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a) 2N
b) (N-1)(N+1)
c) 2N(N-1)
d) N(N-1)/2
14. The differential of the shear equation is 20. The ability of metal to resist being
which of the following: crushed is called
41. The ratio of stress to strain within the 47. The maximum stress to which a material
elastic limit is called may be subjected before failure occurs is
called:
a) creep
b) modulus of rigidity a) Rupture strength
c) modulus of elasticity b) ultimate strength
d) poisson’s ratio c) Yield strength
d) proportional limit
42. The ability of metal to withstand loads
without breaking down is termed as
48. The total deformation measured in the
a) strain direction of the line of stress.
b) stress
c) elasticity a) strain
d) strength b) elasticity
c) elongation
d) contraction
a) friction torque
b) stress
c) rigidity
d) compressive force
a) shear strength
b) bearing strength
c) endurance limit
d) deformation
TEST 3
1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the a) depends on the materials and the
allowable stress. finish condition of the surface
b) depends only on the finish condition
a) proportionality constant pf the surface
b) strain c) does not depend on the materials
c) Modulus d) depends on the composition of the
d) Factor of safety materials only
6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces 11. Auto frottage is the method of
a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders 17. The tensile stress of a material is given by
b) increasing life of thick cylinders
c) prestressing thick cylinders a) average load during the test /
d) relieving thick cylinders average at the time of fracture
b) average load during the test /
12. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine original cross-sectional area
_________ on inclined surface. c) maximum load during test / area at
the time of fracture
a) principal stress d) maximum load during test / original
b) normal stress cross-sectional area
c) tangential stress
d) all of the above 18. When a part is constrained to move and
heated, it develops what kind of stress?
13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the
ratio of a) compressive stress
b) principal stress
a) linear stress to longitudinal strain c) shear stress
b) shear stress to shear strain d) tensile stress
c) shear to strain
d) shear stress to volumetric strain 19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as
compared to in tension is nearly
14. The total strain energy stored in a body is
called a) one-half
b) one-third
a) resilience c) one-fourth
b) proof resilience d) the same
c) modulus of resilience
d) toughness 20. The intensity of stress that causes unit
strain is known as
15. The elongation of a conical bar under its
own weight is equal to a) bulk modulus
b) modulus of elasticity
a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of c) modulus of rigidity
the same length d) unit stress
b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the
same length 21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as
c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the compared to its ultimate compressive stress
same length will be
d) that of a prismatic bar of the same
length a) less
16. Which one is the incorrect statement b) more
about true stress-strain method? c) more or less depending on the
factors
e) it is more sensitive to changes in d) same
mechanical conditions.
f) There is no such phenomenon like 22. The relation between modulus of
true stress or true strain. elasticity E and modulus of elasticity in shear
g) This method can be used for G, bulk modulus of elasticity K and Poisson’s
compression tests as well. ratio is given by
h) True stress is load per unit area and
similarly true strain is determined under a) E = Gu
actual conditions. b) E = G (u + 1)
c) E = 2g(u+1) c) proportional to the displacement of
d) E = 4G (1+2u) the material acted upon by the force
d) inversely proportional to the strain
23. When shear force is zero along a section,
the bending moment at that section will be 29. The slenderness ratio of a column is
generally defined as the ratio of its
a) maximum
b) minimum a) length to its minimum width
c) minimum or maximum b) unsupported length to its maximum
d) zero radius of gyration
c) length to its moment of inertia
24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod d) unsupported length to its least radius
during tensile test is of gyration
44. Which of the following best describes the 49. Which of the following may be the
0.2% offset yield stress? Poisson ratio of a material?
a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Creep
d) Shearing
a) Elastic limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Offset rupture stress
d) Offset yield stress
a) Static load
b) Plane
c) High load
d) Repeated load
a) 26 to 28 a) compression
b) 28 to 31 b) fatigue failures
c) 20 to 45 c) negligence
d) 50 to 30 d) torsion
3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of 9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing
Sn/Su ratios, often called endurance ratio,
a) accuracy from
b) quality
c) stiffness a) 0.23 to 0.65
d) rigidity b) 0.34 to 0.45
c) 0.34 to 0.87
4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in d) 0.63 to 0.93
compression is usually taken as that in
10. The discontinuity or change of section,
a) tension such as scratches, holes, bends, or grooves
b) bearing is a
c) torsion
d) yield a) stress raiser
b) stress functioning
5. The ratio of moment and stress is called: c) stress raiser
d) stress relieving
a) Contraction
b) Proportional constant 11. The degree of stress concentration is
c) Section modulus usually indicated by the
d) Strain
a) power factor
6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the b) stress concentration factor
flexural stress is _______ when the c) service factor
vertical shear is maximum. d) stress factor
28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile a) elastic limit
strain is called b) proportional limit
c) yield point
a) Bulk modulus d) yield strength
b) Hooke’s law
c) Shear modulus 35. Refers to the actual stress the material
d) Young modulus has when under load.
38. The load acts over a smaller area, and 44. The condition, which causes actual
the ________ continues to increase unit stresses in machine members to be higher
failure. than nominal values predicted by the
elementary direct and combined stress
a) actual stress equations.
b) allowable stress
c) compressive stress a) Stress concentration factor
d) tensile stress b) Stress factor
c) Design factor
39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is d) Load factor
a large increase in strain with little or no
increase in stress is called 45. The stress value, which is used, in the
mathematical determination of the required
a) Endurance strength size of the machine member.
b) Ultimate strength
c) Rapture strength a) Endurance stress
d) Yield strength b) Design stress
c) Maximum stress
40. A ________ member that carries loads d) Normal stress
transverse to its axis.
46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast
a) structure iron is in the range of
b) column
c) beam a) 0.30 to 0.33
d) frame b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) 0.25 to 0.27
41. Which type of load that is applied slowly d) 0.35 to 0.45
and is never removed?
47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is
a) Uniform load in the range of
b) Static load
c) Equilibrium load a) 0.30 to 0.33
d) Impact load b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) 0.25 to 0.27
42. When varying loads are applied that are d) 0.35 to 0.45
not regular in their amplitude, the loading is
called 48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of
aluminum and titanium is in the range of
a) Repeated loading
b) Random loading a) 0.25 to 0.27
c) Reversed loading b) 0.27 to 0.30
d) Fluctuating loading c) 0.30 to 0.33
d) 0.35 to 0.45
43. A measure of the relative safety of a
load-carrying component is termed as 49. The angle of inclination of the planes on
which the principal stresses act is called
a) design factor
b) load factor a) normal plane
b) principal plane
c) tangential plane
d) traverse plane
24. There are two types of crankshafts, 30. Lateral deflection caused by bending
namely should not exceed
25. Engine valves get open by means of 31. Front axle should be live and
26. The value of allowable stresses which are 32. The steering is coupled to the two front
generally used in practice for main wheels by means of a
transmitting shafts is
a) connecting rod
a) 282 kg/cm2 b) tie rod
b) 423 kg/cm2 c) push rod
c) 599 kg/cm2 d) spindle
d) 620 kg/cm2
33. In the overdrive transmission system the
27. The value of allowable stresses which are rotation speed of ________ rest higher than
generally used in practice for line shafts that of engine’s speed.
carrying pulleys is
a) main shaft
a) 150 kg/cm2 b) crank shaft
b) 282 kg/cm2 c) propeller shaft
c) 423 kg/cm2 d) machine shaft
d) 550 kg/cm2
34. A slip joint ________ the length of
28. The value of allowable stresses which are propeller shaft.
generally used in practice for small, short
shafts, countershafts is a) increases
b) decreases
a) 282 kg/cm2 c) keeps appropriate
b) 599 kg/cm2 d) none of these
c) 650 kg/cm2
d) 750 kg/cm2 35. The transmission system incorporates
clutch, gear box, and propeller shaft and
29. Torsional deformation in transmission
shafts should be limited to _______ in 20 a) brake
diameters. b) differential
c) steering
a) 1 d) main shafting
b) 2
36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary 43. Centrifugal separators that operate at
shaft. speeds ________ also employ these flexible
shafts.
a) equal to
b) more than a) 1000 to 3000 rpm
c) less than b) 5000 to 10000 rpm
d) in the gear ratio c) 15000 to 30000 rpm
d) 20000 to 50000 rpm
37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay
shaft. 44. Which of the following material is used
for shafting?
a) before
b) after a) AISI 3240
c) parallel to b) AISI 3150
d) adjacent to c) AISI 4063
d) AISI 33000
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of
_________ remain the same 45. The process of redistributing the mass
attached to a rotating body in order to
a) primary and lay shafts reduce
b) main and lay shafts vibrations arising from a centrifugal force.
c) primary and main shafts
d) secondary and main shafts a) Shaft coupling
b) Shaft balancing
39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in c) Shaft hooper
_________ direction. d) stator balancing
a) weaker
b) stronger
c) harder
d) none of the above
a) Barth key a) 45
b) Feather key b) 60
c) Kennedy key c) 75
d) Saddle key d) 90
25. The three keys are angularly spaced 31. The key fits into mating grooves in the
shaft and mating member is called
a) 60
b) 90 a) Key way
c) 1200 b) Key path
d) 1800 c) Key hole
d) None of these
26. The permissible crushing stress is about
_________ times the permissible shear stress. 32. Used as couplings, or in addition to
overload, where there is danger of injury to
a) 1.5 machines or to material in process.
b) 1.7
c) 1.9 a) Flange couplings
d) 1.10 b) Involute serrations
c) King pins
27. Practical considerations required that d) Shear pins
the hub length should be at least _________
to obtain a good grip. 33. A coupling that transmits power via the
frictional forces induced by pulling the
a) 1.2D flanges toward each other over slotted
b) 1.5D tapered sleeves is known as
c) 1.7D
d) 1.9D a) Flange coupling
b) Flange compression coupling
28. For three keys, a _________ percent c) Ribbed compression coupling
overload often is used. d) Rigid coupling
38. In flange coupling the weakest element 44. A coupling that is composed of two
should be the slotted members, which are connected by
a continuous steel spring, and lies in the
a) bolts slots.
b) flange
c) key a) Ajax coupling
d) shaft b) Falk coupling
c) Lord coupling
39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are d) Slip coupling
designed for
45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery
a) fatigue for several purposes. The most common
b) shear forces purpose of shaft coupling is
c) compression
d) tensile forces a) to provide for the connection of
shafts of units that are manufactured
40. Which of the following mechanical separately
devices is used for uniting or connecting b) to provide for misalignment of the
parts of a mechanical system? shafts
c) to reduce the transmission of shock
a) Coupling loads from one shaft to another
b) Keys d) all of the above
c) Splines
d) Flexible coupling 46. Typical hub length falls between
_________ where D is the shaft diameter
41. A coupling that employs a fluid to
provide angular flexibility between the input a) 1.2D and 1.8D
and output shafts. b) 1.25D and 2.4D
c) 1.30 and 2.5D
a) Rigid coupling d) 1.35D and 3.0D
b) Flexible coupling
c) Hydraulic coupling 47. The diameter of the large end of the pin
d) Oldham coupling should be ________ the shaft diameter.
a) Pawl fastener
b) Magnetic fastener
c) Sliding fastener
d) Screw fastener
a) 1.3
b) 1.5
c) 1.7
d) 1.9
a) Coupling
b) Key
c) Splines
d) None of the above
TEST 7
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in
screw is known as 7. Some experiments made at Cornell
University showed that experience
a) Pitch mechanic could bread a ________ bolt due
b) Top flank to nut tightening.
c) Top land
d) Crest a) 3/8
b) 5/8 inch
2. Screw thread projecting from a c) ½ inch
cylindrical surface is a d) 7/16 inch
a) U-bolt a) UNC
b) Carriage bolt b) UNEF
c) Eye bolt c) UNF
d) Stud bolt d) NC
18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads 24. Which of the following type of threads
formed around it and grooves or flutes are useful in aeronautical equipments?
running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the
threads to form cutting edges. It is used to a) UNC
cut internal threads. b) UNEF
c) UNF 31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends
d) NC that can be used where a through bolt
is impossible.
