JEE MAIN

T ES T-1 5
Class: XII / XIII Date: 22-03-2018 Time: 2 Hours. Max. Marks: 240

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The question paper consists of '60' objective type questions. There are '30' questions each in
Physics and Chemistry respectively. PleasefilltheOMRanswerSheet accordinglyandcarefully.

2. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

3. You will be awarded 4 marks for each question, if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
mark will be awarded.

4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 3 above.

5. Use Black or Blue Ball Point Pen only for filling particulars.

6. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.

7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided at the bottom and in end of the booklet for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.

8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on theAnswer Sheet.

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 USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48,
Ba = 137, U = 238, Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96
[Take : ln 2 = 0.693, ln 1.1 = 0.095, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 × 10–19, me= 9.1 × 10–31 kg ]
Take: 0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2/Nm2, g = 10 m/s2, Swater = 1 cal/gm °C, Lice = 80 cal/gm. , g = 10 m/s2
unless otherwise stated

PHYSICS
Q.1 Which of the following is a correct comparison Q.3 A 0.20 kg object, attached to a spring with
between standing waves and travelling waves? spring constant k = 10 N/m, is moving on a
Standing waves Travelling waves horizontalfrictionlesssurfaceinsimpleharmonic
(1) wave amplitude is wave amplitude motion of amplitude of 0.080 m. What is its
constant at all depends upon the speed at the instant when its displacement is
points along the position along 0.040 m from equilibrium position.
wave the wave (1) 9.8 m/s (2) 4.9 m/s
(2) energy is always energy is not (3) 49 cm/s (4) 24.5 cm/s
transferred transferred
(3) the wavelength is the wavelength is the Q.4 The volume of an ideal gas in a container is
twice the distance distance between increased at constant temperature. Which of
between consecutive consecutive crests the following statements is/are correct about
nodes the molecules of the gas?
(4) phase varies phase is constant I. Their speed remains constant.
continuouslyalong between consecutive II. The frequencyof collisions of
the wave crests molecules with unit area of the
Q.2 A uniform solid sphere rolls down an incline of container wall decreases.
height 3 m after starting from rest. In order to III. The force between them decreases.
calculate its speed at the bottom of the incline, (1) I only (2) I and II only
one needs to know : (3) I and III only (4) II and III only
(1) the mass of the sphere.
(2) the radius of the sphere.
(3) the mass and the radius of the sphere.
(4) no more than is given in the problem.
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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 2

Q.5 For what value of x, there will be no current Q.8 A ball is thrown verticallyupwards and comes
through R. down again.Air resistance is negligible. Which
of the following graphs shows how the
3
gravitational potentialenergyEP varieswith time
t?
4 3
R
EP

2 x 0
(1) 0 t

(1) x = 2 (2) x = 3
(3) x = 4 (4) x = 6
EP

Q.6 A runner circles a track of radius 100 m one 0

time in 100 s at a constant rate. The greatest (2) 0 t
change in his velocityfrom his starting velocity:
(1) occurs one–fourth of the way around the
track. EP
(2) occurs one–half of the way around the
track. 0 t
(3) 0
(3) occurs three–fourths of the wayaround the
track.
(4) Both a and c are correct.
EP
Q.7 Aunit for viscosity, the centipoise, is equal to
which of the following? 0
(4) 0 t
(1) 10–3 N·s/m2 (2) 10–2 N·s/m2
(3) 10–1 N·s/m2 (4) 102 N·s/m2

Q.9 A volume is measured to be 52 mm3. This

volume in m3 is
(1) 5.2 × 103 m3 (2) 5.2 × 101 m3
(3) 5.2 × 10–1 m3 (4) 5.2 × 10–8 m3
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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 3

Q.10 Object P has a mass mP and specific heat Q.12 What is the work done on the gas as it expands
capacity cP. Object Q has a mass mQ and from pressure P1 and volume V1 to pressure
specific heat capacity cQ. The temperature of P2 and volume V2 along the indicated straight
each object increases by the same amount. line?
Which of the following gives the ratio
P
thermal energy transferred to object P P
thermal energy transferred to object Q ?
P2

