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CAREER POINT

MOCK TEST PAPER for IIT JEE (Advanced)


PAPER-1
Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180


IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 
A.   GENERAL :                          

  1.  Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers 
on the answer sheet in the respective subjects.  

  2.  The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately. 

  3.  Do not break the seal of the question‐paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. 

B.   MARKING SCHEME : 

    Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:‐ 

    SECTION ‐ I  

  4.  Multiple  choice  questions  with  multiple  correct  answer.  3  marks  will  be  awarded  for  each    correct  answer  and  NO 

SEAL
negative marking for wrong answer. 

      SECTION ‐ II 

  5.  Numerical  response  questions.  3  marks  will  be  awarded  for  each  correct  answer  and  NO  negative  marking  for  wrong 
answer.  Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.  

    This paper does not consist of Section‐II. 

C.  FILLING THE OMR : 

  6.  Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly. 

  7.  Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles. 

  8.  While  filling  the  bubbles  please  be  careful  about  SECTIONS  [i.e.  Section‐I  (include  single  correct,  reason  type,  multiple 
correct answers), Section –II ( column matching type), Section‐III (include  integer answer type)] 

    For example if only 'A' choice is correct then, the correct method for filling the bubbles is 
A  B  C D
              
    For example if only 'A & C' choices are correct then, the correct method for filling the bublles is 
A  B  C D
              
    the wrong method for filling the bubble are 
              
PHYSICS
Section – I [Q.1 to Q.10] Q.2 In equilateral prism ABC (polished at its
surface AB) is surrounded by liquid of
Questions 1 to 10 are multiple choice questions. Each refractive index µ. A ray is incident on its face
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of AC as shown. Refractive index of the material
which ONE or MORE may be correct. Mark your 3
response in OMR sheet against the question number of prism is . Choose the correct statement(s).
2
of that question. +3 marks will be given for each
correct answer and NO NEGATIVE marks for A
wrong answer.
Q.1 Two point charges Q1 & Q2 are positioned at a
θ
certain distance from each other. The curves in
the figure represent the distribution of potential
along the straight line connecting the two B C
charges
V (A) θ for which the ray retrace back its path is
⎛3 3⎞
sin–1 ⎜ ⎟
⎜ 4μ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
(B) θ for which the ray retrace back the path is
Q2
r ⎛3 3⎞
Q1 1 2 3 cos–1 ⎜ ⎟
⎜ 4μ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
3
(C) For θ = 45° , μ = , deviation of the
(A) E at 1 is zero 2 2
(B) E at 3 is zero ray finally emerging out of the prism is
(C) Q2 and Q1 are negative and positive 150°
3
respectively (D) For θ = 45°, µ = deviation of the ray
(D) | Q1 | > | Q2 | 2 2
finally emerging out of the prism is 0°

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2H 2Ω Q.5 An explosive of mass 6 kg is projected at 35
m/sec at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. At
12Ω the top of its flight it explodes, breaking into
Q.3 2Ω two parts, one of which has twice the mass of

the other. The two fragments land
6V simultaneously. The lighter fragment lands
back to launch point- (g = 9.8 m/s2)
In the circuit shown in the figure - (A) heavier fragment lands at 162 m from
1 launch point.
(A) Its time constant is sec (B) position of centre of mass will be at 108 m
4
from point of projection
(B) Its time constant is 4 sec (C) kinetic energy will remain constant in this
(C) In steady state current through battery will process.
be equal to 0.75 A (D) kinetic energy will increase due to
(D) In steady state current through inductance explosion by 5512 J
will be equal to 0.75A Q.6 A spherical cavity is made in a uniform solid
Q.4 Two very large plane mirrors shown in figure sphere of radius R such that its surface touches
the outside surface of the sphere and passes
are making an angle of 60º to each other. A
through the centre of original sphere as shown
light ray falls on one of the mirrors as shown in below. Now a particle of mass m is kept at a
figure. The light ray is incident parallel to distance 2R from the centre. If mass of original
angular bisector of mirrors. Then- sphere is M then –

