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Khartoum University - Faculty of Dentistry Enterance

Examinations MCQs

1. Which of the following give rise to ameloblasts:


a. Inner dental epithelial cells
b. Ectomesenchymal cells
c. Cells of the dental follicle
d. Outer dental epithelial cells

2. The dental papilla


a. Is the only layer of enamel organ that is closest to blood vessels
b. Will form the ameloblasts
c. Becomes the dental pulp
d. Will combine with cells of dental papilla to form the root sheath

3. From which of the following is the gingiva derived


a. Dental follicle
b. Enamel organ
c. Dental papilla
d. Epithelial root sheath

4. Permanent mandibular 2nd premolar tooth bud will develop:


a. Anterior to mandibular deciduous 2nd molar
b. Between the roots mandibular deciduous 2nd molar
c. Posterior to mandibular deciduous 2nd molar
d. As a separate tooth bud buccal to the mandibular deciduous 2nd molar

5. Which type of gingival fibers attaches to cementum of adjacent teeth and is


present over the alveolar crest?
a. Alveolar crest fibers
b. Alveologingival fibers
c. Transseptal fibers
d. Circular fibers

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6. What are extrinsic fibers of cementum?
a. Fibers produced by cementoblasts
b. Noncalcified fibers associated with the attachment of periodontal ligament
fibers
c. Principal fibers of the PDL
d. None of the above

7. The enamel prism


a. Contain nerve endings
b. Formed by 4 ameloblasts
c. Contain ameloblast
d. Is an extension of dentinal tubules

8. Which of the following gingival fibers are attached to the alveolar bone:
a. Transeptal
b. All of the gingival
c. Dento-periosteal
d. Circular

9. Hunter Schreger bands are :


a. Dark and light bands of enamel seen in longitudinal ground section
b. Dark and light bands of cellular cementum seen in horizontal ground
section
c. Dark and light bands of dentin seen in longitudinal ground section
d. Dark and light bands of dentin seen in horizontal ground section

10. Enamel spindles are :


a. Thin tuft like structure extending from enamel surface to dentin-enamel
junction
b. Tuft-like structure arising from dentin-enamel junction extending towards
enamel surface
c. Odontoblastic processes ( thread -like extending into the enamel )
d. None of the above

11. The pulp stone is called true denticle when :


a. Defused in the pulp
b. Attached to the dentine
c. It forms cementoid
d. It forms tooth like structure

12. Processes of Tome are:-

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a. Subodontoblastic processes
b. Cementocytes processes
c. Cross the amelodentinal junction
d. Ameloblastic processes

13. The maximum fluoride content in found in:-


a. Enamel
b. Cementum
c. Dental stone
d. Dentine

14. Desmolytic stage of the life cycle of the ameloblasts :-


a. Protect the successional tooth against odontoclast
b. Starts after root completion
c. Is penetration of the reduce enamel epithelium for eruption
d. Start after complete root formation

15. The layer of masticatory mucosa is mitotically active and provides new
cells replenish the cells that are continuously shed is:
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum granulosum
c. Stratum spinosum
d. Stratum corneum

16. The following cross the masseter muscle EXCEPT:


a. Masseteric nerve
b. Buccal branch of the facial nerve
c. Facial artery
d. Parotid duct
e. Facial vein

17. Damage of the lingual nerve in traumatic extraction of lower third molar
leads to:
a. Unilateral paralysis of the genioglossus
b. Numbness of the lower lip
c. Anesthesia of the tip of the tongue
d. Paralysis of the lower lip
e. Paralysis of the floor of the mouth

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18. Which of the following arteries is visible in a superficial dissection of the
posterior triangle of the neck?
a. Transverse cervical artery
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Vertebral artery
d. Superior thyroid artery
e. Ascending pharyngeal artery

19. The ciliary muscle


a. Is used for opening and closing the pupil
b. Is innervated by sympathetic
c. Is innervated by parasympathetic’s from CN VII, the facial n.
d. Is innervated by parasympathetic’s from CN III, the oculomotor n.
e. Secretes lacrimal fluid