m PcQ mPcP P1
(1) m c (2) m c
Q P Q Q

m Qc P V1 V2 V
m QcQ
(3) (4) m c (1) (P1 + P2) (V1 – V2) / 2
mPcP P Q
(2) (P1 + P2) (V1 – V2)
Q.11 A skydiver jumped out of an airplane. On (3) (P1 + P2) (V1 – V2) / 2
reaching a terminal speed of 60 m s–1, she (4) (P1 – P2) (V1 + V2)
opened her parachute. Which of the following
describes her motion after opening her Q.13 A freshly prepared sample contains 4.0 g of
parachute? iodine–131. After 24 days, 0.5 g of
(1) She went upwards for a short time, before iodine–131 remain. The best estimate of the
falling to Earth at a speed of 60 m s–1. half-life of iodine–131 is
(2) She continued downwards at 60 m s–1, but (1) 8 days (2) 12 days
hit the ground with less force. (3) 24 days (4) 72 days
(3) She continued to fall but reached a new
terminal speed of less than 60 m s–1.
(4)She went upwards for a short time, before
falling to Earth at a speed of less than 60ms–1.

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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 4

Q.14 Time constant of circuit is (neglect mutual Q.16 A solid rock, suspended in air bya spring scale,
inductance) has a measured mass of 9.00 kg. When the
L 2L rock is submerged in water, the scale reads
3.30 kg. What is the density of the rock?
R (water density = 1 000 kg/m3)
6L (1) 4.55 × 103 kg/m3
(2) 3.50 × 103 kg/m3
E (3) 1.20 × 103 kg/m3
2L 9L (4) 1.58 × 103 kg/m3
(1) (2)
R R Q.17 A sinusoidal ac power supply has rms voltage
L 20L V and supplies rms current I. What is the
(3) (4) maximum instantaneous power delivered?
2R 3R
(1) 2VI (2) 2 VI
Q.15 A positively charged particle enters the space
VI
between two charged conducting plates, with (3) VI (4)
a constant velocity directed parallel to the 2
plates, as shown. Q.18 Consider the use of the terms “rotation” and
+ + + + + + + “revolution”. In physics:
+
P Q (1) the words are used interchangeably.
(2) the words are used interchangeably but
S
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
R “rotation” is the preferred word.
(3) the words have different meaning.
The top plate is positively charged and the (4) “rotation” is the correct word and
bottom plate is negatively charged. There is a “revolution” should not be used.
magnetic field in the shaded region PQRS. The
particle continues to move in a horizontal Q.19 The negativelycharged disk in figure is rotated
straight line between the plates. Which of the clockwise. What is the direction
following correctlydescribes the magnetic field of the magnetic field at point Ain the plane of
direction? the disk?
(1) Into plane of paper
(2) Out of plane of paper
(3) Up (1) Into the page (2) Out of the page
(4) Down (3) Left (4) Right
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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 5

Q.20 Reading of ammeter and voltmeter will be Q.21 A 2000-kg sailboat experiences an eastward
E = 4 Volt, r = 1 force of 3 000 N by the ocean tide and a
wind force against its sails with magnitude of 6
000 N directed toward the northwest
R = 3 (45° N of W). What is the magnitude of the
A
RA = 1 resultant acceleration?
V (1) 2.2 m/s2 (2) 2.1 m/s2
RV = 6
(3) 1.5 m/s2 (4) 3.0 m/s2
4 8
(1) 1A, 2 volt (2) A, volt
3 3 Q.22 In the photoelectric effect, the following
8 4 observations may be made.
(3) 1A, volt (4) A, 2 volt I. The kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
3 3
increases with increasing light frequency.
II. The electrons are emitted without time delay.
Which of these observations, if any, can be
explained in terms of the wave theory of light?
(1) Neither I nor II (2) I and II
(3) I only (4) II only

Q.23 Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 emit spherical waves.

S1 S1

Which of the following best describes the intensity of the waves at P and Q?
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P Q
(1) maximum minimum
(2) minimum maximum
(3) maximum maximum
(4) minimum minimum

XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 6

Q.24 The time taken for a stone dropped from rest
to fall vertically through 16 m is 2.0 s. Based
on these measurements, what is the best
estimate for the acceleration of free fall?
(1) 4.0 m s–2 (2) 8.0 m s–2
(3) 9.8 m s –2 (4) 10 m s–2
Q.25 A communications satellite is moving at a
constant speed in a circular orbit around Earth.
At any given instant in time, the resultant force Q.28
on the satellite is
(1) zero.
(2) equal to the gravitational force on the
satellite.
(3) equal to the vector sum of the gravitational
force on the satellite and the centripetal force.
(4) equal to the force exerted by the satellite's Q.29
rockets.
Q.26 Howmuchworkis requiredtomoveapositively
charged particle along the 15 cm path shown,
if the electric field E is 10 N/C and the charge
on the particle is 8 C?
(Note : ignore gravity)
Q.27 A cylinder with its mass concentrated toward
the center has a moment of inertia of 0.1 MR2.
If this cylinder is rolling without slipping along
a level surface with a linear speed , what is
the ratio of its rotational kinetic energy to its
linear kinetic energy?
(1) 1/l0 (2) 1/5
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/1
A force F is applied to a body moving along a
straight line.Aresistive force f acts on the body.
Both forces act along the same straight line as
the motion of the body. The rate of change of
momentum of the body is equal to
(1) F – f (2) F
(3) F + f (4) f
The graph shows the variation with absolute
temperature T of the pressure p of a fixed mass
of an ideal gas.
P

T
 Which of the following is correct concerning
the volume and the density of the gas?
Volume Density
(1) constant constant
(2) constant increasing
(3) increasing constant
0 cm 5 cm 10 cm (4) increasing increasing
Q.30 Of the following heat engines, which has the
(1) 0.8 J (2) 8 J highest efficiency?
(3) 12 J (4) 1200SPACE
J (1) Hero’s engine
FOR ROUGH WORK
(2) a Carnot engine
(3) a car’s gasoline engine
(4) a truck’s diesel engine

XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 7

 C H E M I S T RY
Q.34 Tautomerism is not possible in
O
O
Q.31
C–O & Et
O–CH=O (1)
(1) Positional isomer
O
(2) Functional group isomer
(2)
(3) Metamer Ph
(4) Chain isomer
O
Q.32 How manymonobromoderivatives are possible (3)

for ?
O
(1) 11 (2) 13
(4)
(3) 14 (4) 15 H

Q.33 How many geometrical isomers are possible

CH2
for
Q.35 C–NH2

(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 8 Degree of unsaturation in the above compound
is
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10

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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 8

Q.36 The degree of dissociation of water into H+ Q.39 A reaction at 300K with Go = –1743 J consist
and OH¯ ions at 25°C, is maximum when the of 3 moles ofA(g), 6 moles of B(g) and 3 moles
pH of aqueous solution is maintained at of C(g). IfA, B and C are in equilibrium in one
(1) 0.0 (2) 1.0 liter vessel, then the reaction should be :
(3) 7.0 (4) 14.0 (ln 2 = 0.7, R = 8.3 J/K-mol)
(1) A + B  C (2) A  B + 2C
Q.37 An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion (3) 2A  B + C (4) A + B  2C
from (10 atm, 1L) to (1 atm, 10L) either by
path-I (infinite stage expansion) or by path-II Q.40 NO2 is involved in the formation of smog and
(first against 5 atm and then against 1 atm). acid rain. It is formed importantly as:
NO(g) + O3(g)  NO2(g) + O2(g);
 q path I 
  KC = 6.0 × 1034
The value of  q  is
 path II  The air over a metropolitan city contained
1.0×10–5M-NO, 1.0×10–6M-O3, 2.5×10–
2.303 1 .3 4M-NO and 8.2×10–3M-O . These data
(1) (2) 2 2
1 .3 2.303 suggest that
1.0 (1) more of NO and O3 tend to be formed
(3) (4) 13 × 2.303 (2) more of NO2 and O2 tend to be formed
13  2.303
(3) more of NO2 and O3 tend to be formed
(4) no tendency to change because the reaction
Q.38 Choose the substance which has higher is at equilibrium
possible entropy (per mole) at a given
temperature. Q.41 Equivalent mass of Mn3O4 disproportionating
(1) solid carbon dioxide to give Mn+2 and Mn+7 is equal to :
(2) nitrogen gas at 1 atm (1) 57.25 (2) 17.61
(3) nitrogen gas at 0.01 atm (3) 132.11 (4) 12.29
(4) nitrogen gas at 0.00001 atm
Q.42 What is the total mass of the products formed,
when 51 gm of H2S is oxidised by oxygen to
produce water and sulphur dioxide?
(1) 72 gm (2) 27 gm
(3) 123 gm (4) 96 gm

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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 9

