Sle 2014

SLE
-‐ 2014 Revision

Important Notices
This Paper contains all the possible questions that will or most like come on the Saudi License
Exam for Dentists. It’s important to understand that this is a reference source
and it’s based on peoples experience and referred to some sources for
verification none the less … we are human and we can do mistakes… but this
is the best we can do – OziDent Team

Authors
Orginal documents were by Dr. Maestro Dr. Somod (d.somod@hotmail.com)

Edited by Dr. Amar , Dr. Robo, Dr. Hala, Dr. Sallaf, Dr. Tammam
Finilaized by Dr. Abdullah
Re-‐Published by Dr. Mohsen S. Ozaibi (OziDent.com)

Contact
Please contact me at mohsen@ozident.com for further information or correction

Aslo visit our website
http://www.ozident.com
1|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

1. The periodontal tissue comprises which of the following tissues:
a. Gingiva and PDL.
b. Gingival, PDL and alveolar bone.
c. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone and cementum.
d. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum and enamel.
2. The periodontium comprises which of the following tissues:

A. Gingiva and PDL.
B. Gingival, PDL and alveolar bone.
C. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone and cementum.
D. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum and enamel.
3. The following chemically bonds to the tooth:

a. Composite resin.
b. Dental sealants.
c. Glass ionomer cement.
d. All of the above.

4. In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for
community-based preventive programs would be greater for:
a. Dental caries.
b. Periodontal disease.
c. Dentofacial anomalies.
d. Dental fluorosis.
5. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:

a. Hypoglycemia.
b. Mild hyperglycemia.
c. Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent.
d. Anti depressant therapy.
e. All of the above.
6. What’s the first sign of Syncope:

a) Paleness.
b) Nose bleeding (epistaxis ).
c) Miosis.

7. Most frequent cause of fainting in dental office:
a. Vaso-vagal shock.
b. Diabetes.
c. Fear.
8. Loss of consciousness, most frequent cause:

a. Syncope.
b. CO2 increase.
9. Orthognathic ridge relationship ( class II ) presents several problems

which should be taken into consideration when constructing complete
denture prosthesis. These include all except:
a. Require minimum interocclusal distance.
b. Have a great range of jaw movement.
c. Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated.
* Orthognathic Ridge Relationship:

Class II or retrognathic : is usually difficult and needs a large interocclusal distance.

Class III or prognathic : is usually easier and requires a minimum of interocclusal distance.

10. Class III jaw relation in edentulous Pt.:

a. It will affect size of maxillary teeth.
b. Affect retention of lower denture.
c. Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture.
11. Planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:

a. 1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlaps of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact.
b. Definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate the use of anterior teeth for
incision.
12. The posterior extension of maxillary complete denture

can be detected by the followings except:
a. Hamular notch.
b. Fovea palatine.
c. Vibrating line.
‫* ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻣﻔﺮﻭوﺽض ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺙث ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﺑﻴﯿﺴﺘﺨﺪﻣﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﻣﺠﺎﺑﻠﻴﯿﺶ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬

‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﻰ ﻻ ﺗﺴﺘﺨﺪﻡم ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر‬Retromolar (pad) areas ‫ ﺃأﻭو‬Non of the above
Fovea palatine.
* All are participating in the determination of the

posterior extension of the maxillary denture except:
A. Vibrating line.
B. Hamular notch.
C. Fovae palatine.
D. Retromolar (pad) areas. ***
13. The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is
dictated by the:
a. Tuberosity.
b. Fovea palatine.
c. Maxillary tori.
d. Vibrating line.
e. Posterior palatal seal.
14. Vibrating line:

a. Between hard & soft palates.
b. Between mobile and non mobile soft tissues.

15. Oral surgeon put his finger on the nose of the patient and the patient
asked to blow. This done to check:
a. anterior extention of posterior palatal seal.
b. lateral extension of posterior palatal seal.
c. posterior extension of posterior palatal seal.
d. glandular opening.

16. Pt. Presented after insertion of complete denture complaining of
dysphagia and ulcers what is the cause of dysphagia?
a- over extended.
b- over post dammed.
c- under extended.
d- under post dammed.
17. Pt. with denture has swallowing problem and sore throat. The problem
is: ‫ ﻣﻠﺘﻬﮭﺐ‬ ‫ﺣﻠﻖ‬
a. Posterior over extension at distal palatal end.
b. Over extension of lingual.
c. Over extension of hamular notch.
18. Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It

may result from: ‫ﻏﺜﻴﯿﺎﻥن ﻭوﺍاﺷﻤﺌﺰﺍاﺯز‬
a. Thick posterior border.
b. Denture under extended.
c. Denture slightly over extended.
d. a & b are correct.

. ‫* ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻳﯾﻀﻢ ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺙث ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻷﻥن ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺙث ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺃأﺳﺒﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﻐﺜﻴﯿﺎﻥن‬

19. After insertion of complete denture, Pt. came complaining

from pain in TMJ and tenderness of muscles with difficulty in
swallowing, this could be due to:
a. High vertical dimension.
b. Low vertical dimension.
c. Thick denture base.
d. Over extended denture base.
20. Most common complete denture post insertion complaint after 24 hrs.:
a. Rough.
b. Overextension causing laceration.
c. Pt. not to use new vertical dimension.
21. Which palatal form is more retentive and offers better stability to complete
denture:
a. V shaped.
b. Wide palate.

c. U shaped.
d. Flat palate.

22. All relate to retention of maxillary complete denture except:

a. Tongue movement.
b. Type of saliva.
23. Best instrument to locate vibrating line, it is:

A. T-burnisher.
B. Mirror.
C. Carver.
D. Non of the above.

24. We can use for palatal posterior seal:

1. Le jao carver.
2. Kingsley scraper.
25. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
A. Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus.
B. Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth.
C. Lack of attention to tooth shape, position, and contacts.
D. Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus, and marginal ridges.
26. An examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged Pt. who has wore maxillary
complete dentures for many years against six mandibular teeth would probably
show:
a. Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve.
b. Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch.
c. Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch.
d. Insufficient interocclusal distance.
27. Dental caries is an endemic disease, means that the disease is: ‫ ﻣﺴﺘﻮﻁطﻦ‬ ‫ﻣﺮﺽض‬
a. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
b. Is habitually present in human population.
c. Affect large number of countries simultaneously.
d. Exhibit a seasonal pattern.
28. Pt. on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical
procedure because:
a. The Pt. is more susceptible to infection.
b. Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids.
c. Antibiotics inhibit herksheimer reaction.
d. Antibiotics protect the Pt. from steroid depletion.
29. The post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a. Secondary hemorrhage.
b. Swelling.
c. Pain.
d. Alveolar osteitis.

30. If the oral tissues are inflamed and traumatized, impression for making a new
denture:
a. Should be started immediately in order to prevent further deterioration.
b. The occlusion of the existing denture is adjusted, and tissue condition material is applied and periodically
replaced until the tissues are recovered then making impression takes place.
c. The Pt. is cautioned to remove the denture out at night.
d. a & b are correct.
e. All of the above are correct.
31. Polyether impression materials:

a. Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber.
b. Are less stiff than polysulfide rubber.
c. Can absorb water and swell if stored in water.
32. The indication for the use of lingual plate major connector includes:
a. For the purpose of retention.
b. When the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus.
c. To prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth.
33. Lingual plate:

a. Shallow sulcus.
b. Mobile anterior teeth.
c. Deep sulcus.
d. a+b
e. All of above.
34. Lingual bar contraindication except :

a- Shallow lingual sulcus.
b- Long lingual frenum.
c- Too crowded lower anterior teeth.
d- Mobile anterior teeth.
35. Lingual bar indication:

a- short lingual frenum.
b- deep lingual sulcus.
c- too crowded lower anterior teeth.
d- all of the above.
36. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of major connector

depends on:
a. Height of lingual attachment.
b. Mandibular tori.
c. Periodontal condition of remaining teeth.
37. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:

a. Abutment teeth are not carious.
b. An abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound.
c. There is considerable resorption of the residual ridges.
d. Crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession.
38. In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous patient. The
physiological rest dimension:
a. Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion.
b. May be exceeded if the appearance of the patient is enhanced.
c. Is of little importance as it is subject to variations.
d. Must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion.
39. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular removable
partial denture, a Pt. complained of a sensitive abutment tooth, clinical
examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth, the most likely cause is:
a. Defective occlusion.
b. Exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal rest seats.
c. Galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration in the abutment tooth.
40. Pt. with lower complete denture, intraoral examination shows slightly
elevated lesion with confirmed border, Pt. history of ill fitting denture.
It is treated by:
a. Immediate surgical removal.
b. Instruct Pt. not to use denture for 3 weeks then follow up.
c. Reassure Pt. and no need for treatment.
41. Examination of residual ridge for edentulous Pt. before construction of

denture determines stability, support and retention related to the ridge:
a. True.
b. False.
42. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly Pt. for construction of

lower denture, easily displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of ridge.
Management:
a. Minor surgery is needed.
b. Inform the pt. that retention of denture will decrease.
c. Special impression technique is required.
43. In recording man-max relation, the best material used without

producing pressure is:
a. Wax.
b. Compound.
c. Bite registration paste.
* Bite registration paste as zinc oxide euginol paste.
44. The posterior seal in the upper complete denture serves the following functions:
a. It reduces pt. discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the posterior end of
the denture base.
b. Retention of the maxillary denture.
c. It compensates for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during processing.
d. b & c are correct.
45. Function of post dam: ( PPS )

a. Prevents tongue from palate touch increase comfort.
b. increases retention.

c. to compensate acrylic dimension.
d. all.

* posterior seal = posterior palatal seal = post dam = pps.
46. In recording jaw relation, best to use:

a. Occlusal rim with record base.
b. Occlusal rim with base wax.
c. Occlusal rim with nacial frame.
47. During 3/4 crown preparation on premolar, bur used to add retentive
grooves is:
a. Radial fissure.
b. Tapered fissure.
48. The goal of construction of occlusion rims is:

1. To obtain the occlusal plane, vertical dimension, tentative centric relation, face bow transfer & placement
of the teeth.
2. To obtain the protrusive condylar guidance.
3. To obtain the lateral condylar posts and incisal guide.
4. None.
49. A temporary form representing the base of a denture

which is used for making maxillo-manibular jaw relative record for
arranging teeth or for trail insertion in the mouth is:
1. Bite rims.
2. Custom tray.
3. Set up.
4. Base plate.
50. To recheck centric relation in complete denture:

a. Ask Pt. to open and close.
b. Ask Pt. to place tip of tongue in posterior area and close.
c. To wet his lip and tongue.
51. Recent years, there has been an evidence that the prevalence and intensity of the
caries attack has been diminished in the more economically developed countries,
mainly because of the wide spread use of:
a. Artificial water fluoridation.
b. Fluoride toothpaste.
c. Dental health education programs.
d. a & c.
52. Cost effective method to prevent dental caries:

a. water fluoridation.
b. flouridated tooth paste.

53. In recent years, caries reduced in developed countries mainly due to:
A. Water fluoridation.
B. Fluoride toothpaste.
C. Dental health education programs.
D. Individualized oral hygiene care.
54. In terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective
method is:
a. Community based programs.
b. Individually based programs.
method is:
a. Community based programs.
b. Private based programs.
56. The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it
relates to the concentration are:
a. Greater.
b. Less.
c. The same.
57. When does child should be first exposed for using tooth brush:
a. As eruption of first tooth.
b. One year old.
c. Two years old.
d. Primary school year.
58. When a child must first exposed to the use of the tooth brush:
a- Of age of 2 years.
b- Of age of 4 years.
c- Immediately after eruption of first tooth.
59. When a child must first exposed to the use of the tooth brush:
a- Of age of 2 years.
b- Of age of 4 years.
c- After eruption of primary teeth.
60. When tooth paste is used, the child is advised:

a- not swallow.
b- swallow a small amount.
c- do not rinse.
d- none.
61. Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is:

a. Recommended.
b.Not recommended.
c. Common.
d.Non of above.

62. Fluoride which we use in the clinic doesn’t cause fluorosis because:
a. It's not the same fluoride that cause fluorosis.
b. Teeth already calcified.
c. Calcium in the mouth counter.
d. Saliva wasn’t out.
63. Mentally ill child, the best way to apply fluoride:

a. Acidulated phosphate fluoride.
b.Natural sodium fluoride.
c. Fluoride varnish.
d. Stannous fluoride.

64. Fluoride decreases dental caries by remineralization of enamel:

a. True.
b. False.
65. Person drinking fluoridated water, using toothbrush with fluoride,

rinsing with fluoride mouthwash, then no need to put pit and fissure
sealants in his permanent teeth:
a. True.
b. False.
66. Dental fluorosis:

a. Is indicative of systemic fluorosis.
b. Can be contracted at any age.
c. Becomes less noticeable with age.
d. Is reversible.
e. Is largely preventable.
67. Fluorides are most anticaries effective when:

a. Incorporated in the tooth enamel.
b. Present in the blood stream.
c. Present in the plaque and tissue fluids bathing the newly erupted tooth.
d. Present in the ingested foods.
e. Present on the intraoral mucous membranes.
68. Fluoride is not taken up systemically from which of the following sources:
a. Water.
b. Food.
c. Dentifrices.
d. Topical applications of fluoride.
69. Fluoride reduces caries activity by:

a. Reduces bacterial adhesion and carbohydrate storage (antimicrobial activity).
b. Enhances the precipitation of insoluble fluoroapitite into the tooth structure.
c. Fluoride enhances remineralization of the noncavitated carious lesions.
e. b & c.
70. Communities with high annual population growth need education about:
a. Caries.
10 | P a g e All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

b. Perio disease.
c. Dentofacial anomalies.
d. Dental fluorosis.
71. Optima water fluoridation:

a) 1-1.5 mg\liter.
b) 0.2-0.5 mg\liter.
C) 2-3 mg\liter.

a) 1 mg\liter.
C) 2-3 mg\liter.
d) 0.5 mg\liter.

a) 0.5 – 0.8 mg\liter.
C) 2-3 mg\liter.
d) 1-5 mg\liter.
74. Acidulated phosphate fluoride:

a- 1% fluoride ions.
b- 1.23%.
c- 2%.
d- 2.23%.
f- 3%.
75. Actual destruction of micro-organisms in the root canal is attributed mainly to:
a. Proper antibiotic thereby.
b. Effective use of medicament.
c. Mechanical preparation and irrigation of the canal.
d. None of the above.
76. A tooth very painful to percussion, doesn’t respond to heat,

cold or the electric pulp tester. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Reversible pulpitis.
b. Irreversible pulpitis.
c. Acute apical periodontitis.

77. During post insertion examination of a 3 unit ceramometal fixed partial denture.
One of the retainers showed chipping of porcelain at the ceramometal junction. In
order to avoid the problem, the dentist must:
a. Reduce the metal to 0.3 mm.
b. Have uniform porcelain thickness.
c. Have occlusion on metal.
d. Keep porcelain metal junction away from centric contacts.
78. What is a pier abutment?

a. Single tooth holding one pontic.
b. A tooth that supports a removable partial denture.
c. All of the above.
79. Which are the ways in which the proximal contacts can be checked?
a. Use a pencil.
b. Use a shim stock.
c. Use a silicone checker.
d. Use a dental floss.
e. Only b & d.
80. The incisal reduction for a metal ceramic restoration should be:
a. 1.5 mm.
b. 2 mm.
c. 3 mm.
d. 4 mm.
81. The occlusal reduction for an all metal veneer crown should:
a. Be as flat as possible to enable an easy fabrication of occlusion anatomy.
b. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance rating from 1 to 1.5 mm with the opposing dentition.
c. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance of no more than 0.5 mm with the opposing dentition.
d. Be the last step in the tooth preparation.
82. Gingival retraction is done:

a. To temporarily expose the finish margin of a preparation.
b. To accurately record the finish margin of a portion of uncut tooth surface apical to the margin in the
final impression.
c. Even in the presence of a gingival inflammation.
d. By various methods but the most common one is the use of retraction cord.
e. a and b.
f. a, b and c.
g. a, b and d.
83. Regarding tissue retraction around tooth:

a. Short duration of retraction of gingival margin during preparation of finishing
line.
b. Retraction of gingival margin during taking final impression to take all details of
unprepared finish line.
c. Usually retracted severely inflamed gingival margin.
d. Retraction of gingival margin can be done by many ways one of them is retraction
cord.
e. a, b and c.
f. b, c and d.
g. a and d.
84. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class II amalgam cavity should be
removed using:
a. Straight chisel.
b. Hatchet.
c. Gingival curette.
d. Gingival marginal trimmer.

85. Removal of undermined enamel in class II cavity is done by :
A) Chisel.
B) Angle former.
C) Excavator.
86. Hand instrument which we used to make internal angles retentive grooves and
preparation of cavity walls in the cavity is:
a. Angle former.
b. Chisel.
c. File.
d. Enamel hatched.
87. What is the cavo-surface angle of preparation for amalgam restoration:

a. 30 degree.
b. 60 degree.
c. 90 degree.
d. 130 degree.
88. To provide maximum strength of amalgam restoration the cavo-surface angles

should:
1. Approach 75 with outer surface.
2. Approach 90 with outer surface.
3. Be supported by sound dentine.
4. Be located in area free of occlusal stress.
a) 1+3+4.
b) 1+3.
c) 2+3+4.
d) 3+4.
89. Which of the following materials has been shown to simulate reparative dentine
formation most effectively when applied to the pulpal wall of a very deep cavity:
a. Copalite varnish.
b. Calcium hydroxide preparation.
c. Zinc phosphate cement.
d. Anhydrous glass inomer cement.
90. Calcium hydroxide is the best pulp capping material because:

1. It has best seal over pulp.
2. It is alkaline + less irritating to pulp.
3. It induces reparation dentine formation.
91. The most accurate impression material for making the impression of an onlay
cavity:
a. Impression compound.
b. Condensation type silicone.
c. Polyvinyl siloxane.
d. Polysulfide.
92. Patient came to dentist after previous stressful procedure complaining

of burning & discomfort of his lip on examination u found lesions on the
palate, diagnosis is:
a- contact dermatitis.
b- allergy.
c- aphthous ulcer.
d- herpes simplex.

93. : ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﺎﺿﻲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﺎﻡم‬ ‫ ﺗﻜﺮﺭرﺕت‬ ‫ ﻧﻔﺴﻬﮭﺎ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻋﺮﺍاﺽض‬ ‫ ﺃأﻥن‬ ‫ ﺫذﻛﺮ‬ ‫ ﻣﻊ‬ ‫ ﻣﺸﺎﺑﻪﮫ‬ ‫ ﺁآﺧﺮ‬ ‫ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل‬
a. aphthous ulcer.
b.recurrent herpes ulcer.
c. allergic stomatitis.
94. Aphthous ulcer, compared with herbes ulcer is:

a. More characteristic in histology.
b. Leaves scar.
c. Less response to stress.
d. Occurs in lining mucosa.
95. Syphilis first appearance:

a. Multiple vesicle.
b. Erythematous reaction.
c. Ulcer.
d. Bullae.

96. Child with vesicles on the hard palate with history of malaise for 3 days
what is the possible diagnosis:
1/ herpes simplex.
2/ erythema multiform.
97. Which virus is present in the patient's mouth all his life?
a. Herpes simplex.
b. Herpes zoster.
c. Varecilla virus.