25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe
flanges, cylinder head studs etc. a) Carriage bolt
b) Coupling bolt
a) UNC c) Machine bolt
b) UNEF d) Stud bolt
c) UNF
d) 8UN 32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in
small sizes.
26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on
it. a) Stud bolt
b) Carriage bolt
a) Bolt c) Stove bolt
b) Fastener d) Mini bolt
c) Rivet
d) None of these 33. A large wood screw is used to fasten
machinery and equipment to a wooden
27. Which one that has no nut and turns into base.
a threaded hole?
a) Lag screw
a) Rivet b) Log screw
b) Screw c) Wood screw
c) Stud bolt d) None of these
d) U-bolt
34. The length of contact in a tapped hole
28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished should be a minimum of about ___________
through bolt, comes with a square. for cast iron.
a) Coupling bolt a) D
b) Machine bolt b) 1.5D
c) Stud bolt c) 1.2D
d) Automobile bolt d) 2D
29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, 35. When the location of bolt is such that it
usually having coarse threads? would normally be shear, it is better
practice to use a
a) Coupling bolt
b) Machine bolt a) dummy bolts
c) Stud bolt b) mid-pins
d) Automobile bolt c) crank pins
d) dowel pins
30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short
portion of the shank underneath the head 36. A locking device used to maintain
being square or finned or ribbed. pressure between the threads of the bolt
and nut.
a) Carriage bolt
b) Coupling bolt a) Gasket
c) Machine bolt b) Lock nuts
d) Stud bolt c) Lock washer
d) Lock out
37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is 42. Foundation bolts of specified size should
the same as be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve
with an inside diameter of a least ________
a) major diameter times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
b) pitch diameter
c) minor diameter a) 1
d) none of the above b) 2
c) 3
38. Turn buckle has d) 4
a) left hand threads on both ends 43. Foundation bolts should be at least
b) left hand threads on one end and ____________ times the diameter of the
right hand threads on other end anchor bolt.
c) right hand threads on both ends
d) no threads a) 12
b) 14
39. The diameter of a washer is generally c) 16
d) 18
a) equal to the diameter of bolt
b) slightly more than the diameter of 44. No foundation bolts shall be less than
the bolt _________ mm diameter.
c) slightly less than the diameter of the
bolt a) 10
d) of any size that suits the application b) 12
c) 14
40. The stress concentration is maximum at - d) 16
_________ in a standard coarse thread.
45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in
a) all over the surface concrete at least ___________ times the bolt
b) flank diameter.
c) root
d) top surface a) 10
b) 20
41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has c) 30
d) 40
a) one small nut is tightened over main
nut and main nut tightened against 46. The screw thread commonly used for
smaller one loosening, creating transmission of motion is one of the
friction jamming. following types of ___________ threads.
b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut
partly in middle of tightening of a) acme
screw b) vee
c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed c) knuckle
in the nut and becomes threaded as d) British Association
the nut is screwed on the bolt
causing a tight grip.
d) Through slots are made at top and a 47. The spindle of bench vises are usually
cotter pin is passed through these provided with
and a hole in the bolt and cotter pin
splitted and bent in reverse direction a) buttress threads
at other end b) square threads
c) acme threads
d) v-threads
a) Bolt
b) Screw
c) Fastener
d) None of the above
a) Bearing screw
b) Compound screw
c) Differential screw
d) Set screw
a) 1.25
b) 1.5
c) 1.8
d) 2.0
TEST 8
1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is
a) Presstage
a) 6 x 27 b) Stress relieving
b) 6 x 37 c) Auto frettage
c) 6x9 d) Countersinking
d) 6 x 21
7. When two touching surface have a high
2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire contact pressure and when these surfaces
rope arrangement except this ________ have minute relative motion a phenomenon
which deals with rope materials strength . called
a) performed a) Carving
b) IWRC b) Friction
c) Mps c) Fretting
d) Lang lay d) Prestressing
3. One of the following materials is not 8. Pipes subject to high pressure are
mentioned for wire rope pulley / sheave generally made by
applications.
a) slush casting
a) Plastic b) pressure casting
b) Iron c) extrusion
c) Paper d) centrifugal casting
d) Copper alloy
9. Hoop stress refers to
4. The factor of safety generally applied in
wire rope design starts at 3-4 for standing a) circumferential tensile stress
rope application, 5-12 for operating rope b) compressive stress
and __________ for hazard to life and c) longitudinal stress
properly application like foundry operation. d) radial stress
28. The regular materials for wire rope are 34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn
made of wires that are first wrapped into
29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow 35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope
Steel is in the range of is made of six strands each containing
39. Tests and theoretical investigations by 45. The Roebling Handbook suggests
J.F. Howe indicate that for steel ropes of the minimum design factor of guy’s is
ordinary constructions the value of modulus
of elasticity is a) 3.0
b) 3.5
a) 10,000,000 psi c) 4.0
b) 10,500,000 psi d) 5.0
c) 11,000,000 psi
d) 12,000,000 psi 46. The Roebling Handbook suggests
minimum design factor of miscellaneous
40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use hoisting equipment is
drums ______________ times the rope
diameter. a) 3.0
b) 5.0
a) 60 to 70 c) 7.0
b) 60 to 80 d) 9.0
c) 60 to 90
d) 60 to 100 47. An extra flexible rope is
a) less than
b) more than
c) equal
d) the same
a) 6x7
b) 6 x 19
c) 6 x 37
d) 7x7
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
TEST 9
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the 6. A weld of approximately triangular
residual stress in the welding it is normally cross-section that join two surfaces at
stress relieved of approximately right angles as in lap joint,
tee joint, corner joint.
a) Quenching
b) Normalizing a) Single welded lap joint
c) Tempering b) Fillet weld
d) Drawing c) Tack weld
d) Butt weld
2. A of welding whereby a wire or
powder from the nozzle of a spray gun is 7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to
fused by a gas flame, arc or plasma jet the thickness of the inner joint member is
and then molten particles are projected called
in a form of a spray by means of
compressed air or gas is known a a) Butt joint
b) Butt weld
a) Elector-slug building c) Tack weld
b) Electro-beam welding d) Full-fillet weld
c) Plasma-arc welding
d) Metal spray welding 8. A weld made to hold the parts of a
weldment in proper alignment until the
3. Weld metal impact specimen shall final welds are made of
be taken across the weld with one face
substantially parallel to and within a) Butt weld
b) Tack weld
a) 3/4in c) Fillet weld
b) 1/32 in. d) Full fillet weld
c) ¼ in.
d) 1/16 in. 9. Test is designed primarily for
application to electric-welded tubing for
4. A joint between to overlapping detection of lack of penetration or
members in whom the overlapped edge overlaps resulting from flash removal in
of one member is welded with a fillet the weld
weld is called
a) Butt weld
a) A single welded lap joint b) Paste
b) Double welded lap joint c) Lap weld
c) A single welded lap joint with d) Double butt weld
backing
d) Track weld 10. The internal stresses existing in a
welded connection are
5. A weld place in groove between
two butting members is called a) Relieved by x-ray analysis
b) Maybe relieved when weld is
a) Full-fillet weld penned
b) Tack weld c) Not relieved when the weld is
c) Butt weld penned
d) fillet weld d) Not relieved by heat treatment
11. A welding operation in which a non- a) Efficiency
ferrous fillet metal at a temperature b) Joint efficiency
below that of the metal joined but is c) Performance factor
heated above 450C d) Relative strength
24. For butt welding of two plates each 30. During MIG welding the metal is
of which is 25 mm thick, the best process transferred in the form of
would be
a) A fine spray of metal
a) TIG welding b) Continuous flow of molten metal
b) MIG welding c) Electron beam
c) Gas welding d) Solution
d) Electro slag welding
31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be
25. What should be the maximum size of spot welded then electrode tip
the fillet weld? diameter is equal to
a) 2 mm a) √
b) 3 mm b) 1.5√
c) 5 mm c) 2.5√
d) 7 mm d) 2√
26. The maximum size of the fillet weld 32. Weld spatter refers to
that can be made in single pass is
a) Flux
a) 3 mm b) Filler material
b) 6 mm c) Welding defect
c) 8 mm d) Welding electrode
d) 12 mm
33. Which of the following metals can
be suitably welded by TIG welding?
27. Which diamond riveted joint can be
adopted? a) Aluminum
b) Magnesium
a) Butt joint c) A and B above
b) Lap joint d) Stainless steel
c) Double riveted lap joint
d) All types of joints 34. Arc blow takes place in
a) Just at the time of passing the
a) Arc welding when straight current
polarity is used b) After completion of currents
b) Arc welding when reverse c) After the weld cools
polarity is used d) During heating
c) Gas welding
d) Welding stainless steel 41. Half corner weld is used
38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger 44. Brasses and bronzes are welded
preparation for welding is not needed? using
a) 2 mm a) Carburizing flame
b) 4 mm b) Neutral flame
c) 8 mm c) Oxidizing flame
d) 12 mm d) Reducing flame
39. Grey cast iron is best welded by 45. One of the following function is not
performed by coating on the welding
a) Arc electrodes is to
b) MIG
c) Oxy- acetylene a) Increase the cooling rate
d) TIG b) Provide protective atmosphere
c) Refuse oxidation
d) Stabilize the arc
40. In rsistance welding, the pressure is
release 46. Welding defect called arc blow
occurs in
a) Arc welding using ac current c) Steam welding
b) Arc welding using dc current d) Projection welding
c) Gas welding
d) MIG welding 49. The parts are brought together lightly
with current flowing and then separated
47. The purpose of using flux in soldering slightly
is to
a) Mash weld
a) Increase fluidity of solder b) Steam welding
material c) Flush welding
b) Full up gaps in bad joint d) Percussion welding
c) Prevent oxide formation
d) Lower the melting temperature 50. Which of the following produced a
of the solder series of spot welds made by circular or
wheel type electrodes?
