall
Long wall which act as cantilever fixed to the base reinforcement for moment is vertical
and for the direct tension or pull it is horizontal.
• Short wall
In case of short wall above (h) from base the wall bends horizontally and hence the
reinforcement for the B.M as well as tension are provided in horizontal directions.
For lower portion of the short walls for height (h) the main reinforcement is vertical
whereas for the tension reinforcement is horizontal.
Let assume that two equal and opposite force of magnitude equal to T act on the main
reinforcement the wall section can thus be considered to be subjected to a net
BM=MTx and a pull T.
Area of reinforcement is separately calculated for the bending moment and tension or pull and
then added together to get the total reinforcement.
Step 1:
M − Tx
Ast1 =
leverarm × stres sin steel
M − Tx
= (717)
jdσ st
Notes:
Safe stress in steel in bending or σ st is taken =115 N/ mm 2 if it is placed on the water face or
within a distance of 225 m from the water face.
If steel is placed at a distance of 225 mm away from water face value of σ st = 125 N/ mm 2
T
Ast2 =
safe ⋅ stress ⋅ in ⋅ steel
T
= (718)
σ sc
Safe stress in steel for direction =115 N/ mm 2
278
WATER TANK
• For tank resting on ground the base slab should be so designed that it can transfer
the load of the liquid as well as the selfweight of the structure to the ground. The floor
slab is normally made 150 mm to 250 mm thick with 3% of the gross sectional area
reinforced. The reinforcement provided as mesh at both top and bottom of the slab.
• For overhead tanks the floor slab is designed as a one way or a two way slab
based on the length to width ratio of the tank. If L/B>2 the slab is designed as oneway
slab and if L/B, 2, the floor slab is designed as two way slabs. The bending moment due
to water load and selfweight need to be counted for slab design. The vertical wall is also
to be considered.
B H
wH 3
(a) wH 3
6 (b)
Plan of the tank 6
B.M. at the end of tank base of overhead tank
The bending moment at the mid span of base slab will comprise of the following:
279
WATER TANK
Therefore the maximum positive B.M at mid span occurs when the depth of water in the tank
=1/2*the width of the tank.
3
wB 2 B wd B 2 1 ⎛ B ⎞
Mc = × + − w⎜ ⎟
8 2 8 6 ⎝2⎠
wB 3 wd B 2
= +
24 8
1 2
The direct tension on the slab = wh (721)
2
B
Here, h =
2
Due to the pressure of water on long walls
1 1
T = wh 2 = wB 2 (722)
2 8
If height of tank itself is less then B/2 then the actual height of water in the tank shall be
considered for finding out the values for B.M and tension. In case of large height of tank the B.M
at mid span may be negative. In such condition tank mid span section is designed by considering
the tank full of water.
Tank roof of small capacity tank are designed as oneway slab or twoway slab basing on the
length and width ratio. For large capacity tank the roof may be supported by beam supported on
column in regular interval. Flat slab type construction is found suitable and economical for tank
roofs.
280
WATER TANK
While designing an underground tank the most crucial condition of the tank need to be kept
under consideration. And that is when the empty and the soil surrounding the wall is wet. In this
case the wall has to sustain the soil pressure.
Maximum bending moment occurs for the case tank empty and surrounding soil is water logged.
Long walls are designed as cantilever.
281
WATER TANK
wh(1 − sin θ )
P= (723)
1 + sin θ
1
M max (Tension near water face)= ph 2 (724)
33.5
1
M max (Tension away from water face) = ph 2 (725)
15
⎛ 6M ⎞
D= ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ (726)
σ
⎝ ct ⎠
b
M
As = (727)
σ st jd
282
WATER TANK
Horizontal reinforcement are provided at 3% of gross area up to 100mm thick section. It can be
reduced to 0.2% up to 450 mm thick section. For 225 mm thickness provide two layers of
reinforcement.
Horizontal bars are determined as long wall. And vertical bars are provided with half spacing of
horizontal bars.
Design of slab
1
The maximum moment at mid section = wL2 (729)
3
Distributing steel is provided usually 0.003 bt mm 2 /width.
Minimum reinforcement
• The percentage of reinforcement in base or floor slab resting on ground must not
be less then 0.15% of the gross section.
• Minimum cover to all reinforcement should be 25 mm or the diameter of the main
bar which ever is greater.
283
WATER TANK
Design Data:
Step 1:
Water requirement:
2880
∴ Daily water requirement = cft ≈ 462 cft/day
6.24
Step 2:
Tank dimension:
L=15 ft =4.572 m
B =7 ft =2.1336 m
So L/B=15/7>2
462
• Height of water level= = 4.4 ft
15 × 7
• Free board = 0.5 ft.
284
WATER TANK
15 ft 6.5 in
7 ft
10 ft 18 ft
Step 3:
285
WATER TANK
Approximate Analysis:
• Part 1
• Part 2
For L/B>2
Step 4:
wH 3
Moment M =
6
Here, w= 9.81 kN/ m 3 ≈ 10 kN/ m 3
H=5ft=1.524 m
286
WATER TANK
10 × 1.524 3
∴M = = 5.9 kNM
6
5.9 × 1000
= = 4351.35 lbft
4.448 × 0.3043
= 4.351 kft
=52.22 kin
Check for
1
M max = f c kjbd 2
2
52.22 × 1000
⇒ d2 =
0.5 × 1350 × 0.378 × 0.874 × 12
⇒ d = 4.41inch
Then,
M 52.22 × 1000
As = = = 0.63in 2 / ft
f s jd 20000 × 0.874 × 4.75
As (min) = 0.3% (of cross sectional area)
0.3
⇒ × 6.5 × 12 = 0.234in 2 / ft
100
287
WATER TANK
B
Direct tension in the wall, TL = w( H − h) ×
2
2.1336
= 10(1.524 − 1) ×
2
= 5.59kN / m
5.59 × 1000 × 0.3048
= = 383.06lb / ft
4.448
TL 383.06
∴ As = = = 0.019in 2 / ft
Fs 20000
As (min) = 0.234in 2 / ft
Since steel is provided on both faces therefore steel to be provided on both faces as # 3 bar @ 11
inch c/c.