O
60º m

(A) light ray undergoes three reflection GMm


(A) net gravitational force on m is
(B) light ray undergoes two reflection 36R 2
(C) deviation produced in the light ray after all 7 GMm
(B) net gravitational force on m is
4π 36 R 2
reflections is (C) gravitational field intensity inside cavity is
3
(D) deviation produced in the light ray after all zero
(D) if we neglect the presence of m then
reflections is π gravitation field inside cavity is constant

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Q.7 A uniform disc of mass 2kg and radius 1m is Q.10 In a modified YDSE experiment if point source
mounted on an axle supported on fixed of monochromatic light O is placed in such a
frictionless bearings. A light chord is wrapped λ
around the rim of the disc and mass of 1kg is manner that OS1– OS2 = where λ is
tied to the free end. If it is released from rest- 4
(A) the tension in the chord is 5N wavelength of light and S1, S2 are slits
(B) in first four seconds the angular separated by distance 2λ. Then value/s of θ for
displacement of the disc is 40 rad which a maxima is obtained will be -
(C) the work done by the torque on the disc in S1
first four seconds is 200J
(D) the increase in the kinetic energy of the
disc in the first four seconds in 200J O θ
Q.8 Temperature of 1000 grams of nitrogen is
raised from –20ºC to 100ºC at constant
pressure. Given: specific heat at constant S2
volume
Cv = 5 cal/mole ºC and R = 2Cal/mole ºC (A) sin–1 (1/8) (B) sin–1 (–1/4)
(A) Heat required in the process is 30 K Cal (C) sin–1 (5/6) (D) sin–1 (–7/8)
(B) Increase in the internal energy of gas is 21
Kcal
(C) If process is at constant volume then heat Section – II [Q.1 to Q.10]
required is 21 Kcal This section contains 10 questions (Q.1 to 10).
(D) external work done is 10 KCal +3 marks will be given for each correct answer and
Q.9 A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a, No Negative mark for wrong answer. The answer to
wavelength λ and frequency f is traveling on a each of the questions is a SINGLE-DIGIT
stretched string. The maximum speed of any INTEGER, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate
point on the string is v/10, where v is the speed bubbles below the respective question numbers in
of propagation of the wave. If a = 10–3 m and v =
the OMR have to be darkened. For example, if the
10 m/s, then λ and f are given by–
(A) λ = 2π × 10–2 m (B) λ = 10–3 m correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W
3 (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct
10
(C) f = Hz (D) f = 104 Hz darkening of bubbles will look like the following :

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X Y Z W
0 0 0 0 10m
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 R
7 7 7 7
8 8
Q.3 Two containers A and B are connected by a
8 8
9 9 9 9 242
conducting solid cylindrical rod of length
7
Q.1 In the circuit shown, R = 1 kΩ, C = 10 mF. The cm and radius 8.3 cm. Thermal conductivity
terminal voltage of the battery a × 10 if the
of the rod is 693 watt/mole-K. The container A
condenser stores 4.5 J energy after it was charged
contains two mole of oxygen gas and the
in steady state, determine the value of a.
container B contains four mole of helium gas.
R 2R
R At time t = 0 temperature difference of the
containers is 50ºC, after what time (in seconds)
C R temperature difference between them will be
25ºC. Transfer of heat takes place through the
Q.2 A large tank is filled with water (density = 103kg/m3).
rod only. Neglect radiation loss. Take R = 8.3
A small hole is made at a depth 10 m below
22
water surface. The range of water issuing out of J/mole-K and π = .
the hole is R on ground. What extra pressure 7
(in atm) must be applied on the water surface A B
so that the range becomes 2R : O2 He
(take 1 atm = 105 Pa and g = 10 m/s2)

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Q.4 An observer is moving towards a source with Q.8 In the diagram shown, the charge + Q is fixed.
speed 15 m/s. The source is moving with speed Another charge +2q, is projected from a
5 m/s in the same direction. Air is blowing with distance R from the fixed charge. Minimum
speed 10 m/s from observer to source. If separation between two charges if the velocity
frequency of sound emitted is 325 Hz then 1
frequency (in Hz) of sound heard by observer becomes times of the projected velocity at
3
(velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s) minus
330 Hz will be equal to – this moment is (assume gravity to be present)
in cm (R = 10cm given)-
Q.5 A ray of light from a liquid (μ = 3 ) is v
incident on a system of two right angled prism
of refractive indices 3 & 2 as shown. The
ray suffers zero deviation when emerges into 30º
air from CD. The angle of incidence i is …. × +Q M,+2q
9º. R