* Virus is present in the patient's body all his life is infeluenza virus that caused by
herpes simples virus.
98. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from:
a. Improper cavity preparation.
b. Faulty manipulation.
c. Both of the above.
99. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics:
a. Microleakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.
b. It is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations.
c. High dimensional changes.

d. a, b and c.
e. a and c.
f. a and b.
g. b only.
100. When polishing the amalgam restoration:

a. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.
b. Wait 24 hours.
c. a and b.
d. b only.
e. a only.
101. Maximum time elapsed before condensation of amalgam after titration:

a. 1minute.
b. 3minutes.
c. 9minutes.
102. After amalgam titrations, the mix should be placed within :

a. 1 min.
b. 3 min.
c. 5 min.
d. 10 min.
103. MOD amalgam restoration with deep mesial box, Pt. come with pain
related to it after 1 month due to:
a. Pulp involvement.
b. Supraocclusion.
c. Upon contact.
d. Gingival recession.
104. Reduction in amalgam restoration should be:

a. 1 - 1.5 mm.
b. 1.5 - 2 mm.
c. 2 - 3 mm.
d. 3 - 5 mm.
105. Depth of amalgam restoration should be:

1. 1 – 1.5 mm.
2. 1.5 – 2 mm.
3. 2 – 3 mm.
4. 3 – 5 mm.
106. Silicate cement:

a. First tooth colored restoration.
b. It can be used as permanent filling.
c. It contains 15 % fluoride.
d. a, b and c.
e. a and b.
f. a and c.
g. A only.
107. Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly:

a. To advice the patient to change their faulty habits immediately.
b. Reassure the patient that it will disappear by it self.
c. To buy a new brush.

108. Which of the following statement is true regarding dental

calculus:
a. It is composed entirely of inorganic material.
b. It is dens in nature and has a rough surface.
c. It is mineralized dental plaque.
e. b & c only.
f. None of the above.
* entirely = completely ‫ﻛﻠﻴﯿﺎ‬

Dental calculus consists not completely of inorganic materials as it
consists of inorganic & organic materials.
109. Overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:

a. It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation.
b. It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss.
c. Stimulate inflammatory reaction directly.
d. Its removal permits more effective plaque control.
e. a & d.
110. Main use of dental floss:

a. Remove calculus.
b. Remove overhang.
c. Remove bacterial plaque.
d. Remove food debris.
111. What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water:

A) Plaque removal.
B) calculus removal.
C) washing the food debris.
112. What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water:

a. Plaque removal.
b.Prevent the formation of plaque.
c. Dilute the concentration of bacteria.
113. The water rins devices for periodontal therapy has a main goal which
is:
a- remove plaque.
b- prevent plaque attachment.
c- dilute bacterial toxin.
d- remove dental pocket.

114. One of these is less exposed to extensive dental caries:
a- Obes, malnourished.
b- Pt. has xerostomia.
c- Less plaque score.
115. Calculus induces further periodontal lesion due to:

a) Directly stimulates inflammation.
b) more plaque adhere to it.
c) irritate the gingiva.
116. Missing lower six and tilted 7:

a- Uprighting of molar by orthodontics.
b- Proximal half crown.
c- Telescope crown.
d- Non rigid connector.
‫ ﺳﺒﻖ ﺑﺲ ﻟﻮ ﺟﻪﮫ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻛﺪﻩه ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻷﺧﻴﯿﺮ ﻭوﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ‬ ‫ ﻣﺎ‬ ‫ ﻛﻞ‬ ‫ ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬ ‫ ﻭوﺟﻮﺩد‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﺠﺐ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺎﻟﻲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﺟﻊ‬ ‫ﺣﺴﺐ‬
. ‫ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺢ‬
Oxford handbook, 3rd edition, page 303
117. Floss used to:

a. Remove interproximal plaque.
b. Remove overhangs.
c. Stimulate gingival.
118. Plaque consists of:

a. Bacteria.
b. Inorganic material.
c. Food.

119. To prevent perio problem, most effective method is:
a. Community program.
b. Removal of plaque.
c. Patient education.
d. Water floridation.
120. Length of pins must be equals in both tooth and restoration by a depth of:
a. 1 mm.
b. 2 mm.
c. 3 mm.
d. 4 mm.
121. Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for:

a. Increase retention.
b. Increase resistance.
c. Increase strength.
d. a and b.
* stainless steel pins are used mainly in amalgam to enhance:

1- retention. ***
2- strength.
3- resistance form.
4- all of the above.
Pins increase both retention and resistance forms

but mainly the retention.
Post ‫ﻭوﻧﻔﺲ ﺍاﻟﻜﻼﻡم ﻣﻊ ﺍاﻟﺒﻮﺳﺖ‬
122. Calcium channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion:

a. True.
b. False.
123. RCT contraindicated in:

a. Vertical fracture of root.
b. Diabetic Pt.
c. Periodontally involved teeth.

124. What can we use under composite restoration:

a. Ca (oh).
b. ZOE.
c. ZINC phosphate cement.
d. a and c
125. Gutta percha contains mainly:

a. Gutta percha 20 %.
b. ZINC oxide 66 %.
c. ZINC phosphate.
126. Single rooted anterior tooth has endodontic treatment is best treated by:
a. Casted post and core.
b. Performed post and composite.
c. Performed post and amalgam.
d. Composite post and core.
127. Post fracture decreases with:

a. prefabricated post.
b. ready made post.
c. casted post.
d. metal post.
128. Teeth with RCT and you want to use post, which post is the least cause
to tooth fracture:
1. Ready made post.
2. Casted post.
3. Fiber post.
4. Prefabricated post.
129. During post removal the first thing to do is:

A) Remove the G.P.
B) Remove all the old restoration, undermined enamel & caries.
C) Insertion of post immediately.
130. For root canal treated tooth u choose to put post & amalgam this
depends on:
a. remaining coronal structure.
b. root divergence.
c. presence of wide root.
d. others.
131. Post length increasing will:

a. increase retention.
b. increase resistance.
c. increase strength of restoration.
132. For post preparation we should leave …… mm of GP:

a. 2mm.
b. 10mm.
c. 5mm.
* 4 – 5 mm.
133. Which of the following endodontic failure may be retreated only with
surgery:
a. Missed major canal.
b. Persistent interappointment pain.
c. Post and core.
d. Short canal filling.
134. Which of the following failure may be treated nonsurgically:

a. Post filling that has removed.
b. Severe apical perforation.
c. Very narrow canal with a periapical lesion and the apex can not be reached.
135. In post and core preparation must:

a. Extend to contrabevel.
b. Extend to full length tooth preparation.
c. Take same shape of natural tooth.
d. Take shape of preparation abutment.

e. a & d.
f. a & b.
g. d & c.
h. b & c.
136. After RCT, for insertion of post dowel:

a. Post applied pressure.
b. Post should be lose.
c. Insert it without pressure but with retention.
137. Amount of GP should after post preparation:

a. 1 mm.
b. 4-5 mm.
c. 10 mm.
138. Post retention depends on:
a. Post length.
b. Post diameter.
c. Post texture.
d. Core shape.
e. Design of the preparation.
f. a and b
g. a, b and c.
h. All of the above.
139. The best restoration for maxillary central incisor that has received
RCT through conservatively prepared access opening would be:
a. Post-retained metal-ceramic crown.
b. Post-retained porcelain jacket crown.
c. Composite resin.
140. One of anatomical land marks in determining the posterior occlusal plane
during denture construction is :
a. Ala tragus line.
b. Ala orbital.
c. Frankfort plane.
141. The PH of the calcium hydroxide is:

a. 7.2
b. 12
c. 19
d. 5.5

142. Hyperemia results in: :‫ﺗﺆﺩدﻯى ﺍاﻟﻰ‬

a. Trauma of occlusion.
b. Pain of short duration.
c. Radiographic changes.
d. All of above.

143. Tooth had trauma resulted in hyperemia?
a) pain increased with cold.
b) reversible condition.
c) pain of short duration.
d) b and c.
e) all.
144. The x- ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior teeth is:
a. Periapical x-ray.
b. Bitewing x-ray.
c. Occlusal x-ray.
145. In primary teeth, pathologic changes in radiographs are always seen in:
a. Periapical area.
b. Furcation area.
c. Alveolar crest.
d. At base of developing teeth.
146. Pulpitis in deciduous teeth in radiograph seen related to:

a. furcation.
b. apex of root.
c. lateral to root.
147. In deciduous tooth, the first radiographic changes will be

seen in:
1. Bifurcation area.
2. Apical area.
3. External root resoption.

‫* ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﺃأﻛﺪ ﺃأﻥن ﺍاﻟﻤﻘﺼﻮﺩد ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺍاﻟﺘﻐﻴﯿﺮﺍاﺕت ﺍاﻟﺘﻰ ﺗﺤﺪﺙث ﻣﻊ ﻅظﻬﮭﻮﺭر ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﺪﺍاﺋﻤﺔ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻨﻴﯿﺔ ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﺫذﺍا‬
‫ﻟﻢ ﻳﯾﺬﻛﺮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺃأﻧﻪﮫ ﻳﯾﻘﺼﺪ ﺍاﻟﺘﻐﻴﯿﺮﺍاﺕت ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﺿﻴﯿﺔ ﺃأﻭو ﻟﻢ ﻳﯾﺬﻛﺮ ﻣﺮﺽض ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻌﺼﺐ‬
‫ﻓﺘﻜﻮﻥن ﺍاﻟﺘﻐﻴﯿﺮﺍاﺕت ﺍاﻟﺘﻰ ﺗﺤﺪﺙث ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺫذﻭوﺑﺎﻥن ﺟﺬﻭوﺭر ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻨﻴﯿﺔ‬
( External root resoption )
148. Eruption cyst "eruption hematoma" can be treated by:

a. No treatment.
b. Immediate incision.
c. Complete uncoverage.
d. Observe for one week then incise.

149. After trauma, a tooth becomes yellowish in color, this is due to:
a. Necrotic pulp.
c. Pulp is partially or completely obliterated.
d. Hemorrhage in the pulp.
150. Step deformity of the mandibular body fracture may due to:
a. Forward pull of lateral pterygoid muscle.
b. Upward pull of masseter and temporalis.
c. Toward pull of medial pterygoid muscle.
d. Downward pull of geniohyoid and mylohyoid.
151. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:

a. 2% copper.
b. 4% copper.
c. 10 % copper.
d. 13 % copper.
152. To prevent discoloration under amalgam filling:

1. use Zn phosphate box.
2. use cavity varnish.
3. wash the cavity with NaoCL before filling.
4. use the correct amalgam-alloy ratio.
153. Inorganic materials in bone compromise:

a. 65%.
b. 25%.
c. 10%.
d. 95%.
154. Polishing bur have:

a. Less than 6 blades.
b. 6-7 blades.
c. 10-12 blades.
d. More than 12 blades.
155. Pain during injection of local anesthesia in children could be minimized by:
a. Slowly injection.
b. Talking to the child during injection.
c. Using long needle.
d. a and b.
156. Rubber dam is contraindicated in:

a. Pt. with obstructive nose.
b. Mentally retarded Pt.
c. Uncomparative child.
d. a and b.
157. With children rubber dam not use with:

a- Hyperactive patient.

b- obstructive nose.
c- patient with fixed orthoappliance.
d- mildly handicapped and uncooperative.
158. The most common type of biopsy used in oral cavity is:
a. Excisional biopsy.
b. Incisional biopsy.
c. Aspiration through needle.
d. Punch biopsy.
159. In maxillary 1st molar 4th canal is found in:

a. MB canal.
b. DB canal.
c. Palatal root.
160. Formicrisol when used should be:

a. Full Saturated.
b. Half saturated.
c. Fifth saturated.

161. 10 years old child presents with bilateral swelling of submandibular area,
what could be the disease:
a. Fibrous dysphasia.
b. Cherubism.
c. Polymorphic adenoma.
162. Pt. complains from pain in 45 which had gold onlay. The pain could be due
to:
a. Chemicals from cement.
b. High thermal conductivity of gold.
c. Related to periodontal ligament.
d. Cracked tooth or fractured surface.
163. The irrigation solution is good because:

a. Lubricate the canals.
b. Flushes the debris.
c. None of the above.
164. Which is the most common:

a. Cleft lip.
b. Cleft palate.
c. Bifid tongue.
d. Cleft lip and palate.
165. Which cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses:
a. Trigeminal n V.
b. Facial n VII.
c. Vagus n IX.
d. Vestibalcochealer n VII.
166. 21 years old Pt. with pathological exposure in 35. Management:

a. Direct pulp capping.
b. Indirect pulp capping.
c. Root canal treatment.
167. Hypercementosis:
a. Occur in Pajet disease.
b. Difficult to extract.
c. Bulbous root.
d. Easy to manage by elevator.
e. a and b.
f. a and d.
g. All the above.
168. Hypercementosis:
a. Occur in Pajet disease.
b. Difficult to extract.
c. Bulbous root.
d. Easy to extract by elevator.
e. a and b.
f. a and d.
g. a + b + c.
h. All the above.
169. For onlay preparation, reduction of functioning cusp should be:

a. 1.5 mm.
b. 2 mm.
c. 1 mm.
170. Thickness of porcelain should be:

a. 0.3 - 0.5 mm.
b. 0.05 - 0.15 mm.
c. 0.5 - 1.5 mm.
171. Thickness of porcelain should be:

a. 0.3 - 0.5 mm.
b. 0.05 - 0.15 cm.
c. 0.5 - 1.5 cm.

* 0.05 ‫ ــ‬0.15 cm. = 0.5 ‫ ــ‬1.5 mm.

‫ ﺭرﻛﺰ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﻣﻜﺘﻮﺏب ﺳﻢ ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﻣﻢ ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻣﻤﻜﻦ ﺍاﻟﻮﺍاﺣﺪ ﻳﯾﺘﻠﺨﺒﻂ ﺑﺴﻬﮭﻮﻟﺔ ﺟﺪﺍا ﺑﻤﺠﺮﺩد ﺍاﻧﻪﮫ‬ *
‫ﻳﯾﺒﺺ ﻉع ﺍاﻻﺭرﻗﺎﻡم ﻭوﻣﻴﯿﺎﺧﺪﺵش ﺑﺎﻟﻮ ﻣﻦ ﻭوﺣﺪﺓة ﺍاﻟﻘﻴﯿﺎﺱس ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻣﻔﺮﻭوﺽض ﺑﺎﻟﻤﻢ ﺑﺲ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﺟﺎﺑﻬﮭﺎ‬
. ‫ﻣﺴﺎﻭوﻳﯾﺔ ﺑﺎﻟﺴﻢ‬

172. Class II composite resin is lined by:
a. G.I.
b. Reinforced ZOE.
c. ZOE with epoxy cement.
d. Cavity varnish.

173. Occlusal plane is:

a. Above the level of the tongue.
b. Below the level of the tongue.

174. Lateral pterygoid muscle has how many origin:

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 5.
d. 7.

175. Embryo becomes fetus in: : ‫ ﺟﻨﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﺇإﻟﻰ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻀﻐﺔ‬ ‫ﺗﺘﺤﻮﻝل‬

a. 1st week.
b. 1st month.
c. 2nd month.
d. 3rd month.

176. All are single bones in the skull except:

a. Lacrimal.
b. Occipital.
c. Sphenoid.
d. Parietal.
177. The scientific evidence in dictating that oral lichen planus is a "premalignant
lesion" is:
a. Very strong.
b. Non-existent.
c. Moderately strong.
d. Weak.
178. Oral lesions of lichen planus usually appear as:

a. White striae.
b. Red plaque.
c. Shallow ulcers.
d. Papillary projections.
e. Bullae.
* White striae: ‫ ﺑﻴﯿﻀﺎء‬ ‫ﺧﻄﻮﻁط‬ "Wickham striae".
179. The oral lesions of the lichen planus:

a. Are usually painful.
b. Rarely appear before lesion elsewhere on the body.
c. May be part of a syndrome in which lesions also appear on the skin, conjunctiva and genitalia.
d. Often appear in nervous and high-strung individuals.
e. Heals with scarring.

180. All of the following are oral features of acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome AIDS except:
a. Candidiasis.
b. Erythema multiform.
c. Hairy leukoplakia.
d. Rapidly progressing periodontitis.
e. Kaposi's sarcoma.

non of the above ‫ ﻟﻮ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬ *
‫ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻧﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻷﻥن ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﺃأﻳﯾﻀﺎ ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﻌﻼﻣﺎﺕت ﺍاﻟﻔﻤﻴﯿﺔ ﻋﻠﻰ ﻭوﺟﻮﺩد ﻣﺮﺽض ﺍاﻻﻳﯾﺪﺯز ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ‬
. ‫ﺗﻮﺍاﺟﺪﻫﮬﮪھﺎ ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﺑﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﻗﻠﻴﯿﻠﺔ ﻟﺬﻟﻚ ﻟﻮ ﺟﻪﮫ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺑﺎﻟﻄﺮﻳﯾﻘﺔ ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻘﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ‬

181. Hairy trichoglossia may be caused by:

a. Broad spectrum antibiotic.
b. H2o2 mouth wash.
c. Systemic steroid.
d. Heavy smokers.
182. In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in length:

a. Filli form.
b. Fungi form.
c. Foliate.
d. Circumvallates.
183. Coronal suture is between:

a. Occipital and temporal bones.
b. Frontal and parietal bones.
c. Occipital and tympanic bones.
184. During instrumentation, sudden disappear of root canal due to:

a. Bifurcation of main canal.
b. Apical perforation.
c. Calcification.

185. Space loss occurs in:
a. Proximal caries.
b. Early extraction.
c. Ankylosis.
186. What is the number of pharyngeal "branchial" arches:

a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 7.

187. What is the name of first pharyngeal "branchial" arch:
a. Maxillary.
b. Mandibular.
c. Thyroid.
d. Hyoid.
188. Stomodeum and fugi ( fore-gut ) separated by:

1/ buccopharyngeal arch.
2/ ectodermal cleft.
* buccopharyngeal arch = buccopharyngeal membrane.
189. In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is:

a. 1/2 inter cuspal distance.
b. 1/3 inter cuspal distance.
c. 2/3 inter cuspal distance.
190. Polyvinyl siloxanes compared with polysulfide:

a. Can be poured more than once.
b. Can be poured after 7 days.
c. Less dimensional stability.
d. a and b.
191. The most accurate impression material for making impression of an

oral cavity is:
a- impression compound.
b condensation type silicon.
c- polyvinyl siloxanes.
d- polysulfide.
192. Hand over mouth technique is used in management of which child:

a. Mentally retarded.
b. Positive resistance.
c. Uncooperative.
d. Hysterical.
193. Pits and fissures sealants are indicated in:

a. Deep Pits and fissures.
b. Newly erupted teeth.
c. a and b.
194. Pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and
fissures:
a. In primary teeth.
b. In permanent teeth.
c. a & b.