Step 5:
• Force P=w (Hh)=10 x (1.5241)= 5.24 kN/ m 2 =359.07 lb/ft (per m run)
• Design moment
• Steel requirement
M − Tx 19.875
As = = = 0.24in 2 / ft
f s jd 20 × 0.874 × 4.75
As (min) = 0.234in 2 / ft
∴ As = 0.24in 2 / ft
• At mid section
PL2 1 PL2
M = = × = 10.23kin
24 2 12
10.23
∴ As = = 0.123in 2 / ft < As (min)
20 × 0.874 × 4.75
Step 6:
• Maximum moment
wHh 2 10 × 1.524 × 12
M max = kN .m = = 2.54kN .m
6 6
= 1873.50 lbft
= 22.482 kin
• Steel requirement
M 22.482
As = = = 0.271in 2 / ft > As (min) = 0.234in 2 / ft
f s jd 20 × 0.874 × 4.75
289
WATER TANK
Step 7:
L 7 × 12
t= = = 4.2 inch
20 20
⎛ fy ⎞
⎟⎟ = 4.2⎛⎜ 0.4 +
40000 ⎞
t = 4.2⎜⎜ 0.4 + ⎟ = 3.36inch ≈ 3.5inch
⎝ 100000 ⎠ ⎝ 100000 ⎠
6 4.5 × 7 × 15 × 62.5
Total weight of base slab= × 150 + = 0.36 ksf
12 7 × 1.5 × 1000
6
• Effective width, B= 7 + 2 × = 7.5 ft
12 × 2
7.5 2
• Moments, M max = 0.36 × = 2.53 kft=30.375 kin
8
30.375
• Depth d = =3.37 inch (OK)
0.9 × 1.35 × 0.874 × 0.378 × 12
30.373
∴ As = = 0.41in 2 / ft
20 × 0.874 × 4.25
⎡ 4 ⎤
⎢⎣d = 6 − 1 − 1.5 × = 4.25inch⎥
8 ⎦
Use # 4 bar @ 5inch c/c. So # 4 bar @ 10 inch c/c should be used at each face.
290
WATER TANK
Step 8: Detailing
291
WATER TANK
# 3 bar @ 11 in c/c
# 3 bar @ 5.5 in
# 4 bar @ 4 in c/c
A A
# 4 bar @ 5 in c/c
Section AA
292
WATER TANK
General data:
1 − sin θ
..h=9.5 P = wh
1 + sin θ
293
WATER TANK
1 − sin θ
• Pressure exerted by wet soil = wh (730)
1 + sin θ
1 − sin 6
= 20 × 2.896 × = 46.96kN / m 2
1 + sin 6
∴ p = 46.96kN / m 2
ph 2 46.96 × 2.896 2
• Tension near the water face= = = 11.76 kNm
33.5 33.5
11.76 × 1000 12
= ×
4.448 × 0.3048 1000
So, tension near water face/ ft run=104.05 x 0.3048 = 31.72 kip inch
ph 2 46.96 × 2.896 2
M max = = = 26.26 kN/m
15 15
294
WATER TANK
Fct × bD 2
M =
6
6M 6 × 70.80
∴ D2 = = = 86.18in 2
f et × b 0.411 × 12
D = 9.28 in ≈ 9.5 in
Here f ct = (6 → 8) f c '
Let, f ct = 7.5 f c ' = 7.5 × 3000 = 411 psi
M max = 70.84 kin
M 70.84
• Steel requirement, As = = = 0.51in 2 / ft
f s jd 20 × 0.874 × 8
As (min) = .003bt = .003 × 12 × 9.5 = 0.342in 2 / ft
As = 0.51in 2 / ft
31.72
As = = 0.227in 2 / ft < As (min)
20 × 0.874 × 8
∴ As = 0.342in 2 / ft
295
WATER TANK
9.5
L =7+ = 7.79 ft = 2.375 m
12
In FPS system,
PL2 0.963 × 7.79 2
M = = × 12 = 58.44 kin (per ft length)
12 12
• Now,
fc
M max = kjbd 2
2
2 × 195.36
⇒d = = 4.72inch < 8inch
1.35 × 0.37 × 0.874 × 3.28 × 12
M 39.55
As = = = 0.48in 2 / ft
f s jd 20 × 0.874 × 8
296
WATER TANK
As (min) = 0.342in 2 / ft
297
WATER TANK
Step 9: Detailing
7 ft
7 ft
15 ft
..h=9.5
9.5 in 18 ft
10ft
298
WATER TANK
# 4 Bar @ 8 in c/c
#4 Bar @7 in c/c
# 4 Bar @ 4 in c/c
Section AA
# 4 Bar @ 7 in c/c
# 4 Bar @8 in c/c
299
WATER TANK
300
Figure 716: Detailing of example (continued)
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
LECTURER: Dr. William Wilson
DESIGN OF REINFORCED CONCRETE TANKS (ACI 318 / ACI 350)
Recommended Reading:
A. Codes
1. ASCE705  Minimum Design Loads for Buildings and other Structures
2. ACI 31806 – Building Code requirements for Reinforced Concrete
3. ACI 350R – 06 – Environmental Engineering Concrete Structures.
B. Technical Literature
1. Munshi, Javeed A. Rectangular Concrete Tanks (Rev. 5th Ed.), Portland Cement
Association, 1998.
2. Portland Cement Association, 1992. Underground Concrete Tanks
3. Portland Cement Association, 1993. Circular Concrete Tanks without prestressing
RECTANGULAR TANKS
Design Considerations
• Flexure – bending in walls and base
1
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
Moments
pinned base
fixed base
+

Fv (shear)
Fv M Ft M ()
Fv
M (+)
Ft
Ft
Fv M Ft M () Fv
Fv Fv
2
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
STRENGTH DESIGN METHOD
Basic Requirement:
∅(Nominal Strength) ≥ U
φ Rn ≥ U
(ACI 318 Sect. 9.2) U = 1.4 (D + F) (2.1)
D = dead load
F = liquid pressure
Sanitary Durability Factors  ACI 350 applies sanitary durability factors (based on crack width
calculations) to obtain the Required Strength
Ur = Cs x U (2.3)
3
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
Crack Control
z=f s 3 d c A (2.10)
Where,
4
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
A= 2dcbw
t
dc
bw
5
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
EXAMPLE 1 Rectangular Tank
20'0″
30'0″
10'0״
2.5'
Longitudinal Section Cross Section
20'0″
350
30'0″
Plan
Fig. E1 – Plan and sections of Tank
Design Data
6
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
Design for Vertical Bending Moments
Using PCA Charts to calculate moments (Table 329: case 3 – Long side)
Ratio of length/height = b/a = 30/10 = 3.0 (long side)
Ratio of width/height = c/a = 20/10 = 2.0 (short side)
Mx = CMx x pa2/1000
= CMx x 700 x 102 / 1000
= CMx x 70 ftlbs
= CMx x 0.84 inkips
a = 10'
M = + 18.6 kipsin
7
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
M 239.9
= =0.0225
0.9x4x12x (15.7 )
2
φ f c bd
′ 2
f c' 4
∴ A s =ωbd = 0.023x12x15.7x = 0.29in 2
fy 60
3
fc'
4000 3
Asmin = x12x15.7=0.595in 2 ≥ 200 bwd/fy
bw d=
fy 60000
200b w d 200x12x15.7
= = =0.628in 2 (governs)
fy 60,000
Design for Horizontal Bending Moments
2590
1890 +35.93
1890
2590 2590
8
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
Mu 145.1
= =0.0136
φ f c bd 0.9x4x12x15.7 2
1 2
(From Appendix A)
ω = 0.014
f c' 4
A s =ωbd =0.014x12x15.7x =0.18in 2
fy 60
Nu 5301
As= = =0.1in 2
0.9f y 0.9x60,000
Direct tension steel is equally distributed on inside and outside faces of wall.
