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Test Information Test Name SWT-BIOCHEM & FMT 2017(MDMS) Total Questions 200 Test Type Examination

Test Information

Test Name

SWT-BIOCHEM & FMT 2017(MDMS)

Total Questions

200

Test Type

Examination

Difficulty Level

Difficult

Total Marks

600

Duration

180minutes

Test Question

Language:- ENGLISH

(1).

Embalming chemicals are a variety of preservatives, sanitising and disinfectant agents and additives used in modern embalming to temporarily prevent decomposition and restore a natural appearance for viewing a body after death Typically embalming fluid contains a mixture of

a. Formaldehyde, glycerine and ethanol

b. Formaldehyde, methanol and glycerine

c. Methanol,formaldehyde and ethanol

d. Glycerine, methanol and ethanol

Solution. (c) Methanol,formaldehyde and ethanol Ref Read the text below Sol:

-

Embalming chemicals are a variety of preservatives, sanitising and disinfectant agents and additives used in modern embalming to

temporarily prevent decomposition and restore a natural appearance for viewing a body after death.

-

A mixture of these chemicals is known as embalming fluid and is used to preserve deceased (dead) individuals, sometimes only until the

funeral, other times indefinitely.

- Typically embalming fluid contains a mixture of formaldehyde, methanol, ethanol and other solvents.

- The formaldehyde content generally ranges from 5 to 29 percent and the ethanol content may range from 9 to 56 percent.

Correct Answer. c

(2).

One of the following is true of antemortem abrasion

a. Bright red in colour

b. Exudation of serum is more

c. Scab formation

d. All of the above

Solution. (a) Bright red in colour Ref Read the text below Sol: Difference Between Antemortem And Postmortem Bruise Antemortem abrasions will show signs of inflammation and repair whereas these will be absent in postmortem abrasions. The differences are-

will be absent in postmortem abrasions. The differences are- Correct Answer. a Copyright © 2014 Delhi

Correct Answer. a

(3). Growing fracture is commonly seen in : a. Premature babies. b. Adults c. Children.

(3).

Growing fracture is commonly seen in :

a. Premature babies.

b. Adults

c. Children.

d. Old age.

Solution. (c) Children. Ref Read the text below Sol: Growing fracture

- In children, some linear fractures are associated with torn dura due to dense attachment of the dura to the bone in this age group.

- A rare complication, which occurs in 0.6% of linear skull fractures in pediatric patients: 90% occur before the age of three.

- The fracture is associated with a dural tear, preventing primary dural healing and resulting in progressive enlargement and eversion of the fracture line.

- The arachnoid sac may contain CSF and herniated brain with or without porencephaly.The treatment for the two forms is different, as the former requires a duro-cranioplasty (debridement of the damaged brain and dural repair) whilst the latter a shunt, in order to prevent progressive neurological deterioration.

Correct Answer. c

(4).

Post mortem staining gets fixed after

a. 2-3 hours

b. 3-4 hours

c. 5-6 hours

d. 6-7 hours

Solution. (d) 6-7 hours Ref:Read the text below Sol

- Fixation occurs earlier in summer and is delayed in asphyxial deaths.

- Some authors are of the opinion that hypostasis doesn t get fixed.

Non displacement or non-shifting of lividity is due to haemoconcentration by loss of fluid which penetrates the walls of those vessels related to hydrostatic pressure

-

Correct Answer. d

(5).

Overlapping of bones in intrauterine death is known as:

a. Spalding Sign

b. Robert s Sign

c. Wood's Sign.

d. Ewald s sign

Solution. (a) Spalding Sign Ref:Read the text below Sol

- Overlapping of bones in intrauterine death is known as Spalding Sign

Correct Answer. a

(6). Which is another name of Pentose phosphate pathway- a. EMP pathway   b. HMP

(6).

Which is another name of Pentose phosphate pathway-

a. EMP pathway

 

b. HMP

c. TCA

d. Krebs

 

Solution. (b) HMP Ref:Read the text below Sol:

-

The pentose phosphate pathway (also called the phosphogluconate pathwayand the hexose monophosphate shunt) is a process that

generates NADPH andpentoses (5-carbon sugars).

-

There are two distinct phases in the pathway. The first is the oxidative phase, in which NADPH is generated, and the second is the non-

oxidative synthesis of 5-carbon sugars. This pathway is an alternative to glycolysis.

While it does involve oxidation of glucose, its primary role is anabolic rather than catabolic. For most organisms, it takes place in the cytosol; in plants, most steps take place in plastids

-

Correct Answer. b

(7).

Lesch Nyhan syndrome is caused by-

a. HPRT complete deficiency

b. HPRT Partial deficiency

c. Purine nucleoside phosphorlase deficiency

d. PRP synthetase deficiency

Solution. (a) HPRT complete deficiency Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- Mutations in the HPRT1 gene cause Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

- Mutations in the HPRT1 gene cause a severe deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase 1.

- This enzyme is responsible for recycling purines, a type of building block of DNA and its chemical cousin RNA.

- When this enzyme is lacking, the breakdown of purines results in abnormally high levels of uric acid in the body.

- It is unclear how a shortage of this enzyme causes the neurological and behavioral problems characteristic of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

Correct Answer. a

(8).

A polymorphism is best defined as

a. Cosegregation of alleles

b. One phenotype, multiple genotypes

c. One locus, multiple abnormal alleles

d. One locus, multiple normal alleles

Solution. (d) One locus, multiple normal alleles Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Polymorphic loci have multiple alleles because of DNA sequence variation, including one or more with frequencies greater than 1%.

- This higher frequency and benign connotation differentiate polymorphic loci from those that harbor multiple disease-causing alleles.

- The DNA sequence changes may alter restriction sites [producing restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)], change the numbers of repeated segments [producing variable numbers of tandem repeats (VNTRs)], or alter the genetic code (producing variant

proteins, or protein polymorphisms).

- Polymorphisms may cosegregate (be inherited together) with disease alleles, allowing diagnosis by linkage analysis or estimates of risk through allele association (a.k.a. linkage disequilibrium, as with certain HLA alleles and diabetes mellitus).

- Different mutant alleles may cause indistinguishable phenotypes (allelic heterogeneity), as may mutations at different loci (genetic heterogeneity).

Correct Answer. d

(9). If a completely radioactive double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of replication in a

(9).

If a completely radioactive double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of replication in a solution free of radioactive label, what is the radioactivity status of the resulting four double-stranded DNA molecules?

a. Half should contain no radioactivity

b. All should contain radioactivity

c. Half should contain radioactivity in both strands

d. One should contain radioactivity in both strands

Solution. (a) Half should contain no radioactivity Ref Read the text below Sol:

- The replication of double-stranded DNA is semiconservative, meaning that each strand separates and serves as a template for synthesis of a new complementary strand.

- The first round of replication of a labeled DNA helix in a cold (unlabeled) solution will yield two daughter double-stranded molecules, each with one labeled and one unlabeled strand.

- The second round of replication will yield four double-stranded DNA molecules.

- Two of these will have one original labeled strand and one unlabeled strand; the other two will have two unlabeled strands and contain no radioactivity.

(10).

Correct Answer. a

Following ultraviolet damage of DNA in skin

a. A specific excinuclease detects damaged areas

b. Purine dimers are formed

c. Both strands are cleaved

d. Endonuclease removes the strand

Solution. (a) A specific excinuclease detects damaged areas Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Ultraviolet irradiation causes thymine dimers to form in DNA. Replication is inhibited in cells until the pyrimidine dimmers are removed. Removal of the damaged areas occurs in two ways.

- The process can be simply reversed by a photoreactivating enzyme that cleaves the dimers and yields the original bases. Blue light is required for this.

- Alternatively, the dimer is removed. A UV-specific excinuclease nicks the dimer on its 5 side. DNA polymerase I replicates the damaged sequence,while the damaged sequence swings out.

- Finally, the damaged piece is hydrolyzed by the 5 to 3 exonuclease activity of the DNA polymerase I. DNA ligase then joins the new piece to the original DNA at the cleavage site.

(11).

Correct Answer. a

Charcoal therapy is indicated for the acute overdose ingestion of all the following medications, except:

a. Theophylline

b. A tricyclic antidepressant

c. Lithium

d. Aspirin

Solution. (c) Lithium Ref:Read the text below Sol -Charcoal therapy is indicated in the acute ingestion of all the drugs listed, except lithium.

- Heavy metals are poorly bound by charcoal, and the risks outweigh the benefits of charcoal therapy in the acute setting.

Correct Answer. c

(12). In a completely charred body at autopsy medical officers can say that the burns

(12).

In a completely charred body at autopsy medical officers can say that the burns are ante-mortem if he can find

a. Soot in respiratory passages

b. Cyanosis of finger nails

c. Congestion of kidney

d. Pale internal organs

Solution. (a) Soot in respiratory passages Ref: Read the text below. Sol.

- The presence of carbon particles in the terminal bronchioles on histological examination is absolute proof of life during fire.

- The soot is better seen by spreading a thin film of mucus on a clean sheet of white paper.

 

Presence & amount of soot in air-passage depends on the type of fire, the amount of smoke produced and duration of survival in smoke contaminated atmosphere.

-

Correct Answer. a

(13).

Identify the fracture :

Correct Answer. a (13). Identify the fracture : a. Communited fracture b. Signature fracture c. Pond

a. Communited fracture

b. Signature fracture

c. Pond s fracture

d. Ring fracture

Solution. (c) Pond s fracture Ref: Read the text below Sol:

Other important facts to remember about pond fracture:

(i) It is caused often by obstetric forceps (ii) Only outer table is fractured (iii) Resembles the indentation produced by squeezing a table tennis ball; when elevated it resumes and retains its normal position. Sometimes also known as ping-pong fracture for this reason. Variant: Pond fracture is common in (a)children (b)adults (c)elderly (d)Menopausal women. The answer is (a)children

Correct Answer. c

(14). At autopsy the cyanide poisoning case will show the following feature except: a. The

(14).

At autopsy the cyanide poisoning case will show the following feature except:

a. The eyes are bright, glistening and prominent with dilated pupils.

b. The jaws are firmly closed

c. Characteristic bitter lemon smell

d. The colour of the cheeks and postmortem staining may be cherry-red

Solution. (c) Characteristic bitter lemon smell Ref Read the text below Sol:

POST-MORTEM APPEARANCES OF CYANDINE POISONING

- The colour of the cheeks and postmortem staining may be cherry-red in about half the cases, because oxygen remains in the cells as oxyhaemoglobin, and due to the formation of cyanmethaemoglobin.

- The odour of bitter almond may be noticed on opening the body.

- The eyes may be bright, glistening and prominent with dilated pupils.

