Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
A. Cladding
B. Armor
C. Shield
D. Cover
A. parabolic reflector
B. helical
C. Yagi-uda
D. small circular loop
A. 11
B. 7 and ½
C. 8
D. 5
A. 300
B. 480
C. 600
D. 120
A. blind landing
B. obtaining your fixes location over large distances
C. automatic collision warning
D. approach control
A. approach control
B. obtaining fixes over large distances
C. blind landing
D. automatic collision warning
A. -90 dB
B. -90 dBm
C. 90 dBm
D. 90 dB
A. Signs
B. Call sign
C. Code
D. Identifier
11. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The K-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile
calculation is equal to ___________.
A. 2/3
B. 0
C. 4/3
D. Infinity
A. 83 B
B. 8A1 / 8B1
C. 93 B
D. 9A1/ 9B1
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
A. RS-423A
B. RS-422A
C. RS-550A
D. RS-449A
A. aperiodic
B. boresight
C. cassegrain
D. top-loaded
A. 754 K
B. 464 K
C. 174 K
D. 293 K
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Absorption
D. Reflection
A. humidity
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. all of these
A. conductor spacing
B. conductor diameter
C. length
D. conductor radius
A. prograde
B. perigee
C. zenith
D. apogee
A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30
A. elementary doublet
B. isotropic antenna
C. half-wave dipole
D. infinitesimal dipole
A. 120 dBSPL
B. 115.56 dBSPL
C. 41.58 dBSPL
D. 57.78 dBSPL
A. Ground
B. Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities
C. Protector
D. Fuse
A. 10 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 15 days
32. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure?
A. 1.86
B. 0.1086
C. 1.086
D. 10.86
A. space or direct
B. ground
C. surface
D. sky
A. once
B. eight times
C. twice
D. thrice
A. Phase shift
B. Phase correction
C. Phase-error correction
D. Time alignment
A. 12 W
B. 0.12 W
C. 0.012 W
D. 1.2 W
A. D
B. F2
C. E
D. F1
A. 25
B. 15
C. 20
D. 20
A. ¼
B. 2/3
C. ½
D. ¾
A. direct
B. all of these
C. indirect
D. insertion
A. 800 bps
B. 400 bps
C. 320 bps
D. 640 bps
A. -82 dBm
B. -85 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -90 dBm
A. Hertz
B. isotropic
C. parabolic
D. Marconi
48. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog?
A. Delta
B. Differential PCM
C. PWM
D. PCM
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. digital
D. analogue
A. zero
B. one
C. infinite
D. None of these
A. None of these
B. To have a frequency assignment
C. For modulation
D. To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the destination
A. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing
lines present)
B. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the
output power of the transmitter
C. The ratio of the signal in the backward direction
D. The numeric ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of
another antenna
A. None of these
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
A. 150 kHz
B. 120 kHz
C. 60 kHz
D. 75 kHz
A. 9/23
B. 23/9
C. 32 dB
D. 14 dB
A. 69 %
B. 115.5 %
C. 50%
D. 83%
A. 1.14 volts
B. 0.88 volt
C. 1.88 volts
D. 0.12 volt
A. Log-periodic antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. End-fire array
D. Broadside array
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Yagi-uda
C. Broadside collinear
D. Log periodic dipole array
A. large
B. definite
C. electrical
D. relative
A. 256 to 2048 Hz
B. 2048 to 4096 Hz
C. 512 to 2048 Hz
D. 16 to 64 Hz
A. directional coupler
B. quarter-wave transformer
C. balun
D. slotted line
A. no
B. difference
C. distorted
D. same
69. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Characteristics impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the
___________ when its length is infinite.
A. input
B. shorted end of the line
C. output
D. midsection
A. RF stage
B. mixer stage
C. IF stage
D. detector stage
A. 260 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 265 Hz
D. 250 Hz
A. 132.29 Ω
B. 150 Ω
C. 16.58 Ω
D. 137.5 Ω
A. Overloading
B. All of these
C. Quantizing
D. Multiplexing
A. Antenna pattern
B. Polarization
C. Beamwidth
D. Sidelobes
A. APD
B. Injection laser diode
C. Light emitting diode
D. Positive-intrinsic-negative
A. ungrounded
B. balanced
C. unbalanced
D. grounded
A. low pass
B. band pass
C. band stop
D. high pass
A. 1000 lines
B. 100,000 lines
C. 10,000 lines
D. 100 lines
A. Modal dispersion
B. Infrared absorption
C. Ion resonance absorption
D. Ultraviolet absorption
A. Exciter
B. Mixer
C. Discriminator
D. Limiter
A. 8
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
A. message oriented
B. clock oriented
C. bit oriented
D. character oriented
A. negative terminal
B. input
C. ground
D. positive terminal
A. 2.70
B. 0.10
C. 0.66
D. 0.30
A. -1 dB
B. 1 dB
C. 0 dB
D. 2 dB
95. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In measuring noise in a voice channel at a 4 dB test point level, the meter reads -70 dBm
(F1A weighted), convert the reading to pWp.
A. 53
B. 93
C. 63
D. 83
A. local oscillator
B. limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. mixer stage
A. RS 232
B. Connector
C. Modem
D. RJ-11 plug
A. HF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. VHF
A. DCE
B. DTE
C. Modem
D. PC
A. virtual
B. the same in size
C. inverted
D. smaller size
A. attenuation
B. propagation
C. absorption
D. scattering
A. Captured waves
B. Incident waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
A. Modulation frequency
B. Modulation index
C. Carrier frequency
D. All of these
A. polling
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. OSI
A. 2
B. 6
C. 5
D. 3
A. Phantom line
B. Private line
C. Tie trunk
D. Tandem trunk
A. 192 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 144 kbps
A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Multimeter
C. Reflectometer
D. Oscilloscope
A. 64 kbps
B. 240 kbps
C. 128 kbps
D. 270 kbps
A. 4.24
B. 1.81
C. 4.75
D. 2.6
A. PAM
B. ADM
C. DM
D. PCM
A. 4.656 watts
B. 2.656 watts
C. 3.656 watts
D. 2.856 watts
A. Satellite dish
B. LNB
C. Yagi-Uda antenna
D. Satellite receiver
A. 14
B. 64
C. 128
D. 7
A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW
A. 250 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 240 Hz
D. 255 Hz
A. All of these
B. bridge
C. router
D. Gateway
A. Phase
B. AM and FM
C. Digital
D. Angle
A. refraction
B. sensor
C. mode
D. emitter
A. Retransmission
B. Selection
C. Reuse
D. Polling
A. Binary
B. NRZ
C. Manchester
D. Bipolar
A. downward curvatures
B. flattening
C. bulging
D. sharp curvature
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1
A. Vertically polarized
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. RHCP
40. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Multiplexing scheme use by baseband transmission.
A. FDM
B. Space multiplexing
C. TDM
D. Statistical multiplexing
A. dBrn
B. dBm
C. dBr
D. dBa
A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz
A. 1.98
B. 1.23
C. 1.33
D. 1.29
A. ASK
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. All of these
A. RF carrier
B. Video System
C. Audio signal
D. Binary coded pulses
A. 1
B. 50
C. 10
D. 2
A. Thermal noise
B. White noise
C. Gaussian noise
D. All of these
A. 1852
B. 1904
C. 1947
D. 1952
A. 20 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 30 Mbps
D. 40 Mbps
51. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is
A. Broadside Antenna
B. Folded Dipole
C. Rhombic antenna
D. End fire array
A. Explorer
B. Sputnik
C. Telstar
D. Early bird
A. 16
B. 8
C. 32
D. 4
A. X-band
B. C-band
C. Ku-band
D. L-band
A. Quadruple
B. Frequency
C. Polarization
D. Space
A. Diffraction
B. Interference
C. Resolving power
D. Polarization
A. High-pass filter
B. Band reject filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. Band-pass filter
A. is version II of ASC
B. is used only in US and Canada
C. has 132 characters including 32 control characters
D. is subset of 8-bit EBCDIC code
A. capacitive load
B. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristics impedance
C. resistive load at the resonant frequency
D. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of
the line
A. 145.6 dB
B. 138.5 dB
C. 135.5 dB
D. 140.89 dB
A. 10 dBm
B. 30 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 40 dBm
A. liquid fuel
B. jet propulsion
C. ion propulsion system
D. solar jet
A. RIMPATT
B. TRAPATT
C. Magnetron
D. IMPATT
A. 300,000 km/sec
B. 100,000 km/ sec
C. 400,000 km/sec
D. 200km/sec
A. are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
B. travel along all four walls of the waveguide
C. travel along the broader walls of the guide
D. travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
A. Transceiver
B. Discrete channel
C. T/R channel
D. Transponder
A. Hot
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. Molten
73. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie
A. dBx
B. dolby
C. dBa
D. dBm
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
A. A0
B. F3
C. A3
D. A5C
A. Sound pressure
B. Sound intensity
C. Pressure variation
D. Loudness
A. Varistor
B. Induction coil
C. Resistor
D. Capacitor
A. Early bird
B. Score
C. Moon
D. Sputnik
A. 2,000 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 3,835 Hz
D. 3700 Hz
A. A3E
B. B8E
C. C3F
D. H3E
A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 kHz
C. 0 to 4 GHz
D. 0 to 4 MHz
A. 10-6m
B. 10-3 m
C. 106 m
D. 109 m
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Surface loam soil
D. Limestone
A. VLF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. UF
A. Decibel
B. Phon
C. Mel
D. Sone
A. 144 kbps
B. 1,544 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 2,048 kbps
A. centrally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. horizontally polarized
D. perpendicularly polarized
A. 0.108 cm
B. 1.082 cm
C. 0.017 cm
D. 0.0465 cm
A. 14 ns
B. 6 ns
C. 9 ns
D. 12.5 ns
A. 1.25 µsec
B. 52 µsec
C. 83.33 µsec
D. 26 µsec
A. 6 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 1 dB
A. 20
B. 32
C. 35
D. 25
A. Line protocol
B. Isochronous
C. Data communications
D. Digital communications
A. SAT
B. ESN
C. MIN
D. SIM
A. Radio sounding
B. None of these
C. Radio monitoring
D. Radio survey
A. 100 Ω
B. 65 Ω
C. 75 Ω
D. 50 Ω
A. 150 Ω
B. 156 Ω
C. 160 Ω
D. 165 Ω
A. RG-8/U
B. Single line wire
C. Twin-lead
D. MIcrostrip
A. 9 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 10 dB
D. 3 dB
A. Slotted line
B. Quarter-wave transformer
C. Directional Coupler
D. Balun
A. 85 Ω
B. 63 Ω
C. 50 Ω
D. 75 Ω
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
A. Full duplex
B. Duplex
C. Half duplex
D. Simplex
A. 70 deg F
B. 30 deg C
C. 290 Kelvin
D. 25 deg C
A. 800 Hz
B. 1500 Hz
C. 3400 Hz
D. 1000 Hz
A. None of these
B. Bandwidth
C. Temperature
D. Quantizing level
14. ECE Board Exam April 1997
The random and unpredictable electric signal from natural causes, both internal and
external to the system is know as ________.