195. The rationale ‫ﺍاﻟﻤﻨﻄﻘﻰ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﺳﺎﺱس‬for pits and fissures sealants in caries
prevention is that they:
a. Increase the tooth resistance to dental caries.
b. Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and the oral environment.
c. Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria.
d. None of the above answers is correct.
196. Teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show:
a. The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed.
b. Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth.
c. Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth.
d. The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant.
197. Pit and fissure sealant:

a. New erupted teeth.
b. Deep fissure and pits in molars.
c. Proximal caries.
d. a & b.
198. 14 years old patient all first molars carious and suspected pit and fissure areas of
the second molars. Treatment plan:
a. Restore all first molars and observe second molars.
B. Restore all first molars and topical fluoride on second molars.
C. Restore all first molars and seal pits and fissures of second molars.
d. Restore first and second molars with composite.
E. Restore first and second molars with amalgam.
199. Most tooth surface affected by caries:

a) Pit and fissure.
b) Root surface.
C) Proximal surface.
200. Pit & fissure least effective with:

a/ tweny-four month year.
b/ primary molar.
c/ 2nd molar.
201. Pit & fissure least effective with:

a/ tweny-four month year.
b/ primary molar.
c/ 2nd primary molar.
d/ 5 years old child.
202. Procedure done before applying pit & fissure sealant:

a- Acid etch by phosphoric acid.
b- flouride.
203. Success of pit & fissure sealants is affected mainly by:

1) increased time of etching.
2) contamination of oral saliva.
3) salivary flow rate.
4) proper fissure sealant.
204. Management of knife edge ridge in complete denture:

a. Reline with resilient material.
b. Maximum coverage.
c. Wide occlusal label.
205. The antibiotic of choice in pregnant:

a. Metronidazole.
b. Penicillin.
c. Tetracycline.
206. Verrucous carcinoma:

a. Malignant.
b. Benign.
c. Hyperplastic.
d. Non of above.
207. Suture commonly used in oral cavity:

a. Black silk.
b. Cat gut.
c. Chromic.

208. In combined endo-perio problem:

a. Start with endodontic IX.
b. Start with periodontic IX.
209. Tooth fracture during extraction may be occur due to:

a. Non vital tooth.
b. Diabetic Pt.
c. Improper holding by forceps.
d. a and c.

210. Caries consists of:

a. Bacteria.
b. Fluid.
c. Epithelial cells.

211. Amount of reduction in PFM crown:

a. 1.5 - 2.
b. 1.7 - 2.
c. 2 - 5.

212. AH26 is a root canal sealer consists of:

a. ZOE.
b. Epoxy resin.
213. Patient comes to your clinic complaining that the denture become
tight, during examination you notice nothing, but when the patient stand
you notice that his legs are bowing ( curved ). What you suspect:
A) Paget’s disease.
B) Down’s syndrome.
C) Bone arthiritis.
214. The most prevalent primary molar relationship: ‫ﺍاﻟﺸﺎﺋﻌﺔ‬

a- Flush terminal plane.
b- Mesial step terminal plane.
c- Distal step terminal plane.

215. In primary teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme is: ‫ﺍاﻟﻤﺜﺎﻟﻴﯿﺔ‬

a. Flush terminal.
b. Mesial step.
c. Distal step.
* BUT: in permanent teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme is mesial step and the prevalent
is the flush terminal.
216. When you give a child a gift for a good behavior this is called:
a. Positive reinforcement.
b. Negative reinforcement.
217. In distal extension pd. during relining, occlusal rest was not seated:
a. Remove impression and repeat it.
b. Continue and seat it after relining.
c. Use impression compound.
218. After taking alginate impression:

a. Wash with water and spray with sodium hydrochloride for 10 sec.
b. Same but wait 5-10 min. and then put in sealed plastic bag.
219. Many parts of bones are originally cartilaginous that replaced by bone:
a. True.
b. False.
220. Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth:

a. MB root appears distal to P if cone is directed M to D.
b. DB root appears mesial to P if cone is directed M to D.

221. Occlusal plane should be:
a. Parallel to interpupillary line.
b. Parallel to ala tragus line.
c. At least tongue is just above occlusal plane.
222. Pt. comes for check up, no complaining, after radiograph u see well
circumscribed radiolucent area in related to mandibular molar & the
periphery was radiopaque which not well defined border the diagnosis
is:
A. simple bone cyst.
B. aneurismal bone cyst.
C. stafine bone cyst.
223. Scallopped border above inferior alveolar canal between roots of

mandibular molars, this lesion is:
a) Solitary cyst.
b) Aneurysmal bone cyst.
c) Traumatic bone cyst.

224. Cyst between roots of mandibular molars, above the mandibular canal
has scallopped border above inferior alveolar canal, on inspiration
straw like exudate, the teeth were vital, no periodontal involvment this
lesion is:
a. static bone cyst.
b. stafine bone cyst.
c. aneurismal bone cyst.
d. unicameral bone cyst.
*** Unicameral bone cysts = traumatic bone cyst = simple bone cyst = solitary bone
cyst = hemorrhagic bone cyst = progressive bone cyst
= idiopathic bone cyst = Idiopathic bone cavity.
225. Radiographic radioulucency in the interradicular area:

a. Invasion of furcation.
b. Periodontal abcess.
c. Periodontal cyst.
226. Mental foramen appears in radiograph as radiolucent round area in

the area of:
a. Mandibular premolars.
b.Mandibular incisors.
c. Maxillary canine.
227. Radiographic diagnosis of a well-defined, unilocular

radiolucent area between vital mandibular bicuspids is
more likely to be:
a. Residual cyst.
b. Mental foramen.
c. Radicular cyst.
d. Osteoporosis.
e. None of the above.
228. Which cyst is not radiolucent?

a. Globulomaxillary cyst.
b. Follicular cyst. ( = Dentigerous cyst ).
c. Dentigerous cyst.
d. Nasopalatine cyst.
e. Non of the above.
229. Radiolucent are cover the pericornal part of the 3rd molar is:
a- Dentigerous cyst.
b- Central cyst.
230. Cyst in x- ray:

1. Radiolucent with bone expansion.
2. Radiolucent with bone resorption.
231. Which of the following lesions has more tendency

to show well defined multilocular radiolucency:
a. Lateral periodontal cyst.
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones.
c. Primordial cyst.
d. Ameloblastoma.
e. Osteomylitis of the mandible.

232. Radiographic diagnosis of bone destruction in the
mandible without evidence of bone formation is:
a. Osteomyelitis.
b. Malignancy.
c. Fibro-osseous lesion.
d. Fracture.
e. osteoradionecrosis.

233. An 60 years old man has been treated for a squamous cell carcinoma by
radical radiotherapy. He has a history of chronic alcoholism and was a heavy
smoker. Six years after treatment, he develops a painful ulcer in the alveolar
mucosa in the treated area following minor trauma. His pain worsens and the
bone became progressively exposed. He is treated by a partial mandibular
resection with graft. The diagnosis is:
a. Acute osteomylitis.
b. Garre’s osteomylitis.
c. Osteoradionecrosis.
d. Chronic osteomylitis.
234. Osteoradionecrosis is more in:

a: maxilla.
b: mandible.
c: no difference.
235. Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansible

radiopaque areas in the canine premolar region of the
mandible is:
a. Hematoma.
b. Remaining roots.
c. Torus mandibularis.
d. Internal oplique ridge.
e. Genial tubercle.
236. In radiographs, which disease causes multiple radiolucencies:

a. Hypothyroidism.
b. Hyperparathyroidism.
c. Ricket disease.
237. The following are multilocular radiolucencies in x-ray except:

a. Ameloblastoma.
b. Odontogenic keratocyst.
c. Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst.
d. Myxoma.
238. 33 years old female Pt. comes with slow growing swelling
in the angle of the mandible. Radiograph shows radiopaque
with radiolucent border, diagnosis is:
a. Osteoma.
b. Osteosarcoma.
c. Ossifying fibroma.
d. Cementoblatoma.


239. Female with swelling in left of mandible, slowly
increasing, radiopaque surrounded by radiolucent
band:
a. Osteoma.
b. Ossifying fibroma.
c. Cementoblastoma.
d. Osteosarcoma.
240. Patient came to your clinic with severe pain, on x-ray

the right side of the mandible has a radiolucency with a
radiopaque border that resembles the sunshine rays. Your
diagnosis is:
A) Ossifying fibroma.
B) Osteosarcoma.
C) Acute osteomyelitis.
D) Cementoblastoma.
241. The most common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is:
a. Osteochondrosarcoma.
b. Osteosarcoma.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Chondrosarcoma.
242. Child 12 years old with swelling in the mandibular premolars area,
first premolar clinically missing, in x-ray examination, we found
radiolucency is cover the pericoronal part of the 3rd molar is:
1. Dentigerous cyst.
2. Promordial cyst.
3. Radicular cyst.
243. Osteomyelitis is more common in:

a. Maxilla.
b. Mandible.
c. Zygoma.
d. Nasal septum.
e. Condyle.
244. Diabetic patient came to clinic with pain, swelling &

enlarged mandible, on radiograph it showed moth eaten
appearance, your diagnosis is:
a) Acute osteomyelitis.
b) Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis.
c) Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis.
d) Diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis.

* Moth eaten appearance in: Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis.
* Cotton wool appearance in: Diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis.
245. Patient suffering from pain in the area of the mandibular

molars with paresthesia ( numbness ) in the lower lip. By clinical
and radiographic examination your diagnosis:
A) Acute osteomyelitis.
B) Ossifying fibroma.
C) Osteosarcoma.
246. The x-ray shows scattered radiopaque line in the

mandible jaw, the diagnosis will be:
A- Paget disease.
B- Garres syndrome.
C- Fibrous dysplasia.
D- Osteosarcoma.
247. 20 years old male pt. came with severe pain on chewing related to
lower molars. Intraoral examination reveals no caries, good oral
hygiene, no change in radiograph. Pt. gives history of bridge
cementation 3 days ago. Diagnosis:
a. Pulp necrosis.
b. Acute apical periodontitis.
c. Chronic apical abscess.
248. Pt. came with fracture because of blow in the right side of his
face. He has ecchymosis around the orbit in the right side only
and subjunctional bleeding in the maxillary buccal vestible
with limited mouth open what is ur diagnosis?
A- Le fort 1.
B- Lofort 2.
C- Lefort 3.
D- Zygomatic fracture.
249. Moon face appearance is not present in:

A. Le fort I.
B. Le fort II.
C. Le fort III
D. Zygomatic complex.
E. Le fort II and Le fort III.

250. Open bite is seen in:
a: lefort 2.
b: unilateral condyle fracture.
c: bilateral condyle fracture.
251. What is the first sign if there is fracture in the face?

1. Fluid paranasal.
2. Diastatic suture.
3. Overlap of bone.
4. All the above.
. ‫ ﻛﻠﻬﮭﻢ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩدﻳﯾﻦ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ‬.. ‫ * ﺑﺤﺜﺖ ﻛﺜﻴﯿﺮﺍا ﻭوﻭوﺟﺪﺕت ﺃأﻥن ﻣﻔﻴﯿﺶ ﻋﻼﻣﺔ ﺃأﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺔ‬

252. By aging, pulp tissue will:

a. Decrease in collagen fibers.
b. Increase cellularity and vascularity.
c. Decrease in size.
253. Complete blood count "CBC" is a laboratory test important in
dentistry:
a. True.
b. False.

254. Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on:

a. Good medical and dental history.
b. Proper clinical examination.
c. Result of pulp vitality test.
d. A periapical radiographs.

255. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points:
a. Boiling.
b. Autoclave.
c. Chemical solutions.
d. Dry heat sterilization.

256. To disinfect gutta percha points use:

1. h2o2.
2. 5.2% Naocl.
3. a & b.

* The GP points selected should be disinfected with Naocl, H2O2 or Chlorhexidine.

257. Most convenient and effective form of sterilization of dental
instruments:
a. Boiling.

b. Autoclave.
258. The role of good sterilization:

1. Washing, inspection, autoclave, drying, storage.
2. Inspection, autoclave, drying, storage.
3. Autoclave, drying, storage.
4. Autoclave is enough.
259. Protocol of sterilization:

A. Initial cleaning, inspection, cleaning, sterilization, storage.
260. Autoclave relative to 100f dry oven:

a) the same time.
b) slightly higher time.
c) considerable higher time.
d) less time.
261. What is the type of sterizliation applied on ligation / fixation wires:

A) Autoclave.
B) Oven.
C) Cleaning.
D) Another method.
262. Why the moisture heat sterilization is better than dry heat
sterilization:
A) Makes the instruments less rusty and blunt.
B) Needs more time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane.
C) Needs less time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane.
263. Autoclave principle:

a. Breaks the protein cell membrane at moderately low temp.
b. Breaks the protein cell membrane at very high temp.
264. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of autoclaving

endodontics instruments:
a. It can dull the sharp edges of instruments.
b. All forms of bacteria are not destroyed by it.
c. Compared to other technique it takes too long to sterilize.
265. The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the success of endodontic
therapy:
a. Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion.
b. No response to percussion and palpation test.
c. Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals.

266. If the maxillary first molar is found to have four canals, the fourth
canal is likely found:
a. In the disto-buccal root.
b. In the mesio-buccal root.
c. In the palatal root.
267. What is the basis for current endodontic therapy of a periapical lesion:
a. Due to rich collateral circulation system, the perpical area usually heals despite the condition of the root
canal.
b. If the source of periapical irritation is removed, the potential for periapical healing is good.
c. Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilize the canal and periapical area to promote healing.
d. Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst, must be treated by surgical intervention.
268. To enhance strength properties of ceramo metal restoration, it is

important to:
a. Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure.
b. Build up thick layer of porcelain.
c. Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the
metal substructure.
d. Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure.
e. a and b are correct.
f. a and c are correct.
g. b and d are correct.
269. Endodontically treated 2nd maxillary premolar with moderate mesial

& destal caries is best restored by:
a. Amalgam.
b. 3/4 crown.
c. Full crown.
d. Onlay.
270. HBV can be transmitted by transplacenta: ‫ﺍاﻟﻤﺸﻴﯿﻤﺔ‬

a. True.
b. False.
271. Bleeding of the socket following tooth extraction:

1. Is always a capillary bleeding in nature.
2. Takes not less than half-day in normal individual.
3. Is always favorable if it is primary type.
4. Can be due to the presence of a nutrient vessel.
a. 1 and 2 are correct.
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
d. All are correct.
272. In sickle cell anemia, O2 is decreased in oral mucosa:

a. True.
b. False.
273. Destruction of RBCs may cause anemia and it is due to defect in cell
membrane:
a. True.
b. False.
274. Immunofluorecent test and biopsy are used to diagnosis pemphigus:

a. True.
b. False.
275. Selection of shade for composite is done:

a. Under light.
b. After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam.
276. Measuring blood pressure is one of vital signs important in medical

compromised:
a. True.
b. False.
277. Most commonly, after placement of amalgam restoration, pt.

complains from pain with:
a. Hot.
b. Cold.
c. Occlusal pressure.
d. Galvanic shock.
e. Sweet.
278. Management of tuberosity fracture during extraction of maxillary

molar is:
a. Replace and suture.
b. Remove and suture with primary heal.
c. Replace and suture intra alveolar by wire.
d. Remove and leave to heal.
* If the tuberosity is fractured but intact, it should be manually repositioned and stabilized by
sutures.
279. During maxillary 3rd molar extraction, the tuberosity fractured. It

was firmly attached to the tooth and cannot be separated. What is the
management:
A) Remove it with the tooth.
B) Splint the tooth to the 2nd molar then re-extracted after 6 weeks.

280. After extraction a molar you found a hard tissue at the furcation like
pearl. what is it:
a. Enamel pearl.
b. Enostosis.
c. Hypercementosis.

281. Tooth # 36 planned to extraction on x-ray no PDL after extraction u
found lesion like pearl on furcation what’s the lesion:
a. Enamel pearl.
b. Enostosis.
c. Hypercementosis.
282. Microbial virulent produced by root bacteria is collagenase from

spirochete:
a. True.
b. False.
283. Bacteria in endodontic pathosis mostly is:

a. Porphyromonas endodontalis obligate anaerobic.
b. Streptococcus mutans.
c. Streptococcus anaerobic.
284. Bacteria in root canal:

a) mixed.
b) anaerobes obligatory.
c) aerobes only.
285. Bacteria in root canal pathosis:

a. Mixed anaerobe and aerobe.
b. Single obligate anaerobe.
c. Aerobic.
286. Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it is:

a. Simulate formation of 2nd dentine.
b. Not irritant to the pulp.
c. For thermal isolation.
287. Use of miswak and toothbrush:

a. Toothbrush after meals and miswak at prayer time and when out of home.
b. Miswak and toothbrush must be used together.
c. Use the miswak only when they can not afford to buy the toothbrush and toothpaste.
d. Not use the miswak and use the toothbrush instead.
288. Oral diaphragm consists mainly of: (‫ ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ‬ ‫)ﻗﺎﻉع‬

a. Tongue.
b. Geniohyoid muscle.
c. Digastric muscle.
d. Mylohyoid muscle.
* Oral diaphragm = Floor of the mouth.

289. Occlusal rest function:
a. To resist lateral chewing movement.
b. To resist vertical forces.
c. Stability.
d. Retention.
290. In placement of rupper dam:

a. 4 jaw contacts in teeth.

b. Only 4 contacts 2 lingual surface and 2 buccal surface.
c. Only 4 contacts 2 mesial and 2 distal.
291. Chronic suppurative periodontitis:

a. Pt. complains from moderate pain.
b. Fistula with drain.
c. Pulp polyp is open coronal carious lesion.
292. Acute periodontal abscess:

a. Fistula present.
b. Swelling enlargement in tooth site.
293. Masseter muscle extends from lower border of zygomatic arch to

lateral border of ramus and angle of the mandible:
a. True.
b. False.
294. Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone

inserts in coronoid process:
a. True.
b. False.
295. Main arterial supply in face is facial artery and superficial temporal
artery:
a. True.
b. False.
296. Mandible is the 1st bone calcified in skull but clavicles start first but in
same embryological time:
a. True.
b. False.
297. Mandible formed before frontal bone:

a. True.
b. False.
298. Maxilla is formed:

a. before mandible.
b. same with mandible.
c. slightly after mandible.
d. none of the above.
299. Development of maxillary process and medial frontal process is in medial

elongation of central portion:
a. True.
b. False.

300. Some bones are formed by endochondral ossification like long bone,
flat bone by intramembranous ossification and some bones by
endochondral and intramembranous ossification:
a. True.
b. False.

301. Facial nerve supplies:
a. Masseter muscle.
b. Temporalis muscle.
c. Buccinator muscle.
d. Mylohyoid muscle.
302. Muscles of facial expressions are all innervated by facial

nerve:
a. True.
b. False.
303. Upon giving a lower mandible anaesthesia, you notice the patient’s
eye, cheek and corner of the lip are uncontrolled , what’s the reason :
A) Paresthesia of the facial nerve.
B) Excessive anesthesia injection.
C) Pt. has hypotention.
D) Onother cause.
304. While performing cranial nerve examination you notice that the patient
is unable to raise his eyebrows, hold eyelids closed, symmetrically smile
or evert his lower lip. This may indicate:
a. Trigeminal nerve problem.
B. Facial nerve problem.
C. Oculomotor nerve problem.
D. Trochlear nerve problem.
E. All of the above.
305. Dentin permeability:

1- decreases with the increase of cavity preparation.
2- Increase when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion.
3- Increase with smear layer.
4- Bacterial toxins can pass through before the actual penetration of bacteria.

