Contentpage 132-60-12

NEW ERA PUBLIC SCHOOL
Holiday Homework (2018-19)

Class XII
Subject: English
General Instructions:
A. Attempt Q1.And Q2. in your English register, Q3.onA4 sized sheets.
B. Q3.has to be filed and submitted in a folder.
C. Q3.must be handwritten and should reflect your research.
D. Illustrations and pictures can be used to accentuate your project.
E. Project must be completed in minimum 12 pages.
Q1. Attempt all questions.
1. Your school, Modern Public School, is enacting the play,“A Christmas Carol’to raise funds for
the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund. Prepare a poster giving the necessary details. Word Limit: 50
words.
2. You are Sapna Singh/Sanjay Singh, the Secretary of Cultural Committee of your school. Write a
notice in about 50 words inviting students to participate in the Annual Day of the school to be
organised next month.
3. You are extremely disturbed by the growing crime against the elderly people in your city. Write
an article commenting upon the reasons for such crimes and how one can prevent them. Sign
yourself as Khoshali Bhardwaj/ KaushalBharadwaj. Word limit: 150-200 words.
4. You are a reporter with “India Today”magazine. You have observed that successive droughts is
the primary cause for farmers committing suicides. Write a report for the same in 150-200 words.
5. A debate competition on “It is important to guard Indian culture in the mess of global cultures
today”is being hosted by your school. You are Anil/Anita. Write a debate in favour or against this
topic. Word limit: 150-200 words.
Q2. The Invisible Man
Read the prescribed novel, The Invisible Man.
Attempt the following questions:
1. Draw a pen portrait of Dr.Kemp and contrast him with Griffin.

2. Do you consider Marvel a smart turncoat? Why/Why not?
3. ‘Science is a threat to humanity.’Comment on the statement in context of The Invisible Man.
Q3. GS Project
Prepare a research paper on the following themes:
1. 12 A - Manas National Park

2. 12 B - India is at risk of food shortage due to climate change
3. 12-C - Delhi becomes the first city to roll out BS-IV fuel
4. 12-D - Should Bitcoin be legal?
5. 12-E - Ocean Acidification
Class: XII
Subject: Mathematics
ASSIGNMENT (To be done in assignment register)

Topic: Relations and Functions
Q1. Find the number of all the possible one-one functions from set A = {1, 2, 3} to itself.
Q2. Let f : R  R be defined by f (x) = |x|. Is the function f onto? Give reasons.
x
Q3. If f (x) = e and g(x) = log x, show that fog = gof, given x > 0.
Q4. If f (x) = 2x² - 3 x and g(x) = 1 - 4x, find fog and gof.
x 1
Q5. If f (x) = , (x  1, –1), show that fof –1 is an identity function.
x 1
5x  3  5
Q6. If f (x) = ,  x   , show that f {f(x)} is an identity function.
4x  5  4
3x  2
Q7. If f (x) is an invertible function, find the inverse of f (x) = .
5
Q8. Let * be a binary operation, defined by a * b = 3a + 4b –2, find 4* 5.

Q9 Let * be a binary operation, defined by a * b = 3a + 4b –2, find (-2) * 3.
Q10. Show that the binary operation * defined by a * b = a – b, on Z is not commutative and
associative.
Q11. Show that the relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b) : |a – b| is even},
is an equivalence relation. Show that all the elements of {1, 3, 5} are related to each other
and all the elements of {2, 4} are related to each other. But no element of {1, 3, 5} is related
to any element of {2, 4}
Q12. Check whether the relation R in R defined by R = {(a, b) : a ≤ b3} is reflexive, symmetric or
transitive.
Q13. Let L be the set of all lines in XY plane and R be the relation in L defined as R = {(L1, L2) :
L1 is parallel to L2}. Show that R is an equivalence relation. Find the set of all lines related
to the line y = 2x + 4.
Q14. Show that the relation R defined by (a, b) R(c, d)  a + d = b + c on the set N × N is an
equivalence relation.
1
Q15. Let R be the equivalence relation in the set Z of integers given by R = {(a, b) : 2 divides
a – b}. Write the equivalence class [0].
Q16. Let A = {1, 2, 3. . . . 9} and R be the relation in A ×A defined by (a, b) R (c, d)
if a + d = b + c for (a, b), (c, d) in A ×A. Prove that R is an equivalence relation and also
obtain the equivalence class for [(2, 5)].
x
Q17. Show that the function f : R→ {x  R : – 1 < x < 1} defined by f (x) = , x  R is one
1 | x |
one and onto function.
x
Q18. Show that the function f : R → R defined by f ( x)  , x  R, is neither one-one nor
x 1
2
onto.
Q19. Determine which of the following binary operations on the set R are associative and which
are commutative.
( a  b)
(i) a * b = 1 ∀ a, b  R (ii) a *b = ∀ a,bR
2
(iii) a * b = a + b – ab ∀ a,b Q – { 1} (iv) a *b = a + b + 1 ∀ a,bZ

Q20. Consider the binary operation *: R × R R and °: R × R R defined as a * b = |a –b| and
a ° b = a for all a, b, R. Show that ‘*’ is commutative but not associative, ‘°’ is
associative but not commutative.
Q21. Find the domain and range of the following functions:
i. 81 − ²
ii.
( )²
iii.
iv.
²
v. 1−
²
Q22. Let A = {x Z : 0  x  12}. Show that R = {(a,b) :a, b A, | − | is divisible by 4} is

an equivalence relation. Find the set of all elements related to 1. Also write the
equivalence class of 2.
2
Topic: Inverse trigonometric functions
Q1. Write the principle value of following.

a) cos-1 cos b) sin-1 sin c) cos -1 ( ) d) tan-1(-1)
e) sin-1tan f) cos-1 cos g) sec2(tan-12) h) cot-1 cot
Q2. If sin { sin-1 + cos-1 x } = 1 . Find x
Q3. Evaluate : a) sin[ - sin-1 ( ) ] b) cos-1 cos ( ) + sin-1sin( )
Q4. Write range of sin-1x other than principle branch.
Q5. Simplify the following expressions:

√
a) tan-1 b) cot-1 + cot-1 + cot-1 a>b>c>0
√
c) tan-1 - tan-1 d) tan-1 + tan-1
√
e) tan-1 √ f) cos 2tan-1
√
-1 -1 √
g) sin √
h) cosec
Q6. Prove the following:

a) cos tan-1 + sin-1 = b) 4 tan-1 - tan-1 + tan-1 =
c) tan-1 1 + tan-1 2 + tan-1 3 = 2( cot-1 1 + cot-1 2 + cot-1 3)
d) sin-1 + sin-1 + sin-1 = e) tan-1 + tan-1 = cos-1
f) sin-1 + 2 tan-1 = g) sin-1 + cos-1 +tan-1 =
Q7. Simplify the following inverse trigonometric expressions:
a) cot -1(√1 + + ) b) tan-1

c) tan ( + cos-1 ) + tan ( - cos-1 )
√ √ √
d) sin -1 e) tan-1 √ √
3
Q8. Solve for x :
a) tan(cos-1x) = sin(cot -1 ) b) tan-1 + tan-1 =
c) cos-1 + tan-1 = d) tan-1 = + tan-1x
e) sin-1(1-x) – 2 sin-1x = f) tan-1(x+1) + tan-1(x-1) = tan-1

g) sincot-1(x+1) = cos(tan-1x) h) (tan-1x)2 + (cot-1x)2 =
√
Q9. Show that tan-1x = cos-1 √
( )
Q10. Show that 4tan-1x = tan-1
Q11. Show that 2tan-1 tan = cos-1
Q12. If cos-1 + cos-1 = z. Show that - cos z + = sin2z .
Q13. If y = cot-1√ - tan-1√ . Prove that sin y = tan2
Q14. Find the greatest and least values of (sin-1x)2 + (cos-1x)2
Topic: Continuity and Differentiation
Q1.Discuss the continuity of following functions at indicated points.
5 −4 <1 ≠ −1, 3
a) f(x) = at x = 1 b) f(x) = at x = 3
4 −3 ≥1 =3
| | ≠0 + >0
c) f(x) = at x = 0 d) f(x) = at x = 0
0 =0 4−3 ≤0
| | | |
e) f(x) = ≠ 1 at x = 1 f) f(x) = ≠ 0 at x = 0
2 =1 −2 =0
g) f(x) = [x-1] + |x-1| at x = 1
Q2. Determine the value of k so that the function is continuous.
4
≠0 π-2
≠
a) f(x) = b) ) f(x) =
=0 3 =
2 −1 <2
≠0
c) f(x) = =2 d) f(x) =
+1 >2 =0
≠0 ≠0
e) f(x) = f) f(x) =
=0 4 =0
3 + >1
Q3. If f(x) = 11 = 1 is continuous at x = 1, find a and b.
5 −2 <1
+ + 0≤ <2
Q4. f(x) = 3 +2 2≤ < 4 is continuous on[0, 8]. Find a and b.
2 +5 4≤ <8
( )
<0
Q5. f(x) = =0 Find a, b and c so that f(x) is continuous function.
√ √
/ >0
Q6. f(x) = √
≠ 0 . Find f(0) so that f(x) is continuous function.
3 −2 0< ≤1
Q7. Check whether f(x) = 2 − 1 < ≤ 2 is differentiable at x = 1 & 2 or not.
5 −4 >2
<0
Q8. Prove that f(x) = 8 = 0 is a continuous function.
√
>0
√
Q9. Differentiate the following function w.r.t. to x.

a) tan-1 b) tan-1
√
c) sin-1 ( x√1 − - x2√1 − ) d) cos-1
e) sin-1 √
. f) cos -1
√ √
g) sin-1
5
Q10. Find in each of the following case.
a) x = cos-1 √
, y = sin-1 √
b) x = 3cost – cos3t , y = 3sint – sin3t
c) x =a(cosθ + sinθ)eθ, y = a(sinθ – cosθ)eθ d) x = a ,y=
Q11. If 3 sin(xy) + 4 cos(xy) = 5 . Show that =
( )
Q12. If ey = yx, Show that =
( )
Q13. Given that ex + ey = ex+y . Show that = -e y-x.
Q14. If xy yx = 1, find
Q15. Differentiate f(x) w.r.t. g(x)
a) f(x) = tan-1 √
g(x) = sec-1
b) f(x) = tan-1 g(x) = sin-1
c) f(x) = sin-1 2x√1 − g(x) = tan-1 √
d) f(x) = tan-1 g(x) = √1 +
Q16. Differentiate the following w.r.t. x

a) esinx + (tanx)x b) (logx)x + xlogx c) sin( xx)
( ) /
d) √ (
( ) /
e) xx√ f) +
g) xtanx + h) xcotx +
Q17. If x16y9 = (x2 + y)17 show that =
( )
Q18. If xy = ex-y , show that =
( )
Q19. If xy + yx = 2ab, find
6
Q20. Given that y = cos-1 . Show that =
Q21. If y = √ − + sin-1 , prove that y’ = √ −
√ √
Q22. y = log . Show that = √
√ √
Q23. √1 − + 1− = a( x4 – y4). Show that =
Q24. y√1 + = log(√1 + − ). Show that ( + 1) + xy + 1= 0
Q25. y = (cotx + cosecx). Show that (1 – cosx)2 y” = sinx.
Q26. x = sint, y = sinpt. Show that (1 – x2)y” – xy’ +p2y = 0.
Q27. x = a(θ + sin θ), y = a(1 - cos θ). Find y” at θ =
Q28. If x = asin3θ, y = bcos3θ, find y” at θ =
Q29. y = xlog Prove that y” =
Q30. + = 1. Show that y” = -
Q31. If y = extan-1x, prove that(1+x2)y” – 2(1-x+x2)y’ +(1-x)2y = 0