- The jaws are firmly closed and there is froth at the mouth

- The mucosa of the stomach may be eroded and blackened due to the formation of alkaline haematin.

(15).

Correct Answer. c

Antemortem blister differs from postmortem blister by

a. Presence of Albumin & Chloride in blister fluid

b. Gas in blister

c. Dry hard surface of the floor of blister

d. Absence of hyperemia around the blister

Solution. (a) Presence of Albumin & Chloride in blister fluid Ref Read the text below Sol:

The antemortem blister shows no gas and hyperemia due to increased permeability of capillaries is prominent. Blisters are found mainly in scalds and heat burns. Antemortem blisters are mostly produced during burns. Features of antemortem blisters:

- Surrounded by an area of hyperemeia

- Floor is reddened with swelling of papillae Features of postmortem blisters:

- No surrounding hyperemeia

- Floor is not reddened

(16).

Correct Answer. a

Which of the following enzymes can polymerize deoxyribonucleotides into DNA?

a. DNA ligase

b. DNA gyrase

c. RNA polymerase III

d. Reverse transcriptase

Solution. (d) Reverse transcriptase Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase that can synthesize first a single strand and then a doublestranded DNA

from a single-strand RNA template.

- It was originally found in animal retroviruses. Primase is a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase enzyme that synthesizes an RNA molecule

10 to 200 nucleotides in length that initiates or primes DNA synthesis.

- DNA ligase joins DNA fragments and DNA gyrase winds or unwinds DNA.

- Transfer RNA, 5SRNA, and other small RNAs are synthesized by RNA polymerase III (RNA polymerase I synthesizes ribosomal RNA and RNA polymerase II synthesizes messenger RNA).

Correct Answer. d

(17). Which of the following molecules is found in a nucleoside? a. A pyrophosphate group

(17).

Which of the following molecules is found in a nucleoside?

a. A pyrophosphate group

b. A 1 -base linked to a pentose sugar

c. A 5 -phosphate group linked to a pentose sugar

d. A 3 -phosphate group linked to a pentose sugar

Solution. (b) A 1 -base linked to a pentose sugar Ref Read the text below Sol:

- A nucleoside consists of a purine or pyrimidine base linked to a pentose sugar.

- The 1 -carbon of the pentose is linked to the nitrogen of the base. In DNA, 2 -deoxyribose sugars are used; in RNA, ribose sugars are used.

- Nucleotides are phosphate esters of nucleosides with one to three phosphate groups, such as adenosine monophosphate (AMP),

adenosine diphosphate (ADP), or adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

- The nitrogenous bases are adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine in DNA, with thymine replaced by uridine in RNA. Nucleotide

polymers are chains of nucleotides with single phosphate groups, joined by bonds between the 3 -hydroxyl of the preceding pentose and

the 5 -phosphate of the next pentose.

- Polymerization requires high-energy nucleotide triphosphate precursors that liberate pyrophosphate (broken down to phosphate)

during joining.

- The polymerization reaction is given specificity by complementary RNA or DNA templates and rapidity by enzyme catalysts called

polymerases.

(18).

Correct Answer. b

Which is the most correct sequence of events in gene repair mechanisms in patients without a mutated repair process?

a. Nicking, excision, replacement, sealing, recognition

b. Sealing, recognition, nicking, excision, replacement

c. Recognition, nicking, excision, replacement, sealing

d. Nicking, sealing, recognition, excision, replacement

Solution. (c) Recognition, nicking, excision, replacement, sealing Ref Read the text below Sol:

In all of the forms of DNA repair in normal cells, a common sequence of events occurs. 1. The single or multiple base abnormality is surveyed and detected by a specific protein or proteins. 2. The DNA is nicked on one side of the damaged DNA. 3. A specific enzyme excises the damaged portion (steps 2 and 3 can be combined if an excinuclease cuts on both sides of the damaged DNA). 4. The damaged portion of the strand is replaced by resynthesis catalyzed by DNA polymerase I. 5. A ligase seals the final gap. With some variability, these general principles apply in nucleotide excision repair (segments of about 30 nucleotides), base excision repair of single bases, and mismatch repair of copying errors (one to five bases).

Correct Answer. c

(19). The hydrolytic step leading to the release of a polypeptide chain from a ribosome

(19).

The hydrolytic step leading to the release of a polypeptide chain from a ribosome is catalyzed by

a. Stop codons

b. Peptidyl transferase

c. Release factors

d. Dissociation of ribosomes

Solution. (b) Peptidyl transferase Ref Read the text below Sol:

- During the course of protein synthesis on a ribosome, peptidyl transferase catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds. However, when a stop codon such as UAA, UGA, or UAG is reached,aminoacyl-tRNA does not bind to the A site of a ribosome.

- One of the proteins, known as a release factor, binds to the specific trinucleotide sequence present.

- This binding of the release factor activates peptidyl transferase to hydrolyze the bond between the polypeptide and the tRNA occupying the P site.

- Thus, instead of forming a peptide bond, peptidyl transferase catalyzes the hydrolytic step that leads to the release of newly synthesized proteins.

- Following release of the polypeptide, the ribosome dissociates into its major subunits.

(20).

Correct Answer. b

The function of signal recognition particles is to

a. Cleave signal sequences

b. Detect cytosolic proteins

c. Direct the signal sequences to ribosomes

d. Bind ribosomes to endoplasmic reticulum

Solution. (d) Bind ribosomes to endoplasmic reticulum Ref Read the text below Sol:

- The directing of nascent polypeptide chains to the endoplasmic reticulum is regulated by signal recognition particles (SRPs).

- The signal sequence of a nascent protein is recognized by an SRP, which complexes with the ribosome, mRNA, and the nascent protein.

- The complexed SRP then binds to an SRP receptor on the surface of the endoplasmic reticulum. After the ribosome is transferred to

ribophorins and the translocation begins, SRP is released back into the cytosol.

- Ribosomes with nascent protein without a signal sequence do not participate in this process and instead synthesize proteins that are released into the cytosol.

(21).

Correct Answer. d

In a charred body which of the following means is useful it its identification

a. Stature

b. Comparison of post mortem x rays with dental records

c. Scar marks

d. Skeletal features

Solution. (b) Comparison of post mortem x rays with dental records Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Comparison of post mortem x rays with dental records is recommended for the identification of charred body

Correct Answer. b

(22). Which of the following is most suggestive of anti mortem hanging ? a. Salivary

(22).

Which of the following is most suggestive of anti mortem hanging ?

a. Salivary dribbling

b. Congestion of lungs

c. Ligature marks

d. Petechial hemorrhages

Solution. (a) Salivary dribbling Ref Read the text below Sol:

Hanging remains to be one of the common methods of committing suicide. Homicidal and accidental hanging is rare. Hence all cases of hanging are considered suicidal until the contrary is proved. Because of the above, postmortem suspension of the body may be resorted to cloak a crime. Therefore meticulous dissection and sharp distinction between ante mortem hanging and postmortem suspension is warranted. There is no specific gold standard to distinguish between ante mortem hanging and postmortem suspension. How ever presence of-

- Vertical salivary dribble mark from the dependant angle of mouth.

- The phenomenon of Le Facies sympathique.

- Hyperemia and echymosis of margins of ligature mark.

- Horizontal tear of the intima of carotid artery at level of ligature with infiltration around. are considered as ante mortem features of hanging. But obvious salivary dribble mark could be detected only in 56% of cases

(23).

Correct Answer. a

Motile spermatozoa found in wet mount of vaginal secretions are indicative of intercourse within the past :

a. 6 hours

b. 12 hours

c. 24 hours

d. 48 hours

Solution. (c) 24 hours Ref Read the text below Sol: Research had proved that following sexual intercourse motile spermatozoa should be found in vagina for 24 hrs,that they are likely to be found upto 3 days later,and occasionally they are found 7 days later.

Correct Answer. c

(24). Hesitation marks are characteristic of : a. Accidental injury b. Suicidal wounds c. Homicidal

(24).

Hesitation marks are characteristic of :

a. Accidental injury

b. Suicidal wounds

c. Homicidal wounds

d. None of the above

Solution. (b) Suicidal wounds Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Hesitation, or tentative, wounds are defined either as: any cut or wound that is self inflicted after a decision is made not to commit suicide, or any tentative cut or wound that is made before the final cut that causes death.

- Such wounds are usually superficial, sharp, forced skin cuts found on the body of victims. These less severe cutting marks are often

caused by attempts to build up courage before attempting the final, fatal wound.

- Non-fatal, shallow hesitation wounds can also accompany the deeper, sometimes fatal incisions.

- Although hesitation cuts are not always present in cases of suicide, they are typical of suicidal injuries. However, the presence of

hesitation marks alongside or near to the final fatal mark usually indicates a forensic diagnosis of suicide over other possible causes of

death.

- Hesitation wounds are generally straight-line marks at the elbows, neck/throat, and wrists, although in a few cases they occur in the general area of the upper middle part of the abdomen (near the heart).

- Wounds made by people attempting suicide are typically made at an angle related to the hand that holds the weapon. The angle of such

hesitation wounds is usually in a downward flowing direction because of the natural motion of the arm as it sweeps across the body.

- Hesitation wounds are often made under clothing, with particular parts of the clothing being parted to expose the target area of the body, a common feature seen by forensic experts examining suicidal wounds.

(25).

Correct Answer. b

Which of the following is an early sign of death ?

a. Rigor mortis

b. Adipocere formation

c. Putrification

d. Mummification

Solution. (a) Rigor mortis Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Rigormortis is a condition characterised by stiffening, shortening and opacity of the muscles which follow the period of primary

relaxation.

- It is due to chemical changes involving the proteins of the muscle fibres and it marks the end of the muscles, cellular or molecular life.

- In India, rigormortis commences in 1-2 hours after death, takes about 12 hours to develop from head to foot, persists for another 12

hours,and takes 12 hours to pass off.

- Thus, the presence and extent, or absence of rigormortis helps to provide a right estimation of the time since death.

- With the disappearance of rigormortis, the muscles becomes soft and flaccid once again but do not respond to mechanical or electrical stimuli.

Correct Answer. a

(26). A 25-year-old male gets into a brawl outside a bar. During the altercation, someone

(26).

A 25-year-old male gets into a brawl outside a bar. During the altercation, someone pulls out a gun and shoots him in the head.The bullet enters the man's temple and severs his right optic nerve completely. He is quickly transported to a nearby emergency room and an emergency physician tests his pupillary response by shining a light in the right eye. What will the physician most likely find?

a. No pupillary constriction in the right eye, and no pupillary constriction in the left eye

b. No pupillary constriction in the right eye, but pupillary constriction in the left eye

c. Pupillary constriction followed by pupillary dilatation in both eyes

d. Pupillary constriction in the right eye, and no pupillary constriction in the left eye

Solution. (b) No pupillary constriction in the right eye, and no pupillary constriction in the left eye. Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- This person is blind in the right eye.

