Name:____________________________________ 6.

A 32 year old client is admitted with a tentative

diagnosis of AIDS. The preliminary report of
biopsies done on her facial lesions indicates Kaposi’s
ATII CGFNS Boot Camp sarcoma. Which of the following approaches would
Integumentary/Infectious/Sex Repro/Immune be most appropriate?
(SET A) A. tell the client that Kaposi’s sarcoma is common
in people with AIDS
B. pretend not to notice the lesions on the clients
1. Which of the following laboratory test results face
supports the diagnosis of systemic lupus C. inform the client of the biopsy results and
erythematosus (SLE)? support her emotionally
A. elevated serum complement level D. explore the client’s feelings about her facial
B. thrombocytosis, elevated sedimentation rate disfigurement
C. pancytopenia, elevated ANA titer
D. leukocytosis, elevated blood urea nitrogen and 7. A client infected with HIV begins zidovudine (AZT)
creatinine levels. therapy. Which of the following statements best
describes the action of this drug?
2. For which of the following conditions is a client with A. it destroys the outer wall of the virus and kills it
multiple myeloma monitored? B. it interferes with viral replication
A. hypercalcemia C. it stimulates the immune system
B. hyperkalemia D. it promotes excretion of viral antibodies
C. hypernatremia
D. hypermagnesemia 8. What is the life span for normal platelets?
A. 1 to 3 days
3. Local hot and cold applications transfer temperature B. 3 to 5 days
to and from the body by: C. 7 to 10 days
A. Radiation D. 3 to 4 months
B. Insulation
C. Convection 9. When changing a client’s postoperative dressing, the
D. Conduction nurse is careful not to introduce microorganisms into
the surgical incision. This is an example of:
4. What is the average length of time from HIV A. Wound asepsis
infection to the development of acquired immune B. Medical asepsis
deficiency syndrome? C. Surgical asepsis
a. less than 5 years D. Concurrent asepsis
b. 5 to 7 years
c. 10 years 10. The nurse is preparing to change a client’s dressing.
d. more than 10 years The statement that best explains the basis of surgical
asepsis that the nurse will follow in this procedure is:
5. The client with unresolved edema will most likely A. Keep the area free of microorganisms
develop: B. Protect self from microorganisms in the wound
A. Proteinemia C. Confine the microorganisms to the surgical site
B. Contractures D. Keep the number of opportunistic
C. Tissue ischemia microorganisms to a minimum
D. Thrombus formation
11. Which of the following conditions or symptoms is
often a secondary complication of hypercalcemia in a
client with multiple myeloma?
A. pneumonia
B. muscle spasm
C. renal dysfunction
D. myocardial irritability
12. To promote healing of a large surgical incision, a 20. An elderly client is admitted to the surgical unit from
client’s physician would most likely order daily doses a nursing home for treatment of a pressure ulcer.
of During the initial physical assessment, the nurse
A. Vitamin A notes that the client is dehydrated and the skin is dry
B. Aquamephyton and scaly. The nurse immediately applies emollients
C. Ascorbic acid to the client’s skin and changes the dressing on the
D. Vitamin B12 complex pressure ulcer. Legally:
A. The nurse should have instituted a plan to
13. A diseased produced when a Clostridium organism increase activity
enters wounds and produces a toxin causing crepitus B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for
is: the well-being of the client
A. Anthrax C. No treatment should have been instituted for the
B. Tetanus client until a physician ordered it
C. Botulism D. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have
D. Gangrene been done by the nurse before the dressing was
applied
14. The nurse should assess a client with psoriasis for:
A. Pruritic lesions 21. An elderly client develops a large pressure ulcer after
B. Multiple petechiae refusing to change position for extended periods of
C. Shiny, scaly lesions time. The family is very upset, blames the nurses and
D. Erythematous macules threatens to sue. The decision in this suit would take
into consideration the fact that:
15. The nurse should explain to the client with psoriasis A. This client should be turned every hour
that treatment usually involves: B. Nurses are not responsible to the client’s family
A. Avoiding exposure to the sun C. Pressure ulcers frequently occur in elderly clients
B. Topical application of steroids D. The nurse should uphold the client’s right not to
C. Potassium permanganate baths be moved
D. Debridement of necrotic plaques
22. The nurse should question clients with basal cell
16. When caring for a client with scabies, the nurse carcinoma about:
should be aware that scabies: A. Familial tendencies
A. Highly contagious B. Their dietary patterns
B. A chronic problem C. Their smoking history
C. Caused by a fungus D. Ultraviolet radiation exposure
D. Associated with other allergies
23. The nurse should assess a client with metastatic
17. The nurse must help the client with pemphigus melanoma for the presence of:
vulgaris deal with the resulting: A. Oily skin
A. Infertility B. Nikolsky’s sign
B. Paralysis C. Lymphadenopathy
C. Skin lesions D. Erythema of the palms
D. Impaired digestion
18. The assessment that is most indicative of systemic 24. The physician suspects that a client with a melanoma
lupus erythematosus (SLE) is: also has primary cancerous lesions in the connective
A. A butterfly rash tissue. The nurse understands that these lesions are
B. Firm skin fixed to tissue classified as:
C. Muscle mass degeneration A. Sarcomas
D. An inflammation of small arteries B. Carcinomas
C. Collagenomas
19. Although no cause has been determined for D. Osteoblastomas
Scleroderma, it is thought to be caused by:
A. Autoimmunity
B. Ocular motility
C. Increased amino acid metabolism
D. Defective sebaceous gland formation
25. A client expresses concern about being exposed to 32. One difficult problem for the nurse to deal with
radiation therapy because it can cause cancer. When concerning an extensively burned client admitted 3
assisting the client to understand the treatment, the days ago is:
nurse should emphasize: A. Severe pain
A. Dosage of radiation utilized B. Maintenance of sterility
B. Extent of the body irradiated C. Alteration in body image
C. Physical condition of the client D. Frequent dressing changes
D. Nutritional environment of the cells
33. The condition of an adult with partial-thickness burns
26. When teaching first aid, the nurse should explain that over 42% of the body would be considered:
the best first-aid treatment for acid burns on the skin A. Fair
is to flush them with water and then apply a solution B. Poor
of sodium: C. Good
A. Sulfate D. Critical
B. Chloride
C. Hydroxide 34. A worker is involved in an expansion of a steam pipe
D. Bicarbonate and receives a scalding burn to the chest and arms.
The burned areas are painful, mottled red, weeping
27. An effective first-aid treatment for an alkali burn is to and edematous. These burns would be classified as:
flush it with water and then with: A. Eschar
A. A weak acid B. Full-thickness burns
B. A dilute base C. Deep partial-thickness burns
C. A salt solution D. Superficial partial-thickness burns
D. An antibiotic solution
35. During the first few hours after a client is admitted to
28. A client who is to receive radiation therapy for cancer the burn unit with partial-thickness burns of the trunk
says to the nurse, “My family said I will get a and head, the nurse is least concerned with the client
radiation burn.” The best response by the nurse developing:
would be: A. Pain
A. “It will be no worse than a sunburn.” B. Leukopenia
B. “A localized skin reaction usually occurs.” C. Hypovolemia
C. “Have they had experience with this type of D. Laryngeal edema
radiation?”
D. “Daily application of an emollient will prevent 36. Adequate fluid replacement for a client during the
the burn.” first 24 hours following a burn injury would be
indicated by a:
29. A skin graft that is taken from another portion of a A. Falling CVP readings
client’s own body is known as: B. Urinary output of 15 to 20 ml/hr
A. An allograft C. Slowing of a previously rapid pulse
B. A xenograft D. Hematocrit level rising from 50 to 55
C. An autograft
D. A homograft 37. A client with severe burns is placed on a circulating
air bed primarily to:
30. The best blood test for the nurse to use to evaluate A. Increase mobility
fluid loss resulting from burns is the: B. Prevent contractures
A. Hemoglobin C. Limit orthostatic hypotension
B. WBC D. Prevent pressure on peripheral blood vessels
C. Hematocrit
D. Platelets

