SULIT 2

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Marking scheme
Section A
Question 1

Question Mark Scheme Mark

1(a) Able to state the types of solutions

Sample answers
Solution J: Hypotonic solution
Solution K: Isotonic solution
Solution L: Hypertonic solution 1+1+1 3

(b) Able to explain the difference in curvature

Sample answer
Solution J:
F1: The strip in solution J curved outwards/ towards the
epidermis/ epidermal layer
P1: (Cortex) cells/ (parenchyma) cells become turgid/ longer
because water diffuses into the cell/ protoplasm/ cytoplasm
by osmosis.
P2: Epidermal cells have a layer of cuticle on the outside
P3: which resist/ restrict the entry of water (and retain its normal
size)
Any 2 1+1

Solution L:
F2: The strip in solution L curved inward/ towards the cortex/
parenchyma layer
P4: Water diffuses out of the cytoplasm/ protoplasm of the
(cortex) cells/ (parenchyma) cells by osmosis
P5: The cytoplasm and/or the vacuole of the cells will shrink
Any 2

1+1 4
(c)(i) Able to state the solution isotonic to the cell sap

Sample answer
Solution K 1

Able to give reasons correctly

(c)(ii)
Sample answer
P1: The strip in solution K remain straight
P2: because the (cortex/ parenchyma) cells have not increase
turgidity/flaccidity// no change in size/ remain the same size
P3: Water diffuses in and out of the cells by osmosis at the
same rate// Rate of endosmosis equal rate of exosmosis
Any 2

1+1 3

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(d) Able to draw the labelled diagram

D: Correct drawing 1
 with vacuole
 doubled-line cell wall
 plasma membrane pulled away with some parts attached to
the cell wall (totally detached from the cell wall is not accept)
L: Correct labels
 plasma/ cell membrane 1
 vacuole
Cell wall

Vacuole

Plasma/ Cell 2
membrane

Total 12

Question 2

No Mark Scheme Mark

2 (a)(i) Able to state the type of cell division involved in cell cycle in
Diagram 2

Answer :
Mitosis/Mitotic cell division 1
(a)(ii) Able to state one reason for answer in (a)(i)

Sample answer :
P1 : Produces 2 daughter cells
P2 : Occurs at root tip 1
Any 1 P
(a)(iii) Able to arrange the phases in Diagram 2 in correct 3
sequence by using the letters in Diagram 2

Answer :
QRTSP
1
(b) Able to explain why root tip is used for preparing slides to
show this cell cycle

Sample answer :
F : Root tip is growing region 1+1
P : the cells are actively divide 2

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(c)(i) Able to name stage Q

Answer :
Interphase 1
(c)(ii) Able to explain the importance of stage Q to this cell cycle

Sample answer :
F1: Replication of DNA occurs
P1: to produce two genetically identical daughter cells
F2 : Synthesis ATP//accumulate energy
P2 : Enable the cell to divide
Any 2 1+1 3

(d)(i) Able to define cloning

Sample answer :
P1: Process of producing genetically identical organisms 1+1
P2: through asexual reproduction
P3: by stem/leaf cutting/layering/grafting/any suitable example
Any 2

(d)(ii) Able to state one advantage and one disadvantage of cloning

Sample answer :
1
Advantage :
P1: Large numbers of offspring can be produced 4
P2: in a short time
P3: The good characteristic of parent can be maintained in the
offspring
Any 1 P 1
Disadvantages :
P3: The offspring produced do not show any genetic variation
P4: The offspring produced have same level of resistance to
certain diseases/pests
Any 1 P

TOTAL 12

Question 3

No Mark Scheme Mark

3 (a)(i) Able to state the process by which gaseous exchange takes
place across the alveolus.

Sample answer :
(Simple) diffusion 1

(a)(ii) Able to explain how the process occur

Sample answer :
F: Partial pressure of oxygen in the air of alveolus is higher than 1+1
in blood capillary
P: (Gas diffuse) follow the concentration gradient 3

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(b)(i) Able to name blood vessel S

Answer :
Pulmonary artery
1
(b)(ii) Able to describe the role of blood vessel S in transporting
oxygen from alveolus to muscle cell

Sample answer :
P1: In the blood, oxygen from alveolus combine with respiratory 1+1
pigment / haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin / oxygenated
blood
P2: transport oxygenated blood // oxyhaemoglobin to heart
P3: the heart pump the oxygenated blood to muscle cells
Any 2 3
(c)(i) Able to name process P and process Q

Answer :
P : Aerobic respiration 1+1
Q : Anaerobic respiration
(c)(ii) Able to explain one difference between process P and
process Q