1- Decreases with the increase of cavity preparation.
4- Decrease in prescence of sclerotic dentin under caries lesion.
307. Tooth brushing and dental floss help in community prevention of

periodontal disease:
a. True.
b. False.
308. The most prominent cell in acute inflammation is:

a. Lymphocyst.
b. Plasma cell.
c. PMN.
309. Cell of chronic inflammation:

a. Lymphocyte.
b. PMN.
c. Neutrophil.
310. Dentist must:

a. Treat Pt. medically.
b. Prescribe medication to Pt. with medical problem.
c. Do clinical examination, take medical history and evaluate the medical state.
311. After patient came to your clinic and gave an extended history
and complain, what’s your next step in treatment :
A) Clinical examination.
B) Start the treatment.
C) Radiographic examination.
312. Reparative dentine:

a. Same like secondary dentine.
b. Happens as site of irritation.
313. Reparative dentin:

nd
a. 2 dentin.
b. Formed as dentin bridge above the pulp.
c. Highly tubular dentin and it is detective from 1st dentin.
d. Sclerosing dentin with less permeability.
314. Physiological reaction of edema on vital pulp:

a. Decrease tissue fluid by decompression of blood vessel.
b. Increase blood preasure.
c. Necrosis of pulp due to hyperoxia and anorexia.
315. Microabscess on vital pulp: starts necrosis of small part and sequela of
destruction cycle and full repair:
a. True.
b. False.
316. Amalgam tattoo is an oral pigmentation lesion:

a. True.
b. False.
317. Oral and perioral cysts formed from epithelial rests of serres:
a. True.
b. False.
318. Cementum contains cell like bone. It is yellow in color in vital, extracted or
avulsed tooth. But in non vital tooth, its color is dark:

a. True.
b. False.
319. Dentine composition:

a. 60-65 % inorganic by wgt. ( 70 % inorganic by volume ).
b. 25% water by wgt. (13% water by volume).
c. 43% organic by wgt. (20% organic by volume).
320. The primary direction for spread of infection in the mandible is

to submental lymph node:
a. True.
b. False.
* The primary direction for spread of infection in the mandible is to submandibular

lymph node.
321. 7 days after amalgam restoration Pt. came complaining of pain during
putting spoon on the restored tooth because:
a. Irreversible pulpitis.
b. Reversible pulpitis.
c. Broken amalgam.
d. Galvanic action.
322. Filling amalgam in the first madibular molar when touch the spoon
there is a pain the reason is:
1. Galvanic action.
2. Amalgam restoration failure.
3. Unknown cause.
323. DNA only infect human but RNA doesn't infect human:
a. True.
b. False.
324. Artificial teeth best to be selected by:

a. Preextraction cord.
b. Postextraction cord.
325. In full gold crown, to prevent future gingival recession:

a. Make the tooth form gold at gingival one third.
b. Make the tooth form gold at gingival one fifth.
c. Make the tooth form gold at gingival one half.
326. Subgingival scaling and root planning is done by:

a. Gracey curette.
b. Hoe.
c. Chisel.
327. Paraesthesia of lower lip after surgical removal of lower 8 is due to the
irritation of inferior alveolar nerve:
a. True.
b. False.

328. The aim of conditioning agent on dentine before GI cement is to remove
smear layer:
a. True.
b. False.
329. Compomer releases fluoride as GI :

a. True.
b. False.
330. Barbed broach in endodontic is used for pulp examination

in straight canals:
a. True.
b. False.
* Barbed broach is not used in curved canals.

331. Fixed partial prosthesis is more successful in:
a. Single tooth missing.
b. Multiple missing teeth.
332. Best pontic is:

a. Ridge lap.
b. Hygiene.
c. Saddle.
333. Pt. feels pain of short duration after class II restoration. Diagnosis is:
c. Periodontitis.
334. Radiotherapy increases caries by decreasing salivary secration:

a. True.
b. False.
335. In the preparation of cavity class II, for restoration with composite resin all
cavosurface angles should be:
a. Well rounded.
b. Right angles.
c. Acute angles.
d. Obtuse angles.
336. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a:

a. No. 330 tungsten carbide bur.
b. Mounted stone.
c. 12- fluted carbide bur.
d. Coarse diamond point.
337. In class 5 composite restorations a layer of bonding agent is applied:

1. Following removal of cement then cured.

2. Following removal of cement and not cured.
3. Cured then remove cement.
338. After class V GI restoration, removal of a thin flush of GI is done by:

a. Scaller or knife immediately.
b. Finishing stone immediately.
c. Scale or knife later.
d. Finishing stone later.
e. a + b.
f. a + d.
g. a+c
h. d+c
339. After class V GI restoration, removal of a thin flush of GI is done by:

a. Scaller or knife in the same visit.
b. Finishing stone in the same visit.
c. Scale or knife next visit.
d. Finishing stone next visit.
e. a + b.
f. a + d.
g. b + c.
h. d + c.
340. After finish class v glass ionomer cement, we do finishing with:

1. Pumice slurry.
2. Aluminum-oxide disc.
341. Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the direct
composite except:
a. Efficient polymerization.
b. Good contact proximally.
c. Gingival seal.
d. Good retention.
342. Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the direct
composite except:
a. Efficient polymerization.
b.Good contact proximally.
c. Gingival seal.
d.Price.
343. Indirect composite inlay overcomes the direct composite by:

1/ insusffitient polymerization.
2/ good contact proximally.
3/ gingival seal.
4/ good retention.
a/ 1-2-4.
b/ 1-2-3.
c/ 4-3.

344. A glossy finish is best retained on a:
a. Microfilled composite resin restoration.
b. Macrofilled resin restoration.
c. Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d. Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration.
345. Composite for posterior teeth:

a. Microfilled + fine filler.
b. Macrofilled + rough filler.
c. Hybrid + rough filler.
346. Check bite of retainer by:

a. Paste.
b.Impression.
347. Mastoid process is a part of:

a. Temporal bone.
b. Parietal bone.
c. Occipital bone.
348. Parotid duct opens opposite in 2nd mandibular molars:

a. True.
b. False.
nd
* Parotid duct opens opposite in 2 maxillary molars.
349. Parotid duct is opposite to:

a. maxilary premolar.
b. maxilary 1st molar.
c. maxilary 2nd molar.
d. mandibular 1st molar.
350. Palate consists of:

a. Palatine and sphenoid bones.
b. Palatine and maxillary bones.
c. Palatine and zygomatic bones.
351. Hard palate consists of the following:

A. Palatal maxillray process & ethmoid bone.
B. Palatal maxillary process & sphenoid bone.
C. Palatal maxillary process & Palatine bone.
D. Palatal maxillary process & temporal bone.
352. The most important microorganism in dental caries is:

a. Streptococcus mutant.
b. Streptococcus salivarius.
c. Spirochaeta.

353. Emergency endodontic should not be started before:
a. Establishing the pain.
b. Check restorability of the tooth.
c. Establishing the diagnosis.
354. Selection of type of major connector in partial denture is determined:

a. During examination.
b. During diagnosis and planning.
c. During bite registration.
355. White polycarbonate are temporary crowns used for anterior teeth:
a. True.
b. False.

356. For etching 15 sec. for composite restoration use:
a. 37% phosphoric acid.
b. 15% fluoric acid.
c. 3% sulfuric acid.
357. Nerve impulse stops when injection local anesthesia:

a. True.
b. False.
358. The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:

a. Fibroma.
b. Papilloma.
c. Lipoma.
359. Flat bone grows by endochondral ossification:

a. True.
b. False.
360. Pulp chamber in lower 1st molar is mesially located:

a. True.
b. False.
361. Radiopacity at the apex of a tooth with chronic pulpitis:

a. Condensing osteitis.
b. Cemental dysplasia.
c. Perapical granuloma.

362. Radiopacity at the apex of a tooth with deep carious lesion related to lateral
surface of root :
a. Condensing osteitis.
b. Cemental dysplasia.
c. Perapical granuloma.
363. Radiopacity attached to root of mandibular molar:

a. Ossifying fibroma.
b. Hypercementosis.
c. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
d. Condensing osteitis.

364. Extra canal if present in mandibular incisor will be:
a. Lingual.
b. Distal.
365. The access opening in lower incisor:

a. Round.
b. Oval.
c. Triangular.
366. The access opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently:
a. Oval.
b. Square.
c. Triangular.
d. None of the above .
367. The correct access cavity preparation for the mandibular second molar is:
a. Oval.
b. Quadrilateral.
c. Round.
d. Triangular.
: ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺤﻀﻴﯿﺮ‬ ‫ ﻓﺘﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺷﻜﻞ‬ ‫ ﺳﻦ‬ ‫ ﻛﻞ‬ ‫ ﻣﻜﺘﻮﺏب‬ .. NBDE part II ‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏب‬ ‫* ﻓﻲ‬
Upper:
central : triangular.
lateral: ovoid.
canine: ovoid.
first premolar: ovoid.
second premolar: ovoid.
first molar: triangle .
second molar: triangle.
Lower:
central: ovoid.
lateral: ovoid.
canine: ovoid.
first premolar: ovoid.
second premolar : ovoid.
first molar: triangle or trapezoid.
second molar: triangle or trapezoid.
368. Acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal cyst are differentiated by:
a. Vitality test.
b. Radiograph.
c. Clinical examination.
369. Acute periapical abscess associated with:

a. Swelling.
b. Widening of PDL.
c. Pus discharge.
370. The most common cause of endodontic pathosis is bacteria:

a. True.
b. False.
371. Palatal canal in upper molars is curved:

a. Buccally.
b. Palatally.
c. Distally.
372. If tooth or root is pushed during surgical extraction into max. sinus:
a. Leave it and inform the Pt.
b. Remove it as soon as possible.
c. Follow the Pt. for 3 months.
373. Difference between gracey and universal curette:

a. Section of gracey is hemicircular and in universal triangular.
b. Gracey has one cutting edge while universal has two.
c. Gracey used for cutting in specific area while universal is in any area.
d. Universal 90 not offset, gracey 60 offset.
e. a and d.
f. a, b and c.
g. b, c and d.
374. Cause of fracture of occlusal rest:

a. Shallow preparation in marginal ridge.
b. Extension of rest to central fossa.
c. Improper centric relation.
375. Child came to the clinic with amalgam restoration fracture at isthmus
portion, this fracture due to:
a) Wide preparation at isthmus.
b) High occlusal.
C) shallow preparation.
D) Constricted isthmus.
376. After class II amalgum fill, broken is happen in isthmus area why:
A. Over high of filling vertically.
B. Over flair cavosurface angle or edge.
C. Unproper mixed fill.

377. The cause of fracture in amalgam class II restoration is:

a. Thin thickness at the marginal ridge.
b. Wide flared cavity.
c. Deep cavity.
: ‫* ﺍاﻟﻤﻄﻠﻮﺏب ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬
• Narrow (constricted ) & deep isthmus preparation and no high

occlusal amalgam .
: ‫ﺑﺨﻼﻑف ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺙث ﺧﺼﺎﺋﺺ ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻘﺔ ﻳﯾﺤﺪﺙث‬
Fracture at the isthmus portion ( or at class II ).
378. Bridge returns to dentist from lab with different degree of color although the
shade is the same, the cause:
a. Thin metal framework.
b. Different thickness of porcelain.
c. Thick opaque.

379. Complete denture poorly fit and inadequate interocclusal relation:

a. Relining.
b. Rebasing.
c. New denture.

380. Small caries confined to enamel:

a. Preventive measure.
b. Amalgam filling.
c. Keep under observation.

381. In enamel caries passing half of enamel:

a. Leave it.
b. Restoration.

382. Currently the only effective preventive measure for periodontal disesse ( a
part from limited use of antiseptic solutions ) is:
a. Regular and rough removal of dental plaque.
b. Salt flouridation.
c. Dental health education.

383. Dental caries:

a. Is a transmissible disease.
b. Is world wide in distribution but uneven in intensity.
c. Can be prevented.
384. At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is lowest:

a. Prismless enamel.
b. DEJ.
c. Center of enamel prisms.
d. Edge of enamel prisms.
e. Facial enamel.

385. Rampant caries in adult in anterior teeth restored by:

a. Glass ionomer.
b. ZOE.

c. Amalgam.
386. The 1st cervical vertebrae is:

a. Atlas.
b. Axis.
387. Most of dentine bonding material need conditioning time:

a. 15 sec.
b. 30 sec.
c. 45 sec.
d. 60 sec.
388. Time of curing of dentine:

a. 10 sec.
b. 15 sec.
c. 30 sec.
d. 60 sec.
389. Light curing time for simple shallow class III composite:
a. 10 sec.
b. 15 sec.
c. 20 sec.

390. Cartilaginous joints in the body affect bone growth:

a. True.
b. False.

391. Cavity varnish should be applied at least in:

a. One layer.
b. Two layers.
c. Three layers.
d. Four layers.

392. Geographic tongue is seen in Pt. with:

a. Diabetes.
b. Iron deficiency anemia.
c. Pemphigus.
393. Geographic tongue is always accompanied in patient with:

a. Diabetes.
b. Erythema multiform.
c. Iron deficiency.
d. Psoriasis.
394. A 21 years old patient who has iron deficiency anemia, difficulty in
swallowing, with examination of barium sulphate, you found:
A. Geographical tongue.
B. Burning mouth syndrome.
C. Plummer vinson syndrome.
D. Diabetic patient.


* Plummer vinson syndrome = Patterson brown Kelly syndrome.
395. Pt. came to the clinic complaining from soreness in the tongue and
sore throat the diagnosis is:
a) Burning mouth syndrome.
b) Geographical tongue.
c) Fissure tongue.

* Burning mouth syndrome = Burning tongue syndrome.
396. Burning mouth syndrome is a chronic disorder typically characterized by
each of the following except:
a. Mucosal lesion.
b. Burning pain in multiple oral sites.
c. Pain similar in intensity to toothache pain.
d. Persistent altered taste perception.
397. Which of the following is the most likely potential cause of BMS ( Burning
mouth syndrome ):
: ‫ ﺍاﺣﺘﻤﺎﻻ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻛﺜﺮ‬ ‫ﻛﻞ ﺍاﻷﺳﺒﺎﺏب ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﺐ‬
a. Denture allergy.
b. Salivary dysfunction.
c. Neural dysfunction.
d. Menopausal changes.

398. Which of the following represents the best pharmacologic therapy for BMS:
a. Antidepressant agents.
b. Corticosteroids.
c. Anxiolytic agents.
d. There is no therapy of proven general efficacy.

399. Diabetic Pt. with ill fit denture, examination of residual ridge helps to:
a. Determine the need for tissue conditioning and surgery.
b. Determine occlusal height.
c. Determine vertical dimension of occlusion.

400. Handicapped Pt. with lesion in central nervous system appears to have
different types of disorders in movement and procedure:
a. Seizure.
b. Cerebral palsy.
c. Learning disability.

401. To obturate the canal the most important step is:
a. Cleaning and shaping of the canal.
b. Irrigation of the canal.

402. Aim to shape apical 3rd of the root :
a) widening apex.
b) Permit irrigation to reach apical 3rd.
c) permit GP to fill.
d) For good sealer achieve.
403. The most important in RCT is seal:

a. Apical 1/3.
b. Middle 1/3.
c. Cervical 1/3.
404. During placement of amalgam pins, the number of pins per cusp is:
a. 1 pin.
b. 2 pins.
c. 3 pins.
d. 4 pins.
405. The amount of L.A in 2% lidocaine with 1/100000

adrenaline is:
a. 0.01mg.
b. 0.02mg.
c. 36 mg.
406. How many mg of adrenaline in cartridge 1.8 cc of
2 % xylocaine:
a- 1.8 mg.
b- 0.18 mg.
c- 0.36 mg.
d- 3.6 mg.
e- 0.018 mg.

407. What is the amount in mg in 1.8 ml. of xylocaine:

a. 20 mg/ml.
b. 1.8 mg/ml.
c. 36 mg/ml.
408. The most common endodontic cyst is:

a. Radicular cyst.
b. Keratocyst.
c. Acute apical periodontitis.
409. Pt. complains from severe spontaneous pain related to upper 6. It responds
to vitality test no pain on percussion, diagnosis is:
a. Irreversible pulpitis.
c. Acute apical periodotitis.

410. The most common complication after extraction for diabetic Pt. is:
a. Infection.
b. Severe bleeding.
c. Oedema.
411. Lateral canal is detected by:

a. Radiograph.
b. Tactile sensation.
c. By clinical examination.
412. Contact area is in incisal/occlusal 1/3 in which tooth:

a. Mandibular incisors.
b. Mandibular molars.
c. Maxillary molars.
413. Incipient caries is diagnosed by:

a. Fiber optic light.
b. Tactile examination.
c. X-ray film.
414. Disinfection of GP is done by:

a. Autoclave.
b. Dry heat.
c. Sodium hypochlorite.
415. Periodontal ligament fibers in the middle third of the root is:
a. Oblique.
b. Horizontal.
c. Transeptal.
416. To detect interproximal caries in primary teeth, the best film is: ‫ﻳﯾﻘﺼﺪ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻨﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻟﺨﻠﻔﻴﯿﺔ ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺴﺖ ﺍاﻷﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﻷﻥن ﻓﻰ ﺃأﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻷﻁطﻔﺎﻝل ﺍاﻷﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻤﻜﻦ ﻳﯾﻈﻬﮭﺮ ﺍاﻟﺘﺴﻮﺱس ﺑﺪﻭوﻥن ﺃأﺷﻌﺔ‬
a. Periapical.
b. Bitewing.
c. Occlusal.
417. Pt. with missing lower right 1st molar for long time you will find:
a. Mesial drifting of lower right 2nd molar.
b. Intrusion of upper right 1st molar.
c. Over eruption of lower right 2nd molar.
418. Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be managed by except:
a. Intruded easily orthodontically.
b. Crowing.
c. Adjustment of occlusion.
419. Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be managed by:
a. Intruded easily orthodontically.
b. Crowing.
c. Adjustment of occlusion.
d. In severe cases may be extracted.
e. a, b & c
f. b, c & d
g. a, b & d
h. a, c & d
420. Over erupting tooth can be treated by:

1. Crowning after endo.
2. Ortho intrusion.
3. Extraction.
4. 1 and 2.
5. All the above.
421. Broken instrument during RCT, best prognosis if broken at:
a. Apical 1/3.
b. Middle 1/3.
c. Cervical 1/3.
422. Pulp stone:

a. Cause discomfort and pain.
b. Free in pulp chamber.
423. Pulp stone can be the following except:

a) Present freely in the pulp.
b) Cause discomfort & pain to the patient.
c) In radiographs, small spheroidal radiopaque.
d) False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin.