0.1
Total steel required on inside face = 0.18+ =0.23in 2
2
200b w d
As,min = =0.625in 2 (governs)
fy
Provide No.5 @ 12 in (As = 0.31 in2) horizontal steel on inside face of long walls.
9
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
239.9
Maximum unfactored moment M= =108.6inkips
(1.7x1.3)
Stress in steel reinforcement
M
fs =
A s jd
As = 0.41 in2/ft d = 15.7 in
29,000
n= =8
57 ( 4000 )
0.41
ρ= = 0.00218
(12 x 15.7 )
k = 2 ρ n + ( ρ n ) − ρ n = 0.17
2
j = 1 – k/3 = 0.94
108.6
∴ fs = =17.95ksi
0.41x0.94x15.7
z3
s m ax =
( 2 x d c2 x f s3 )
φ
dc = cover + = 2 + 0.313=2.313in
2
z = 115 kips/in
fs = 17.95 ksi
115 3
s max = =24.6in>9in OK
2x2.313 2 x17.95 3
10
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
Design for Shear Forces
Using PCA Charts to calculate moments (Table 217: CASE 3 – Long side)
Ratio of length/height = b/a = 30/10 = 3.0 (long side)
Ratio of width/height = c/a = 20/10 = 2.0 (short side)
Shear, V = Cs x p x a
∴ Vu =1.7x3500=5950 lbs
Vc =2 fc' bd
Wall subjected to simultaneous tensile force due to shear in short side wall;
(ACI 318 cl.11.3.2.3) gives allowable shear as:
⎛ Nu ⎞
V c = 2 ⎜ 1+ ⎟ f c' b d
⎜ 500A g ⎟⎠
⎝
11
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
Ag = 18 x 12 = 216 in2
⎛ 3213 ⎞ 1
Vc =2 ⎜1+ ⎟ f c bd
⎝ 500x216 ⎠
(e) Shrinkage and Temperature Reinforcement
A st
(Fig 12) =0.0033
bh
1
A st = x12x18=0.356in 2 (No. 5 @ 10”)
2
< 0.41 in2 (No. 5 @ 9”) OK
Summary of Reinforcement
12
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
BASE SLAB DESIGN
• Assume that the pressure beneath the slab is uniform and is generated by the weight
of the walls spread over entire area.
10'
12″
30'
3500 lbs
k
Fig E4 – Forces on Base Slab
13
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
2.4k
191 ink
12″
3.5 k
Short Span
Mu 248.3
= = 0.062
φfcbd 0.9 x 4 x 12 (9.625)2
' 2
(From Appendix A)
14
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
ω = 0.064
f c' 4
A s =ωbd =0.064 x 12 x 9.7x = 0.49in 2
fy 60
Nu 5775
As= = =0.11in 2
0.9f y 0.9x60,000
Direct tension steel is equally distributed on inside and outside faces of slab.
0.11
Total steel required on top face = 0.49+ =0.55 in 2
2
200b w d 200 (12 x 9.7 )
As,min = = = 0.39 in 2
fy 60000
4/3 of As required by analysis = 4/3 x 0.55 = 0.73 in2
Provide No.6 @ 7 in crs. (As = 0.75 in2) steel on top face of slab in short
direction.
Mu 136.5
= = 0.0385
φfc bd 0.9 x 4 x 12 x 9.06252
1 2
(From Appendix A)
ω = 0.039
15
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
f c' 4
A s =ωbd =0.039 x 12 x 9.0625x = 0.283 in 2
fy 60
Nu 4620
As= = =0.085in 2
0.9f y 0.9x60,000
Direct tension steel is equally distributed on inside and outside faces of slab.
0.085
Total steel required on top face = 0.283+ =0.326 in 2
2
200b w d 200 (12 x 9.7 )
As,min = = = 0.39 in 2 (governs)
fy 60000
4/3 of As required by analysis = 4/3 x 0.31 = 0.41 in2
(b) Check Shear at side edge of long span
V = 4276 lbs
Vu = 1.0 V = 4276 lbs
Wall subjected to simultaneous tensile force (ACI 318 cl.11.3.2.3) gives allowable
shear as:
⎛ Nu ⎞
V c = 2 ⎜ 1+ ⎟⎟ f c' b d
⎜ 500A
⎝ g ⎠
Nu = 3500 lbs
Ag = 12 x 12 = 144 in2
16
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
⎛ 3500 ⎞ '
Vc =2 ⎜1+ ⎟ fc bd
⎝ 500 x 144 ⎠
(e) Shrinkage and Temperature Reinforcement
A st
(Fig 12) =0.0033
bh
1
A st = x 0.0033x12x12=0.238 in 2 < 0.73 in2
2
OK
Summary of Reinforcement
17
UWU/Civil & Environmental Engineering CVNG 3016 – Design of Environmental Engineering Systems 2010
Rectangular Tank
No. 5 @ 10 in c/c
No. 5 @ 12 in. c/c
No. 5 @ 12 in. c/c
18
CHAPTER 9
STAIR CASES
Stair cases are provided for connecting successive floors. It is comprised with flights of steps
with inter mediate landings which provides rest to the user and support for the flight. A passage
is provided at the start of staircase then for the vertical rise a flight is provided with rise and
tread. Rise provided in the steps is normally 6 inch which conforms with the comfort of the user.
Tread provided is 9.5 inch which can be more if the number of user is more depending on the
type of building. The width of the stair can be between 3.5ft to 5 ft depending on the use.
Generally public buildings should be provided with larger width.
Going is the horizontal projection of the inclined flight between the first and the last riser. A
flight is generally consist of two landings with going in between of 10 to 12 steps.
Staircases can be designed in many forms as per the requirement of the user and the facility and
space available in the construction. Design procedure of few types are discussed in this chapter.
Stair cases can be of varying geometrical shapes and structural behavior. Some of the most
common types of staircases are shown is subsequent discussion.
STAIR CASES
LANDING
PASSAGE
Most commonly used in buildings. It comprises with two flights and a landing or lobby in
between. Normally the landing is provided at mid height. The landing acts as a support of the
flight and landing is supported by beams or wall.
321
STAIR CASES
Open
well
UP UP
322
STAIR CASES
Generally adopted in public building where adequate space can be provided for staircases. It ahs
quarter landings which provide more comfort to user. Moreover the open well provide adequate
ventilation. The flights are consisted of lesser steps in comparison to dog legged staircases.
This type of staircase is normally used for aesthetic beautification. No support for landing is
provided. The tread and riser is constructed as folded plates. The construction of this types of
staircase is costly as reinforcement required is more.
Tread
Riser
323
STAIR CASES
Cantilever
slab
Rise
In this type of staircase cantilever horizontal tread are projected from a wall or an inclined beam.
This type of staircase needs complicated formwork and normally used for aesthetic
beautification.
324
STAIR CASES
LANDING
PASSAGE
The figure above shows the plan of the stair hall. Let the rise be 6 inch and trade be 9.5 inch. The
width of each flight is 3.5 inch.
10
Height of each flight = = 5 ft.
2
5 × 12
No of risers required = = 10 risers in each flight.
