JEE MAIN PAPER (CODE – A)

Held on : 08 April 2018

PHYSICS 5. In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial
speed v0 strikes a stationary particle of the same
1. The density of a material in the shape of a cube is mass. If the final total kinetic energy is 50%
determined by measuring three sides of the cube greater than the original kinetic energy, the
and its mass. If the relative errors in measuring magnitude of the relative velocity between the two
the mass and length are respectively 1.5% and 1%, particles, after collision, is :
the maximum error in determining the density is : v
(1) 2.5% (2) 3.5% (1) 0 (2) 2 v 0
4
(3) 4.5% (4) 6%
v v
2. All the graphs below are intended to represent the (3) 0 (4) 0
2 2
same motion. One of them does it incorrectly. Pick
it up. 6. Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass
velocity M and radius R are welded symmetrically as
shown. The moment of inertia of the arrangement
about the axis normal to the plane and passing
(1) time through the point P is :

velocity

(2) time

velocity
19 55
(1) MR2 (2) MR 2
2 2
(3) time 73 181
(3) MR2 (4) MR2
2 2
velocity 7. From a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass
R
9 M, a small disc of radius is removed as shown
(4) 3
time
in the figure. The moment of inertia of the
remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the
plane of the disc and passing through centre of disc
is :
3. Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 10 kg ,
connected by an inextensible string over a
frictionless pulley, are moving as shown in the
figure. The coefficient of friction of horizontal
surface is 0.15. The minimum weight m that
should be put on top of m2 to stop the motion is :
m
T
m2

m1 40
(1) 4 MR 2 (2) MR2
m1g 9
(1) 18.3 kg (2) 27.3 kg (3) 43.3 kg (4) 10.3 kg 37
(3) 10 MR 2 (4) MR2
4. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a 9
under the action of an attractive potential
8. A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a
k
U = - 2 . Its total energy is : circular orbit of radius R in a central force
2r inversely proportional to the nth power of R. If the
k k period of rotation of the particle is T, then :
(1) - 2 (2) 2
4a 2a n
+1
(1) T µ R3/2 for any n (2) T µ R 2
3 k
(3) Zero (4) -
2 a2 (3) T µ R (
n +1 ) /2
(4) T µ Rn/2
 2

9. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of 15. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 90 pF is
bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a connected to a battery of emf 20 V. If a dielectric
cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a 5
floats on the surface of the liquid, covering entire material of dielectric constant K = is inserted
3
cross section of cylindrical container. When a mass between the plates, the magnitude of the induced
m is placed on the surface of the piston to compress charge will be :
the liquid, the fractional decrement in the radius of (1) 1.2 n C (2) 0.3 n C
æ dr ö (3) 2.4 n C (4) 0.9 n C
the sphere, ç ÷ , is :
è r ø 16. In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and
Ka Ka current are given by
(1) (2)
mg 3 mg e = 100 sin30t
mg mg æ pö
(3) (4) i = 20 sin ç 30t - ÷
3 Ka Ka è 4 ø
10. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a In one cycle of a.c., the average power consumed by
volume V at 27°C. The gas expands adiabatically to the circuit and the wattles current are,
a volume 2 V. Calculate (a) the final temperature of respectively:
the gas and (b) change in its internal energy. 1000
(1) 50, 10 (2) ,10
(1) (a) 189 K (b) 2.7 kJ (2) (a) 195 K (b) –2.7 kJ 2
(3) (a) 189 K (b) –2.7 kJ (4) (a) 195 K (b) 2.7 kJ 50
(3) ,0 (4) 50, 0
11. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is 2
3.32 ´ 10 -27 kg. If 1023 hydrogen molecules strike, 17. Two batteries with e.m.f. 12 V and 13 V are
per second, a fixed wall of area 2 cm2 at an angle of connected in parallel across a load resistor of 10W .
45° to the normal, and rebound elastically with a The internal resistances of the two batteries are
speed of 103 m/s, then the pressure on the wall is 1W and 2W respectively. The voltage across the
nearly :
load lies between :
(1) 2.35 ´ 103 N / m 2 (2) 4.70 ´ 103 N / m 2 (1) 11.6 V and 11.7 V (2) 11.5 V and 11.6 V
(3) 2.35 ´ 10 2 N / m 2 (4) 4.70 ´ 10 2 N / m 2 (3) 11.4 V and 11.5 V (4) 11.7 V and 11.8 V