20. The cochlea


a. Lies in the middle ear
b. Registers angular acceleration
c. Is innervated by CN VII, the facial n.
d. Is the organ of hearing
e. Is a snail

21. The malleus


a. Attaches to the round window
b. Attaches to the stapedius m.
c. Attaches to the tympanic membrane
d. Articulates with the mandible
e. Lies in the external ear

22. The 3rd ventricle is located in the:


a. Rhombencephalon
b. Diencephalon
c. Mesencephalon
d. Medulla oblongata
e. Telencephalon

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23. Which of the following statements about the palate is false?
a. The levator veli palatini elevates the soft palate during swallowing
b. The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate during swallowing
c. The greater palatine nerve supplies the mucous lining of the hard palate
d. The nasopalatine nerve supplies the mucous lining of the soft palate
e. The uvula is part of the soft palate

24. Which of the following statements about the salivary glands is true?
a. The parotid gland is the smallest of the salivary glands
b. The sublingual salivary gland is found inferior to the angle of the mandible
c. Parasympathetic innervation is supplied to the parotid gland via the otic
ganglion
d. The submandibular gland is supplied by parasympathetic nerves with cell
bodies in the ciliary ganglion
e. The sublingual salivary gland receives parasympathetic fibers from the
vagus nerve

25. The palatine tonsil is found between which of the following structures?
a. Styloglossus and inferior constrictor
b. Palatoglossal arch and palatopharyngeal arch
c. Salpingopharyngeus and levator veli palatini
d. Salpingopharyngeal fold and palatoglossus muscle
e. Levator veli palatini and tensor veli palatini

26. Pressure on the middle of the optic chiasma


a. Causes complete blindness in one eye
b. Causes blindness in the nasal visual field of each eye
c. Causes tunnel vision (loss of peripheral vision)
d. Causes complete blindness in both eyes
e. Has no effect on vision

27. The two muscles used to elevate the eye are:


a. Inferior rectus and inferior oblique
b. Superior rectus and inferior oblique
c. Superior rectus and superior oblique
d. Medial and lateral rectus
e. Inferior rectus and superior oblique

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28. Which of the following statements about the nasopalatine nerve is false?
a. Branches from the ophthalmic nerve
b. Carries general sensation from the inferior 2/3 of the nasal mucosa
c. Runs along the nasal septum
d. Passes through the incisive canal
e. Innervates the hard palate

29. Choose the correct statement regarding the temporomandibular joint


(TMJ):
a. The articular eminence serves as a place for the condyle to sit when the
jaw is at rest
b. The TMJ is a symphyseal joint
c. There are two simultaneous movements during jaw opening: a rotation
and a translation of the condyle
d. Dislocation of the mandibular condyle can never occur
e. The medial pterygoid is initiator of protrusion

30. A 41-year-old woman complains to her family physician about recurring


episodes of sharp pain that seem to originate from around her mouth and
cheek. The pain is so intense that she is unable to eat, brush her teeth, or
apply make-up. Which of the following cranial nerves is the most likely
source of this pain?
a. Facial(VII)
b. Glossopharyngeal(IX)
c. Hypoglossal(XII)
d. Trigeminal(V)
e. Vagus,(X)

31. The following tissues are present in the nasal cavity EXCEPT:
a. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
b. Hyaline cartilage
c. Stratified squamous epithelium
d. Neural epithelium
e. Stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells

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32. The dorsum of the tongue is covered by which of the following epithelia:
a. Stratified squamous non keratinized
b. Simple columnar
c. . Pseudostratified columnar
d. D. . Stratified squamous epithelium keratinized
e. Stratified cuboidal; para keratinized