6
No of tread in each flight = 101 = 9.
Space occupied be trades = 9 × 9.5 = 7.125 ft.
Width of landing =4.5 ft.
Width of passage =4.5 ft.
Size of stair hall = 7 ft × 16.125 ft.
The landing slab acts together with the going as a single slab. The bearing of the slab into the
wall may be considered 6.5 inch.
6.5
Then the effective span = 7.125 + 4.5 + = 12.17 ft.
12
l
Considering oneway slab with both end continuous minimum thickness is .
28
l 12.17
So, t = = = 5.22inches ≈ 6 inches.
28 28
6
• Self weight of the slab = × 150 × 1 = 75 plf.
12
⎛ 1 Tread Riser ⎞ Tread
• Self weight of the steps = ⎜ × × × 150 ⎟ ÷
⎝2 12 12 ⎠ 12
⎛ 9.5 6 ⎞ 9.5
= ⎜ 0.5 × × × 150 ⎟ ÷
⎝ 12 12 ⎠ 12
=37.5 plf.
326
STAIR CASES
So, Design factored load = 1.4 × 132.5 + 1.7 × 100 =355.5 plf.
• Maximum Moment
wl 2 1
M max = = × 355.5 × 12.17 2 = 6581.60 lbft =78.97 kin.
8 8
3 87
ρ max = 0.75 ρ b = 0.75 × 0.85 × 0.85 × × = 0.0278
40 87 + 140
M max
d2 =
⎛ fy ⎞
φρf y b⎜1 − 0.59 ρ ⎟
⎜ f c ⎟⎠
⎝
78.97
=
⎛ 40 ⎞
0.9 × 0.0278 × 40 × 12 × ⎜1 − 0.59 × 0.0278 × ⎟
⎝ 30 ⎠
∴ d = 2.9 inch
327
STAIR CASES
• Distribution Bar.
0.11 × 12
S= = 9 inch c/c.
0.144
• Longitudinal Steel.
Assumed M As f y
Trial ‘a’ (inch) Steel Area, As = a= Comments
⎛ a⎞ 0.85 f c ′ × b
No φf y ⎜ d − ⎟
⎝ 2⎠ (inch)
2
(inch )
78.97 0.49 × 40
As = = 0.49 a= = 0.64 Not OK
Trial1 a=1.0 ⎛ 1⎞ 0.85 × 3 × 12
0.9 × 40⎜ 5 − ⎟
⎝ 2⎠
78.97 0.47 × 40
As = = 0.47 a= = 0.61 OK
Trial2 a=0.6 ⎛ 0.6 ⎞ 0.85 × 3 × 12
0.9 × 40⎜ 5 − ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
0.22 × 12
Spacing = = 5.62 ≅ 6 inch center to center.
0.47
328
STAIR CASES
Step 6: Detailing
• The main reinforcement should be bent to follow the bottom profile of the stair.
• Near the landing the reinforcement should be taken straight up and then bent in
the compression zone of landing.
• For tensile stress in the landing zone separate set of bars should be used as shown
in the detailing.
• The length of each type of bar on either side of the crossing should be at least
equal to 2 ft 2 inches.
• All the bars of the tensile reinforcement should be taken into the supports and
anchorage and development length requirement must be fulfilled.
• Distribution bars should be used parallel to the width of the steps.
LANDING
# 3 bar @ 9
inch c/c
# 4 bar @ 6
inch c/c
PASSAGE
# 3 bar @ 9
inch c/c
# 4 bar @ 6
inch c/c
329
STAIR CASES
PASSAGE
LANDING
330
STAIR CASES
4.5
ft
7.67 ft
4.79 4.5
ft ft
4.5 ft 4 ft
13.79 ft
Figure 9.7 : Plan View of Open Well Stair Case
331
STAIR CASES
The bearing of the landing slab into the wall is 6.5 inch.
6.5
Therefore the effective span = 7.67 + 4.5 + = 12.71 ft
12
l
Considering oneway slab with both end continuous minimum thickness is
28
l 12.71
So, t = = = 5.45inches ≈ 5.5inches
28 28
5.5
• Self weight of the slab = × 150 × 1 = 68.75 plf
12
⎛ 1 tread riser ⎞ tread
• Self weigh of the steps = ⎜ × × × 150 ⎟ ÷
⎝2 12 12 ⎠ 12
⎛ 11.5 6 ⎞ 11.5
= ⎜ 0.5 × × × 150 ⎟ ÷ = 37.5 plf
⎝ 12 12 ⎠ 12
• Floor finish=20 plf
• Live load = 100 plf [can be determined by table 1.1 of ACI code]
332
STAIR CASES
wl 2 1
• M max = = × 346.75 × 12.712 = 7001.93 lbft =84.02 kin
8 8
3 87
ρ max = 0.75 ρ b = 0.75 × 0.85 × 0.85 × × = 0.0278
4 87 + 40
M max 84.02
d2 = =
⎛ fy ⎞ ⎛ 40 ⎞
φρf y b⎜⎜1 − 0.59 ρ ⎟⎟ 0.9 × 0.0278 × 40 × 12 × ⎜1 − 0.59 × 0.0278 × ⎟
⎝ f c′ ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
Reinforcement Calculation:
• Distribution Bar
333
STAIR CASES
• Longitudinal bar
Assumed M As f y
Trial ‘a’ (inch) Steel Area, As = a= Comments
⎛ a⎞ 0.85 f c ′ × b
No φf y ⎜ d − ⎟
⎝ 2⎠ (inch)
(inch2)
84.02 0.58 × 40
As = = 0.58 a= = 0.76 Not OK
Trial1 a=1.0 ⎛ 1⎞ 0.85 × 3 × 12
0.9 × 40⎜ 4.5 − ⎟
⎝ 2⎠
84.02 0.56 × 40
As = = 0.56 a = = 0.73 OK
Trial2 a=0.7 ⎛ 0.7 ⎞ 0.85 × 3 × 12
0.9 × 40⎜ 4.5 − ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
Let the bearing of the landing slab into the wall is 6.5 inch.
6.5 6.5
The effective span= + 4.5 + 4.79 + 4.5 + = 14.87 ft
12 12
l
Considering one way slab with both end continuous minimum thickness is
28
l 14.87
So, t= = = 6.5inch
28 28
6.5
• Self weight of the slab = × 150 × 1 = 81.25 plf
12
⎛ 1 tread riser ⎞ tread
• Self weight of the steps = ⎜ × × × 150 ⎟ ÷
⎝2 12 12 ⎠ 12
⎛ 11.5 6 ⎞ 11.5
= ⎜ 0.5 × × × 150 ⎟ ÷
⎝ 12 12 ⎠ 12
=37.5 plf
334
STAIR CASES
wl 2 1
• M max = = × 364.25 × 14.87 2 = 10067.73 lbft = 120.81 kin.