12. A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple 18. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having
harmonic motion in some direction with a the same kinetic energy are moving in circular
frequency of 1012/sec. What is the force constant of orbits of radii re , rp , ra respectively in a uniform
the bonds connecting one atom with the other? magnetic field B. The relation between re , rp , ra is:
(Mole wt. of silver = 108 and Avagadro number =
(1) re > rp = ra (2) re < rp = ra
6.02 ´ 10 23 gm mole –1 )
(3) re < rp < ra (4) re < ra < rp
(1) 6.4 N/m (2) 7.1 N/m
(3) 2.2 N/m (4) 5.5 N/m 19. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a
13. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped at its current I is m and the magnetic field at the centre
middle point and is set into longitudinal vibrations. of the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is
The density of granite is 2.7 ´ 103 kg / m 3 and its doubled by keeping the current constant the
magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2. The
Young’s modulus is 9.27 ´1010 Pa . What will be B
the fundamental frequency of the longitudinal ratio 1 is :
B2
vibrations?
(1) 5 kHz (2) 2.5 kHz 1
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4)
(3) 10 kHz (4) 7.5 kHz 2

14. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of 20. for an RLC circuit driven with voltage is amplitude
respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface 1
v m and frequency w0 = the current exhibits
charge densities +s , -s and +s respectively. The LC
potential of shell B is : resonance. The quality factor, Q is given by :
s é a2 - b2 ù s é a2 - b2 ù wL wR
(1) ê + cú (2) ê + cú (1) 0 (2) 0
Î0 ë a û Î0 ë b û R L
s é b 2 - c2 ù s é b2 - c 2 ù R CR
(3) + aú (4) + aú (3) (4)
ê ê ( w0C ) w0
Î0 ë b û Î0 ë c û
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21. An EM wave from air enters a medium. The 25. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is
electric fields are v L , then the series limit frequency of the Pfund
r é æz öù series is :
E1 = E01 xˆ cos ê2pv ç - t ÷ ú in air and
ë èc øû (1) 25 v L (2) 16 v L
r
E2 = E02 xˆ cos éë k ( 2z - ct ) ùû in medium, where the (3) v L / 16 (4) v L / 25
wave number k and frequency v refer to their 26. It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic
values in air. The medium is non­magnetic. If Îr1 collinear with deuterium at rest, fractional loss of
and Îr2 refer to relative permittivities of air and its energy is Pd ; while for its similar collision with
carbon nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy is
medium respectively, which of the following
Pc. The values of Pd and Pc are respectively :
options is correct?
(1) ( ×89, × 28 ) (2) ( ×28, × 89 )
Îr Îr
(1) 1 = 4 (2) 1 = 2 (3) ( 0, 0 ) (4) ( 0, 1 )
Îr2 Îr2
27. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in
Îr1 1 Îr1 1 the given circuit is :
(3) = (4) =
Îr2 4 Îr2 2

22. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes through an

ideal polarizer A. Another identical polarizer B is
placed behind A. The intensity of light beyond B is
3V
1
found to be . Now another identical polarizer C is (1) 0 (2) 15 mA
2 (3) 11.5 mA (4) 13.5 mA
placed between A and B. The intensity beyond B is
1 28. A telephonic communication service i working at
now found to be . The angle between polarizer A carrier frequency of 10 GHz. Only 10% of it is
8
utilized for transmission. How many telephonic
and C is :
channels can transmitted simultaneously if each
(1) 0° (2) 30°
char requires a bandwidth of 5 kHz?
(3) 45° (4) 60°
(1) 2 ´ 103 (2) 2 ´ 104
23. The angular width of the central maximum at a
(3) 2 ´ 105 (4) 2 ´ 106
single slit diffraction pattern is 60°. The width of
the slit is 1 mm . The slit is illuminated by 29. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found that no
monochromatic plane waves. If another slit of same current passes through the galvanometer when the
width is made near it, Young’s fringes can be terminal of the cell are connected across 52 cm of
observed on a screen placed at a distance 50 cm the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a
from the slits. If the observed fringe width is 1 cm, resistance of 5 W , a balance is found when the cell
what is slit separation distance? is connected across 40 cm of the wire. Find the
(i.e., distance between the centres of each slit.) internal resistance of the cell.
(1) 25 mm (2) 50 mm (1) 1 W (2) 1.5 W
(3) 75 mm (4) 100 mm (3) 2 W (4) 2.5 W
24. An electron from various excited states of hydrogen 30. On interchanging the resistances, the balance
atom emit radiation to come to the ground state. point of a meter bridge shifts to the left by 10 cm.
Let l n , l g be the de Broglie wavelength of the The resistance of their series combination is 1 kW .
electron in nth state and the ground state How much was the resistance on the left slot before
respectively. Let L n be the wavelength of the interchanging the resistances?
emitted photon in the transition from the nth state (1) 990 W (2) 505 W
to the ground state. For large n, (A, B are (3) 550 W (4) 910 W
constants)
B
(1) Ln » A + 2 (2) L n » A + Bl n
ln
(3) L 2n » A + Bl 2n (4) L 2n » l

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 4

CHEMISTRY 38. An aqueous solution contains an unknown

concentration of Ba2+. When 50 mL of a 1 M
31. The ration of mass percent of C and H of an solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 just begins to
organic compound (CXHYOZ) is 6 : 1. If one precipitate. The final volume is 500 Ml. The
molecular of the above compound (CXHYOZ) solubility product of BaSO4 is 1×10–10. What is the
contains half as much oxygen as required to burn original concentration of Ba2+?
one molecule of compound CXHY completely to CO2 (1) 5×10–9 M (2) 2×10–9 M
and H2O. The empirical formula of compound (3)1.1×10 M–9 (4) 1.0×10–10 M
CXHYOZ is:
(1) C3H6O3 (2) C2H4O 39. At 518°C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of
(3)C3H4O2 (4) C2H4O3 gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363
Torr, was 1.00 Torr s–1 when 5% had reacted and
32. Which type of ‘defect’ has the presence cations in 0.5 Torr s–1 when 33% had reacted. The order of
the interstitial sites? the reaction is:
(1) Schottky defect (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 0
(2)Vacancy defect
(3)Frenkel defect 40. How long (approximate) should water be
(4)Metal deficiency defect electrolysed by passing through 100 amperes
current so that the oxygen released can completely
33. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the burn 27.66 g of diborane?
following will not be a viable molecule? (Atomic weight of B = 10.8 u)
(1) H e 22 + (2) He 2+ (3) H 2- (4) H 22 - (1) 6.4 hours (2) 0.8 hours
(3) 3.2 hour (4) 1.6 hours
34. Which of the following lines correctly show the
temperature dependence of equilibrium constant, 41. The recommended concentration of fluoride ion in
K, for an exothermic reaction? drinking water is up to 1 ppm as fluoride ion is
ln K required to make teeth enamel harder by
A
converting [3Ca3(PO4)2 × Ca(OH)2] to :
1 (1) [CaF2] (2) [3(CaF2) × Ca(OH)2]
B
T (K ) (3) [3Ca3(PO4)2 × CaF2] (4) [3{Ca(OH)2} × CaF2]
(0, 0)
42. Which of the following compounds contain(s) non
C covalent bond(s)?
KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4
(1) KCl, B2H6, PH3 (2) KCl, H2SO4
D
(3) KCl (4) KCl, B2H6
(1) A and B (2) B and C
43. Which of the following are Lewis acids?
(3) C and D (4) A and D
(1) PH3 and BCl3 (2) AlCl3 and SiCl4
35. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2 (g) and (3) PH3 and SiCl4 (4) BCl3 and AlCl3
H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion of benzene
44. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I 3- ion is :
at constant volume is –3263.9 kJ mol–1 at 25° C;
heat of combustion (in kJ mol–1) of benzene at (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12
constant pressure will be: (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1) 45. Which of the following salts is the most basic in
(1) 4152.6 (2) –452.46 aqueous solution?
(3)3260 (4) –3267.6 (1) Al(CN)3 (2) CH3COOK
36. For 1 molar aqueous solution of the following (3) FeCl3 (4) Pb(CH3COO)2
compounds, which one will show the highest 46. Hydrogen peroxide oxidises [Fe(CN)6]4– to
freezing point? [Fe(CN)6]3– in acidic medium but reduces
(1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 [Fe(CN)6]3– to [Fe(CN)6)4– in alkaline medium. The
(2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O other products formed are, respectively:
(3) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O (1) (H2O + O2) and H2O
(4) [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O (2) (H2O + O2) and (H2O + OH–)
37. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S and 0.20 (3) H2O and (H2O + O2)
M HCl. If the equilibrium constants for the (4) H2O and (H2O + OH–)
formation of HS– from H2S is 1.0 × 10–7 and that of 47. The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3,
S2– from HS– ions is 1.2 × 10–13 then the [Cr(C6H6)2] and K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2(O2)(NH3)]
concentration of S2– ions in aqueous solution is : respectively are :
(1) 5 × 10–8 (2) 3 × 10–20 (1) +3, +4 and +6 (2) +3, +2 and +4
(3) 6 × 10–21 (4) 5 × 10–19 (3) +3, 0 and +6 (4) +3, 0 and +4
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 5

48. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas 54. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of
by the thermal decomposition is: NaOH followed by acidification produces
(1) Ba(N3)2 (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7 compound X as the major product. X on treatment
(3) NH4NO2 (4) (NH4)2SO4 with (CH3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic
amount of H2SO4 produces:
49. When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a white
gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained which is O
soluble in excess of NaOH. Compound ‘X’ when
heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in O CH3
chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is: (1)
(1) Zn (2) Ca (3) Al (4) Fe
50. Consider the following reaction and statements: CO2 H
(Co(NH3)4Br2]+ + Br– ® [Co(NH3)3Br3] + NH3 O
I. Two isomers are produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis­isomer. O CH3
II. Two isomers are produced if the reactant
complex ion is a trans­isomer.
III. Only one isomer is produced if the reactant (2)
complex ion is a trans­isomer.
IV.Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis­isomer.
The correct statements are: CO 2H
(1) (I) and (II) (2) (I) and (III) O
O CH3
(3) (III) and (IV) (4) (II) and (IV) C
51. Glucose on prolonged heating with Hl gives: O
(3) OH
(1) n­Hexane (2) 1­Hexene
(3)Hexanoic acid (4) 6­iodohexanal
52. The trans­alkenes are formed by the reduction of
alkynes with: CO 2H
(1) H2­Pd/C, BaSO4 (2) NaBH4
(3) Na/liq. NH3 (4) Sn ­ HCl
53. Which of the following compounds will be suitable
for Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen estimation? (4) CO 2H
NH2 O CH3
(1) (2)
O
N
NO2 N +2Cl - 55. An alkali is titrated against an acid wit methyl
orange as indicator, which of the following is a
(3) (4) correct combination?
Base Acid End point
(1) Weak Strong Colourless
to pink
(2) Strong Strong Pinkish red
to yellow
(3) Weak Strong Yellow to
pinkish red
(4) Strong Strong Pink to
colourless

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56. The predominant form of histamir present in 59. The major product formed in the following reaction
human blood is (pK Histidine = 6.0) is:
H
N O HI
(1) NH 2
Heat
N O
H
N Å
N H3
(2) Å OH
N (1)
H
H OH
N
(3) Å I
N
(2)
NH2
H
I
H
N Å
NH3
(4) OH
(3)
N
I
57. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the
presence of NaOH to form product A. A reacts with I
Br2 to form product B. A and B are respectively: (4)

OH Br OH OH
and
(1) OCH 3 OCH 3
60. The major product of the follow reaction is:
O O
O O
Br
O O
and
NaOMe
(2) O O

Br MeOH
O O O O
OMe
(3) and
O
O
Br (1) (2)
OH
OH
and
(4) OCH 3 OMe
OCH 3
Br O
O (3) (4)