33. 63-year-old man has hearing loss, tinnitus(ringing or buzzing sounds the
ear) , vertigo, and unsteady gait; all of these have developed over vera1
years. MRI reveals a large tumor(3 cm in diameter) at the cerebellopontine
angle, most likely a vestibular schwannoma(sometimes correctly called an
acoustic neuroma) .In addition to the vestibulocochlear nerve, which of the
following structures would most likely also be affected by the tumor in this
man?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
e. Vagus nerve

34. One of the following glands is NOT a derivative of endoderm


a. Adrenal gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Parathyroid gland
d. Pancreas
e. Thymus gland

35. A 47-year-old man presents with an intense pain on his face arising from
stimulation at the corner of his mouth. This is characteristic of trigeminal
neuralgia (tic douloureux). MRI shows a vessel compressing the root of the
trigeminal nerve. Which of the following vessels would most likely be
involved?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Basal vein(of Rosenthal)
c. Basilar artery
d. Posterior cerebral artery
e. Superior cerebellar artery

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36. Pulp chamber gives off root canals at:
a. The bifurcation of the roots
b. The mid root
c. Middle third of the crown
d. Apical to the cervical level of the crown
e. The roof the pulp chamber

37. The pulp horns:


a. Are not present in the newly erupted teeth
b. Are less prominent in the deciduous
c. Project in the cusps
d. Are not present in the incisors
e. Flat in the premolars

38. Beginning of eruption of permanent tooth starts:


a. After completion of root
b. When apical third root is still to be formed
c. When half of the root is still to be formed
d. When root formation starts
e. When the root and crown arte completed

39. A 69-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department. The


daughter reports that her mother suddenly seemed to be unable to speak.
The examination reveals that the woman has a nonfluent (Broca) aphasia. A
sagittal MRI shows a lesion in which of the following gyri?
a. Angular
b. Inferior frontal
c. Lateral one-third of the precentral
d. Middle frontal
e. Supramarginal

40. During orthodontic movement alveolar bone is resorbed rather than


cementum because:
a. Bone is harder than cementum
b. Bone develop faster than cementum
c. Cementum is avascular
d. Cementum is sensitive so it resist forces more than bone
e. Periodontal fibers are less impeded in bone than cementum

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41. The congenital median upper lip cleft is due to failure of fusion of the
following facial processes:
a. Maxillary
b. Frontonasal
c. Medial nasal
d. Medial & maxillary
e. Lateral maxillary

42. The subodontoblastic plexus of Raschkow occurs:


a. Below the cell bodies of odontoblasts
b. In the root region of the pulp
c. Within the central pulp core
d. Within the cell-rich zone of Weil
e. At the cemento dentinal junction

43. A horizontal gunshot wound through the sternal angle and T4 vertebral
body would most likely damage which structure:
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. The bifurcation of the trachea
d. Conus arteriosus
e. Lingula

44. The transverse pericardial sinus:


a. Is a diverticulum of the superior vena cava
b. Lies between the pulmonary veins
c. Lies between the major arteries leaving the heart and the major veins
entering the heart
d. Contains the right coronary artery
e. Contains the ligamentum arteriosum

45. Which of the following is true about the thoracic wall:


a. Each rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra above
b. The breast is usually bound firmly to the pectoralis major muscle, allowing
no movement
c. Most lymph from the breast drains to axillary lymph nodes
d. The internal thoracic artery lies posterior to the transversus thoracis
muscle

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46. The levator palpebrae superiors muscle is innervated by the:
a. Facial nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Oculomotor nerve
e. Abducent nerve

47. The inferior oblique muscle of the eye is innervated by the:


a. Abducent nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve
c. Oculomotor nerve
d. Facial nerve
e. Trochlear nerve

48. The lateral rectus muscle of the eye is innervated by the:


a. Optic nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
c. Oculomotor nerve
d. Facial nerve
e. Abducent nerve

49. The superior oblique muscle of the eye is innervated by the:


a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
c. Abducent nerve
d. Chorda tympani nerve
e. Oculomotor nerve