48. The parts are lapped and held in
place under pressure a) Steam welding
b) Mash welding
a) Butt welding c) Spot welding
b) Spot welding d) Steam welding
TEST 10
1. The soldering material commonly 7. Special solders used for aluminum
applied for automobile radiator cores usually require
and roofing seams.
a) less heat
a) 15/85 % tin and lead b) More heat
b) 50/50% tin and lead c) The same heat as copper wire
c) 45/55% tin and lead d) The same heat as sheet metal
d) 20/80% tin and lead
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is
2. The flux that should be provided in
soldering electrical connection or a) Alum
commutator wires as its tends to corrode b) Barium
the connectors called c) Borax
d) Rosin
a) Sal ammoniac
b) Zinc chloride 9. Soft solder melts at approximately
c) Stearin
d) Acid fluxes a) 250
b) 350
3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint.
c) 450
a) Stronger than d) 550
b) The same strength as
c) Three times as strong as 10. Soft solder is made of
d) Weaker than
a) Copper and zinc
4. Brazing requires b) Tin and copper
c) Tin and lead
a) Hard solder d) Tin and zinc
b) Soft solder
c) More heat 11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most
d) Choices A and C popular but if you did not have any, you
could use _____ as substitute
36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to 42. The strength of steel rivets in single
be joined by welding in a satisfactory shear
manner.
a) 262 N/mm2
a) Flame plating b) 303 N/mm2
b) Metal spraying c) 524 N/mm2
c) Metalizing d) 607 N/mm2
d) Weldability
43. When the longitudinal seams are of
37. A surfacing method of blasting lap riveted construction the minimum
particles of tungsten carbide onto the factor of safety is
surface of a piece of metal.
a) 5
a) Flame plating b) 6
b) Metal spraying c) 7
c) Metalizing d) 8
d) Powder pouring
44. The maximum allowable working
38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be pressure of a non-code steel or wrought
taken as equal to iron heating boiler of welded
construction shall not exceed.
a) 80%
b) 60% a) 0.5 bar
c) 90% b) 1.0 bar
d) 95% c) 1.5 bar
d) 2.0 bar
39. When the tensile strength of steel
shell plates is not known it shall be taken 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that
as the edge distance must be not less than
a) Projection welding
b) Flash welding
c) Seam welding
d) Resistance welding
a) Spot weld
b) Tack weld
c) Butt weld
d) Fillet weld
a) Seam welding
b) Gas welding
c) Spot welding
d) Resistance welding
a) Mash welding
b) Butt welding
c) Upset welding
d) Choices B and C
a) 420⁰F
b) 600⁰F
c) 800⁰F
d) 1000⁰F
TEST 11
1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing 7. Which of the following materials is
design, the clearance ratio/clearance unsuitable as a bearing?
should be
A. Teflon
A. 0.01001 B. Low carbon steel
B. 0.0101 C. Cast iron
C. 0.0110 D. Nylon
D. 0.0010
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which
2. Also called eccentrically loaded
bearing A. The lube oil is supplied under
pressure
A. Full bearing B. Lube oil is not pressurized
B. Offset bearing C. There is no lube oil
C. Partial bearing D. Bearing is lightly loaded
D. Fitted bearing
9. At the same thermal and minimum
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally film, thickness limitation as sleeve
encloses the shaft?
A. Ball bearing
A. Offset bearing B. Roller bearing
B. Central bearing C. Thrust bearing
C. Babbitt bearing D. Full bearing
D. Full bearing
10. The desired between two surfaces
4. All are functions of lubricating oil having relatively sliding motion is known
except
A. Lube oil
A. Adhesion B. Graphite
B. Corrosion prevention C. Packing
C. Act as coolant D. Lubrication
D. To tighten the load
11. What bearing composed of two
5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant principal parts, namely the
6. Metal that assists lubrication or 12. When the line of action of the load
lubricant in itself bisects the arc of partial bearing it is said
to be:
A. Zinc
B. Antimony A. Eccentrically loaded
C. Babbit B. Fit loaded
D. Lead C. Centrally loaded
D. Surface loaded
13. It is the difference in the radii of the 19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
bearing and the journal experiments is _____ that the smoother
the surface.
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio A. Constant
C. Fit clearance B. The greater the load capacity of the
D. Radial clearance bearing
C. None of these
14. It is one in which the radii of the D. Variable
journal and the bearing are the same
20. Which of the following is considered
A. Clearance bearing an advantage for bearing materials?
B. Fitted bearing
C. Full bearing A. Conformability
D. Partial bearing B. Embeddability
C. Compatibility
15. The line that passes through centers D. All of these
of the bearing and the journal is called
the 21. For thrust bearing the speed at
moderate operating conditions is
A. Line of action
B. Line of centers A. 50<Vm>200 fpm
C. Line of tangent B. 50<Vm>220 fpm
D. Under cut C. 50<Vm>250 fpm
D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm
16. Length-diameter ration was a good
compromise for the general case of 22. The 200 series bearing is called
hydrodynamic bearings. It is
approximately equal to A. Heavy
B. Light
A. 1 C. Medium
B. 2 D. None of these
C. 3
D. 4 23. The 300 series bearing is called
26. Steel ball for ball bearing are A. At bottom most of bearing
manufactured by B. Towards left side of bearing and
making metal to metal contact
A. Casting C. Towards left side of bearing and
B. Cold headling making no metal to metal contact
C. Rolling D. Towards right side of bearing and
D. Turning making no metal to metal contact
A. 0.1 to 0.5
B. 0.2 to 0.6
C. 0.2 to 0.8
D. 0.25 to 1.0
A. 200°F
B. 300°F
C. 400°F
D. 500°F
TEST 12
1. A heavy rotating body which serves
as a reservoir for absorbing and 7. When heat treated wire is coiled
redistributing kinetic energy. cold, it should be stress relieved for
bending stresses after cooling by being
A. Gear heated at some at what temperature?
B. Brakes
C. Flywheel A. 400F
D. Fan B. 500F
C. 600F
2. Which of the following is not a use of D. 700F
spring?
8. A low cost spring material, suitable
A. Absorbs energy where service is not severe and
B. Measure weight dimensional precision is not needed.
C. Source of energy in clocks
D. Measure the thickness A. Hard drawn wire spring
B. Helical spring
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to C. Stainless steel
the coil diameter D. Helical tension spring wire
13. A type of spring made in the form of 19. Experimental results indicate that the
dished washer actual frequency of the spring is from
14. In laminated spring the strips are 20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the
provided in different lengths for critical frequency of the spring should
behold at least ________ times the
A. Economy frequency of application of a periodic
B. Reduction in weight load.
C. Improved appearance
D. Space consideration of the A. 5
utility stage B. 10
C. 15
15. An elastic stored energy machine D. 20
element that when released, will recover
its basic form 21. The actual number of coil is
_________ in a squared and ground ends.
A. Flywheel
B. Clutch A. n
C. Brakes B. n+2
D. Spring C. nd
D. ( n + 1) d
16. When a spring is made of ductile
material, the curvature factor would be 22. The solid length of squared ends is
A. Zero A. (n+3)d
B. Constant B. (n+1)d
C. Unity C. np
D. Positive D. n+2
17. The solid length plus the clearance 23. The free length of ground ends is
plus the maximum deflection.
A. np + 3d
A. Free length B. np + 2d
B. Height C. np + d
C. Distance D. np
D. Original length
24. the shortest length for the spring
18. The majority of coils springs are during normal operation
made of coil tempered carbon steel
wire containing ______________ carbon. A. compressed length
B. operating length
C. solid length 31. The most practical spring designs
D. free length produce a pitch angle is less than
41. Typical hub length falls between 47. In many flywheel designs, about how
many percent of the weight is
A. 1.25D to 2.4D concentrated in the hub and arms
B. 1.25D to 5D
C. 1.3 D to 3.4D A. 20
D. D to 7D B. 30
C. 35
42. The recommended coefficient of D. 45
fluctuation of flywheels for punching,
shearing, and pressing machine is 48. A large rotary machine part whose
function is to store energy and to
A. 0.05 to 0.10 produce uniform angular velocity of the
B. 0.03 to 0.05 shaft or reciprocating engine.
C. 0.002 to 0.005
D. 0.01 to 0.02 A. Cam
B. Idler
43. Attached to the rear end of the C. Flywheel
crankshaft is the D. Chuck
49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia
assists in securing uniform motion of
machinery by resisting sudden changes
of speed.
A. Linkage
B. Crank
C. Planetary gears
D. Flywheel
A. Hydraulic clutch
B. Slip of the clutch
C. Riding on clutch
D. Clutch adjustment
A. 12 to 20 A. 10 times
B. 18 to 24 B. 8 times
C. 16 to 32 C. 5 times
D. 14 to 28 D. 6 times
A. Combination of Oak/Mineral A. 18 to 24
Tanned B. 15 to 20
B. Oak Tanned C. 12 to 15
C. Mineral Tanned D. 10
D. All of these
11. In shear pin or breaking pin design,
6. What type of leather belting should we may use the date experience by
be used at an ambient temperature Link-Belt for 1/8 inch pins and the
breaking stress is __________ ksi.
B. 6 ksi
A. 40 C. 7 ksi
B. 55 D. 8 ksi
C. 50
D. 48 18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing
with machine, the usual efficiency of
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving joint is:
pulley with a speed of 260 rpm and
transmitting 5 hp A. 75%
B. 85%
A. Type C belts C. 88%
B. Type B belts D. 100%
C. Type A belts
D. Type D belts 19. The tension in the belt due to
centrifugal force increases rapidly
13. Belt slip may take place because of: above
14. A single ply leather belt running at a 20. Experience suggests that the most
belt velocity of 300ft/min is likely to economical designs are obtained for a
transmit ____ per inch of width belt speed of:
15. What is the density of a leather belt? 21. For leather belts, recommended
speed is:
A. 0.035 lb/in3
B. 0.0253 lb/in3 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
C. 0.046 lb/in3 B. 4000 to 5000 fpm
D. 0.074 lb/in3 C. 6000 to 7500 fpm
D. 7000 to 8000 fpm
16. What is the density of flat belt rubber
material? 22. For fabric belts, recommended
speed is:
A. 0.055 lb/in3
B. 0.045 lb/in3 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
C. 0.0725 lb/in3 B. 2000 and more fpm
D. 0..0726 lb/in3 C. 3000 to 4000 fpm
D. 4000 to 4500 fpm
17. The breaking strength of oak tanned
belting varies from 3 to more than 23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it
has been observed that the arc of
A. 5 ksi contact reduced from 180 deg at rest to
_______ in motion
A. 90 deg A. Rope
B. 95 deg B. Wires
C. 100 deg C. Belt
D. 110 deg D. Flat
24. The recommended initial tension of 30. A crossed belt wider than ______
belt is: inches should be avoided
A. 75 lb/in of width A. 7
B. 71 lb/in of width B. 8
C. 73 lb/in of width C. 9
D. 80 lb/in of width D. 10
25. The recommended net belt pill for 31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the
rubber belt is: reduction should be:
26. If two intersecting shafts are to be 32. The advantage of flat belt is that:
belt connected, how many guide
pulley/s is used? A. It can be used with high-
speed drives
A. 1 B. It can be used in dusty and
B. 2 abrasive environments
C. 3 C. It allows long distances
D. 4 between shafts
D. All of these
27. Two shafts at right angles to each
other may be connected by the _____ 33. The best leather has an ultimate
arrangement strength of about
28. It offers long life, high efficiency and 34. Initial tensions should range from ___
low cost and low maintenance for leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply per
inch of width for rubber belts
A. Flat belt
B. V-belt A. 200 to 240 psi
C. Tooth belt B. 220 to 260 psi
D. All of these C. 240 to 280 psi
D. 260 to 300 psi
29. It is used to connect pulleys to
convey materials by transmitting motion 35. The density of a balata belt is:
and power
A. 0.031 lb/in3
B. 0.42 lb/in3 41. The minimum number of teeth on the
C. 0.51 lb/in3 smaller sprocket for high speeds is:
D. 0.61 lb/in3
A. 19
36. In the selection of the proper belt, it B. 21
is not considered good practice to use C. 23
single-ply leather belts more than ____ D. 25
wide
42. For maximum quietness, use
A. 6 in. sprockets with _____ or more teeth
B. 7 in.
C. 8 in.
D. 9 in. A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
37. According to the Goodrich
company, the permissible net belt pull is 43. For the average application a
____ that it gives a simple means for center distance equivalent to ____
quick estimation pitches of chain represents good
practice.
