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NBE BASED MOCK EXAM 15. Fundic bone is

A. Bone surrounding the apex of the root
1. The keratins which are characteristic of highly B. Bone surrounding the neck of the root
proliferative epithelia are C. Bone surrounding complete root
A. K1 and K2 B. K10 and K12 D. Both A and B
C. K6 and K16 D. K5 and K14 16. Gubernacular cord guides eruption of
2. Transformation of the pocket wall into the attached A. All primary teeth
gingiva is an important advantage of B. All permanent teeth
A. Apically displaced flap B. Coronally displaced flap C. All permanent teeth except the molars
C. Laterally displaced flap D. Modified widman flap D. All primary and permanent teeth
3. Witch-chin is seen in all except 17. In Freud’s pshychosexual theory, the most primitive
A. Increased vertical dimension part of personality is
B. Ptosis of mentalis A. Superego B. Ego
C. Loss of muscle attachment C. Id D. All of the above
D. Long term edentulous and without denture 18. Increased risk of development of squamous cell
4. Advantages of metal denture base for a complete carcinoma is associated with which of the following
denture are following, except: developmental conditions
A. Better thermal conductivity A. Cheilitis granulomatosa B. Heck’s disease
B. Increased tissue tolerance C. Cheilitis glandularis D. Fibromatosis gingivae
C. Thick and strong denture base
D. More tongue space available 19. The cross section of the groove formed in the tongue
5. In a Ring Clasp, the retentive arm extends from: during "S" sound is about?
A. Principal occlusal rest to the tip A. 20mm2 B. 5 mm2
B. Strut to the tip of the clasp C. 10 mm2 D. 7 mm2
C. Secondary occlusal rest to the tip 20. Viscous tension is described by : -
D. Entire length of the clasp arm A. Boyle's law B. Charle's law
C. Stefans's law D. None of the above
6. Which is the principal buffering ion present in saliva? 21. Tongue position was classified by :-
A. Bismuth B. Bicarbonate A. House B. Wright
C. Phosphorus D. Fluoride C. Neil D. Hanau
7. A caries increment of _______or more new carious 22. Absence of caries in ____ teeth helps to distinguish
lesions over one year is considered characteristic of nursing bottle caries from rampant caries
rampant caries A. Maxillary canines B. Mandibular incisors
A. 8 B. 5 C. Maxillary incisors D. Mandibular canines
C. 10 D. 15 23. Which cells, secreting osteoclast activating factor are
8. Which of the following is not included in PICO believed to be responsible for much of root and bone
Analysis destruction in periapical granulomas?
A. Population B. Intervention A. B lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes
C. Comparison D. Organization C. Macrophages D. Mast cells
9. The average daily increment in calculus formers
ranges from ( of dry weight) 24. A dentigerous cyst develops due to collection of fluid