50. The orbicularis oculi muscle is innervated by the:


a. Facial nerve
b. Lacrimal nerve
c. Maxillary nerve
d. Nasociliary nerve
e. Frontal nerve

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51. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through
the:
a. Superior orbital fissure
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Jugular foramen
e. Foramen magnum

52. The vagus nerve leaves the skull through the:


a. Jugular foramen
b. Occipital foramen
c. Inferior orbital fissure
d. Foramen rotundum
e. Foramen spinosum

53. The abducent nerve leaves the skull through the:


a. Foramen rotundum
b. Jugular foramen
c. Inferior orbital fissure
d. Superior orbital fissure
e. Foramen ovale

54. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through
the:
a. Inferior orbital fissure
b. Foramen ovale
c. Foramen rotundum
d. Superior orbital fissure
e. Pterygopalatine foramen

55. The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through the:
a. Foramen spinosum
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Superior orbital fissure
d. Foramen ovale
e. Jugular foramen

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56. The oculomotor nerve leaves the skull through the:
a. Inferior orbital fissure
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Superior orbital fissure
d. Foramen magnum
e. Foramen ovale

57. The optic canal is an opening in the:


a. Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
b. Occipital bone
c. Petrous part of the temporal bone
d. Frontal bone
e. Squamous part of the temporal bone

58. The carotid canal is located in the:


a. Sphenoid bone
b. Occipital bone
c. Petrous part of the temporal bone
d. Greater wing of the sphenoid bone
e. Parietal bone

59. The foramen spinosum is located in the:


a. Sphenoid bone
b. Occipital bone
c. Frontal bone
d. Petrous part of the temporal bone
e. Squamous part of the temporal bone

60. The hypoglossal canal is located in the:


a. Squamous part of the temporal bone
b. Occipital bone
c. Frontal bone
d. Sphenoid bone
e. Parietal bone

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61. The foramen rotundum is located in the:
a. Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
b. Frontal bone
c. Petrous part of the temporal bone
d. Occipital bone
e. Greater wing of the sphenoid bone

62. The facial nerve canal is located in the:


a. Temporal bone
b. Greater wing of the sphenoid bone
c. Occipital bone
d. Mastoid process
e. Lacrimal bone

63. The foramen magnum is located in the:


a. Sphenoid bone
b. Temporal bone
c. Parietal bone
d. Frontal bone
e. Occipital bone

64. The genioglossus muscle _____ the tongue:


a. Retracts
b. Depresses
c. Elevates
d. Protrudes
e. Changes the shape of the tongue

65. The hyoglossus muscle:


a. Changes the shape of the tongue
b. Elevates the tongue
c. Depresses the tongue
d. Protrudes the tongue
e. Retracts the tongue upwards and backwards

66. Most common malformation of head and neck region is:


a. Cleft lip and palate*
b. Hemangioma
c. Preauricular cyst
d. Malformation of ear

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67. Most common type of cleft in males is:
a. Unilateral cleft lip alone
b. Unilateral cleft palate alone
c. Unilateral lip and palate*
d. Bilateral cleft lip

68. A patient presents with small yellow spots, present bilaterally on buccal
mucosa opposite to posterior teeth without any other associated complaint.
Most probable diagnosis of the condition is:
a. Koplik’s spot
b. Fordyce’s granules*
c. Melanotic macule
d. White sponge nevus

69. A patient presented with asymptomatic, smooth, circumscribed red area in


midline anterior to circumvallate papillae on the dorsum of tongue with
microscopic evidence of epithelial hyperplasia. The most probable
diagnosis of the condition is:
a. Geographic tongue
b. Hairy tongue
c. Median rhomboid glossitis*
d. Lingual thyroid

70. In hairy tongue, there is hypertrophy of:


a. Fungiform papillae
b. Filiform papillae*
c. Foliate papillae
d. Circumvallate papillae

