Studymate Solutions to CBSE Board Examination 2017-2018

Series : TYM/1 Code No. 31/1

Candidates must write the Code on

Roll No. the title page of the answer-book.

4 Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages.

4 Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title
page of the answer-book by the candidate.

4 Please check that this question paper contains 27 questions.

4 Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.

4 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be
distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the question
paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.

SCIENCE
[Time allowed : 3 hours] [Maximum marks : 80]

General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprise two Section A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and Section B are to be attempted separated.
(iv) There is an internal choice in three questions of three marks each, two questions of five marks
each in Section A and in one question of two marks in Section B.
(v) Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. They are to be answered in one
word or in one sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. They are to be answered in about
30 word each.
(vii) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. They are to be answered in
about 50 word each.
(viii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. They are to be answered in
about 70 word each.
(ix) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are based on practical skills. Each question is a two
marks question. These are to be answered in brief.

Disclaimer: All model answers in this Solution to Board paper are written by Studymate Subject Matter Experts.
This is not intended to be the official model solution to the question paper provided by CBSE.
The purpose of this solution is to provide a guidance to students.
STUDYmate

Section – A
1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny?
Ans. All Violet (Vv) flowers in F1 progeny.
2. Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plants.
Ans. Sources of energy: In a hydropower plant the following energy conversions takes place:
Potential energy → Kinetic energy of water → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy
3. A compound X on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K give an unsaturated
compound Y. X also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas Z. Identify X, Y and Z.
Write the equation of the chemical reaction of formation of Y and also write the role of sulphuric
acid in the reaction.
Ans. Carbon compounds
X – Ethanol Y – Ethene
Z – Hydrogen gas
conc. H SO
CH3CH2OH 2
443 K
4
→ C2H4 + H2O
(X) (Y)

2CH3CH2OH + 2Na → 2CH3CH2 − ONa + H2

(Z)

Concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent.

4. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor present in human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an
electrical impulse.
Dendrite → a → b → End point of Neoron
Ans. (a) The gustatory receptor is tongue and olfactory receptor is nose.
(b) a – is Cyton   b – is Axon
5. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is
always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support
your answer.
Ans. Convex mirrors always forms virtual, erect and diminished images for all positions of the object.

F C

6. Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for
breaking down the reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where
energy is supplied in the form of heat, light and electricity.
Ans. Decomposition reaction is a type of reaction where a compound is broken down into two or
more smaller compounds/individual elements in the presence of heat, light or electricity.
Thermal decomposition
2Pb ( NO3 )2 
∆

→ 2PbO+ 4NO2 ↑ +O2 ↑
White
Yellow

Photo decomposition
Sunlight
2AgCl  → 2Ag + Cl2 ↑
Electro decomposition
Electricity
2H2O  → 2H2 + O2
7. 2 ml of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in
a test tube. When the contents are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap
solution before testing. Write the equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to

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detect the gas. Name the gas which will be evolved when the same metal reacts with dilute
solution of a strong acid.
OR
The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a
chemical equation for its formation. List its two uses.
Ans. When sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc granules it gives sodium zinc ate and hydrogen gas.
Zn (s) + NaOH (aq) → Na2ZnO2 + H2 ↑
The gas evolved is hydrogen gas. It is colourless and odorless gas that burns with a pop sound.
When zinc metal reacts with dilute solution of strong acid, it liberates hydrogen gas.
Zn (s) + dil. H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 ↑
Zinc has dual nature, i.e., it reacts with acid as well as base.
OR
The salt is baking soda (NaHCO3).
NaCl + H2O + NH3 + CO2 → NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
Uses of baking soda:-
(a) It is used in the manufacture of baking powder.
(b) It is used as an antacid.
8. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity?
(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are
arranged in a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in the compound.
Ans. Carbon compounds
(a) Carbon compounds are covalent compounds. They do not ionize in molten state or
aqueous solution. Hence they are poor conductors of electricity.
(b) Cyclobutane
H H
C–C
H H
H C–C H
H H
There are 12 single bonds.
9. Name the hormone secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of each:
(a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas
Ans. (a) Thyroid – It secretes Thyroxine and helps in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
(b) Pituitary – It secretes Growth hormone and helps in development of muscles and bones.
(c) Pancreas – It secretes Insulin and regulates the level of blood sugar.
10. Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species
is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival–the one reproducing asexually or the
one reproducing sexually. Give reason to justify your answer.
Ans.
Asexual Sexual
One parent is involved. Both parents are involved.
Species which reproduces by sexual mode has better chances of survival as sexual reproduction
produces a lot of variations which helps the organism to adapt better in the changing niche.
11. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term absolute refractive index of a medium and
write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
OR
What is meant by power of a lens. Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal length 40 cm
and another of –20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens.