A. 0.10-0.15% B. 0.15-0.30% ___________between and tooth surface.
C. 0.30-0.40% D. 0.40-0.45% A. Reduced dental epithelium
10. The red complex consists of all of the following B. Stellate reticulum
,except C. Internal dental epithelium
A. P gingivalis B. P intermedia D. External dental epithelium
C. T forsythia D. T denticola 25. A mixed radiopaque-radiolucent appearance is
11. The hydrolysed chromophore product of BANA test is typically seen in variant of ameloblastoma.
A. 2 Naphthylamide B. 2 Naphthylamine A. Plexiform B. Basal cell
C. Beta naphthylamide D. Beta Naphthylamine C. Desmoplastic D. Granular cell
26. Which amongst the following odontogenic tumours is
12. Periotron is used for to measure considred to be the least aggressive clinically
A. Bone density B. Pocket depth A. Conventional ameloblastoma
C. GCF Volume D. Tooth mobility B. Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma
C. Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
13. Dilated odontome is a synonym of D. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
A. Dens invaginatus B. Talon cusp
C. Dens evaginatus D. Macrodontia 27. According to Biological Site and Mode of Action,
Most clinically useful LA agents are classified as
14. If a patient shows signs of kinky hair, osteosclerosis A. Class A B. Class B
at base of skull, brittle nails along with C. Class C D. Class D
hypomaturation—hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta,
he/she is most probably suffering from 28.Brodie -Trendlenburg test demonstrates-
A. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome A. Mid-thigh perforation
B. Klinefelter syndrome B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Cranioectodermal syndrome C. Sapheno — femoral incompetence
D. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome D. Calf perforators

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29 The _____ lymph nodes are usually the first nodes to 44. All of the following except _______occur as a sequel
enlarge in infectious mononucleosis to pulpitis.
A. Axillary B. Cervical A. Lateral periodontal cyst B. Periapical granuloma
C. Submandibular D. Inguinal C. Apical periodontal cyst D. Periapical abscess
30. Pseudohemophilia is also known as 45. Condensing osteitis is another name for
A. Christmas disease A. Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
B. Bleeder’s disease B. Chronic facial sclerosing osteomyelitis
C. Von Willebrand’s disease C. Chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Garre’s osteomyelitis
31. The SI unit of absorbed dose is: 46. Unilateral, paroxysmal pain in ear, pharynx,
A. Gray B. Rem nasopharynx, tonsils and posterior tongue is indicative of
C. Roentgen D. Becquerel neuralgia of ____ nerve
32. In Protaper universal system, re treatment is done A. V B. IX
with C.IIII D.VII
A. Sx, S1, S2 B. F1,F2,F3 47. Corelation coefficient of +1 indicates
C. D1,D2,D3 D. A1,A2,A3 A. Perfect negative linear relationship
33. A hemangioma can be best classified as B. Perfect positive linear relationship
A. Hamartoma B. Choristoma C. Variables are indepdenent of each other
C. Neoplasm D. Cyst D. None of the above
34. Multiple papilloma like lesions occurs in which one of 48. Standard deviation expressed as a percentage of
the following syndromes? arithmetic means is
A. Cowden A. Interquartile range B. Mean deviation
B. Treacher Collins syndrome C. Variance D. Coefficent of variation
C. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome 49. In managing a 7-year-old child, the dentist should
D. Grinspan syndrome keep in mind that a child at this age is:
A. Frequently negative B. Generally uncooperative
35. Which of the following instruments is triangular in C. Susceptible to praise D. Prone to sensation anxiety
shape in cross section, and having two cutting edges and 50. 0.05% of NaF has concentration of F
pointed tip A. 9000 ppm B. 1000 ppm
A. Curettes B. Sickle C. 225 ppm D. 250 ppm
C. Hoe D. File
36. Which property of glass ionomer cement is inferior to 51. The dentinal tubule wall has an organic lining called
zinc phosphate cement? as
A. Fluoride release B. Modulus of elasticity A. Lamina lucida B. Lamina limitans
C. Adhesion D. Tensile strength C. Lamina propria D. Lamina dentina
37. One of the major disadvantages of addition silicone 52. Intertubular dentin is observed between
impression material is A. Zones of peritubular dentin
A. Low strength B. High rigidity B. Mantle and pre dentin
C. Unpleasant odour D. Hydrophobicity C. Successive layer of circumferential dentin
38. The first elastomer to be developed to function as D. None of the above
impression material was 53. In interglobular dentin the dentinal tubules pass
A. Polysulphide B. Polyether A. With a sinusoidal pattern
C. Addition silicone D. Condensation silicone B. Uniterruptedly through the matrix
C. With a slight undulation
39. Which one of the following does not contribute to D. Interrupted throughout the matrix
histogenesis of ameloblastoma? 54. The second most prominent cell in the mature pulp is