- The afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex is carried by the optic nerve (CN II), and the efferent limb is via the oculomotor nerve (CN III), which carries parasympathetic fibers from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.

- Thus, shining a light in the affected eye will not elicit any pupillary response.

- On the other hand, shining the light in the left eye will result in simultaneous constriction of both pupils (assuming an intact right CN III), since the left optic nerve is intact.

(27).

Correct Answer. b

Medical qualifications awarded by institutions out side India and recognized by MCI are registered in:

a. First schedule of Indian medical Council Act 1956.

b. Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956.

c. Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956.

d. Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956.

Solution. (d) Part II of Third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act. Ref:Read the text below Sol:

RECOGNITION OF FOREIGN MEDICAL QUALIFICATIONS

- If an Indian national obtains a foreign qualification which is not included in part II of the Third Scheduled, he can apply to the Central Government.

- The candidate is required to provide full information with regard to the course of study, syllabus duration of the course etc.

- The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, amend the part II of the Third Schedule so as to include such qualification therein.

(28).

Correct Answer. d

Which of the following best describes the degree of extension of fourth-degree burns?

a. Into the reticular layer of the dermis

b. Into the papillary layer of the dermis

c. Into the epidermis

d. Into the subcutaneous fat, muscle,and bone

Solution. (d) Into the subcutaneous fat, muscle,and bone. Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- A first-degree burn involves the epidermis. Second-degree burns may be superficial (papillary layer) partial

thickness and deep (reticular layer) partial thickness.

- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns that involve the entire thickness of the skin.

- Fourth-degree burns extend through the skin to subcutaneous fat, muscle,and bone.

- The rule of 9 s is often used to calculate burn surface area in adults: 9% for each arm and the head and 18% for each leg and each side of the torso.

Correct Answer. d

(29). Identify the bone and comment on the age of appearance? a. 3 years b.

(29).

Identify the bone and comment on the age of appearance?

(29). Identify the bone and comment on the age of appearance? a. 3 years b. 4

a. 3 years

b. 4 years

c. 5 years

d. 6 years

Solution. (b) 4 years Ref: Read the text below Sol:

Age of appearance of carpal bones Capitate: 2 months Hamate: 3 months Lunate 3 years Scaphoid: 4 years Trapezium: 4-5 years Trapezoid: 4-5 years Triquetrum: 4-5 years Pisiform: 9-11 years

(30).

Correct Answer. b

A noncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme

a. Increases Km with no or little change in Vmax

b. Decreases Km and decreases Vmax

c. Decreases Vmax

d. Increases Vmax

Solution. (c) Decreases Vmax Ref Read the text below Sol:

- In contrast to competitive inhibitors, noncompetitive inhibitors are not structural analogues of the substrate.

- Consequently, noncompetitive inhibitors bind to enzymes in locations remote from the active site.

- For this reason, the degree of inhibition is based solely upon the concentration of inhibitor and increasing the substrate concentrations do not compete with or change the inhibition.

- Therefore, unlike the increase in Km seen with competitive inhibition, in noncompetitive inhibition Vmax

increases while Km usually remains the same.

- While competitive inhibitors can be overcome at sufficiently high concentration of substrate, noncompetitive

inhibition is irreversible

Correct Answer. c

(31). Which one of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes? a. Effectors may enhance

(31).

Which one of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes?

a. Effectors may enhance or inhibit substrate binding

b. They are not usually controlled by feedback inhibition

c. The regulatory site may be the catalytic site

d. Michaelis-Menten kinetics describe their activity

Solution. (a) Effectors may enhance or inhibit substrate binding Ref Read the text below Sol:

- The binding of an effector to the regulatory sub- unit of an allosteric enzyme causes a conformational change that either increases or decreases the activity of the enzyme s separate catalytic site.

- Only in some allosteric molecules, such as hemoglobin, does positive cooperativity occur. A positive effector increases substrate binding.

- This is the case with cyclic AMP dependent protein kinase of the glycogen phosphorylase cascade. Cyclic AMP

binds the regulatory subunit that dissociates from the catalytic subunit and thereby activates it. In the absence of

cyclic AMP, the regulatory subunit tightly binds the catalytic subunit and inactivates the enzymes.

- Many allosteric enzymes are often placed at the first, or committed, step of a metabolic pathway. The end

product of the pathway then acts as a negative effector of the enzyme. This is called feedback inhibition.

- An allosteric enzyme does not obey Michaelis-Menten kinetics.

(32).

Correct Answer. a

Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes high-energy phosphorylation of substrates during glycolysis?

a. Pyruvate kinase

b. Phosphoglycerate kinase

c. Triose phosphate isomerase

d. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

Solution. (d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase Ref Read the text below Sol:

- High-energy phosphate bonds are added to the substrates of glycolysis at three steps in the

pathway.Hexokinase or, in the case of liver, glucokinase adds phosphate from ATP to glucose to form glucose-

6-phosphate.

- Strictly speaking, this is not always considered a step of the glycolytic pathway. Phosphofructokinase uses ATP

to convert fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-phosphate.

- Using NAD+ in an oxidation-reduction reaction, inorganic phosphate is added to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate by

the enzyme glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate dehydrogenase to form 1,3-diphosphoglycerate.

- The enzymes phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase transfer substrate highenergy phosphate groups to ADP to form ATP.

Correct Answer. d

(33). Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation with the use of inorganic phosphate?

(33).

Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation with the use of inorganic phosphate?

a. Hexokinase

b. Phosphofructokinase

c. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

d. Phosphoglycerate kinase

Solution. (c) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase Ref Read the text below Sol:

- All the enzymes named are glycolytic enzymes that carry out phosphorylation of glucose-derived substrates or of ADP to form ATP.

- However, only the reaction catalyzed by glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is a phosphorylation reaction coupled to oxidation that uses inorganic phosphate.

- In this reaction, glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is converted to 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate by the addition of inorganic phosphate and the oxidation of glyceraldehyde- 3-phosphate with the concomitant reduction of NAD + to NADH + H + .

- This reaction is an example of a high-energy phosphate compound being produced by an oxidation-reduction reaction. The oxidation of

the aldehyde group at C1 of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate provides the energy for the reaction.

- The 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate can then be utilized to phosphorylate ADP to ATP through the action of phosphoglycerate kinase, which is the next step in the glycolytic pathway

(34).

Correct Answer. c

Which of the following hormones stimulates gluconeogenesis?

a. Progesterone

b. Glucagon

c. Aldosterone

d. Epinephrine

Solution. (b) Glucagon Ref Rea d the text below Sol:

- The balance and integration of the metabolism of fats and carbohydrates are mediated by the hormones insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and norepinephrine.

- All of these hormones exercise acute effects upon metabolism. Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis and blocks glycolysis.

- When blood sugar levels get low, the cells of the pancreas release glucagon. The main targets of glucagon are the liver and adipose tissue.

- In the liver, glucagon stimulates the cyclic AMP mediated cascade that causes phosphorylation of phosphorylase and glycogen

synthesis.

- This effectively turns off glycogen synthase and turns on glycogen phosphorylase, thereby causing a breakdown of glycogen and a

production of glucose in liver, which ultimately raises blood glucose levels.

- Insulin and glucagon are two antagonistic hormones that maintain the balance of sugar and fatty acids in blood. Insulin is produced by

the

- cells of the pancreas and its release is stimulated by high levels of glucose in the blood. It has a number of effects, but its major effect is

to allow the entry of glucose into cells.

- Insulin also allows the dephosphorylation of key regulatory enzymes. The consequence of these actions is to allow glycogen synthesis

and storage in both muscle and liver, suppression of gluconeogenesis, acceleration of glycolysis, promotion of the synthesis of fatty acids,

and promotion of the uptake and synthesis of amino acids into protein.

- All in all, insulin acts to promote anabolism.

Correct Answer. b

(35). The key regulatory enzyme of the pentose phosphate pathway is positively regulated by a.

(35).

The key regulatory enzyme of the pentose phosphate pathway is positively regulated by

a. Reduced nicotinamide dinucleotide (NADH)

b. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

c. Guanosine triphosphate (GTP)

d. Nicotinamide dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+)

Solution. (d) Nicotinamide dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+) Ref Read the text below Sol:

- The pentose phosphate pathway (hexose monophosphate shunt) functions to generate NADPH for reductive synthesis of compounds such as fatty acids or steroids, and to generate ribose for nucleotide and nucleic acid synthesis.

(36).

Correct Answer. d

In Type I diabetes, the increased production of ketone bodies is primarily a result of which of the following?

a. A substantially increased rate of fatty acid oxidation by hepatocytes

b. An increase in the rate of the citric acid cycle

c. Decreased cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels in adipocytes

d. Elevated acetyl-coa levels in skeletal muscle

Solution. (d) elevated acetyl-CoA levels in skeletal muscle Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- In fasting or diabetes, lipolysis predominates in adipocytes because of the inability of these cells to obtain glucose, which is normally used as a source of glycerol-3-phosphate. Glycerol-3-phosphate is necessary for the esterification of fatty acids into triacylglycerides. -Circulating fatty acids become the predominant fuel source, and beta-oxidation in the liver becomes substantially elevated.

- This leads to an increased production of acetyl-CoA. Although gluconeogenesis is increased in the liver as a result of the persistent

elevation of glucagon levels, this pathway does not supply acetyl-CoA for the production of ketone bodies. The increased gluconeogenesis

predisposes oxaloacetate and reduces the flow of acetyl-CoA through the citric acid cycle.

- As a consequence, acetyl-CoA is diverted to the formation of ketone bodies. The persistently elevated levels of glucagon also increase

the levels of cAMP in responsive tissues, such as adipocytes . This effect in adipocytes leads to persistently increased release of fatty acids to the circulation.

- Since skeletal muscle lacks receptors for glucagon, there is no diabetes-mediated increase in muscle metabolism and thus no elevation in acetyl-CoA levels in skeletal muscle

(37).

Correct Answer. d

Which of the following symptoms can occur frequently in infants suffering from mediumchain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency if periods between meals are protracted?

a. Bone and joint pain and thrombocytopenia

b. Hyperammonemia with decreased ketones

c. Hyperuricemia and darkening of the urine

d. Hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis with normal levels of ketones

Solution. (d) Hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis with normal levels of ketones Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- In infants, the supply of glycogen lasts less than 6 hours and gluconeogenesis is not sufficient to maintain adequate blood glucose

levels.