31. The medication that the nurse should anticipate

administering to a burned client as soon after
admission as possible is:
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Gamma globulin
C. Isoproterenol (Isuprel)
D. Phytonadione (Aquamephyton)
38. A client with severe burns is intubated and placed on 45. The testes are suspended in the scrotum to:
a mechanical ventilator. Central venous pressure must A. Protect the sperm from the acidity of urine
be monitored. When caring for this client, the nurse B. Facilitate the passage of sperm through the
understands that: urethra
A. The fluid level in the manometer fluctuates with C. Protect the sperm from high abdominal
each respiration temperatures
B. The zero mark on the manometer should be at D. Facilitate their maturation during embryonic
the level of the diaphragm development
C. Blood should not be easily aspirated from the
central venous pressure line 46. The term condylomata acuminata refers to:
D. The client should not be taken off the ventilator A. Scabies
for the central venous pressure readings B. Herpes zoster
C. Venereal warts
39. The nurse should explain to a client whose burns are D. Cancer of the epididymis
being treated by the exposure method that:
A. Bathing will not be permitted 47. Clients who develop general paresis as a
B. Protective techniques are required complication of syphilis are usually treated with:
C. Dressings will be changed every other day A. Penicillin
D. Room temperature must be kept at 72 degrees F B. Major tranquilizers
C. Behavior modification
40. A severely burned client has been hospitalized for 2 D. Electroconvulsive therapy
days. Until now recovery has been uneventful, but
the client begins to exhibit extreme restlessness. The 48. The nurse teaches a client that gonorrhea is highly
nurse recognizes that this most likely indicates that infectious and:
the client is developing: A. Is easily cured
A. Renal failure B. Occurs very rarely
B. Hypervolemia C. Can produce sterility
C. Cerebral hypoxia D. Is limited to the external genitalia
D. Metabolic acidosis
49. When a client is diagnosed as having gonorrhea the
41. The most effective first-aid treatment for a client who nurse should expect the physician to order:
has been bitten by a raccoon involves: A. Colistin
A. Administering an antivenin B. Penicillin
B. Maintaining a pressure dressing C. Actinomycin
C. Cleansing the wound with soap and water D. Chloramphenicol
D. Applying a tourniquet proximal to the wound
50. The nurse understands that the organism that causes a
42. The physician performs a colostomy. During the trichomonal infection is a:
immediate postoperative period nursing care should A. Yeast
include: B. Fungus
A. Withholding all fluids for 72 hours C. Protozoan
B. Limiting fluid intake for several days D. Spirochete
C. Having the client change the colostomy bag
D. Keeping the skin around the stoma clean and dry 51. The oral drug that is most likely to be prescribed for
treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis is:
43. The primary nursing diagnosis that is most A. penicillin
appropriate for a client with necrotizing fascitis is: B. gentian violet
A. Fluid volume deficit C. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
B. Impaired skin integrity D. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
C. Impaired physical mobility
D. Altered urinary elimination 52. When receiving a douche, the best position for a
client to assume would be the:
44. Spermatogenesis occurs: A. Sim’s
A. At the time of puberty B. Fowler’s
B. At any time following birth C. Knee-chest
C. Immediately following birth D. Dorsal recumbent
D. During embryonic development
53. When teaching a client how to self-administer a
douche, the nurse should instruct the client to direct
the douche nozzle toward the:
A. Left
B. Right
C. Sacrum
D. Umbilicus
54. Acute salpingitis is most commonly the result of:
A. Syphilis
B. Abortion
C. Gonorrhea
D. Hydatidiform mole
55. A condyloma has been identified during a yearly
gynecological examination. While awaiting the
biopsy report prior to its removal, the client indicates
to the nurse that she is fearful of cervical cancer. The
best response by the nurse would be:
A. “Worrying today is not going to help the
situation.’
B. “It is very upsetting to have to wait for a biopsy
report.”
C. “Of course you don’t have cancer; a condyloma
is always benign.”
D. “No operation is done without specimens being
sent to the laboratory first.”
56. When counseling a client after vasectomy, the nurse
should advise him that:
A. Recanalization of the vas deferens is impossible
B. Some impotency is to be expected for several
weeks
C. Unprotected coitus is possible within a week to
10 days