A. Developing dental papilla A. Fibroblasts
B. Developing dental organ B. Odontoblasts
C. Epithelial lining of odontogenic cyst C. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cell
D. Rests of dental lamina D. Macrophage
40. The length of most of enamel rods are 55. Which one of the following is not a radiographic
A. Equal to thickness of enamel variety of dentigerous cyst?
B. Less than thickness of enamel A. Central B. Collateral
C. Greater than thickness of enamel C. Lateral D. Circumferential
D. None of the above
41. In general, the enamel rods are oriented at 56. Histological features of thin epithelial lining,
A. Right angle to dentin B. Right angle to enamel ameloblast like basal cell layer with overlying layes
C. 45 degrees to dentin D. 45 degrees to enamel resembling stellate reticulum and abundant ghost cell
within the epithelial lining are suggestive of
42. The thin leaf like hypocalcified structure from outer A. Dentigerous cyst
surface of enamel to dentinoenamel junction is the B. Radicular cyst
A. Enamel spindle B. Enamel lamellae C. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Enamel tuft D. Cracks D. Odontogenic keratocyst
43. Which one of the lesions given below is a congenital 57. Tryphan blue is an intravital dye used to disclose
lesion? which cell
A. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma A. Fibroblast B. Odontoblast
B. Port-wine stain C. Undifferentiated ectomesenchymal cell
C. Fetal rhabdomyosarcoma D. Angiosarcoma D. Macrophage

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58. Which of the following bones don’t develop in the 75. Cloudy swelling is due to:
desmocranium A. Accumulation of water intracellularly
A. Frontal bone B. Parietal bone B. Fat accumulation intracellularly
C. Ethmoid bone D. Sphenoid bone C. Lysozyme degeneration
D. Glycogen accumulation intracellularly
59. Temporomandibular joint can be best described as a 76. The inter dental and inter radicular septa contains
A. Synovial joint the nutrient canals called as
B. Hinge joint A. Haversian canal
C. Ginglymoid arthroidal synovial joint B. Canal of Ranvier
D. Ball and Socket Joint C. Canal of Huguier’s
60. Dental home is advocated by D. Zuckerkandl and Hirschfeld canal
A. Nowak B. Milgrom 77. The bilaminar zone of the posterior band of the
C. Grembowski D. Morris articular disc is
61.Julius Perreidt proposed A. Poorly vascular and innervated
A. Universal system B. Palmer system B. Poorly vascular richly innervated
C. Tow digit system D. FDI system C. Poorly innervated, richly vascular
62. “Hierarchy of needs” theory of psychological D. Richly vascularized and innervated
development was given by 78. The best way to help a frightened child to overcome
A. Albert Bandura B. Abraham Maslow his fear:
C. Ivan Pavlov D. BF skinner A. Identify the fear
63. According to Binet, IQ is _____ x 100 B. Ignore the fear
A. Chronological age/ mental age C. Ridicule the frightened child
B. Dental age/ mental age D. Divert the patient's attention
C. Mental age/ chronological age 79. CD-95 in apoptosis; the death receptors initiated
D. Mental age/ 2 through:
64. Children who have been physically abused usually A. Induces apoptosis when it engaged by FAS ligand
fall under this category system
A. Timid B. Stoic B. Cytochrom C binds to a protein apoptosis activating
C. Depressed D. Over co operative (Apaf-1) factor-1
65. Posey strap is a type of C. Apoptosis may be initiated by caspase activation
A. HOME D. Apoptosis mediated through DNA damage
B. Physical Extremities restraints 80. The vertical method of brushing technique is called
C. Body Restraints A. Bass method B. Stillman method
D. Head Restraints C. Leonard method D. Smith method
66. Oval bulging terminal spores seen in 81. The bristles in the bass method are placed at