424. The amount of facial reduction in PFM crown:
a. 1.3mm.
b. 1.7mm.
c. 0.8mm.
d. 2.2mm.
425. A tooth with 25 degrees inclination could be used as abutment:

a. True.
b. False.
* A tooth with 15 ‫ ــ‬25 degrees inclination can be used as abutment.
426. Intercellular movement of PMN leukocytes is called migration:

a. True.
b. False.
427. In onlay, stopping of cusp is 1.5 - 2 mm.:

a. True.
b. False.
428. Among the reasons that molar teeth are more difficult to treat
endodontically than anterior teeth:
a. Molar have more complex canal configuration.
b. Molar tend to have greater canal curvature.
c. a and b.
429. Gingival hyperplasia related to phenytoin therapy is: ‫ ﺍاﻟﺼﺮﻉع‬ ‫ﻣﻀﺎﺩد‬

a. Most common on lingual surface.
b. Most common in older Pt.
c. Strongly related to phenytoin dosage.
d. Strongly related to poor oral hygiene.
430. Type I diabetes mellitus can be characterized as:

a. Non-insulin-dependent.
b. Adult-onset.
c. Ketosis-prone.
d. Accompanied by normal cell activity.
431. Which of the following statement is true for the reported

relationship of periodontal disease and diabetes mellitus:
a. The reported incidence of periodontal disease in the diabetes is less than that for non diabetic.
b. Pts. with history of diabetes of less than 10 years have more periodontal disease destruction than
those with history of longer than 10 years.
c. The prevalence of periodontal disease increases with the advancing age of the diabetic.
d. The prevalence of periodontal disease increases with the better metabolic coronal of the diabetic
state.
432. The spontaneous production of an electric current resulting from two

dissimilar metals in the oral cavity is called:
a. Nuclear reaction.
b. Galvanic action.
c. Precipitation reaction.
d. Thermodynamics.
e. Fission.
433. The first step in diagnostic work up is obtaining

the:
a. Medical history.
b. Present complaint.
c. Biographical data.
d. Restorative history.
e. Traumatic history.
434. The basic difference between K files and reamers is:

a. The number of spirals or flutes per unit length.
b. The geometric cross section.
c. The depth of flutes.
d. The direction of the spirals.

435. In case of traumatic intrusion of young permanent incisor, the treatment of
choice is:
a. Surgical repositioning of intruded tooth and splinting.
b. To wait for re eruption of the intruded tooth.
c. Slow orthodontic extrusion using light force.
d. Only antibiotic prescription and wait for eruption.
436. Best treatment of choice for carious exposure of a primary molar

in a 3 years old child who complains of toothache during and after food taking:
a. Direct pulp capping with caoh.
b. Direct pulp capping with ZOE paste.
c. Formocresol pulpotomy.
d. Caoh pulpotomy.
437. Which of the following statement about the mechanism of action for denture
adhesive is not correct:
a. It depends in part on physical force and viscosity.
b. Carboxyl group provides bioadhesion.
c. Greater water solubility increases duration of adhesion.
d. Zinc salts have been associated with stronger longer adhesion.
438. One week after filling of class II restoration, the Pt. presents with a
complain of tenderness on mastication and bleeding from the gingiva.
The dentist should initially:
a. Check the occlusion.
b. Check the contact area.
c. Consider the probability of hyperemia.
d. Explain to the Pt. that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissue and
prescribe an analgesic and warm oral rinse.
* Check the contact area = Check the class II.
439. It is recommended to avoid an intraligamental injection

when the planned dental treatment is:
a. Pulp extirpation.
b. Pulpotomy.
c. Full crown preparation.
d. a and b.
440. The root canal treated teeth has the best prognosis when the root canal is
instrumented and obturated:
a. To the radiograph apex.
b. 1 mm. beyond the radiograph apex.
c. 1-2 mm. short of the radiograph apex.
d. 3-4 mm. short of the radiograph apex.

441. Which of the following would be clinically unacceptable as a primary of
isolating a tooth for sealant placement:
a. Cotton roll.
b. Rubber dam.
c. Vac-ejector moisture control system.
442. Which one of the following is least likely to contribute to bad oral breath:
: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ ﺍاﻟﻜﺮﻳﯾﻬﮭﺔ‬ ‫ ﺭرﺍاﺋﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻓﻲ‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﺴﺎﻫﮬﮪھﻢ‬ ‫ ﻋﺎﻣﻞ‬ ‫ﺃأﻗﻞ‬
a. Periodontal disease.
b. Denture.
c. Faulty restoration.
d. Carious lesions.
443. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of dentinal

hypersensitivity:
a. It is one of the most successfully treated chronic dental problems.
b. Its prevalence range from 8 to 30 %.
c. The majority of the pts. who experience it are from 20 to 40 years of age.
d. One source of the irritation that leads to hypersensitivity is improper tooth brushing.
444. Hypersensitivity is due to:

A- Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules.
B- Obliterated dentinal tubule.
445. The most common form of oral ulcerative disease is:

a. HSV.
b. Major aphthous ulcer.
c. Bahjet disease.
d. Minor aphthous ulcer.
446. The majority of primary herpetic infections are:

a. Symptomatic.
b. Asymptomatic.
c. Proceeded by fever.
d. Accompanied by gingival erythema.
e. a, c and d.
447. The function of the anterior teeth is:

a. Disarticulate the posterior teeth.
b. Incise food.
c. Prevent attrition.
d. Prevent food impaction.
448. In geriatric Pt., cementum on the root end will: ‫ﺍاﻟﺸﻴﯿﺨﻮﺧﺔ‬ ‫ﻣﺮﻳﯾﺾ‬
a. Become thinned and almost non existent.
b. Become thicker and irregular.
c. Render apex to locater useless.
d. Often not be seen on the radiograph.
e. Indicate pathosis.
449. Tobacco should be considered a risk factor when planning treatment

for pt. who require:
a. Implants.
b. Periodontal surgery.
c. Oral surgery.
d. Esthetic treatment.
450. Pulpal pain may not be referred from:

a. The right maxilla to the left maxilla.
b. The third molar to the ear.
c. A max. molar to the sinus.
d. An incompletely fractured tooth.
e. A max. cuspid to ear.
451. Spontaneous pulpal pain is indicative of:

c. Necrotic pulp.
d. Hyperplastic pulp.
e. Atrophic pulp.
452. Internal Resorption:

a. Painful.
b. Seldom differentiated external resorption.
c. Can occur in primary teeth.
453. Primary teeth had trauma, tooth change in color becomes white
yellowish, what should you tell the parents:
a. Pulp is dead.
b. Inflammation of pulp.
c. Calcification of dentin.
d. b & c.
454. Teeth that are discolored as a result of internal resorption of the pulp
may turn:
a. Yellow.
b. Dark brown.
c. Pink.
d. Green.
455. Treatment of internal resorption involves:

a. Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the resorption process.
b. Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed area for better access.
c. Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill the irregularities in the resorbed area.
d. Filling the canal and defect with amalgam.
e. Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to remove the inflammatory tissue necrotic in the area
of the resorption.
456. Sensitivity to palpation and percussion indicates:

c. Neurotic pulp.
d. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
e. Inflammation of the periradicular tissues.
457. Trauma leads to fracture in the root between middle

and apical thirds:
a) Poor prognosis.
b) Good prognosis.
* Fracture in the root between middle and apical thirds ( apical third
fractures ) has the best prognosis.
* Fracture in the root between middle and cervical thirds ( coronal third
fractures ) has the poorest prognosis.
458. Tooth with a fracture between the apical and the middle
thirds, what's your management:
a) RCT for the coronal part only.
b) RCT for both.
c) Splint the two parts together

Fracture between the middle and apical thirds needs RCT for the coronal part only.
Fracture between the middle and cervical thirds needs RCT for the coronal part and a splint
of two parts for 4 – 6 weeks.
459. Transverse fracture of developing teeth in the mixed dentition can be

managed by: ‫ﺿﻴﯿﺔ‬ ْ‫ ﻟﻌﺍا ﺮ‬ ‫ﺍاﻟﻜﺴﻮﺭر‬
a. Forced eruption.
b. Extraction and placement of a removable partial denture.
c. Placement of single tooth.
Pt. presented to u with trauma of the central incisor with open apex,
460.
clinical examination revealed cut of blood supply to the tooth what is the
next step:
1- extraction.
2- endo.
3- observe over time.

461. Child came to u with gray discolouration of the deciduous incisor also
on radiographic exam, there is dilation of follicle of the permanent
successor what will u do:
1- Extract the decidous tooth.
2- Start endo.
3- Observe over time.
462. Pt. came with class IV he had tooth trauma & he brought the fracture
segment & on examination u found that the pulp is not exposed & only u
can see dentine, how u manage:
A- To get rid of the fragment & fill with composite.
B- To reattach the fragment with composite and later cover with veneer.
C- others.
463. Adult 20 years male with soft tissue & dental trauma reveals severe
pain in soft tissues with loss of epithelial layers and anterior upper
centrals are intruded the diagnosis is:
a- abrasion with luxation.
b- errosion with sub luxation.
c- traumatic ulceration with luxation.
d- ulceration with subluxation.
464. Adult 20 years male with soft tissue & dental trauma reveals severe pain
in soft tissues with loss of epithelial layers and anterior upper centrals
are intruded the diagnosis is:
a- Abrasion with luxation.
b- Errosion with sub luxation.
c- Laceration with luxation.
d- Laceration with subluxation.
465. Apexification is procedure that:

a. Finds the most apical stop of the guttpercha in RCT.
b. Induces the formation of a mineral barrier in the apical region of incompletely root.
c. Is new in the endodontic field.
d. Involves the surgical removal of the apical region of the root and placement of a retrograde
filling material.
466. The preferred material used in apexification is:

a. Zinc phosphate cement.
b. Zinc polycarboxylate cement.
c. Calcium hydroxide.
d. Dycal.
467. What is the time between the first onset of HIV virus and the
appearance of acute symptoms:
a) 1-5 years.
b) 9 - 11 years.
c) No specific time is known.
468. What is the estimated incubation period of HIV infection: ‫ﻓﺘﺮﺓة‬

‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﻘﺮﻳﯾﺒﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ﺍاﻟﺤﻀﺎﻧﺔ‬
a. 4 weeks.
b. 6 months.
c. 3 years.
d. 6 years.
e. 10 years.
469. Hydrogen peroxide is the ideal bleaching agent because:

a. It bleaches effectively at natural ph.
b. It bleaches faster than carbamide peroxide.
c. Protection for sensitive tissues can be incorporated into the hydrogen gel.
470. The most common cause of the angina is: ‫ﺍاﻟﺬﺑﺤﺔ‬
a. Stress.
b.Renal disease.
c. Arteriosclerotic plaques of the coronary vessels.
d.Hypoglycemia.
e. Hypertension.

471. Which of the following drugs is completely effective in

eliminating angina episode: ‫ﺍاﻟﺬﺑﺤﺔ‬
a. Propranolol.
b. Nifedipine.
c. Diltiazem.
d. Transdermal nitroglycerin.

* Completely effective in eliminating = treatment .

• Diltiazem: for treatment of angina.

• Transdermal nitroglycerin: for prevention from angina.

472. CPR :
a. Is best performed in the dental chair.
b. Should be performed on all patients experiencing chest pain.
c. Is more efficient when using a full mask delivering 100% oxygen than
with the mouth to mouth technique.
d. Is beyond the medico legal responsibility of the practicing dentist.
473. Which statement concerning sensitive teeth is

false:
a. Small dentin exposure can result in sensitivity.
b. The extent of dental hard tissue loss always correlates with sensitivity.
c. A wide variety of clinical condition can cause teeth to become sensitive.
d. Oral hygiene habits and diet can contribute to clinical sensitivity
problems.
474. Droplet nuclei containing mycobacterium tuberculosis:

a. Do not cause infection.
b. Settle out of room air quickly.
c. Do not spread widely in the building.
d. Remain airborn for prolonged period.
475. The most common activity associated with percutaneous injury of the
dentist is:
a. Suturing.
b. Anesthesia injection.
c. Handpiece dig.
d. Trimming impressions.
476. The most common location of percutaneous injury among dentists is:
a. Hand.
b. Face.
c. Elbow.
d. Arm.
477. The normal response of a vital pulp to the thermal testing is:
a. No response.
b. Lingering painful response.
c. Hypersensitive painful response.
d. Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed.
478. The normal response of an inflamed pulp to the thermal testing is:
a. No response.
b. Lingering painful response.
c. Hypersensitive painful response.
d. Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed.
479. The normal response of a vital pulp to the electric pulp testing is:
a. No response.
b. Higher than that of the control teeth.
c. Lower than that of the control teeth.
d. In a range similar to that of the control teeth.
480. Asymptomatic tooth has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura,

and circumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular
diagnosis:
a. Acute apical periodontitis.
b. Chronic apical periodontitis.
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis.
d. Abscess.

481. A Pt. with severe periradicular pain has a necrotic pulp, a
broken lamina dura, and circumscribed radiolucency of long duration.
The periradicular diagnosis:
d. Abscess.
482. A Pt. present in severe pain. The periapical area over the involved
tooth is inflamed and swollen. The tooth is mobile and depressible in its
socket with a diffused radiolucency. The diagnosis is:
d. Abscess.
483. Reduction of mandibular fracture is defined as:

a. Nonalignment and separation of the fracture segments.
b. Realignment of fracture segments.
c. Holding of the fracture segments in place.
d. Screw and bone places.
e. Internal fixation.
484. Wiring the upper and lower teeth together is called:

* or wiring the maxilla and mandible together is called:
a. Internal fixation.
b. Open reduction.
c. Intermaxillary fixation.
d. Displacement.
e. External fixation.
* Intermaxillary fixation = maxillomandibular fixation MMF = wiring the

jaw shut.
485. The incidence of nerve damage after third molar surgery is estimated
to be:
a. 5 % or less.
b. 10 % to 15 %.
c. 15 % to 20 %
d. 20 % to 25 %.
486. The least likely mechanism for the nerve damage is:
a. Direct needle trauma.
b. Intraneural haematoma formation.
c. Local anesthetic toxicity.
d. Stretching and binding of the nerve.

487. Which of the following is the cause of immediate type allergic reaction
to latex products:
a. Accelerator.
b. Antioxidants.
c. Latex protein.
d. Nickel.
488. Which of the following is the longest in the dental arch:

a. Maxillary central incisor.
b. Maxillary second premolar.
c. Mandibular canine.
d. Maxillary canine.
489. Chlorhexidine is used as mouth wash in the concentration of:

a. 0.1 - 0.2%
b. 1 - 2%
c. 5 - 10%
d. 20%
490. Traumatically fractured crown of central incisor in an 8

years old child with pulp exposure ( more than 1 mm. ) half
hour ago, medical history is non-contributory and the tooth is
not displaced. What is your management:
a. Endodontics-pulpectomy and obturation.
b. Direct pulp cap with caoh and composite.
c. Caoh pulpotomy.
d. Total extirpation of pulp and caoh.
491. The use of the rubber dam in endodontics is:

a. Frequently required.
b. An established rule.
c. Not required.
d. Time consuming.
e. Dictated by Pt. comfort.
492. Dentin hypersensitivity is best relieved or controlled by:

a. Using efficient cooling system.
b. Blocking exposed tubules on the dentin surface.
c. Opening tubules to permit release of intrapulpal pressure.
d. Applying anti inflammatory agent to exposed dentin.
493. Which of the following is a benign epithelial neoplasm:

a. Rhabdomyoma.
b. Fibroma.
c. Lipoma.
d. Granular cell tumor.
e. Keratoacanthoma.

494. The function of the periodontal ligament includes:
a. Mechanical function.
b. Formative function.
c. Nutritive function.
d. Sensory function.
495. Ankylosis:
a. No PDL.
b. Caused by trauma.
c. Extracted surgically.
496. The following are types of hamartoma except:

a. Cementoblastoma.
b. Compound odontoma.
c. Complex odontoma.
497. A child came to the clinic with continuous involuntary movement of his head
and extremities and difficulty in vocal communication. The condition is described
as:
a. Epilepsy.
b. Cerebral palsy.
498. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:

a. Osmosis.
b. Active transport.
c. Filtration.
d. Diffusion.
499. Cell that can give more than one type:

a. Fibroblast.
b. Odontoblast.
c. Mesenchymal cell.
500. High rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to:
a. Change direction of forces occruing here.
b. Long canine root.
c. Lower border is thin in this area.
d. Alveolus is thin in this area.
501. Lesion similar to endo lesion:

a. Hyperparathyroidism.
b. Initial stage of cemental dysplasia.
d. Dentigerous cyst.
e. Ameloblastoma.
f. Lateral periodontal cyst.
g. Myxoma & hemangioma.
502. Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because:

a. Marrow spaces are wide.
b. Affect growth center.
c. Hypocalcification in enamel.

503. The common disease affecting the submandibular salivary gland is:
a. Salivary calculi.
b. Pleomorphic adenomas.
c. Viral sialoadenitis.
d. Infected sialoadenitis.
504. Which the most common salivary gland neoplasm:

A. Pleomorphic adenoma.
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
505. Ranula is associated with which salivary gland:

a- submandiular gland.
b- sublingual gland.
506. Ranula can be treated by:

a. Excision.
b. Cauterization.
c. Incision.
d. Marsupialization.
507. Solitary bone cyst management:

a. anti inflammatory and follow up.
b. curettage and close.
c. marsupialization .
d. no active management.
508. Solitary bone cyst management:

a. anti inflammatory and follow up.
b. curettage and close.
c. marsupialization and antibiotic.
d. no active management.
509. For the ceramometal restorations, the type of finish line is:
a. Chamfer.
b. Beveled shoulder.
510. Benefits of opaque porcelain layer:

a. Bonding the metal structure.
b. Initiating the color.
c. a & b.
511. Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:

a. Proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures.
b. Associated pathology.
512. Epidemiology can be defined as:

a. A study of special areas of the skin.
b. The study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man.
c. Study of biological animals.
d. Study of disease in research laboratory.
513. Most common benign tumer in oral cavity is:
a. Fibroma ( Ameloblastic fibroma ).
b. Squamous cell carcinoma.
c. Lipoma.
514. Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in ludwig's angina?
a. Submandibular + masticatory spaces.
b. Sublingual + lat.Pha.spaces.
c. Submandibular + sublingual + submental spaces.
515. When you do amalgam finishing:

a. Immediately.
b. 24 hours later.
516. When polishing amalgam restoration:

a. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.
b. Wait for 24 hours.
c. a & b.
d. a only
e. b only
517. The roof of mandibular fossa ( glenoid fossa ) consists of:

a. Thin compact bone.
b. Spongy bone.
c. Cancellous bone.
518. Neoplasm that spread by lymphatic from the angle of the mouth
reaches the:
a. Preauricular lymph nodes.
b. Mental lymph nodes.
c. Submandibular lymph nodes.
d. Pterygoid plexus.
e. Jugulo-digastric nodes.
* Submandibular lymph nodes and submental lymph nodes.
519. Aplastic anemia is caused by:

a. Tetracycline.
b. Penicillin.
c. Erythromycin.
d. Sulfonamide.
520. Odontogenic infection can cause least complication:

a. Pulmonary abscess.
b. Peritonitis.
c. Prosthetic valve infection.
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis.

521. Cavernous sinus thrombosis not manifested as:
a. Infra orbital syndrome.
b. Syncope due to atrial obliteration.
c. Eye exophthalmos.
522. After u inject L.A for 2nd maxillary molar, pt. becomes colorless with
external swelling it’s due to :
1/ Facial artery.
2/ plexus vein.
3/ Posterior alveolar nerve.
523. Pass throw parotid gland:

a. Facial nerve.
b. Facial arteries.
c. External carotid veins.