Sample answer :
P Q
D1 Complete breakdown
of glucose
E1 Release large amount
of energy // 2898 kJ
per molecule glucose //
38 molecules of ATP
D2 Produce carbon
dioxide and water
E2 Produced as waste
product
D3 Occurs in the
mitochondria
E2 Oxygen is required
(d) Able to explain the statement
Incomplete breakdown of
glucose
Release less amount of 1+1
energy // 150 kJ per
molecule glucose // 2
molecules of ATP
Produce lactic acid
Caused muscular 4
cramps/fatigue
Occurs in the cytoplasm
Oxygen is not required
Any 2

Sample answer :
F1: (During the vigorous activity) the muscle cells are in a state 1+1
of oxygen deficiency / oxygen debt // the blood cannot
supply oxygen fast enough to meet the demand for energy /
ATP
P1: (The increase in heartbeat rate) is to deliver more oxygen /
glucose to muscle cells
P2: to obtain extra energy (from anaerobic respiration) // to
increase rate of cellular respiration
P3: to remove more carbon dioxide from the muscle cells
Any 2
2
TOTAL 12

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Question 4

No Mark Scheme Mark

4(a)(i) Able to state type of blood circulatory system shown by
organism P and organism Q.

Answer
Organism P :
Double circulatory system

Organism Q :
Single circulatory system 1+1 2

(a)(ii) Able to name one example of organism P and organism Q.

Sample answers
Organism P :
Human

Organism Q :
Fish
1+1 2
(b) Able to explain the importance of having the blood
circulatory system to organism P.

Sample answer

F : (double circulatory system ) is more efficient

P1: the heart pumps the blood twice / the blood flow into the heart
twice in a complete circulation.
P2 : higher pressure of blood can be maintained.
P3 : the blood travels more faster to organs
P4 : the organs get sufficient amount of glucose / oxygen /
nutrient // the waste product / carbon dioxide / urea can be
eliminated out of organ.
Any 3 1+1+ 3
1
(c) Able to explain one difference of heart structure between
organism P and organism Q.

Sample answer
F : heart of organism P has four chamber but organism Q has
two chamber
P1: organism P has right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle and left
ventricle but organism Q has ventricle and atrium. //
organism P has two atriums and two ventricles but organism
Q has one ventricle and one atrium.
P2 : in organism P , the heart receives both oxygenated blood
and deoxygenated blood while in organism Q , the heart only
receives deoxygenated blood.
Any 2
1+1 2

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(d) Able to explain why a person needs second injection to
maintain the level of immunity

Sample answer

F : booster dose
P1 : stimulate lymphocycte to produce more antibody
P2 : to achieve immunity level
P3 : that protect the person against disease
Any 3 1+1+1 3
Total 12

Question 5

No Mark Scheme Mark

5(a) Able to complete Diagram 5 to show the cross between the
plants

Sample Answer
1. RRTT
2. rrtt
3. Genotype F1 : RrTt
4. Phenotype F1 : Red, tall 1+1+1+ 3
1
(b)(i) Able to Use Punnett Square to show crossing of F1 generation
to produce F2 offspring.

Sample answers

Gametes RT Rt rT rt
RT RRTT RRTt RrTT RrTt
Rt RRTt RRtt RrTt Rrtt
rT RrTT RrTt rrTT rrTt
rt RrTt Rrtt rrTt rrtt

G : all gametes correct = 1 mark

C : 14 to 16 genotype correct = 2 marks
4 to 13 genotype correct = 1 mark 1+2 4

(b) Able to calculate phenotype ratio of the offspring produced in F2

(ii) generation

Sample answer

Phenotype: Red, Tall Red, dwarf White, tall White, dwarf

Calculation 9 3 3 1
: 16 16 16 16
Ratio: 9 3 3 1

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All phenotype correct = 1 mark
All calculation correct = 1 mark
All ratio correct = 1 mark
1+1+1 3
(c) Able to explain why some of the offspring produced do not have
same phenotype as their parents.

Sample answer

P1: The dominant allele / R / T will mask/cover the effect of the

recessive allele / r / t //any suitable explanation
P2: a recessive allele / r / t only expresses itself when dominant
allele / R / T is absent
P3: RrTt represent red flowered tall plant while white flowered dwarf
plant are not expressed // any suitable example of genotype and
phenotype

Any 2 1 + 1 2
Total 12

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Section B
Question 6
No Mark Scheme Marks
6(a) Able to describe the differences between light reaction and
dark reaction

Sample answers:

Light reaction Dark reaction

D1. Occurs in granum Occurs in stroma
D2. Requires light Does not require light
D3. Involves photolysis of Involves reduction/fixation
water of carbon dioxide
D4. Materials required is Materials required is
water carbon dioxide
D5. Produces oxygen and Produces glucose
water Max
Any 4 4m
(b) Able to explain how plants grown in greenhouses can
ensure the production of crops throughout the year.