3 Q.9 Each resistance is of 2Ω. Current in resistance R


i μ= 2 (R = 2Ω) is (x + 9.75 ampere) Find value of x.
2Ω 50V 2Ω
μ= 3
2Ω 2Ω
23 23 2Ω R 2Ω
Q.6 Ne decays to Na by negative beta emission. 2Ω 2Ω
Mass of 23Ne is 22.994465 amu mass of 23Na is
22.989768 amu. The maximum kinetic energy i i
of emitted electrons neglecting the kinetic
energy of recoiling product nucleus is 100V
........MeV Q.10 A swimmer jumps from a bridge over a canal
Q.7 A 100 eV electron collides with a stationary and swims 1 km up stream. After that first km,
helium ion (He+) in its ground state and exits to he passes a floating cork. He continues
a higher level. After the collision, He+ ions swimming for half an hour and then turns
emits two photons in succession with around and swims back to the bridge. The
wavelength 1085 Å and 304 Å. Calculate the swimmer and the cork reach the bridge at the
energy of the electron after the collision (in 10– same time. The swimmer has been swimming
1
eV). Given h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js. at a constant speed. How fast does the water in
the canal flow in km/hr.

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CHEMISTRY
Section – I [Q.1 to Q.10] Q.3 Which of the following gives same product with
Questions 1 to 10 are multiple choice questions. Each SN1 & SN2 reaction (including stereo product) -
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of I
OH–
which ONE or MORE may be correct. Mark your (A)
response in OMR sheet against the question number of
that question. +3 marks will be given for each correct Cl
answer and NO NEGATIVE marks for wrong answer. Aq. KOH
Q.1 In which of the following reactions H2 gas is (B)
liberated -
CH3
(A) 2 ⎯2⎯

Na

( Metal) Aq. KOH
(C) CH2–Cl
(B) 2 ⎯⎯→
⎯ 2K
Cl
( Metal)
Aq. KOH
(D)
(C) ⎯⎯⎯→
NaOH

Q.4 Which of the following is/are a meso compound


(D) 2 ⎯2⎯ ⎯ ⎯→
NaHCO CH2OH
3

O
CH3 (A) HO CH2OH
|
Q.2 CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–CH3 ⎯Cl
⎯2 /⎯
hv

OH OH
What is correct –
(A) total four products are formed including COOH
stereoisomer H

(B) total 8 product are formed including


stereoisomer (B)
(C) 4 Enantiomeric pair are formed NH2 COOH
(D) major product is 2º halide H NH2

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Cl Q.7 Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution.
The solution has a vapor pressure of 700 Torr
F Br
(C) at 80°C. It is distilled till 2/3rd of the solution is
Cl F collected as condensate. The composition of the
condensate is x'A= 0.75 and that of the residue
Br is x"A= 0.30. If the vapor pressure of the
COOH residue at 80°C is 600 Torr, which of the
following is/ are true?
(D) H OH (A) Tile composition of the original liquid
was xA = 0.6.
HO H
(B) The composition of the original liquid was
xA = 0.4.
COOH 2500
(C) PAo = Torr.
3
Q.5 Indicate the correct statements:
(A) Conductivity cells have cell constant values (D) PBo = 500 Torr.
independent of the solution filled into the Q.8 Consider the following case of competing 1st
cell. order reactions
(B) DC (direct current) is not used for measuring k1 C
the resistance of a solution. A
(C) Kohlrausch law is valid both for strong and k2 D
weak electrolytes. After he start of the reaction at t = 0 with only
(D) The k decreases but λM and λE increase on A, the [C] is equal to the [D] at all times. The
dilution. time in which all three concentrations will be
equal is given by
Q.6 A 1 litre solution of pH = 1 diluted upto 10 times. 1 1
(A) t = ln 3 (B) t = ln 3
What volume of a solution with pH = 2 is to be 2 k1 2k 2
added in diluted solution so that pH does not change :
1 1
(A) 1 litre (B) 10 litre (C) t = ln 2 (D) t = ln 2
3k1 3k 2
(C) 100 litre (D) 25 litre