71. A patient present with an asymptomatic soft, fluctuant swelling of the angle
of mandible anterior to sterno cleido-mastoid muscle which he stated to be
present since his childhood days. Regional lymph nodes are nonpalpable
with normal radiographic pictures of the area and normal blood and urine
examination. Aspiration of swelling shows yellow-brown fluid. Most
probable diagnosis in the condition is:
a. Thyroglossal duct cyst
b. Salivary gland tumor
c. Branchial cleft cyst*
d. Follicular ameloblastoma

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72. Which of the following condition is characterized by generalized intestinal
polyposis with pigmentation of face and oral mucosa:
a. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome*
b. Albright syndrome
c. Gardner syndrome
d. Neurofibromatosis

73. A 25-year old patient presents with an asymptomatic doughy soft, fluctuant
swelling on lateral neck which was present for month but recently enlarged
following an upper respiratory tract infection. Most likely diagnosis of the
swelling is:
a. Scrofula
b. Lymphoma
c. Cervicofacial actinomycosis
d. Cervical lymphoepithelial cyst*

74. Most characteristic histopathologic feature of keratoacanthoma is:


a. Elevation of normal epithelium towards the central portion of the
lesion with an abrupt change in normal epithelium as hyperplastic
acanthotic epithelium is reached*
b. Hyperplastic squamous epithelium growing into underlying connective
tissue
c. Occasional dysplastic features
d. Epithelium appears to be invading into connective tissue at deep leading
margin of the tumor

75. A patient reported with an asymptomatic white patch on buccal mucosa


which cannot be rubbed off. The patch was present for the last 3 months.
Patient is a heavy cigarette smoker. Most probable diagnosis of the lesion
is:
a. Leukoplasia*
b. Candidiasis
c. Erythroplakia
d. White sponge nevus

76. Site most commonly affected by basal cell carcinoma is:


a. Buccal mucosa
b. Skin of palm and exposed surface of arms
c. Skin of upper back area
d. Skin of middle third of face*

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77. A patient with history of tobacco chewing presents with an asymptomatic,
exophytic papillary growth on right buccal mucosa. Histologic examination
of the lesion reveal marked epithelial proliferation without invasion into the
connective tissue and parakeratin plugging. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Epidermoid carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Papilloma
d. Verrucous carcinoma*

78. A patient present with tender swelling in the palatal area. Associated teeth
were normal. Radiographic examination of the area shows radiolucent area
with honeycomb appearance. Excessive bleeding was encountered upon
entering into the lesion. Most probable diagnosis of the lesion is:
a. Radicular cyst
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Hemorrhagic bone cyst
d. Mid-palatal cyst

79. Skin lesions of the hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia are most common
on:
a. Arms
b. Abdomen
c. Legs
d. Face

80. Characteristic hemorrhagic lesions of the hereditary hemorrhagic


telangiectasia occurs most often on
a. Tongue
b. Lips
c. Gingival
d. Palate

81. Acetylcholine:
a. Is synthesized by the enzyme acetylcholine esterase
b. Action in synapses is terminated by re-uptake of pre-synaptic neurons
c. Is released by some postganglionic sympathetic neurons
d. Is destroyed by monoamine oxidase
e. Reduces the heart rate by acting on nicotinic receptors in the SA node

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82. Generalized sympathetic stimulation causes all the following except:
a. Increases the heart rate
b. Increases sweating
c. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscles
d. Tightens GIT sphincters
e. Constriction of pupil

83. The following actions of noradrenaline are mediated by stimulation of


alpha-adrenergic receptors:
a. Constriction of cutaneous blood vessels
b. Increase of myocardial contractility
c. Dilation of arterioles to the viscera
d. Relaxation of urinary bladder
e. Dilation of systemic veins

84. Noradrenaline is released by sympathetic nervous system at all the


following except:
a. Cutaneous blood vessels
b. SA Node
c. Sweat glands
d. Cardiac muscles
e. Renal nerves