A. Cl tertium B. Cl welchii A. 30 degree angle to the gingivae
C. Cl perfringens D. Cl histolyticum B. 45 degree angle to the gingivae
C. 60 degree angle to the gingivae
67. The international sanitary conference, origin of D. 90 degree angle to the gingivae
international health cooperation was held in
A. 1851 in Paris B. 1851 in London 82. The Expanded function dental auxiliary in
C. 1875 in Germany D. 1875 in Africa Philadelphia were called
68. The Nuremberg code propose which principle of A. Denturists B. Duty doctors
ethics C. Technotherapists D. Therapists
A. Beneficence B. Informed consent 83. The code given in oral health survey if an assessment
C. Justice D. Veracity is not carried out or not applicable to age group being
69. Gates Glidden Burs are used at the speed of examined is
A. 750-1500 rpm B. 250- 300 rpm A. Code 0 0 B. Code 1
C. 500-750 rpm D. 1500-2000 rpm C. Code 5 D. Code 9
70. Density of gold in g/cm3 is 84. A pilot survey differs from pathfinder survey, in that
A. 19.3 B. 20.24 it includes
C. 8.93 D. 21.25 A. Most important subgroups and one or two index ages
71. Surface energy is the highest for B. All subgroups and three index ages
A. Enamel B. Dentin C. All subgroups and all index ages
C. Teflon D. Gold alloy D. Three subgroups and three index ages
72. Dental technicians who are permitted to fabricate
dentures directly for patients without dentist’s 85. Which of these is a non probability sampling
prescription is called technique
A. Expanded function duty auxiliary A. Cluster sampling B. Area sampling
B. Expanded duty dental auxiliary C. Quota sampling D. Sequential sampling
C. Denturist 86. Selective media for shigella
D. Dental therapist A. Wilson blair B. TCBS
73. Which of the following is not a coagulative necrosis? C. DCA D. Blood agar
A. Myocardial infarct B. Kidney infarct 87. The prevent swarming the % agar in Nutrient agar
C. Brain infarct D. Adrenal infarct has to be increased at least to ______%
74. One of the following is an apoptosis inhibitor gene: A. 2% B. 4%
A. p53 B. BCL-2 C. 6% D. 8%
C. Rb D. C-myc

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88. Massetric notch is formed by the action of: 104. Mentally retarded child will have an intelligence
A. Buccinator on masseter quotante (IQ) in the range,
B. Masseter on buccinator A. 79 and below B. 80-89
C. Superior constrictor on buccinator C. 69 and below D. 140 and up
D. Buccinator on superior constrictor 105. Phagocytic cells in brain
89. Paul Bunnel test is example of A. Oligodendrocytes B. Macrophages
A. Agglutination B. Precipitation C. Microglia D. Astrocytes
C. Neutralization D. CFT 106. Chediak Higashi syndrome, defect is
90. Which of the following acts as an opsonin A. Fusion of lysosome B. T cells
A. C3a B. C3b C. B cells D. Complement
C. C5a D. LTB4 107. The correct sequence of cell cycle is
91. Catalase negative beta hymolytic streptococci is A. G0-G1-S-G2-M B. G0-G1-G2-S-M
A. Str. Pneumoniae B. Str. Pyogenes C. GO-M-G2-S-G1 D. GO-G1-S-M-G2
C. Str. Viridans D. Enterococcus 108. The expression of the following oncogene is
associated with a high incidence of medullary carcinoma
92. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is due to the of thyroid
following virulence factor A. p53 B. HER 2 neu
A. M protein B. Pyrogenic exotoxin C. RET proto- oncogene D. Rb gene
C. Streptolysin O D. Carbohydrate cell wall 109. Which is not a tumor suppressor gene
93. The most common organism causing acute otitis A. WT-1 B. RB
media is C. p53 D. RAS
A. H influenza B. S pneumoniae 110. All of the following statements are true about
C. M catarhalis D. S aureus bacteriophage except
94. Wheal and flare is which type of hypersensitivity A. It is a virus that infect bacteria
reaction B. It helps in transduction of bacteria
A. Type I B. Type II C. It imparts toxigencity to bacteria