A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width A. 10 to 20
C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width B. 20 to 30
D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width C. 30 to 50
D. 40 to 60
38. Which type of chain is used in
motorcycle? 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is:
A. Bush roller A. 2
B. Pintle B. 3
C. Silent C. 4
D. None of these D. 5
39. The minimum number of teeth on the 45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:
smaller sprocket for low speeds is:
A. 2
A. 12 B. 3
B. 14 C. 4
C. 16 D. 5
D. 18
46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger
40. The minimum number of teeth on the than rubber
smaller sprocket for moderate speeds is:
A. 10%
A. 15 B. 15%
B. 17 C. 20%
C. 19 D. 25%
D. 21
47. The coefficient of friction between
the belt and the pulley for leather belt
running on steel pulley is:
A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.3
D. 0.5
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%
A. 155o
B. 165o
C. 175o
D. 180o
TEST 15
1. The minimum recommended worm C. Top land
pitch diameter is ¼ in and the maximum D. Flank of tooth
is:
7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion
A. 1 ¾ in and lightly loaded are usually made of:
B. 2 ¾ in
C. 3 in A. Bronze
D. 2 in B. Brass
C. Duralumin
2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ D. All of these
gearing
8. If a set of spur gears are made
A. Spiral installed and lubricated properly, they
B. Worm normally may be subjected to failures
C. Bevel like:
D. Zerol
A. Tooth spalling
3. The arc of action to circular pitch or B. Tooth penning
length of action to base pitch C. Pitting
D. Shearing
A. Approach
B. Contact ratio 9. Which of the following is an example
C. Arc of action of rectilinear translation?
D. Arc of approach
A. Locomotive wheels
4. Recommended hardness of pinion B. Rack gear
for helical/herringbone gear tooth C. Piston of an engine
should be _____ BHN point to sustain life: D. Jack
6. The surface of the gear between the 11. Intermediate gear is also called ____
fillets of adjacent teeth is called: gear in a gear train engagement.
46. Wheels are sometimes used for the 49. ______ is used to transmit power
transmission of high power when an between shafts axis of which it intersect
approximately constant velocity ratio is
desired is called: A. Spur Gears
B. Bevel Gears
A. Bevel Cones C. Helical Gears
B. Friction Gearing D. Straight Bevel Gears
C. Spur Friction Wheels
D. Evans Friction Wheels 50. The space between the adjacent
teeth is called:
47. The frustums of two cones used in a
manner to permit a variation of velocity A. Tooth
ratio between two parallel shafts are B. Flank
called: C. Backlash
D. Width
TEST 16
1. Tooth width measurement along the A. Pitch circle and base circle are
chord at the pitch circle the same
B. Working depth induces
A. Chord Space clearance
B. Chord Clearance C. Tooth outline are always
C. Chordal Thickness cycloidal curves
D. Chordal Length D. Tooth outlines are usually
involute curves
2. Herringbone gears are gears which:
4. _____ is a kind of gear used to
A. Do not operate parallel shafts transmit motion from one shaft to
B. Have a line contact between another shaft at angle to the first
the teeth
C. Tend to produce and thrust on A. Worm Gear
the shafts B. Bevel Gear
D. Consists of two left handed C. Helical Gear
helical gears D. Spur Gear
43. The length of the hub should not be 49. The distance between the teeth
made ____ the face width of the gear. measured on the pitch surface along a
normal to the helix
A. Less than
B. Equal A. Lead
C. Greater B. Lead angle
D. None of these C. Normal circular pitch
D. Pitch
44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on
the inside of the rim instead of on the 50. The hardness of a helical and
outside herringbone teeth cut after heat
treatment will generally fall between the
A. External gear limits of ______.
B. Involute gear A. 210 and 300 Brinell
C. Stub gear B. 147 and 300 Brinell
D. Annular gear C. 230 and 320 Brinell
D. 220 and 320 Brinell
TEST 17
1. Helical gears mounted on non- C. Back cone
parallel shafts are called _____ D. Rake cone
18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the 24. The standard pressure angle for fine
speed gears remain: pitch gears is ______ gears and is
recommended for most applications
A. Separate
B. Joined to their couple
A. 14.5 degrees A. Tooth scoring
B. 16 degrees B. Tooth breakage
C. 20 degrees C. Pitting
D. 21 degrees D. Toughing
25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating 31. Well proportion commercial gears
spur gears must be well over ____ to with a pitch line velocity of less than
insure a smooth transfer of load from _____ will normally not score if they have
one pair of teeth to the next pair. a reasonably good surface finish and
are properly lubricated.
A. 1.0
B. 2.0 A. 6000 fpm
C. 3.0 B. 6500 fpm
D. 4.0 C. 7000 fpm
D. 8000 fpm
26. As general rule contact ratio should
not be less than: 32. Experimental data from actual gear
unit measurements are seldom
A. 1:1 repeatable within a plus or minus ______
B. 1:2 band
C. 1:3
D. 1:4 A. 5%
B. 10%
27. Surface roughness on active profile
surfaces on gear is about ____ pitch C. 15%
D. 20%
A. 30
B. 32 33. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian
contact stresses between two cylinders
C. 34 and is proportioned to the square root of
D. 36 the ______.
A. Approach ratio
B. Action ratio
C. Recess ratio
D. Contact ratio
A. Axial plane
B. Central plane
C. Normal plane
D. Transverse plane
A. Arc of contact
B. Arc of approach
C. Arc of recess
D. Arc of action
A. 2.5 hp
B. 3.0 hp
C. 4.0 hp
D. 5.0 hp
TEST 18
7. The length of the chord subtended by the
1. The _____ from which an involute tooth is circular arc is called:
generated or developed.
a. Backlash
a. Root circle b. Face width
b. Base circle c. Chordal thickness
d. Curve thickness
c. Pitch circle
d. Dedendum circle
8. The height from the top of the tooth to
the chord subtending the circular thickness
2. The angle at the base cylinder if an
arc.
involute gear, that the tooth makes with the
gear axis.
a. Curve thickness
b. Chordal thickness
a. Helix angle
b. Pressure angle c. Chordal addendum
c. Lead angle d. Chordal dedendum
d. Base Helix angle
9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle
between the centers or other corresponding
points of the adjacent teeth.
3. In an involute gear, _____ is the pitch on
the base circle or along the line of action.
a. Circular pitch
b. Diametral Pitch
a. Base circle
c. Base pitch
b. Normal base pitch
c. Base pitch d. Normal pitch
d. Pitch gear
10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth
4. The base pitch in the normal plane. with which the mating gear makes contact.
a. Contact ratio
a. Normal pitch
b. Contact diameter
b. Normal base pitch
c. Axial plane c. Contact stress
d. None of these
d. Central plane
5. The base pitch in the axial plane. 11. The maximum compressive stress within
the contact area between mating gear
a. Axial base pitch tooth profiles is called:
b. Axial pitch
c. Normal pitch a. Bearing stress
b. Contact stress
d. Base pitch
c. Ultimate stress
6. In a worm gear, _____ is a plane d. Internal stress
perpendicular to the gear axis and contains
12. The curve formed by the path of a point
the common perpendicular of the gear and
the worm axis. on a circle as it rolls a straight line.
a. Trochoid
a. Central plane
b. Normal plane b. Epicycloid
c. Axial plane c. Hypocycloid
d. Cycloid
d. Traverse plane
13. The circular pitch in the normal plane. the pitch circle and the bottom of the tooth
space.
a. Circular plane
b. Normal circular pitch a. Addendum
c. Central plane b. Dedendum
d. Circular base pitch c. Working depth
d. Whole depth
14. The strength of the arc between the two
sides of a gear tooth on the pitch circles 20. The circle that bounds the bottom of the
unless otherwise specified. teeth.
15. The amount by which the dedendum 21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the
exceeds the addendum of the mating number of millimeters of pitch diameter.
tooth.
a. Diametral pitch
a. Tolerance b. Module
b. Allowance c. Circular pitch
c. Clearance d. Base pitch
d. Backlash
22. The diametral pitch circulated in the
16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth normal plane and is equal to the pitch
with which the mating gear makes: dived by the cosine of the helix angle
17. The ratio of the arc of action to the 23. That portion of the face width that
circular pitch is known as: actually comes into contact with mating
teeth, as occasionally one member of a pair
a. Contact ratio of gears may have a greater face width
b. Action ratio than the other is called:
c. Recess ratio
d. Approach ratio a. Effective face width
b. Effective tooth face
18. The curve that satisfy the law of gearing. c. Effective tooth thickness
d. Effective tooth flank
a. Tooth profile
b. Stub curve
24. The actual torque of a gear set divided
c. Conjugate curve by its gear ratio.
d. Involute curve
a. Coefficient of performance
19. The depth of tooth space below the b. Transmission ratio
pitch circle or the radial dimension between c. Ratio factor
d. Efficiency
a. Gear stress
25. When it rolls along the outer side another b. Contact stress
circle, is called: c. Fillet stress
d. Fillet curve
a. Cycloid
b. Hypocycloid 32. That surface which is between the pitch
c. Epicycloid circle and the bottom land is called:
d. Trochoid
a. Flank of tooth
26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical b. Face of tooth
surface. c. Face of width
d. Fillet of tooth
a. Annular gear
b. External gear 33. The surface of the tooth between the
c. Idler pitch and root cylinders.
d. Spur gear
a. Fillet
27. That surface of the tooth, which is b. Face
between the pitch circles to the top of the c. Flank
tooth is known as _____. d. Bottom land
39. The curve formed by the path of a point 45. The ratio of pitch diameter in millimeters
on a straight line called their generatrix, as it to the number of teeth.
rolls along a convex base curve.
a. Addendum
a. Involute b. Diametral pitch
b. Cycloidal c. Module
c. Cycloid d. None of these
d. Trochoid
46. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces
40. The top surface of the tooth. acts a point of contact and perpendicular
to the pitch plane.
a. Tooth face
b. Tooth surfaces a. Axial plane
c. Top land b. Central plane
d. Tooth flank c. Normal plane
d. Diametral
41. The surface of the gear between the
fillets of adjacent teeth. 47. The distance between similar equally
spaced tooth surfaces in a given direction
a. Space width and along a given curve or line.