A. Distortion
B. Noise
C. Attenuation
D. Interference
A. dBw
B. dBk
C. dBm
D. NPR
A. dBa
B. pWp
C. dBm
D. dBmO
A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 50%
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3H
D. A3
A. Simpler to generate
B. Low sampling rate is required
C. Much better noise immunity
D. All of these
A. 50
B. 71
C. 100
D. 25
A. A3E
B. 3AJ
C. 11BE
D. H3E
A. Class B
B. Class C
C. Class A
D. Class D
25. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Modulation means
A. Varying of information
B. Utilization of a single transmission channel to carry multiple signals
C. Varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to transmit
information
D. Transmit pulses in DC form on a copper wire
A. 0 dB
B. 10 dBm
C. 0 dBm
D. 10 dB
A. 360 CCS
B. 100 CCS
C. 36 CCS
D. 3.6 CCS
A. Video text
B. Facsimile
C. Encoding
D. Xerox copy
A. 1000 TU
B. 10 TU
C. 100 TU
D. 1 TU
A. Refraction
B. Reflection
C. Rarefaction
D. Diffraction
A. Gyro frequency
B. Maximum usable frequency
C. Critical frequency
D. Virtual frequency
A. Ducting
B. Ionospheric scatter
C. Microwave
D. Troposcatter
A. E
B. F1
C. F2
D. D
A. Hop
B. Frequency
C. Wavelength
D. Crest
A. A layer
B. D layer
C. E layer
D. F layer
A. 8500 km
B. 6370 km
C. 7270 km
D. 7950 km
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Omni
D. Directional
A. Right angle
B. Angle of elevation
C. Bandwidth
D. Azimuth
A. Rhombic
B. Hertz
C. Marconi
D. Dipole
A. Crystal
B. Orthomode transducer
C. Light transducer
D. Optoisolator
A. 6.6 times
B. 3.3 times
C. 10.89 times
D. 9.9 times
A. Incident waves
B. Captured waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
A. 200 kph
B. 250 kph
C. 300 kph
D. 100 kph
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 6
A. Dummy antenna
B. Hertzian antenna
C. None of these
D. Void antenna
A. Antenna
B. Transmitter
C. Transmission line
D. Transceiver
A. 42.9 MHz
B. 61.3 MHz
C. 38.5 MHz
D. 53.5 MHz
A. Taken passing
B. Polling
C. Switching
D. CSMA/CD
A. B+2D
B. B+D
C. 2B+2D
D. 2B+D
A. STX
B. ETX
C. SOH
D. BCC
A. Bandwidth analysis
B. Frequency spectrum
C. Spectral analysis
D. Frequency analysis
A. X.25
B. X.50
C. X.10
D. X.75
A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Ethernet
D. Internet
A. Folding frequency
B. Resonant frequency
C. Natural frequency
D. Critical frequency
A. Asynchronous
B. Synchronous
C. Baseband
D. Broadband
A. Prefix code
B. Huffman code
C. Entropy code
D. Source code
A. Hartley theorem
B. Shannon-hartley theorem
C. Nyquist theorem
D. Shannon theorem
A. The same
B. Different or the same
C. Totally different
D. None of these
A. Full duplex
B. Duplex
C. Half duplex
D. Simplex
A. Feedhorn
B. Satellite dish
C. Satellite receiver
D. LNB
A. 38
B. 40
C. 44
D. 42
A. 0.2 dB
B. 0.3 dB
C. 0.09 dB
D. 0.38 dB
A. PIN Diode
B. ILD
C. APD
D. LED
A. Step-index multimode
B. Step-index single mode
C. Graded index mode
D. Graded index multimode
A. 800 THz
B. 20 MHz
C. 200 MHz
D. 2 GHz
A. 150,000 h
B. 100,000 h
C. 50,000 h
D. 200,000 h
A. Sound intensity
B. Loudness
C. Coherence
D. Sound stress
A. Reverberation
B. Refraction
C. Flanking transmission
D. Reflection
A. 59.1 dB
B. 69.1 dB
C. 79.1 dB
D. 89.1 dB
A. Fundamental
B. Midrange
C. Period
D. Harmonic
A. 10 log I/I(ref)
B. 10 log I(ref)/I
C. 30 log I/I(ref)
D. 20 log I/I(ref)
A. Reflection
B. Diffraction
C. Rarefaction
D. Refraction
A. Volume meter
B. Audio frequency meter
C. Volume unit meter
D. Speech meter
85. ECE Board Exam April 1997
What is the local oscillator frequency range commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455
KHz.
A. Receiver
B. Antenna
C. Filter
D. Transmitter
A. Tilting
B. Scanner
C. Pan/tilt device
D. Panning device
A. 25
B. 15
C. 5
D. 75
A. 119 GHz
B. 183 GHz
C. 310 GHz
D. 60 GHz
A. STL
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. Terrestrial link
96. ECE Board Exam April 1997
The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave
A. PD 323
B. PD 223
C. PD 232
D. RA 223
A. Act. No.`3846
B. D.O. No. 11
C. D.O. No. 88
D. D.O. No. 5
A. File
B. Documentation
C. Reporting
D. Log
Communications Engineering Exam 3: ECE Pre-
Board – Answers
1. 100 Ω
2. 156 Ω
3. Single line wire
4. 6 dB
5. Balun
6. 75 Ω
7. 3
8. Shannon-Hartley theorem
9. Duplex
10. 15 to 160 Mhz
11. 290 Kelvin
12. 800 Hz
13. Quantizing level
14. Noise
15. NPR
16. pWp
17. 50%
18. A3J
19. Limiter
20. Much better noise immunity
21. 71
22. Constant peak amplitude
23. H3E
24. Class C
25. Varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to transmit information
26. Assures that the telephone is working
27. 0 dBm
28. 36 CCS
29. Facsimile
30. 100
31. 1 TU
32. Refraction
33. Maximum usable frequency
34. James Clerk Maxwell
35. Ionospheric scatter
36. F2
37. Wavelength
38. F layer
39. 8500 km
40. Vertical
41. Azimuth
42. Rhombic
43. Orthomode transducer
44. 10.89 times
45. Standing waves
46. 200 kph
47. 3
48. Dummy antenna
49. Antenna
50. 42.9 MHz
51. Two-way simultaneous transmission
52. Polling
53. They have clock recovery circuits
54. 2B+D
55. Data communication equipment
56. STX
57. To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
58. Is concerned with the boundaries between characters
59. Spectral analysis
60. X.75
61. Asynchronous
62. Folding frequency
63. Baseband
64. Huffman code
65. Shannon-hartley theorem
66. Totally different
67. Sampling, quantizing, and coding
68. Duplex
69. LNB
70. Gallium Arsenide solar panel
71. Satellite radiation pattern
72. 38
73. 0.38 dB
74. LED
75. Step-index multimode
76. 800 THz
77. 50,000 h
78. Sound intensity
79. Flanking transmission
80. 89.1 dB
81. Fundamental
82. 10 log I/I(ref)
83. Diffraction
84. Volume unit meter
85. 995 to 2055 KHz
86. Low band VHF
87. Antenna
88. Pan/tilt device
89. 5
90. 52 µs
91. Due to water vapor and oxygen
92. Distances involved are greater
93. 60 GHz
94. Radio detection and ranging
95. Terrestrial link
96. Shorten waveguide link
97. PD 223
98. E.O. No. 266
99. Act. No.`3846
100. Log
A. 0 to 20 KHz
B. Above 2 GHz
C. 8 to 1.43 GHz
D. 5 to 8 GHz
A. Visible
B. Infrared
C. Ultraviolet
D. Amber
A. Hertz
B. Dipole
C. Log-periodic
D. Rhombic
A. Semi-duplex operation
B. Duplex operation
C. Half-duplex operation
D. Simplex operation
A. Monitoring
B. Emission
C. Radiation
D. Transmission
A. E-mail
B. Television
C. Radio
D. Internet
A. Unidirectional
B. Bidirectional
C. Omnidirectional
D. Figure of eight
A. Visual effect
B. Wiper
C. Chroma keying
D. Special effect generation
A. 50 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 40dB
D. 20 dB
A. Monitoring
B. Tracking
C. Telemetry
D. Telecommand
A. 3 dB
B. 1 dB
C. 5 dB
D. 0.5dB
A. White noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Johnson’s noise
D. All of these
15. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Unity gain antenna
A. Isotropic
B. Rhombic
C. Half-wave dipole
D. Dummy
A. PFM
B. PWM
C. PDM
D. PAM
A. Troposcatter
B. Ionospheric scatter
C. Ducting
D. Microwave
A. Transmission zone
B. Fresnel
C. Fraunhofer
D. All of these
A. Frequency
B. Intensity
C. Pitch
D. SPL
A. Radiation
B. Noise
C. Out of the band
D. Interference
A. Broad bandwidth
B. Good front-to-back
C. Maneuverability
D. Circular polarization
A. Impulse noise
B. White noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Gaussian noise
A. Reflectometer
B. Wavemeter
C. Altimeter
D. Multimeter
A. Coast station
B. Fixed station
C. Base station
D. Land station
A. Elliptical polarization
B. Circular polarization
C. Horizontal polarization
D. Vertical polarization
A. Score
B. Syncom I
C. Telstar 1
D. Echo1
A. T2
B. T1
C. T4
D. T3
a. 354 kbps
b. 750 kbps
c. 768 kbps
d. 640 kbps
A. LED
B. Darlington phototransistor
C. APDs
D. PIN diode
A. 0.4782µV
B. 4278 µV
C. 4.78 µV
D. 47.8 µV
A. 1.28 x 10-19 J
B. 1.6 x 10-19 J
C. 1.22 x 10-16 J
D. 1.9 x 10-14 J
A. 34.61 ns
B. 14.55 ns
C. 52.55 ns
D. 26.25 ns
A. 20 to 20 KHz
B. 16 to 16 KHz
C. 3 to 3 KHz
D. 4 KHz
A. Hybrid diversity
B. Space diversity
C. Polarized diversity
D. Frequency diversity
A. De Morgan’s Principle
B. Faraday’s Law
C. Huygen’s Principle
D. Fresnel’s Law of optics
A. Carrier modulation
B. Front-end
C. Continuous modulation
D. Log-periodic modulation
A. Audio level
B. 30 MHz
C. 10 GHz
D. 1 GHz
A. F2 layer
B. D layer
C. E layer
D. F1 layer
42. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Radiation characteristics of a dipole
A. Figure of eight
B. Omnidirectional
C. Bidirectional
D. Unidirectional
A. 30 dB
B. 11.2 dB
C. 15.5 dB
D. 28.17 dB
A. Horizontally
B. Linearly
C. Circularly
D. Vertically
A. Reducer
B. Quality factor
C. Optical attenuator
D. Compressor
A. TM
B. TE
C. SW
D. TEM
A. Occupied bandwidth
B. Reference frequency
C. Necessary bandwidth
D. Frequency tolerance bandwidth
A. Stub matching
B. Reactance circle
C. Smith chart
D. Trial and error
A. 8.2345 MHz
B. 150.50 MHz
C. 2.4555 MHz
D. 35.535 MHz
A. Elliptical polarization
B. Horizontal polarization
C. Vertical polarization
D. Circular polarization
A. Tracking
B. Telemetry
C. Telecommand
D. Space telemetry
A. 14/11 GHz
B. 30/17 GHz
C. 8/7 GHz
D. 6/4 GHz
A. FSK
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. QAM
A. Bandwidth
B. Wavelength
C. Radiation
D. Beamwidth
A. NPR
B. dBm
C. dBW
D. dBrn
A. Administration
B. The union
C. Country
D. Telecommunications office
A. Coaxial speaker
B. Woofer
C. Tweeter
D. Trixial speaker
A. Below 2 GHz
B. At 300 MHz
C. Above 10KHz
D. Above 10GHz
A. 1023
B. 425
C. 511
D. 756
A. 73 dB
B. 62.4 dB
C. 81.8 dB
D. 8.8 dB
A. LNB
B. Yagi-Uda array
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite disk
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Volume
D. Pitch
A. E.O. 109
B. Act 3846
C. E.O. 59
D. E.O. 546
A. Rarefaction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
A. Geosynchronous
B. Steerable
C. Passive
D. Active
A. 300 - 500 Hz
B. 1200 kHz
C. 100 - 300 Hz
D. 300 - 3400 Hz
A. 8150 MHz
B. 1475 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 5925 MHz
A. Input only
B. Input and output
C. Output only
D. Point of high SWR
A. df/dP
B. dE/dp
C. dA/dP
D. dP/dA
A. Harmonic
B. Fundamental
C. Midrange
D. 0 Hz
A. Parasitic elements
B. Transcendental elements
C. Feed-points
D. Driven elements
A. Top loading
B. Adding C in series
C. Adding L in series
D. All of these
A. 33.33 W
B. 66.66 W
C. 83.33 W
D. 100 W
A. Frequency modulation
B. Pulsed modulation
C. SSB
D. Amplitude modulation
A. Space wave
B. Microwave link
C. Troposcatter
D. Point-to-point
A. Hemispheric beam
B. Spot beam
C. Zone beam
D. Global beam
A. 0 dB
B. 1.76 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 2.15 dB
A. Satellite system
B. Satellite network
C. Space system
D. Multi-satellite link
A. S factor
B. Quantizing noise
C. S/N
D. Fade margin
A. Core
B. Register
C. Flag
D. Stack
A. Coast station
B. Ship earth station
C. Coast earth station
D. Maritime station
A. Pulse modulation
B. QAM
C. PSK
D. FSK
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. H
A. Absorption loss
B. Attenuation
C. Bending loss
D. Rayleigh scattering loss
A. GSM
B. DECT
C. Analogue cellular
D. TACS
A. 30 kHz
B. 40 kHz
C. 20 kHz
D. 10 kHz
A. Isotropic antenna
B. TVRO
C. Reference antenna
D. Yagi antenna
A. Flare
B. Dark current
C. Glitch
D. Ghost
A. Antenna gain
B. Antenna back lobe ration
C. Antenna total ration
D. Antenna efficiency
A. Mobile station
B. Land station
C. Base station
D. Ship earth station
4. ECE Board Exam April 1998
A major and basic advantage for the use of a klystron.