………..
Q32. y = . Prove that =
⋯……..
Q33. y = . Prove that =
Topic: Application of Derivatives
Q1. The total revenue received from the sale of x units of a product is given by
R(x) = 6x2 + 13x + 13x + 10. Find the marginal revenue when x = 10.
Q2. The side of an equilateral triangle is increasing at the rate of 0.5 cm/sec.
Find the rate of increase of its perimeter.
Q3. The total cost C(x) of producing x units of an article is given by
C(x) = 0.005x3 – 0.02x2 + 30x + 5000.Find the marginal cost when 3 units are produced.
Q4. Find the maximum and minimum values, if any, of the following functions:
(i) f (x) = |x + 2 | – 1 (ii) g(x) = – | x + 1| + 3
(iii) h(x) = sin (2x) + 5 (iv) f (x) = | sin 4x + 3|
7
(v) h(x) = x + 1, x ∈ (– 1, 1) (vi) sin x+ cos x
Q5. Show that of all the rectangles inscribed in a given fixed circle, the square has the
maximum area.
Q6. A tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open at the top is to be constructed so
that its depth is 2 m and volume is 8 m3. If building of tank costs Rs. 70 per sq. metre for the
base and Rs. 45 per sq. metre for sides, what is the cost of the least expensive tank?
Q7. A ladder 10 m long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the ladder is pulled along the
ground, away from the wall, at the rate of 2cm/s. How fast is its height on the wall
decreasing when the foot of the ladder is 8m away from the wall?
Q8. A particle moves along the curve 6y = x3 +2. Find the points on the curve at which the
y-coordinate is changing 8 times as fast as the x-coordinate.
Q9. A water tank has the shape of an inverted right circular cone with its axis vertical and vertex
lowermost. Its semi-vertical angle is tan–1 (0.5). Water is poured into it at a constant rate
of 5 cubic metres per hour. Find the rate at which the level of the water is rising at the
instant when the depth of water in the tank is 4 m.
Q10. A man of height 2 metres walks at a uniform speed of 5 km/h away from a lamp post which
is 6 metres high. Find the rate at which the length of his shadow increases.
Q11. Using differentials, find the approximate value of each of the following up to 3 places of
decimal.
(i) 25.3 (ii) (0.999)1/10 (iii) (15)1/4 (iv) (401)1/2
(v) (3.968)3/2 (vi) (32.15)1/5

Q12. Find the approximate value of f (3.001), where f (x) = x3 – 7x2 + 15.
Q13. Find the intervals in which the function f(x) = (x + 1) 3 (x – 3) 3 is strictly increasing or
strictly decreasing.
Q14. Show that the function f given by f(x) =tan-1 (sin x + cos x), x > 0 is always increasing in
(0, π / 4).
Q15. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f(x) = sin x + cos x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π is
(i) Strictly increasing (ii) Strictly decreasing
2x
Q16. Show that log (1+ x)  , x  1, is an increasing function throughout its domain.
2 x
3 4 4 3 36
Q17. Find intervals in which the function given by f ( x)  x  x  3x 2  x  11 is
10 5 5
(i) Strictly increasing (ii) Strictly decreasing

Q18. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve x2 + 3y – 3y + 0, which is parallel to the line
y = 4x – 5.
8
Q19. Prove that the curves y2 = 4x and x2 + y2 – 6x + 1 = 0 touch each other at the point (1, 2).
Q20. Prove that the curves x = y2 and xy = k cut at right angles if 8k2 = 1.
Q21. Show that the normal at any point θ to the curve x = a cosθ + a θ sin θ, y = a sinθ – aθ cosθ
is at a constant distance from the origin.
Q22. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the curve 16x 2 + 9y2 = 144 at ( x1 y1),
where x1 = 2 and y1 > 0. Also, find the points of intersection where both tangent and normal
cut the x – axis.
x2 y 2
Q23. Find the area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse  1.
a 2 b2
Q24. Show that the height of a closed right circular cylinder of given surface and maximum
volume, is equal to the diameter of its base.
Q25. An open box with a square base is to be made out of a given quantity of cardboard of area
c3
c2 square units. Show that the maximum volume of the box is cubic units.
6 3
Q26. Prove that the radius of the right circular cylinder of greatest curved surface area which can
be inscribed in a given cone is half of that of the cone.
Q27. A window has the shape of a rectangle surmounted by an equilateral triangle. If the
perimeter of the window is 12m, find the dimensions of the rectangle that will produce the
largest area of the window.
9
Holiday Homework (2018- 2019)
Class XII
Subject: Physics
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Students are required to do this assignment in their class notebook.
3. Students are required to make one project on any topic from the prescribed
Syllabus mentioned in the practical book.
Q1. Draw an equipotential surface
(a) For a uniform electric field
(b) For a point charge < 0.
Q2. How will the capacitance of a capacitor change when a dielectric slab is introduced
between the plates of a capacitor?
Q3. How does the resistivity of a semiconductor depend upon the number density of free
electrons and temperature?
Q4. Show mathematically that the potential at a point on the equatorial line of an electric
dipole is zero.
Q5. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface
is 10 V. What is the potential at the center of the sphere?
Q6. A charge of 2 C is given to a hollow metallic sphere of radius 0.1 m. Find the potential
at (i) the surface of the sphere (ii) center of the sphere.
Q7. Calculate the Coulomb force between a proton and an electron separated by 0.8 mm.
Q8. Calculate the Value of electric field exactly balancing the weight of an electron.
Q9. Two capacitors 3 farad & 6 farad are connected in series with a 6 V battery. Which
one will have
higher potential?
Q10. Calculate the net capacitance of the given network, if each capacitor is 15 microfarad.
A c
c
c
c
Q11. If the plates of a charged capacitor are further separated while the capacitor is still
connected to the charging battery, what will happen to the energy?
1
Q12. The V-I graph for two metals is shown below. Which one will have higher resistivity?
V
A B
I
Q13. How does a torque affect the dipole in an electric field?
Q14. 27 drops of same size are charged at 220V each. They collapse to form a bigger drop.
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
Q15. Draw a plot showing the variation of electric field and potential with distance due to a
point charge.
Q16. A wire of resistance 5 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice its original
length. Calculate its original resistance.
Q17. A lamp of 100 W works at 220 volt, calculate its resistance and current capacity.
Q18. Why are thick copper wires used as connecting wire?
Q19. Why is the use of a potentiometer preferred over that of a voltmeter for measurement of
E.M.F of a cell?
Q20. The storage battery of a car has an E.M.F. of 12 V. If the internal resistance of the battery
is 0.4 ohm, what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?
2
Class XII
Subject: Chemistry
General Instructions:-
1. Do the given assignment in the separate notebook (Thin one)
2. H.H.W. to be submitted on 29.06.18. In case of late submission of work or incomplete
work, marks will be deducted which will affect the marks in the practical exam.
3. Make the project on the selected topic without filling in the observation table.
4. There will be a written test on physical chemistry after the school reopens.
5. Learn the Scheme for inorganic salt analysis by heart.
6. Write the following Salts according to salt scheme in your practical file:
(NH4)3PO4, Pb(CH3COO)2, Al2(SO4)3, ZnCl2, BaBr2
1. Solid State:
Q1.Body centred cubic lattice has a co-ordination numberof :
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 6 (d) 4
Q2. The number of atoms in 100 g of an FCC crystal with density as 10 gm cm-3 and cell
edge as 200 pm is equal to :
(a) 3 x 1025 (b) 5 x 102(c) 1 x 1025 (d) 2 x 1025
Q3. In an hcp structure of atoms, fraction of volume occupied is A and in ccp structure, the
fraction is B. Then relation between A and B is :
(a) A=B (b) A<B (c) A> B (d) none
Q4. Total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal systems is :
(a) 8 (b) 7(c) 6 (d) 14
Q5. Which of the following crystals does not exhibit Frenkel defect?
(a) AgBr (b) AgCl(c) KBr (d) ZnS
Q6.A semiconductor of Ge can be made p-type by adding:
(a) In (b) P(c) Si (d) As
Q7. The major binding force in silica is:
(a) Ionic Bonds (b) Vander Waal Forces (c) Metallic bonds (d) Covalent Bonding
Q8. Na and Mg crystallise in BCC and FCC type crystals, respective numbers of Na and Mg
atoms per unit cell are:
(a) 4 and 2 (b) 2 and 1(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Q9. An element with atomic mass 10 gm/ mol crystallise in BCC structure. The density of the
crystal is:
(a) 2.144 gm cm-3(b) 10.376 gm cm-3(c) 5.188 gm cm-3 (d) 7.289 gm cm-3
Q10. Glass is a .................. solid:
(a) Microcrystalline (b) Polymeric (c) Super cooled (d) Long range
Q11. Density of a crystal remains unchanged as a result of:
(a) Frenkel defect (b) Interstitial defect(c) Vacancy defect (d) Schottky defect
Q12. Which of the following statements about amorphous solids is incorrect?
(a) They have a range of melting points.
(b) They are anisotropic.
(c) They have disturbed arrangement of particles.
(d) They are rigid and incompressible.Q13. If Z is the number of atoms per unit cell in FCC,
then the number of tetrahedral voids is:
(a) 8 (b) 1(c) 6 (d) 4
1
Q14. Highest melting point is exhibited by:
(a) Ionic solids (b) Metallic Solids (c) Covalent Solids (d) Molecular Solids
Q15. A crystalline solid has a cubic structure in which W atoms are located at the cube
corners, O atoms at the face centres and Na atoms at body centre. The molecular
formula of the compound is:
(a) NaWO3 (b) Na2WO4(c) Na2WO3 (d) NaWO4
..............................................................................
2. Solutions:
Q1.Freezing point of 1 m solution of NaCl assuming complete dissociation is(Kf for H2O
is1.86 Kmolal-1)
(a) 1.86 OC(b) -1.86 OC(c) -3.92 OC (d) 3.92 OC
Q2. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
(a) K2SO4 (b) NaCl(c) NH2CONH2 (d) C6H12O6
Q3. Saturated solution of NaCl on heating becomes:
(a) Supersaturated (b) Unsaturated(c) Remains saturated (d) none
Q4. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
(a) Lowering of vapour pressure (b) Depression in freezing point
(c) Elevation in boiling point(d) Diffusion gradient
Q5. Which of the following pairs of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same
temperature?
(a) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl (b) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(c) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4(d) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
Q6.A 0.6% solution of urea would be isotonic with:
(a) 0.1 M Glucose (b) 0.1 M KCl(c) 0.6% Glucose (d) 0.6% KCl
Q7. Equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl are mixed. The concentration of NO3-
ions in the mixture will be:
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.2 M(c) 0.15 M (d) 0.05 M
Q8. Equivalent mass of crystalline oxalic acid will be:
(a) 90 (b) 126(c) 53 (d) 63
Q9. Vapour pressure of CCl4 at 25 OC is 143 mmHg. 0.5 gm of non volatile solute (mol
weight = 65 g/mol) is dissolved in 100 ml CCl4. Find the vapour pressure of solution
(density of CCl4is 1.58 g cm-3).
(a) 141.93 mm (b) 94.39 mm(c) 143.99 mm (d) 199.34 mm
Q10. What is the molarity of H2SO4solution that has a density of 1.84 g cm-3at 35 OC and
contains 98% by weight?
(a) 18.4 M (b) 8.14 M(c) 4.18 M (d) 17.9 M
Q11. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273K when 10 g glucose (p1), 10 g urea
(p2) and 10 g sucrose (p3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water separately is:
(a) p1>p2>p3 (b) p3>p1>p2(c) p2>p1>p3 (d) p2>p3>p1
Q12. In an ideal solution of MeOH and EtOH, partial vapour pressures of the two
components are 2.619 k Pa and 4.556 kPa respectively. Mole fraction of MeOH in
vapour phase is:
(a) 0.635(b) 0.365(c) 0.173 (d) 0.574
Q13. A 5% solution of C12H22O11is isotonic with 1% solution of substance X. Molecular
mass of X is:
(a) 171.2 (b) 68.4(c) 34.2 (d) 136.2
Q14. For determination of molecular mass of proteins which colligative property is used :
(a) Osmotic pressure (b) Osmosis(c) Diffusion pressure (d) Boiling point
2
Q15. A 1 litre solution of 0.5 M H2SO4solution is diluted to 15 litres, normality of resulting
solution is:
(a) 0.066 (b) 0.033(c) 0.015 (d) 0.132
....................................................................
3. Electrochemistry:
Q1.Stronger the oxidising agent, greater is the:
(a) Reduction potential (b) Oxidation potential(c) Ionic Behaviour (d) none
Q2. For measuring the conductivity of an electrolyte, its solution should be prepared in:
(a) Tap water (b) Conductivity water (c) Distilled water (d) none
Q3. If half cell reaction A + e- A-has a large negative reduction potential, it follows that:
(a) A gets readily reduced (b) A gets readily oxidised
(c) A- gets readily reduced(d) A- gets readily oxidised
Q4. The amount of electricity that can deposit 108 gm silver from AgNO3 solution will be:
(a) 1 Ampere (b) 1 Faraday(c) 1 Coulomb (d) 1 esu
Q5. During the electrolysis of dilute H2SO4using Pt electrode:
(a) H2 is liberated at anode (b) H2 is liberated at cathode
(c) H2O is liberated at anode (d) O2 is liberated at cathode
Q6.An unknown metal M displaces Ni from NiSO4but doesn’t displace Mn from MnSO4.
The correct order of reducing power is:
(a) Mn>Ni>M (b) Ni>M>Mn(c) Mn> M > Ni (d) M>Ni>Mn
Q7. The ΛOm of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 cm2mol/ Ω2
respectively. Then ΛOmof CH3COOH will be:
(a) 201.28 Ω-1cm2mol-1(b) 390.71 Ω-1cm2mol-1
(c) 698.28 Ω-1cm2mol-1 (d) 540.48 Ω-1cm2mol-1
Q8. A depolariser in the dry cell is:
(a) Zn container (b) NH4Cl paste(c) MnO2(d) Graphite rod
Q9. Mark the false statement with respect to an electrochemical cell :
(a) electrons are released at anode (b) Cathode is negative electrode
(c) Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(d) Salt bridge is used to maintain electrical neutrality
Q10. The specific conductivity of a 0.1 M KCl solution is 0.012 Ω-1cm-1 and resistance is
found to be 55 Ω. The cell constant is:
(a) 0.142 cm-1(b) 0.66 cm-1(c) 0.918 cm-1 (d) 1.12 cm-1
Q11. ΛOm of Ba2+ and Cl-are 127.32 and 76.34 Scm2mol-1respectively. What is the ΛOmfor
BaCl2?
(a) 280Scm2mol-1 (b) 330.98 Scm2mol-1
2 -1
(c) 90.98 Scm mol (d) 201.28 Scm2mol-1
Q12. Standard E values are Fe2+/Fe = -0.44 V, Fe3+/Fe2+ = 0.77 V. If Fe2+, Fe3+ and Fe
o
blocks are kept together, then:

(a) Fe2+ decreases (b) Fe3+increases(c) Fe3+ decreases (d) Fe increases
Q13. Zinc gives H2 with dilute H2SO 4 and HCl but not with HNO3 because:
(a) Zn acts as an oxidising agent when reacts with HNO3
(b) HNO3is a weaker acid than H2SO4 and HCl
(c) NO3–is reduced in preference to hydronium ion
(d) Zn lies above hydrogen in electrochemical series
Q14. The e.m.f. of a Daniel cell at 298Kis E1 Zn|Zn2+ (0.01M)|| Cu2+ (1.0M) |Cu. When the
concentration of Zn2+ is 1.0M and that of Cu2+is 0.01M, the e.m.f. changes to E2.
3
Therefore:
(a) E2 =0 ≠ E1(b) E1>E2(c) E1<E2(d) E1=E2
Q15.If 3 Faraday of electricity is passed through the solutions of AgNO3, CuSO4 and through
the solutions of AgNO3, CuSO4 and AuCl3, then the molar ratio of cations deposited at
cathode is:
(a) 1:2:3(b) 3:2:1(c) 6:3:2 (d) 1:3:2
.......................................................................
4. Chemical Kinetics:
Q1. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a)The rate of a reaction decreases with passage of time as the concentration of
reactants decreases.
(b)The rate of a reaction is same at any time during the reaction.
(c)The rate of a reaction is independent of temperature.
(d)The rate of reaction decreases with increase in concentration of reactant(s).
Q2. Rate law for the reaction A+2B → C is found to be
Rate = k [A][B].
Concentration of reactant ‘B’ is doubled, keeping the concentration of ‘A’ constant. The
value of rate constant will be:
(a)the same (b)doubled(c)quadrupled (d) halved
Q3. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 1.26 x 1014s. How much time would it take for
100% completion?
(a)1.26x1015 s (b)2.52x1014s(c)2.52x1028s (d) infinite
Q4. The time required for the completion of zero order reaction is:
(a) ak(b) a/2k (c) a/k (d) 2k/a
Q5. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the collision theory of chemical
reaction?
(a) It considers reacting molecules or atoms to be hard spheres and ignores their
Structural features.
(b)Number of effective collisions determines the rate of a reaction.
(c)Collision of atoms or molecules possessing sufficient threshold energy results into the
product formation.
(d)Molecules should collide with sufficient threshold energy and proper orientation for
an effective collision.
Q6. In the graph of Maxwell Boltzmann distribution of energy,________. Fill in the suitable
statement.
(a) area under the curve does not change with increase in temperature.
(b) area under the curve increases with increase in temperature.
(c) area under the curve decreases with increase in temperature.
(d) with increase in temperature curve broadens and shifts to the right hand side.
Q7. The rate of reaction doubles for every 10°C rise in temperature. If the temperature is
raised by 50°C, the rate of reaction increases by about
(a)10times (b)24times(c)32times (d)64times
Q8. Mark the incorrect statement.
(a)Catalyst provides an alternative pathway to reaction mechanism.
(b)Catalyst raises the activation energy.
(c)Catalyst lowers the activation energy.
(d)Catalyst alters enthalpy change of a reaction.
Q9. A first order reaction has rate constant k = 5.5x10-14s-1. The half of the reaction will be:
4
(a)1.54x1012s (b)1.26x1014s(c)1.26x1013s (d) 1.54x1013s
Q10. A first order reaction takes 100 min for completion of 60% of the reaction. The time
when 90% of the reaction will be completed will be :
(a)450.85s (b)251.25s(c)115.07s (d)206.39s
Q11. The rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are 0.02s-1 and 0.07s-1 respectively.
The activation energy for the reaction will be:
(a)21.44 kJ/mol (b)55.42 kJ/mol(c)11.58 kJ/mol (d)18.23kJ/mol
Q12. Which of the following factors do not control the rate of a chemical reaction?
(a)Nature of the reactants (b)Concentration of the reactants
(c)Temperature (d)Concentration of products
Q13. If half life period of first order reaction is ‘x’ and th life period of the same is ‘y’, the
relation between ‘x’ and ‘y’ is:
(a)y = 2x (b) x = 2y (c) x = y (d) x = y
Q14. For the reaction U → V, the rate of reaction becomes 3 times when the concentration of
A is increased 27 times. The order of the reaction is:
(a)3 (b) (c) (d) zero
Q15. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the order of the reaction?
(a) Order can be determined only experimentally.
(b) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.
(c) Order of the reaction is the sum of the powers to the concentration terms of
reactants to express the rate of the reaction.
(d) Order of the reaction is always a whole number.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
5
Class XII
Subject: Biology
General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Students are required to do this assignment in the class work notebook.
3. Students are required to make one projecton any topic from the prescribed
syllabus mentioned in the practical book.
Topic:
1. Reproduction in organisms
2. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants
3. Human reproduction
4. Reproductive health
Q1.Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction inspite of its complexity. Why?
Q2.Tapeworms possess both male and female reproductive organs. What is the name given
to such an organism? Give two more examples of such organisms.
Q3.Study the relationship between first two words and suggest a suitable word for
fourth place. (a) Male flower : Stamens :: Female Flower : .............................
(b) Birds : oviparous :: Primates : ............................. (c) Chlamydomonas : Zoospores
:: Penicillium : ............................. (d) Ginger : Rhizome :: Agave : .............................
Q4.Bryophytes and Pteridophytes produce a large number of male gametes but
relatively very few female gametes. Why?
Q5.Why do hilly areas of Kerela, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu transform into blue
stretches that attract many tourists?
Q6.Define ‘oestrus’ and ‘menstrual’ cycles.
Q7.What regulates the reproduction processes and the associated behavioural expressions
in organisms?
Q8.Mention the different stages of sexual reproduction.
Q9.In angiospermic plant before formation of microspore, sporogenoustissue undergoes
cell division (a) Name the type of cell division. (b) What would be the ploidy of the
cells of tetrad?
Q10.Outer envelope of pollen grain is made of a highly resistant substance. What is
that substance? At which particular point is the substance not present?
Q11.Fruits generally develop from ovary, but in few species thalamus contributes to
fruit formation. (a) Name the two categories of fruits. (b) Give one example of each.
Q12.Among the animal, insects particularly bees are the dominant pollinating agents.
List any four characteristic features of the insect pollinated flower.
Q13.Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy.
Q14.Even though each pollen grain has two male gametes then why are at least 10
pollen grains required to fertilise 10 ovules present in a particular carpel?
Q15.Describe the structure of a microsporangium with a neatly labelled diagram.
Q16.Why can pollen grains remain well preserved as fossils?
Q17.How are the cells arranged in an embryo sac?
Q18.Why are cleistogamous flowers invariably autogamous?
Q19.State any one advantage and disadvantage of pollen grains to humans.
Q20.Which type of pollination ensures the arrival of genetically different pollen grains?
Q21.What relationship exists between a species of moth and Yucca plant?
Q22.Draw a labelled diagram of mature embryo sac and label the following i) Egg cell
ii) Antipodal cells iii) Synergidsiv) Polar nuclei
Q23.Mention two strategies evolved by flowers to prevent self-pollination .
Q24.What is apomixis? What is its importance?
Q25.Mention the name and role of hormones which are involved in regulation of
gamete formation in human male.
Q26.Three of the steps of neuro endocrine mechanism in respect of parturition are
mentioned below. Write the missing steps in proper sequence. (a) Signals originate
from fully developed foetus and placenta. (b) ______________________________.
(c) ______________________________. (d) Oxytocin causes strong uterine
contraction (e) Uterine contraction stimulates further secretion of oxytocin.
(f) ______________________________
Q27.T.S. of mammalian testis revealing seminiferous tubules show different types of cell.
(i) Name the two types of cells of germinal epithelium. (ii) Name of cells scattered
in connective tissue and lying between seminiferous tubules. Differentiate
between them on the basis of their functions.
Q28.What are the various male accessory glands? Give their function.
Q29.Explain the menstrual cycle with a diagram.
Q30.Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Q31. ‘A fertilized egg is the blue print of future development’. Explain
Q32.Lactational Amenorrhea is a method of contraception Justify.
Q33.How are non medicated IUD’s different from hormone releasing IUD’s? Give examples.
Q34.What are implants? How do they help in preventing fertilisation?
Q35.Enlist any four possible reasons for infertility in human beings.
Q36.What does GIFT represent?
Q37.How does Cu- T act as a contraceptive?
Q38.Mention any four probable reasons for the rapid rise of population in our country?
Q39.What are STDs? Mention any two of it.
Q40.What are MTPs ? Under what conditions are MTP’s are legally permitted?
Q41.What are test tube babies? Are they different from normal babies?
.....................................................................................................................................
Class XII
Subject: Computer Science (083)
Note: All questions are to be done in Computer Science Register only.

Topic: BOOLEAN ALGEBRA
1. Obtain the simplified form of a Boolean expression using Karnaugh map.
F(U,V,W,X) = ∑ (0,3, 4, 5, 7, 11, 13, 15)
2. AND and NOR gates called Universal gates. Why?
3. Write the Sum of Product (SOP) and Product of Sum (POS) form of the function
G(U,V,W). Truth table representation of G is as follows:
U V W G
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1
0 1 1 0
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1
4. Convert P+Q’R to product of sum.