b. Backlash
c. Bottom land a. Module
d. Tooth space b. Pitch
c. Addendum
42. The distance of a helical gear or worm d. Involute
would thread along its axis one revolution of
it was free to move axially. 48. The angle subtended by the arc on the
pitch equal in the length to the circular
a. Lead pitch.
b. Helix
a. Pitch angle
c. Length of action b. Pressure angle
d. Line of action c. Helix angle
d. Lead angle
43. The path of contact in involute gears, it is
straight line passing through the pitch point 49. Of meshing gears, _____ is the point of
and the tangent to the base circles. tangency to the pitch circle.
a. Normal plane
b. Central plane
c. Pitch plane
d. Tangent plane
TEST 19
1. One of the causes of spur gear tooth 6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth
breakage is the unbalanced load on one when any part of the fillet curve lies inside of
end of breakage is the unbalanced load on a line drawn to the working profile as the
one end of the tooth that results in the lowest point.
higher stress than when the load is evenly
distributed. To minimize this problem, the a. Medium cut
face width “b” should not be greater that b. Under cut
the thickness of the tooth. In the absence of c. Over cut
test values, the following can be guide. d. Hidden cut
13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a 19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is
point or line of contact. customary to limit the reduction of:
14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the 20. For helical and herringbone gears, the
bottoms of the tooth spaces. speed ratio is limited to:
15. The angle subtended at the center of 21. They are cylindrical in form operate on
the base circle from teeth origin of an parallel axes and have straight teeth
involute to the point of tangency of the parallel to the axis.
generation from any point of the same
involute. a. Helical gears
b. Bevel gears
a. Root angle c. Spur gears
b. Roll angle d. Worm gears
c. Pitch circle
d. Base circle 22. The design stress based upon the
ultimate strength of the material with a
16. _____ gear with teeth spaced along a factor of safety of about _____.
straight and suitable for straight line motion.
a. 2
a. Helical b. 3
b. Bevel c. 4
c. Rack d. 5
d. Worm
23. Safe working stresses for common gear
17. The pitch plane, axial plane and materials operating at very low velocities
transverse plane, all intersect at a point and are usually assumed to be _____ the ultimate
mutually perpendicular to the: strength.
25. The outside diameter of the hubs of 31. It occurs under heavy loads and in
larger gears should be _____ the bore for adequate lubrication.
steel.
a. Pitting
a. 1.5 times b. Honing
b. 1.6 times c. Scoring
c. 1.7 times d. Tooth breakage
d.1.8 times
32. In order to get benefit helical-gear
26. The couple diameter of the hubs of action the face width should be at least
larger gears should be _____ the bore for _____ the axial pitch.
cast iron.
a. Once
a. 1.5 times b. Twice
b. 1.8 times c. Thrice
c. 2.0 times d. Minimum
d. 2.5 times
33. The outside diameter of the worm gear
27. Helix angles of _____ degrees are measured on the central plane.
preferred for single helical gears.
a. Addendum diameter
a. 10 and 18 b. Throat diameter
b. 12 and 20 c. Pitch diameter
c. 15 and 23 d. Root diameter
d. 18 and 28
34. For worms mating with gears having 24
28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are teeth or more the _____ pressure angle is
preferred for double helical gears. recommended.
41. The circle containing the bottoms of the 47. In spur gearing system, the preferred
tooth spaces is called: pressure angle is:
a. 1 to 1.25
b. 1.25 to 1.50
c. 1.50 to 1.75
d. 1.75 to 2.0
a. Worm wheel
b. Rack gear
c. Spiral gear
d. Herringbone gear
TEST 20 c. Measure
d.
1. Which type of gear is a cylinder,
wheel or disk on the surface of which is 7. Refers to the portion of the tooth
cut parallel teeth? surface adjacent to the involute lying
inside a radial line passing through an
a. Bevel gear imaginary intersection of the involute
b. Helical gear and the base circle.
c. Spur gear
d. Worm gear a. Over cut
b. Under cut
2. Which type of gear has a ratio of c. Tip relief
1:1? d. None of these
a. Line of action a. 10 ≥ μ ≥ 1
b. Pitch line b. 2≥μ1
c. Arc of action c. 20 ≥ μ ≥ 1
d. Angle of action d. 5≥μ≥1
14. The intersection between the axes of 20. The shape of the curve on the side of
the line of centers and the common gear is termed as:
tangent to the base circles,
a. Stub
a. Pitch line b. Involute
b. Pitch circle c. Trochoid
c. Pitch point d. Cycloid
d. Pitch surface
21. The distance in a straight line from
15. The angle between the element of one side of a tooth to the side at points
the face cone and its axis. where the pitch circle passes through
the tooth.
a. Face angle
b. Back angle a. Circular pitch
c. Front angle b. Pitch
d. Increment angle c. Chordal thickness
d. Tooth length
16. Refers to a portion of the small end
of the tooth. 22. The _______ of a bevel gear is equal
to the altitude of the pitch cone.
a. Heel
b. Toe a. Length of cone
c. Sole b. Vertex distance
d. Corner c. Length of hub
17. The apex of the pitch cone. d. Thickness
36. The _________ traced by the 41. The helix angles for the herringbone
outermost corner of one tooth on the gears are used from ______for industrial
plane of the other gear. gears.
a. Cycloid a. 10 to 15
b. Hypocycloid b. 15 to 20
c. Epitrochoid c. 20 to 30
d. Trochoid d. 25 to 45
37. An imaginary circle passing through 42. The distance parallel to the axis from
the points at which the tooth of the the pitch circle to the face of the
meshing gears contact each other. shoulder or hub.
38. A gear with teeth on the outer 43. A machine that makes gear teeth by
cylindrical surface. means of a reciprocating cutter that
rotates slowly with the work.
a. Rack gear
b. Zerol gear a. Gear forming
c. Miter gear b. Gear hobber
d. External gear c. Gear shaper
d. Gear cutter
39. The diameter of a circle coinciding
with the top of the teeth of an internal 44. A type of gear wheels connecting
gear. non-parallel, non-intersecting shafts
usually at right angles.
a. Dedendum diameter
b. Pitch diameter a. Helical gear
b. Herringbone gear
c. Base diameter
d. Internal diameter c. Hypoid gear
d. Bevel gear
45. The angle between the plane of the
pitch circle and a plane tangent to the
end of the tooth.
a. Foot angle
b. Back angle
c. Dedendum angle
d. Face angle
a. Root circle
b. Working depth circle
c. Base circle
d. Pitch circle
a. Working depth
b. Dedendum
c. Total depth
d. Whole depth
a. Whole depth
b. Clearance
c. Backish
d. Working depth
a. Base circle
b. Pitch circle
c. Working depth circle
d. Addendum circle
TEST 21
1. Fast process of analyzing all elements A. Planer
and a chemical components of steel B. Broaching
casting is: C. Boring
D. Lathe
A. Pyrometer
B. Carbon analyser 7. The blades for hacksaw have number of
C. Wet analyser teeth range of:
D. Spectrometer
A. 15 – 38 teeth
2. Which of the following is not a kind of B. 14 – 32 teeth
mandrel? C. 12 -30 teeth
D. 12 – 32 teeth
A. Expanded
B. Extended 8. __________ no part of the headstock.
C. Contraction
D. Taper A. Back gear
B. Spindle
3. A cutting tool angle between the side C. Anvil
cutting edge and the plane D. Motor
perpendicular to direction of feed travel
is _______ angel. 9. __________ is a lathe carriage part the
bridge across the bed to carry the cross
A. Side relief slide and tool rest.
B. Side cutting edge
C. Lead A. Automatic feed
D. Side rake B. Apron
C. Compound rest
4. A section in a machine shop operation is D. Saddle
called:
10. What is the recommended cutting
A. Core making speed range for bronze in fpm?
B. Machining
C. Fitting A. 60/70
D. Pattern B. 200/250
C. 80/60
D. 100/110
5. The tool bit made of tool blank consists
of face, nose, shank, and ________. 11. For ordinary turning drilling and milling on
low strength steel the cutting fluid
A. Cutting edge applied have soluble oil with consistency
B. None of these of part oil to _______ parts water.
C. Round nose
D. Nose A. 10 to 30
B. 10
6. The cutting tool used the shaper are C. 5 to 10
similar to turning tools _______ machine. D. 10 to 20
12. The five principal parts of the shaper are A. f
the table, tool slide, base, ram and B. 5
_______. C. 20
D. F.A.O
A. Column
B. Vise 18. Safety features that must be placed and
C. Drive motor maintained at machine, black welding
D. Apron and foundry shops called:
3. The machine used for testing of very 9. The area of the machine shop whose
thin steel or surface layers metal is being melted to form a new
shape is the:
A. Charpy Test
B. Izod Test A. Foundry Area
C. Description Test B. Tool and Die Area
D. Rockwell Test C. Welding Area
D. Mass Production Area
4. _____ is a test for pipe used for coiling
in sizes 2 inches. 10. Which of the following is not the work
of a machinist?
A. Flaring
B. Crush A. Reboring
C. Flange B. Overhauling
D. Bend C. Grinding
D. Boring
5. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a
single point cutting tool called:
11. The machine, which can flatter
a. Dividing Head surface on horizontal, vertical or angular
b. Slotting Attachment plane.
c. Circular Pitch
d. Circular Milling Attachment A. Drilling Machine
B. Shaper Machine
6. Milling machine accessories are used C. Power Saw
to hold milling cutter in the milling D. Lathe Machine
machine called:
12. Which of the following is not part of a
a. Spindel – Nose Tooling lathe machine?
b. Milling Machine Size
c. Vertical Milling Attachment a. Fan
d. Milling Machine Arbors b. Carriage
c. Headstock A. Dead Center
d. Tail Stock B. Live Center
C. Focal Center
13. One important skill that operates of D. Work Center
machine tools must have an
understanding of measurements, which 19. A machine used in shaping metal by
demands: means of abrasive wheel of the removal
of metals with an abrasive is called:
A. Speed
B. Precision A. Planer Machine
C. Sociability B. Power Saw
D. Neatness C. Shaper Machine
D. Grinding Machine
14. Which tool does not belong to the
group? 20. A machine tool in which an abrasive
wheel is used as cutting tool to obtain a
A. Vice Grip very smooth finish.
B. Feeler Gage
C. Torque Wrench A. Broaching Machine
D. Adjustable Wrench B. Planer
C. Tool Grinder
15. A machinery operation whereby the D. Milling Machine
tool rotates while the feed is stationary.
21. A machine tool used principally to
A. Shaping machine flat or plane surfaces with a
B. Milling single pointed tool.
C. Turning
D. Reaming A. Shaper
B. Planer
16. Which of the following is not part of C. Drill
the headstock? D. Power Saw
25. A machine tool used to produce a 31. A kind of chuck, which has reversible
variety of surfaces by using a circular jaws, which could be adjustable
type cutter with multiple teeth called: separately called:
26. A cutting tool used to finish internal 32. A tool which when pressed into a
and external surfaces by the use of a finished hole in a piece of work, provides
cutter called broach, which has a series centers on which the piece may be
of cutting edges of teeth turned or otherwise machines called:
27. The method of cold working by 33. A machine tool, which is very similar
compression. to a shaper except that the ram
reciprocates vertically rather than
A. Broaching horizontally.
B. Lapping
C. Piercing A. Lathe
D. Reaming B. Grinder
C. Planer
28. A group of thin steel strips used for D. Slotter
measuring clearances.
34. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads
A. Feeler Gage formed around it and grooves or flutes
B. Tachometer running lengthwise in it, intersecting with
C. Micrometer the threads to form cutting edges. It is
D. Caliper used to cut internal threads.
A. Shaping A. Electroplating
B. Hobbing B. Forging
C. Laying Out C. Machining of Metals
D. Shaping D. Press Work
41. It is used to true and align machine 47. Foundry crucible is made of:
tools fixtures and works to test and
inspect size trueness of finished work, A. Graphite
and to compare measurements either B. German Silver
C. Lead
D. Mild Steel
A. Spur
B. Worm
C. All of the above
D. Bevel
A. Gear Shaving
B. Gear Shaping
C. Gear Hobbing
D. Gear Milling
13. The mould for casting ferrous 19. What is referred to as gate?
materials
A. A passage through which metal
A. Copper is poured into mould
B. High carbon steel B. A passage through which metal
C. Low carbon steel rises the mould is filled
D. Medium carbon steel C. A passage that finally leads
molten metal from the runner
14. Dilatometer is use to find out which into the mould cavity
property of molding sand? D. A vent hole to allow for the hot
gases to escape
A. Fineness
B. Hot Strength 20. A sprue is:
C. Moisture Content
D. Permeability a. A tool used in mould repairing
b. A process of cleaning casting
15. Select the one that is not an angle c. A chemical that is added to
measuring device molten materials for sound
castings
A. Angle Iron d. A vertical passage through the
B. Bevel protector cope and joining the pouring
C. Combination basin to the runner
D. Sine bar
21. Hacksaw blade that has the same 27. Quick return mechanism is used in a
number of teeth as given below are
available. Which one would you chose A. Drilling machine
for cutting brass? B. Grinder
C. Lathe
A. 18 teeth D. Shaper
B. 24 teeth
C. 28 teeth 28. Draft on a pattern is provided for.
D. 31 teeth
A. Facilitating pattern making
22. A plug gauge is used to measure B. Easy lifting of the casting
C. Facilitating withdrawal of the
A. Cylindrical bores pattern from the mould
B. Screw thread D. Providing for shrinkage of the
C. Spherical holes coating
D. Taper bores
29. Mandrel are used to hold
23. When large number of components
are turned and parted off a bar the A. Cutting tools
chuck generally used is the _____. B. Drill bits
C. Face plate
A. Collet chuck D. Hollow work pieces
B. Four Jaw chuck
C. Magnetic chuck 30. The operation of enlarging a hole is
D. Two jaw chuck called:
37. Feeler gages are used for measuring 44. Cores are used in mould to make it
the:
A. Hollow
A. Clearance between mating parts B. Smooth
B. Pitch of screw threads C. Strong
C. Radius of curvature D. Symmetrical
D. Thickness of plates
45. Pipes subjected to high pressures are
38. Chuck used on turret lathe is generally made by
A. Angle plate
TEST 24
1. A sine bar cannot be used without C. The same speed as that using a
a/an high speed drill
D. None of the above
A. Angle gage
B. Micrometer 6. Removing the sharp edges from a
C. Slip gage piece of stock is referred to as
D. Vernier Caliper
A. Polish material
2. The tooth life is affected to the B. Roughen Material
maximum extent by C. Sharpen Material
D. Smooth Material
A. Gear grinding
B. Gear Shaping 7. Knurling is done to __________.
C. Gear shaving A. Boring
D. Milling B. Chamfering
C. Planning
3. The operation of finishing a drilled D. Turning
hole to the correct size is known as
8. When cutting material in a lathe, the
A. Counter boring harder the material being cut, the
B. Counter sinking tool bit should have
C. Reaming
D. Spot facing A. Less side rake
B. More side rake
4. When the extreme outer corners of C. More top rake
the cutting edges of a drill wear D. No side rake
away too rapidly, it is an indication 9. When turning a piece of round metal
of in a lathe, the front clearance should
be smaller for
A. Not enough speed
B. Too much rake angle A. Cutting angles
C. Too high a speed B. Large-diameter cutting
D. B or C C. Small-diameter cutting
D. None of these
5. Carbon steel drill should be
operated at 10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting
edge should be
A. Speed greater than that when
using a high speed drill A. Case hardened
B. Speeds less than that when using B. Rubbed with emery cloth
a high speed drill C. Rubbed with crocus cloth
D. Stoned with an oilstone
11. When cutting material in a lathe, the C. Hot-rolled steel
softer the material being cut, the D. Top steel
tool bit should have
17. Copper is annealed by hunting to a
A. Any of these cherry red color and
B. Double top rake
C. Less top rake A. Cooling slowly in air
D. More top rake B. Dousing in cold water
C. Dousing in hot water
12. A piece of cast iron hold against an D. Dousing in oil
emery wheel will give of
18. When drilling a hole in a piece of
A. Bright shiny sparks work held in a lathe chuck one
B. Dull yellow sparks would use the
C. Red sparks
D. No sparks A. Head stock
B. Compound rest
13. The alignment of coupling faces can C. Cross-feed
be checked by D. Tailstock and drill chuck
A. Inserting a feeler gage between 19. When using a drill press, the work
the coupling faces at various should be held with
points around the circumference A. A pair of pliers
B. Inserting a thermometer B. A vise clamp
C. Rotating and measuring to C. Gloves on
nearest permanent fitting D. The hand
D. Using an inside micrometer
20. When a lathe is put into back gear, it
14. A drill bit has will go
15. Before applying layout for blue on a 21. On a lathe, the dead center is used
piece of metal, it must be after
A. Cleaned A. Boring
B. Cold B. Center-drilling
C. Heated C. Drilling
D. Roughened D. Reaming
16. A scriber is made from 22. To remove metal stock rapidly the
A. Carbon steel file to use is a
B. Cold-rolled steel
A. Double-cut bastard
B. Double - cut coarse 28. The safe edge of a file is
C. Rasp
D. A and C A. The end opposite the handle
B. The one with a handle
23. The best file to use when finishing C. The edge with the handle
sharp corners or slots and grooves is D. None of these
the
34. A coolant is usually used when 39. The best instrument for measuring
cutting material in a power hacksaw thousandths of an inch is the:
to
A. Caliper
A. Absorb heat of friction B. Micrometer
B. Prevent the blade from C. Pyrometer
overheating D. Tachometer
C. Prevent the blade from losing
D. All of the above 40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited
for work on
35. A hacksaw blades with 18 teeth per
inch is best suited for cutting A. Brass
A. Aluminum B. Cast iron
B. Cast iron C. Tool steel
C. Solid iron D. Any of these
D. Any of these 41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best
suited for cutting
36. When cutting a long thing piece of
metal A. Cold rolled steel
B. Hot rolled steel
A. Set the blade in the frame with C. Structural steel
the teeth facing toward you D. Any of these
B. Turn the blade at right angles to
the frame 42. Files are divided into two general
C. Turn the blade upside down in classes, namely
the frame
D. Use a blade with fewer teeth per A. Flat shapes and round shapes
inch B. Large and small
C. Rough and smooth
37. The hacksaw blade should be D. Single – cut and double - cut
placed in the frame with
43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in
A. One end looser than the other a frame in
end
B. The teeth facing in any direction A. One position
C. The teeth pointing backward B. Two positions
D. The teeth pointing forward C. Three positions
D. Four positions
38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per
inch should be used for cutting
44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that
A. Has a hard back and flexible
teeth 50. The lathe compound is used for
B. Has a flexible back and hard A. Angle cutting
teeth B. Grooving
C. Has the entire blade hardened C. Facing
D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw D. Any of these
A. A movable back
B. Flexible ends
C. Only the back hardened
D. Only the teeth hardened
A. Aluminum
B. Channel
C. Tubing
D. Any of these
49. When lathe tool bit burns, it means
that the
25. When using a drill press the work A. The drill will not cut
should be held with B. The hole will be larger than the
drill
A. The hand C. The hole will be smaller than the
B. A gloved hand drill
C. A vise or clamp D. None of these
D. Pliers
31. If a drill speed is too great, it will
26. A tool bit for cutting an American
National Thread should be ground A. Cut faster
with a B. Close its temper
A. 30° angle C. Out slower
B. 45° angle D. Not cut
C. 60° angle
D. 90° angle 32. Soda added to water is used for
cooling instead of plain water
27. Center drilling is the operation of because
A. 0°
B. 5°
C. 10°
D. 15°
A. Extruding
B. Forging
C. Rolling
D. Broaching
A. Grinding
B. Spinning on lathe
C. Thread cutting
D. Drilling
A. 3:1
B. 1:3
45. The clamping block to be used in a
slotter to support the end of the strap
is made of
A. H. S. S.
B. High carbon steel
C. Lead
D. Wood
46. The table of the slotter has feeding
movements
A. Longitudinal
B. Cross
C. Rotary
D. All of these
A. One table
B. One housing
C. Two tables
D. Two housing
A. At forward stroke
B. At return stroke
C. In between forward stroke
D. In between return stroke
2. the straddle milling is done by means 7. Planer type milling machine is built
of two: up for __________ work of:
A. 10:1 A. One
B. 20:1 B. Two
C. 30:1 C. Three or more
D. 40:1 D. Any one of these
4. In a standard dividing head 3 inches 9. For gear cutting which cutter is used
in 27 holes circle will index:
A. End mill cutter
A. 1° B. Form relief cutter
B. 4° C. Plain milling cutter
C. 2° D. All of these
D. 6°
10. In a slotter, the table gets ______
5. There are two different movements different feeds
of the crank in:
A. One
A. Simple indexing B. Two
B. Compound indexing C. Three
C. Differential indexing D. None of these
D. Angular indexing
11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is
5°, the lip (wedge) angle in 75°, the
rake angle will be
A. 10° A. During down cut milling with a
B. 70° straight tooth cutter
C. 80° B. During face milling with a straight
D. None of these tooth cutter
C. During up cut milling with a
12. The approximate hardness of HSS straight tooth cutter
end mill cutter is: D. When using spiral tooth cutter
23. The grade is of grinding wheel A. The job will be out of round
depends upon: B. The job will be oversize
C. The job will be thrown out
A. Grain size D. The job will not rotate
B. Hardness of bond
C. Kind of abrasive 29. Where does the relieved cutters are
D. Structure reground
A. On the circumstances
24. One of the causes of grinding wheel B. Relieved cutters are not
glazing is reground
C. On the flank
A. Grain size is too fine D. On the side faces
B. Wheel is hard
C. Wheel speed is too fast 30. Used for scribing large radius of
D. “A” and “B” both circles and arcs
A. Compass
25. Which of the following is used in B. Protractor
cleaning the gage blocks before C. Ruler
and after use D. Trammel
A. Brush
B. Chamois leather or linen cloth 31. Which of the following has its angle
C. Cotton waste 30° and is used for giving impression
D. None of these on soft metals?
34. It is used on soft metals and non- 40. It is an operation in which round rod
metals for making holes is placed between the top and
A. Center punch bottom swages and hammered to
B. Dot punch remove the bends and marks
C. Hollow punch
D. Prick punch A. Bending
B. Peening
35. Reasons why cast iron is selected for C. Swaging
the manufacture of surface plate D. Upsetting
A. Fastener
B. Cotter
C. Key
D. Clamp
A. Sintering
B. Smelting
C. Casting
D. Manufacturing
2.) Which of the following is a property 7.) __________ improves the cutting
of wrought iron? quality and gives excellent magnetic
property in the steel
A. Ductile
B. Brittle A. Cobalt
C. Cannot be forged B. Molybdenum
D. Can be easily cast into different C. Nickel
shapes D. Chromium
3.) Which of the following gives greater
hardness, cutting toughness and fine 8.) It is an operation involving heating
grain structure? and cooling of metals to change
the properties
A. Chromium
B. Nickel A. Annealing
C. Tungsten B. Nitriding
D. Vanadium C. Tempering
D. Heat Treatment
4.) Which of the following gives greater
hardness, cutting toughness and 9.) It is a process to impact maximum
resistance to wear and tear? hardness to the steel part.