8 8
3 87
ρ max = 0.75 ρ b = 0.75 × 0.85 × 0.85 × × = 0.0278
4 87 + 40
M max 120.81
d2 = =
⎛ fy ⎞ ⎛ 40 ⎞
φρf y b⎜⎜1 − 0.59 ρ ⎟⎟ 0.9 × 0.0278 × 40 × 12 × ⎜1 − 0.59 × 0.0278 × ⎟
⎝ f c′ ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
d=3.59 ≈ 4 inch
Provide 1inch clear cover
t=4+1=5 inch <6.5 inch
So, design is Ok
d available = 6.5 − 1 = 5.5inch
Reinforcement Calculation:
• Distribution Bar
335
STAIR CASES
• Longitudinal bar
Assumed M As f y
Trial ‘a’ (inch) Steel Area, As = a= Comments
⎛ a⎞ 0.85 f c ′ × b
No φf y ⎜ d − ⎟
⎝ 2⎠ (inch)
(inch2)
120.81 0.67 × 40
As = = 0.67 a= = 0.88 Not OK
Trial1 a=1.0 ⎛ 1⎞ 0.85 × 3 × 12
0.9 × 40⎜ 5.5 − ⎟
⎝ 2⎠
120.81 0.66 × 40
As = = 0.66 a= = 0.86 OK
Trial2 a=0.85 ⎛ 0.85 ⎞ 0.85 × 3 × 12
0.9 × 40⎜ 5.5 − ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
0.22 × 12
Required spacing= = 4 inch c/c.
0.66
336
STAIR CASES
Step 5: Detailing
# 4 bar
@5 inch c/c 11.5 inch
6 inch
# 4 bar @5 inch c\c
4.5 ft 7.67 ft 4 ft
11.5 inch
# 4 bar @ 4 inch c\c
6 inch
# 3 Bar
# 4 bar @ 8 inch c/c
@ 4 inch c/c
# 3 Bar
@ 8 inch c/c
338
www.eenadupratibha.net
APPSC & AEE – 2012
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Note: Answers Marked in Red Circle
PAPER – III
Exam held on 172012
1. The limiting value of cant gradient for all gauges is
(1) 1 in 360 (2) 1 in 720 (3) 1 in 1000 (4) 1 in 2000
2. If ‘R’ is the radius of a circular curve, then the versine on a chord of length ‘C’
t
is given by
(1)
C2
4R
.ne C
(2)
8R
C2
(3)
8R
C
(4)
4R
3.
ha
The correct relation between curve lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of
ib
crossing (L) is given by
at
(1) CL = L – SL (2) SL = L + CL
pr
(3) L = CL – SL (4) L = (CL + SL)/2
4.
u
The grade compensation on a 4° curve on a broad gauge railway track is
d
a
(1) 0.20% (2) 0.16% (3) 0.12% (4) 0.08%
5.
en
A treadle bar is used for
.e
(1) interlocking points and single (2) setting points and crossings
6.
ww(3) setting marshalling yard signals (4) track maintenance
The background color of the informatory sign board is
7.
w (1) red (2) yellow
Limiting values of Poisson’s ratio are
(3) green (4) white
(1) 1 and 0.5 (2) 1 and 0.5 (3) 1 and 0.5 (4) 0 and 0.5
8. A beam of square crosssection with side 100 mm is placed with one diagonal,
vertical. If the shear force acting on the section is 10 kN, the maximum shear
stress is
N N N N
(1) 1 (2) 1.125 (3) 2 (4) 2.25
mm2 mm2 mm2 mm2
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9. Slope at the end of the simply supported beam of span l with uniformly dis
tributed load w/unit length over the entire span is given by
wl2 wl3 wl3 wl2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16EI 16EI 24EI 24EI
10. A linear arch has
(1) normal thrust only (2) shear force only
(3) normal thrust and shear force (4) None of these
11.
et
If a circular shaft is subjected to a torque “T” and moment ‘M’, the ratio of
n
maximum bending stress and maximum shear stress is
2M
(1)
a. M
(2)
M
(3)
2T
(4)
T
ibh 2T T M
12.
t
If the diameter of a shaft subjected to torque alone is doubled, then horse
a
r
power P can be increased to
(1) 16 P
d
13. A shaft turns at 150 rpm under a torque of 1500 Nm. Power transmitted is
na
(1) 15 π kW (2) 10 π kW (3) 7.5 π kW (4) 5 π kW
14.
.ee
In a particular material, if the modulus of rigidity is equal to the bulk modulus,
then the Poisson’s ratio will be
ww 1
(1)
8
(2)
4
1 1
(3)
2
(4) 1
15.
w
The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium of
a plane structure is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
16. Castigliano’s first theorem is applicable
(1) for statically determinate structures only
(2) when the system behaves elastically
(3) only when principle of superposition is valid
(4) None of the above
17. If one end of the prismatic beam AB with fixed ends is given a transverse dis
www.eenadupratibha.net
placement ‘∆’ without any rotation, then the transverse reactions at A or B due
to displacement is
6 EI ∆ 6 EI ∆ 12 EI ∆ 12 EI ∆
(1) (2) (3) (4)
l2 l3 l2 l3
18. In column analogy method, the area of analogous column for a fixed beam of
span ‘L’ and flexural rigidity EI is taken as
L L L L
(1) (2) (3) (4)
EI 2EI 3EI 4EI
19.
t
The three moments equation is applicable only when
e
n
(1) the beam is prismatic
a.
(2) there is no settlement of supports
bh
(3) there is no discontinuity such as hinges with the span
i
t
(4) the spans are equal
a
pr
u
20. What is the degree of static indeterminacy of the structure shown in figure?
(1) 1
a d
(2) 2
en
.
(3) 3
e
w
(4) 4
21.
w
The strain energy of a structure due to bending is given by
w∫
(1) ∫
M2 dx
EI ∫ ∫ 1 M2 dx
(2)
2
EI (3)
2M2 dx
EI
1 M2 dx
(4)
3
2EI
22. In the displacement method of structural analysis, the basic unknowns are
(1) displacements (2) force
(3) displacements and force (4) None of the above
23. The deformation of a spring produced by a unit load is called
(1) Stiffness (2) Flexibility
(3) Unit strain (4) None of these
24. A fixed beam AB of span L is subjected to a clockwise moment M at a distance
www.eenadupratibha.net
‘a’ from end ‘A’. Fixed end moment at end ‘A’ will be
M M
(1) (L  a) (L  3a) (2) a(2L  3a)
L2 L2
Ma M
(3) (L  a) (4) (L  a) (2L  a)
L2 L2
25. The absolute maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam of span
20 m due to a moving udl of 4 t/m spanning over 5 m is
(1) 87.5 tm at the support (2) 87.5 tm near the mid point
et
(3) 3.5 tm at the mid point (4) 87.5 tm at the mid point
26.