5. Convert X+YZ into sum of product
6. In Boolean algebra, verify using truth table that (X + Y)’ = X’ Y’ for each X, Y in (0, 1).
7. Draw the logic circuit diagram for the following expression :
Y = a’b’c+ab’c+a’b’c’+abc
8. Prepare a truth table for X’ Y Z’ + X Y’
9. Write the equivalent expression for the following logic circuit :
1
10. State and verify the following law(algebraic method and truth table)
(1) DISTRIBUTIVE LAW
(2) COMMUTATIVE LAW
(3) ABSORPTION LAW
(4) DEMORGAN’s LAW
(5) ASSOCIATIVE LAW
11. Reduce the following Boolean expression using K-Map:
F(P, Q, R, S) = π (0,3,5,6,7, 11, 12, 15)
12. Write the equivalent Canonical Product of Sum Expression for the following Sum of
Product Expression F(X, Y, Z) = (0, 2, 4, 5)
13. Design the circuit for the following expression with the help only NAND gates.
F=(a’b’c)+(a’b’c’)+(ab’c)
14. Design the circuit for the following expression with the help only NOR gates.
F=(a+b+c’).(a’+b’+c’).(a’+b’+c’)
Chapter: Classes & Objects, Constructors & Destructors, Inheritance
1. Define a class TAXPAYER in C++ with following description:

Private members :
Name of type string
PanNo of type string
Taxabincm (Taxable income) of type float
TotTax of type double
A function CompTax( ) to calculate tax according to the following slab:
Taxable Income Tax%
Up to 160000 0
>160000 and <=300000 5
>300000 and <=500000 10
>500000 15
Public members:
 A parameterized constructor to initialize all the members
 A function INTAX( ) to enter data for the tax payer and call function CompTax( )
to assign TotTax.
 A function OUTAX( ) to allow user to view the content of all the data members.
2. Define a class ELECTION with the following specifications. Write a suitable main ( )
function also to declare 3 objects of ELECTION type and find the winner and display the
details.
Private Members :
Data : Candidate_Name , Party , Vote Received
Public members :
Functions : Enterdetails ( ) – to input data
Display ( ) – to display the details of the candidates
Winner ( ) – To display the details of the winner through the object after
comparing the votes received by three candidates.
2
3. Define a class Stock in C+ + with the following description:
Private Members
 ICode of type integer (Item Code)
 Item of type string (Item Name)
 Price of type float(Price of each item)
 Qty of type integer (quantity in stock)
 Discount of type float (Discount percentage on the item)
 A member function FindDisc( ) to calculate discount as per the following rule:
If Qty<=50 Discount is 0
If Qty (51 and100) Discount is 5
If Qty>100 Discount is 10
Public Members:
 A constructor to assign all values with 0 and null respectively
 A function Buy( ) to allow user to enter values for ICode, Item, Price, Qty and call
function FindDisc( ) to calculate the discount.
 A Function ShowAll( ) to allow user to view the content of all the data members.
4. Define a class BALANCED_MEAL in C++ with following description:

Private Members:
Access_no Integer
Food_Name String of 25 characters
Calories Integer
Food_type String
Cost Float
AssignAccess( ) Generates random numbers between 10 and 99 and return it.
Public Members
 A function INTAKE( ) to allow the user to enter the values of Food_Name,
Calories, Food_type, cost and call function AssignAccess( ) to assign Access_no.
 A function OUTPUT( ) to allow user to view the content of all the data members, if the
Food_type is Fruit. Otherwise display message, “Display only for fruit”.
5. Define a class named DRAMA in C++ with the following description

Private members
SHOW_NO integer
NAME_OF_THE_DRAMA Array of characters (String)
DAY integer (Total number of days the same drama is shown)
DAILY_COLLECTION float
TOTAL_COLLECTION float
Public Members
input_data : A user defined function to read an object of ENTRY type
print_data : A function to display the details of an object
update_data: A function to update the total collection and daily collection once the day
changes. Total collection will be incremented by daily collection and daily collection is
made Zero
3
6. Define a class SUPPLY in C++ with following description:
Private Members:
• Code of type integer
• FoodName of type string
• Sticker of type string
• FoodType of type string
• A member function GetType() to assign the following values for FoodType as per the given
Sticker:
Sticker FoodType
GREEN Vegetarian
YELLOW Contains Egg
RED Non-Vegetarian
Public Members:
• A function FoodIn ( ) to allow user to enter values for Code, FoodName,Sticker and call
function GetType ( ) to assign respective FoodType.
• A function FoodOut ( ) to allow user to view the content of all the data members..
7. Harshit has just started working as programmer in the WORLD SOFTWARE company. In the
company, he has got his first assignment to develop a small C++ module to find the smallest
number out of a given set of numbers stored in a one dimensional array. Somehow he has
committed a few logical mistakes while writing this code and so he is not getting the desired
result from the code. Find out the mistakes and correct this C++ code so that it provides the
desired result (do not add any new statement in the code). Underline each correction made:
int SMALLFIND(int ARR,int Size) // Statement 1
{int SMALL=ARR[1]; //Statement 2
for (int C=2;C<Size;C++) //Statement 3
if (ARR[C]>SMALL) //Statement 4
ARR[C]=SMALL; //Statement 5
return SMALL; //Statement 6
}
8. Define a class Train in C++ with following description:

Private Members
src of type string
Tnm of type string
dest of type string
charges of float
• A member function Getdata to assign the following values for Charges
dest charages
Mumbai 1000,
Chennai 2000
Kolkatta 2500.
Public members
 A parameterize constructor to initialize the data members.
4
 A function InputData() to allow the user to enter the values
 A function displaydata() to display all and call getdata function
9. Consider the following class counter:

class counter
{ protected :
unsigned int count;
public :
counter()
{ count = 0; }
void inc_count()
{ count++; }
int get_count()
{ return count; }
};
Write code in C++ to publically derive another class new_counter from class counter.
Class new_counter should have the following additional function members in the public
visibility mode:
(i) A parameterized constructor to initialize the value of count to the value of parameter.
(ii) Reset( ) to set the value of data member count to 0.
(iii) dec_count() to decrease the value of data member count by 1.
10. What is the relationship of a class and its objects? How is memory allocated to a class and its
objects?
11. How does class enforce data hiding, abstraction and encapsulation?
12. What is wrong with the following code?

class XYZ{
Public
int setvar();
char readvar();
void setvar();
Protected:
int x=10;
char ch;
};
13. What will be the output for the following?
#include<iostream.h>
void main()
{
stud roll;
};
roll roll;
roll.roll=100;
cout<<”roll=”<<roll;
}
5
14. What do you mean by Abstraction & Encapsulation? How are these terms interrelated?
15. Illustrate the use of typedef . Explain # define pre-processor.
16. Write two major differences between Object Oriented Programming & Procedural
Programming.
17. How is structure different from an array?
18. Give the output of the following program:
#include <iostream.h>
int global = 10;
void func (int &x, int y)
{
x = x-y; y=x*10;
cout<<x<<”,”<<y<< “\n”; }
void main ()
{ int global = 7;
func (:: global, global);
cout<<global<< “,”<<::global<<“\n”;
func (global,::global);
cout<<global<< “,”<<::global<< “\n”; }
19. Write the output of the following program.
int func(int & x, int y = 10)
{
if(x%y==0) return ++x; else return 0;
}
void main( )
{
int p = 20, q = 23;
q = func (p,q);
cout<<p<<q<<endl;
p = func(q);
cout<<p<<q<<endl;
q = func(p);
cout<<p<<q<<endl;
}
20. Write the output of the following program:
voidNumValue (int & A,int B = 25)
{ int Temp = A-B;
A+= Temp;
if(B==25)
cout<<A<<Temp<<endl;
}
void main( )
{ int x=100,y=200;
NumValue(x);
6
cout<<x<<y<<endl;
Numvalue(y,x);
cout<<x<<y<<endl;
}
21. What would be the output of the following?
#include <iostream.h>
void main()
{ float val;
val=2 + (float)7/(int)2.0;
cout<< “\n”<<val;
}
22. Identify the errors in the following program
main( )
{
float class = 10.7;
float y;
y = class % 5.0;
cout<<class<< “---”<<y;
}
23. What will be the output of the following program?

void main()
{ int v1=5, v2=10;
for (int x=1; x<=2;x++)
{
cout<<++v1<< “\t”<<v2--<<endl;
cout<<--v2<< “\t”<<v1++<<endl;
}
}
24. Rewrite the following program after removing syntax errors if any:-
#include (iostream.h)
void main ( )
{
int x[ ] = {60,50,30,40}, y; cout=4;
cin>>y;
for (I = count 1; I>=0,I--)
switch (I)
{
case 0 :
case 2 : cout <<y*x[I]<<endl;break;
case 1 :
case 3 : cout >>y+x[I];
}
7
}
25 Give the output:-

int & max (int & x,int & y)
{
if(x>y)
return (x);
else return (y); }
void main( )
{
int A=10 ,B=13;
max (A,B) = -1;
cout<< “A=”<<A<<”B=”<<B<<endl;
max (B,A)=7;
cout<<”A=”<<A++<<”B=”<<B--<<endl;
max (A,B)=3;
cout<<”A=”<<A<<”B=”<<B<<endl;}
26. Give the output:
# include<iostream.h>
struct Pixel
{ int C,R;
};
void Display(Pixel P)
{
cout<<”col”<<P.C<<”Row”<<P.R<<end”l;
}
void main()
{ Pixel x={40,50},y,z;
z=x;
x.C+ =10;
y=z;
y.C + =10;
y.R + =20;
z.C- = 15;
Display (x);
Display(y);
Display(z);
}
27. Find syntax errors, if any
a)# include<iostream.h>
struct Group
{
int x1,x2:
8
}
void main()
{
G1, G2 Group;
cin>> G1.x1<<G2.x2;
G2 = G1;
cout<< G2.x2<<G2.x1<<endl:
2 + = G1.x1
cout<<G1.x1<<G1.x2<<endl;}
b)#include<iostream.h>
void main()
{
struct stud { int roll;int age; };
stud s1 = {101,15};
stud s2 = s1;
if(s1==s2)
cout<<”the structures are equal”;

else
cout<<”the structures are not equal”;
}
28. Give the output of the following program:

int area(int s)
{
return(s*s);}
float area(int b, int h)
{
return(0.5*b*h);}
void main()
{ cout<<area(5)<<endl;
cout<<area(4,3)<<endl;
cout<<area(6,(area(3)))<<endl;
}
29. Consider the following and answer the questions given below:
class MNC
{
char Cname[25]; // Company name
protected :
char Hoffice[25]; // Head office
public :
MNC( );
char Country[25];
9
void EnterData( );
void DisplayData(
);
};
class Branch : public MNC