A. Chromium A. Hardening
B. Tungsten B. Tempering
C. Nickel C. Annealing
D. Vanadium D. Normalizing
5.) Which of the following raises the
tensile strength, protects from 10.) It is a process to reduce some
corrosion and improves wearing brittleness and to induce some
property? toughness in the steel part
34.) What is used to connect the shafts 39.) Refers to the process of bulging on
whose axes are intersecting one end of a work piece to bring a
required shape
A. Rigid coupling
B. Oldham coupling A. Bending
C. Flexible coupling B. Upsetting
D. Universal coupling C. Drifting
D. Jumping
A. Clamp
B. Fixture
C. Jig
D. Mandrel
TEST 30 A. Planer
B. Shaper
1.) What supports the top rake? C. Slotter
D. Lathe
A. Front Clearance
B. Side Clearance 7.) It is a machine tool used to machine
C. Slide Rake plane curved surfaced, slots,
D. None of these grooves, teeth, with fast rotating
multipoint cutter
2.) What supports for free feeding
A. Milling
A. Side rake B. Planer
B. Side clearance C. Shaper
C. Front clearance D. Grinder
D. Top rake
8.) It is also known as conventional
3.) Which of the following reduces the milling in which the rotation of the
rubbing action? cutter is in the direction opposite to
the direction of the table movement
A. Front clearance
B. Side clearance A. Down-milling
C. Slide rake B. Up-milling
D. Top rake C. Standard milling
D. Gang milling
4.) It is a type of reciprocating type
machine tool used for machining 9.) It is also known as climb milling in
flat, cylindrical, and irregular which the rotation of the cutter and
surfaces. the movement to the table is in the
same direction
A. Planer
B. Shaper A. Gang milling
C. Slotter B. Down milling
D. Lathe C. Up milling
D. Straddle milling
5.) Which of the following is used for all
general purposes? 10.) It is an operation of milling the
complex surfaces with the help of a
A. Production process group of cutters mounted on the
B. Puncher slotter same arbor
C. Tool room slotter
D. None of these A. Gang milling
B. Straddle milling
6.) A machine tool used for large C. Climb milling
construction D. Down milling
11.) It is an operation of milling two 16.) The angle formed between the face
opposite sides of work piece at a of a tool and the work surface or
time by using two side milling cutters tangent to the work at a point of
on the same arbor contact with the tool called
13.) It is an operation to produce narrow 18.) The angle formed the face and the
slots or grooves using a slitting saw normal to the work piece at the
milling cutter point of contact with the tool
14.) It is an operation to produce 19.) The angle formed between the face
irregular contours using a form cutter and the clearance surface
15.) It is an operation to divide the 20.) The angle formed between the
periphery of the job into number of clearance surface and the work
equal parts accurately surface or the tangent to the work
piece at the point of contact with
A. Dividing head the tool
B. Indexing
C. Slotting A. Clearance angle
D. None of these B. Wedge angle
C. Rake angle A. Full round nose
D. Cutting angle B. Half round nose
C. Square nose
21.) The best method of avoiding D. Rectangular
accident is by observing __________
related to job, machine and work 27.) Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth
piece. on both sides alternatively is called
22.) The size of try square is measured 28.) The size of a flat file is measured from
from the inner edge of stock to the ________ to heel of the file
end of its _______.
A. Edge
A. Base B. Base
B. Blade C. Tip
C. Edge D. Body
D. Body
29.) The triangular scraper has _______
23.) Angle of center punch is sharp cutting edges
A. 30° A. One
B. 45° B. Two
C. 60° C. Three
D. 90° D. Four
24.) Mallets are made of ________. 30.) Reamer should also be turned in
_________ direction when taking it
A. Hardwood out
B. Soft wood
C. Steel A. Same direction
D. Cast iron B. Opposite direction
C. Clockwise direction
25.) The size of the bench vise is D. Counterclockwise
measured from the ______ of its jaws
31.) It is the distance measured to the
A. Width axis from a point on a screw thread
B. Length to the corresponding point on the
C. Thickness next thread
D. Curvature
A. Lead
26.) For cutting oil grooves in bearing B. Pitch
_____ chisel is used
C. Linear
D. Chord 37.) A ___________ gage is used to check
the clearance between the mating
32.) Cupola furnace is used to produce parts
_______.
A. Feeler
A. Cast iron B. Plug
B. Cast steel C. Tap
C. Aluminum D. Dial
D. Stainless steel
38.) A __________ gage is used to check
33.) Percentage of carbon in high the size of hole/bore
carbon steel is
A. Feeler
A. 0.10% to 0.50% B. Plug
B. 0.70% to 1.5% C. Tap
C. 3% to 7% D. Dial
D. 5% to 10%
39.) The difference between the high
34.) It is done to decrease the brittleness limit and the low limit of a size is
and to increase the toughness called
A. Annealing A. Allowance
B. Normalizing B. Clearance
C. Tempering C. Boundary
D. Nitriding D. Tolerance
C. Control
D. Support
A. Light
B. Heavy
C. Small
TEST 32
6. A device for holding grinding wheels
1. Refers to the unit that can be moved of special shape or the working piece
longitudinally along the swivel table and being grounded.
is clamped in position by two bolts one
on either side of the base. A. Head stock
B. Fixtures
A. Foot stock C. Jigs
B. Head stock D. Chuck
C. Tail stock
D. Cross stock 7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or
tap.
2. An instrument used for determining
the relative hardness of materials by a A. Fluting
drop and rebound method. B. Flaring
C. Lapping
A. Scleroscope D. Honing
B. Rockwell Hardness Tester
C. Universal Testing Machine 8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a
D. Brinell Hardness Tester grinding wheel resulting in a decreased
rate of cutting is called.
3. An instrument used for measuring the
degree of surface roughness in micro A. Grinding
inches. B. Glazing
C. Fluting
A. Caliper D. Lapping
B. Micrometer
C. Profilometer 9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues
D. Scleroscope from casting is termed as
12. The amount of metal removed by 17. HSS cutting tools are generally
honing process is less than provided with
13. In ECM process thermal current 18. Cemented carbide and ceramic
requirement is cutting tools are usually provided with
A. Less than
B. Equal to
C. More than
D. Zero
A. Form milling
B. Climb milling
C. Convex milling
D. Plain milling
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Slotter
D. Reamer
TEST 34
1. It is also known as climb milling in C. Lapping
which the rotation of the cutter and the D. Glazing
movement of the table is the same
direction. 6. It consists of surface irregularities,
which result from the various
A. Down milling manufacturing process.
B. Up milling
C. Straddle milling A. Lay
D. Gang milling B. Waiveness
C. Flaws
2. The _______ is a machine tool used to D. Roughness
remove metal from a work piece to give
it the required shape and size. 7. A _________ is formed when a shaft
rotates in a bush, lines of the bore of a
A. Shaper housing.
B. Planer
C. Lathe A. Ball bearing
D. Grinder B. Roller bearing
C. Plain bearing
3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical D. Needle Bearing
surfaces.
8. CNC in machine shop means
A. Centerless grinding
B. Plunge-cut grinding A. Computer Number Control
C. Through feed grinding B. Computer Numerical Control
D. None of these C. Communication Network Control
D. Computer Network Center
4. It is the angle between the side
cutting edge and the longitudinal axis of 9. It is the time lost due to break downs,
the tool. waiting for tools, minor accident etc.
12. What is it necessary to provide 17. What should be the top rake angle
tolerance? to cut brass?
13. It is done then and there by adjusting 18. It is a long, tapered punch used for
or repairing the faults come in notice loosening straight pins, rivets and other
during the work. small parts being disassembled.
14. A __________ is used between the 19. A tool used for turning nuts or bolts.
cutting tool and work piece to minimize
the friction heat. A. Plier
B. Wrench
A. Lubricant C. Long nose
B. Coolant D. C-Clamp
C. Water
D. Alcohol 20. A sharp pointed steel tool used to
scribe lines on metal being laid out.
15. Which of the following is NOT a
function of bearings A. Divider
B. Scriber
A. To support the shaft C. Trammel
B. To guide the shaft D. Hermaphrodite caliper
C. To give free rotation to the shaft
D. To transmit power 21. A ______ is used to be test the
accuracy of holes
A. Snap gage C. Grooving
B. Ring gage D. Any of these
C. Plug gage
D. Depth gage 27. The operation of producing a
beveled edge at a specified angle of
22. A _________ consists of hardened and the end of a turned diameter.
ground steel bar in which two hardened
and ground of the same diameter are A. Chamfering
set. B. Knurling
C. Honing
A. Caliper D. Undercutting
B. Gage block
C. Sine bar 28. It is a large casting located on the
D. Micrometer left end of the bed.
33. Refers to circular milling attachment 38. A fine grained, salty silica rock used
that is bolted to the top of the table of a for sharpening edged tools.
plain or universal milling machine.
A. Oilstone
A. Slotting attachment B. Surface grinder
B. Rotary attachment C. Rocky oil
C. Milling attachment D. None of these
D. Spiral attachment
39. Device used to prevent leakage of
34. The process of removing burrs and media.
the gates and risers left on casting after
the molding process. A. Gasket
B. Seal
A. Reaming C. Shield
B. Snagging D. Stopper
C. Honing
D. Knurling 40. Flexible material used to seal
pressurized fluids normally under
35. The __________ supports the table dynamic conditions.
on the cross rail and moves across it
from left to right. A. Packing
B. Gasket
A. Apron C. Shield
B. Bearing D. Seal
C. Spindle
D. Handle 41. A hand tool used to measure tension
in bolts
A. Independent chuck
B. Combination chuck
C. Magnetic chuck
D. Universal chuck
A. Planer
B. Shaper
TEST 35
1. What is the lightest known metal? 6. It indicates how many times a volume
of material is heavier than an equal
A. Mercury volume of water.
B. Steel
C. Chromium A. Specific gravity
D. Aluminum B. Specific volume
C. Specific weight
2. Material having a high electrical D. Specific density
resistance and should not be used as
conductor of electrical current. 7. Nickel – Chromium – Molybdenum
steel designation SAE ______
A. Magnesium
B. Copper A. 81xx
C. Nickel B. 74xx
D. Iron C. 94xx
D. 64xx
3. The property that characterizes a
material ability to be drawn into a wire is 8. Moment of inertia is also called
known as: _______
A. SAE A. Columbium
B. AISI B. Titanium
C. SEA C. Tantalum
D. ASTM D. All of these
35. It is the ability of the material of resist 41. Metals are conductive because:
deformation under stress.