- Normally, during periods of fasting (in particular during the night) the oxidation of fatty acids provides the necessary ATP to fuel

hepatic gluconeogenesis as well as ketone bodies for nonhepatic tissue energy production.

- In patients with MCAD deficiency there is a drastically reduced capacity to oxidize fatty acids. This leads to an increase in glucose

usage with concomitant hypoglycemia. The deficit in the energy production from fatty acid oxidation, necessary for the liver to use other carbon sources, such as glycerol and amino acids, for gluconeogenesis further exacerbates the hypoglycemia.

- Normally, hypoglycemia is accompanied by an increase in ketone formation from the increased oxidation of fatty acids. In MCAD deficiency there is a reduced level of fatty acid oxidation, hence near normal levels of ketones are detected in the serum.

Correct Answer. d

(38). Action of following enzyme leads to formation of superoxide ions a. Superoxide dismutase b.

(38).

Action of following enzyme leads to formation of superoxide ions

a. Superoxide dismutase

b. Catalase

c. L-amino acid oxidase

d. Glutathione peroxides

Solution. (c) L-amino acid oxidase Ref:Read the text below

Sol: When oxygen molecule takes up one electron, by univalent reduction, it becomes superoxide anion O2- Superoxide anion is formed by:

- xanthine oxidase

- aldehyde dehydrogenase

- L-amino oxidase

- univalent oxidation wih molecular oxygen in the respiratory chain

- during methaemoglobin formation

- during cytosolic hyroxylations of steroids, drugs etc by CYP450 or CYP448 systems

- ionizing radiations

- during phagocyosis Free radicals are scavenged by

- Superoxide dismutase

- Catalase

- Glutathione peroxidase

- Ferricytochrome

- Endogenous ceruloplasmin

(39).

Correct Answer. c

A red cell will swell when it is placed in a solution of

a. 100m Molar calcium chloride

b. 150m Molar sodium chloride

c. 200m Molar potassium chlorie

d. 250m Molar urea

Solution. (d) 250m Molar urea Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- If a red cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell will swell until intracellular osmolarity is same as extracellular osmolarity.

- The tonicity of extracellular solution is equal to the osmolarity of those particles w ithin the extracellular solution that are not permeable to the cell membrane.

- Because urea is able to permeate the cell membrane, its effective osmotic pressure is zero. Therefore, RBC s placed in urea will swell until hemolysis.

Correct Answer. d

(40). The reaction which requires HMG-COA reductase activity : a. hydroxy- -methyl glutaryl COA Mevalonic

(40).

The reaction which requires HMG-COA reductase activity :

a. hydroxy- -methyl glutaryl COA Mevalonic acid

b. Acetyl COA + CO2 + ATP Malonyl COA + ADP + Pi

c. L-Methyl malonyl COA Succinyl COA

d. Lactose + H2O Glucose + Galactose

Solution. (a) hydroxy- -methyl glutaryl COA Mevalonic acid Ref.:Read the text below Sol :

- The enzyme HMG COA REDUCTASE is required in the 3 rd step of cholesterol biosynthesis.

- This is the rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis.

- It is a cytoplasmic enzyme.

- It uses 2 molecules of NADPH

(41).

Correct Answer. a

In the diagram below, which of the following conditions is most likely to shift the oxyhemoglobin curve from B to A?

is most likely to shift the oxyhemoglobin curve from B to A? a. Hypothermia b. Hyperventilation

a. Hypothermia

b. Hyperventilation

c. Carbon monoxide poisoning

d. Exercise

Solution. (d) Exercise

Ref Read the text below Sol:

- During exercise, there is an increase in muscle temperature, carbon dioxide, and H -+ , all of which shift the oxyhemoglobin curve to the right and enhance oxygen release to the tissues.

- Hypothermia, hyperventilation (hypocapnic alkalosis), carbon monoxide, and transfusion with banked blood (decreased 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate) all shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation to the left.

Correct Answer. d

(42). The following is an example for unusual base : a. Di hydro uracil b.

(42).

The following is an example for unusual base :

a. Di hydro uracil

b. Adenine

c. Cytosine

d. Uracil

Solution. (a) Di hydro uracil Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

Two types of nitrogenous bases are present in all nucleic acids namely : Purines :

- Adenine

- Guanine

Pyrimidines :

- Cytosine

- Thymine

- Uracil

A few other modified pyrimidine bases like dihydrouracil and 5-methyl cytosine are rarely found in some types of RNA.

(43).

Correct Answer. a

A 51-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency room in wintertime complaining of numbness of his feet. Physical examination of the feet reveals erythema, edema, and the presence of several clear blisters. Peripheral pulses are palpable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Frostnip

b. First-degree frostbite injury

c. Second-degree frostbite injury

d. Third-degree frostbite injury

Solution. (c) Second-degree frostbite injury. Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- Frostnip is a superficial freeze injury that causes no tissue loss. Patients complain of some discomfort and the involved area is pale; rewarming quickly reverses the symptoms. First-degree frostbite is characterized by partial skin freezing,erythema, edema, no blisters, and desquamation several days later.

- Second-degree frostbite is characterized by full-thickness skin freezing,erythema, edema, and the presence of clear blisters. Patients complain of throbbing and numbness.

- Third-degree frostbite injuries are characterized by damage that extends into the subdermal plexis. The skin is blue or gray and there

are hemorrhagic blisters. Patients complain of burning,shooting pains, and the feeling that the involved area feels like a block of wood.

Prognosis is poor.

- Fourth-degree frostbite injuries extend into the subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and bone. There is typically no edema and the skin is mottled and cyanotic; eventually these injuries form a mummified eschar.

Correct Answer. c

(44). Entrance wound of close shot is characterized by : a. Inverted edges and linear

(44).

Entrance wound of close shot is characterized by :

a. Inverted edges and linear

b. Inverted edges and circular

c. Everted edges and linear

d. Everted edges and circular

Solution. (b) Inverted edges and circular Sol:

CLOSE SHOT

- This term is applied when the victim is within the range of the flame, i.e. 5 to 8 cm. The term point blank is used when the range is very close to or in contact with the surface of the skin.

- The entrance wound is circular with inverted edges, but the rebounding gases may level up or even evert the margins.

- The skin surrounding the wound is hyperaemic and shows some bruising, burning, blackening and tattooing.

- Carboxy-haemoglobin will be present in the wound track in diminishing concentrations.

(45).

Correct Answer. b

Back spatter is related with by :

a. Inverted edges and linear

b. Inverted edges and circular

c. Contact shot

d. Close shot

Solution. (c) Contact shot Ref: Read the text below Sol:

CONTACT SHOT:

- The wound is large shows cavitation, and triangular stellate, cruciate or elliptic.

- The margins are contused and everted due to gases coming out of the entering wound under pressure.

- There is no burning blackening and tattooing around the wound entrance. Tattooing is minimal or absent. The wound is not eruptive or explosive in appearance.

- In contact shot, the muzzle blast and the negative pressure in the barrel following discharge may suck blood, hair, fragments of tissues and cloth fibers several cm. back inside the barrel called back spatter .

- The corona consists of a circular zone of soot deposit surrounding the bullet defect, but separated from it by a band of skin without a deposit of soot.

- Singeing of the hair may also be seen.

(46).

Correct Answer. c

Choose the most likely associated odor with diabetic coma :

a. Fruity odor

b. Bitter almond odor

c. Burned-rope odor

d. Rotten eggs odor

Solution. (a) Fruity odor Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Cyanide poisoning is associated with a bitter almond odor and diabetic acidosis is associated with a fruity odor.

- Arsenic ingestion and parathion poisoning are associated with a garlic odor.

Correct Answer. a

(47). Hemoperfusion with charcoal is useful in poisoning with : - a. Phenytoin. b. Methyl

(47).

Hemoperfusion with charcoal is useful in poisoning with : -

a. Phenytoin.

b. Methyl alcohol.

c. Lithium

d. Ethylene glycol

Solution. (a) Phenytoin. Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Hemoperfusion should be considered in cases of severe poisoning due to

should be considered in cases of severe poisoning due to (48). Correct Answer. a Frequent blushing

(48).

Correct Answer. a

Frequent blushing ( erethism ) is associated with : -

a. Mercury

b. Lead

c. Phenolic acid

d. Carbolic acid

Solution. (a) Mercury Reference Poisoning & Drug Overdose by Kent R. Olson - 213 Ans Mercury Mechanism of toxicity. Mercury reacts with sulfhydryl (SH) groups, resulting in enzyme inhibition and pathologic alteration of cellular membranes. Clinical presentation. Acute inhalation

- Severe chemical pneumonitis and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.

- Acute gingivostomatitis may also occur. Chronic intoxication Classic triad

- Tremor

- Neuropsychiatric disturbances

- Gingivostomatitis. Metallic taste

Frequent blushing ( erethism ). Pain in the extremities,often accompanied by pinkish discoloration and desquamation ( pink disease )

Correct Answer. a

(49). Embalming solution constituents are all except a. Ethanol b. Phenol c. Glycerine d. Formalin

(49).

Embalming solution constituents are all except

a. Ethanol

b. Phenol

c. Glycerine

d. Formalin

Solution. (a) Ethanol References:

1. Pg. 613, 803, 1535; Dorland s Medical dictionary (31st Ed.)

2. Pg. 112; Embalming principles Dr Ajmani (1st Ed.) 3. Textbook of forensic medicine & toxicology by RK Sharma 150- 151,parikh, 4.

Reddy Pg 153 27 th ed Sol:

- Ethanol is a preservative and can be used for embalming but is not the usual content of Embalming fluid/solution.

- Instead Methanol is used, which is cheaper and more toxic to bacteria than ethanol. Emblaming defined as study and science of

treating dead body to achieve antiseptic condition, a life-like postmortem appearance and preservation. Uses bodies in M.C. for dissection, transport of dead bodies Principle-- coagulation of protein, tissue & fixed organs are bleached and hardened Chemicals MC used formaldehyde dehydrate, hardens

- Formalin 60%

- Methanol 25%

- Liquefied phenol 10%

- Sodium lauryl sulphate 1%

- Mercuric chloride 1%

- Eucalyptus oil 1%

Correct Answer. a

(50). Identify the skull: a. Dolicocephalic skull b. Brachycephalic skull c. Trigonocephalic skull d. Plagiocephalic

(50).