.n
The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid jointed space frame is
(1) m + r – 2j
a (2) m + r – 3j
i
(3) 3m + r – 3j
bh (4) 6m + r – 6j
27.
at
A symmetrical parabolic arch of span 20 m and rise 5 m is hinged at the spring
r
ings. If supports uniformly distributed load of 2 tones per meter run of the
p
u
span. The horizontal thrust in tones at each of the springings is
(1) 8
n
28. The horizontal thrust due to rise in temperature in a semicircular two hinged
. e
arch of radius R is proportional to
e 1 1
w
(1) R (2) R2 (3) (4) 2
R R
29.
ww
In the frame shown in the figure, the support ‘D’ settles by ‘δ’. The fixed end
moment in the horizontal member of the frame will be (other symbols have the
usual meaning)
EI δ
(1)
8
6EI δ
(2)
16
3EI δ
(3)
16
EI δ
(4)
16
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30. Figure shows a portal frame with one end fixed and other hinged. The ratio of
MBA
the fixed end moments
MCD
due to side sway will be
(1) 1.0
(2) 2.0
(3) 2.5
(4) 3.0
31.
et
The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs
a.n
of the crop during its full growth is called
(1) effective rainfall (2) consumptive use
ibh
(3) consumptive irrigation requirement (4) net irrigation requirement
32.
at
Hydrograph is the graphical representation of
pr
(1) runoff and time (2) surface runoff and time
du
(3) ground water flow and time (4) rainfall and time
33.
a
Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to
n
e
(1) Pressure difference (2) Temperature difference
.e
(3) Natural topographical barriers (4) None of these
34.
w
If it rains between 2 PM and 3 PM and the entire basin area just starts con
w
tributing water at 3 PM to the outlet, then the time of concentration will be
35.
w
(1) 15 minutes (2) 20 minutes
The elementary profile of a dam is
(3) 30 minutes (4) 60 minutes
.n
80 mm and base flow which is constant is 40 m3/sec, then the peak of 4hour
a
unit hydrograph will be
(1) 20 m3/sec
at
If ‘p’ is the precipitation, ‘a’ is the area represented by a rain gauge, and ‘n’ is
r
the number of rain gauges in a catchment area, then the weighted mean rain
p
u
fall is
(1)
a
Σ a2d
Σ ap3 Σ ap
(2)
Σ ap
(3)
Σa
Σ ap5
(4)
Σ a3
n
n
42.
ee
For medium silt whose average grain size is 0.16 mm, Lacey’s silt factor is
.
likely to be
43.
ww
(1) 0.30 (2) 0.45 (3) 0.70 (4) 1.32
According to Indian standards, the number of raingauge stations for an area of
w
5200 km2 in plains should be
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 30
44. The maximum permissible limit for fluoride in drinking water is
(1) 0.1 mg/litre (2) 1.5 mg/litre (3) 5 mg/litre (4) 10 mg/litre
45. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to deter
mine the
(1) hardness of water (2) turbidity of water
(3) dissolved oxygen in water (4) residual chlorine in water
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46. Turbidity is measured on
(1) Standard silica scale (2) Standard cobalt scale
(3) Standard platinum scale (4) Platinum cobalt scale
47. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than
(1) B (2) 2 B (3) 4 B (4) 8 B
48. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of
(1) dissolved oxygen (2) residual chlorine
(3) biochemical oxygen demand (4) None of these
49.
et
The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular
pattern is
a.n
h
(1) grid iron system (2) dead end system
i
(3) ring system
a
50. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called
pr
(1) house sewer (2) lateral sewer
du
(3) intercepting sewer (4) submain sewer
51.
a
The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), biochemical
n
e
oxygen demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
.e
(1) TOD > BOD > COD (2) TOD > COD > BOD
52.
ww
(3) BOD > COD > TOD (4) COD > BOD > TOD
In a BOD test 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved
w
oxygen concentration of diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was
4 ppm at the end of 5day incubation at 20°C. The BOD of raw sewage will be
(1) 100 ppm (2) 200 ppm (3) 300 pmm (4) 400 ppm
53. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in
order to save the aquatic life is
(1) 1 ppm (2) 4 ppm (3) 10 ppm (4) 40 ppm
54. Temporary hardness in water is caused by the presence of
(1) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg (2) Sulphates of Ca and Mg
(3) Chlorides of Ca and Mg (4) Nitrates of Ca and Mg
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55. Blue baby disease (methemoglobinemia) in children is caused by the presences
of excess
(1) chlorides (2) nitrates (3) fluorides (4) lead
56. Two samples of water, A and B have pH values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively.
How many times more acidic is sample A than sample B ?
(1) 0 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 200
57. Dechlorination of water is achieved by adding
(1) Sodium thiosulphate (2) Sodium sulphate
et
(3) Sodium biosulphate (4) None of these
58.
.n
The efficiency of a sedimentation tank does not depend upon
a
(1) depth of the tank (2) detention time
bh
(3) length of the tank
i
(4) horizontal velocity of water
59.
at
Which one of the following would contain water with the maximum amount of
turbidity?
pr
u
(1) lakes (2) oceans (3) rivers (4) wells
60.
ad
The waste stabilization ponds can be
en
(1) aerobic (2) anaerobic (3) facultative
e
(4) all of the above
61.
w.
For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uni
w
formly, the Marcus correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff
w
Rankine’s theory
(1) is always less than 1 (2) is always greater than 1
(3) is equal to 1 (4) None of the above
62. The permissible diagonal tensile stress in the reinforced brick work is
(1) zero (2) about 0.1 N/mm2
(3) 0.3 N/mm2 to 0.7 N/mm2 (4) None of the above
63. The limits of percentage P of longitudinal reinforcement in a column are given
by
(1) 0.15 % to 2% (2) 0.8% to 0.4%
(3) 0.8% to 0.6% (4) 0.15% to 0.6%
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64. In a pile of length l, the points of suspension from the ends for lifting it are
located at
(1) 0.207 l (2) 0.25 l (3) 0.293 l (4) 0.333 l
65. The partial safety factor for steel as per IS 456 – 1978 is taken as
(1) 1.15 (2) 1.35 (3) 1.50 (4) 1.65
66. According to IS 456 – 1978, the maximum strain in concrete at the outermost
compression fibre in the limit state design of flexural members is
(1) 0.0020 (2) 0.0035 (3) 0.0050 (4) 0.0065
67.
t
In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown or uniformly dis
e
n
tributed load, the meridionat force is always
(1) Zero
a. (2) Tensile (3) Compressive
bh
(4) None of these
i
68.
t
In a doubly reinforced rectangular beam, the allowable stress in compression
a
r
steel is
up
(1) equal to the permissible stress in the tension steel
d
(2) more than permissible stress in the tension steel
a
n
(3) less than permissible stress in the tension steel
69.
.ee
(4) None of these
Loss of stress with time at constant strain in steel is called
ww
(1) relaxation (2) creep (3) ductility (4) shrinkage
w
70. In the limit state design of concrete structures, the strain distribution is
assumed to be
(1) linear (2) nonlinear (3) parabolic (4) rectangular
71. If ‘P’ is the prestressing force applied at a maximum eccentricity ‘g’ at mid
span (figure), to balance the concentrated load ‘W’, the balancing load will be
(1) 2.5 Pg/L
(2) 3.0 Pg/L
(3) 3.5 Pg/L
(4) 4.0 Pg/L
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72. Yield line theory results in
(1) elastic solution (2) upper bound solution
(3) lower bound solution (4) unique solution
73. For ultimate load design of prestressed concrete girders used for bridges, com
bination of load factors used is (here L.L. and D.L. are line load and dead load
respectively)
(1) 1.5 D.L. + 2.5 L.L. (2) 1.0 D.L. + 2.0 L.L.