A. High power
B. Efficiency
C. Lesser noise
D. Cheaper
A. Ku
B. C
C. X
D. L
A. AB
B. C
C. B
D. A
A. Saturation
B. Hue
C. Chrominance
D. Luminance
A. Millman
B. Snell’s
C. Maxwell
D. Huygen
A. 165.8 MHz
B. 156.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz
D. 168.5 MHz
A. Gateway
B. Coupler
C. Transformer
D. Converter
A. Tracking
B. space command
C. Telecommand
D. Trunking
A. Average power
B. In terms of peak envelop power
C. In terms of peak-to-peak power
D. Peak power
A. 45 degrees latitude
B. 90 degrees latitude
C. 0 degrees latitude
D. 5 degrees latitude
A. Dipole
B. Center loading
C. Reflector
D. loading coil
A. TACS
B. FDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA
A. At feed point
B. Near the center
C. At center
D. Near the feed point
A. Marconi
B. Hertz
C. Whip
D. Ground plane
A. Carrier power
B. Rated power
C. Peak envelop power
D. Mean power
A. Temperature inversions
B. Sunspots
C. Meteors
D. Wind shear
A. A3E
B. A3J
C. F3
D. R3A
A. Franchise
B. SEC document
C. Business permit
D. Radio station license
A. 100 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 50 kHz
D. 16 kHz
A. CW
B. FM
C. SSB
D. AM
A. Bidirectional
B. Perfect circle
C. Unidirectional
D. Omnidirectional
A. Spot beam
B. Global beam
C. Zone beam
D. Hemispheric beam
A. Glass fiber
B. Infrared
C. Light waves
D. Laser
A. Surveillance
B. Reconnaissance
C. Defense systems
D. Communication
A. Isolator
B. Circulator
C. Coupler
D. Diode.
A. Peak limiting
B. Quantization noise
C. Granular noise
D. Slope overload
A. Terrestrial station
B. Space station
C. Satellite station
D. Mobile satellite station
A. 235.50 MHz
B. 450.50 MHz
C. 150.50 GHz
D. 0.31250 GHz
A. MAN
B. LAN
C. SWITCH
D. WAN
A. Fixed station
B. Base station
C. Land station
D. Coast station
A. Frequency shift
B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse radar
D. Amplitude modulation
A. Device imperfection
B. Thermal agitation
C. Temperature change
D. Flicker
A. 0 to 90 degrees
B. Vertical aiming of the antenna
C. North to East
D. Horizontal aiming of the antenna
A. 33.3%
B. 45.2%
C. 42.5%
D. 30.5%
A. Core
B. Register
C. Flag
D. Stack
A. Peak limiting
B. Quantization noise
C. Granular noise
D. Slope distortion
A. Radiation
B. Emission
C. Encoding
D. Tracking
A. Drift
B. Flash over
C. Frequency deviation
D. Deviation ratio
A. 11000
B. 10100
C. 10010
D. 11100
A. 2:8
B. 1:2
C. 4:1
D. 2:1
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Direction
D. Speed
A. V.4
B. V.2
C. V.1
D. V.5
63. ECE Board Exam April 1998
A form of single sideband emission where the degree of carrier suppression enable the
carrier to be reconstituted and be used for demodulation.
A. Oscilloscope
B. Phonoscope
C. Radioscope
D. Audioscope
A. 5 kW
B. 30 kW
C. 10 kW
D. 50 kW
A. 111011
B. 110011
C. 111001
D. 100011
A. Iridium system
B. Plutonium system
C. Indium system
D. Gallium system
A. Uplink
B. Down link
C. RHCP
D. Vertically polarized
A. Yellow
B. Violet
C. Red
D. Blue
A. Isotropic
B. Non-resonant
C. Whip
D. Resonant
A. Announce
B. Broadcast
C. Transmit
D. Media
A. Moonbounce
B. D-layer absorption
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Faraday rotation
A. 30 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 10 dB
D. 20 dB
A. Facsimile
B. Modulated CW
C. RTTY
D. Television
A. Attenuator
B. Optical repeater
C. Optical amplifier
D. Generator
A. Facsimile
B. ACSSB
C. Xerography
D. Television
A. Crosstalk
B. Noise current
C. Crossfire
D. Intermodulation
A. In the ionosphere
B. In the receiver rear end
C. In the receiver front end
D. In the atmosphere
A. Pulse modulation
B. DSBFC
C. Vestigial sideband
D. SSBFC
A. 5 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 8.36 kW
90. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony.
A. Magnifier
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class A
A. E.O. 546
B. E.O. 109
C. Act 3948
D. E.O. 59
A. IF amplifier
B. Supply stage
C. Speaker
D. Mixer
A. 200 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 20 Hz
D. 2 Hz
A. Voice mode
B. Asynchronous mode
C. Synchronous mode
D. Packet mode
A. Dipole antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. Whip antenna
D. Rhombic antenna
A. Digipeaters
B. Terminal adapters
C. Local repeaters
D. Terminal repeaters
A. 75 watts
B. 300 watts
C. 50 watts
D. 150 watts
A. W
B. F
C. C
D. E
A. Radar
B. Data transmission
C. Space communications
D. Mobile radio
A. Analog
B. Carrier
C. Data
D. Voice
A. 50 times bigger
B. 100 times bigger
C. 10 times bigger
D. 5 times bigger
A. Omni
B. Helical
C. Yagi
D. Dipole
A. Yahoo
B. http
C. com
D. www
A. Carrier
B. Stray signal
C. Back wave
D. Loss wave
A. Current effect
B. Voltage effect
C. Resistive effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Score
D. Aguila
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 30 to 300 GHz
C. 3 to 30 MHz
D. 3 to 30 GHz
A. No transformer
B. Suppressed white noise
C. Simple
D. Modulates any frequency
A. Experimental
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Primary
A. C
B. D
C. F
D. A
A. 401.125 MHz
B. 401.00625 MHz
C. 401.025 MHz
D. 401.0125 MHz
A. 40 kW
B. 80,000 watts
C. 40,000 watts
D. 8,000 watts
A. Data transmission
B. Clear to send
C. Receive data
D. Data set ready
A. 100% modulation
B. 0% modulation
C. 50% modulated
D. Over modulated
A. Alphanumeric form
B. Alphabetic form
C. Numeric form
D. Binary form
A. Occupied bandwidth
B. Transmission bandwidth
C. Necessary bandwidth
D. Frequency bandwidth
A. Antenna feed
B. AGC
C. RF amplifier
D. Local oscillator
30. ECE Board Exam April 1998
All bits in character are sent and received ______ in serial port.
A. In groups of 3 bits
B. One at a time
C. In groups of 2 bits
D. Simultaneously
A. AF amplifier
B. Antenna
C. Detector
D. Crystal
A. Carrier power
B. Rated power
C. Mean power
D. Peak envelop power
A. 345.00 MHz
B. 144.50 MHz
C. 235.50 MHz
D. 450.00 MHz
35. ECE Board Exam April 1998
What is the typical number of bits in a static memory location?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 16
D. 8
A. AFC
B. video stage gain
C. Audio gain control
D. CRT bias
A. 10 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 8 dB
A. www
B. http
C. gov
D. infoseek
A. Act 3846
B. LOl 1000
C. R.A. 5734
D. Dept. order 88
A. Four
B. Six
C. Three
D. Two
A. Capacitor
B. Electromagnetic
C. Carbon
D. Ceramic
A. 1.0025 MHz
B. 10.525 MHz
C. 0.5 MHz
D. 10 MHz
A. Absorption modulation
B. Simultaneous modulation
C. Dynamic instability
D. Series modulation
A. IRCC
B. ITU
C. IRR
D. CCIR
A. Busy tone
B. Call waiting tone
C. Dial tone
D. Standard tone
A. Security
B. Weight
C. Bandwidth
D. Physical size
A. 401.010 MHz
B. 401.0125 MHz
C. 401.025 MHz
D. 401.00625 MHz
A. 405.030 MHz
B. 405.025 MHz
C. 405.050 MHz
D. 405.075 MHz
A. International carrier
B. Value-added service provided
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier
A. Shorting
B. Balun
C. Slotted line
D. Directional coupler
A. Chrominance
B. Luminance
C. Brightness
D. Contrast
A. Shannon’s law
B. A-law
C. Newton’s law
D. Mu-law
A. Bandwidth
B. Nature of signal(s) modulation the main carrier
C. Type of modulation of the main carrier
D. Type of information to be transmitted
A. BOC
B. DOTC
C. Congress
D. NTC
A. HF band
B. VHF band
C. LF band
D. MF band
A. Hypertext
B. HTML
C. Wide area network
D. Uniform resource locator
A. Digital emission
B. Key emission
C. Cycle emission
D. Spark emission
66. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period of rotation of
the earth about its axis.
A. Passive satellite
B. Synchronous satellite
C. Active satellite
D. Geosynchronous satellite
A. Space waves
B. Terrestrial waves
C. Mobile
D. Hertzian waves
A. 20
B. 2
C. 10
D. 200
A. The channel
B. The transmitter and receiver
C. The modem
D. The bridge
A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
B. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio
modulating frequency
C. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio
modulation frequency
D. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
71. ECE Board Exam April 1998
A quarter wavelength devices made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the
optic fiber communication.