A. The electrons are loosely bound to
A. Plasticity the nuclei and therefore mobile
B. Stiffness B. Having characteristics luster
C. Toughness C. They are on the left side of the
D. All of these periodic table
D. They are on the left side of the
36. Which of the following is not a periodic table
structural class of steel? D. They have extra electrons as
exhibited by normally possible
A. High speed steel balance state
B. Tool and die
C. Low carbon 42. The yield strength of the rectangular
D. High carbon yellow brass 65 tp 70% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn
can be increased / improved by _____.
37. Continuous stretching under load
even if the stress is less than the yield A. Cold working
point is B. Tempering
known as:
C. Shill casting 48. The ability of metal to be deformed
D. Heat treatment considerable without rupture is called:
A. Annealing furnace
B. Tempering furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Normalizing furnace
A. 8%
A. Tougher
B. 4.3%
B. More ductile
C. 1.1%
C. Harder
D. 5.8%
D. More malleable
21. Alloy steel known for its resistance to 25. SAE steel that responds to heat
corrosion, abrasion and wear that is treatment
usually ideal for mill grinding of ore or
cement and concentrator A. SAE 1060
application. It is usually combined B. SAE 1117
with molybdenum to increase the C. SAE 1030
depth hardening. D. SAE 1020
A. Chromium A. Bricks
B. Nickel B. Insulator
C. Carbon C. Refractories
D. Tungsten D. Clay
45. Which of the following metals will 50. Any material that retard the flow of
respond to heat treatment? electricity used to prevent or escape
of electric current from conductors
A. Cast iron
B. Wrought iron A. Bricks
C. Medium carbon steel B. Insulators
D. Low carbon steel C. Refractories
46. The property of steel which resist D. composite
indention of penetration is called
A. Hardness
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. None of these
TEST 37
A. Annealing
1. Hardening the surface of the iron- B. Indexing
based alloys by heating them below C. Knurling
the melting point in contact with a D. Soldering
carbonaceous substance.
7. The operation of cooling a heated
A. Carburizing piece of work rapidly by dipping it in
B. Normalizing water, brine or oil.
C. Mar tempering
D. Hardening A. Quenching
B. Annealing
2. A special metal formed when two or C. Tempering
more metals are melted together. D. Normalizing
38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings 44. The maximum hardenability of any
the material used with lead to steel depends on __________
reduce the risk of seizure is
A. The alloying elements present
A. Iron B. The carbon content
B. Silver C. The chemical composition
C. Tin D. The grain size
D. Zinc
45. Steel with 0.80% carbon and 100%
39. Age-hardening is related with: pearlite is known as:
40. Which of the following has the 46. Substance that can increase the
highest specific strength of oil machinability of steel
structure materials?
A. Phosphorous
A. Chromium alloys B. Phosphorous and aluminum
B. Magnesium alloys C. Silicon and sulfur
C. Titanium alloys D. Sulfur graphite and aluminum
D. None of these
47. Compressive strength of a gray cast
41. Addition to lead and bismuth to iron in tone per cm2 is of the order
aluminum will produce: of:
A. 3-5
B. 5-7
C. 7-10
D. 15-22
A. It brittle
B. It easily machinable
C. It hard
D. The casting unsound
A. Austenite
B. Pearlite
C. Stalactite
D. Martensite
A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Electroplating
TEST 38
7. In powder metallurgy, the process of
1. The process of increasing the carbon heating the cold pressed metal
content to surface of steel by powder is called:
exposing it to hot carbonaceous
material above the transformation of A. Deposition
1650 to 1750 F B. Granulation
C. Precipitation
A. Carbonitriding D. Sintering
B. Case hardening
C. Carburizing 8. Electro-forming is especially valuable
D. Induction hardening for
14. A cold chisel is made of 20. The material recovers its original
dimensions when the load is
A. Cast iron removed, it is called:
B. High carbon steel
C. High speed steel A. Annealed
D. Mild steel B. Brittle
C. Elastic
15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of D. Plastic
carbon is
21. A body having identical properties
A. 0.02% all over is called:
B. 0.30%
C. 0.63% A. Ductile
D. 0.80% B. Elastic
C. Homogenous
16. Machining properties of steel can be D. Isentropic
improved by adding:
22. Points of arrest of iron correspond to:
A. Chromium, nickel
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium A. Stages at which allotropic forms
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus change
D. Vanadium,aluminum B. Stages at which further heating
does not increase temperature
17. The ability of a material to absorb for sometime
energy when deformed elastically C. Stages at which properties do
and to return to it when unloaded is not change with increase in
known as temperature
D. There is nothing like points of
A. Creep arrest
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness 23. Delta iron occurs at:
D. Resilience
A. Temperature above melting
18. A ductile fracture is characterized by point
B. Temperature between 1400°C
and 1539°C A. Aluminum
C. Temperature between 1000°C B. Bronze
and 1400°C
C. Cast iron
D. Room temperature
D. White metal
24. Gamma iron exists at the
temperature range 29. One of the materials used for making
surface plate is
A. Between 910°C and 1400°C
B. Between 1400°C and 1539°C A. Brass
C. Near melting point
B. Granite
D. Room temperature
C. Stainless steel
D. Wood
25. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in
temperature range of: 30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon.
26. The mould for casting ferrous 31. Tungsten in high speed imparts
materials in continuous melting which of the following
process is made of: characteristics?
A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead 42. Tool steel can be hardened by
B. Copper, zinc and tin
C. Iron and tungsten A. Heating red hot and plunging
D. Tin, copper, lead and into water
phosphorous B. Heating red hot and cooling in a
blast of dry
37. The bed of machine tool is normally C. Heating red hot and plunging
made of into linseed or cotton seed oil
D. Any of the above, depending on
A. Alloy steel type and use
B. Cast iron
C. Medium carbon steel 43. The purpose of annealing is to make
D. Mild steel a metal
A. Carbon steel
B. Cold-rolled steel
C. Hot-rolled steel
D. Tool steel
A. Polish material
B. Roughen material
C. Sharpen the material
D. Smoothen the material
A. Copper – nickel
B. Copper – zinc
C. Copper – tin
D. Copper – aluminum
A. Clad material
B. Composite material
C. Homogenous material
D. Heterogenous
A. Static load
B. Impact load
C. Dynamic load
D. Completely reversed load
A. Rug
B. Mirror
C. Carpet
D. Heavy drape
TEST 39
1. The ability of a substance to exist in C. Nitriding
more than one lattice form is known D. Stiffness
as
6. The plastic deformation at
A. Allotropy temperatures above the
B. Grain recrystallization temperature.
C. Crystallization
D. Diamagnetic A. Hot Working
B. Cold Working
2. Properties which describe the C. Normalizing
behavior of the materials under the D. Annealing
association of force are called as:
7. The plastic deformation at
A. Physical properties temperatures below the
B. Chemical properties recrystallization temperature.
C. Mechanical properties
D. Electrical properties A. Hot Working
B. Normalizing
3. The amount of energy per unit C. Annealing
volume which the material will D. Cold Working
possess when subjected to the
elastic limit stress is called: 8. A preliminary evaluation of the
elevated temperature properties of
A. Bulk modulus materials may be secured by means
B. Modulus of Resilience of a
C. Modulus of Elasticity
D. Modulus of Rigidity A. Stress rupture test
B. Creep
4. ______________ means the resistance C. Impact test
to penetration D. Modulus of rupture
33. Materials having a high percentage 38. Steels may be carburized and nitride
of alumina or steatite are known as simultaneously by the process known
as
A. Titanium
B. Vanadium A. Nitriding
C. Refractories B. Carburizing
D. Ceramics C. Carbonitriding
D. Cryaning
34. It is a process of hardening the outer
portion of the metal by prolonged A. It is used in steels as an alloying
heating free from contact with air element to combing hardness
while the metal packed in carbon in obtained.
the form of bone char, leather
scraps, or charcoal. B. Vanadium
C. Chromium
A. Carburizing
B. Cyaniding A. Titanium
A. Nitriding B. Molybdenum
B. Aging
43. The term used for most press 48. It is the measure of stiffness
operations
A. Modulus of rigidity
A. Glazing B. Modulus of resilience
B. Stamping C. Modulus of elasticity
A. Coning D. Modulus of toughness
B. Swaging
49. It is the measure of the total energy-
absorbed capacity of the material
and includes the energy of both
elastic and plastic deformation.
A. Modulus of toughness
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of rigidity
TEST 40
1. The maximum stress to which a beam is broken by the impact
standardized test specimen may be strength of the metal
subjected without permanent
deformation. A. Charpy test
B. Izod test
A. Endurance limit C. Rockwell test
B. Proportional limit D. Universal test
C. Elastic limit
D. Plastic limit 7. Steel that has been deoxidized with
strong deoxidizing agent such as
2. The modulus of elasticity is a silicon or aluminum, in order to
measure of eliminate the reaction between the
carbon and oxygen during
E. Stiffness solidification
F. Toughness
G. Resilience A. Carbon steel
H. Hardness B. Tool steel
C. Killed steel
3. Aging at moderately elevated D. Structural steel
temperature expedites the process
and 8. Involves the loss of ductility because
of a physical or chemical change of
A. Natural aging the material is known as
B. Artificial aging
C. Normal aging A. Embrittlement
D. Supernatural aging B. Pitting
C. Cold shortness
4. It is the tendency to fracture without D. Decarburization
appreciable deformation
9. A material commonly used for
A. Ductility shielding or screening magnetism
B. Brittleness
C. Malleability A. Brass
D. Plasticity B. Copper
C. Aluminum
5. It is the characteristic of exhibiting D. Soft iron
different properties when tested in
different directions 10. A magnet is able to attract
A. Mercury – oxide
21. Which of the following is not a
B. Lead – acid
primary cess?
C. Nickel – iron – alkaline
D. Nickel – cadmium – alkaline
A. Carbon zinc
B. Silver oxide
16. Which of the following contact point
C. Silver zinc
metals has highest melting point?
D. Nickel – cadmium
22. Select from the conductors below 27. Steel that has been hammered
that has the least electrical rolled or drawn in the process of
conductivity electricity
23. The material used for commutator 28. Which of the following improves red
brushes is mostly hardness?
A. Copper A. Boron
B. Mica B. Cobalt
C. Carbon C. Copper
D. Cast iron D. Columbium
24. Generally, the material for 29. An alloy of nickel and copper
thermocouple is
A. Monel
A. Chrome copel B. Iconel
B. Chrome alumei C. Titanium
C. Platinum rhodum D. Vanadium
D. Any of these
30. Commutator segments are made of
25. Select the best conductor of
electricity A. Zinc
B. Brass
C. Copper
A. Carbon D. Nickel
B. Silver
C. Copper 31. What are the most commonly used
D. Iron materials as photo cathode for the
photoelectric emission?
A. Metallic
B. Asbestos
C. Rubber
D. A and B