D. It requires at least 15 ejaculations to clear the
tract of sperm
57. Torsion of the testes requires immediate surgical
correction because:
A. There is no other way to control the sperm
B. Irreversible damage occurs after a few hours
C. Swelling is excessive and the testicle may
rupture
D. The reduction in testicular blood flow leads to
rapid death of sperm
58. With cancer of the prostate it is possible to follow the
course of the disease by monitoring the serum level
of:
A. Creatinine
B. Blood Urea Nitrogen
C. Nonprotein nitrogen
D. Prostate-specific antigen
59. The tests that would help indicate the effect of benign
prostatic hypertrophy on the kidneys are:
A. Microscopic porphyrins, urinalysis
B. PSP, urea clearance, urine concentration
C. Sulkowitch, catecholamines, urine dilution
D. Bence Jones protein, urine concentration,
albumin
60. A nurse should be aware that benign prostatic
hypertrophy (BPH):
A. Is a congenital abnormality
B. Usually becomes malignant
C. Predisposes to hydronephrosis
D. Causes an elevated acid phosphatase
61. A client diagnosed with herpes genitalis. To prevent
cross-contamination the nurse should:
A. Institute droplet precautions
B. Arrange transfer to private room
C. Wear a gown and gloves when giving direct care
D. Close the door and wear a mask when in the
room
62. A client cannot understand how syphilis was
contracted because there has been no sexual activity
for several days. As part of teaching, the nurse
explains that the incubation period for syphilis is
about:
A. 72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 2 to 6 weeks
D. 4 months
63. Syphilis is not considered contagious in the:
A. Tertiary stage
B. Primary stage
C. Incubation stage
D. Secondary stage
64. In relation to the public health implications of
gonorrhea diagnosed in a 16-year-old, the nurse
should be most interested in:
A. Finding the client’s contacts
B. Interviewing the client’s parents
C. The reasons of the client’s promiscuity
D. Instructing the client about birth control
measures
65. When teaching a client about the drug therapy for
gonorrhea, the nurse should state that it:
A. Cures the infection
B. Prevents complications
C. Controls its transmission
D. Reverses pathologic changes
66. A 9-month-old infant with eczema has lesions that
are secondarily infected. Which of the following
interventions would be most appropriate to help the
father best meet the needs of his child?
A. Preventing siblings from being in close contact.
B. Sending the child to day care as usual.
C. Playing video cartoons for several hours each
evening.
D. Playing with the child everyday.
67. After the nurse teaches the mother of a child with
atopic dermatitis how to bathe her child, which of the
following statements by the mother indicates
effective teaching?
A. “I let my child play in the tub for 30 minutes
every night.”
B. “My child loves the bubble bath I put in the tub.”
C. “When my child gets out of the tub I just pat the
skin dry.”
D. “I make sure my child has a bath every night.”
68. Which of the following medications is given with
pentamidine isethionate to clients with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome for Pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Sulfadiazine
69. A client receiving pentamidine isethionate should
have which of the following parameters monitored?
A. heart rate
B. electrolyte levels
C. blood sugar levels
D. complete blood count
70. How long do most clients receive treatment for TB?
A. 2 to 4 months
B. 9 to 12 months
C. 18 to 24 months
D. more than 2 years
71. For what length of time is a client not considered
infectious after treatment for TB started?
A. 72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
D. 4 weeks
72. A pregnant woman has just been diagnosed with
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the
following methods or actions does not put the baby at
risk for infection by the virus?
A. vaginal birth
B. vertical (in utero)
C. breast feeding after birth
D. changing diapers after birth
73. Which of the following blood tests is used first to
identify a response to HIV infection?
A. Western blot
B. CD4 T cell count
C. ESR
D. ELISA
74. The goal of surgery for the treatment of a detached
retina is to:
A. Promote growth of new retinal cells
B. Adhere the sclera to the choroid layer
C. Graft a healthy piece of retina in place
D. Create a scar that aids in healing retinal holes
75. When a client with a detached retina asks about the
condition, the nurse should explain that retinal
detachment is a:
A. Consequence of optic-retinal atrophy
B. Degeneration of the choroids and optic chiasm
C. Division between the photoreceptor and neural
layers of the retina
D. Separation between the sensory portion of the