A. Isolator
B. Retarder
C. Polarizer
D. Filters
A. Polar division
B. Time division
C. Fiber division
D. Frequency division
A. Goldsmith
B. MOPA
C. Alexanderson
D. Hartley
76. ECE Board Exam April 1998
What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. Inductance
B. Capacitance
C. Physical dimension
D. Length
A. Step-index multimode
B. Graded-index multimode
C. Semi-graded multimode
D. Single mode
A. Global beam
B. Spot beam
C. Zone beam
D. Hemispheric beam
A. Band control
B. Phase control
C. Marker amplitude control
D. Sweep output control
A. Unbalanced line
B. Open-wire line
C. Balanced line
D. Coaxial line
A. 50 ohms
B. 120 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 650 ohms
A. To maintain propagation
B. To maintain temperature of the waveguide
C. To reduce the possibility of internal arcing
D. To increase the speed of propagation
A. Optic compressors
B. Optic retarders
C. Optic isolator
D. Optic regenerators
A. Telstar I
B. Echo I
C. Intelsat I
D. Sputnik I
A. Width
B. Frequency
C. Harmonic
D. Amplitude
A. Transmission time
B. Elapsed time
C. Propagation delay
D. Travel delay
A. Sunspots
B. Airplanes
C. Meteor showers
D. Thunderstorm
A. Telephone set
B. Printers
C. Modem
D. Computer
A. Fade margin
B. Power margin
C. Nominal gain
D. Power dissipation
A. ISDN
B. Radio
C. RS232C
D. Modem
A. Occupancy period
B. Traffic time
C. Use time
D. Holding time
A. 2.5 ch.
B. 2 ch.
C. 4 ch.
D. 3 ch.
A. Loose shielding
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. Poor soldered connections
D. Faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or resistors
A. 0% modulated
B. Over-modulated
C. Unmodulated
D. 100% modulated
A. 14.14 mi
B. 40km
C. 14.14 km
D. 40 mi
2. What is the maximum line-of-sight distance between a paging antenna 250 ft high and a
pager receiver 3.5 ft of the ground?
A. 25 km
B. 25 mi
C. 70.73 km
D. 70.73 mi
3. What is the path attenuation between transmitter and receiver at a frequency of 1.2 Ghz
and a distance of 11,000 mi?
A. 119 dB
B. 115 dB
C. 179 dB
D. 174 dB
4. What is the uplink receiver frequency if the downlink transmitter is on channel 4 (3.84
Ghz)?
A. 6.065 GHz
B. 6.84 GHz
C. 6.65 GHz
D. 6.05 GHz
5. What is the maximum theoretical data rate of the above problem if one transponder is
used for binary transmission?
A. 36 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps
C.18 Mbps
D. 144 Mbps
6. What is the guardband between transponder channels in the commercial C-band for
satellite communications?
A. 6 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 4 MHz
D. 2 MHz
A. 24 MHz
B. 500 MHz
C. 36 MHz
D. 48 MHz
A. 1000 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 250 MHz
D. 500 MHz
A. 5.925 GHz
B. 4.2 GHz
C. 7.425 GHz
D. 3.7 GHz
10. How many transponder channels are realized in the commercial C-band without
frequency re-use?
A. 24
B. 12
C. 36
D. 48
11. Which band of frequencies used by military for its satellites and radar?
A. C band
B. X band
C. L band
D. P band
12. For navigation as well as marine and aeronautical communications and radar, ____
band is used.
A. L
B. K
C. S
D. J
13. What is the current frequency band given most attenuation for satellite
communications?
A. Ku
B. C band
C. J
D. P
14. What satellite subsystem monitors onboard conditions such as temperature and battery
voltage and transmits this data back to a ground station for analysis?
A. Communications subsystem
B. AKM
C. TTC
D. Transponder
15. Which of the following satellite subsystem provides stabilization in orbit and senses
changes in orientation?
16. What is the typical center frequency spacing between adjacent channels (transponders)
in satellites?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 500 MHz
D. 4 MHz
A. 14 to 14.5 GHz
B. 11.7 to 12.2 GHz
C. 14 to 15.5 GHz
D. 11 to 11.5 GHz
18. What is considered as the most advanced satellite system developed for cellular
telephones?
A. Iridium
B. Globalstar
C. ANIK
D. Molniya
A. Polar
B. Equatorial
C. Inclined elliptical
D. Inclined equatorial
A. L band
B. Ka band
C. C band
D. Ku band
21. Iridium satellites can provide data communications of up ____ bps data rate.
A. 1200
B. 4800
C. 2400
D. 3840
A. GPS
B. Iridium
C. Globalstar
D. Intelsat
A. 10,898 nmi
B. 10,898 mi
C. 10,898 km
D. 10, 898 m
24. What is the orbital period of each satellite in the GPS constellation?
A. 6 h
B. 12 h
C. 5 h
D. 15 h
25. What term is normally associated with specifying the location of a celestial body in
space?
A. Constellation
B. Galaxy
C. Satellite
D. Ephemeris
A. 55˚
B. 65˚
C. 105˚
D. 45˚
27. What material is most often used for the outer covering of coaxial cables?
A. PVC
B. Teflon
C. PE
D. Polystyrene
A. 2.5
B. 3.3
C. 2.27
D. 2.1
29. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is also widely used insulator and is known as.
A. polystyrene
B. teflon
C. ceramic
D. bakelite
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a two-wire line with the following data: diameter
= 0.023in., spacing =0.5 in., insulation = PE.?
A. 300 Ω
B. 250 Ω
C. 305 Ω
D. 301 Ω
31. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line with the following data: inner
diameter = 0.2 in., center conductor diameter = 0.06 in., insulation = Teflon.
A. 200 Ω
B. 75 Ω
C. 50 Ω
D. 150 Ω
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0.4
33. If the operating frequency is 450 MHz what length of a pair of conductors is considered
to be a transmission line?
A. 2.19 ft
B. 2.19 m
C. 0.219 ft
D. 0.219 m
34. What is the physical length of the above transmission line at 3/8λ long?
A.0.82 m
B. 0.82 ft
C. 0.82 in
D. 0.82 cm
35. Which of the following coaxial cable connectors is called the UHF connector?
A. PL-259
B. BNC
C. N-type connector
D. F connector
36. What connector is popular in attaching test instruments like oscilloscopes, frequency
counters, spectrum analyzers, etc?
A. UHF connector
B. PL-259
C. BNC
D. SMA
37. Which coaxial cable connector is least expensive and is widely used for TV sets,VCRs
and cable TV?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C. BNC
D. PL-259
38. Which coaxial connector is a more complex and expensive but do a better job in
maintaining the electrical characteristics of the cable through the interconnections?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C.BNC
D. PL-259
39. The velocity factor in transmission lines vary from ___ to ___.
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C.0.5 to 0.9
D. 0.8 to 0.9
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C. 0.5 to 0.9
D. 0.4 to 0.6
A. 0.9
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.7
A. Shielded pair
B. Flexible coaxial
C. Twin-lead
D. Open-wire line
43. What is the velocity factor of coaxial cable with a characteristic impedance of 50 Ω and
capacitance of 30 pF/ft and inductance of 75 nH/ft?
A. 0.58
B.0.68
C. 0.98
D. 0.81
44. What is transit time (time delay) of a 50-ft length transmission line of the above
problem?
A. 50 ns
B. 100 ns
C. 75 ns
D. 65 ns
45. What do you call a transmission line used specifically for the purpose of achieving
delay?
A. Delay line
B. Flat line
C. Resonant line
D. Non-resonant line
46. What is the time delay introduced by a 75-ft coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of
2.3?
A. 1.54 ns
B. 11.5 ns
C. 115.6 ns
D. 1156 ns
47. Assume a frequency of 4 MHz, determine the phase shift offered by the line in the
above problem.
A. 108.5˚
B. 106.5˚
C. 115.5˚
D. 166.5˚
48. Find the load impedance that must be used to terminate RG-62A/U to avoid reflections?
A. 93 Ω
B. 75 Ω
C. 50 Ω
D. 300 Ω
49. Find the equivalent inductance per foot of the above cable?
A. 13.5 nF/ft
B. 13.5 pF/ft
C. 116.8 nH/ft
D. 116.8 pF/ft
50. An RG-11/U foam coaxial cable has a maximum voltage standing wave of 52 V and a
minimum voltage of 17 V. Find the value of the resistive load.
A. 24.59Ω
B. Either A or C
C. 228.75Ω
D. Neither A nor C
51. Sound provides all sorts of information. What information is related to mental processes
of knowledge, reasoning, memory, judgement and perception?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Digital
D. Analog
A. Tempo
B. Attack
C. Rhythm
D. Timbre
A. Sound
B. Speech
C. Music
D. Noise
54. Attack is a sound characteristic that refers to the way a sound begins. Which of the
following is NOT an attack of sound?
A. Hard
B. Soft
C. Crisp
D. Simple
55. At what loudness level do pitch (in mels) and frequency (in Hz) are numerically equal?
A. 0 dB
B. 20 dB
C. 60 dB
D. 40 dB
A. 10
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
57. The ratio of frequencies is termed.
A. interval
B. octave
C. harmonics
D. factor
A. 1 to 2
B. 1 to 3
C. 2 to 1
D. 3 to 1
59. If the loudness level is 100 phons, what is this in sone unit?
A. 100
B. 90
C. 106
D. 96
A. 1000 times
B. 4 times louder
C. 100 times
D. Twice as loud
A. 6 to 10 dB
B. 1 to 3 dB
C. 3 to 6 dB
D. 10 to 20dB
A. 60 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 80 dB
D. 40 dB
64. What do you call the perceptible sound repetition?
A. Reverberation
B. Echo
C. Reflection
D. Masking
65. What is the amount of sound reduction provided by a barrier – wall, floor, or ceiling
called?
A. Sound Attenuation
B. Transmission loss
C. Sound absorption
D. Barrier loss
66. What is the frequency of a 2-cm sound wave in sea water at 25˚C?
A. 76 kHz
B. 76 Hz
C. 76 MHz
D. 76 mHz
67. A choir consisting of 36 individuals all of whom can sing with the same intensity. A
soloist sings a certain passage and then is joined by the remainder of the choir members for
a repeat of the passage. What is the difference in the sound intensity level in the two
cases?
A. 3 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 36 dB
D. 15.6 dB
68. For the safety and comfort of factory workers, the sound-intensity level in a certain
factory must remain below 85 dB. What is the maximum sound intensity allowed in this
factory?
A. 1 x 10-6W/m2
B. 1 x 10-7W/m2
C. 1 x 10-8W/m2
D.1 x 10-5W/m2
70. The sound intensity received from the nearby jet plane is 12.6 µW/m 2 and that from
another jet plane some distance away is 0.45 µW/m2. Find the relative loudness of the two.
A. 14.0 dB
B. 14.5 dB
C. 12.5 dB
D. 14.5 dB
71. The noise from an airplane engine 100 ft from an observer is found to have an intensity
of 45dB. What will be the intensity when the plane flies overhead at an altitude of 1 mi?