Identify the skull:

(50). Identify the skull: a. Dolicocephalic skull b. Brachycephalic skull c. Trigonocephalic skull d. Plagiocephalic

a. Dolicocephalic skull

b. Brachycephalic skull

c. Trigonocephalic skull

d. Plagiocephalic skull

Solution. (b) Brachycephalic skull Ref: Read the text below Sol:

(b) Brachycephalic skull Ref: Read the text below Sol: Cephalic index = (maximum breadth of the

Cephalic index = (maximum breadth of the skull/ maximum length of the skull) X 100. Dolicocephalic skull CI 70 75 Brachycephalic skull CI 80 85 Plagiocephaly, also known as flat head syndrome,is a condition characterized by an asymmetrical distortion (flattening of one side) of the skull. It is characterized by a flat spot on the back or one side of the head caused by remaining in a particular position for too long Trigonocephaly (Greek: 'trigonon' = triangle, 'kephale' = head) is a congenital condition of premature fusion of the metopic suture (Greek: 'metopon' = forehead) leading to a triangular shaped forehead. The merging of the two frontal bones leads to transverse growth restriction and parallel growth expansion. It may occur syndromic involving other abnormalities or isolated.

(51).

Correct Answer. b

For biochemical analysis vitreous in sent in:

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Phenol

c. Formalin

d. Fluoride.

Solution. (d) Fluoride. References: Read the text below Sol: Potassium/sodium fluoride:

- Collecting vitreous humour sample for ethanol analysis in postmortem toxicology cases. A preservation(sodium fluoride,0.5-2% weight by volume (w/v) should be added.

Correct Answer. d

(52). In a nontolerant individual,death is likely to occur when the serum alcohol level reaches

(52).

In a nontolerant individual,death is likely to occur when the serum alcohol level reaches

a. 100 mg/dL

b. 200 mg/dL

c. 300 mg/dL

d. >400 mg/dL

Solution. (d) >400 mg/dL. Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Behavioral changes, slowing of motor performance, and decrease in the ability to think clearly may appear with a blood alcohol level as low as 20 30 mg/dL.

- Most people show significant impairment of motor and mental performance when their alcohol levels reach 100 mg/dL.

- With blood alcohol concentration between 200 and 300, slurred speech is more intense and memory impairment, such as blackout and anterograde amnesia, becomes common.

- In a nontolerant person, a blood alcohol level over 400 mg/dL can produce respiratory failure, coma, and death. Due to

tolerance,chronic heavy drinkers can present with fewer symptoms even with blood alcohol levels greater than 500 mg/dL.

(53).

Correct Answer. d

A factory worker is required to submit to random drug tests as part of the drug free policy his employers have adopted. If he used cocaine five days before the test was administered, which assay is most likely to detect cocaine metabolites?

a. Semen

b. Hair

c. Saliva

d. Urine

Solution. (d) Urine. Ref Read the text below Sol:

- All the listed body fluids are used to detect cocaine use, except for semen.

- Blood and saliva will provide the best level of current usage, while urine assay will detect use over the preceding several days.

- Hair analysis can reveal the drug over weeks or months, but has little clinical applicability.

(54).

Correct Answer. d

A man is convinced that his penis is receding into his body and fears that, when his penis disappears completely, he will die.Man is suffering from which culturebound Syndrome

a. Koro

b. Sangue dormido

c. Amok

d. Dha

Solution. (a) Koro Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Koro is seen in South and East Asia and is characterized by a sudden and intense anxiety connected to the belief that the penis is receding into the body and that death will follow when it has totally disappeared.

Correct Answer. a

(55). The two halves of mandible join together by a. 5-6 month of intrauterine life

(55).

The two halves of mandible join together by

a. 5-6 month of intrauterine life

b. 5-6 month of extra uterine life

c. 2 nd year of life.

d. 5-6 years of life.

Solution. (c) 2 nd year of life. Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- At birth the mandible is in two separate halves united in the median plane by fibrous tissue. This union is known as symphysis menti.

- After birth, in the first year, the two halves of the bone begin to join from below upwards.

- A trace of separation may still be visible at the beginning of the second year. By the completion of two years, the two halves are completely joined.

(56).

Correct Answer. c

Coronal suture is completely obliterated by

a. 25 years

b. 40 years

c. 55 years

d. 75 years

Solution. (b) 40 years

Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Interestingly skull sutures obliterate earlier in males than in females.

- Generally all bones ossify earlier in females, so this is an important exception. Suture closure begins at the inner table and progresses outwards. Generally there is a gap of 5 years before outer table also obliterates.

- Coronal suture is completely obliterated by 40 years

(57).

Correct Answer. b

Normal plasma osmolality is :

a. 275-300 milliosmol/kg

b. 310-340 millismol/kg

c. 200-240 milliosmol/kg

d. 160-180 milliosmol/kg

Solution. (a) 275-300 milliosmol/kg Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

Plasma osmolality is a measure of the concentration of substances such as Nacl, K+, urea, glucose and other ions in the human plasma.

- It is calculated as osmules of solute per kg of solvent.

- The normal plasma osmolality ranges between 280 to 303 milliosmoles per kg.

- To calculate the plasma osmolality , the following formula can be used :

Posm = 2[Na+]+[Glucose]/18+[BUN]/2.8

Correct Answer. a

(58). The sigma ( ) subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase: a. Is part of the

(58).

The sigma ( ) subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase:

a. Is part of the core enzyme.

b. Binds the antibiortic rifampicin.

c. Is inhibited by -amanitin

d. Specifically recognizes promoter sites.

Solution. (d) Specifically recognizes promoter sites Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Sigma factor is required for correct initiation and dissociates from the core enzyme after the first bonds have been formed.

- Core enzyme can transcribe but cannot correctly initiate transcription.

- Rifampicin binds to the subunit, and -amanitin is an inhibitor of eukaryotic polymerases.

(59).

Correct Answer. d

Which of the following is the function of the large subunit of the ribosome?

a. Bind messenger RNA (mRNA)

b. Bind transfer RNA (tRNA)

c. Catalyze peptide bond formation

d. Link adjacent ribosomes in a polyribosome

Solution. (c) Catalyze peptide bond formation Ref Read the text below Sol:

- The large subunit of the ribosome catalyzes peptide bond formation by activation of peptidyl transferase. The small ribosomal subunit

contains the peptidyl-tRNA-binding (P) site that binds the tRNA molecule attached to the carboxyl end of the growing end of the polypeptide chain.

- The small subunit also contains the aminoacyl-tRNA-binding (A) site that holds the incoming tRNA and amino acid. The initiation factors are loaded on the small ribosomal subunit that must locate the AUG (start) codon to initiate protein synthesis.

(60).

Correct Answer. c

The drug, doxorubicin, is useful in the treatment of lymphomas and breast cancers because of its ability to interfere with which of the following enzyme activities?

a. DNA ligase

b. DNA polymerase-alpha

c. Primase

d. Topoisomerase II

Solution. -NA-

Correct Answer. d

(61). When fatty acids with odd numbers of carbon atoms are oxidized in the beta-oxidation

(61).

When fatty acids with odd numbers of carbon atoms are oxidized in the beta-oxidation pathway the final product is 1 mole of acetyl- CoA and 1 mole of the 3-carbon molecule,propionyl-CoA. In order to use the propionyl carbons, the molecule is carboxylated and converted ultimately to succinyl-CoA and fed into the TCA cycle. Which of the following represents the vitamin cofactor required in one of the steps of this conversion?

a. Cobalamin (B12)

b. Pantothenic acid (B5)

c. Pyridoxine (B6)

d. Riboflavin (B2)

Solution. (a) Cobalamin (B12) Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Propionyl-CoA is converted to succinyl- CoAin a series of reactions using three different enzymes.

- It is first carboxylated in an ATPdependent reaction catalyzed by propionyl- CoA carboxylase, an enzyme that requires biotin as a cofactor.

- The product of the first reaction,d-methylmalonyl-CoA is then converted to l-methylmalonyl-CoA by methylmalonyl-CoA racemase.

- Finally, methylmalonyl-CoA is converted to succinyl-CoA by the cobalaminrequiring enzyme, methylmalonyl-CoA mutase.

(62).

Correct Answer. a

Which of the following apoproteins is found exclusively associated with chylomicrons?

a. Apo A

b. Apo B48

c. Apo CII

d. Apo D

Solution. (b) Apo B48 Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Apo B48 is found exclusively associated with chylomicrons and no other lipoprotein particle. Apo B48 is synthesized from an mRNA that

is transcribed from the apo B100 gene.

- Following transcription, the mRNA is edited within the intestinal epithelium yielding the apo B48 transcript. Apo(a) is an apoprotein

found disulfide bonded to apo B100.

- This then forms a complex with LDL, generating a novel lipoprotein particle identified as lipoprotein(a), Lp(a). Lp(a) has a strong resemblance to plasminogen and its presence in the circulation is highly correlated with premature coronary artery disease.

- Apo CII is present in chylomicrons, VLDLs, LDLs, IDLs, and HDLs and is necessary for the activation of

endothelial cell LPL. Apo D is found exclusively with HDLs and is also associated with cholesterol ester transfer protein (CETP) activity.

- Apo E is found in chylomicrons,VLDLs, LDLs, IDLs, and HDLs. It is necessary for interaction of lipoprotein with the LDL-receptor (which is also referred to as the apo B100/apo E receptor).

Correct Answer. b

(63). PDH is a complex multisubunit enzyme.Which of the following exerts a positive influence on

(63).

PDH is a complex multisubunit enzyme.Which of the following exerts a positive influence on the activity of PDH?

a. Acetyl-CoA

b. ATP

c. Dephosphorylation

d. NADH

Solution. (c) Dephosphorylation Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Regulation of the PDH complex is effected by both allosteric means and by phosphorylation .

- Allosteric effectors of the enzyme complex are of both positive and negative type. The complex is phosphorylated by a specific kinase identified as PDH kinase and phosphate is removed by PDH phosphatase. When in the unphosphorylated state the complexis much more active, therefore the activity of PDH phosphatase is important for maintaining the PDH complex in the active state.

- Acetyl-CoA and NADH are both allosteric inhibitors of the nonphosphorylated form of the PDH complex and

also serves to activate PDH kinase leading to phosphorylated and inhibited PDH.

- Like acetyl- CoA and NADH, ATP allosterically activates the PDH kinase leading to phosphorylated and inhbited PDH. Phosphorylation

inhibits the activity of the PDH complex.

Phosphorylation inhibits the activity of the PDH complex. (64). Correct Answer. c All of the following

(64).

Correct Answer. c

All of the following are correct about a primary transcript in eukartotes except that it :

a. Is usually longer than the functional RNA.

b. May contain nucleotide sequences that are not present in functional RNA.

c. Could contain information for more than one RNA molecule.

d. Contains a TATA box.

Solution. (d) Contains a TATA box Ref Read the text below Sol:

- TATA box is part of the promoter, which is not transcribed.