retina and the pigment layer
76. Miotics are frequently used in the treatment of
glaucoma. The nurse should understand that miotics
work by
A. Paralyzing ciliary muscles
B. Constricting intraocular vessels
C. Constricting the pupil
D. Relaxing ciliary muscle
77. The nurse should recognize that further teaching is
needed when a client with glaucoma states, “It would
be dangerous for me to:
A. use sedatives
B. become constipated
C. use atropine in any form
D. release my emotions by crying
78. A client with glaucoma should be advise to:
A. Take laxatives daily
B. Use eyewashes on a regular basis
C. Keep an extra supply of eye medication on hand
D. Have corrective lens prescriptions checked every
3 months
79. Which of the following should the nurse provide as
part of the information to prepare the client for
tonometry?
A. Oral pain medication will be given before the
procedure
B. It is a painless procedure with no side effects
C. Blurred or double vision may occur after the
procedure
D. Medication will be given to dilate the pupils
before the procedure
80. A patient who has a diagnosis of glaucoma should be
instructed to avoid which of the following activities?
A. Lifting heavy objects
B. Watching movies
C. Drinking beverages that contain caffeine
D. Eating foods that are high in potassium
81. A cataract is:
A. An opacity of the lens
B. A thin film over the cornea
C. A crystallinization of the pupil
D. An increase in the density of the conjunctiva
82. After a client has cataract surgery, the nurse should:
A. Teach the client coughing and deep breathing
techniques
B. Encourage eye exercises to strengthen the ocular
musculature
C. Keep the client in the supine position with the
head immobilized
D. Advise the client to refrain from vigorous
brushing of teeth and hair
83. A 26-year-old client has a history of chronic otitis
media. Which of the following procedures is the most
common surgical intervention for chronic otitis
media?
A. Ossiculoplasty
B. Tympanoplasty
C. Mastoidectomy
D. Myringotomy
84. The classic triad of symptoms associated with
Meniere’s disease is vertigo, tinnitus and
A. Headache
B. Otitis media
C. Fluctuating hearing loss
D. Vomiting
85. The potential for injury during an attack of Meniere’s
disease is great. The nurse should instruct the client
to take which immediate action when experiencing
vertigo?
A. “Place your head between your knees.”
B. “Concentrate on rhythmic deep breathing.”
C. “Close your eyes tightly.”
D. “Assume a reclining or flat position.”
86. Otosclerosis is a common cause of conductive
hearing loss. With such a partial hearing loss:
A. Stapedectomy is the procedure of choice
B. Hearing aids usually restore some hearing
C. The client is usually unable to hear base tones
D. Air conduction is more effective than born
conduction
87. The mother of a child who has recently had
myringotomy tubes inserted bilaterally calls the
ambulatory surgery center and tells a nurse, ”My
child has a large amount of clear yellow drainage
coming from both ears.” Which of the following
responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. “Your child may have developed an ear
infection.”
B. “Water may have gotten into your child’s ears
during bath time.”
C. “The tubes may already be working their way
out.”
D. “This indicates that the tubes are working
normally.”
88. A nurse should recognize that the main purpose of
inserting myringotomy tubes into the ears of a 10-
month-old child is to
A. Prevent ear infections
B. Reduce the need for antibiotic therapy
C. Promote drainage of the middle ear
D. Enhance sound discrimination
89. A parent of a two-month-old is given instructions
about the care of diaper dermatitis. Which of the
following comments, if made by the parent, would
indicate a need for further instructions?
A. “I only use alcohol-free baby wipes when
cleaning my baby during diaper changes.”
B. “I will remove all of the old diaper cream from
my baby before applying more.”
C. “I will need to change diapers frequently, so my
baby’s bottom stays dry.”
D. “Giving my babies fewer bottles will help to
reduce diaper irritation.”
90. Chicken pox can sometimes be fatal to children who 96. Which assessment finding indicates a partial
are receiving: thickness burn?
A. Hair follicles that are easily pulled out
A. Insulin B. Large, moist vesicles
B. Steroids C. Lack of skin blanching with pressure
C. Antibiotics D. Little or no pain in the burned area
D. Anticonvulsants
97. Which factor does not exacerbate psoriasis?
91. A mother asks the nurse how to tell the differences A. Poor personal hygiene
between measles (rubeola) and German measles B. Stress
(rubella). The nurse tells the mother that with rubeola C. Infection
the child has: D. Surgical incisions