{
long NOE; // Number of employees
char Ctry[25]; // Country
protected:
void Association( );
public :
Branch( );
void Add( );
void Show( );
};
class Outlet : public Branch
{
char State[25];
public :
Outlet();
void Enter();
void Output();};
(i) Which class’s constructor will be called first at the time of declaration of an object of
class Outlet?
(ii) How many bytes does an object belonging to class Outlet require?
(iii) Name the member function(s), which are accessed from the object(s) of class Outlet.
(iv) Name the data member(s), which are accessible from the object(s) of class Branch.
30. Answer the questions after going through the following class.
class Exam
{char Subject[20] ;
int Marks ;
public :
Exam() // Function 1
{strcpy(Subject, “Computer” ) ; Marks = 0 ;}
Exam(char P[ ]) // Function 2
{strcpy(Subject, P) ;
Marks=0 ;
}
Exam(int M) // Function 3
{strcpy(Subject, “Computer”) ; Marks = M ;}
Exam(char P[ ], int M) // Function 4
{strcpy(Subject, P) ; Marks = M ;}
};
a) Which feature of the Object Oriented Programming is demonstrated using
Function 1, Function2, Function 3 and Function 4 in the above class Exam?
b) Write statements in C++ that would execute Function 3 and Function 4 of class Exam.
10
Class XII
Subject: Accountancy
(i) The holiday homework contains chapter wise short answers questions and long
answers questions.
(ii) The students are required to attempt them in a separate register.
(iii) Show your working notes clearly.
Chapter: Partnership--Fundamentals
Q1. Mahesh (aged 27 years), Manmohan (aged 30 years) and Manoher (aged 16 years)
decided to form a partnership firm. Is the formation of partnership firm valid? Give
reason.
Q2. What are the provisions to be followed according to Indian Partnership Act,1932 in
the absence of a partnership deed?
Q3. During the year ending 31st March,2018 a partner withdraws `8,000 in the beginning
of every month starting from July1,2017. What will be the average period for which
interest on drawings will be calculated?
Q4. A and B are partners sharing the profits and losses equally, with capitals of `2,00,000
and `1,00,000 respectively. On 1st October,2017, A granted loan of `40,000 to the
firm. Show the distribution of profits/losses for the year ended 31st march, 2018 if the
profits before interest for the year amounted to `25,000. Prepare Profit and Loss
Appropriation A/c.
Q5. Amit and Sunil are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. Their fixed
capitals are `2,00,00 and `3,00,000 respectively. Firm is working in the premises
owned by Amit. The annual rent of the premises is fixed at `70,000. Show the
distribution of profits/losses for the year 2017-18 if yearly profits before charging rent
of the premises are `2,00,000.
Q6. A & B are partners. The net profit earned during the year is `12,08,000. Interest on
partners’ drawings is `16,000. A’s salary is `16,000 per quarter. B is paid an annual
commission of `10,000. The net divisible profit as per profit & Loss Appropriation is
`5,00,000. Calculate the amount paid to B as commission.
Q7. A partnership Deed provides for payment of interest on capital but there was a loss
instead of profit during the year 2017-18. At what rate will the interest on capital be
allowed?
Q8. If the partners’ capital accounts are fixed, where will you record the following items:
i) Salary to the partners
ii) Drawings made by a partner
iii) Interest on capital and
iv) Share of profit earned by a partner.
Q9. A and B formed a partnership on 1st April, 2018. They agreed that out of profits:
(a) A should receive a salary of `10,000 per month;
(b) Interest on capitals should be allowed @ 5% p.a. and
(c) Remaining profits be divided in the ratio of 3:2.
A contributed a capital of `5,00,000 on 1stApril, 2017 but B brought in his capital of
`4,00,000 on 1stJuly,2017. During the year, the drawings were: A `60,000 and B
`80,000. Profits for the year ended 31st March, 2018 before the above noted salary and
1
interest was`2,50,000. Pass the necessary Journal entries for the above transactions.
Q10. Suman and Sudha were partners in a firm sharing profits equally. Their fixed capitals
were `50,000 and `25,000 respectively. The partnership Deed provided interest on
capital at the rate of 12% p.a. for the year ended 31st March,2018, the profits of the
firm were distributed without providing interest on capital. Pass the necessary Journal
entry to rectify the error.
Q11. A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1
respectively with a guarantee of minimum profits to C for `15,000. The total profits
of the firm for the year ended on 31stMarch,2018 amounted `1,20,000. Any excess
payable to C on account of such guarantee shall be borne by B. Pass the necessary
Journal entries andPrepare a Profit and Loss AppropriationAccount to show the
distribution of profits as per terms of the partnership deed.
Q12. Find out the normal rate of return if the Super Profits are `50,000, Average Profits
are`1,50,000 and Goodwill of the firm is `1,00,000.
Q13.The average net profit expected in future by G.Lal and Co. is `30,000 per year. The
average capital employed in the business by the firm is `2,00,000. The normal rate of
return on capital employed in a similar business is 10%. Calculate the goodwill of the
firm by:
(i) Super Profit Method on the basis of two years’ purchase and
(ii) Capitalisation of Super Profit Method.
Chapter: Reconstitution of Partnership: Change in Profit Sharing Ratio

Q1. X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Calculate new profit-
sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio in each of the following cases:
Case 1. If Z acquires 1/5th share from X.
Case2. If Z acquires 1/5th share equally from X and Y.
Case 3. If X, Y and Z decide to share the future profits and losses equally.
Q.2. A,B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2:1. They admitted
D as a new partner for 1/8th share in the profits, which he acquired 1/16th from B and
1/16th from C. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of A,B,C and D.
Q.3. Ram, Mohan and Geeta at present share profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2.
They decide to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 3;2:5 with effect from 1st
April, 2018. Goodwill of the firm has been valued at `3,60,000. Show Journal entries
under each of the following alternative cases.
Case 1. When no Goodwill appear in the books.
Case 2. When goodwill appears in the books of `2,00,000.
Q.4 Pankaj and Naresh were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. Their
fixed capitals were `5,00,000 and `3,00,000 respectively. On 1st January,2017
Saurabh was admitted as a new partner for 1/5th share in the profits. Saurabh acquired
his share of profit from Pankaj. Saurabh brought `3,00,000 as his capital which was to
be kept fixed like the capitals of Pankaj and Naresh.
Q.5. Ganesh, Shivam and Gopi are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio
of 2:1:2respectively. Their fixed capitals were `6,00,000, `4,00,000 and `5,00,000
respectively. The interest on capital for the year 2018 was credited to them @ 10%
p.a. instead of 12% p.a.Their drawings during the year were `10,000,`15,000 and
`20,000 respectively. Showing your working notes clearly, pass the necessary
adjusting Journal entry.
2
Chapter:Admission of A Partner
Q1. Amit and Sunita are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2 respectively.
They admitted Vinita as a new partner for 1/4th share. The new profit-sharing ratio
between Anita and Sunita will be 2:1. Calculate their sacrificing ratio.
Q2. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses equally. Z enters for 1/8th share which
he acquires in the form as half of it as gift from A and remaining equally from both.
Find A’s new share?
Q3. Pass the Journal entries for increase in the value of assets and decrease in the value of
liabilities inthe Revaluation A/c?
Q4. At the time of admission of a partner where will you record ‘unrecorded liability’?
Q5. At the time of admission of a new partner, workmen’s compensation reserve wa
sappearing in the Balance sheet at `10,000. Give journal entry
(i) If workmen’s compensation at the time of admission is estimated at `12,000.
(ii) If workmen’s compensation at the time of admission is estimated at `8,000.
Q6. Enumerate the matters that need adjustment at the time of admission of a newPartner.
Q7. Give the two circumstances in which Sacrificing Ratio may be applied?
Q8. Why is it necessary to revalue assets and reassess liabilities of a firm in case of
admission of a new partner?
Q9. Under what circumstances will the premium for goodwill paid by an incoming Partner
not be recorded in the books of accounts?
Q10. A and B share profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3respectively, they admit C with
3/7thshare;Of which he gets 2/7thshare from A’s share and 1/7thshare from B’s share.
What is the new profit sharing ratio?
Q11 A and B are partners sharing in the ratio of 3:2respectively. C is admitted. C gets his
3/20th of A’ share and 1/20th of B’s share. Calculate the new ratio.
Q12. X and Y are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of
3:2respectively.Z is admitted for 1/6thshare in profits. Z acquires his share from X and
Y in the ratio of 2:1respectively. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of the partners.
Q13. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of
3:2respectively.C is admitted as a new partner. A surrenders 1/5thof his share and B
2/5thof his share in favour of C. For purpose of C’s admission, goodwill of the firm is
valued at `75,000 and C brings his share of goodwill in cash which is retained in the
business books. Journalise the above transactions.
Q14. Anubhav and Babita are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of
3:2respectively. On April 1, 2013, they admitted Deepak as a new partner for 3/13th
share in the profits. Deepak contributed the following assets towards his capitaland
for his share of goodwill :Land` 90,000, machinery ` 70,000, stock ` 60,000 and
debtor ` 40,000. On the date of admission of Deepak, the goodwill of the firm was
valued at `5,20,000.Record necessary Journal entries in the books of the firm.
Q15. A, B, C and D are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 3 : 2 : 2 respectively. D
retires and A, B and C decide to share future profits in the ratio of 3 :2 : 1
respectively. The Goodwill of the firm is valued at `3,00,000. Goodwill appears in the
books at `2,25,000. Give the necessary Journal entries to record Goodwill.
Q16. A and B are partners with capitals of ` 26,000 and ` 22,000 respectively. They admit
C as partner with 1/4thshare in the profits of the firm. C brings `26,000 as his share of
capital. Give journal entry to record the goodwill on C’s admission.
Q17.Rajat and Ravi are partners sharing profits in the capital ratio. Their Balance Sheet as
at31st March, 2018 was as follows:
3
Liabilities ` Assets `
Creditors 12,000 Debtors 2,00,000
Workmen Compensation 50,000 Bank 60,000
Reserve 18,000 Stock 1,80,000
Employees Provident Fund 40,000 Machinery 6,10,000
Provision for doubtful debts Patent 10,000
Capiatl A/cs: Investment 20,000
Rajat 7,00,000 Goodwill 40,000
Ravi 3,00,000 10,00,000
11,20,000 11,20,000
Ramesh was admitted as a new partner on the following terms:
(i) He brings proportionate capital on the basis of total capital of new firm after all
adjustments.
(ii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at `40,000. Ramesh is admitted for ¼ share and unable to
bring his share of Goodwill in cash.
(iii) Claim on account of workmen compensation was `30,000.
(iv) Stock was undervalued by10%.
(v) Patents are valueless.
(vi) Investments are valued `30,000. Rajat and Ravi took over the investment at this value in
their profit sharing ratio.
Pass the necessary Journal entries and prepare Revaluation Account, Partner's Capital
Accounts and the Balance Sheet of the new firm.
Q18. A & B were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 11:4respectively. C was
admitted as a partner for 1/5th share in the profits on 1st April,2017.
The Balance Sheet of A & B as at31st March ,2018 was as follows:
Liabilities ` Assets `
Creditors 15,000 Bank 17,000
Bills Payable 30,000 Stock 29,000
Employees Provident Debtors 30,000
Fund 20,000 Less :Provision for
Workmen’s Doubtful debts 1,000 29,000
Compensation Fund 1,60,000 Plant
Capitals Land 3,00,000
A 20,00,000 Building 10,00,000
B 5,50,000 25,50,000 14,00,000
27,75,000 27,75,000
It was agreed that

i) C was to bring capital to the extent of 1/5th of the total capital of the new
firm&`1,50,000 for his share of goodwill, half of which was withdrawn by A & B.
ii) Building & Plant were to be depreciated by 20%.
iii) The Claim on account of Workmen’s Compensation was settled at`10,000.
Pass the necessary Journal entries and prepare the Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital
Accounts & the Balance Sheet of the new firm.
4
Class XII
Subject: Economics
i) The assignment is divided in two parts. Section A - textual exercise and Section B – Project work. The
questions given in the assignment should be answered in the notebook.
ii) Questions marked with an are HOTS questions.
iii) Questions indicated as ‘VBQ’ are Evaluation questions.
Section - A
Text Based Questions

Chapter 1 - Introduction To Micro Economics
Q1. Explain the central problem of ‘How to produce’ in an economy.