Correct Answer. d

(65). All of the following could lead to lack of or nonfunctional -globin except :

(65).

All of the following could lead to lack of or nonfunctional -globin except :

a. A frameshift mutation leading to premature termination of protein synthesis.

b. Mutation in the promoter region of the - globin gene.

c. Mutation toward the 3 -end of the -globin gene that codes for the polyadenylation site.

d. Mutation in the middle of an intron that is not at an a base.

Solution. (d) Mutation in the middle of an intron that is not at an a base Ref Read the text below Sol:

a) Mutation at either terminus of the intron would lead to a splicing error but a mutation in the middle of the intron should not.

b) The exception would be if the specific mutation site were at the adenosine that forms the branch point.

(66).

Correct Answer. d

Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except:

a. Prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes.

b. Release of proteins when damaged.

c. Specific systems for the transport of uncharged molecules.

d. Free movement of proteins and nucleic acids cross the membrane.

Solution. (d) Free movement of proteins and nucleic acids cross the membrane. Ref Read the text below Sol:

- These molecules are too large to cross the membrane freely unless the membrane is damaged

(67).

Correct Answer. d

Basal lamina structure is produced by connecting planar networks of laminins and type IV collagen. Which of the following statements is untrue correct?

a. Both laminin and type IV collagen are composed of four polypeptide chains.

b. Laminin has a cruciform structure.

c. Laminin and type IV collagen are interconnected by a heparinsulfate proteoglycan.

d. Type IV collagen contains repeating sequences of ( Gly-HyProY).

Solution. (a) Both laminin and type IV collagen are composed of four polypeptide chains. Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Both laminin and type IV collagen are composed of three polypeptide chains

Correct Answer. a

(68). Enzymes may be specific with respect to all of the following except : a.

(68).

Enzymes may be specific with respect to all of the following except :

a. Chemical identity of the substrate.

b. The atomic mass of the elements in the reactive

c. Optical activity of product formed from a symmetrical substrate.

d. Type of reaction catalyzed.

Solution. (b) The atomic mass of the elements in the reactive group Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Enzymes do not distinguish among different nuclides of an element,although the rate of reaction of a heavier nuclide might be less than that of a lighter one.

(69).

(70).

Correct Answer. b

At which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps of the tricarboxylic acid cycle does net incorporation of the elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle occur ?

a. Aconitase

b. Citrate synthase

c. Malate dehydrogenase

d. None

Solution. (b) Citrate synthase Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Water is required to hydrolyze the thioester bond of acetyl CoA.

- Aconitase removes water and then adds it back.

- The dehydrogenases remove two protons and two elecrrons.

Correct Answer. b

All of the following tricarboxylic acid cycle intermediates may be added or remove by other metabolic pathways except:

a. Citrate.

b. Fumarate.

c. Isocitrate.

d. D -ketoglutarate.

Solution. (c) Isocitrate. Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Citrate is transported out of the mitochondria to be used as a source of cytoplasmic acetyl CoA.

- Fumarate is produced during phenylalanine and tyrosine degradation.

Correct Answer. c

(71). The inner mitochondrial membrane contains a transporter for: a. NADH. b. Acetyl CoA. c.

(71).

The inner mitochondrial membrane contains a transporter for:

a. NADH.

b. Acetyl CoA.

c. GTP.

d. ATP.

Solution. (d) ATP. Ref Read the text below Sol:

- ATP and ADP are transported in opposite directions.

Correct Answer. d

(72).

All of the following events are usually involved in the synthesis of triacylglycerols in adipose tissue except:

a. Addition of a fatty acyl CoA to diacylglycerol.

b. Addition of a fatty acyl CoA to a lysophosphatide.

c. A reaction catalyzed by glycerol kinase.

d. Hydrolysis of phosphatidic kinase

Solution. (c) A reaction catalyzed by glycerol kinase. Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Option C does not occur to any significant extent in adipose tissue.

- The sequential addition of fatty acyl CoAs to glycerol 3-phosphate forms lysophosphatidic acid and then forms phosphatidic acid, whose phosphate is removed before the addition of the third fatty acyl residue.

(73).

Correct Answer. c

Thiamine pyrophosphate is coenzyme required for :

a. Branched chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex

b. 2-hydroxyphytanoyl-CoA lyase

c. Transketolase

d. All the above

Solution. (d) All the above Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

Thiamine pyrophosphate or thiamine diphosphate (ThDP) is a thiamine derivative which is cleaved by thiamine pyrophosphatase. ThDP is a coenzyme to many enzymes, such as :

- Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.

- Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex.

- Branched chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

- 2-hydroxyphytanoyl-COA lyase.

- Transketolase.

Correct Answer. d

(74). Where does a lacerated wound appear like an incised wound? a. Abdomen b. Thorax

(74).

Where does a lacerated wound appear like an incised wound?

a. Abdomen

b. Thorax

c. Hand

d. Forehead

Solution. (d) Forehead Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Whereever in the body, the skin lies directly over the bone, with a scanty layer of fat in between, lacerated wounds appear like incised wounds.

- These are known as incised looking lacerated wounds.

- Other areas where lacerated wounds would appear like an incised wound are scalp, chin, eyebrows, lower jaw, iliac crest and shin.

(75).

Correct Answer. d

Which of the following tissue suffers most in a blast caused by an explosion?

a. Lung

b. Liver

c. Skeletal system

d. Nervous system including brain

Solution. (a) Lung Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Blast caused by an explosion is a wave of compression followed by a transient zone of low pressure (below atmospheric pressure). So a

rapid double change in pressure is suffered by the body. A blast causes the most damage at an interface between tissues in contact with

the atmosphere. This is why lung suffers the most.

- Other internal organs having an interface with air are (ii) middle ear and (iii)gastrointestinal tract. These two suffer greatly in explosions.

(76).

Correct Answer. a

Which of the following tissues is most resistant to electric current?

a. Muscle

b. Skin

c. Bone

d. Blood

Solution. (b) Skin Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- The most resistant tissular layer of the body is the skin, followed in order of decreased resistance, by bone, fat, nerve, muscle, blood, and body fluids.

- Variations in resistance are primarily determined by the water content of the tissues.

- Dry skin has a higher resistance than skin moist with sweat.

Correct Answer. b

(77). Retraction balls are seen after injuries to: a. Liver b. Spleen c. Lungs d.

(77).

Retraction balls are seen after injuries to:

a. Liver

b. Spleen

c. Lungs

d. Brain

Solution. (d) Brain Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Blunt force that causes sudden angular deceleration or acceleration of the brain can often cause Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI).

- The axons are broken; the broken axons retract into a ball like structure, known as retraction balls (or axonal spheroids ).

- The presence of Retraction balls thus indicate axonal damage. They are seen microscopically in the white matter usually after a few days of injury.

(78).

Correct Answer. d

Undertaker s fracture is commonly seen in:

a. Skull

b. Cervical spine

c. Lumbar spine

d. Pelvis

Solution. (b) Cervical spine Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Undertaker s fracture is basically a postmortem fracture, and occurs due to careless handling of the dead body by undertakers; in fact this fracture can be produced by anyone who has to do anything with the dead body.

- Pathologists are known to extend the head to make the removal of the neck structures easier. To do this, they usually insert a block about 10-15 cm high under the neck may fall forcibly backwards, producing this fracture.

- It involves subluxation of the lower cervical spine due to tearing of the intervertebral disc at about C6-C7

(79).

Correct Answer. b

After postmortem examination, the body has to be handed over to the

a. Investigating officer

b. The authorities of the nearest crematorium or burial ground

c. Medical superintendent of the hospital in which the post mortem was conducted.

d. Relatives

Solution. (a) Investigating officer Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- It is important to remember that the doctor hands over the body to the investigating officer only (to the police in cases of police inquest and to the magistrate in cases of magisterial inquest).

- It is the investigating officer who passes on the body to the relatives.

- The relatives then take the body to the crematorium or burial ground.

Correct Answer. a

(80). Which of the following facts regarding identification of a putrefied and decomposed body is

(80).

Which of the following facts regarding identification of a putrefied and decomposed body is false?

a. Remnants of genital organs help to determine sex because they resist putrefaction

b. Peeled off skin cannot be used for fingerprinting

c. Hair, its colour and dyeing when present can be used for identification

d. Body and dental X-rays are useful in identification.

Solution. (b) Peeled off skin cannot be used for fingerprinting Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Peeled off skin can be used for finger printing.

(81).

Correct Answer. b

Winslow s test was once used to detect the stoppage of :

a. Brain function

b. Liver function

c. Respiration

d. Circulation.

Solution. (c) Respiration Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- This test was suggested by the Danish physician Jacques Benigne Winslow. It consisted of keeping a small pot containing water or

mercury over the thoraco-abdominal region (usually just at or below xiphisternum).

- A ray of light was allowed to fall over the liquid. If the respiration was taking place, the ray of light (over the surface of the liquid) would appear to move.

- The three tests magnus, icard and winslow however weird they may appear gained prominence because the stethoscope had not been developed fully and in cases of suspended animation, one could easily mistake a living person for dead.

(82).

Correct Answer. c

If a person is not heard of for a certain number of years by those who would naturally have heard of him, he is supposed to have been dead, and the burden of proving that he is alive shifts on the person who affirms it. For how many years, he should not have been heard of?

a. 4 years

b. 7 years

c. 15 years

d. 30 years

Solution. (b) 7 years Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- This is according to section 108 of the IEA. This is known as presumption of Death. Here is the full statement of Sec 108 of IEA S 108.

- Burden of proving that person is alive who has not been heard of for seven years.

Correct Answer. b

(83). Which statement best describes xanthine? a. It is a direct precursor of guanine b.

(83).

Which statement best describes xanthine?

a. It is a direct precursor of guanine

b. It covalently binds to allopurinol

c. It is oxidized to form uric acid

d. It is oxidized to form hypoxanthine

Solution. (c) It is oxidized to form uric acid Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Xanthine oxidase catalyzes the last two steps in the degradation of purines.

- Hypoxanthine is oxidized to xanthine, and xanthine is further oxidized to uric acid. Thus, xanthine is both product and substrate in this two-step reaction. In humans, uric acid is excreted via the urine.

(84).

Correct Answer. c

Which of the following statements about solutions of amino acids at physiologic pH is true?

a. All amino acids contain both positive and negative charges

b. All amino acids contain positively charged side chains

c. Some amino acids contain only positive charges

d. All amino acids contain negatively charged side chains

Solution. (a) All amino acids contain both positive and negative charges Ref Read the text below

Sol:

- At neutral pH, amino acids in solution are zwitterions (i.e., dipolar ions) containing both a protonated amino group (pK approximately 9.5) and a dissociated carboxyl group (pK approximately 2).