A. 10.5 dB
B. 34.5 dB
C. 35 dB
D. 20.5 dB
A. Moderate
B. Very loud
C. Loud
D. Deafening
A. 120 dB
B. 140 dB
C. 130 dB
D. 150 dB
74. What is sound pressure level if the RMS sound pressure is 100 μbars?
A. 114 dB
B. 11.4 dB
C. 94 dB
D. 57 dB
A. 330
B. 3600
C. 3300
D. 5800
A. 0.9 to 1.1 s
B. 1.4 to 1.6 s
C. 1.5 to 1.6 s
D. 1.6 to 1.8 s
A. 3.1
B. 2.8
C. 7.1
D. 4.2
78. Which of the following is NOT an acoustical defect to be avoided in acoustical designs?
A. Reverberation
B. Flutter echo
C. Distortion
D. Sound concentration
79. What absorber in which efficient absorption is only possible over a very narrow band
approaching 1.0 (total absorption)?
A. Porous material
B. Helmholtz resonator
C. Panel Absorber
D. Membrane absorber
80. How many voice signals (4 kHz max.) would fit into a 5 MHz spectrum?
A. 1250
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500
A. 33
B. 30
C. 40
D. 25
82. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity
factor of 0.695 at 45 MHz?
A. 17.82
B. 19.26
C. 16.28
D. 16.97
83. Determine the terrain sensitivity loss for a 4-GHz carrier that is propagating over a very
dry, mountainous area.
A. -1.25 dB
B. -3.05 dB
C. -2.01 dB
D. -5.01 dB
84. A satellite transmitter operates at 4GHz with an antenna gain of 4dBi. The receiver
40000 km away has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. If the transmitter has a power of 8 W, find
(ignoring feedline losses and mismatch) the EIRP in dBW.
A. 50
B. 69
C. 49
D. 30
85. A radio signal moves from air to glass. The angle of incidence is 20°. Calculate the
angle of refraction. The relative permittivity of the glass is 7.8.
A. 7.8°
B. 5.04°
C. 6.04°
D. 7.04°
86. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an angle of incidence of 75° is 17 MHz.
What is the critical frequency?
A. 4.4 MHz
B. 3.5 MHz
C. 6.5 MHz
D. 1.5 MHz
87. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/100m. if 10 W is supplied to
one end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 27 m away?
A. 10 W
B. 7.2 W
C. 9.9 W
D. 9.1 W
A. Polarization
B. Interference
C. Beamwidth
D. Gain
A. Space wave
B. Troposcatter
C. Ground wave
D. Direct wave
A. 0°
B. 10°
C. 20°
D. 30°
92. A transmission line of unknown impedance is terminated with two different resistances,
and an SWR is measured each time. With a 75 Ω termination, the SWR measures 1.5. With
a 300 Ω termination, it measures 2.67. What is the impedance of the line?
A. 100 Ω
B. 212 Ω
C. 300 Ω
D. 112 Ω
93. What is the high frequency sound that cannot be heard by the human ear?
A. Ultrasonic
B. Transonic
C. Subsonic
D. Supersonic
A. 30.72 kHz
B. 30 kHz
C. 300 Hz
D. 307.2 kHz
A. 273
B. 328
C. 618
D. 123.6
96. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor
of 0.63 at 28 MHz?
A. 44.28
B. 43.46
C. 11.07
D. 46.27
A. 1 – 10 watts
B. 100 – 1000 milliwatts
C. 10 – 100 milliwatts
D. 10 – 1000 microwatts
98. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity
factor of 0.68 to 30 MHz?
A. 19.26
B. 5.6
C. 17.82
D. 16.97
99. What is actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of
0.59 at 26 MHz?
A. 11.16
B. 40.29
C. 42.46
D. 46.28
100. The agreed standard for measuring loudness is the loudness sensation produced by a
1000 Hz sine wave _____ dB above the listener’s threshold of hearing.
A. 80
B. 50
C. 30
D. 40
A. 0.99
B. 0.15
C. 0.78
D. 0.85
A. Snell’s law
B. D’Alembert’s principle
C. Appleton’s theory
D. Huygen’s principle
A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency.
B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio
modulating frequency.
C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency.
D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio
modulating frequency.
A. E-layer skip.
B. D-layer skip.
C. Auroral skip.
D. Radio waves may be bent.
6. What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a
station over 500 miles away?
A. D-layer absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce
8. The bending of radio waves passing over the top of a mountain range that disperses a
weak portion of the signal behind the mountain is
A. 0.062 cm
B. 6 meters
C. 60 cm
D. 60 meters
12. The band of frequencies least susceptible to atmospheric noise and interference is:
A. 30 – 300 kHz
B. 300 – 3000 kHz
C. 3 – 30 MHz
D. 300 – 3000 MHz
13. What is the relationship in degrees of the electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of an
antenna?
A. 0 degree
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 180 degrees
14. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon distance of a transmitting antenna
with a height of 100 meters is approximately:
A. 10 km
B. 40 km
C. 100 km
D. 400 km
17. If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters high and a separate receiving antenna is 64
meters high, what is the maximum space wave communication distance possible between
them?
A. 18 km
B. 72 km
C. 164 km
D. 656 km
18. A receiver is located 64 km from a space wave transmitting antenna that is 100 meters
high. Find the required height of the receiving antenna.
A. 36 meters high
B. 64 meters high
C. 100 meters high
D. 182.25 meters high
19. Which of the following is not one of the natural ways a radio wave may travel from
transmitter to receiver?
A. Ground wave
B. Microwave
C. Sky wave
D. Space wave
20. Which of the following terrain types permits a ground wave to travel the farthest?
A. Salt water
B. Fresh water
C. Sandy
D. Rocky
21. What is the input terminal impedance at the center if a folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms
22. What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where
the center frequency if a conventional carrier is altered many time per second in accordance
with a pseudo-random list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum
23. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable
such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
A. 2.70
B. 0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10
24. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the
feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt
transmitter?
A. 70 watts
B. 50 watts
C. 25 watts
D. 6 watts
26. What term is used to describe a spread spectrum communications system in which a
very fast binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
27. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for ground wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
C. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
28. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for sky wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
29. What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 MHz quarter wavelength antenna?
A. 14.28 MHz
B. 107 MHz
C. 149 MHz
D. 700 MHz
30. Which if the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation
during the hours of darkness?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
31. Skip distance can be maximized by using the ____ radiation angle possible and the
____ frequency that will be refracted at that angle.
A. lowest, lowest
B. lowest, highest
C. highest, lowest
D. highest, highest
32. What is the meaning of the term “velocity factor” of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable.
C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light
in a vacuum.
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in
a vacuum.
33. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to
the speed of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Surge impedance
D. Standing wave ratio
34. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical
length?
35. What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is
electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
A. 20 meters
B. 3.51 meters
C. 2.33 meters
D. 0.25 meter
36. To obtain the most reliable sky wave propagation the ____ should be used.
37. What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing
of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.16
C. 0.6
D. 1.66
38. Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky wave propagation for which of the following
frequency bands?
40. What type of transmission is radiated from an aircraft’s radio altimeter antenna?
42. A coaxial cable has 7dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output
of the transmission line?
A. 5 watts
B. 2.5 watts
C. 1.25 watts
D. 1 watt
44. Most AM broadcasts employ ___ polarization while most FM broadcasts employ ___
polarization of the radio wave.
A. vertical, vertical
B. vertical, horizontal
C. horizontal, vertical
D. horizontal, horizontal
45. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change when the operating
frequency is doubled?
46. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very High Frequency (VHF)
communications?
A. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station.
B. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of
the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as
experienced at the receiving station
D. A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and transmitting
stations.
48. If the velocity of propagation in a certain medium is 200x106 m/s, what is its refractive
index?
A. 1.3
B. 1.5
C. 1.27
D. 0.67
49. What is the resultant field strength at the receiving antenna in space wave propagation
under case 2?
A. 0
B. ξd
C. 2ξd
D. 3ξd
A. Ground wave
B. Space wave
C. Sky wave
D. Tropospheric wave
51. What is the typical frequency used for communicating to submerged submarines?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 4 kHz
D. 200 Hz
52. Which frequency bands can be refracted during the day by the D layer?
A. VLF
B. MF
C. LF
D. Both VLF and LF
53. What height of an ionized layer is determined from the time interval between the
transmitted signal and the ionospheric echo at vertical incidence?
A. Virtual height
B. Apparent height
C. Actual height
D. Effective height
54. During the night when the F2 layer combines with F1 layer it falls to what approximate
height?
A. 250 km
B. 350 km
C. 300 km
D. 400 km
55. Which of the following is considered the most frequently used transmission line?
56. The antenna effective height is ____ to ____ of the actual height.
A. ½ to 2/3
B. ½ to ¾
C. ¼ to 2/3
D. ¼ to ¾
57. What is the propagation velocity of a signal in a transmission line whose inductance and
capacitance are 5μH/m and 20μF/m respectively?
58. What is the phase coefficient in radians per unit length of a transmission line at the
frequency of 10 MHz if the velocity of propagation is 2.5 x 108 m/s?
A. 0.25
B. 2.5
C. 0.35
D. 3.5
59. Determine the conductance of a two-wire open line with the following parameters: D = 4
in., d = 0.1 in. and ρ = 2.6x108 Ω-m.
60. What is the input impedance of a transmission line if its characteristic impedance is 300
Ω and the load is 600 Ω? Assume a quarter wavelength section only.
A. 150 kΩ
B. 150 mΩ
C. 150 Ω
D. 2 Ω
61. Determine the standing wave ratio of a 300-Ω line whose load is 400+j150 Ω.
A. 3.55
B. 1.67
C. 5.53
D. 3.35
62. What is the optimum volume per person of rooms for speech?
A. 2.8
B. 3.1
C. 4.2
D. 5.1
A. 1115 kHz
B. 660 kHz
C. 2025 kHz
D. 910 kHz
A. 73 Ω
B. 72 Ω
C. 250 Ω
D. 2500 Ω
66. What volume of the chamber is required to measure absorption coefficient at 100 Hz?
A. 125 m3
B. 50 m3
C. 150 m3
D. 352 m3
A. 131.8 MHz
B. 110.4 MHz
C. 142.5 MHz
D. 99.7 MHz
69. A 1 Mhz carrier is amplitude modulated by a pure 200-Hz audio test tone. Which of the
following combinations of frequencies represent the total content of the AM signal?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
71. What noise type is observable between 8 MHz to somewhat above 1.43 GHz or up to
1.5 GHz?
A. Solar noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Cosmic noise
72. Flicker noise is a poorly understood form of noise which may be completely ignored
about above ____.
A.100 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 400 Hz
D. 500 Hz
A. Between 15 to 60
B. Between 20 to 90
C. Between 50 to 75
D. Between 10 to 25
74. What illumination factor is normally considered in computing parabolic antenna gain in
microwave communications?
A. 0.54
B. 0.65
C. 0.75
D. 0.85
75. How many voice band channels are there in a superjumbo group?
A. 600
B. 900
C. 10,800
D. 3,600
A. 2x10-5
B. 0.0002
C. 2.089
D. 2.980
79. What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy
near the human body?
80. When no signal is being received, the loudspeaker is not entirely silent as a result of the
presence of
81. When measuring a transmitter’s frequency against a suitable standard, the frequency to
be measured is taken from the
A. oscillator stage
B. intermediate amplifier
C. buffer stage
D. final RF stage
A. Dusk
B. Midnight
C. Dawn
D. Midday
A. ± 30 KHz
B. ± 75 KHz
C. ± 25 KHz
D. ± 12 KHz
84. What device measures the angle between two radio frequencies and also the direction
of propagation of a wave?