C. Type IV D. Type V D. It transfers only chromosomal gene
95. Cause of melioidosis is 111. First country to adopt salt fluoridation
A. Burkholderia mallei A. France B. Germany
B. Burkholderia pseudomallei C. Jamaica D. Switzerland
C. Burkholderia cepacia 112. All about palatal strap are true, except
D. None A. Not less than 8 mm antero- posterior dimension
96. Owl’s eye appearance inclusions are seen in B. Great resistance to bending and twisting forces
A. Herpes simplex virus infections C. Posterior border should be anterior to junction of hard
B. Cytomegalovirus infections and soft palate
C. Epstein Barr virus infection D. Used for Kennedy class I
D. Adenovirus infection 113. The effects of saliva on the denture prognosis
97. HBV and HDV false is A. No effects
A. Both can infect simultaneously B. Effects denture retention
B. HDV ccauses mor serious infection d/t superinfection C. Tissue conditioners are indicated when there is a
C. HDV cannot infect in absence of HBV reduction is the salivery flow
D. HDV is a DNA virus D. Excess saliva production leads to denture irritation
98. The term “ Index Case” means the 114. First antibody to appear in hepatitis
A. First case which came to the attention of the A. IgM anti HBe B. IgG –anti- HBe
investigator C. IgM anti-HBc D. IgM anti-HBs
B. Single case present in a community 115. An occlusal rest should be atleast _____ mm thick
C. Sub clinical form of the case at its thinnest point and ________mm thick where it
D. Case with no known treatment crosses the marginal ridge
A. 1, 1.5-2 B. 0.5, 1-1.5
99. The energy storage property of a structure within its C. 1.5, 2-2.5 D. 0.5, 2-2.5
proportional limit is known as: 116. Combination clasp was introduced by
A. Resilience B. Stiffness A. Ewing Roach B. O. C Applegate
C. Rigidity D. Strength C. Kennedy RG D. MM Devan
100. Which of the following is used as catalyst in 117. All are true about Bead, nailhead or wire minor
condensation silicone rubber: connector except
A. Orthoethyl silicate B. Polydimethyl siloxane A. Improved hygiene
C. Stannous octate D. Colloidal silica B. Enhanced thermal stimulation
101.All of the following are cardioselective beta blockers C. Easy to reline
EXCEPT: D. Attachment of resin is weak
A. Atenolol B. Esmolol 118. All about complete palate major connector are true,
C. Bisoprolol D. Propanolol except
102. All of the following are the family of selectin except A. Provides L beam effect
A. P selectin B. L selectin B. Provides additional stabilization when minimal ridge
C. A selectin D. E selectin height is available
103. Principal cell in granuloma is C. Can be used when remaining teeth are periodontally
A. Lymphocyte B. Histiocyte compromised
C. Langhans D. Giant cell D. Reproduces peripheral seal similar to that of border
moulded complete denture

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119. Fluoride in any form is contraindicated in 135. Ideally for dental materials the shear modulus is
A. Chronic renal failure B. Osteoporosis _______ % of the elastic modulus value
C. Hypertension D. Thyrotoxicosis A. 38 B. 48
120. The most rapid period of growth is C. 58 D. 68
A. Puberty B. 6-8 years 136. Term Height of Contour is coined by:
C. 2-3 years D. 1st year of life A. Cummer B. De Van
121. The movement of bone in response to its own C. Kennedy D. Craddock
growth is termed as 137. Deepest part of a rest seat is towards:
A. Rotation B. Secondary displacement A. Distobuccal line angle B. Distolingual line angle
C. Primary displacement D. Replacement shift C. Central fossa D. Marginal ridge
138. True about H influenzae
122. One of the methods of providing expansion of the A. Growth on sheep blood agar and CO2
investment material is B. it is not capsulated
A. Using less of water and more of gypsum powder C. Invasive strain is most common