58. The increasing order of basicity of the following

compounds is:
NH2 MATHEMATICS
(a)
NH 61. Two sets A and B are as under :
(b) A = {(a, b) Î R × R : |a – 5| < 1 and |b – 5| < 1};
NH2 B = {(a, b) Î R × R : 4(a – 6)2 + 9(b – 5)2 £ 36}.
(c) Then :
NH (1) B Ì A
(2) A Ì B
(d) NHCH3
(3) A Ç B = f (an empty set)
(4) neither A Ì B nor B Ì A
(1) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
(2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(3) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
(4) (b) < (a)< (d) < (c)

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62. Let S = {x Î R : x ³ 0 and 70. For each t Î R, let [t] be the greatest integer less
2| x - 3 | + x ( x – 6) + 6 = 0}. Then S : than or equal to t. Then
(1) is an empty set æ é1 ù é 2 ù é15 ù ö
lim x ç ê ú + ê ú + ...... + ê ú ÷
(2) contains exactly one element x ®0 +
è ëx û ëx û ë x ûø
(3) contains exactly two elements (1) is equal to 0. (2) is equal to 15.
(4) contains exactly four elements (3)is equal to 120. (4) does not exist (in R).
63. If a, b Î C are the distinct roots, of the equation 71. Let S = {t Î R : f(x) = |x – p | × (e|x| – 1) sin |x| is
101 107
x2 – x + 1 = 0, then a +b is equal to: not differentiable at t}. Then the set S is equal to :
(1) –1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2 (1) f (an empty set) (2) {0}
(3) { p } (4) {0, p}
x -4 2x 2x
2
64. If 2x x-4 2x = ( A + Bx )( x - A ) , then 72. If the curves y2 = 6x, 9x2 + by2 = 16 intersect each
2x 2x x -4 other at right angles, then the value of b is:
the ordered pair (A, B) is equal to : 7 9
(1) 6 (2) (3) 4 (4)
(1) (–4, –5) (2) (–4, 3) 2 2
(3) (4, 5) (4) (–4, 5)
1 1
65. If the system of linear equations 73. Let f(x) = x2 + 2
and g(x) = x – ,
x x
x + ky + 3z = 0
f (x)
3x + ky – 2z = 0 x Î R – { – 1, 0, 1}. If h(x) = , then the local
2x + 4y – 3z = 0 g(x)
xz minimum value of h(x) is:
Has a non­zero solution (x, y, z), then is equal (1) 3 (2) –3 (3) -2 2 (4) 2 2
y2
to : 74. The integral
(1) –10 (2) 10 sin 2 x cos2 x
(3) –30 (4) 30 ò 2
dx
( sin 5 x + cos 3 x sin 2 x + sin 3 x cos 2 x + cos 5 x )
66. From 6 different novels and 3 different
dictionaries, 4 novels and 1 dictionary are to be is equal to:
selected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that 1 -1
(1) +C (2) +C
the dictionary is always in the middle. The number 3(1 + tan3 x) 3(1 + tan3 x)
of such arrangements is: 1 -1
(1) at least 1000 (3) 3
+C (4) +C
1 + cot x 1 + cot3 x
(2) less than 500 (where C is a constant of integration)
(3) at least 500 but less than 750
p
(4) at least 750 but less than 1000 2
sin 2 x
67. The sum of the co­efficients of all odd degree terms 75. The value of òp 1 + 2x dx is:
in the expansion of -
2
5

(x + 3
x -1 ) + (x- 3 5
x - 1) , ( x > 1) (1)
p
8
(2)
p
2
(3) 4 p (4)
p
4
(1) –1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2
12 76. Let g(x) = cos x2, f(x) = x , and a , b( a < b) be the
68. Let a1, a2, a3, .., a49 be in A.P. such that å a4k +1 =416
k=0
roots of the quadratic equation 18x 2 - 9 px + p2 = 0
and a9 + a43 = 66. If a12 + a 22 + ..... + a17
2
= 140 m ,
Then the area (in sq. units) bounded by the curve
y = (gof) (x) and the lines x = a , x = b and y = 0, is:
then m is equal to :
1 1
(1) 66
(3) 34
(2) 68
(4) 33
(1)
2
( 3 -1 ) (2)
2
( 3 +1 )
1 1
69. Let A be the sum of the first 20 terms and B be the (3)
2
( 3- 2 ) (4)
2
( 2 - 1)
sum of the first 40 terms of the series
12 + 2· 22 + 32 + 2· 42 + 52 + 2· 62 + .....
If B – 2A = 100 l , then l is equal to :
(1) 232 (2) 248
(3) 464 (4) 496