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Ans. Laws of refraction of light: There are two laws of refraction of light.
(a) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent
media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
(b) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant, for
the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media. This law is also known as Snell’s
law of refraction.
sin i
= Constant
sin r
Absolute refractive index of a medium: It is the ratio of velocity of light in air or vacuum to
the velocity of light in the given medium.
Va
a µm =
Vm
where,
Vm = Velocity of light in medium Va = Velocity of light in vacuum/air
amm = Absolute refractive index
OR
Power of lens: The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters. The SI unit of
power of lens is dioptre.
40
(a) Focal length (f1) = 40 = m = 0.4 m
100
1 1
Power of f1 lens (P1) == = 2.5 D
f1 0.4
This lens is of converging nature, i.e., convex lens.
−20
(b) Focal length (f2) = –20 cm = m = −0.2 m
100
1 1
Power of f2 lens (P2) = = = −5 D
f2 −0.2
This lens is of diverging nature, i.e., concave lens.
12. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 W so that the equivalent resistance
of the combination is (i) 13.5 W, (ii) 6 W?
OR
(a) Write Joule’s law of heating
(b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel
to electric mains supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply
voltage is 220 V.
Ans. (a) R1 = 9 W, R2 = 9 W, R3 = 9 W
1 1 1 1 1 2 R2
= + = + = Ω R
R P R 2 R 3 9 9 9
1

R3
9
R = = 4.5 Ω
P 2
Req = R1 + RP = 9 + 4.5 = 13.5 W
(b) R1 = 9 W, R2 = 9 W, R3 = 9 W
R1 R2
RS = R1 + R2 = 9 + 9 = 18 W
1 1 1 1 1 1+ 2 3 R3
= + = + = =
R eq R S R 3 18 9 18 18
18
R eq = = 6Ω
3
OR

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(a)
Joules law of heating: Heat produced in a conductor due to the flow of current,

(i) Is directly proportional to square of the current, H ∝ I2.
(ii) Is directly proportional to the resistance of the conductor, H ∝ R.


(iii) Is directly to time for which the current is passed,
H ∝ I2 Rt
H = I2 Rt
(b)
For 100 W bulb
100 W, 220 V
2
V
P1 =
R1
V 2 220 × 220
=R1 = = 484Ω 60 W, 220 V
P1 100
For 60 W bulb ( )
V2 220 V
P2 =
R2
V 2 220 × 220 2420
=R2 = =
P2 60 3
Total resistance
1 1 1 1 3 5+3 8
= + = + = =
R eq R1 R12 484 2420 2420 2420
2420
R eq =
8
V = IR
V 220 × 8 8
I= = = = 0.727 A
R 2420 11
I = 0.727 A
13. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of
electricity? Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.
Ans. (a) Factors on which resistance of a conductor depends
(i) the length of the conductor (wire).
(ii) the area of cross-section of a conductor (wire).
(iii) temperature
(iv) type of material or resistivity.
(b) Metals are good conductors of electricity because it has free electrons present in it while
glass do not have free electrons to conduct electricity.
(c) (i) Alloys has more resistivity than metals therefore they provide high resistance to
the flow of electric current and because of which more heat is produced which is
required for a working of heating devices.
(ii) They have high melting point and do not oxidise easily.
14. Students in a school listed to the news read in the morning assembly that the mountain of
garbage in Delhi, suddenly exploded and various vehicles got buried under it. Several people
were also injured and there was traffic jam all around. In the brain storming session the
teacher also discussed this issue and asked the students to find out a solution to the problem
of garbage. Finally they arrived at two main points one is self management of the garbage we
produce and the second is to generate less garbage at individual level.
(a) Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.
(b) As in individual, what can we do to generate the least garbage? Give two points.
(c) List two values the teacher instilled in his students in this episode.

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Ans. (a) We can manage the garbage that we produce by recycling them and making compost out
of the biodegradable garbage.
(b) (i) We can reduce the use of plastic bags and use jute or cloth bags.
(ii) We can reuse glass jars to store food stuffs.
(c) The two values the teacher instilled in his students are cleanliness and to be sensitive
towards environment.
15. What is a dam? Why do we seek to build large dams? While building large dams, which three
main problems should particularly be addressed to maintain peace among local people? Mention
them.
Ans. A dam is a structure built on the river that stops the flow of water forming a reservoir.
We seek to build large dams because
(i) Large dams can ensure the storage of adequate water not just for irrigation ,but also to
generate electricity.
(ii) Dams ensure continuous water supply in town and cities.
Three main problems by building dams are –
• Social Problems: Due to the construction of dams a large number of villages are sub merged
in the water and many people are rendered homeless. This creates a social problems.
• Environmental Problems: The construction of dams causes deforestation and loss of
biodiversity. It disturbs the ecological balance and thus affect people.
• Economic Problems: Construction of dams involves the spending of huge amount of public
money with out generation of proportional benefits.
16. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series
from their carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore? Explain the various steps supported by
chemical equations. Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper.
Ans. (a) The metal in the middle of the activity series is zinc.
Ø Its ore is calamine-ZnCO3