- At pH 7.4, the pH pK from the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is ~5 for the carboxy group, predicting a ratio of base (carboxyl anion) to acid (carboxylic acid) of 105.

- Similarly, the pH pK for the amino group is about 2, predicting a ratio of base (amino group) to acid

(protonated ammonium ion) of less than 102.

- Amino acids with ionizable side chains may have charges in addition to those of the amino and carboxyl groups.

(85).

Correct Answer. a

Immunoglobulin G molecules can be characterized by which of the following statements?

a. They are maintained at a constant level in the serum

b. They contain nucleic acids

c. They contain mostly carbohydrate

d. They can be separated into subunits with a reducing agent and urea

Solution. (d) They can be separated into subunits with a reducing agent and urea Ref Read the text below Sol:

-- Immunoglobulin G is composed of pairs of light chains and heavy chains attached by disulfide bridges.

- If the reducing agent mercaptoethanol is used to break the disulfide bridges and urea is used to disrupt

noncovalent interactions, two identical light subunits (25 kd) and two identical heavy chains (50 kd) per protein can be resolved with electrophoresis.A small amount of carbohydrate is also present.

- In contrast,the proteolytic enzyme papain cleaves the heavy chains, which results in two Fab molecules consisting of the entire light chain attached to the amino terminal half of each heavy chain and two Fc molecules consisting of the carboxyl terminal half of each heavy chain.

- Other proteolytic enzymes are nonspecific. Levels rise and fall in the serum dependent upon specific induction by antigen.

Correct Answer. d

(86). Which of the following techniques for purification of proteins can be made specific for

(86).

Which of the following techniques for purification of proteins can be made specific for a given protein?

a. Dialysis

b. Affinity chromatography

c. Gel filtration chromatography

d. Ion exchange chromatography

Solution. (b) Affinity chromatography Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Each of the techniques listed separates proteins from each other and from other biologic molecules based upon characteristics such as size, solubility, and charge.

- However, only affinity chromatography can use the high affinity of proteins for specific chemical groups or the specificity of

immobilized antibodies for unique proteins.

- In affinity chromatography,a specific compound that binds to the desired protein such as an antibody, a polypeptide receptor, or a

substrate is covalently bound to the column material.

- A mixture of proteins is added to the column under conditions ideal for binding the protein desired, and the column is then washed with

buffer to remove unbound proteins.

- The protein is eluted either by adding a high concentration of the original binding material or by making the conditions unfavorable for binding (e.g., changing the pH).The other techniques are less specific than affinity binding for isolating proteins.

- Dialysis separates large proteins from small molecules. Ion exchange chromatography separates proteins with an overall charge of one

sort from proteins with an opposite charge (e.g., negative from positive).Gel filtration chromatography separates on the basis of size.

- Electrophoresis separates proteins on the principle that net charge influences the rate of migration in an electric field.

(87).

Correct Answer. b

Which one of the following proteins is found in the thick filaments of skeletal muscle?

a. -actinin

b. Myosin

c. Troponin

d. Tropomyosin

Solution. (b) Myosin Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Two kinds of interacting protein filaments are found in skeletal muscle.

- Thick filaments 15 nm in diameter contain primarily myosin. Thin filaments 7 nm in diameter are composed of actin, troponin, and tropomyosin.

- The thick and thin filaments slide past one another during muscle contraction.

- Myosin is an ATPase that binds to thin filaments during contraction. -actinin can be found in the Z line.

Correct Answer. b

(88). Which one of the following proteolytic enzymes is activated by acid hydrolysis of the

(88).

Which one of the following proteolytic enzymes is activated by acid hydrolysis of the proenzyme form?

a. Trypsin

b. Chymotrypsin

c. Elastase

d. Pepsin

Solution. (d) Pepsin Ref Read the text below Sol:

- Pepsin is secreted in a proenzyme form in the stomach.

- Unlike the majority of proenzymes, it is not activated by protease hydrolysis.

- Instead, spontaneous acid hydrolysis at pH 2 or lower converts pepsinogen to pepsin. Hydrochloric acid secreted by the stomach lining creates the acid environment. All the enzymes secreted by the pancreas are activated at the same time upon entrance into the duodenum.

- This is accomplished by trypsin hydrolysis of the inactive proenzymes trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, and

proelastase.

- Primer amounts of trypsin are derived from trypsinogen by the action of enteropeptidase secreted by the cells of the duodenum.

(89).

Correct Answer. d

Thiamine deficiency is due to

a. Alcoholism

b. Prolonged breast feeding

c. Chronic diuretic

d. All of these

Solution. (d) All of these Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- Vitamin B1 deficiency is usually connected to alcoholism, malabsorption diseases, and poor diet.

- Thiamine is a coenzyme for the decarboxylation of pyruvate and the oxidation of alpha keto-glutamic acid. Lipoic acid which is formed in the liver is also required for the reactions. Patients with liver disease may show signs of B1 deficiency.

- The minimum amount of thiamin needed by the body can increase because of increased physiological or metabolic demands arising from pregnancy and lactation, heavy physical exertion, illnesses like cancer, liver diseases, hyperthyroidism, and surgery.

- Thiamin deficiency occurs as a result of many factors, including crash dieting, alcohol abuse, liver disfunction, kidney dialysis, and sustained periods of IV nutrients.

- Also at risk are those who consume a lot of sweets, soft drinks, and highly processed foods. Vitamin B1 deficiency is common among alcoholics, as chronic alcohol consumption decreases the amount of Vitamin B1 absorbed by the body

Correct Answer. d

(90). Which of the following is not peptide a. Cortisol b. ACTH c. ANP d.

(90).

Which of the following is not peptide

a. Cortisol

b. ACTH

c. ANP

d. Adrenaline

Solution. (d) Adrenaline Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- Several important peptide hormones are secreted from the pituitary gland.

- The anterior pituitary secretes prolactin, which acts on themammary gland, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), which acts on the

adrenal cortex to regulate the secretion of glucocorticoids, andgrowth hormone, which acts on bone, muscle, and the liver.

- The posterior pituitary gland secretes antidiuretic hormone, also called vasopressin, and oxytocin.

- Peptide hormones are produced by many different organs and tissues, however, including the heart (atrial-natriuretic peptide (ANP) or

atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)) and pancreas (insulin and somatostatin), the gastrointestinal tract cholecystokinin,gastrin), and adipose

tissue stores (leptin)

Correct Answer. d

(91).

Addis test is used for

a. Urinary sugar

b. Urinary sediment

c. Blood lactate

d. Serum magnesium

Solution. (b) Urinary sediment Ref:Read the text below Sol:

Addis count:

- The Addis count is a quantitative measurement of red blood cells, white blood cells, and casts in a 12-hour overnight urine specimen.

- Protein and specific gravity may also be included. Fluids may be restricted before the test so that urine will be concentrated.

- The Addis test is used to evaluate the course of renal disease by comparing results over time.

(92).

Correct Answer. b

The minimum amount of air usually accepted to be able to cause fatal air embolism in adults is

a. 5ml

b. 100ml

c. 250ml

d. 500ml

Solution. (b) 100ml Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- The volume of air needed to cause fatal embolism has been hotly debated for years, but no real consensus has emerged.

- The figures vary from 10 to 480 ml. if the volume of the right side of the heart is accepted as the minimum space that has to be filled, about 100ml would appear to be reasonable volume.

Correct Answer. b

(93). Heat hematoma is seen inside : a. Cranial cavity b. Chest cavity c. Abdominal

(93).

Heat hematoma is seen inside :

a. Cranial cavity

b. Chest cavity

c. Abdominal cavity

d. Uterus

Solution. (a) Cranial cavity Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- Heat hematoma is formed in the Extradural space.

- The blood in heat haematoma comes either from venous sinuses

- The blood from diploe, supposedly boils out due to great heat and passes through emissary veins, to come to lie just beneath the skull (and outside the dura.)

(94).

Correct Answer. a

How many points of similarity between two fingerprints have to be established before the two can be said to be identical?

a. 6

b. 16

c. 25

d. The figure varies from country to country.

Solution. (d) The figure varies from country to country. Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- Fingerprints may be deposited in natural secretions from the eccrine glands present in friction ridge skin

(secretions consisting primarily of water) or they may be made by ink or other contaminants transferred from the peaks of friction skin ridges to a relatively smooth surface such as a fingerprint card.

- The term fingerprint normally refers to impressions transferred from the pad on the last joint of fingers and

thumbs, though fingerprint cards also typically record portions of lower joint areas of the fingers (which are also used to make identifications).

- Number of points of similarity between two fingerprints have to be established before the two can be said to be identical always varies from country to country.

(95).

Correct Answer. d

Mental ability of a person to make a valid will is known as :-

a. Compos Mentis

b. Testamentary capacity

c. Corpus delicti

d. Corona

Solution. (b) Testamentary capacity Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- Will denotes any testamentary document (S.31, I.P.C.)

Correct Answer. b

(96). Which of the following facts regarding the stature of the body is correct? a.

(96).

Which of the following facts regarding the stature of the body is correct?

a. Immediately after death, the body may shorten by about 2-3 cm.

b. Immediately after death, the body may lengthen by about 2-3cm.

c. Change is stature after death occurs only when the deceased was engaged in struggle at the time of death.

d. There is absolutely no change in stature after death.

Solution. (b) Immediately after death, the body may lengthen by about 2-3cm. Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- Immediately after death, the body may lengthen by about 2-3cm.

(97).

Correct Answer. b

A person is called a Juvenile or child when he is below the age of :

a. 12 years

b. 14 years

c. 16 years

d. 17 years

Solution. (d) 17 years Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- The Juveniles Act defines as a "juvenile" a person under the age of 17 years and subdivides this group into

"child", meaning a person under the age of 14 years, and "young person", meaning a person who has attained the age of 14 years and is under the age of 17 years.

- This Act provides for the minimum age at which a person has criminal liability, matters relating to the employment of children, giving testimony in court, and the consumption of alcohol by children.

(98).

Correct Answer. d

The age of criminal liability is

a. 12 years

b. 14 years

c. 16 years

d. 17 years

Solution. (a) 12 years Ref:Read the text below Sol:

- The age of criminal liability is 12 years.

- In the words of section 3 of the Juveniles Act, "It shall be conclusively presumed that no child under the age of 12 years can be guilty of any offence."

Correct Answer. a

(99). Toxic myopathy is not exacerbated by which of the following drugs: a. Nicotinic acid

(99).