A. A high fever and Koplik’s spots 98. The most effective intervention in preventing the
B. A rash on the trunk with pruritus transmission of herpes zoster is
C. Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps A. Thorough hand washing and the use of gloves
D. Symptoms similar to a cold, followed by a rash B. Respiratory isolation
C. Limited sexual contact
92. A 3-year-old is admitted with partial and full D. Reverse isolation
thickness burns over 30% of her body. Nursing
observations in the first 48 hours of hospitalization 99. Which assessment finding is not likely in a female
are directed primarily toward preventing: patient with gonorrhea?
A. Painful urination
A. Shock B. Yellowish green vaginal discharge
B. Pneumonia C. Lower abdominal pain and distention
C. Contractures D. Rectal inflammation and discomfort
D. Acute Renal Failure
100.Which statement about herpes genitalis is not
93. A 6-year-old has received partial thickness burns of correct?
the face and chest in a house fire. For the first 24 A. There appears to be an association between
hours after hospitalization, the nurse should primarily herpes and cervical cancer
observe this child for: B. Once treated, active immunity develops
C. The disease is spread by the oral-genital route
A. Wound sepsis D. It causes painful ulcerations on the genitals.
B. Separation anxiety
C. Pulmonary distress
D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

94. A young child has experienced a minor superficial

burn to the forearm. As an immediate first-aid
measure, a nurse would advise the parent to apply
which of the following substances to the affected
area?

A. Cool water
B. Antibiotic ointment
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Iodine solution

95. It is suspected that a patient has Lyme disease. Which

of the following skin manifestation would a nurse
identify as supporting this diagnosis?

A. Vesicular skin rash

B. Circular skin rash
C. Circumscribed skin rash
D. Phlebetic streak