Q.43 6 litre H2O is placed in a closed evacuated Q.44 A gas is confined in a graduated cylinder
room of volume 827 litre at the temperature enclosed by a movable piston. When the
300K. The density of liquid water at 300K is temperature of the room is 27ºC, the volume
1.0 gm/ml. The vapour pressure of water at of the gas at atmospheric pressure is found to
300K is 22.8 mm Hg. Neglect the change in be 45 ml. The cylinder is then immersed in a
volume of liquid water by vaporization. bath containing a mixture of liquid and solid
List I List II benzene,maintainedatthenormalfreezingpoint
(P) Mass of water vapour (1) 6 of benzene. The piston moves to maintain
formed (in gm) constant atmospheric pressure. The volume of
(Q) Moles of water vapour (2) 18 the gas at the freezing point of benzene is
formed 42 ml. The freezing point of benzene (in °C) is
(R) Approx. mass of liquid (3) 3 (1) 280ºC (2) 300ºC
water left (in kg) (3) 27ºC (4) 7ºC
(S) Total moles of atoms in (4) 1
vapour form Q.45 When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the
Codes: surface of a metalA, the ejected photoelectrons
P Q R S have maximum kinetic energy, TA (expressed
(1) 1 3 4 2 in eV) and deBroglie wavelength A. The
(2) 3 1 2 4 maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
(3) 2 4 1 3 liberated from another metal B by photons of
(4) 2 1 4 3 energy 4.20V is TB = TA –1.50 eV. If the
deBroglie wave length of these photoelectrons
is B = 2A then
(1) the work function of Ais 2.25 eV
(2) the work function of B is 4.7 eV
(3) TA = 2.25 eV
(4) TB = 2.75 eV

Q.46 What is the state of hybridisation of anionic part

of solid N2O5
(1) sp (2) sp2
(3) sp3 (4) Not applicable

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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 10

Q.47 Select the pair of compound in which first Q.52 The hybridization of S in SO42– is same as in
compound has more lattice energy as compare (1) Xe in XeF4 (2) S in SO32–
to second compound but solubility is less. (3) C is CO32– (4) As in AsF4
(1) BeCl2 , BaCl2
(2) LiF , CsF Q.53 Z=5
(3) KHCO3, NaHCO3
(4) BeSO4, BaSO4

Q.48 Which of following species follows the octet

rule for all of its atoms. X
(1) BeH2-dimer (2) TeF6
In above figure if 'Z' is the atomic number then
(3) XeF6 (4) C2F6
identify the period number of element 'X' in
periodic table-
Q.49 The correct order of surface tension for the
(1) 5th (2) 4th
followingmolecule.
(3) 6th (4) 7th
(I) Ethylene glycol (CH2OH – CH2OH)
(II) Ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) Q.54 Which of the following has maximum bond
(III) Glycerol (CH2OH – CH(OH)–CH2OH) angle?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > I > II (1) OF2 (2) OCl2
(3) III > II > I (4) I > III > II (3) OH2 (4) NH3
Q.55 Statement-1 : In sp3d hybridisation for TBP
Q.50 Hypophosphoric acid is having ________ geometry only d z 2 orbital is the most suitable
number of replaceable H-atom.
among all other d-orbitals.
(1) Four (2) Two
Statement-2 : All d-orbitals are degenerate.
(3) Three (4) One
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2iscorrectexplanationforstatement-1.
Q.51 Element whichhasmaximum ionisation energy.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
(1) Zn (2) Cu
(3) Cd (4) Hg statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 11

 Cl Q.58 Which of the following is most contributing
Br
Br resonating structure of prop-2-enal
Q.56 Cl Give IUPAC name
Cl Br 
(1) CH 2  CH  CH  O 
(1) 3, 6, 8 - trichloro - 2, 5, 7 - tribromeo
 
bicyclo [2 · 2 · 2] octane (2) CH 2  CH  CH  O
(2) 2, 5, 7 - tribrumo - 3, 6, 8 - trichloro bicyclo

[2 · 2 · 2] octane (3) CH 2  CH  CH  O
(3) 3, 6, 8 - tribrumo - 2, 5, 7 - trichloro bicyclo (4) None of these
[2 · 2 · 2] octane
(4) 2, 5, 7 - trichleno - 3, 6, 8 - trichloro bicyclo Q.59 How many chiral carbons/ centres are present
[2 · 2 · 2] octane in
Q.57 Which of the following is most basic? H3C Cl
NH2 NH2 Me Et
OCH3
(1) (2) Br Et
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 2
NH2 NH2
Q.60 How many COS (Centre of symmetry) is / are
(3) (4)
present in ?
NO2
OCH3 (1)  (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 4

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XII / XIII Test-15 Page # 12