B. Using a sprue former of the correct size, length and D. Gram positive
diameter
C. Monitoring the guage pressure of the casting machine 139. It is true regarding endemic typhus that
D. Lining the walls of the casting ring with a ring liner A. Man is the only reservoir of infection
123. Incomplete venting and porosity of the casting may B. Flea is a vector for the disease
occur if the length of the sprue is C. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation
A. Too short D. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is a diagnostic
B. Too long 140. Frie test is used for
C. Twice the actual width of the pattern A. LGV B. Syphilis
D. Half the actual size of the pattern C. Gonorrhea D. Chancroid
124. Sodium Hypochlorite has this mode of action 141. The stainless steel having LEAST corrosion
A. Saponification reaction B. Neutralization reaction resistance
C. Hypochlorous acid formation A. Ferritic B. Austenitic
D. All of the above C. Martensitie D. Duplex
142. The limit of mandibular opening by pure rotation of
125. The Village Health Guide Scheme was introduced condyle is:
on: A. 10 mm B. 15 mm
A. 14th April 1977 B. 2nd October 1977 C. 25 mm D. 40 mm
C. 14th April 1979 D. 2nd October 1979 143. Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibres are not
126. Local dais are trained in PHCs for: carried by which cranial nerve
A. 30 working days B. 50 working days A. III B. V
C. 60 working days D. 20 working days C. VII D. X
127. The Indian Red Cross Society was established in: 144. Which of the following local anaesthetics belongs to
A. 1900 B. 1920 the ester group?
C. 1940 D. 1960 A. Procaine B. Bupivacaine
128. Undercut at the point of origin of a clasp can be C. Lignocaine D. Mepivacaine
approached by: 145. Most commonly retained tooth in a deciduous
A. Embrasure clasp B. Back action clasp dentition is
C. Hair pin clasp D. Half and Half clasp A. maxillary lateral incisors
129. Anterior Reference Point helps in following, except: B. mandibular second molars
A. Face bow transfer C. mandibular lateral incisors
B. Minor adjustment in vertical dimension D. maxillary first molars
C. Facilitate arrangement of anterior teeth 146. The oral drive theory to explain thumb sucking
D. Recording centric relation habit was given by
130. Speaking line is otherwise known as: A. Benjamin B. Sears and Wise
A. High lip line B. Low lip line C. Sigmund Freud D. Scheldon
C. Canine line D. Cuspid eminence 147. Reciprocal arm is:
131. Articulator that uses plaster indices to mount casts A. Rigid and is placed in middle 3rd of crown
is: B. Flexible and placed in middle 3rd of crown
A. Grittman articulator B. Gysi simplex C. Rigid and placed in occlusal 3rd of crown
C. Monson's articulator D. Slab articulator D. Flexible and placed in occlusal 3rd of crown
148. A hinge axis opening transfer is a must when
132. Following Articulators can simulate both horizontal A. Planning for an RPD
and vertical movements of the mandible, except: B. Planning for an FPD
A. Barn-door articulator B. Grittman articulator C. Planning to change the vertical dimension
C. Gysi simplex D. House articulator D. Planning for an CD
133. This is a peripheral zone characterized by 149. The incisal guidance that assures the maximum
fibroblasts and osteoblasts stability in a denture is
A. Zone of infection B. Zone of contamination A. 15 - 25 degrees B. Zero degrees
C. Zone of irritation D. Zone of stimulation C. Less than 15 degrees D. 45 degrees
134. Protaper file, F2 has D0 diameter of 150. The anterior vibrating line always lies on :-
A. 0.25mm B. 0.20mm A. Hard palate
C. 0.30mm D. 0.17mm B. Junction of hard & soft palate
C. Soft palate
D. Depends on individual

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151. The shape of cupid's bow of posterior palatal seal 167. Which property of polyvinyl siloxane makes them