A. Densimeter
B. Absorption wavemeter
C. Goniometer
D. Ergometer
85. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellites and advanced
terrestrial communications systems.
A. GPS
B. Iridium system
C. INMARSAT
D. GMDSS
86. What antenna can be used to minimize the effect of Faraday rotation of polarization?
A. Dipole
B. Parabolic
C. Helical
D. Rhombic
87. The presence of standing waves on a transmission line is the result of
88. What device measures rf power by measuring the heat the rf power generates?
A. Calorimeter
B. Goniometer
C. Spectrum meter
D. Oscilloscope
89. What is considered the most efficient mode in terms of energy transfer in waveguides?
A. Dominant mode
B. Normal mode
C. Conventional mode
D. Vertical mode
90. In acoustics, _____ is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source
moves either toward or away from a listener.
A. flanking
B. reverberation
C. Doppler effect
D. echo
92. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. 3000 km
B. 3840 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350 km
94. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
95. In cellular system, _____ defines the geographic distance that is required between cells
using identical frequencies in order to avoid interference between the radio transmissions at
these cells.
A. frequency-reuse ratio
B. distance-to-reuse ratio (D/R)
C. reuse format plan ratio
D. reuse factor
96. What do you call the ability of a mobile phone to change from one channel (frequency)
to another?
A. Frequency agility
B. Frequency handoff
C. Frequency handover
D. Frequency switch
97. What mathematical plane figure is ideal in cellular system design and engineering it
graphically and functionally depicts overlapping radio coverage between and among
adjacent cell base stations?
A. Hexagon
B. Octagon
C. Pentagon
D. Nonagon
98. In cellular system, the average lead time to install a new base station is approximately
____ months to a year.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
A. 10-12 W/m2
B. 10-16 W/m2
C. 10-12 W/cm2
D. 10-15 W/cm2
100. At one atmospheric pressure, what is the approximate speed of sound in steel?
A. 5150 m/s
B. 5150 ft/s
C. 4990 m/s
D. 4990 ft/s
A. Pitch
B. Tempo
C. Rhythm
D. Timbre
A. 5800 m/s
B. 5000 m/s
C. 3300 m/s
D. 3700 m/s
A. 0 phon
B. 40 phons
C. 20 phons
D. 60 phons
A. 2λ to 8λ
B. 10λ to 20λ
C. 1λ to 3λ
D. 5λ to 10λ
A. 2724 kHz
B. 2356 kHz
C. 2108 kHz
D. 3100 kHz
6. In SPADE system, how many PCM-encoded voice band channels are there?
A. 800
B. 600
C. 300
D. 240
7. The product of the radiated RF power of a transmitter and the gain of the antenna system
in a given direction relative to an isotropic radiator is called ____.
8. The product of antenna input power and the antenna power gain expressed in kW is
called __.
10. What noise is observable at frequencies in the range from about 8 MHz to somewhat
1.5 GHz?
A. Industrial noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Space noise
D. Shot noise
11. A special horn antenna consisting of a parabolic cylinder joined to a pyramidal horn.
A. Hoghorn
B. Cass-horn
C. Pyramidal horn
D. Conical horn
12. How many telegraph channels are there in the basic voice band channels?
A. 24
B. 96
C. 48
D. 672
14. What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice band channels into a single 6.312 Mbps data
signal?
A. T1 carrier system
B. T2 carrier system
C. T1C carrier system
D. T3 carrier system
A. Metric
B. Millimetric
C. Decimetric
D. Centimetric
16. In satellite communications, what means of attitude control is using the angular
momentum of the spinning body to provide the roll and yaw stabilization?
A. Spin stabilization
B. Radial stabilization
C. Three-axis stabilization
D. Station keeping
A. Prefabricated tiles
B. Plasters and spray on materials
C. Acoustic blankets
D. Membrane absorber
18. What historical satellite broadcasted live the 1964 Olympic games from Tokyo, Japan
for the first time?
A. Syncom I
B. Syncom III
C. Syncom II
D. Syncom IV
19. In transmission line, which of the following is the first step in the procedure of using stub
matching?
A. Emission
B. Radiation
C. Radio
D. Broadcasting
22. In what year did Hertz discover radio waves?
A. 1844
B. 1873
C. 1887
D. 1895
24. What is the reactance property at the input of a shorted quarter wavelength line?
A. A parallel LC circuit
B. A pure inductive reactance
C. A series LC circuit
D. A pure capacitive reactance
25. An early satellite owned by US Department of Defense that lasted only for 17 days
A. Courier
B. Echo
C. Score
D. Westar 1
26. Which of the following is the consolidation of H. No. 5224 and S. No. 2683?
A. RA 9292
B. RA 5734
C. RA 7925
D. RA 6849
27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2 members of the board of Electronics Engineering?
28. How many nominees per position of the Electronics Engineering Board are nominated
by IECEP to PRC?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
29. According to RA 9292, how many days after the board exam the results will be
released?
A. Within 5 days
B. Within 15 days
C. Within 20 days
D. Within 3 days
30. How many removal examination (s) will be given to an examinee who obtains a passing
rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject (s) below
seventy percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent (60%)?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. Unlimited
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. All of the choices
A. Vacuum
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Gas
33. For a loudness level between 110 and 120 dB, the maximum daily exposure limit is
____ minute (s).
A. 1
B. 60
C. 20
D. 45
34. A porous material is far more efficient at high than low frequency absorption. How to
improve sound absorption at lower frequencies using this absorber?
A. A 250-μs frame
B. A 125-μs frame
C. A 500-μs frame
D. A 60-μs frame
36. ____ system transmits frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial
cable for distances up to 4000 miles.
A. T carrier
B. X carrier
C. L carrier
D. F carrier
A. 60 – 108 kHz
B. 564 – 3084 kHz
C. 312 – 552 kHz
D. 60 -2788 kHz
38. Which frequency reuse method is less effective because of Faraday’s effect?
A. Dual polarization
B. Reducing antenna beamwidth
C. Zonal rotation
D. Spin stabilization
39. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N ratio of 44 dB, are connected in tandem.
What is the overall S/N ratio?
A. 44 dB
B. 39.2 dB
C. 41 dB
D. 43.52 dB
A. 1.09
B. 0.09
C. 0.36 dBm
D. 0.36
A. 275 s
B. 275 ms
C. 137.5 s
D. 137.5 ms
42. Calculate the reverberation time of a living room 8 ft high, 13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The
total absorption of the building structure inside the room is 180.7 sabines with four persons
present in the room.
A. 0.5 ms
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 5 ms
43. What is the number of levels required in a PCM system with S/N ratio of 40 dB?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 256
D. 512
44. A radio communications link is to be established via the ionosphere. The maximum
virtual height of the layer is 100 km at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 2
MHz. The distance between stations is 600 km. determine the optimum working frequency?
A. 6.32 MHz
B. 2.1 MHz
C. 5.4 MHz
D. 1.8 MHz
45. Part of a microwave link can be approximated by free space conditions. The antenna
gain are each 40 dB, the frequency is 10 GHz, and the path length is 80 km. Calculate the
receive power for a transmitted power of 10 W?
A. 0.871 μW
B. 871 μW
C. 0.871 mW
D. 871 nW
A. 4 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 6 MHz
D. 3 MHz
A. 3840 km
B. 3000 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350 km
48. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
A. 47
B. 4.7
C. 0.47
D. 470
50. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many octaves above 1000 Hz?
A. 1.6 octaves
B. 2.1 octaves
C. 1 octave
D. 3 octaves
51. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56 phons. What is the increase in loudness
sensation?
A. 3 times
B. 4.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
52. In the North American TDM system, what is the transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier
system?
A. 44.736
B. 6.312
C. 3.152
D. 274.176
53. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single satellite transponder considering an S/N of 30
dB?
A. 35.8
B. 3.58
C. 358
D. 3580
54. What condition occur when the refractive index of the air decreases with height much
more rapidly the normal?
A. Refraction
B. Superrefraction
C. Subrefraction
D. Diffraction
A. Temperature inversion
B. Normal inversion
C. Ducting
D. Superrefraction
A. Strata
B. Duct
C. Isothermal region
D. Tropospheric region
58. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. Ionosonde
B. Altimeter
C. Field meter
D. Radar
60. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam is 20°. Calculate the transmission-path
distance for an ionospheric transmission that utilizes a layer of virtual height 200 km. Use
flat-earth approximation.
A. 966 km
B. 2100 km
C. 1100 km
D. 405 km
61. If temperature change is 19°C, what amount of change to sound velocity is possible?
A. 11.53 ft/s
B. 11.53 m/s
C. 19.304 ft/s
D. 19.304 m/s
62. In the above problem, what is the new velocity of sound assuming dry air medium?
A. 343 ft/s
B. 3430 m/s
C. 343 m/s
D. 342 m/s
63. In acoustics, if the volume of the room is 200 m 3 then at what frequency the coefficient
of absorption is measured?
A. 120 kHz
B. 120 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 150 Hz
A. 300 kHz
B. 320 kHz
C. 150 kHz
D. 200 kHz
65. Which of the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation
during daytime?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
66. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric
horizon?
A. Diffraction
B. Ducting
C. Reflection
D. Refraction
A. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and highest possible frequency
B. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and lowest possible frequency
C. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and highest possible frequency
D. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and lowest possible frequency
68. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon distance of a receiving antenna with a
height of 64 meters is approximately
A. 8 km
B. 32 km
C. 64 km
D. 256 km
69. What bandwidth is needed to support a capacity of 128 kbps when the signal power to
noise power ratio in decibels is 100?
A. 19224 Hz
B. 3853 Hz
C. 19244 Hz
D. 3583 Hz
70. Which of the following systems uses frequency band 870-885 MHz as a transmit band
of its base station?
A. TACS
B. NTT
C. NMT
D. AMPS
71. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength is received by an antenna coil having a 50-
Ω resistance and a 0.01 H inductance. What is the capacitance of the tuner shunting the
antenna coil at this point?
A. 0.704 fF
B. 0.704 μF
C. 0.704 nF
D. 0.704 mF
72. Which of the following is the basic component of a communications satellite receiver?
A. On-board computer
B. Reflector
C. Telemetry
D. Transponder
73. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the
absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.
A. 35.3
B. 10.96
C. 379.8
D. 109.6
74. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to
earth?
A. MUF
B. Gyro frequency
C. Skip frequency
D. Critical frequency
A. Frequency response
B. Power density
C. Field Strength
D. Gain
A. circular
B. either elliptical or circular
C. elliptical
D. circular only
78. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
80. The American concert pitch A is equivalent to which if the following frequencies?
A. 440 Hz
B. 435 Hz
C. 260 Hz
D. 255 Hz
A. 435
B. 440
C. 260
D. 255
82. The speed of the satellite increases as its height in orbit gets
A. lower
B. higher
C. closer to the moon
D. closer to the sun
83. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output
\, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 158 W
B. 39.7 W
C. 251 W
D. 69.9 W
A. IS-95
B. IS-136
C. IS-54
D. IS-100
85. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
A. 300 W
B. 315 W
C. 31.5 W
D. 69.9 W
86. Which Ethernet system is restricted only to 100 m?
A. 10 Base T
B. 20 Base 2
C. 10 Base 5
D. 10 Base 1
87. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power
output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 600 W
B. 75 W
C. 18.75 W
D. 150 W
88. Which of the following regulates the ownership and operation of radio and television
stations in the country?