Q2. Economic slowdown in some parts of the world has adversely affected the demand for Indian exports.
What will be its effect on the PPC of India? Explain.
Q3. What will be the likely impact of ‘Education for All campaign’ in India on the
production possibility curve and why?
Q4. An economy produces two goods A and B.
a) Find the marginal rate of transformation from the given information.
b) Comment on the shape of the PPC along with its reason.
Output of Good-A Output of Good-B

160 0
120 10
80 20
40 30
0 40
VBQ. The government increases allocation of funds to MGNREGA to solve the problem of
large scale unemployment in India. What is the economic value of this decision in context of
PPC?
Chapter 2 - Consumer Equilibrium
Q1. Explain the relationship between total utility and marginal utility. Use diagram.
Q2. Higher the Indifference curve, higher the level of satisfaction. Explain.
1
Q3. A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y and is in equilibrium. Show the
effect of fall in the price of Good Y on the demand for Good Y. Use utility analysis.
Q4. For a consumer to be in equilibrium the ratio of Marginal Utility of two goods must be
equal to the ratio of prices of these goods. Do you agree? Is this a sufficient condition to ensure
equilibrium?
Q5. A consumer consumes only two commodities X and Y whose prices are 6 and 3 per unit
respectively. If MRSXY is 3, is the consumer in equilibrium? Give reasons. What will a rational
consumer do under this situation?
Numericals
Q1. Complete the following table
Units 1 2 3 4 5
Consumed
TU 5 9 __ 14 __
MU __ __ 3 __ 1
Q2. The following is the utility schedule of a person:
Units consumed 1 2 3 4 5
MU (in utils) 100 90 80 70 60
Suppose price of commodity is 16 and MU of 1 is 5utils. How many units will a consumer
consume? Why?
Q3. A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. Her money income is 52 and the prices of
goods X and Y are 4 and 2 respectively.
a. Write the equation of budget line.
b. What will be the slope of indifference curve when the consumer is in equilibrium? Explain.
c. How much of good Y can the consumer purchase, if he spends his entire money income on that
good?
Chapter 8- Government Budget and the Economy
*Q1. Distinguish between progressive and regressive nature of taxation.

Q2. Giving reason, categorise the following into revenue and capital receipts.
(i) Recovery of loans
(ii) Dividend on investments made by the government
2
(iii) Grants received from World Bank
Q3. In the Government of India’s budget for the year 2017-18, the Finance Minister proposed to
raise the Goods and Services Tax on demerit goods. He also proposed to increase income tax on
individuals earning more than Rupees one crore per annum.
Identify and explain the type of taxes proposed by the Finance Minister. What possible welfare
objectives is the Government considering?
*Q4. Other things remaining constant, a rise in the salary of government employees would lead to a
rise in the fiscal deficit. Defend or refute.
VBQ. Explain the effect of demonetisation of currency on the revenue deficits in the government
budget. Elucidate.
Numericals
Q1. A government budget shows primary deficit of 10,000 crores. The revenue expenditure
on interest payment is 5,000 crores. Calculate the fiscal deficit.
Q2. Calculate revenue deficit, fiscal deficit and primary deficit.

ITEMS ( in crores)
i. Revenue receipts 27,750
ii. Revenue expenditure 32,250
iii. Capital receipts (net of borrowing) 30,000
iv. Capital expenditure 38,000
v. Borrowings 12,500
vi. Interest payments 5,000
Comprehensive Question
Given below is an article from a leading newspaper. Answer the following questions based on the
given article.
Q1. Identify the type of expenditure done on ‘Ujjwala’ scheme and ‘ Housing for all’ scheme by
the government and distinguish between the two.
*Q2. What will be the likely impact of Ujjwala scheme on the demand for non-renewable sources
of energy used as fuel for domestic cooking?
*Q3. Explain the impact of allocating funds for universal healthcare on the PPC of India.
VBQ. Explain any one objective of the government budget that is being fulfilled through the
schemes mentioned above?
VBQ. What is MSP and why is it implemented?

3
4
SECTION-B
Project Work
Student should choose any one topic as suggested by CBSE and submit the first draft
(handwritten or typed) on July 03, 2017 containing:
 Introduction (Two pages)

 Meaning and definition with suitable examples (One page)
 Research articles on the topic (8 – 10 articles with facts, figures, graphs, pictures and
cartoons relevant to the topic)
 Source of information
 The project is to be done on white interleaf sheets. However, coloured pens may be used to
write the text.
 The projects must be neat and well-presented and must be completely handwritten. Avoid
use of whiteners. Written matter should not be crossed out. In case of any mistakes, redo the
sheet.
 The project must contain an external cover page, Acknowledgement, Preface and Index.
Marking Scheme: Marks are suggested to be given as –
S. Marks
Heading
No. Allotted
1. Relevance of the topic 3
Knowledge Content/Research
2. 6
Work
3. Presentation Technique 3
4. Viva 8
Total 20 Marks
5
CBSE Guidelines for Project Work in Economics (Class XII)
Students are supposed to pick any ONE of the two suggested projects.
I. Project (Option One) : What’s Going Around Us
The purpose of this project is to study the scope and repercussions of various Economic events and
happenings taking place around the country and the world.
Scope of the project: Student may work upon the following lines:
• Introduction
• Details of the topic
• Pros and Cons of the economic event/happening
• Major criticism related to the topic (if any)
• Students’ own views / perception / opinion and learning from the work
• Any other valid idea as per the perceived notion of the student who is actually working and
presenting the Project-Work.
Suggested List
1. Micro and small scale industries 2. Goods and Services Tax Act
3. Food supply channel in India 4. Inclusive growth strategy
5. Disinvestment policy 6. Human Development Index
7. Contemporary employment situation in 8. The impact of BREXIT from the

India European Union
9. Health expenditure (of any state) 10. The economics behind the
Demonetisation of 500 and 1000 Rupee
Notes
II. Project (Option Two): Analyze any concept from the syllabus
The purpose of this project is to understand the concepts of Economic theory and application of
the concept to the real life situations.
6
Scope of the project:
Following essentials are required to be fulfilled in the project.
- Meaning and Definition

- Application of the concept
- Diagrammatic Explanation (if any)
- Numerical Explanation related to the concept etc. (if any)
- Students’ own views/perception/ opinion and learning from the topic.
Suggested List
1. Price Determination 2. Credit Creation
3. Monopoly 4. Demand and its determinants
5. Price Discrimination 6. Money Multiplier
7. Oligopoly 8. Supply and its determinants
9. Opportunity Cost 10. Central Bank and its functions
11. Monopolistic Competition 12. Production – Returns to a Factor
13. Production Possibility Curve 14. Government Budget & its Components
15. Cost function and Cost Curves 16. Balance of payments
17. Budget deficit 18. Foreign Exchange Markets
19. Exchange Rate Systems 20. Any other topic
7
Class XII
Subject: Business Studies
i. All the questions must be attempted neatly in the business studies class register
only.
ii. The holiday homework of Business Studies contains chapter wise short answer,
long answer and HOTS questions.
Chapter: Marketing Management
Q1. It is necessary that goods and services must be made available to the customers at the
right place, in the right quantity and at right time.
a. Name and explain the concerned element of Marketing Mix given above.
b. Explain the components of this element.
Q2. Mario Limited is launching ‘Tango’ instant noodles as part of its strategy to expand the
Tango brand, which is so far restricted to ketchup and a ready to cook range in India. Mario
Limited is trying to enter the market by differentiating itself by rolling out Chinese variants
of instant noodles instead of the masala flavor that constitutes the bulk of the segment, and
with a price tag of 15 a packet compared to its rivals charging 10- 12 for a similar sized
pack.
The above paragraph describes the combination of variables used by Mario Limited to
prepare its market offering. Identify & explain the variables.
Q3. Design a label for an ‘Energy Drink’ and ‘Hair Shampoo’.
Q4. ‘Various tools of communication are used by the marketers to promote their products’.
(i) Name and explain the most commonly used non-personal tool which is paid for by the
marketer.
(ii) Which tool of promotion will primarily be used for the following?
(a) To promote or protect a company’s image or its individual products.
(b) An existing product meant for mass usage by literate people.
(c) To introduce a new product to a particular class of people through door-to-door visits.
Q5. Identify the marketing management philosophies used by marketers in the following
cases:
a. A detergent manufacturing company gives more quantity of detergent at the same
price.
b. An artificial jewellery manufacturing company uses metal instead of glass to enhance
durability of its products.
c. A chips manufacturer makes its chips available at almost all the retail outlets of the
city.
d. A book-seller sells the books after getting them bound.
e. A pharmaceutical company launches pain-killer sprays to facilitate convenient use and
fast relief.
1
f. A large-scale retail outlet gives goods to customers in carry bags made of paper, jute or
cloth only.
Q6. Collect and paste two labels each, for the following generic product categories:
1. Hair Oil
2. Chocolate
3. Soap
4. Toothpaste
Q7. Mansi is a shoe manufacturer for school students. She decided to maximize her profit by
producing and distributing at large scale and reducing the average cost of production.
Identify the philosophy adopted by Mansi.
Q8. With the help of examples, explain the following sales promotion activities:
(i) Refunds
(ii) Instant draw and assigned gifts
(iii) Full finance
(iv) Sampling
Q9. It is one of the elements of marketing mix which contains one of the most important
decisions that a marketer has to take to promote sales. This decision was taken by Mr.Sundar,
the sales manager of C ltd, which facilitated product identification for customers, and ensured
quality and safety norms. It also built up their confidence in the product and helped to
increase their level of need satisfaction as the consumers have a right against marketing of
such goods and services that are harmful to life and health.
a. Identify the element of marketing mix and the decision taken by Mr.Sundar that is one
of the components of this decision.
b. Name the other elements of marketing mix.
c. Identify the consumer rights being mentioned above.
d. Identify the value being emphasized by providing quality products to consumers.
Q10. Crackers ltd, a firm manufacturing crackers launched some new products on the eve of
Diwali in the market and it attracted many buyers. To meet the increased demand, the
company employed children from the neighboring villages. Though this product was in great
demand, appropriate safety warnings were not mentioned in the labels that led to many
accidents.
a. Identify and explain the product related decision that was not taken into consideration
by the company.
b. State any two values that Crackers Ltd violated.
Chapter: Consumer Protection
Q11. Rahul, a vegetarian traveling in Rajdhani Express was served food and later he found
out that it had a non-vegetarian content. His sentiments were hurt. Will Rahul be able to
claim compensation? Which right of the consumer is violated?
2
Q12. A shopkeeper sold you some spices, claiming that those were pure. Later a laboratory
test showed that those were adulterated. What precautions should you have taken before
buying and what remedies are available to you for the wrong act?
Q13. Rajat went to purchase his class XII reference book from Mangal Book Store. He was
asked to pay more than the MRP because of the shortage of this reference book with the
store. Being a registered member of a consumer organization named Common Cause in
Delhi, he denied to do so and also made a complaint against this practice.
a. Identify the value which the owner of Mangal Book store has ignored.
b. State any five points indicating the role played by Consumer Organizations and NGOs
for the protection and promotion of interest of consumers.
Q14.Sahir purchased a house for 30 lakhs from a housing company and found some
electrical defects in it. Despite many complaints the defect was not rectified. He filed a
complaint in the state commission but was not satisfied with the order. Where can he appeal
and in how many days?
Q15. Enlist various remedies available to consumer, according to Consumer Protection Act,
1986.
Chapter: Financial Management
Q16. Financial planning strives to achieve twin objectives. List them.

Q17. What is meant by Financial Management? State the primary objective of Financial
Management.
Q18. Explain the concept of ‘Trading on Equity’ with the help of a detailed numerical
example.
Q19. Vanshika Handlooms Ltd. is a company manufacturing home furnishing products. It has
been consistently earning good profits for many years. This year too, it has been able to
generate enough profits. There is availability of enough cash in the company and it has good
opportunities for growth in future. It is a well-managed organization and believes in quality,
equal employment opportunities and good remuneration practices. Many of its shareholders
prefer to receive a regular income from their investments. The company has taken a heavy
loan from ICICI Bank and is bound by certain restrictions on the payment of dividend
according to the terms of the loan agreement.
The above discussion about the company leads to various factors which decide how much
profit should be retained and how much has to be distributed by the company. By quoting
lines from the above discussion, identify and explain any four such factors.
Q20. The directors of a manufacturing company are thinking of issuing 20, 00,000
additional debentures for the expansion of their production capacity. This will lead to an
increase in debt equity ratio from 2:1 to 3:1. What are the risks involved in it? What factors
other than risk should the directors keep in mind before taking the above decision?
3
Class XII
Subject: Informatics Practices (065)
Note: Do the following questions in IP register only.