85. Nicotinic Receptors are blocked by:


a. Atropine
b. Curare
c. Suxamethonium
d. Propranolol
e. Acetylcholine esterase

86. Acetylcholine:
a. Is blocked by propranolol
b. Is blocked by curare in the autonomic ganglion
c. Is the neurotransmitter at all sites that are blocked by atropine
d. Is secreted by postganglionic sympathetic to the heart
e. Is degraded by the enzyme choline transferase

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87. The sympathetic system:
a. Has short postganglionic neurons
b. Fibers are carried in the vagus nerve
c. Produces nicotine at its nerve endings
d. Has a thoraco-lumbar outflow from the spinal cord
e. Action is antagonized by atropine

88. The parasympathetic system:


a. Has short preganglionic fibers
b. Secretes dopamine
c. Controls most of the movements and secretions of the gut
d. Brings increase in heart rate during exercise
e. Action is blocked by Beta receptor blocker

89. The nicotinic cholinergic receptors are:


a. Not inhibited by high concentrations of nicotine
b. Inhibited by high concentrations of acetylcholine
c. Blocked by atropine
d. Ligand-gated chloride channels
e. Located in the cell nucleus

90. Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system


are found in:
a. The dorsal root ganglion
b. The sympathetic chain
c. Collateral ganglia
d. The dorsal horn cells of the spinal cord
e. The lateral horn cells of the spinal cord

91. Collateral ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system include the:


a. Adrenal medullary cells
b. Coeliac ganglion
c. Paravertebral ganglia
d. The basal ganglia
e. Nucleus of the tractus solitaries

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92. The effects of parasympathetic stimulation include:
a. Ejaculation
b. Secretion of sweat
c. Contraction of the rectum
d. Constriction of gastrointestinal sphincters
e. Dilation of the bronchioles

93. Adrenal medullary cells are stimulated by:


a. Dopamine
b. GABA
c. Adrenaline
d. Acetylcholine
e. Noradrenaline

94. Dopamine is:


a. Found in all autonomic ganglia
b. An inhibitory transmitter
c. An acetylcholine derivative
d. Responsible for facilitating autonomic transmission
e. Released by the interneurons of the parasympathetic ganglia

95. The termination of acetylcholine action is mainly due to:


a. Reuptake by preganglionic neurons
b. Diffusion from synaptic cleft
c. Irreversible combination with cholinergic receptors
d. Uptake by postsynaptic cell
e. Cholinesterase in cholinergic synapses

96. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor stimulation causes:


a. Coronary vasodilation
b. Cardiac acceleration
c. Bronchodilation
d. Skin vasoconstriction
e. Constriction of anal sphincter

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97. Sweating is served by which of the following receptors?
a. Nicotinic cholinergic receptors
b. Alpha- adrenergic receptors
c. Beta- adrenergic receptors
d. Muscarine cholinergic receptors
e. Dopaminergic receptors

98. Blocking of the nicotinic ganglionic receptors in the ANS supplying the
heart leads to:
a. Inhibition of the sympathetic but not the parasympathetic
b. Inhibition of the parasympathetic but not the sympathetic
c. Inhibition of both sympathetic and parasympathetic
d. Decrease in the heart rate
e. Decrease in the force of contraction

99. Regarding the sympathetic nervous system:


a. Preganglionic fibers release noradrenalin
b. Postganglionic fibers release noradrenalin
c. It is stimulated by food intake
d. Release of acetylcholine by the pre-ganglionic fibers
e. Has longer pre-ganglionic fibers than post-ganglionic fibers

100. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system leads to:


a. Constriction of pupils
b. Constriction of skin vessels
c. Constriction of gastrointestinal sphincters
d. Constriction of brain vessels
e. Increased blood flow in coronary vessels

101. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are found:


a. On postganglionic sympathetic neurons
b. On postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
c. In the sweat glands
d. At the end-plate
e. None of the above

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102. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons differ from preganglionic
parasympathetic neurons in that:
a. They are shorter
b. They release acetylcholine
c. They emerge from the lateral horn of the spinal cord
d. They release noradrenaline
e. They are myelinated