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Q.9 Chloride of an element is given by the formula Section – II [Q.1 to Q.10]
MClx and it is 100% ionised in 0.01 M aqueous This section contains 10 questions (Q.1 to 10).
solution. Then +3 marks will be given for each correct answer and
No Negative mark for wrong answer. The answer to
(A) if [Cl–] = 0.03 M then the value of x is 3 each of the questions is a SINGLE-DIGIT
(B) if [Cl–]- = 0.05 M then the value of x is 5 INTEGER, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate
bubbles below the respective question numbers in
(C) [Mx+] = 0.01 M, irrespective of [Cl–] the OMR have to be darkened. For example, if the
(D) [Mx+] depends on [Al–] correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W
(say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
Q.1 Total possible structural isomers of C3H6O are
Q.10 Solid ammonium carbamate, NH4CO2NH2(s)
dissociates into ammonia and carbon dioxide Cl
Q.2 H O/Δ
when it evaporates as shown by CH3 2
CH3
NH4CO2NH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) How many 3º alcohol are obtain as product
At 25°C, 'the total pressure of the gases in (including stereoisomer) ?

OH / Δ
equilibrium with the solid is 0.116 atm. If Q.3 CH3 C –CH3 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
( ii ) O 3 / Zn / H 2 O
0.1 atm of CO2 is introduced after equilibrium ||
O
is reached then : B + C ⎯I⎯ ⎯⎯→
2 / NaOH
E+D
Dicarbonyl ⎛ less no. ⎞
(A) final pressure of CO2 will be less than 0.1 atm ⎜ of carbon ⎟
compound ⎝ ⎠

(B) final pressure of CO2 will be more than 0.1 atm How many statement are correct for this sequence
(i) Reactant can give bisulphite adduct.
(C) pressure of NH3 will decrease due to
(ii) D is also one of the product of cannizaro
addition of CO2 reaction of Benzaldehyde
(D) pressure of NH3 will increase due to (iii) B give Tollen's reagent Test.
(iv) C gives iodoform test.
addition of CO2

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Q.4 How many reaction are correctly matched for Q.5 The electrolysis of cold sodium chloride solution
major product produces NaOH and Cl2. The Cl2 produced,
C≡N CH2–NH2 disproportionates into NaOH solution to give
LiAlH4 sodium hypochlorite (NaClO) and sodium
(I)
chloride. How long will a cell operate to produce
C–NH2 CH2–NH2
1.00 × 103L of 7.45 % (w/w) solution of NaClO if
O
the cell current is 9.65 ampere? Assume that the
O O
Br2/Fe density of solution is 1.00 gm/ml.
(II)
Br
[Fill your answer by multiplying it with 10–7]
CH3 CH3
| NaOCH3
|
(III) CH3–C–X CH3–C–O–CH3
| | Q.6 Given :
CH3 CH3
Zn (OH)2 (s) Zn(OH)2 (aq) ; K1 = 10–6
NO2 NO2
Zn (OH)2 (aq) [Zn(OH)]+ + OH– ; K2 = 10–7
CH3Cl/AlCl3
(IV)
[Zn(OH)] +(aq) Zn+2 + OH– ; K3 = 10–4
CH3
Zn(OH)2 (aq) + OH– [Zn(OH)3]– ; K4 = 103
Cl–C=O CH2OH
[Zn(OH)3]–(aq) + OH– Zn(OH)4]2– ; K5 = 10
NaBH4
(V)
Find out the negative of logarithm of the
C≡N C≡N
solubility of solid Zn(OH)2 at 25°C at pH = 6.
(VI)
OH O
Consider Zn(OH)2 makes saturated solution at
| ||
R–CH–CH2–CH2OH
KMnO4
R–C–CH2–C–OH 25°C.
||
O

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Q.7 0.0125 mole of sucrose is dissolved in 100 gm
of water and it undergo inversion according to
following equation
C12H22O11 + H2O ⎯⎯ → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
If elevation in boiling point of solution is
th
⎛1⎞
0.104°C. Calculate ⎜ ⎟ of mole percentage
⎝ 10 ⎠
of sugar inverted (Kb for H2O = 0.52).