Topic: Netbeans and MySQL
1. Pranati works as a programmer in a travel company. She has developed the following code
to display travel details according to user’s choice. Help her in rewriting the same code using
SWITCH CASE:
if(choice==1)
jTextField1.setText(“New Delhi to Goa”);
else if(choice==2)
jTextField1.setText(“New Delhi to Paris”);
else if(choice==3)
jTextField1.setText(“New Delhi to Bangkok”);
else
jTextField1.setText(“Pl. choose valid option”);
2. Give the output of the following code :
int m=100;
while (m>0) {
if (m<10)
break ;
m=m‐10;
}
System.out.println ( “m is “ +m);
3. . Find the output of the following code snippet written in java
public static void main(String [ ]args)
{
long a=78345,s1=0,s2=0,r;
while(a>0)
{
r=a%10;
1
if (r%4==0)
s1+= r;
else
s2 += r;
a /= 10;
}
System.out.println("s1 ="+ s1);
System.out.println("S2 ="+ s2);
}
4. What will be output of the following code:
byte b;
double d= 417.35;
b= (byte) d;
System.out.println(b)
5. What command do you need to write in actionPerformed() event handler of a button, in order to
make it exit button?
6. What will be the output of the following program code?
int m = 100;
int n = 300;
while(++m < --n);
System.out.println(m+” “+ n);
7. What does the following fragment display?
String s = “six:” + 3+ 3;
System.out.println(s);
10.Consider the following class definition:
Class Student
{
abstract double result( )
}
This code will not compile since a keyword is missing in the first line. What is the keyword?
NOTE: SELECT A TOPIC FOR PROJECT AND PREPARE A BLUE PRINT FOR THE
SAME.
2
MySQL
1. Write MySql command which will be used to open an already existing database LIBRARY.
2. The Mname Column of a table Member is given below:
Mname
Aakash
Hira
v
Vinayak
Sheetal
rajeev
Based on the information, find the output of the following queries:
(i) Select Mname from members where mname like %v;

(ii) Select Mname from members where mname like %e;
3. A table TRAINS in a database has degree 3 and cardinality 8. What is the number of rows and
columns in it?
4. Differentiate between Alternate key and Candidate key.
5. What is the purpose of DROP TABLE command in MySql? How is it different from DELETE
command?
6. Consider the table RESULT given below. Write commands in MySql for (i) to (iv) and output for
(v) to (vii)
Table : RESULT
No Name Stipend Subject Average Division

1 Sharon 400 English 38 THIRD
2 Amal 680 Mathematics 72 FIRST
3 Vedant 500 Accounts 67 FIRST
4 Shakeer 200 Informatics 55 SECOND
5 Anandha 400 History 85 FIRST
6 Upansna 550 Geography 45 THIRD
(i) To list the names of those students, who have obtained Division as FIRST in the
ascending order of NAME.
(ii) To display a report listing NAME, SUBJECT and Annual stipend received assuming
that the stipend column has monthly stipend.
(iii) To count the number of students, who have either Accounts or Informatics as Subject.
(iv)To insert a new row in the table RESULT:
6 , Mohan, 500, English, 73, Second
3
(v) SELECT AVG(Stipend) FROM RESULT WHERE DIVISION = THIRD;
(vi)SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT Subject) FROM RESULT;
(vii)SELECT MIN (Average) FROM RESULT WHERE Subject = English;
7. Write a MySql command for creating a table PAYMENT whose structure is given below
Table: PAYMENT
Field Name Datatype Size Constraint
Loan_number Integer 4 Primary key
Payment_number Varchar 3
Payment_date Date
Payment_amount Integer 8 Not Null
Write the commands in SQL queries for the following:
(i) To display the details of Product whose Price is in the range of 40 and 120 (Both
value included) .
(ii) To increase the Price of all the Products by 20.
Table: PRODUCT Table: CLIENT
P_ID ProductNam Manufactur Price C_ID ClientName City P_ID

P001 eMoisturiser eXYZ 40 01 Dreamz Disney New Delhi P002
P002 Sanitizer LAC 35 05 Life Line Inc Mumbai P005
P003 Bath Soap COP 25 12 98.4 New Delhi P001
P004 Shampoo TAP 95 15 Appolo Banglore P003
P005 Lens Solution COP 350
8. In a Database School there are two tables Member and Division as shown below:
Table: MEMBER Table: DIVISION
EmpI Name Pay Divno Divno Divname Location

d
1001 Shankhya 34000 10 10 Media TF02
1003 Ridhima 32000 50 20 Dance FF02
1002 Sunish 45000 20 30 Production SF01
i) Identify the foreign key in the table Member
9. Write MySql command will be used to open an already existing database CONTACTS.
10. The Doc_name Column of a table Hospital is given below:
4
Doc_name
Avinash
Hariharan
Vinayak
Deepak
Sanjeev
Based on the information, find the output of the following queries:
(i) SELECT doc_name FROM HOSPITAL WHERE Doc_name like %v;

(ii) SELECT doc_name FROM HOSPITAL WHERE doc_name like %s_;
11. A table Transport in a database has degree 3 and cardinality 8. What is the number of rows
and columns in it?
12. What is the purpose of ALTER TABLE command in MySql? How is it different from
UPDATE command?
13. Write a MySql command for creating a table BANK whose structure is given below:
Table: BANK
Field Name Datatype Size Constraint

Acct_number Integer 4 Primaty key
Name Varchar 3
BirthDate Date
Balance Integer 8 Not Null
5
Class XII
Subject: Political Science
 All questions are compulsory.

 Questions to be done in register.
Contemporary South Asia
Q1.What is meant by South Asia?

Q2. Military and Democracy is two sides of the same coin in case of Pakistan’. Comment.
Q3. Discuss the areas of agreement and disagreement among :
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Bangladesh
(c) India and Sri lanka
(d) India and Bhutan
(e) India and Maldives.
Q4. What is meant by SAFTA? What was its aim?
Q5. What are the reasons for unstable democracy in Pakistan?
International Organization
Q1. Explain the functions of the various organs of United Nations.

Q2. Write notes on:
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
(c) Amnesty International
(d) Human Right Watch
(e) International Atomic Energy Agency
Q3. List the steps taken to strengthen UN.
Q4. What is VETO Power? What is its importance?
Q5. ‘Reforming the UN means restricting the Security Council’ Comment.
Security in Contemporary World
Q1. What is meant by Security?

Q2. Classify Security using a flow chart.
Q3.Distinguish between Migrants and Refugee.
Q4. Explain the Internal and External notions of Traditional Security.
Q5.Write a note on the following:
(a) Arms Control
(b) Disarmament
(c) Confidence building
Q6. Explain the new sources of threats to security.
Q7. Explain any four components of India’s Security Strategy. .
Holiday Homework (2018 - 19)
Class XII
Subject: Psychology
CASE PROFILE
Do research on the topic that you have selected for your case profile. Developing a case
profile would primarily involve the use of qualitative techniques, such as observation,
interview, survey, etc. Some examples of topics for the case profile could be an individual
who has excelled in areas like sports, academics, music, etc. or having special needs like
learning disability, autism, Down’s syndrome, etc. or those with interpersonal social
problems, i.e. poor body image, obesity, temper tantrums, substance abuse, not getting along
with peers, withdrawn, etc. Use qualitative methods like observation and interview to collect
information from as many sources as you can like parents, friends, teachers etc. Also use
some quantitative methods like various psychological tests to collect information regarding
subject’s psychological attributes like intelligence, aptitude, personality etc.
Suggested Format for Preparing a Case Profile
It is suggested that the case be developed in a narrative format along the following points:
1. Introduction
• A brief introduction of about one or two pages presenting the nature of the problem, its
incidence, likely causes, and possible counselling outcomes.
• A half page (brief) summary of the case.
2. Identification of Data
• Name (may be fictitious)
• Diagnosed Problem
• Voluntary or Referral (i.e., by whom referred — such as teacher, parent, sibling, etc.)
3. Case History
• A paragraph giving age, gender, school attended, class (grade) presently enrolled in, etc.
• Information about socio-economic status (SES) consisting of information about
mother’s/father’s education and occupation, family income, house type, number of members
in the family— brothers, sisters and their birth order, adjustment in the family, etc.
• Information about physical health, physical characteristics (e.g., height and weight), any
disability/illness (in the past and present), etc.
• Any professional help taken (past and present), giving a brief history of the problem,
attitude towards counselling (indicating the motivation to seek help, etc.).
• Recording signs (i.e., what is observed in terms of facial expressions, mannerisms, etc.) and
symptoms (i.e., what the subject reports, for example, fears, worry, tension, sleeplessness,
etc.).
4. Concluding Comments
A summary of the case should be written in the end.
Holiday Homework (2018 -19)
Class XII
Subject: Fashion Studies
1. Solve 10 years Board papers in your note book.( Unit 1 and Unit 3 till Men’s wear)
2. Do the questions from History and Capitals of the fashion world.
(Length of answers depends upon the marks allotted)
3. Complete your garment construction files.
Class XII
Subject: Political Science
General instructions
 All questions are compulsory.
 Questions to be done in register.
Contemporary South Asia
Q1.What is meant by South Asia?

Q2. Military and Democracy is two sides of the same coin in case of Pakistan’. Comment.
Q3. Discuss the areas of agreement and disagreement among :
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Bangladesh
(c) India and Sri Lanka
(d) India and Bhutan
(e) India and Maldives.
Q4. What is meant by SAFTA? What was its aim?
Q5. What are the reasons for unstable democracy in Pakistan?
International Organization
Q1. Explain the functions of the various organs of United Nations.
Q2. Write notes on:
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
(c) Amnesty International
(d) Human Right Watch
(e) International Atomic Energy Agency
Q3. List the steps taken to strengthen UN.
Q4. What is VETO Power? What is its importance?
Q5. ‘Reforming the UN means restricting the Security Council’ Comment.
Security in Contemporary World

Q1. What is meant by Security?
Q2. Classify Security using a flow chart.
Q3. Distinguish between Migrants and Refugee.
Q4. Explain the Internal and External notions of Traditional Security.
Q5.Write a note on the following:
(a) Arms Control
(b) Disarmament
(c) Confidence building
Q6. Explain the new sources of threats to security.
Q7. Explain any four components of India’s Security Strategy.
Class XII
Subject: Physical Education
PART A
 The task is to be completed in the PE practical file.

 All the content must be hand written.
 Make an innovative and creative file by collecting data from newspapers / sports
magazines/ Internet.
 Paste appropriate pictures related to the topics.
 Make diagrams wherever required.
Topics:
1. Mention the administration of AAHPER youth fitness test including the purpose, equipments
required, procedure and scoring of all the test items. (Take help from the text book).
2. Conduct Barrow 3 Item Test on 10 students and write the measurements in a tabular form.
3. Write the procedure for Asanas, Benefits and Contraindication for any two Asanas for each
lifestyle disease from your text book. Draw/Paste good pictures of the asanas.
4. Write the administration of Senior Citizen Fitness Test for 5 elderly family members from
your text book.
5. Select any one game of your choice (Basketball, Volleyball & Football) and write the
following details:
a. History of the game

b. Latest General Rules and regulations
c. Dimensions/ Measurement of play fields and specifications of sports equipment
d. Fundamental Skills of the game
e. Related sports terminologies
f. Important tournaments
g. Sports Personalities
h. Sports Awards
Draw a neat diagram of the field/court of your game with all the dimensions.
NOTE:
 The practical file has to be submitted on the day the school re-opens, i.e. on 28.06.18.
 Learn and revise all the content of your file as there will be a written test.
 Your file will be marked out of 30.
1
PART B
 Do this task in your Physical Education Notebooks.