Ø The ZnCO3 is then heated in absence of air, the process is called as calcination.
Heat
ZnCO3  → ZnO + CO2
Ø Then ZnO is reduced by coke.
Heat
ZnO + C  → Zn + CO

Ø By reduction we get impure Zn.
Ø Then Zn-metal is refined by electrolysis process.
(b) The ore of copper is cuprous sulphide (Cu2S).
Ø It under goes on roasting i.e. heated in presence of excess of oxygen.
Heat
Cu S + O  → Cu O + SO2
2 2 2

Ø Cuprous oxide is then goes for self reduction.
Heat
Cu2O + Cu2S → Cu + SO2
Ø We get impure metal. Then it is refined by electrolytic refining.

17. (a) The modern periodic table has been evolved through the early attemps of Dobereiner,
Newland and Mendeleev. List one advantage and one limitation of all the three attempts.
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(b) Name the scientist who first of all showed that atomic number of an element is a more
fundamental property than its atomic mass.
(c) State Modern periodic law.
Ans. (a) (i) Advantage of Dobereineir’s attempt: First attempt coming up with the idea of
classification of elements.
Limitation of Dobereinier’s attempt: He could not arrange all the elements known
that time in form of TRAIDS.
(ii) Advantage of Newland’s attempt: He was the first one to come up with idea of
periodicity while classifying elements.
Limitation of Newland’s attempt: It was applicable only for lighter elements upto
calcium.
(iii) Advantage of Mendeleev’s attempt: Although noble gases were discovered very
late, but they can be placed easily in Mendeleev’s periodic table without disturbing
the order of rest of elements.
Limitation of Mendeleev’s attempt: Position of hydrogen was not explained.
(b) Henry Moseley
(b) Modern periodic law: Properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic
numbers.
18. (a) Mention any two components of blood.
(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins.
OR
(a) Define excretion.
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system
which perform following functions:
(i) from urine
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney.
(iii) store urine until it is passed out.
Ans. (a) Plasma and cells (corpuscles) – RBC, WBC, platelets
(b) Oxygenated blood from the lungs by the pulmonary vein reaches the left auricle of the
heart. From left auricle through the bicuspid valve it goes to left ventricle and then by
aorta it is distributed to the whole body.
(c) The valves present between the atria and ventricle allows one way flow of blood and
prevents the back flow of the blood.
(d) Artery Vein
Thick walled Thin walled.
OR
(a) The process of removal of toxic nitrogenous wastes from the body of an organism is called
excretion.
(b) Nephron is the main filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c)

(i) Kidney

(ii) Ureter

(iii) Urinary bladder

19. (a) Write the function of following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
(b) Describe in brief the structure and function of placenta.
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Ans. (i) Ovary – produces ova

(ii)
Oviduct – carries ova and is a site of fertilization
(iii)
Uterus – implantation and development of embryo
(b) Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s
side of the tissue. On the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This
provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the
embryo, helps in transfer of nutrition and removal of waste from foetus.
20. (a) A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the blank board placed at a
distance of approximately 3 m from him, Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering
from. State the possible causes of this defect and explain the method of correcting it.
(b) Why do stars twinkle? Explain
OR
(a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris
(iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles
(b) Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed
by an astronaut on the Moon? Give reason to justify your answer.
Ans. (a) The defect is Myopia.
The defect is caused due to (i) the elongation of eyeball (ii) excessive curvature of the lens.
It can be corrected by using concave lens. The image of an object is formed before retina
i.e., the converging ability of the lens decreases. Hence we use concave lens for the
correction.

(b)

The stars are very far from us, as well as it is a point sized source. The earth atmosphere
consist of different layers with different refractive index. Therefore when star light enters
earth’s atmosphere it suffers successive atmospheric refraction due to variable refractive
index. The light travels zig-zag part when it reaches our eyes, instead of straight path,
hence stars appears to twinkle.
OR
(a) Functions.
(i) Cornea – 65 to 75% refraction or bending of lens occur through cornea.
(ii) Iris – controls the amount of light entering the eye by controlling the size of pupil.
(iii) Crystalline lens – lens is responsible to form image on the retina.
(iv) Ciliary muscles – controls the aperture of lens according to the need.
(b) The sun appears reddish early in the morning because during that time sun remains
below horizon and the rays have to pass through a longer distance, during this time it
scatters maximum blue, violet, Indigo as well as green light due to presence of smaller
particles, and only the red light having maximum wavelength reaches us. Due to which
the sun appears red.
This phenomenon is not observed by as astronaut on the moon due to absence of
atmosphere.
21. (a) State Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) Write the principle of working of an electric motor.
(c) Explain the function of the following parts of an electric motor.
(i) Armature (ii) Brushes (iii) Split ring