524. Endomethasone is a root canal sealer that:
a. Dissolves in fluid so it weakens the root canal filling.
b. Very toxic containing formaldehyde.
c. Contains corticosteroids.
d. All the above.
525. Cause that master G.P not reach working length although it is the same size
of last file:
a. Dentin debris.
b. Ledge formation.
c. a & b.
526. Small access opening in upper centeral incisor leads to:

a. Complete removal of the pulp.
b. Incomplete removal of the pulp.
c. Conservative restoration.
527. In sickle cell anemia, O2 decreased in oral mucosa:

a. True.
b. False.
528. We distinguish between periapical and periodontal abscess:

a. X-ray examination.
b. Clinical examination.
c. Vitality of the pulp.
529. How can you prevent dental hypersensitivity:

a. Restoration by adhesion.
b. Controlled by alcohol.
c. Put sedative medication.
530. A U-shaped radiopaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is:
a. Zygomatic process.

b. Maxillary sinus wall.
531. Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to paralysis of:
a. Lingual nerve.
b. Hypoglossal nerve.
c. Chorda tympani nerve.
532. The choice of local anesthesia depends on:

a. Diameter of the nerve.
b. Structure of the bone.
c. Number of branches.
d. Type of L.A agent chemistry.
* Type of L.A agent chemistry OR Chemical composition of local anesthesia.
533. Choice of local anesthesia technique influenced by:

a) Chemical composition of anesthesia.
B) The location of the nerve.
C) Bone structure.
* The bone of the maxilla is more porous than that of the mandible, so it can be infiltrated
anywhere.
534. Mandibular foramen in young children is:

a. At level of occlusal plane.
b. Above the level of occlusal plane.
c. Anterior the level of occlusal plane.
d. Below the level of occlusal plane.
535. When you give inferior dental block for pedo pt., the
angulation for the needle:
a. 7 mm below the occlusal plane.
b. 5 mm below the occlusal plane.
c. 7 mm above the occlusal plane.
d. At the occlusal plane.

536. When you want to give inferior alveolar block for a child you have to take
attention that the mandibular foramin is:
a. At level of occlusal plane.
b. Above the level of occlusal plane.
c. Anterior the level of occlusal plane.
d. Below the level of occlusal plane.

‫ ﺑﻤﺴﺘﻮﻯى‬ ‫ ﺍاﻹﺑﺮﺓة‬ ‫ ﻧﺪﺧﻞ‬ ‫ ﻓﺈﻧﻨﺎ‬ ‫ ﻟﺘﺨﺪﻳﯾﺮﻫﮬﮪھﺎ‬ ‫ ﻟﻜﻦ‬ ‫ ﻭو‬ ‫ ﺍاﻹﻁطﺒﺎﻕق‬ ‫ ﻣﺴﺘﻮﻯى‬ ‫ ﺗﺤﺖ‬ ‫ ﺗﻜﻮﻥن‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻁطﻔﺎﻝل‬ ‫ ﻋﻨﺪ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻘﻨﺎﺓة‬ ‫ ﻓﺘﺤﺔ‬ : ‫ ﺍاﻻﻧﺘﺒﺎﻩه‬ ‫* ﻳﯾﺮﺟﻰ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻹﻁطﺒﺎﻕق‬
* The mandibular foramen was located 4.12 mm. below the occlusal plane at the age of 3 years.
It subsequently moved upward with age. By the age of 9 years, it had reached approximately the
same level as the occlusal plane. The foramen continued to move upward to 4.16 mm. above the
occlusal plane in the adult group.
537. The cell primary site of ATP production is:

a. Mitochondria.
b. Lysosomes.
c. Nucleus.
d. Nucleolus.
e. Vacuoles.
538. The organelle most closely associated with the manufacture of proteins
within the cell:
a. Ribosome.
b. Lysosome.
c. Nucleolus.
d. Cell wall.
e. Cell membrane.
539. The packing and sorting of protein is the function of:

a. Endoplasmic reticulum.
b. Golgi apparatus.
c. Mitochondria.
d. Nucleus.
540. The process of attraction of neutrophils to a site of local tissue injury is

called:
a. Phagocytosis.
b. Diapedesis.
c. Chemotaxis.
d. Epistaxis.
541. The process of cell engulfing particle is called:

a. Endocytosis.
b. Exocytosis.
c. Phagocytosis.
d. Pinocytosis.
542. Action of histamine:

a. Vasodilatation.
b. Permeability.
c. Chemokinesis.
d. Bronchoconstriction.
e. All of the obove.

543. Cholesterol crystals are found in:
a. Keratocyst.
b. Periodontal cyst.

544. The most common odontogenic cysts in the jaws are:

a. Radicular cyst.
b. Keratocyst.

545. Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with:

a. Unerupted permanent maxillary canines.
b. Unerupted mandibular third molars.

• Although dentigerous cysts may involve any tooth, the mandibular third molars are the
most commonly affected.

546. Histopathologically, dentigerous cyst lining epithelium may be:

a. Cuboidal in type.
b. Stratified squamous in type.
c. Reduced enamel epithelium.

547. Thyroglossal duct cysts:

a. Are only found in the posterior tongue.
b. Clinically present in the lateral neck tissue.
c. May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyroglossal duct.
d. Are sometimes called lympho-epithelial cysts.

548. Unilateral swelling and slowly progressing lesion on the left side of the
mandible. This could be:
a. Osteoma.
b. Cementoblastoma.
d. Osteosarcoma.

549. Tooth germs of primary teeth arise from:

a. Dental lamina.
b. Dental follicle.
c. Enamel organ.
d. Epithelial cell of malassez.
• Tooth germ = Tooth bud.

• Also, tooth germs of permanent teeth arrise from dental lamina.
550. Apical periodontal cyst arises from:

a. Hertwig sheath.
b. Epithelial cell rest of malassez.
551. Formation of periodontal cyst due to:

a. Nasolacrimal cyst.
b. Hertwigs.
c. Epithelial rest of malassaz.
d. Peals of serres.

552. Which is the most likely cause of periodontal cyst?
a. Cell rest of malassez.
b. Cell rest of serss.
c. Cell of hertwig sheath.
553. Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa:

a. Always originates within the surface epithelium.
b. Mostly originates within the surface epithelium.
c. Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue.
d. Always originates from langerhans cells within epithelium.
• Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa originates within the epithelial-
connective tissue interface ( within surface epithelium and connective tissue ).
: ‫* ﻟﺬﻟﻚ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻫﮬﮪھﻴﯿﺠﻴﯿﺒﻠﻚ ﻭوﺍاﺣﺪﺓة ﻓﻘﻂ ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻛﻼﻫﮬﮪھﻤﺎ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺢ‬
• Mostly originates within the surface epithelium. Or
• Mostly originates within the connective tissue.
554. Histopathologically, adenoid cystic carcinoma is characterized by islands of:

a. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that are intermingled with areas of pseudocartilage.
b. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "swiss cheese" appearance.
c. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "swiss cheese" appearance and evidence of serous acini.
d. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that contain mucin and normal acini.
555. The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest in:
a. Homogenous leukoplakia.
b. Erythroplakia.
c. Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis.
d. Speckled leukoplakia.
556. The term acanthosis refers to:

a. A decreased production of keratin.
b. An increased production of keratin.
c. An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone.
557. The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands are:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma.
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma.
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma.
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma.
558. Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through:

a. Foramen rotundum.
b. Foramen ovale.
c. Superior orbital fissure.
d. Inferior orbital fissure.
e. Jugular foramen.
559. Foramen ovale is in the following bone:

a. Temporal.
b. Occipital.
c. Sphenoid.

560. The optic foramen canal is a part of:

A) Frontal bone.
B) Sphenoid bone.
C) Esthmoid bone.

561. Optic nerve coming from which bone:

A- Sphenoid bone.
B- Zygomatic bone.
C- Palatal bone.

562. The inferior alveolar nerve is branch of:

1. Mandibular nerve.
2. Posterior mandibular alveolar nerve.
3. Anterior mandibular alveolar nerve.
563. The following structures open into the middle meatus:

a. Nasolacrimal duct.
b. Posterior ethmoidal sinus.
c. Maxillary sinus.
d. Sphenoid sinus.
e. Anterior ethmoidal sinus.
f. a, b & d.
g. a & b.
h. c & e.
i. All of the above

(Maxillary sinus, anterior ethmoidal sinus and middle ethmoidal sinus open into the middle meatus
).

564. Ligaments associated with TMJ:

a. Tempromandibular.
b. Sphenomandibular.
c. Stylomandibular.
565. Location to give inferior alveolar nerve block the landmarks are:
1/ pterygomandibular raphe.
2/ cronoid notch.
3/ All of the above.
566. The following cavity bases are moisture sensitive:

a. Polycarboxylate.

b. Zinc phosphate.
c. GI cement.
d. ZOE.
e. a, c.
567. Which of the following types of base materials can be placed in contact with
polymethyl methaacrylate & not inhibit the polymerization of the resin:
a. ZOE.
b. GI cement.
c. Zn phosphate cement.
d. Varnish.
e. b, c.
568. Cement which contains fluoride:

a. GI.
b. ZOE.
c. Reinforced ZOE.
d. Polycarboxylate cement.
569. Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration should be due to:

‫ﺗﺪﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺭر ﺃأﻭو ﺗﺪﻣﻴﯿﺮ ﺃأﻭو ﺗﻜﺴﻴﯿﺮ ﺃأﻭو ﺗﻐﻴﯿﻴﯿﺮ‬
* Marginal deterioration = Marginal degradation =
Marginal ditching = Marginal crevicing.
a. No enough bulk of dentin.

b. Corrosion.
c. Over carving.
d. Improper manipulation of amalgam.
e. a and b.
f. c and d.
g. All the above.
h. b, c and d.
570. A restoration of anterior teeth with RCT, abraded incisal edge and small
mesial & destal caries is by:
a. Ceramometal crown.
b. Composite laminated.
c. Veneer.
571. The powder for GI cement contains:

a. Sio2, Al2o3, CaF.
b. Sio2, zno, barium sulphate.

572. The body secrets antibody against antigen using which cells:
a. T lymphocyte.
b. B lymphocyte.
573. In diabetic patient, periodontium affected by which cells:

a. Neutrophil.
b. Macrophages.
574. When take an x-ray to pregnant lady, we use all of these methods
except:
a. Digital x-ray.
b. High sensitive film.
c. Paralleling tech (long cone) 16 inch.
d. Bisecting algle (short cone) 8 inch.
e. Lead apron with thyroid collar.

575. When take x-ray we should stand:

a. 6 feets away in 90 - 135 angles.
b. 10 feets away in 180 - 360 angles.
c. 3 feets away in 60 - 70 angles.
576. Proximal caries should be opened when:

a. Confined within enamel.
b. Pass DE junction.
c. Dentin laterally.
577. Proximal caries confined to enamel:

a. Prevention.
b. Observation.
c. Restore with GI.
578. In a study, it should:

a. Protect you against role of the statistician.
b. Protect you against legal risks.
c. Protect against physical risks.
579. Cause of angular cheilitis:

a. Loss vertical dimension in pt. have complete denture.
b. Autoimmune factors.
580. Ugly duckling stage:

a. 9-11 years old.
b. 13-15 years old.
c. 7-9 years old.
581. Eruption of primary dentition starts from:

1. 6-7 months.
2. 1 year.
3. 9 months.

582. Component of Gutta percha:
a. 50% Gp & 50% ZOE.
b. 20% Gp & 70% ZOE.
583. All are irrigation for canals except:

a. Saline.
b. Hydrogen peroxide.

c. Naocl.
d. RC prep.
584. Most common bacteria causing caries:

A. Streptococcal mutans.
B. Lactobacilli.
C. Streptococcal salivarius.
585. In community diagnosis and treatment program:
a. Water flouridation.
b. Diagnose, prevent and treat.
586. Porcelain shrinkage after firing:

a. 1-5 %.
b. 5-10 %.
c. 10-20 %.
. % 40 ‫ ﺣﺘﻰ‬ 30 ‫ﻣﻦ‬ : 783‫ ﺹص‬ ‫ﺃأﻛﺴﻔﻮﺭرﺩد‬
587. The cement under MOD amalgam have this character:

a. High modulus of elasticity.
b. Low modulus of elasticity.
c. The high modulus of elasticity prevents bonding and decreases tensile strength.
d. Both a & c.
588. Examination of Pt. health by the dentist:

a. To know the patients health.
b. To know what medications to give.
c. To know general health data.
589. 2 statements true or false:

a. RCT abutment of FPD has higher risk for fracture.
b. Abutment which has RCT in cantilever FPD has higher susceptibility to fracture.
a. 1st is true,2nd is false
b.1st is false, 2nd is true.
c. Both are false.
d.Both are true.
590. Both glass ionomer & polycarpoxylate cement contain:

a. Polyacrylic acid.
b. ZOE powder.
591. Most common cyst in oral cavity:

a. Radicular cyst.
b. Peridontal cyst.
592. Factors delay healing of wound:

a. Infection.
b. Torn wound edges.
c. Strain.

593. Factor interferes with healing:
a. Poor suturing.

b. Infection.

594. Dry socket happens after:

a. 24 h.
b. 3 – 5 days.
c. 1 week.
d. 2 weeks.
595. Compared to herpetic ulcers, aphthous ulcers are:

a. Small size.
b. In mucosa lining.
c. Leave scars.
596. Avulsion, more important factor that affects reimplantation:

a. Contaminated roots.
b. Time since the avulsion.
597. Nicotina stomatitis:

a. Palate hyperplasia.
b. Prickle cell like shape prominent base.
* In nicotinic stomatis, the palate exhibits signs of hyperkeratosis and acanthosis.
598. Dentinogenesis imperfecta have all except:

a. Broken enamel.
b. Blue sclera.
c. Broken bone.
d. Supernumerary teeth.

599. Generalized gray discoloration in a 28 years old

patient’s teeth, with blue sclera and an enlarged pulp
chambers and short roots, and multiple fractures in enamel,
the diagnosis is:
A) Dentinogenesis Imperfecta.
B) Amelogenesis Imperfecta.

600. 30 years old pt. came to the clinic with brownish discoloration
of all his teeth (intrinsic discoloration) & yellowish in U/V light,
the most likely cause is:
1/ flourosis.
2/ tetracycline.
3/ amelogenesis imperfecta.
4/ dentinogensis imperfectea.

601. Most sign of fracture of mandible:

a. Nose bleeding.

b. Malocclusion.
c. Parasthesia.
602. Mandibular fracture other complications:

1 Nasal bleeding.
2- Exophthalmos.
3- Numbness in the infraorbital nerve distribution.
‫ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﻩه ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﻓﻴﯿﻬﮭﺎ ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻭوﺃأﻋﺘﻘﺪ ﺃأﻥن ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻧﺎﻗﺺ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا‬
: ‫ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺢ ﻣﺜﻞ‬
Malocclusion: :‫ﺃأﻭو‬ ‫ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﺬﻩه ﺃأﻫﮬﮪھﻢ ﻋﻼﻣﺔ ﻟﻜﺴﺮ ﺍاﻟﻔﻚ ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻰ‬601 ‫ﻣﺜﻞ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل‬
Numbness of the inferior alveolar nerve.
paraesthesia of lower lip or the chin.
603. What supply the gingival buccal tissue of premolars, canines and
incisors: ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﻟﻢ ﻳﯾﺤﺪﺩد ﻫﮬﮪھﻞ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺃأﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﻋﻠﻮﻳﯾﺔ ﺃأﻡم ﺳﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ؟‬
a. Long buccal nerve.
b. Inferior alveolar nerve. ( innervates the mandibular molars, premolars, canines and incisors ).
c. Superior alveolar nerve. ( innervates the maxillary molars by posterior superior alveolar
nerve, innervates the maxillary premolars by middle superior alveolar nerve and innervates
the maxillary canines and incisors by anterior superior alveolar nerve ).
604. Drainage of tip of the tongue:

a. Submandibular lymph nodes.
b. Submental lymph nodes.
c. Sublingual lymph nodes.
* Submandibular lymph nodes drain lateral parts “ right & left sides ” of anterior 2/3rd of the
tongue.
605. Cementum in cervical 2/3 has:

a. Acellular intrinsic fiber.
b. Acellular extrinsic fiber.
c. Cellular mixed fibers.
d. Intermediate cementum.

606. Pins are inserted into:
a. Enamel.
b. Dentin.
c. Enamel and dentin (DEJ).
d. Any of the above .

607. After etch enamel and bond it with 5th generation the strength is ?
a. 5-10 Mp.
b. 25 Mp.
c. 30 Mp.
d. 100 Mp.
* But, dentin strength becomes 35 Mp.
608. Composite restoration that was matching in shade, after one week it
became much light. The reason could be:
a. Light started photoinitation.
b. Absorption water.
c. Shade selected after rubber dam.
609. Disadvantages of digital x-ray except:

a. Large disk space storage.
b. Clarity and resolution.
c. Expensive.
610. Treatment of fungal infections:

a. Penicillin.
b. Tetracyclin.
c. Nystatin.
611. Properties of ideal endo obturation material are

all except:
a. Biocompatible.
b. Radiolucent.
612. Most difficult of extract:
a. Mand. 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots.
b. Mand. 3rd molar with distoangular angulation with divergent curved roots.
613. Pt. has hyperventilation in clinic. Most cause:

a. Reduced of CO2.
b. Increase CO2.
c. Anxiety.
614. Very important part in endo treatment:

a. Complete debridement of the canal.
615. Perio endo lesion, the primary treatment:

a. Endo treatment.
b. Deep scaling and root planning.
616. Contraindication to extraction:

a. Cardiac pt.
b. Previous recent radio therapy.
617. Base of the flap should be wide for:
a. Healing.

b. Better blood supply to the wound.
618. Supra calculus all true except:

a. Hard and rough.
b. Easy to detach.
c. Has component of saliva.
619. Thickness of luting cement:
a. 100 micrometer.
b. 40 micrometer.
c. 1mm.
620. Formacresol used in:

a. Full concentration.
b. 5th concentration.
c. One fifth concentration.
621. Zinc phosphate cement:

a. Mechanical attachment.
b. Chemical attachment.
622. Traditional Glass ionomer:

a. Mechanical bonding.
b. Acid-base reaction.
c. Mechanical chemical bonding.
* Acid-base reaction = chemical bonding.
623. Pontic design of an FPD:

a. Same size buccolingually of the missing tooth.
b. Smaller than missing tooth buccolingually.
c. Wider buccolingually.
624. False negative response of an electric pulp test given:

a. After trauma.
b. Periodontal disease.
c. In teenager.
625. Young with open apex, examination test:

a. Reliable.
b. Non reliable.
626. Best media for the avulsed tooth:

a. Tap water.

b. HBSS.
c. Saliva.
d. Milk.
Dental secrets : ‫ﺣﺴﺐ‬

‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﺘﻌﺎﺩدﻝل‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻠﺤﻲ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﺎﻧﻚ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻠﻮﻝل‬: ‫ ﺑﺎﻟﺘﺮﺗﻴﯿﺐ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻲ‬ ‫ ﺯزﺭرﻋﻪﮫ‬ ‫ ﺇإﻋﺎﺩدﺓة‬ ‫ ﻗﺒﻞ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻨﺨﻠﻊ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﻦ‬ ‫ ﻟﺤﻔﻆ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻭوﺳﺎﻁط‬ ‫ ﺃأﻓﻀﻞ‬
HBSS ( Hank's balanced salt solution )
. ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﻨﻔﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺎء‬ ‫ ﺛﻢ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻠﻌﺎﺏب‬ ‫ ﺛﻢ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﻟﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﻭوﻣﺤﻠﻮﻝل‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﻠﻴﯿﺐ ﺍاﻟﺒﺎﺭرﺩد‬ ‫ ﺛﻢ‬ Viaspan ‫ ﻓﻴﯿﺎﺳﺒﺎﻥن‬ ‫ﺛﻢ‬
627. Rigid palatal strap major connector. The material of construction is:
A. Cr-Co.
B. Gold alloy.
C. Wrought wire.
628. The use of low speed hand piece in removal of soft caries in children is
better than high speed because:
a. less vibration.
b. less pulp exposure.
c. better than high speed.
629. Progression of initial caries to cavitations takes 18

months this based on:
a. streptococci mutans initiate caries.
b. lactobacilli progress caries.
630. The vertical fracture of the tooth is detected by:

A. Periodontal pocket.
B. Radiographically.
C. Vertical percussion.
* The vertical fracture of the tooth is detected by:

1. Fiber optic light.
2. Periodontal pocket ( it is recognized clinically because a periodontal pocket forms along the
fracture line ) .
631. Principle of elevator use all of the following except:

1) Wheel and axle.
2) Wedging the socket wall.
3) Wedging.
4) Lever.
632. The least way to kill HIV:
A- Ultraviolet chamber.
B- Sodium hypochlorite.