(3) 1.0 D.L. + 2.5 L.L. (4) 2.0 D.L. + 2.0 L.L.
74.
t
A reinforced concrete slab is 75 mm thick. The maximum size of reinforce
e
n
ment bar that can be used is
a
(1) 12 mm diameter
. (2) 10 mm diameter
bh
(3) 8 mm diameter
i
(4) 6 mm diameter
75.
t
In the design of two way slab restrained at all edges, torsional reinforcement
a
r
required is
up
(1) 0.75 times the area of steel provided at mid span in the same direction
d
(2) 0.375 times the area of steel provided at mid span in the same direction
a
n
(3) 0.375 times the area of steel provided in the shorter span
76.
.ee
(4) None of these
PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for
ww
(1) small projects (2) large and complex projects
w
(3) research and development projects (4) deterministic activities
77. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their
occurrence follow
(1) Normal distribution curve (2) Poission’s distribution curve
(3) β  distribution curve (4) Binomial distribution curve
78. Critical path
(1) is always longest (2) is always shortest
(3) may be longest (4) may be shortest
79. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the
preceding and succeeding activities is known as
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(1) free float (2) Total float
(3) Independent float (4) Interfering float
80. Economic saving of time results by crashing
(1) Cheapest critical activity (2) Cheapest non – critical activity
(3) Costliest critical activity (4) Costliest non – critical activity
81. Slack time refers to
(1) An activity (2) An event
(3) Both event and activity (4) None of the above
82.
et
A tractor has purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacks and could save the organization
.n
an amount of Rupees one lack per year on operating costs. The salvage value
a
after the amortization period is 10% of the purchased price. The capital recov
bh
ery period will be
i
(1) 3.7 years
p
u
(1) Instructions of the executive engineer
ad
(2) Construction measurements
n
(3) Requisition of plants and equipments
e
e
(4) Indents for materials to be ordered
84.
w.
The system of organization introduced by F.W. Taylor is known as
ww
(1) Effective organization
(3) Line organization
(2) Functional organization
(4) Line and staff organization
85. The original cost of an equipment is Rs. 10,000. Its salvage value at the end of
its total useful life of live years is Rs. 1,000. Its book value at the end of two
years of its useful life (as per straight line method of evaluation of deprecia
tion) will be
(1) Rs. 8,800 (2) Rs. 7,600 (3) Rs. 6,400 (4) Rs. 5,000
86. Grader is used mainly for
(1) Trimming and finishing (2) Shaping and trimming
(3) Finishing and shaping (4) Finishing, shaping and trimming
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87. The flow net of the activities of a project are shown in the network given in
figure indicating the duration of the activities along their arrows. The critical
path of the activities is along
(1) 1 → 2 → 4 → 5 → 7 → 8
(2) 1 → 2 → 3 → 6 → 7 → 8
(3) 1 → 2 → 3 → 5 → 7 → 8
(4) 1 → 2 → 4 → 5 → 3 → 6 → 7 → 8
88. Capital recovery factor at 15% p.a. discrete compounding for 4 years is 0.35. Rs.
et
10,000 deposited now at 15% p.a. discrete compounding will yield an amount
‘X’ at the end of each 4 – year – period in perpetuity. The value of ‘X’ is
(1) Rs. 7,500
a.n (2) Rs. 6,666 (3) Rs. 6,000 (4) Rs. 9,000
89.
h
A machine costs Rs. 16,000 by constant rate of declining balance method of
ib
t
depreciation, its salvage value after an expected life of 3 years is Rs. 2,000.
a
The rate of depreciation is
(1) 0.25
d
a
the base period B in days is given by
en 1.98B
(1) ∆ =
8.64B
(2) ∆ =
5.68B
(3) ∆ =
8.64D
(4) ∆ =
e
D D D D
91.
w.
If P is the percentage of water required for normal consistency, water to be
added for determination of initial setting time is
92.
ww
(1) 0.75 P (2) 0.85 P (3) 0.085 P (4) 0.075 P
According to IS 399 – 1963, the weight of the timber is specified at
(1) 10% moisture content (2) 12% moisture content
(3) 8% moisture content (4) 14% moisture content
93. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber
(1) Shrinks (2) Cracks
(3) Reduces to powder (4) Reduces its weight
94. Plywood is made from
(1) Bamboo fibre (2) Teak wood only
(3) Common timber (4) Asbestos sheets
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95. For a 50 kg bag of cement, water required is
(1) 22.5 liters (2) 20.5 liters (3) 18.5 liters (4) 23.5 liters
96. The standard size of a brick is
(1) 19.5 cm × 9.5 cm × 9.5 cm (2) 18 cm × 8 cm × 8 cm
(3) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm (4) 18.5 cm × 8.5 × 8.5 cm
97. Initial setting cement is caused due to
(1) 3 CaO.SiO2 (2) 2 CaO.SiO2
(3) 3 CaO.Al2O3 (4) 4 CaO.Al2O3.Fe2O3
98.
et
Clay and silt content in a good brick earth must be at least
(1) 25%
ib
t
(1) Pure lime (2) Fat lime
ra
(3) Quick lime (4) Hydraulic lime
100.
p
Cement is said to be of good quality if
u
d
(1) It is not smooth when rubbed in between fingers
na
(2) It’s colour is greenish gray
.ee
(3) A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water does not float
(4) None of the above
101.
ww
The most valuable timber may be obtained from
w
(1) Sal (2) Re Sander (3) Sandle (4) Teak
102. Soundness test of cement determines
(1) Durability (2) Tensile strength
(3) Quality of free lime (4) Initial setting
103. A badly mixed cement concrete results in
(1) Bleeding (2) Honeycombing
(3) Segregations (4) None of above
104. Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pitch is called
(1) Annual ring (2) Cambium layer
(3) Medullary sheath (4) Heart wood
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105. Portland Pozzolana cement possesses
(1) Lower heat of hydration (2) Water tightness
(3) Lower shrinkage on drying (4) All the above
106. If P, Y and Z are the weights of the cement, fine aggregates, and coarse aggre
gates respectively and W/C is the water cement ratio, the minimum quantity of
water to be added to first batch, is obtained by the equation.
(1) 0.1 P + 0.3 Y + 0.1 Z = (W/C) × P
(2) 0.2 P + 0.5 Y + 0.1 Z = (W/C) × P
t
(3) 0.3 P + 0.1 Y + 0.01 Z = (W/C) × P
e
107.
a n
(4) 0.5 P + 0.3 Y + 0.01 Z = (W/C) × P
.
The main advantage of steel member, is
bh
(1) Its high strength
i
(2) Its long service life
at
(3) Its water tightness (4) All the above
108.
pr
As per ISI, rolled steel beam sections are classified into
du
(1) Three series (2) Four series (3) Five series (4) Six series
a
109. With a percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases
en
(1) Hardness (2) Ductility (3) Brittleness (4) Strength
110.