Sample answer:
F: In temperate countries light intensity / temperature changes
throughout the year.
P1: In winter , temperature is very low
P2: In autumn, the plants shed their leaves // Light intensity/
temperature is low
P3: Rate of photosynthesis is very low
P4: In spring and summer, the light intensity/temperature are
optimum for photosynthesis.
P5: So the rate of photosynthesis is maximum / highest.
P6: In the greenhouse, light intensity/concentration of carbon
dioxide/temperature are maintained at optimum level (for
photosynthesis ) throughout the year.
P7: So the rate of photosynthesis is maintained at maximum
level throughout the year (regardless of changes in light
intensity or temperature).
P8: The plants are able to increase yields / increase the crops Max
production throughout the years. 6m
Any 6
(c) Able to explain the rate of photosynthesis in plant
throughout the day

Sample answer:
F1: From 0000 to 0600, the rate of photosynthesis is very low
P1: The light intensity / temperature is (very) low
P2: ( At low temperature,) photosynthetic enzymes are inactive.

F2: From 0600 to 1200 , the rate of photosynthesis increase

(rapidly)
P3: Light intensity / Temperature also increases
P4: Enzyme for photosynthesis become more active.
P5: Stomata open wider to allow absorption of more carbon
dioxide

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F3: The rate of photosynthesis is maximum / the highest at 1200

P6: The light intensity / temperature is optimum (for
photosynthesis).
P7: Enzymes are the most active.

F4: From 1200 to 1800, the rate of photosynthesis decreases

P8: Light intensity / temperature decreases
P9: Photosynthetic enzyme are less active
P10: Stomatal openings/pores become smaller
P11 : Less carbon dioxide is absorbed

F5: From 1800 to 2300 , the rate of photosynthesis become very

low/stopped/ceased
P12 : Light intensity / temperature is very low
P13: Photosynthetic enzymes are not active
P14: Stomata closed Max
P15: Very little / no carbon dioxide is absorbed 10m
Any 10
Total 20

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Question 7

No Mark Scheme Sub Total

mark mark
7 (a) Able to describe how the structures of kidney are adapted 4
to enable them to carry out homeostasis process.

Sample answer

F1 : (each kidney) contains hundreds of thousand / a large

number of nephrones
P1 : to filter substances from the blood efficiently.

F2 : (each kidney) has ureter

P2 : to carry away the urine / solution of wastes dissolved in
water / creatinine/toxin and drugs

F3 : (each kidney) received blood (that already) under

relatively high pressure.
P3 : ultrafiltration can take place efficiently

F4 : the kidney is controlled by negative feedback

mechanisms

Any 4
(b) Able to describe how the machine used to remove waste 6
product such as urea from person with kidney failure .

Sample answer

P1 : blood from the patient’s artery is passed through a

machine

P2 : which contains a dialyser / dialysis solution

P3 : dialysis tubing has a semi-permeable membrane

P4 : concentration of waste molecules / urea in blood is

higher than in the dialysis solution // there is concentration
gradient between the blood and dialysis solution

P5 : waste molecules / urea / excess salts diffuse through

membrane from blood to dialysis solution.

P6 : dialysis solution is continuously being replaced //

essential substances remain in the blood.

P7 : plasma protein / red blood cells are not able to diffuse

through membrane of dialysis tubing

P8 : because the size is bigger/too big

P9 : the direction of the flow of blood is opposite to the

direction of dialysis solution

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P10 : to ensure the waste molecule / urea is continuously
being remove from blood to dialysis solution.

P11 : the filtered blood re-enters the patients blood vessel

Any 6
(c) Able to explain the differences between the percentage of 10
chemical substances in blood and urine.

Sample answer

F1 : percentage of water in blood is higher than in urine.

P1 : In the proximal convoluted tubule

P2 : The Na+ are pumped into the capillary //

some salts are reabsorbed by a active transport

P3 : The movement of solutes into the capillary network

decreases the solute concentration of the filtrate but
increases the solute concentration in the capillary
network.

P4 : As a result, water diffuses into blood capillaries by

osmosis from the proximal convoluted tubule / Loop of
Henle / distal convoluted tubule / collecting duct

F2 : Percentage of plasma protein is higher in blood compared

to urine // percentage of plasma protein is nil in urine

P5 : size of plasma proteins are larger/too large which cannot

be filtered out/diffused out during ultrafiltration.

F3 : percentage of glucose is high in blood but nil in urine

P6 : All glucose are reabsorbed by active transport at proximal

convoluted tubule.

F4 : percentage of urea is higher in urine than in blood

P7 : Urea is actively transported from the blood capillary to the

distal convoluted tubule.