C- Chemoclave.
D- Autoclave.
* Ultraviolet chamber = Ultraviolet light.
633. To kill HIV use all of the following except:

A. Naocl.
B. Ultraviolet chamber.
C. Autoclave.
D. Chimoclave.
* Ultraviolet chamber = Ultraviolet light.
Non of the above ‫ ﻟﻮ ﺫذﻛﺮ ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬ *

‫ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﺨﺘﺎﺭرﺓة ﻷﻥن ﺍاﻷﻟﺘﺮﺍاﻓﻴﯿﻮﻟﻴﯿﺖ ﻻﻳﯾﺖ ﺑﺮﻏﻢ ﺃأﻧﻬﮭﺎ ﺃأﻗﻞ ﻁطﺮﻳﯾﻘﺔ ﻓﻌﺎﻟﺔ ﻭوﻟﻜﻨﻬﮭﺎ ﻁطﺮﻳﯾﻘﺔ‬
‫ﺗﺴﺘﺨﺪﻡم ﻟﻘﺘﻞ ﻓﻴﯿﺮﻭوﺱس ﺍاﻻﻳﯾﺪﺯز ﻟﻬﮭﺬﺍا ﻟﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﺧﺮ ﻏﻴﯿﺮ ﺍاﻻﺭرﺑﻌﺔ ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﺍاﻟﻤﺬﻛﻮﺭرﺓة‬
.‫ﺑﺎﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺃأﻭو ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر ) ﻻ ﻳﯾﻮﺟﺪ ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻖ ( ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه‬
634. Patient with amalgam usually complains of pain with:

A. Cold.
B. Galvanic.
C. Hot.
635. Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radiopaque areas in the
canine premolar area of the mandible is:
a) Hematoma.
b) Remaining roots.
c) Torus mandibularis.
d) Internal oblique ridge.
e) Genial tubercle.
636. Pain of short duration with hot and cold:

A. dentin sensitivity.
B. irriversible pulpitis.
C. chronic pulpitis.
D. apical periodontitis.

637. Shade guide:

A. Under light.
B. Dry tooth.
C. None of above.
638. When do we do incision and drainage?

A. Indurated diffuse swelling.

B. Sinus tract.
C. Chronic apical periodontitis.
639. Pregnant lady needs oral surgery:

a. Needs prophylactic antibiotic.
B. Needs under GA.
c. Needs steroid cover.
640. When do we give antibiotic:

a. Widespread, rapid infection.
b. Compromised host defence.
c. a & b.
641. Tooth requires RCT with bone resorption. Terminate

RCT at:
a. Radiographic apex.
b. 0.5-1 mm. short of radiographic apex.
c. 0.5-1 mm. beyond radiographic apex.
• Some researchers suggest calculating the working length 1 mm. short of the radiographic
apex with normal apical anatomy, 1.5 mm. short with bone resorption but not root
resorption, and 2 mm. short with bone and root resorption.
642. Muscle that form floor of the mouth ( oral diaphragm ):

A. Mylohyoid.
B. Geniohyoid.
C. Masseter.
643. Organism that initiates caries:

a. S. mutants.
644. Incipient caries: ‫ﺍاﻟﺘﺴﻮﺱس ﺍاﻟﻤﺒﺘﺪﻯىء‬

a. Surface zone is relatively unaffected.
b. The surface zone is the largest portion with the highest pore volume.
c. Tooth preparation and composite is the best treatment.
d. Pulpal reaction is possible.
e. Caries progress in enamel faster than dentin.
645. Important factor in long term success of perio treatment:

a. Skill of the operator.
b. Perio maintenance.
646. Which causes gingival enlargement:

A. Cyclosporine ( Nefidipine ).
B. Aspirin.

C. Flagyl.
647. Pedo use rubber dam for:

a. Improve visibility and access.
b. Lowers risk of swallowing.
c. Sterile field.
d. a & b.

648. Root most commonly pushed in max. sinus:
a. Buccal of 7.
b. Palatal of 6.
c. Palatal of 7.
d. Buccal of 6.
e. Distal of 6 & 7.
649. If tooth or root is pushed during surgical extraction into maxillary

sinus:
a) Leave it and inform the patient.
b) Remove it as soon as possible.
c) Follow the patient for 3 months.
d) None of the above.
650. Cementum is formed from:

a. Cementoblasts.
b. Fibroblasts.
c. Cementicles.
651. Body defends itself by antibodies from:

a. B lymphocytes.
b. T lymphocytes.
c. Plasma cell.
652. Cell that produce antibodies:

a. B-lymphocytes.
b. T-lymphocytes.
c. Plasma cell.
653. Hyperventilation in dental office:

a. Anxiety.
b. Low CO2.
c. High CO2.
654. Avulsed teeth stored in:

a. Milk.
b. Water.
655. The best media for keeping the avulsed teeth is:
a. Water in the same temperature of room.
b.Milk in the same temperature of room.
c. Cold water.
d.Cold milk.
656. The depth of cavity preparation for composite in posterior:

a. Limited to enamel.
b. 0.5 mm. in dentin.
c. Depends on caries extension.
d. Depends on tooth discoloration.
e. 0.2 mm. in dentin.
657. Factors that make impaction surgery more difficult:

A. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical roots.
B. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and curved roots.
C. Distoangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical roots
D. Distoangular position, thin follicle, narrow periodontal ligament and divergent curved
roots.
E. Soft tissue impaction, separated from second molar and inferior alveolar nerve.
658. Which scalpel below is universally ‫ ﻣﻨﺘﺸﺮ‬ ‫ ﻋﺎﻟﻤﻴﯿﺎ‬used for oral

surgical procedures?
A. Number 2 blade.
B. Number 6 blade.
C. Number 10 blade.
D. Number 12 blade.
E. Number 15 blade.
659. Main disadvantage of chlorohexidine:

a. Staining.
b. Burning sensation.
c. Altered taste.
660. The radiograph shows condylar head orientation and facial symmetry:
a. Submentovertex.
b. Reverse town.
c. Opg.
d. Transorbital.
661. The best way of radiograph shows displacement of mandibular

condyle:
a. Reverse town.
b.Oplaqe horizontal 30.
662. What kinds of radiographs which we do not use for TMJ. movements?
a- Transcranial.
b- Computerized tomography.
c- Conventional tomography.
d- Arthrography.
663. To check TMJ. range of movement:

a) Cranial imagery.
b) Arthrography.
c) Traditional tomography.
d) Computerized tomography.
664. To check a perforation in the desk of the TMJ. we need:

A) Cranial imagery.
B) Arthrography.
C) Traditional tomography.
D) Computerized tomography.

665. Zinc phosphate cement and polycarboxylic cement both have:
a. Zinc oxide particles.
b. Silica quartz particles.
c. Polyarcyilic acid.
d. Phosphoric acid.
666. Pedo, has trauma in 11, half an hour ago, with slight apical exposure,
open apex, treatment is:
a. Pulpotomy with formacresol.
b. Apexification.
c. DPC. (Direct pulp capping).
d. Extraction.
667. Which intracanal medicament causes protein coagulation:

a. Formocresol.
b. Naocl.
d. Hydrogen peroxide.
668. GIC. compared to composite:
A. Increase linear coefficient of thermal expansion.
B. More wear resistant.
C. Less soluble.
D. Stiff.
E. Polymerization shrinkage.
* Polymerization shrinkage: less in GIC.
669. Pt. came with pain awaken her from sleep 20 am. and
could'nt sleep later:
A. reversible pulpitis.
B. Irreversible pulpitis.
C. Periodontal pain.
670. Pt. with severe pain in lower left mandibular molar, examination
positive pulp test & percussion test & no radiographic abnormality,
right side have recent fpd. upper:
a. Chronic apical periodontits.
b. Actue apical periodontitis.
c. Apical abcess.
671. Most common cyst:

a. Apical radicular cyst.
b. Keratocyst.
672. 6 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted, best space

maintainer is:
a. Lingual arch.
b. Bilateral band and loop.
c. Bilateral distal shoe.
d. No need for space maintainer.
* Band and loop: ‫ ﻟﻤﺎ ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﺿﺮﺱس ﻭوﺍاﺣﺪ ﻓﻘﻂ ﻣﺨﻠﻮﻉع ﺳﻮﺍاء ﻋﻠﻮﻯى ﺃأﻭو ﺳﻔﻠﻰ‬ *
Lingual arch: ‫ﻟﻤﺎ ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﺿﺮﺳﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﺨﻠﻮﻋﻴﯿﻦ ﺳﻮﺍاء ﻋﻠﻮﻯى ﺃأﻭو ﺳﻔﻠﻰ‬
673. 6 years old child lost his upper right 1st molar,
management:
a. Lingual bar.
b. Crown and loop.
c. Band and loop.
674. Band and loop space maintainer is most suitable for the maintenance
of space after premature loss of:
a. A single primary molar.
b. Two primary molars.
c. A canine and a lateral incisor.
675. Pedo, lost 75, sm.:

a. Band and loop.
b. Nance appliance.
c. Crown and loop.
676. 5 years old patient lost his primary first maxillary molar the best
retainer is:
1. Band and loop.
2. Crown and loop.
3. Lingual arch.
4. Nance appliance.
677. 6 years child with bilateral loss of deciduous molars & the
anterior teeth not erupted yet, the space maintainer of choice
is:
A- lingual arch.
B- Bilateral band and loop.
C- Bilateral band and loop with distal shoe.
D- Removable partial denture.
678. Lower anterior teeth labial mucosa supplied by:

a. Mental nerve.
b. Inferior dental nerve.
C. Buccal nerve.
679. Buccal branch of trigeminal is:

a. Sensory.
b. Motor.

c. Psychomotor.
d. Sensory and motor.
680. Buccal branch of facial is:

a. Sensory.
b. Motor.
c. Mixed.

681. Dentine permeability increases:
a. Coronal less than root dentin.
b. Permeability increases toward DEJ.
C. Permeability increases toward DCJ.
682. Which material has best biocompatibility Intraorally:

a. Cobalt chromium.
b. Titanium.
c. Nickle chromium.
d. Gold Palladium.
683. Porcelain teeth in complete denture opposing natural teeth are not
preferred due to:
a. Increase occlusal load on natural teeth.
b. Wear of natural teeth.
c. Clicking during mastication.
684. Which of following restorations more likely to cause wear to opposing:

a. Composite.
b. Gold.
c. Porcelain.
d. Amalgam.
685. In restoring lost tooth, which is least important:

a. Esthetic.
b. Pt. demand.
c. Function.
d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability.
686. Enamel tufts are:

a. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DEJ.
b. Enamel rods change their direction.
c. Enamel rods get crowded.
687. In clinical research:

a. Blind or double blind.
b. Needs control.
c. Includes intervention.
d. Offers no benefits to subject at risk.
688. One of the main causes of malocclusion:

a. Premature loss of primary teeth.
689. To disinfect gutta percha:

a. Chemical agents.
b. Autoclave.

690. Squamous cell carcinoma is derived from:
a. Epithelial tissue.
b. Connective tissue.
691. Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma:

a. Postero-lateral border of tongue.
b. Floor of the mouth.
c. Buccal mucosa.
d. Lip.
e. Skin.

* Postero-lateral border of tongue: ‫ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻜﺎﻥن‬
* Floor of the mouth: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻜﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ‬
692. Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma:

a. Postero-lateral border of tongue.
b. Floor of the mouth.
c. Buccal mucosa.
d. Lip.
e. Skin.
693. The majority of introral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:

a. Poorly differentiated.
b. Well moderately differentiated.
c. Spindle cell in type.
d. Carcinoma in situation.
694. Squamous cell carcinoma is multifactorial: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﻮﺍاﻣﻞ‬ ‫ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩدﺓة‬

a. True.
b. False.
695. Early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity presents

as:
a. Vesicle.
b. Sessile mass.
c. Ulcer.
d. Red plaque.
e. A white cauliflower like lesion.

* Red plaque. ( Early appearance ) . ‫ ﺑﻘﻌﺔ ﺣﻤﺮﺍاء‬
* Ulcer. ( Later change ). . ‫ﺗﺘﺤﻮﻝل ﺑﻌﺪ ﺫذﻟﻚ ﺍاﻟﻰ ﻗﺮﺣﺔ‬

696. Firm and fixed neck nodes are most to be detected
in association with:
a. An ameloblastoma.
b. A basal cell carcinoma.
c. An odontogenic fibroma.
d. A squamous cell carcinoma.
697. Stage Ib disease of squamous cell carcinoma:

a- T1 NO MO.
b- T3 NO MO.
c- T2 NO MO.
d- T4 NO MO.
* Stage IA disease ‫ >ــــ‬T1 NO MO.

* Stage IB disease ‫ >ــــ‬T2 NO MO.
698. File #40 means:

a. 0.40 is the diameter at d1 .
b. 0.40 is from d1 to d16 .
699. Cause of radicular cyst:

a. Non vital tooth.
b. Vital tooth.
700. Most difficult of extract:

A. Mand. 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots.
B. Mand. 3rd molar with distoangular angulation with divergent curved
roots.
* Typically distoangular impactions are the easiest to extract in the maxilla and most difficult to
extract in the mandible, while mesioangular impactions are the most difficult to extract in the
maxilla and easiest to extract in the mandible.
701. Minimum thickness of noble metal crown:

a- 0.1 mm.
b- 0.5 mm.
c- 1 mm.
d- 2 mm.
* noble metal crown = gold crown.
* What be the thickness of noble metal framework of the ceramometal

crown?
A. 0.3-0.5 mm. ***
B. 1-1.5 mm.
C. 0.1-0.2 mm.
D. 0.5-0.8 mm.
* noble metal framework = noble metal substructure.
* The thickness of base metal framework of ceramometal crown is 0.1-

0.3 mm.
* base metal framework = base metal substructure.
* Minimal thickness of porcelain in ceramometal crown is 0.7 mm.
702. To locate the canal orifice use:

a- Barite probe.
b- Endo spreader.
c- Endo file with curved tip.
d- Round bur.
Also, endodontic explorer is used to search for canal orifices.
703. Healing by secondary intention causes:

A- There is a space between the edges filled by fibrous tissue.
B- Leading to scar formation.
C- A and B.
704. Contraindications for endo treatment except:

A- non strategic tooth.
B- non restorable tooth.
C- vertical fracture tooth.
D- tooth with large periapical lesion.

* All these are contraindicated to RCT except:
a- Non restorable tooth.
b- Vertical root fracture.
c- Tooth with insufficient tooth support.
d- Pt. who has diabetes or hypertension. ***
705. Arrange the steps:

1. Ca(oh)2 placing _ varnish _ base _ amalgam.
2. Ca(oh)2 placing _ base _ varnish _ amalgam.
‫* ﻛﻼ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﻴﯿﻦ ﻷﻥن ﻛﻼﻫﮬﮪھﻤﺎ ﻧﻈﺮﻳﯾﺘﺎﻥن ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﺘﺎﻥن ﻭوﻋﻠﻰ ﺣﺴﺐ ﻛﻞ ﻁطﺒﻴﯿﺐ ﺃأﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺃأﻥن ﻳﯾﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﻣﺎ ﻳﯾﺤﻠﻮ ﻟﻪﮫ‬
‫ ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺛﺎﻟﺚ ﻳﯾﺠﻤﻊ ﺑﻴﯿﻦ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﻳﯾﻦ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﻓﻄﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻛﺪﻩه ﻭوﻻﺯزﻡم‬... ‫ﻣﻨﻬﮭﻤﺎ‬
. ‫ﺍاﺧﺘﺎﺭر ﻭوﺍاﺣﺪ ﻣﻨﻬﮭﻢ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﺍاﻟﻨﻈﺮﻳﯾﺔ ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﺍاﻷﺻﺢ‬
706. Soft palate falls abruptly facilitate recording post dam, falls gradually
make recording post dam difficult.
A. two statements true.
B. two false.
C. first true, second false.
D. first false, second true.
707. Caries progress in children more than adult due to:

A. difference in ph.
B. generalized dentin sclerosing by age.
C. increasing in organic content of tubular dentin by age.
708. Osteogensis during endodontic surgery aimed to

prevent:
A. fibrous in growth.
B. growth factor.
C. formation of blood.
709. 60 years old patient needs to make complete denture

with thick labial frenum with wide base. The operation:
A. Vestibuloplasty.
B. Z-plasty.
C. Subperiostum incision.
D. Deep mucoperiosteum incision.
* Vestibuloplasty is indicated for frenum attachment with wide base.

* Z-plasty is indicated for frenum attachment with narrow base.

710. In 6 weeks of intrauterine life, the development starts. The
oral epithelium is stratified squamous epithelium will
thickened and gives dental lamina:
a- true.
b- false.
* The development of dental lamina occurs in the 6th weeks of

intrauterine life.
711. Retention of amalgam depends on:

a- Amalgam bond.
b- Convergency of walls oclusally.
c- Divergency of walls oclusally.
d- Retentive pins.
712. Energy absorbed by the point of fracture called:

a- Ultimate strength.
b- Elastic limit.
c- Toughness.
d- Brittleness.
713. Mix in walking non vital bleaching:

a- H2O2 with phosph.
B- Superexol with sod. parporate.
c- Superexol with ca. hydroxide.
d- H2O2 with sodium perborate.
714. Local contraindication of extraction:

A- Pt. recent recieved radiotheraby.
B- Tooth in the malignant tumor.
C- Both A and B.
715. Since composite tooth preparation should be conservative so the

design:
a- Amalgam in moderate and large cavities.
b- Beveled amalgam margins.
c- Conservative restorations.
716. Preparation of all incipient cavity within enamel

acquired pellicle:
a- Structures a layer protects tooth.
b- Aids in remineralization.
717. The most affected tooth in nurse bottle feeding:

a- lower molar.
b- upper molar.
c- max. incisor.
d- mand. Incisor.
718. Most impacted tooth is:

a- mand. 8
b- max. 2
c- upper canine.
d- premolars.
719. Most common tooth which needs surgical extraction:

a) mandibualr third molar.
720. Patient is diagnosed for ceramometal full veneer. You

plan to use epoxy resin, what's the best impression material to
be used:
A. Polyether.
B. Polysulfide.
C. Agar agar.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
* Silicone ( polyvinyl siloxane ) and polyether impression materials are good

compatible with epoxy resin , but polysulphide and hydrocolloids are not
compatible with epoxy resin .
721. The impression material of choice when we want to take impression

for epoxy resin pin is:
A) Polysulfide.
B) Polyether.
C) Agar agar.
D) Irreversible hydrocolloid.
722. Impression material causes bad taste to patient:

a- polysulfide.
b- polyether.
c- additional silicon.
d- alginate.
723. What is the most unfavorable impression material by the patient due
to bad taste:
a. agar.
b.silicone.
c. polyether.
d.polysulfide.
724. The impression used for preliminary impressions or study casts is:
1. Agar agar.