1
Q.8 The graph between logk and [K is rate
T
constant (sec–1) and T the temperature (K)] is a
straight line with OX = 5 and θ = tan-1
⎛ −1 ⎞
⎜ ⎟ .Calculate the value of Ea is……cal.
⎝ 2.303 ⎠

Q.9 Polychlorinated biphenyls, PCBs, known to be


dangerous enviromental pollutants, are a group of
compounds with the general empirical formula
C12 H m Cl10− m where m is an integer. What is the
value of m, if percentage of carbon atom in the
compound is 40 ?

Q.10 How many P–O–P bonds are present in


tricyclometaphosphoric acid, (HPO3)3?

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MATHEMATICS
Section – I [Q.1 to Q.10] x2 y2
Q.2 Let e be eccentricity of a hyperbola − =1
a2 b2
Questions 1 to 10 are multiple choice questions. Each
and f(e) be eccentricity of conjugate hyperbola
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of 3
x2 y2
which ONE or MORE may be correct. Mark your −
a2
+
b2
= 1 then ∫ fff
1
1424
.....f (e) de is equal to
n times
3
response in OMR sheet against the question number
(A) 2 if n is even (B) 4 if n is even
of that question. +3 marks will be given for each
(C) 2 2 if n is odd (D) 4 2 if n is odd
correct answer and NO NEGATIVE marks for
wrong answer. Q.3 If the tangent to the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 16 at P(θ)
is a normal to circle x2 + y2 – 8x – 4y = 0. Then θ
equals -
[x] + 1 ⎡ 5⎞ ⎛1 ⎤ π π
Q.1 f (x) = for f : ⎢0, ⎟ → ⎜ , 3⎥ , where (A) (B)
{x} + 1 ⎣ 2⎠ ⎝2 ⎦ 2 4
[.] represents greatest integer function and π
(C) 0 (D) –
{.} represents fractional part of x, then which 4

of the following is true. Q.4 The solution to differential equation


(A) f (x) is injective discontinuous function ⎛ dy ⎞ dy ⎛ dy ⎞
sin ⎜ x ⎟ cos y = + sin y cos ⎜ x ⎟ is
(B) f(x) is surjective non differentiable function ⎝ dx ⎠ dx ⎝ dx ⎠
(A) y = 0
⎛ ⎞
(C) min ⎜ lim− f ( x ), lim+ f ( x ) ⎟ = f (1) (B) cx2 – y = sin–1x
⎝ x →1 x →1 ⎠
(C) cx – y = sin–1c
(D) max (x values of point of discontinuity) = f (1)
x 2 −1
(D) y = x 2 − 1 – sin–1
x

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Q.5 Let f(x) is a real valued function defined by Q.7 The sides of a right triangle T1 are 20, x and
1 1
hypotenuse y. The sides of another right

−1

f(x) = x2 + x2 t f ( t ) dt + x 3 f ( t ) dt then
−1 triangle T2 are 30, x – 5 and hypotenuse y + 5.
which of following hold(s) good ? If P1 and P2 are the radii of the circles inscribed
1
and Δ1 and Δ2 are the areas of the triangles T1
∫ t f (t) dt = 11
10
(A)
−1 and T2 respectively then which of the following
30 hold good ?
(B) f(1) + f(–1) =
11
(A) 6Δ1 = 5Δ2 (B) 8Δ1 = 7Δ2
1 1
(C) ∫ t f (t) dt > ∫ f (t) dt
−1 −1
(C) P1 = P2 (D) 2P1 = P2

20
(D) f(1) – f(–1) = Q.8 If two concentric ellipses be such that the foci
11
of one be on the other and their major axes are
→ → equal. Let e1 and e2 be their eccentricities, then
Q.6 Let the unit vector a & b are perpendicular