A. PD 576-A
B. PD 756
C. PD 657
D. PD 677
89. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 37.6 W
B. 237 W
C. 150 W
D. 23.7 W
A. 13 kbps
B. 8 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps
91. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 800 W
B. 126 W
C. 12.5 W
D. 1260 W
92. Which NTC memorandum circular governs the rules and regulations about the
manufacture, acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?
A. MC No. 2-05-88
B. MC No. 2-04-88
C. MC No. 2-07-88
D. MC No. 2-09-88
93. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 120 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 601 W
B. 240 W
C. 60 W
D. 379 W
94. What do you call a short bit sequence sent typically 128 bits in digital signatures?
A. Hash
B. Public key
C. Private key
D. Password
95. What medium is used by IBM token ring network that operates at either 4 Mbps or 16
Mbps?
A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial cable
C. Fiber-optic
D. Parallel-wire line
96. What is known as the final stage in the evolution of the GSM standard?
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. EDGE
D. Bluetooth
97. According to KBP revised radio code which airtime below is classified class D for AM
stations?
A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
B. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight
D. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM
98. Encryption of data is important to ensure its privacy. It is most commonly achieved by
using a ____.
A. public-key encryption
B. private-key encryption
C. password-key encryption
D. character set encryption
A. 8 kbps
B. 13 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps
A. 7:8
B. 1:2
C. 5:8
D. 3:5
A. Bluetooth
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. EDGE
3. What is the insertion loss of connector type splices for a single mode optical fiber?
A. 0.51 dB
B. 0.49 dB
C. 0.31 dB
D. 0.38 db
4. In the European standard, the aurial transmitter maximum radiated power is ______ of
peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 40%
A. 60 MHz
B. 80 MHz
C. 120 MHz
D. 70 MHz
6. What is the data link protocol that is used in asynchronous transmission for transferring
files from one computer to another?
A. A modem
B. X modem
C. B modem
D. C modem
A. Phase distortion
B. Pulse shape distortion
C. Spacing bias distortion
D. Amplitude distortion
8. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200 watts transmitter power
output, 4 dB feline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 317 W
B. 2000 W
C. 126 W
D. 260 W
9. Which of the following is standardized as part of GSM phase 2+ that can offer theoretical
data speeds of up to 115 kbit/s?
A. EDGE
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. Bluetooth
10. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is mounted on a flatbed tractor-trailer used for
emergency purposes.
A. COW
B. BULL
C. CALF
D. PONY
A. An SWR meter
B. A counter
C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
D. A field strength meter
13. What part or section of a TV receiver that separates the sound and video signals?
A. IF stage
B. Video amplifier
C. Video detector
D. Burst separator
14. What is the channel number of an FM station with a carrier frequency of 99.5 MHz?
A. 256
B. 258
C. 257
D. 259
15. In a triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are operated
A. In the linear region
B. In the nonlinear region
C. As class A amplifiers
D. As class B amplifiers
A. 32 kbps
B. 64 kbps
C. 144 kbps
D. 16 kbps
A. 2.8 kHz
B. 500 Hz
C. 3.5 kHz
D. 3 kHz
18. What is the quantization signal-to-noise ratio if an 8-bit PCM code is used?
A. 40 dB
B. 50 dB
C. 60 dB
D. 65 dB
19. What is the emission designation of a single sideband reduced carrier signal?
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
20. What is the most commonly used intermediate frequency of radar receivers?
A. 40 MHz
B. 60 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 30 MHz
A. Cathode
B. Anode
C. Cathode end of the helix
D. Collector end of the helix
22. What determines the ability of radar to determine the bearing to a target?
A. Speed of light
B. Speed of target
C. Antenna directivity
D. Frequency of signal
23. What is the minimum number of bits required in a PCM code for a range of 10,000?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 14
D. 10
24. The antenna current is doubled when the modulation index is doubled in ______ AM
system.
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3
D. A3H
A. Coaxial line
B. Two-wire line
C. Waveguide
D. Free space
26. What is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of the sound
because the intensity varies inversely with the square of the distance?
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Loudness
D. Frequency
27. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and an ordinary CD, DVD is ______ time bigger
than CD.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 25
A. Homing
B. Referencing
C. Searching
D. Defining
31. What is the standard test tone used for audio measurements?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
D. 2000 Hz
A. Low gain
B. High IF
C. Poor front-end selectivity
D. Low signal-to-noise ratio
A. VHF
B. UHF
C. HF
D. SHF
34. A waveguide passive component that brings a smooth change in the direction of axis
maintained perpendicular to the plane of polarization?
A. L bend
B. H bend
C. T bend
D. X bend
35. How far is the visual carrier from the lowest frequency in the spectrum of a monochrome
TV broadcast channel following the NTSC standard?
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz
A. Altitude
B. Ground speed
C. Vertical
D. Horizontal
A. Empty zone
B. Shadow zone
C. Null zone
D. Zone of silence
38. In the American standard, the aural transmitter maximum radiated power is _____ of
peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10 %
B. 30 %
C. 20 %
D. 40 %
39. What character signifies the start of the test for Bisync?
A. STX
B. SOH
C. BCC
D. ETX
40. A low frequency audible periodic variation in pitch of sound output in high fidelity sound
reproduction system?
A. Flutter
B. Wow
C. String vibration
D. Radio sound
41. When can a corporation or association incorporated under the Philippine laws and with
foreign investors be granted radio station license?
42. ______ is a term in the test language for noise testing in telephone circuits that means a
one-syllable word consisting of a consonant, a vowel, and another consonant.
A. Logatom
B. Nosfer
C. Ore
D. Belcore
44. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated to a depth of 85%. Calculate the total power of
the modulated wave?
A. 1361.25 W
B. 680.62 W
C. 1425 W
D. 712.5 W
A. ITU-W
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-T
D. ITU-D
46. What is the process of cancelling the effect on internal device capacitance in radio
transmitters?
A. Degaussing
B. Neutralization
C. Ionization
D. Stabilization
A. Frequency divider
B. Frequency multiplier
C. PLL
D. Mixer
49. What is the typical separation between the two conductors in a parallel wire line?
A. 0.001 to 0.01 m
B. 200 to 500 mm
C. 0.635 to 15.24 cm
D. 2.5 to 5 in.
A. 560.160 Mbps
B. 44.376 Mbps
C. 44.736 Mbps
D. 560.106 Mbps
A. Details of signals
B. Type of information transmitted
C. Nature of multiplexing
D. Nature of signal modulating the main carrier
A. 500 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 300 Hz
D. 3 kHz
A. ITU-T
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-S
D. ITU-D
54. Which of the following frequencies is normally used for distress and safety
communications?
A. 4209.5 kHz
B. 490 kHz
C. 518 kHz
D. 2174.5 kHz
55. What is the difference between available power and power budget?
A. Power margin
B. Extra power
C. Fade margin
D. System gain
57. What do you call the electrical conduction in a photosensitive material which is not
exposed to radiation?
A. Dark conductance
B. Pure conductance
C. Black out
D. Super conductance
59. A component that samples the microwave signal travelling in one direction down to the
transmission line
A. Isolator
B. Combiner
C. Directional coupler
D. Attenuator
61. A test method of comparing two audio systems by switching inputs so that the same
recording is heard in rapid succession over one given system and then the other.
A. B test
B. A test
C. AB test
D. C test
62. And ITU-T specification code that deals with the telephone circuits.
A. X series
B. T series
C. V series
D. I series
A. T1
B. T3
C. T2
D. T4
A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 40 dB
D. 20 dB
A. 50
B. 90
C. 83
D. 96
A. Isotropic source
B. Lambertian source
C. Voltage source
D. Ideal source
A. 19 to 38 kHz
B. 30 to 53 kHz
C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
D. 88 to 108 MHz
68. What is the required quality factor for an SSB filter with the following data: center
frequency = 1 MHz, the desired attenuation level of the unwanted sideband = 80 dB and the
separation between sidebands = 200 Hz?
A. 1,250
B. 12,500
C. 125,000
D. 25,000
69. What do you call the reflection of a part of incident light at the interface of two media
that have different refractive indices?
A. Snell’s reflection
B. Fresnel reflection
C. Lambertian reflection
D. Huygen’s reflection
A. Fringe area
B. Primary are
C. Secondary area
D. Tertiary area
72. What do you call the random noise seen on radar display screen?
A. Impulse noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Grass
D. Johnson noise
73. Which of the following antennas receives signals equally well from all directions in a
horizontal plane?
A. Hetz antenna
B. Vertical Marconi antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Helical antenna
74. Where is the brightness control located in a TV?
75. What is the term used in telephony and telegraphy for irregular disturbing radiation due
to various causes and in a particular produced by arc transmitters causing a rushing sound
in receiving telephones?
A. Fax tone
B. Mush
C. Hiss
D. Crosstalk
76. What device in a waveguide system used for stopping or diverting electromagnetic wave
as desired?
A. Mechanical switch
B. Electric switch
C. Push-button switch
D. Waveguide switch
77. What is the maximum power that can be obtained from a microwave tube at 10 GHz?
A. 500 W
B. 10 W
C. 50 W
D. 20 W
78. What do you call a cable consisting of twisted pairs of conductors, each separately
insulated?
A. Microstrip line
B. Strip line
C. Quad
D. Coaxial cable
A. Double-balanced
B. Single-balanced
C. Super-heterodyner
D. Heterodyner
80. What are the electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths less than 300 angstroms?
A. X-rays
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. Infrared
D. Microwaves
81. What is known as the alignment of the three color guns to a common point?
A. Confetti
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. Synchronization
82. What is the department order that governs commercial radio operator?
A. Master
B. Station
C. Slave
D. Mainframe
A. Yagi antenna
B. Hertz antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
A. Modulator
B. Discriminator
C. Demodulator
D. Modem
86. What synchronization is provided so that the start and end of message is identified?
A. Carrier
B. Character
C. Bit
D. Clock
87. A form of regenerative repeater for transmitting signals over a long cable received
through a relay in a clearer form.
A. Active generator
B. Active repeater
C. Interpolator
D. Audio generator
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 600 ms
A. 1 mW
B. 1 W
C. 1 pW
D. 6 mW
90. A spot on the sun’s visible surface where the magnetic flux lines converge?
A. Sunspot
B. Filament
C. Solar spot
D. Prominence
91. ______ is a slow moving large mass of plasma on the sun’s surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Proton flare
92. ______ is slow moving “cord-like” mass of plasma across the sun’s surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Solar spot
A. 10.7 mm band
B. 10.7 m band
C. 10.7 cm band
D. 10.7 nm band
94. What is the approximate intensity of the magnetic field at the earth’s surface?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 µT
D. 62,000 µT
95. What is the intensity of the magnetic field at the earth’s north pole?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 µT
D. 62,000 µT
A. Nanosat
B. Picosat
C. Femtosat
D. Microsat
97. The first creature in space was carried by which of the following spacecrafts in
November 3, 1957?
A. Sputnik 1
B. Sputnik 3
C. Sputnik 2
D. Explorer 1
98. The wireless evolution is achieved through the GSM family of wireless technology
platforms which include but except one of the following. Which one is NOT a member of the
GSM family?
A. GSM
B. EDGE
C. GPRS
D. CDMA
A. 1G
B. 2.5G
C. 2G
D. 3G
100. A low power, short range wireless technology designed to provide a replacement for
serial cables is called ______.