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77. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential 84. The length of the projection of the line segment
dy joining the points (5, –1, 4) and (4, –1, 3) on the
equation sin x + y cos = 4x, x Î (0, p ). plane, x + y + z = 7 is :
dx
2 2
æpö æpö (1) (2)
If y ç ÷ = 0, then y ç ÷ is equal to : 3 3
è2ø è6ø
4 -8 1 2
(1) p2 (2) p2 (3) (4)
9 3 9 3 3 3
8 4 r
(3) - p2 (4) - p2 85. Let u be a vector coplanar with the vectors
r r r
9 9 a = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj - kˆ and b = ˆj + k.
ˆ If u is perpendicular
r r r r2
78. A straight line through a fixed point (2, 3) to a and u · b = 24, then u is equal to :
intersects the coordinate axes at distinct points P (1) 336 (2) 315 (3) 256 (4) 84
and Q. If O is the origin and the rectangle OPRQ is
completed, then the locus of R is : 86. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is
(1) 3x + 2y = 6 (2) 2x + 3y = xy drawn at random from the bag, its colour is
(3) 3x + 2y = xy (4) 3x + 2y = 6xy observed and this ball along with two additional
balls of the same colour are returned to the bag. If
79. Let the orthocentre and centroid of a triangle be now a ball is drawn at random from the bag, then
A(–3,  5) and B(3, 3) respectively. If C is the the probability that this drawn ball is red, is:
circumcentre of this triangle, then the radius of the 3 2 1 3
circle having line segment AC as diameter, is: (1) (2) (3) (4)
10 5 5 4
3 5 5
(1) (2) 2 10 (3) 3 (4) 10 9 9
2 2 2
87. If å (x - 5) = 9
i
and å (x - 5)
i = 45 , then the
i =1 i =1
80. If the tangent at (1, 7) to the curve x2
= y – 6
standard deviation of the 9 items x1, x2, ....., x9 is:
touches the circle x2 + y2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0 then
(1) 9 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
the value of c is:
(1) 195 (2) 185 (3) 85 (4) 95 88. If sum of all the solutions of the equation
æ æp ö æp ö 1ö
81. Tangent and normal are drawn at P(16, 16) on the 8 cos x· ç cos ç + x ÷· cos ç - x ÷ - ÷ = 1 in [0, p ]
parabola y2 = 16x, which intersect the axis of the è è6 ø è6 ø 2ø
parabola at A and B, respectively. If C is the centre is k p , then k is equal to:
of the circle through the points P, A and B and 2 13 8 20
ÐCPB = q , then a value of tanq is : (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 9 9 9
1 4
(1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 89. PQR is a triangular park with PQ = PR = 200 m.
2 3
A T.V. tower stands at the mid­point of QR. If the
82. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 4x2 – y2 = 36 angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
at the points P and Q. If these tangents intersect at and R are respectively 45°, 30° and 30°, then the
the point T(0, 3) then the area (in sq. units) of height of the tower (in m) is:
DPTQ is : (1) 100 (2) 50 (3) 100 3 (4) 50 2
(1) 45 5 (2) 54 3 (3) 60 3 (4) 36 5 90. The Boolean expression : (p Ú q ) Ú (: p Ù q ) is
83. If L1 is the line of intersection of the planes equivalent to :
2x – 2y + 3z – 2 = 0, x – y + z + 1 = 0 and L2 is the (1) : p (2) p
line of intersection of the planes x + 2y – z – 3 = 0, (3) q (4) : p
3x – y + 2z – 1 = 0, then the distance of the origin
from the plane, containing the lines L1 and L2, is:
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 3 2 2 2 2

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