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Ans. (a) The Fleming’s left hand rule states – if we stretch the three fingers forefinger, middle
finger and thumb, mutually perpendicular to each other then the forefinger will show the
direction of magnetic field, middle finger will show the direction of electric current and the
thumb will show the direction of force on the conductors.
(b) When a current carrying conductor is placed in an external magnetic field, it will experience
a force.
(c) Armature
(i) Armature - it is a rectangular iron core wrapped by copper coil, through which electricity
passes and due to magnetic field it experiences a force and rotates
(ii) Brushes – provides continuous path to the flow of electric current.
(iii) Split ring – it is also known as commutator. It keeps on changing the direction of current
in every ½ rotation of armature.
22. A student added few pieces of aluminium metal to two test tubes A and B containing aqueous
solutions of iron sulphate and copper sulphate. In the second part of her experiment, she
added iron metal to another test tubes C and D containing aqueous solutions of aluminium
sulphate and copper sulphate.
In which test tube or test tubes will she observe colour change? On the basis of this experiment,
state which one is the most reactive metal and why.
Ans. When aluminium is added to test tubes A and B containing aqueous solutions of iron sulphate
and copper sulphate.
Then,
Aluminium will displace both iron and copper from their salt solutions as Aluminium is more
reactive than both iron & copper.
Also, iron when added to test tube C containing aluminium sulphate will not react but will
displace copper from its salt solution in test tube D.
Therefore, colour change will take place in test tubes A, B and D. No colour change will take
place in C.
ALUMINIUM is the most reactive metal amongst all of them as it can displace both iron and
copper form their salt solutions.
23. What is observed when a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride
taken in a test tube? Write equation for the chemical reaction involved and name the type of
reaction in the case.
Ans. When a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of Barium chloride, then a white
precipitate of Barium sulphate is formed.

BaCl2 (aq ) + Na 2SO4 (aq ) → BaSO4 ↓ +NaCl(aq )

White ppt.
Type of Reaction :
DOUBLE DISPLACEMENT REACTION
24. List the steps of preparation of temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe stomata.
Ans. Procedure:
1. Peel off the leaf from its under surface and put the peel in a watch glass containing water.
2. Add a few drops of Safranin stain into the watch glass to stain the peel.
3. After staining put the peel on a clean slide and cut it in a rectangular or square shape.
4. With the help of a filter paper, remove the excess of stain and water.
5. Put a drop of glycerine on the slide over the peel, gently put the coverslip to avoid the
entry of air bubbles and observe under the microscope.
25. Name the process by which an amoeba reproduces. Draw the various stages of its reproduction
in a proper sequence.
OR
A student is viewing under a microscope a permanent slide showing various stages of asexual
reproduction by budding in yeast. Draw diagrams of what he observes (in proper sequence)

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25. Amoeba reproduces by Binary fission.

Pseudopodia Dividing cytoplasm
Daughter Amoebae
Dividing nucleus
Nucleus

OR

Daughter
yeast
Bud with
Bud
nucleus
Nucleus Bud
formation
Parent yeast

26. An object of height 4.0 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex
lens of focal length 20 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed.
Mark optical centre ‘O’ and principal focus ‘F’ on the diagram. Also find the approximate ratio
of size of the image to the size of the object.
u = 30 cm
A
B
Ans.
2F1 B F1 0 F2 2F2

A

Position of Image : Beyond 2F2

Size of image : Enlarge.
Given:-
ho = 4 cm
u = –30 cm
f = 20 cm
Now,
Using lens formula
1 1 1
− =
v u f
1  1  1
− =
v  −30  20
1 1 1
+ =
v 30 20
1 1 1
= −
v 20 30
1 3−2
=
v 60
v = 60 cm

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hi v
Now m = =
h0 u
hi 60
=
4 −30
hi = 2 × –4 = – 8
Height of image
Ratio =
Height of object
8
= −
4
Ratio = – 2 : 1 or m = –2
Here –ve sign indicates that the image formed is real & inverted and enlarged.
27. The value of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R), for the corresponding
values of potential difference (V) across the resistance are as given below :
V (volts) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 4.0 5.0
I (amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
Plot a graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) and determine the resistance (R) of
the resistor.
Ans. As slope of V-I graph gives Resistance
∆V V2 − V1 5
Resistance (R) = =
∆I I2 − I1 4.5
4
1.5 − 1
= 3.5
0.3 − 0.2
0.5 3.5
=
0.1 3
R = 5W 2.5
2
V

1.5
1
0.5
0
0.10.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1
I

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