103. The action of acetylcholine on its receptors is terminated mainly by:


a. Choline esterase
b. Reuptake into the terminal buttons
c. Diffusion to the blood
d. Pseudo choline esterase
e. Endocytosis by the target tissue that bears its receptors

104. Sympathetic stimulation is expected to lead to:


a. Constriction of the pupil
b. Dilation of the bronchioles
c. Inhibition of sweating
d. Veno dilation
e. Copious salivary secretion

105. Atropine will block all the following except:


a. The action of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart
b. The action of the sympathetic nervous system on the sweat glands
c. The action of the dilator sympathetic nervous system on the muscle
blood vessels
d. The action of the parasympathetic nervous system on the gastric secretion
e. The action of acetylcholine on skeletal muscles

106. Compared to the intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid has a high
concentration of:
a. Protein
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
e. Potassium

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107. Oedema is due to low colloid osmotic pressure of plasma and is caused
by:
a. Heart Failure
b. Arteriolar Dilation
c. Liver Disease
d. Venous Obstruction
e. Inflammation

108. Drinking one liter of pure water is expected to:


a. Induce a greater increase in volume of ECF than ICF
b. Induce a greater decrease in osmolarity of ECF than ICF
c. Induce an increase in urine flow
d. Induce a greater increase in volume of plasma than interstitial fluid
e. Induce a greater decrease in osmolarity of plasma than interstitial fluid

109. The Interstitial Fluid:


a. Can be measured using insulin
b. Is lower in volume than plasma
c. Has a higher sodium concentration than plasma
d. Has the same protein concentration as plasma
e. Has slightly a higher concentration of chloride than plasma

110. The osmolarity of extracellular fluid is likely to increase by:


a. Passing hypertonic urine
b. Infusing half isotonic NaCl solution
c. Infusing 5% glucose solution
d. Evaporating water from mucus membrane of respiratory system
e. Vomiting a hypertonic gastric juice

111. Intravenous infusion of 1 liter of which of the following solutions will


lead to the largest increase in ECF volume?
a. Distilled water
b. Isotonic NaCl
c. Hypotonic NaCl
d. Hypertonic NaCl
e. Isotonic urea

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112. The intracellular osmolarity is mainly due to:
a. Chloride
b. Proteins
c. Potassium
d. ATP
e. Magnesium

113. The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid is that plasma
contains more:
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Electrolytes
d. Water
e. Protein ions

114. Body Water:


a. Is mostly found in the interstitial compartment
b. Is heavy water
c. Moves between compartments by solvent drags
d. Is the major constituent of the body
e. Is not lost during expiration in cold weather

115. Osmolality of the extracellular fluid:


a. Is 160-300 msom/L
b. Is not affected by glucose concentration
c. Is more than the osmolality of the intracellular fluid
d. Is mainly due to Na+ salts
e. Is greatly increased by hyperkalaemia

116. The following are major constituents of the intracellular fluid except:
a. Ca2+
b. Phosphates
c. Chloride
d. K+
e. Proteins

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117. Movement of fluids from the interstitial space to plasma is due to:
a. Blood pressure in the capillaries
b. Plasma Na+ concentration
c. Plasma K+ concentration
d. Plasma protein concentration
e. Plasma pH

118. The substance that contributes most of the intracellular osmolarity is:
a. Protein
b. Phosphate
c. Potassium
d. Urea
e. Chloride

119. Which of the following combinations of substances is suitable for


calculation of the interstitial fluid volume:
a. A radioactive sodium & heavy water
b. Heavy water & Inulin
c. Inulin & Evan's blue dye
d. Heavy water & Evan's blue dye
e. Evan's blue dye & Iodine labeled albumin

120. The concentration of Ca2+ in the ECF is


a. 5 mg/dl
b. 5 mmol/L
c. 5 mEq/L
d. 2.5 mEq/L
e. 2.5 ug/dl

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