(PPS) is achieved due to most suitable for an automatic dispensing and mixing
A. Fovea palatani B. Posterior nasal spine device?
C. Midpalatine raphe D. Glandular area of palate A. Pseudoplasticity B. Viscoelasticity
152. Which type of articulators that permit horizontal as C. Thixotropy D. Elasticity
well as vertical motion but do not orient the motion to
the TMJ via a face bow transfer? 168. Failure to place a functional cusp bevel, while
A. Type I B. Type II preparing a posterior tooth for full coverage restoration
C. Type III D. Type IV leads to
153. Hanau H2 articulator has a intercondylar distance A. Weaker structure
of B. Poor retention
A. 90 mm B. 100 mm C. Poor aesthetic
C. 110 mm D. 120 mm D. Failure to produce accurate occlusion
154. Hapsburg jaw 169. Which of the following statements is TRUE
A. Class III B. Class II division 1 regarding the relationship of incisal guidance and cuspal
C. Class I D. Class II division 2 inclinations for creating balanced occlusion in complete
denture?
155. Newborn infants are A. The cuspal inclinations should not be selected based on
A. obligatory oral breathers incisal guidance
B. obligatory nasal breathers B. As the incisal guidance increases, the cuspal inclinations
C. predominantly oral breathers must decrease
D. nasal and oral breathers C. As the incisal guidance increases, the cuspal
156. The two blocks in the twin block functional inclinations must increase
appliance are angulated at D. There is no relationship
A. 45° B. 70° 170. The best pontic material in contact with ridge
C. 65° D. 80° tissue is
157. A face mask is used to treat A. Glazed porcelain
A. Mandibular retrognathism only B. Polished nickel - chromium alloy
B. Maxilary prognathism only C. Polished resin
C. Maxillary retrognathism and mandibular prognathism D. Polished noble metal alloy
D. Maxillary prognathism and mandibular retrognathism 171. Champagne bubble test?
158. Basal bone differs from alveolar bone in A. Sodium hypochlorite B. H202.
A. Function B. Staining properties C. Chlorhexidine D. Normal saline
C. Osteocyte metabolism D. All of the above 172. Fourth generation Apex locators are based on the
159. Advantages of Combination clasp are following, concept of
except: A. Resistance
A. Flexibility B. Approachability B. Impedence
C. Adjustability D. Appearance C. Measure resistance and capacitance separately
160. Which of the following fibres are responsible for D. Frequency
conduction of pain impulse?
A. Alpha B. Beta 173. Which of the following is not true about beta
C. Delta D. Gamma titanium
161. QMiX contains all, except A. Have low coefficient of friction
A. CHX analog B. Triclosan B. True weldability
C. Potassium iodide D. EDTA C. Biocompatibility
162. The greatest stress which may be produced in a D. High formability
material such that stress is directly proportional to strain 174. Which of the following is precisely marked on
is known as cephalogram
A. Elastic limit B. Proportional limit A. Nasion B. Point A
C. Yield strength D. Modulus of elasticity C. Gonion D. Condylion
163. Backward path of closure is seen in which type of 175. If Maxillary and Mandibular arch forms are
malocclusion incompatible at the beginningof treatment, as a general
A. Class I B. Class II/l guideline ____ arch form should be used as a basic guide
C. Class II/2 D. Class III A. Maxillary
164. The tipping of a tooth results in the fibers of the B. Mandibular
PDL to be C. Line following the lingual cusps of the maxillary teeth
A. All compressed B. All stretched D. Line following the buccal cusps of the maxillary teeth
C. Half compressed and half stretched
D. No effect on periodontal ligament 176. This arch form closely approximates the normal
165. The ADA/ANSI specification for water-based dental position of second and third molars, and with greater
cements is width across premolars
A. 12 B. 23 A. Catenary curve B. Pentamorphic arch form