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. Bluetooth
D. EDGE
a.) EO 59
b.) EO 546
c.) EO 109
d.) Act 3846
a.) 50 kHz
b.) 5 Hz
c.) 50 Hz
d.) 500 Hz
a.) 12 MN
b.) High Usage Hour
c.) 12NN
d.) Low Usage Hour
a.) LF
b.) HF
c.) MF
d.) VLF
a.) Vocoder
b.) Covoder
c.) Modern
d.) Repeater
a.) RF Emitter
b.) Capacitor
c.) Varactor and triac
d.) Ferrite Isolator
a.) Guard
b.) Carrier
c.) Modulating
d.) Tolerance
a.) Pacing
b.) Polling
c.) Handshaking
d.) Contention
a.) Mixer
b.) Rf Amplifier
c.) Detector
d.) Local Oscillator
a.) Minimum
b.) Maximum
c.) The same
d.) Increasing
a.) GSM
b.) TACS
c.) AMPS
d.) NMT
a.) Retrograde
b.) Accelerated
c.) Deccelerated
d.) Posigrade
a.) AF Voltage
b.) Microphone
c.) Master Oscillator
d.) AF power Amplifier
a.) Halkyard
b.) Weak Part
c.) Mainmast
d.) Foremast
a.) 15 kHz
b.) 60 kHz
c.) 45 kHz
d.) 30 kHz
a.) 82.46 mi
b.) 82.46 km
c.) 29.15 km
d.) 29.15 mi
a.) NMT
b.) GSM
c.) PCN
d.) PCS
a.) Visible
b.) Amber
c.) Infrared
d.) Ultraviolet
a.) RAM
b.) Cache
c.) Magnetic Disk
d.) Magnetic Tape
a.) 95 – 100 dB
b.) 40 – 50 dB
c.) 50 – 60 dB
d.) 70 – 80 dB
a.) F3E
b.) F3F
c.) G3F
d.) G3E
a.) D
b.) F2
c.) A
d.) E
a.) 0.5 m
b.) 0.24 m
c.) 0.34 m
d.) 1.2 m
a.) scanning
b.) tracing
c.) lobing
d.) nodding
a.) bandwidth
b.) noise
c.) power
d.) flux
a.) 525
b.) 262.5
c.) 625
d.) 312.5
a.) Wavelength
b.) Frequency
c.) Amplitude
d.) Period
a.) a and b
b.) b and c
c.) c and d
d.) a and d
a.) TACAN
b.) SONAR
c.) TASI
d.) RADAR
a.) Modulator
b.) Mixer
c.) Receiver
d.) Transmitter
a.) Circular
b.) Light
c.) Laser
d.) Longitudinal
a.) 1 Hz – 30,000 Hz
b.) 1 kHz – 300 kHz
c.) 1MHz – 300 MHz
d.) 1MHz – 500MHz
a.) 1
b.) 5
c.) 3
d.) 2
a.) Intermodulation
b.) Quieting
c.) Fading
d.) Desensitizing
a.) Digital
b.) Hybrid
c.) Radio
d.) Analog
a.) Reach
b.) Voltage
c.) Bandwidth
d.) Transmitter power
a.) 32H
b.) 16H
c.) 64H
d.) 8H
a.) Bending
b.) Scattering
c.) Connection
d.) Absorption
a.) E. O. 125
b.) Act 3846
c.) Act 3396
d.) R.A. 7925
a.) Framing
b.) Segmentation
c.) Encapsulation
d.) Packing
a.) 50,000 mi
b.) 40,000 mi
c.) 22,300 mi
d.) 30,000 mi
a.) Duplexer
b.) Mixer
c.) Diplexer
d.) Synchronizer
a.) C
b.) A
c.) J
d.) H
a.) Centimetric
b.) Hectometric
c.) Kilometric
d.) Metric
a.) Intermodulation
b.) Overloading
c.) Interference
d.) Desensitizing
a.) 25 kHz
b.) 12.5 kHz
c.) 40 kHz
d.) 9 kHz
a.) Regenerative
b.) Broadband
c.) Double-Conversion
d.) Channelized
a.) Feedback
b.) Crosstalk
c.) Electric Hazard
d.) Shielding
a.) FM
b.) SSB
c.) AM
d.) CW
a.) Desensitization
b.) Cross-modulation Interference
c.) Capture Effect
d.) Frequency Discrimination
a.) Modem
b.) Codec
c.) Hub
d.) ADC
a.) Mesh
b.) Star
c.) Bus
d.) Ring
a.) Star
b.) Ring
c.) Bus
d.) Mesh
a.) Amplifier
b.) Simulator
c.) Protocol analyzer
d.) Spectrum analyzer
a.) Distress
b.) Safety
c.) Urgency
d.) Roger
a.) Hansell
b.) Hopkins
c.) N.S. Kapany
d.) Van heel
a.) EO 467
b.) EO 846
c.) DO 11
d.) DO 88
a.) GMDSS
b.) AMPS
c.) GLONASS
d.) NAVSTAR
a.) TDM
b.) FDM
c.) WDM
d.) CDM
a.) Q
b.) fLO
c.) fIF
d.) D
a.) LOS
b.) Wide BW
c.) Better Signal Penetration
d.) Directional Antenna
a.) F
b.) B
c.) D
d.) N
a.) 25 kHz
b.) 20 kHz
c.) 2 kHz
d.) 30 kHz
a.) .edu
b.) www
c.) .org
d.) Excite
a.) Vertical
b.) Horizontal
c.) Circular
d.) Elliptical
a.) 3
b.) 48
c.) 2/3
d.) 1/3
a.) 20 MHz
b.) 30 MHz
c.) 40 MHz
d.) 500 MHz
a.) Infrared
b.) Cosmic
c.) X-ray
d.) Gamma
a.) SSB
b.) DSB
c.) ISB
d.) VSB
a.) J3E
b.) H3E
c.) A3E
d.) R3E
a.) A3E
b.) F3E
c.) H3E
d.) R3E
a.) Oscilloscope
b.) Spectrum Analyzer
c.) Wattmeter
d.) Ohmmeter
a.) 170 dB
b.) 150 dB
c.) 160 dB
d.) 140 dB
a.) Roaming
b.) Hand-off
c.) Frequency Re-use
d.) Cell splitting
a.) L
b.) C
c.) P
d.) Ku
a.) Sidebands
b.) Jitter
c.) Glitch
d.) Spurious Signal
a.) Navigation
b.) Broadcasting
c.) Acoustics
d.) Telemetry
a.) ¼ wavelength
b.) ½ wavelength
c.) ¾ wavelength
d.) 1 wavelength
a.) Apogee
b.) Node
c.) Perigee
d.) Orbit
a.) C-Band
b.) L-Band
c.) X-band
d.) K-band
a.) Waveguide
b.) Twisted pair
c.) Coaxial cable
d.) Twin lead
a.) Hands-off
b.) Polling
c.) Handshake
d.) Demodulation
a.) Bridge
b.) Router
c.) Gateway
d.) Repeater
a.) Mode
b.) EIA Rules
c.) CCIR Rules
d.) Protocol
a.) Amplifier
b.) Holding memory
c.) Reflector
d.) Timer
a.) The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator
on the oscillator.
b.) The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on
the oscillator.
c.) The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on
the audio amplifier.
d.) The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator
on the final amplifier.
a.) Newtons
b.) Newtons per meter
c.) Newtons per meter squared
d.) Pascal per meter squared
a.) Noise
b.) Detector speed
c.) Time domain
d.) Refractor index
a.) TDMA
b.) IMTS
c.) CDMA
d.) D-AMPS
a.) Cladding thickness is less than the radius of the core and diameter of the core
must be greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.
b.) Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the
core must be lesser than the wavelength of the light to be carried.
c.) Cladding thickness is less than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core
must be lesser than the wavelength of the light to be carried.
d.) Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the
core must be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.
a) HAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) RAN
a) Selection
b) Networking
c) Polling
d) Coding
a) Interconnection
b) Toll patching
c) Gateway
d) Outside plant sharing
a) Λ/10
b) Λ/4
c) Λ/14
d) Λ/6
a) Cell to Cell
b) Mobile to Mobile unit
c) Mobile to Cell unit
d) Cell to Mobile unit
a) Semi-duplex Operation
b) Duplex Operation
c) Half-duplex Operation
d) Simplex Operation
a) Second
b) Fourth
c) Third
d) First
a. A3F
b. F3
c. A3C
d. F3F
a) Zenith
b) Perigee
c) Apogee
d) Azimuth
a) Satellite Communication
b) FM/TV Stereo
c) Two-Way Communication
d) Telephone System
a) 1085 kHz
b) 1530 kHz
c) 1540 kHz
d) 1715 kHz
a) Bending
b) Refraction
c) Diffraction
d) Reflection
a) Radio meter
b) Reflectometer
c) Oscilloscope
d) Wave Meter
a.) 205 Ω
b.) 502 Ω
c.) 600 Ω
d.) 75 Ω
a.) A facsimile
b.) A radio personnel
c.) A Morse code
d.) A radio telegraph operator
a.) 180
b.) 90
c.) 0
d.) 45
a.) 25kHz
b.) 20 Hz
c.) 60 kHz
d.) 120 kHz
a.) Insert
b.) Sleeve
c.) Raceway
d.) Slot
a.) Temperature
b.) Loudness
c.) Source of sound
d.) Properties of the medium
a.) Scattering
b.) Intermodulation
c.) Fiber bending
d.) Absorption
a.) E-TACS
b.) IMTS
c.) DCS-1800
d.) TACS
a.) A3F
b.) F3C
c.) F3F
d.) A3C
a.) ITU-R
b.) ITU-D
c.) ITU-T
d.) RAG
a.) Pay TV
b.) Direct to Home TV
c.) Cable TV
d.) VHF TV
a.) 1500 Ω
b.) 300 Ω
c.) 2000 Ω
d.) 800 Ω
a.) AA
b.) Main Transmitter
c.) Grounded
d.) HF
a.) Decrease
b.) Stable
c.) Increase
d.) Decrease by half
a.) Durability
b.) Low cost
c.) Accuracy
d.) High power
46. (ECE Board Problem, November 2000)
This is the terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or an entire
floor of a building.
a.) Disconnection
b.) Open network
c.) Blocked call
d.) Loss call
a.) Geocenter
b.) Earth center
c.) Plane center
d.) Center of gravity
a.) Blue
b.) Green
c.) Yellow
d.) Red
a.) Detection
b.) Mixing
c.) Modulation
d.) Demodulation
a.) Reflector
b.) Traps
c.) Loading coil
d.) Base loading
a.) D
b.) B
c.) C
d.) A
a.) Intensity
b.) Penetration
c.) Frequency
d.) Wavelength
a.) Ratio of the total fiber radius, to the sum of the fiber optic bundle radius.
b.) Ratio of half of the total fiber radius, to the sum of the fiber optic bundle radius.
c.) Ratio of half-sectional area of the fiber optic bundle, to the cross-sectional area of
the core
d.) Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber
bundle
a.) Harmonics
b.) Regulated supply
c.) Internal heating
d.) Parasitic
a.) Oscillator
b.) Baseband Frequency
c.) Mixer
d.) Carrier Harmonics
a.) 12 satellites
b.) 3 satellites
c.) 24 satellites
d.) 60 satellites
a.) Diameter of the core must be equal to the wavelength of the light to be carried.
b.) Diameter of the core must be very much greater than the wavelength of the light
to be carried.
c.) Diameter of the core must be very small compared to the wavelength of light to
be carried.
d.) Diameter of the core must be much half the wavelength of the light to be carried.