P8 : by secretion process

Any 10

Total 20

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Question 8

No Mark Scheme Sub Total

Mark Mark
8 (a)(i) Able to explain the cause of the phenomenon and its
effect on the environment

C: Causes of the phenomenon

E: Effects of the phenomenon

Sample answers

F : This phenomenon is called green house effect

C1: Combustion of fossil fuels from vehicles/ factories/
forest burning / coal-fired power station
C2: excessive deforestation
C3: increase carbon dioxide concentration in the
atmosphere
C4: pollutants/CFC/methane

E1: carbon dioxide traps heat/ infra-red light/ long-wave

radiation
E2: increase in global/ world atmospheric temperature/
cause a rise in Earth’s temperature/ global warming.
E3: melting of polar ice/ rise in the sea levels
F with any 5 points 1+5 6
(a)(ii) Able to suggest measures to overcome the
phenomenon

Sample answers

P1: use alternative source of energy to reduce the usage of

fossil fuels/energy generated from wind / water/ solar
P2: restrict open burning/ forest burning/ use incinerator
P3: reduce deforestation for farming/other development
projects
P4: Selective harvesting/logging/cut matured tree only
P5: replanting more trees which have been cut down
P6: the use of technology / unleaded petrol / catalytic
converter
Any 4 4 4
(b) Able to discuss the effects of the phenomenon on the
lives on Earth.

Sample answers

F: The phenomenon is known as the thinning/ depletion of

the ozone layer
P1: More ultraviolet ray reaches the Earth’s surface
P2: Ultra-violet ray will deteriorate human’s body immune
system
P3: An increase in the number of people suffering from skin
cancer/ melanoma / cataract
P4: High ultraviolet rays destroy phytoplanktons

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P5: break the food chain of marine life / the aquatic
ecosystem
P6: the number of stomata / chlorophyll of the leaves will be
reduced
P7: Rate of photosynthesis decreases
F with any 5P 1+5 6
(c) Able to explain the concept of sustainable and its need
to protect our environment.

Sample answers
F: (Sustainable development refers to) the measures
undertaken to ensure that human activity optimally
utilize Earth’s natural resources such that they can be
replenished naturally//suitable explanation
P1: Sustainable development is necessary as the rate at
which man is using the finite natural resources will
compromise future generation’s demands//suitable
explanation
P2: Ultimately, the natural resources, if continued to be
depleted, will no longer be able to sustain human
society//suitable explanation
P3: Sustainable development involves the protection of
air/land/water
P4: which make up the surrounding we live in and survive
upon.
P5: (It is intimately linked) to the protection of wildlife as well
P6: in order to maintain a stable/balanced ecosystem
F + any 3P 1+3 4

Total 20

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Question 9

No. Mark Scheme Marks

9(a) Able to state what fertilisation is
(i)
Sample Answer
Fertilisation occurs when the nucleus of a sperm and the nucleus 1
of an ovum fuse to form zygote

(a)(ii) Able to describe the early development after the formation of

a zygote from process I to IV

Sample Answer

Process I
P1 : Fertilisation occurs at the fallopian tube to form a zygote

Process II
P2 : the zygote begins to divide by mitosis
P3 : known as an embryo
P4 : The zygote is divided successively into a solid mass of cell
P5 : At this stage, a morula is formed

Process III
P6 : the morula then divides to form a hollow ball with fluid-filled
cavity
P7: called blastocyst//blastula

Process IV
P8 : (seven day after fertilisation) the blastocyst implants itself into
the endometrium
P9 : The blastocyst/blastula formed has an inner cell mass which
will develop into an embryo
Any 7 7
(iii) Able to predict what might happen if the corpus luteum fails
to develop after fertilisation.

Sample answer:

P1 : the level of progesterone drops / decrease

P2 : the foetus will be aborted
P3 : because the function of progesterone is to maintain
thickening / vascularisation of the endometrium wall
Any 2
2
(b) Able to describe the in vitro fertilisation technique

Sample answer:
F : In-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is the fertilisation of the egg that
occurs outside the human body
P1 : the wife was injected with hormone to stimulate the
development of the secondary oocyte / ovum in ovaries
P2 : secondary oocyte / immature ova are collected by using a
laparoscope (from ovary before ovulation)

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P3 : The immature ova are placed in culture solution to mature
P4 : Sperms are collected/placed in the culture solution
P5 : sperms from husband fertilise with the secondary oocyte in a
Petri dish (contains culture medium)
P6 : (after fertilization) zygote will divide by mitosis
P7 : (after 2 days) formed embryo are at eight celled stage
P8 : Afew embryos/fertilised ova are transferred into the
endometrium wall of uterus by using catheter
P9 : embryos/fertilised ova are implanted into endometrium wall
of uterus and start to develop
P10 : baby that is delivered is called test tube baby
P11 : This technique is complicated / expensive/the
probability to success is low
F with any 9 Ps 10

TOTAL MARK 20

PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN TAMAT

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