(A) the quadrilateral formed by joining the foci
and the unimoduli vector c inclined at an
of the 2 ellipses is a parallelogram
→ → → → →
angle α to a & b . If c = l a + m b + (B) the angle θ between their axes is given by,
→ →
n( a × b ) then 1 1 1
cos θ = + −
(A) l = m e12 e 22 e12 e 22
(B) n2 = 1 – 2l2
(C) n2 = – cos 2α (C) if e12 + e22 = 1 then the angle between the
1 + cos 2α axes of the 2 ellipses is 90º
(D) m2 =
2 (D) none of these

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Q.9 If f(x) = lim ex tan(1/n) ln (1/n) and Section – II [Q.1 to Q.10]
n →∞
This section contains 10 questions (Q.1 to 10).
f (x)

+3 marks will be given for each correct answer and
dx = g(x) + c, then
3
(sin11 x cos x ) No Negative mark for wrong answer. The answer to
each of the questions is a SINGLE-DIGIT
⎛π⎞ 3 INTEGER, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate
(A) g ⎜ ⎟ = bubbles below the respective question numbers in
⎝4⎠ 2 the OMR have to be darkened. For example, if the
(B) g(x) is continuous for all x correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W
(say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct
⎛π⎞ 15 darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
(C) g ⎜ ⎟ = –
⎝4⎠ 8 X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
(D) g(x) is non differentiable at infinitely many 1 1 1 1
points 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
1
Q.10 Let f1(x) = x, f2(x) = 1 – x; f3(x) = , 5 5 5 5
x 6 6 6 6
1 x x −1 7 7 7 7
f4(x) = ; f5(x) = ; f6(x) = . 8 8 8 8
1− x x −1 x
9 9 9 9
Suppose that f6(fm(x)) = f4(x) and fn(f4(x)) =
r r r
f3(x) then Q.1 If a′ = î + ĵ , b′ = î − ĵ + 2k̂ & c′ = 2î + ĵ − k̂ .
(A) m = 5 (B) n = 5 Then altitude of the parallelopiped formed by
r r r
(C) m = 6 (D) n = 6 the vectors a , b, c having base formed by
r r 1 r r r r r r
b & c is then k is ( a , b, c and a′, b′, c′ are
k
reciprocal systems of vectors)

Space for rough work

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⎡1 2⎤ ⎡a b ⎤ Q.7 Let f (x) be defined as
Q.2 Let A = ⎢ ⎥ and B = ⎢ ⎥ are two ⎧ −1 2 0 < x <1
⎣3 4⎦ ⎣c d⎦ f (x ) = ⎨tan α − 5x , x ≥ 1
matrices such that AB = BA and c ≠ 0, then ⎩− 6 x ,
d−a f (x) can have a maximum at x = 1 if α < – tan k
value of is then k is
3b − c

Q.3 Let E(n) denotes sum of even digits of N, for Q.8 If the parabola y2 = 4x and circle (x – 6)2 + y2 = r2
example E(5681) = 6 + 8 = 14. Find will have no common tangent then greatest integer
E(1) + E(2) + E(3) + .... + E(100) value of r is
100
10 ex − e−x
∑ (x + r)
r =1
2010 Q.9 Let f(x) =
2
and if f(g(x)) = x = g[f(x)]

Q.4 lim 1 ⎛ e1002 − 1 ⎞


x →∞ (x 1006
+ 1)(2 x1004 + 1) then g ⎜⎜ ⎟ is equal to
167 ⎝ 2 e501 ⎟⎠
sin x 4 − x 4 cos x 4 + x 20
Q.5 lim 4
is equal to N then
x →0
x 4 (e 2 x − 1 − 2 x 4 ) x − 3 y − 2 z −1
Q.10 The plane containing two lines = =
18N is 1 −4 5
x − 2 y + 3 z +1
Q.6 Urn A contains 9 red balls and 11 white balls. and = = is 11x + my + nz = 28.
1 −4 5
Urn B contains 12 red ball and 3 white balls.
One is to roll a single fair die. If the result is a Then find the value of | m + n |.
one or a two, then one is to randomly select a
ball from urn A. Otherwise one is to randomly
select a ball form urn B. The probability of
41
obtaining a red ball, is then K is
30K

Space for rough work

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