.e
The critical load for a column of length ‘l’ hinged at both ends and having flex
w
ural rigidity EI, is given by
ww π2 EI
(1) Pc =
l3
π (EI)2
π2 EI
(2) Pc =
l2
t
plate shall not be less than
e
n
d d d d
.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
a
95 250 225 200
115.
h
Stiffness are used in a plate girder
ib
t
(1) To reduce compressive strength (2) To reduce the shear stress
ra
(3) To avoid the buckling of web plate (4) To take the bearing stress
116.
up
The minimum pitch of rivet holes of diameter ‘d’ should not be less than
ad
(1) 1.5 d (2) 2.5 d (3) d (4) 2d
n
117. In propped cantilever loaded as shown in figure, the plastic hinge will form at
ee
(1) 0.414 L from B
.
(2) 0.414 L from A
ww
(3) L/2 from B
w
(4) L/2 from A
118. A uniform beam shown in figure has the plastic moment Mp for span AB and
0.9 Mp for span BC. The correct virtual work equation is
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119. A steel beam of rectangular cross – section is clamped at both ends. Plastic
deformation is just observed when the udl on the beam is 10 kN/m. At the
instant of collapse, the load on the beam will be
(1) 10 kN/m (2) 15 kN/m (3) 20 kN/m (4) 30 kN/m
No Answer. Nearest option is (2)
120. One of the criteria for the effective width of flange of T – beam is
lo
bf = + bw + 6Df
6
t
In the above formula, lo signifies
e
n
(1) Effective span of T – beam
a.
(2) distance between points of zero moments in the beam
bh
(3) Clear span of the beam
i
t
(4) Distance between points of maximum moments in the beam
a
121.
r
The trap used for a water closet is called
p
du
(1) Gully trap (2) Anti – siphon trap
a
(3) Intercepting trap (4) P – trap
122.
en
A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m2 and water content 10%. The dry densi
e
ty of soil is
w.
(1) 18. 6 kN/m2 (2) 20.0 kN/m2
w
(3) 22.0 kN/m2 (4) 23.2 kN/m2
123.
w
Which of the following is a measure of particle size range?
(1) Effective size (2) Uniformity co – efficient
(3) Co – efficient of curvature (4) None of the above
124. If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero the soil is
(1) Sand (2) Silt (3) Clay (4) Clayey silt
125. According to IS – classification, the range of silt size particles is
(1) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm (2) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
(3) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm (4) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
126. Which one of the following clays behaves like dense sand ?
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(1) Over – consolidated clay with a high over – consolidation ratio
(2) Over – consolidated clay with a low over – consolidation ratio
(3) Normally consolidated clay
(4) Under  consolidated clay
127. Relationship between dry density rd, percentage of air voids ηa, water content
w and specific gravity G of any soil is
et
128.
a.n
The ratio of the undisturbed shear strength to the remoulded shear strength, in
h
cohesive soils under undrained conditions is
(1) Zero
tib (2) 1
ra
(3) Greater than 1 (4) Between 0 and 1
129.
p
The critical height of unsupported vertical cut in a cohesive soil is given by
u
ad
en
.e
w
130. A plate load test is useful to estimate
w
(1) Bearing capacity of foundation (2) Settlement of foundation
131. w
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
The correct increasing order of the surface areas of the given soils is
(1) Silt, sand, colloids, clay (2) Sand, silt, colloids, clay
(3) Sand, silt, clay colloids (4) Clay, silt, sand, colloids
132. For a given soil sample,
Cc = Co  efficient of gradation
Cu = Co  efficient of uniformity
D10 = effective size
D30 = diameter through which 30 percent of the total soil mass is passing.
If Cc = 1.0, Cu = 4.0, then the value of D30 / D10 would be
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(1) 2.00 (2) 1.75 (3) 1.50 (4) 1.25
133. The total settlement of a compressible soil stratum 2 m deep and having a coef
ficient of volume compressibility of 0.02 cm2/kg under a pressure increment
of 2 kg/cm2 will be
(1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 8 cm (4) 10 cm
134. The determination of ultimate bearing capacity on eccentrically loaded square
footing depends upon the concept of useful
(1) square (2) width (3) triangle (4) circle
135.
t
In consolidation testing, curve fitting method is used to determine
e
n
(1) Compression index (2) Swelling index
a.
(3) Coefficient of consolidation (4) None of these
136.
bh
Westergaard’s analysis for stress distribution beneath loaded areas is applica
i
t
ble to
ra
(1) sandy soils (2) clayey soils (3) stratified soils (4) silty soils
137.
up
If the true bearing of a line AB is 269° 30' then the azimuth of the line AB is
ad
(1) 0° 30' (2) 89° 30' (3) 90° 30' (4) 269° 30'
n
138. In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 293° 30’ can be
. e
expressed as
e
(1) W 23° 30' N (2) N 66° 30' W
ww
(3) S 113° 30' N (4) N 23° 30' W
w
139. Which of the following methods of contouring is most suitable for a hilly ter
rain?
(1) Direct method (2) Square method
(3) Crosssections method (4) Tachometric method
40. If a 30 m length can be taped with a precision of ± 0.01 m, then the standard
error in measuring 1.08 km with the same precision will be
(1) ± 0.54 m (2) ± 0.45 m (3) ± 0.36 m (4) ± 0.06 m
141. If in triangle ABC, b=300 m and angle ∠ABC = 60°, then the radius of the cir
cular curve passing through the points A, B and C will be
(1) 86.6 m (2) 100.0 m (3) 173.2 m (4) 300.6 m
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142. Which one of the following specifications for length of base line refers to the
“Third order triangulation system”?
(1) 0.5 to 3 km (2) 1.5 to 5 km (3) 5 to 15 km (4) 10 to 20 km
143. If the coordinates of A are 100 N and 200 E and those of C are 100 S and 200
E, then the length AC is
(1) 400.00 (2) 282.84 (3) 244.94 (4) 200.00
144. The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road con
struction is
(1) 0.4 %
n
145. Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen?
(1) 30/40
a. (2) 60/70 (3) 80/100 (4) 100/120
146.
bh
For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of
i
t
operations after spreading the coarse aggregate is
ra
(1) dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
up
(2) dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
d
(3) dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
a
n
(4) dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
147.
ee
The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from
.
(1) 20 to 25 mm (2) 50 to 75 mm
ww
(3) 75 to 100 mm (4) 100 to 120 mm
w
148. Expansion joints in cement concrete pavements are provided at an interval of
(1) 10 m (2) 15 m
(3) 18 m to 21 m (4) 25 m to 30 m
149. A summit curve is formed at the intersection of a 3% up gradient and 5% down
gradient to provide a stopping distance of 128 m. The length of summit curve
needed will be
(1) 271 m (2) 298 m (3) 322 m (4) 340 m
150. Which one of the following binders is recommended for a wet and cold climate
(1) 80/100 penetration asphalt (2) tar
(3) cut back (4) emulsion