Toxic myopathy is not exacerbated by which of the following drugs:

a. Nicotinic acid

b. Enalapril

c. Meperidine

d. Chloroquine

Solution. (b) Enalapril Ref:Read the text below Sol:

DRUGS CAUSING TOXIC MYOPATHIES Lipid-lowering agents Fibric acid derivatives ,HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors Niacin (nicotinic acid) Glucocorticoids Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents Zidovudine Drugs of abuse Alcohol, Amphetamines, Cocaine Heroin, Phencyclidine, Meperidine Autoimmune toxic myopathy- D-Penicillamine Amphophilic cationic drugs Amiodarone, Chloroquine, Hydroxychloroquine Antimicrotubular drugs Colchicine

(100).

Correct Answer. a

Choose the correct statement:

a. Rape is defined under section 3761PC

b. Section 228 Cr. PC prohibits disclosure of the identity of the victims of rape

c. Under sections 377 Cr. Pc trials of rape shall be conducted in camera

d. Section 374 IPC lays down the punishment for offence of Rape

Solution. (b) Section 228 Cr. PC prohibits disclosure of the identity of the victims of rape Ref:Read the text below Sol:

RAPE Rape is generally declined as unlawful sexual intercourse by a man with any women against her wall,without her consent, or with her consent when it has been obtained by unlawful means LAW ON RAPE IN INDIA Under section 375 IPC, rape is defined as unlawful sexual intercourse by a man his wife under the age of 15 years, with any other women under the age of 16 years or above that age, against her will, without her consent, or with her consent when it has been obtained by unlawful means Exception: Sexually intercourse by a man with his wife, even against her will, is not rape, she is above 15 years of age. Section 376 IPC lays down the punishment for the offence of rape, which may extend from seven years to life imprisonment and also fine. Section 228 IPC prohibits disclosure of the identity of the victim of rape Under section 327 Cr. PC, the inquiry into and trial of rape or an offence under section 376 IPC shall be conducted in camera and it is not lawful for any person to print to or publish any matter in relation to such proceedings except with the permission of the Court

Correct Answer. b

(101).

What causes post mortem luminescence?

a. Dhatura

b. Mercury

c. Armillaria

d. Oleander

Solution. (c) Armillaria Ref: Read the text below Sol:

Causes for post mortem luminescence

1. Armillaria millea/ Ramsbottom

2. Photobacterium fischerii

Correct Answer. c

(102). Acute arsenic poisoning viscera preserved is a. Liver, stomach and blood b. Liver, stomach,

(102).

Acute arsenic poisoning viscera preserved is

a. Liver, stomach and blood

b. Liver, stomach, blood, kidneys, intestine, urine

c. Routine viscera and hairs

d. Routine viscera and hair, nails, bones and skin

Solution. (a) Liver, stomach and blood Ref: Read the text below Sol:

- In chronic arsenic poisoning we preserve routine viscera and hair, nails, bones and skin

(103).

Correct Answer. a

Which one of the enzyme deficiency is correctly paired?

a. Fabry s alpha galactosidase

b. Gauchers beta glucosidase

c. Cystic fibrosis glucoronidase

d. Chronic bronchitis alpha I antitrypsin

Solution. (a) Fabry s alpha galactosidase Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- This X-linked recessive condition is due to a deficiency of the lysosomal hydrolase -galactosidase causing an

accumulation of glycosphingolipids with terminal galactosyl moieties in the lysosomes of various tissues including the liver, kidney, blood vessels and the ganglion cells of the nervous system.

- The patients present with peripheral nerve involvement, but eventually most patients develop renal problems in adult life.

(104).

Correct Answer. a

In collagen synthesis, hydroxyproline is formed from:

a. Prolene

b. Lysine

c. Hydroxylysine

d. None of the above

Solution. (a) Prolene Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- During collagen formation, proline is hydroxylated in position 4 (when situated at the amino-side of the glycine) or in position 3 (when situate at the carboxy-side of the glycine). Lysine is hydroxylated in position 5.

Correct Answer. a

(105). Each of the following statements concerning membrane transport proteins is true except : a.

(105).

Each of the following statements concerning membrane transport proteins is true except :

a. Integrin is involved in fibronectin transport

b. Erythrocyte band III protein is involved in bicarbonate transport

c. Na+-K+- ATPase is involved in cation transport

d. Most membrane transport proteins are transmembrane protein

Solution. (a) Integrin is involved in fibronectin transport Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- Erythrocyte band III protein has a hydrophilic core for ion transport and is involved in bicarbonate transport.

- Na+-K+-ATPase uses energy stored in ATP to maintain the surface potential differences between the cell s inner and outer surfaces and is involved in cation transport. Most membrane proteins are amphipathic.

- Most membrane proteins are amphipathic.

- Transmembrane proteins such as integrin span the entire membrane. They have hydrophilic domains

associated with the water inside and outside the cell.

- They also have a hydrophobic domain associated with the hydrophobic portions of phospholipids.

- Integrin is a membrane receptor for extracellular matrix molecules such as fibronectin and laminin. It binds

with extracellular fibronectin to anchor the cell to the extracellular matrix, but it does not transport fibronectin.

(106).

Correct Answer. a

The transfer of genetic material from one bacteria to other through bacteriophage is known as

a. Conjugation

b. Transcription

c. Transduction

d. Translation

Solution. (c) Transduction Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- Occasionally, the virus carries a portion of host DNA

- Subsequent infection of a new host by such a virus may introduce new genes to the new host. This is called viral transduction.

- This process was studied by Joshua Lederberg (Nobel Prize 1958) and Max Delbruck (Nobel Prize 1969.

- This can be considered as genetic engineering by nature, or horizontal transmission of genes.

(107).

Correct Answer. c

Abnormal base in t RNA is :

a. Dihydrouracil

b. Orotic acid

c. Methyl Xanthine

d. Cystine

Solution. (a) Dihydrouracil Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- The transfer RNAs show extensive internal base pairing and acquire clover leaf like structure.

- They contain a significant proportion of unusual bases.

- These include dihydrouracil (DHU), pseudouridine and hypoxantine.

- Many bases are methylated ; this occurs in the nucleus.

- The 5 end often has a phosphorylated guanosine.

Correct Answer. a

(108). True about competitive inhibition is : a. Increased Km and Vmax is same b.

(108).

True about competitive inhibition is :

a. Increased Km and Vmax is same

b. Increased Vmax and Km remains constant

c. Increased Km and increased Vmax

d. Decreased Km and increased Vmax

Solution. (a) Increased Km and Vmax is same Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

Competive inhibition

- The inhibitor competes with the substrate for binding at the enzymes active site.

- Km therefore increases, since a higher concentration of inhibitor decreases substrate binding and more substrate is needed to reach ½ Vmax.

- Vmax remains unchanged since the dissociation of the enzyme substrate complex, once formed, is unaffected.

(109).

Correct Answer. a

A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase in the liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6 bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except ?

a. Level of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate is higher than normal

b. Level of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate is lower than normal

c. Less pyruvate will be formed

d. Less ATP will be generated

Solution. (a) Level of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate is higher than normal Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate has got inhibitory effect on fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase enzyme. It inhibits

fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase by increasing the K m for fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate.

- Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate is formed by phosphorylation of fructose 6-phsphate by phosphofructokinase-2.

- The same enzyme is also responsible for its breakdown, since it has fructose 2, 6-bisphosphatase activity.

- This bifunctional enzyme is under the allosteric control of fructose 6-phosphate,which stimulates the kinase

and inhibits the phosphatase.

- Hence, when there is an abundant supply of glucose, the concentration of fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate increase, stimulating glycolysis by activating phosphor-fructokinase 1 and inhibiting fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase

(110).

Correct Answer. a

Regarding conversion of pyruvate to acetyl Co A and CO 2 , true statement is ?

a. Reversible reaction

b. Lipoic acid is required

c. Activated when PDH complex is phosphorylated

d. Cytosolic reaction

Solution. (b) Lipoic acid is required Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- PDH reaction is irreversible reaction. It is active in dephosphorylated form. This reaction takes place within the mitochondria.

Correct Answer. b

(111). Enzyme involved in catabolism of fructose to pyruvate is ? a. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

(111).

Enzyme involved in catabolism of fructose to pyruvate is ?

a. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

b. Phosphoglucomutase

c. Lactate dehydrogenase

d. Glucokinase

Solution. (a) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- This enzyme is very important for converting glyceraldehydes 3 phosphate to 1, 3 bisphosphoglycerate during first step of oxidoreduction phase of glycolysis.

- Phosphoglucomutase is involved in glycogenesis and glycogenolysis for interconversion of glucose 6 phosphate and glucose 1 phosphate.

- Lactate dehydrogenase is involved in interconversion of pyruvate and lactate.

- Glucokinase is needed to metabolise glucose.

- This enzyme is not needed for metabolizing fructose.

(112).

Correct Answer. a

After overnight fast, level of glucose transporter are reduced in?

a. Brain cell

b. Hepatocyte

c. Adipocyte

d. RBCs

Solution. (c) Adipocyte Ref.: Read the text below

Sol :

- Insulin is needed for GLUT mediated uptake of glucose in skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle and adipose tissue via GLUT-4.

- So in these organs the expression of GLUT will be affected after an overnight fast.

- Brain cells, liver cells and RBC do not require insulin for glucose transportation.

(113).

Correct Answer. c

Acetyl Co A can be converted into all of the following except ?

a. Glucose

b. Fatty acid

c. Cholesterol

d. Ketone bodies

Solution. (a) Glucose Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

- Acetyl Co A cannot enter gluconeogenic pathway as PDH reaction is irreversible and there is no reaction which

can for pyruvate from acetyl Co A.

- Acetyl Co A is the precursor molecule for fatty acid synthesis acetyl Co A is converted to malonyl Co A by rate

limiting enzyme acetyl Co A carboxylase, which then enters in the cyclical reaction of fatty acid synthesis as a

precursor molecule.

- Acetyl Co A is the precursor molecule for choleasterol synthesis.

- Ketone body synthesis require acetyl Co A from fatty acid oxidation.

Correct Answer. a

(114). Apolipoprotein A is found in? a. HDL b. LDL c. Chylomicron remnant d. VLDL

(114).

Apolipoprotein A is found in?

a. HDL

b. LDL

c. Chylomicron remnant

d. VLDL

Solution. (a) HDL Ref.: Read the text below Sol :

Distribution of various apolipoprotein on lipoprotein is as follow :

- Chylomicrons

- Chylomicron remnants

A-I, A-II, A-IV, B-48, C-I, C-II, C-III, E

B 48, E

- VLDL

B-100, C-I, C-II, C-III, E

- IDL

B-1000, E

- LDL

B-100

- HDL

A-I, A-II, A-IV, C-I, C-II, C-III, D, E

- Pre - - HDL

A-I

 

Correct Answer. a