 Take help from your textbooks.
 Follow the word limit.
Questions:
Very Short Answer Questions Carrying 1 Mark (20 -30 words)
1. Define endurance.
2. What is explosive strength?
3. What do you mean by isometric exercises?
4. Name the two types of muscle fibres present in the human body.
5. What is the normal category of BMI?
6. Which type of training method combines with rest or break periods?
7. Define kinetic flexibility.
8. Enlist the factors affecting projectile trajectory.
9. To cover the maximum distance at what angle should a projectile be released?
10. Write the full form of AAHPER.
Short Answer Questions Carrying 3 Marks (80 -90 words)
1. Differentiate between sprain and strain.

2. Write a short note on PNF technique for enhancing flexibility.
3. What are the ways to find out whether a person has flatfoot deformity?
4. Elucidate about Autism Spectrum Disorder.
5. Discuss any three advantages of physical activities for children with special needs.
Long Answer Questions Carrying 5 Marks (150 -200 words)
1. What are the effects of exercise on cardiovascular system?

2. Write all the major muscles involved in running, jumping and throwing in detail.
3. Illustrate the circuit training method with the help of various exercises involved for
developing coordinative abilities.
4. Draw a fixture of 19 teams on knockout basis where four teams are to be kept in seeding.
5. Make a table describing the meal intake of an athlete pre, during and post competition.
6. Draw a fixture of 8 teams on league basis according to cyclic method.
NOTE:
 Learn and revise the given content as there will a written test after the school reopens.
2
PART C
(To be done in Physical education notebook)
1. Describe the recently held Commonwealth Games 2018 mentioning the following details:
 Dates
 Motto
 Logo
 Mascot
 Host country and venue
 Events
 Number of athletes participated
 Number of Nations participated
 Top ten medal tally
 Names of all Indian players who have received Gold, Silver and Bronze medal in their
respective categories.
NOTE:
 The information can be obtained from the CWG official website - www.gc2018.com
 Printouts and images of the same can be used.
3
Class XII
Subject: Multimedia and Web Technology(067)
Instructions:
 Do the following questions in your Multimedia register only (except the project)
 Attempt all the questions neatly.
A. Answer the following questions based on MySQL.
1. Define the following terms with example:

i. Primary Key
ii. Foreign Key
iii. Cardinality
iv. Degree
v. Candidate Key
vi. Tuple and Field
2. Write queries to create the following table and answer the questions given below:
Customer
Customer_ID Customer_Name City Phone_No
101 Ram Delhi 234567
102 Seema Mumbai 789007
201 Rohan Pune 543289
103 Shiva Chennai 897654
205 Kanika Bangalore 234567
i) Insert 5 rows
ii) Display the contents of Customer Table
iii) Display all records from the customer table where state is Delhi
iv) Delete the record where Customer_ID is 103
v) Update the Customer named “Ram” to “Vikas”.
vi) Which field will be used as a primary key for the above table?
Transaction
Trans_ID Trans_Amount Trans_Date Cust_Id
1221 5000 12-April-2018 101
vii) Which field will be used to create a relationship between above two tables?
1
3. Shreya wants to work on database management software. Suggest her any two
examples of common database management system.
Answer the following questions based on HTML.

1. Differentiate between the following tags with examples
i. Base font and Font tag.
ii. Physical and Logical tag.
iii. Absolute and Relative Reference in HTML
iv. Internal and External Linking
v. BASE and LINK tag
vi. Frameset and Frame tag
vii. Radio button and Check box.
viii. List box and combo Box (in HTML)
ix. <p> and <pre> tag
2. Project (Take the printout of screen shots and coding and submit in a folder)
Create a website on any one of the following topics and answer the questions given
below:
i. E-Shopping/Shopping Cart
ii. Website of a University
iii. Website on Career you want to opt for: BBA/BCA/Hotel Management/Fashion
Designing etc.
 Create minimum five pages: Home Page, Information, Photo Gallery, Sign up
and Feedback form.
 Contact link should be linked to your email-id.
 Home Page should be a frameset file with menu in one frame.
 Photo Gallery should have a collage of pictures along with videos
1. What resources are used while designing the website?
2. How much time did you spend on the following?
a. Research b. Designing c. Coding d. Developing
2
C. Answer the following questions based on JavaScript.
1. Differentiate between an entry controlled loop and an exit controlled loop. Give one
example of each.
2. Create an application to input two numbers and find out the following:
Sum, Difference, Product, Quotient, and Remainder. Clear will clear all the fields.
3. Write the JavaScript code to find out the grade secured by a student on the basis of
percentage obtained in the examination
a.<33 - Grade E
b.>=33 and <50 – Grade D
c.>50 and <60 - Grade C
d.>60 and <75- Grade B
e.>75 and <=100 - Grade A
3
D. Answer the following questions based on Communication and Network Concepts.
a) Write any two advantages of using optical fiber cable over coaxial cable and twisted
pair cable.
b) Explain the following terms:
i. W3C
ii. GSM
iii. Protocol
c) The Cyber Skill Development Organisation has set up its new Branch at Nagaland
for its offices and web based activities. It has 4 Wings of buildings as shown in the
diagram
Centre to centre distance between various blocks
Number of Computers
(i).Suggest the most suitable cable layout of connections between the Wings and Topology.
(ii).Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. Wing) to house the server of this organization with
a suitable reason and justification.
(iii).Suggest the placement of the following devices with justification.
a. Repeater b. Hub/Switch
(iv).The organization is planning to link its head office situated in Delhi with offices at
Nagaland. Suggest an economic way to connect it; the company is ready to compromise on
the speed of connectivity. Justify your answer.
4
U;w bjk ifCyd Ldwy
xzh"ekodk’k x`gdk;ZZ ¿2018µ2019À
d{kkµckjgoha
foÔ;µfgUnh
uksV% fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa dks ,d vyx mÙkj iqfLrdk esa dhft,
iz’u 1- fuEufyf[kr foÔ;ksa ij vuqPNsn fyf[k,µ
1½ vusdrk esa ,drk% fgUn dh foÓsÔrk
2½cnyrk ;qxµcnyrh ekU;rk,¡
3½D;k ugha dj ldrh ukjh
4½Hkkjrh; oSKkfudksa dh miyfC/k;k¡
iz’u 2- fuEufyf[kr foÔ;ksa ij i= fyf[k,µ
1½ Hkkjr ds dqN jkT;ksa esa iq:Ôksa dh vis{kk efgykvksa dh la[;k cgqr de
gSA bldk vki D;k dkj.k ekurs gSa vkSj vkidh jk; esa bl izo`fÙk dks
jksdus dk D;k mik; gks ldrk gS\ fdlh nSfud i= ds laiknd dks i=
fy[kdj crkb,A
2½ ,d lM+d dks pkSM+k djus ds cgkus vko';drk ls vf/kd isM+ dkVs x,
gSa] bldh foLr`r tkudkjh nsrs gq, ou vkSj i;kZoj.k foHkkx dks ,d
i= fyf[k,A
3½ nks ekl iwoZ vkius vius cSad esa tks psd tek fd;k Fkk] og vc rd
lekÓksf/kr ugha gqvk]ftlds dkj.k vkidks vlqfo/kk gks jgh gSA cSad ds
eSustj dks i= fy[kdj psd dh /kujkfÓ [kkrs esa rqjar tek djokus dk
vuqjks/k dhft,A
iz’u 3- ik¡p vifBr dkO;ka'k vkSj ik¡p vifBr x|ka'k fyf[k,A izR;sd esa
ls lkrµlkr iz'u cukdj muds mÙkj fyf[k,A
1
iz’u 4- fgUnh HkkÔk o lkfgR; ls lacaf/kr dksbZ ,d ifj;kstuk dk;Z dhft,A

Contentpage 132-60-12

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Contentpage 132-60-12

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

NEW ERA PUBLIC SCHOOL

Holiday Homework (2018-19)

Q1. Attempt all questions.

Q2. The Invisible Man

Read the prescribed novel, The Invisible Man.

Attempt the following questions:

1. Draw a pen portrait of Dr.Kemp and contrast him with Griffin.

Prepare a research paper on the following themes:

1. 12 A - Manas National Park

ASSIGNMENT (To be done in assignment register)

Q8. Let * be a binary operation, defined by a * b = 3a + 4b –2, find 4* 5.

(iii) a * b = a + b – ab ∀ a,b Q – { 1} (iv) a *b = a + b + 1 ∀ a,bZ

Q22. Let A = {x Z : 0  x  12}. Show that R = {(a,b) :a, b A, | − | is divisible by 4} is

Q1. Write the principle value of following.

e) sin-1tan f) cos-1 cos g) sec2(tan-12) h) cot-1 cot

Q2. If sin { sin-1 + cos-1 x } = 1 . Find x

Q3. Evaluate : a) sin[ - sin-1 ( ) ] b) cos-1 cos ( ) + sin-1sin( )

Q4. Write range of sin-1x other than principle branch.

Q5. Simplify the following expressions:

c) tan-1 - tan-1 d) tan-1 + tan-1

Q6. Prove the following:

c) tan-1 1 + tan-1 2 + tan-1 3 = 2( cot-1 1 + cot-1 2 + cot-1 3)

d) sin-1 + sin-1 + sin-1 = e) tan-1 + tan-1 = cos-1

f) sin-1 + 2 tan-1 = g) sin-1 + cos-1 +tan-1 =

Q7. Simplify the following inverse trigonometric expressions:

a) cot -1(√1 + + ) b) tan-1

a) tan(cos-1x) = sin(cot -1 ) b) tan-1 + tan-1 =

c) cos-1 + tan-1 = d) tan-1 = + tan-1x

e) sin-1(1-x) – 2 sin-1x = f) tan-1(x+1) + tan-1(x-1) = tan-1

Q11. Show that 2tan-1 tan = cos-1

Q12. If cos-1 + cos-1 = z. Show that - cos z + = sin2z .

Q13. If y = cot-1√ - tan-1√ . Prove that sin y = tan2

Q14. Find the greatest and least values of (sin-1x)2 + (cos-1x)2

Topic: Continuity and Differentiation

Q1.Discuss the continuity of following functions at indicated points.

Q2. Determine the value of k so that the function is continuous.

Q9. Differentiate the following function w.r.t. to x.

c) x =a(cosθ + sinθ)eθ, y = a(sinθ – cosθ)eθ d) x = a ,y=

Q11. If 3 sin(xy) + 4 cos(xy) = 5 . Show that =

Q13. Given that ex + ey = ex+y . Show that = -e y-x.

Q15. Differentiate f(x) w.r.t. g(x)

b) f(x) = tan-1 g(x) = sin-1

c) f(x) = sin-1 2x√1 − g(x) = tan-1 √

d) f(x) = tan-1 g(x) = √1 +

Q16. Differentiate the following w.r.t. x

Q17. If x16y9 = (x2 + y)17 show that =

Q19. If xy + yx = 2ab, find

Q21. If y = √ − + sin-1 , prove that y’ = √ −

Q23. √1 − + 1− = a( x4 – y4). Show that =

Q24. y√1 + = log(√1 + − ). Show that ( + 1) + xy + 1= 0

Q25. y = (cotx + cosecx). Show that (1 – cosx)2 y” = sinx.

Q26. x = sint, y = sinpt. Show that (1 – x2)y” – xy’ +p2y = 0.

Q27. x = a(θ + sin θ), y = a(1 - cos θ). Find y” at θ =

Q28. If x = asin3θ, y = bcos3θ, find y” at θ =

Q29. y = xlog Prove that y” =

Q30. + = 1. Show that y” = -

Q31. If y = extan-1x, prove that(1+x2)y” – 2(1-x+x2)y’ +(1-x)2y = 0

(i) 25.3 (ii) (0.999)1/10 (iii) (15)1/4 (iv) (401)1/2

(v) (3.968)3/2 (vi) (32.15)1/5

(i) Strictly increasing (ii) Strictly decreasing

blocks are kept together, then:

Note: All questions are to be done in Computer Science Register only.

4. Convert P+Q’R to product of sum.

Chapter: Classes & Objects, Constructors & Destructors, Inheritance