C. 26 D. 96 C. Brader arch form D. Frankel curve

166. Which of the following cement has a very low initial 177. Among these, Surface roughness is least for
pH but is still widely used as a thermal insulating base? A. NiTi B. Beta Ti
A. Zinc phosphate cement B. Zinc oxide eugenol C. Steel D. All are same
C. Glass ionomer cement D. Zinc polycarboxylate

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178. Law of pulse oxymetry is based on

A. Doppler's law B. Pascal's law Picture Based Questions
C. Poille's law D. Beer Lambert's law
179. In case control study there were 40 cases of lung 191. Identify the facemask
cancer and 80 controls (without lung cancer). Among A. Tubinger B. Petit
cases 30 had positive history of smoking and among C. Delaire D. Swansons
controls 50 had positive history of smoking. Odds ratio in 192. Identify this Forceps
this study is A. Asches B. Walshams
A. 8 B. 5 C. Rowes D. Hayton williams
C. 50 D. 2 193. Identify this appliance
A. Straight pull headgear with J hook
180. Anesthetic potency of LA depends on B. High Pull headgear with J hook
A. pKa C. High pull face bow with safety connector
B. Protein binding D. Low pull face bow with safety connector
C. Non nervous tissue diffusability
D. Lipid solubility 194. Identify this File
181. Most important advantage of Radial Shoulder over A. Protaper B. Wave one
Classic shoulder is C. SAF D. Profile Series
A. More esthetic
B. Less destruction of tooth structure 195. Identify this instrument
C. Stress concentration is less at the internal finish line A. Simplifill B. Mtwo
D. More resistance to occlusal forces C. Twisted File D. Wave one
196. Identify this instrument
182. Whenever possible, the contour of the tissue A. Boons Gauge B. MBT Bracket holder
contacting area of the modified ridge lap pontic should C. Wills Gauge D. Iwansons Gauge
be 197.Identify the Obturation technique
A. Convex B. Concave A. Thermoplastic Injection technique
C. Conical D. No contact at all B. Carrier based Obturation
183. In the pulp chamber of permanent maxillary first C. Continous wave Obturation
molar, this is an obtuse angle D. Themomechanical obturation
A. Palatal angle B. Mesiobuccal angle 198. This muscle is supplied by
C. Distobuccal angle D. Mesiodistal angle A. Glossopharyngeal Nerve B. Facial Nerve
184. According to Kim’s classification of Isthmus, Very C. Hypoglossal Nerve D. Vagus Nerve
short complete isthmus between two canals is 199. Identify this instrument
A. Type I B. Type II A. Combitube B. Endotracheal Tube
C. Type III D. Type IV C. LMA D. OPA
185. First to mature oral tissue 200. Identify this angle
A. Tip of tongue A. Bjorks angle
B. Lip B. Articulare angle1
C. Posterior tongue C. Saddle angle
D. All soft tissues mature simultaneously D. Gonial Angle
186. Maximum increase in height of children is seen at
A. 1st year B. 2nd year
C. 3rd year D. 6th year
187. What is the probability that confounding factor fall
to the right of 95%
A. 1 in 5 B. 1 in 10
C. 1 in 20 D. 1 in 40

188. When the canal leaving the pulp chamber but

dividing short of the apex into two separate and distinct
canals with separate apical forman, is called
A. Type I canal B. Type II canal
C. Type III canal D. Type IV canal
189. Root shape before and aafter orthodontic treatment
with radiographic evidencewas first given by
A. Kaley and phillip B. Newman and Proffit
C. Ketchman AH D. Malmgren and Levander

190. Permissive occlusion splint, occlusion scheme used is

A. Uniform contact of posterior in centric relation and
canine guided in lateral excusrsions
B. Uniform occlusal contact in centric relation as well as
during lateral excursions
C. Uniform occlusal contact in centric relation and canine
guided in lateral excursion
D. Uniform occlusal contact in centric relation and group
function in lateral excursion

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