2. Silicon.
3. Alginate.
4. None.
725. What is the least accurate imperession material:

a. Alginate.
b. Plysufide.
c. Polyether.
726. Irrigant that kills e-faecalis:

1- naoh.
2- mtad.
2- saline.
3- chlorohexidine.
( naocl ‫* ) ﺧﺪ ﺑﺎﻟﻚ ﻛﻮﻳﯾﺲ ﺃأﻭوﻯى ﺍاﻟﻤﻜﺘﻮﺏب ﻟﻴﯿﺲ‬

1- tetracycline.
2- mtad.
2- saline.
3- chlorohexidine.
: ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﻣﺔ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬ ‫ﻣﻠﺤﻮﻅظﺔ‬
* Sodium hypochlorite = Naocl not Naoh.
• MTAD is more effective than Naocl in killing E. faecalis.
• Naocl is more effective than MTA in killing E. faecalis.
irrigant solution of pulp ‫ﻟﻴﯿﺴﺖ‬ MTA ‫ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﺍاﻝل‬

• Also, Chlorohexidine & Tetracycline can kill E. faecalis but these are very weak.
728. During the orthodontist removes orthodontic braces he noticed white

hypocalcific lesion around the brackets what to do:
1- microabration and application of pumice then fluoride application.
2- composite resin.
4- leave and observe.
729. Daily wear of amalgam:

A. 1 - 3 micrograms/day.
B. 5 - 7 micrograms/day.
C. 0.1 - 0.3 micrograms/day.


730. Amount of daily wear of amalgam ingested in the body:
a. 1 - 3 µgs/day of mercury.
b. 10 - 15 µgs /day of mercury.
c. 25 µgs /day of mercury.

731. Weeping canal we use:
1- g.p.
2- caoh.
3- Formocresol.
732. The easiest endo retreatment in:

a- Over obturation w GP.
b- Under obturation w GP.
c- Weeping canals.
d- Obturated w silver cone.
733. Tug back refers to:

1. Retention of GP inside the canal.
2. Fluidity of GP.
734. Cracked enamel best Dx by:

a. Dye.
735. How can test crack tooth?

A. X-ray.
B. electric test.
C. ethyle dye test.
D. vitality test.
736. Method of detection of cracked teeth :

A) Horizontal percussion.
B) Vertical percussion.
C) Electric pulp test.
D) Transillumination.
* Transillumination = Visible light test.
737. Cracked tooth syndrome is best diagnosed by?

A. Radiograph.
b. Subjective symptoms and horizontal percussion.
c. Palpation and vertical percussion.
d. Pulp testing.

738. Atropine:
A- Dries secretion such saliva.
B- Depresses the pulse rate.
C- Causes central nervous system depression.
* Anticholinergic = Atropine.
739. Drug used to increase saliva is:

1- anticholinergic.
2- cholinergic.
3- antidiabetic.
4- anticorticosteroid.
740. In order to decrease the gastric secretion:

a. histamine A antigen equivalent.
b. histamine B antigen equivalent.
c. anticholenergic.
d. adrenal steroids.
741. Pt. with complete denture come to your clinic, complaint from his dry
mouth, the proper medicine is:
1. Antidiabetic medicine.
2. Anticholenergic.
3. Steroid.
4. cholinergic.

742. Drug used to decrease saliva during impression taking is:
1. Cholinergic.
2. Anticholinergic.
3. Antidiabetic.
4. Anticorticosteroid.
743. Probe used to detect furcation:

1- nabers probe. 2-
periodontal probe.
3- surgical probe.
744. Least effective to kill AIDS is:

i. Ultra violet.
ii. Naocl.
iii. Radiation.
745. During endo, pt. is complaining of pain with percussion what is the
cause:
1- apical periodontitis.

2- secondery apical periodontitis.
3- over instrumentation.
4- over medication.

746. During endo pt. is complaining of pain with percussion what u

suspect?
1- Apical periodontitis.
2- Secondery apical periodontitis.
3- Over instrumentation.
747. During doing Rct, pt. complains from pain during percussion due to:
A- Apical infection.
B- Impact debris fragment.
C- Over instrumentation.

748. Pt. on long term antibiotic came with systemic candida:
1- amphotrecin.
2- fluconazol.
3- nystatin.
749. Systemic candida in pt. with AIDS what is the best medicine :
a amphotrecin B.
b- fluconazol.
750. Candida infection is a frequent cause of:

A. Burning mouth.
B. Angular chelitis.
C. Gingivitis.
751. Which one of the following was the most frequently reason for replacement
of a molar restoration with larger restoration:
a. New caries.
b. Recurrent caries.
c. Faulty restoration.
752. Lesion at junction between hard and soft palates and surrounded with
psudoepithelium and hyperplasia in salivary gland:
A. Necrotizing sialometaplasia.
B. Squamus cell carcinoma.
753. A child at dentition age is suffering from: ‫ﺍاﻟﺘﺴﻨﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ﻣﺮﺣﻠﺔ‬

a) Diarrhea.
b) Sleep disorders.
c) Increased salivation.
754. When restoring asymptomatic healthy tooth with amalgam, the normal
physiologic symptom after that is:
a. Pain on hot.

b. Pain on cold.
c. Pain on biting.
d. Pain on sweet.
755. Sharp pain is due to which type of fibers?

A. A fibers.
B. B fibers.
C. C fibers.
* A- delta fibers: transmit sharp pain.

* C- fibers: transmit dull or aching pain.
756. Minimal facial reduction when preparing for veneers:

a. 0.3 mm.
b. 0.3 - 0.5 mm.
c. 1 - 1.5 mm.
757. After u did RCT to your pt. he came back to the clinic after few days with
severe pain on biting, you did x-ray and it revealed that the RCT filling is very
good, but u saw radiopaque thin ( film like ) spot on the lateral border of the root
what is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Accessory canal.
B) Vertical root canal fracture.
758. Patient suffering from a cracked enamel, his chief complain is pain on :
A) Hot stimuli.
B) Cold stimuli.
C) A & B.
D) Electric test.

759. Patient came complaining of severe pain on biting, related to a certain tooth. Upon
examination no pulpal or periodontal findings, and pulpal vitality is positive, your
Dx:
1) cracked tooth syndrome.
2) vertical root fracture.

( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮء ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺙث ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﺩدﻣﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
760. The best method for tooth brush is bass method because:
a. It enters to interproximal area.
b. Can be used by patient with gingival recession and it rotainary advice to all types of patients.
1. The both sentences are correct.
2. The first sentence is correct and the second is wrong.
761. Bass brushing has the advantage of the bristles enters in the
cervical area, and it is recommended for all patients:
a) both statements are true.
b) both statements are false.
c) first is true, second is wrong.
d) first is wrong, second is true.
* Bass method advantages:

- It concentrates the cleaning action on the cervical and interproximal portions of
the teeth.
- The bass technique is efficient and can be recommended for any patient with or
without periodontal involvement.
762. Patient comes to you with edematous gingiva, inflamed, loss of

gingival contour and recession, what's the best tooth brushing
technique?
A. Modified bass.
b. Modified stillman.
c. Charter.
d. Scrub.
* The brushing technique which is recommended for areas with progressive

gingival recession, gingival contour loss and inflamed and edematous gingiva is
modified stillman.
* The brushing technique which is recommended after periodontal surgery is
charter.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
763. The best method to protect teeth that underwent bicuspidization procedure
from fracture?
a. Full crown.
b. Splint with composite.
c. Orthodontic splint.
764. Pt. have unilateral fracture of left condyle, the mandible will:
a) deviate to the left side.
b) deviate to the right side.
c) no deviate.
765. Pt. came after 24 months of tooth replantation which had ankylosis
with no root resorption. It most likely to develop root resorption in:
1/ reduce greatly.
2/ increase.
3/ after 2 years.
4/ after 4 years.

766. Tracing of GP is used for :
1/ source of periapical pathosis.
2/ acute apical periodontitis.
3/ periodontal abscess.
4/ none.
767. Isolated pocket in:
A- vertical root fracture.
B- palatogingival groove.
C- endo origin lesion.
D- all.
768. After bleaching a tooth, we want to restore the tooth with composite resin,
we don’t want to compromise the bonding, we wait for:
a) 24 hours.
b) a week.
c) choose a different material.
* Esthetic restoration of teeth should be delayed for 2 weeks after the

completion of tooth whitening ( bleaching ).
. ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻴﯿﻨﺎء‬ ‫ ﻣﻊ‬ ‫ ﻛﺎﻓﻲ‬ ‫ ﺭرﺑﻂ‬ ‫ ﻟﺘﺄﻣﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﺑﺄﺳﺒﻮﻋﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺒﻴﯿﻴﯿﺾ‬ ‫ ﺑﻌﺪ‬ ‫ ﻟﻤﺎ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺠﻤﻴﯿﻠﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﺸﻮﺍاﺕت‬ ‫ ﻋﻤﻞ‬ ‫ ﺗﺄﺧﻴﯿﺮ‬ ‫* ﻳﯾﺠﺐ‬
769. Three years old pt., has anodontia ( no teeth at all ), what would
you do:
a) full denture.
b) implant.
c) space maitainer.
d) no intervention.
• In cases of anodontia, full dentures are required from about 3 years of age, with the
possibility of implant support for prostheses in adulthood.
770. Treacher collins syndrome is characterized by:

A- PROGNTHESIA OF MANDIBLE.
B- NO EAR LOSS.
C- UPWARD SLUTING OF EYE.
D- MALAR BONE NOT WELL FORMED OR ABSENCE.
* Treacher collins syndrome = Mandibulofacial dysostosis .

* Malar bone = Zygomatic bone = Cheek bone.
771. Patient presents with deficiency at the malar bone, open bite, normal mental
abilities:
1- Treacher collins.

2- Cleidocrenial dysplasia.
3- Eagle syndrome.
772. When removing lower second molar:

a- Occlusal plane perpendicular to the floor.
b- Buccolingual direction to dilate socket.
c- Mesial then lingual.
773. The best material for taking impression for full veneer crowns:
A) Polyvinyl sialoxane.
B) Alginate.
C) Polysulfide.
774. Stock trays compared to custom trays for a removable partial denture
impression:
A. Custom trays less effective than stock trays.
B. Custom trays can record an alginate impression as well as elastomeric impression.
C. Custom trays provide even thickness of impression material.
D. All of the above.
775. Which type of burs is the least in heat generation:

a) Diamond.
b) Carbide.
c) Titanium.
d) Steel bur.
* Carbide = Tungsten carbide.
776. Pt. wears complete denture for 10 years & now he has cancer in the
floor of the mouth. What is the first question that the dentist should ask:
a- Does your denture is ill fitted.
b- Smoking.
c- Alcohol.
d- Does your denture impinge the oral mucosa.
777. Secondary dentin occurs due to:

a- occlusal trauma.
b- recurrent caries.
c- attrition dentin.
778. All of these are ways to give L.A with less pain except:
a- Give it slowly.
b- Stretch the muscle.
c- Topical anesthesia.
d- The needle size over than 25 gauge.

779. How much subgingivally do you go with the band in class II restorations:
A) 0.5 – 1 mm.
B) 1 – 2 mm.
C) 2 – 3 mm.
780. The matrix band should be above the adjacent tooth occlusal surface
by:
a. 1 - 2mm.
b. 2 - 3mm.
c. 2.5 - 3.5mm.
d. below to it.
781. A female patient came to your clinic with dry lips, dry mouth and
ocular dryness ( dry eyes ) and bilateral submandibular oedema.
Diagnosis is:
A) Sjögren's syndrome.
B) Polymorphic adenoma.
C) Cellulitis.
Or sialotitis. ***
* Sjögren's syndrome = Sicca syndrome. ( Salivaly gland disorder ).
782. The compression / relaxation cycle of external cardiac compression should

be repeated:
a- 2 times / second.
b- 60 times / minute.
c- 76 times / second.
d- 100 times / minute.

783. One of the primary considerations in the treatment of fractures of the jaw is:
a- to obtain and maintain proper occlusion.
b- test teeth mobility.
c- vitality.
d- embedded foreign bodies.
784. A child patient undergone pulpotomy in your clinic in 1st primary

molar. Next day the patient returned with ulcer on the right side of the
lip, your diagnosis is:
a) Apthosis.
b) Zonal herpes.
c) Traumatic ulcer.
785. Bitewing exam is used to diagnose except:

1. Proximal caries.
2. Secondary caries.
3. Gingival status.
4. Periapical abscess.

786. Which of the following types of base materials can be placed in
contact with polymethyl methaacrylate & not inhibit the polymerization
of the resin:
a) Zoe.
b) GI cement.
c) Zn phosphate cement.
d) Varnish.
e) b & c.

787. We can use under the composite restoration:

1. Varnish.
2. Zinc oxide and eugenol.
3. Ca (OH)2.
4. Zinc phosphate cement.
A. 1+2.
B. 2+3.
C. 3+4.
D. 2+4.

‫ ﺗﺤﺖ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺒﻮﻟﻰ ﻛﺮﺑﻮﻛﺴﻼﺕت ﻭوﺍاﻟﺰﻧﻚ ﻓﻮﺳﻔﺎﺕت‬ ‫ ﺃأﻳﯾﻨﻮﻣﻴﯿﺮ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺍاﻟﻐﻼﺱس‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻜﺎﻟﺴﻴﯿﻮﻡم ﻫﮬﮪھﻴﯿﺪﺭرﻭوﻛﺴﻴﯿﺪ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺿﻊ‬ ‫* ﻳﯾﻤﻜﻦ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻟﻜﻮﻣﺒﻮﺯزﺕت‬
788. A patient complaining from a severe oedema in the

lower jaw that increases in size upon eating, diagnosis
is:
a) salivary gland disorder.
b) squamous cell carcinoma.
c) pleomorphic adenoma.
789. A patient that wasn’t anaesthetized well in his 1st visit, next day he returns
with a limited mouth opening ( trismus ). He must be anaesthized, what’s the
technique to be used:
a) William’s technique.
b) Bercher’s technique.
790. A patient that wasn’t anaesthetized well in his 1st visit, next day he
returns with a limited mouth opening ( trismus ). He must be
anaesthized, what’s the technique to be used:
a- William’s technique.
b- Gow gates technique.
c- Vazirani-akinosi technique.

* Bercher’s technique and Vazirani-akinosi technique are closed mouth injection technique s .
791. At which of the following locations on a

mandibular molar do you complete the excavation of caries
first:
a- Axial walls.
b- Pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns.
c- Peripheral caries.
d- All of the above are correct.
* It is generally advised to start carious dentin excavation from the periphery

towards the center of the lesion to minimize the risk of infection in case of
accidental pulp exposure. Larger burs are recommended for this reason.
792. CMCP contains phenol in concentration:

a- 0.5 %.
b- 35 %.
c- 65 %.
d- 5 %.
793. Dentist provided bleaching which also known as ( home

bleaching ) contains:
a- 35 - 50 % hydrogen peroxide.
b- 5 - 22 % carbamide peroxide.
* A solution of 10 % carbamide peroxide in a soft splint is required for home

bleaching.
794. Thermomechanical technique of obturation is:
A) Thermafil.
B) Obtura.
C) Ultrafil.
D) Mcspadden.
795. What is the disadvantages of mcspadden technique in

obturation:
A. requires much practice to perfect.
B. requires special environmental temperature.
C. require specific irrigation to be success.
796. What are the disadvantages of mcspadden technique in

obturation:
a) Increase time.
B) Increase steps.
C) Difficult in curved canals.
D) All the above.
* Disadvantages of mcspadden technique in obturation:

1) Requires much practice to perfect.
2) Difficult in curved canals.
3) Overfilling occurs.
797. Dental student using thermoplastized G.p., what is the

main problem he may face: ‫ﺍاﻟﺠﺎﺗﺎ ﺑﺮﻛﺎ ﺍاﻟﺤﺮﺍاﺭرﻳﯾﺔ ﺍاﻟﻄﺮﻳﯾﺔ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻟﺘﻰ ﻳﯾﺘﻢ ﺍاﺩدﺧﺎﻟﻬﮭﺎ ﺍاﻟﻰ ﺍاﻟﻘﻨﻮﺍاﺕت ﻋﻦ ﻁطﺮﻳﯾﻖ ﺍاﻟﻤﺴﺪﺱس‬
1- Extrusion of G.P. from the canal.
2- Inability to fill the proper length.
3- Failure to use maser cone at proper length.
4- Ledge.
* Extrusion of G.P. from the canal ( overfilling occurs ).

* But, this method can be used in curved canals.

798. 65 years old black man wants to have very white teeth in his new
denture, what should the dentist do:
a- Put the white teeth.
b- Show the patient the suitable color first then show him the white one.
c- Convince him by showing him other patients photos.
d- Tell him firmly that his teeth color are good.
* For youthful patients, use lighter shades with a bluish incisal.

* For older patients, use a darker shade.
* If the patient has blue eyes and fair skin, use lighter shades with more gray.
* If the patient has dark hair, brown eyes, and dark skin, darker shades with more
yellow and brown will look more natural. This rule does not apply for black
patients as they often have very white teeth.

* Pt. should participate in color choosing and agree on the final color shade.
799. During clinical examination, the patient had pain when the exposed root
dentin is touched due to:
a- Reversiple pulpitis.
b- Dentine hypersensitivity.
c- Irreversible pulpitis.
800. Pt.
presented to u having root recession he has pain when putting probe gently on
the root what is the diagnosis:
a. Dentin hypersensitivity.
c. Irreversible pulpitis.
d. Apical Periodontitis.
801. The patient has dull pain and swelling and the periapical x-ray shows apical
radiolucency your diagnosis will be:
a- Acute periodontal abscess.
b- Chronic periodontal abscess with swelling.
802. All these show honeycombed bone radiographically except:

a- Ameloblastoma.
b- Odontogenic myxoma cyst.
c- Odontogenic keratocyst.
d- Adenomatoid tumor.
803. Flouride amount in water should be:

a- 0.2 - 0.5 mg/liter.
b- 1 - 5 mg/liter.
c- 1 - 2 mg/liter.
d- 0.1 - 0.2 mg/liter.
804. For children considered to be at high risk of caries and who live in areas
with water supplies containing less than 0.3 ppm:
a. 0.25 mg. F per day age 6 months to 3 yrs.
b. 0.5 mg. F per day from 3 - 6 yrs.
c. 1 mg. F per day more than 6 yrs.
d. All of above.
805. 3 years old pt., water fluoridation 0.2 ppm what is the preventive treatment:
a. 0.25 mg. fluoride tablet.
b. 1 mg. fluoride tablet.

c. Fluoridated mouth wash.
d. Sealant.
806. The powered ( electric ) toothbrush invented in:

a- 1929.
b- 1939.
c- 1959.
d- 1969.
807. The most superior way to test the vitality of the tooth with:
A- Ice pack.
B- Chloroethyl.
C- Endo special ice.
D- Cold water spray.
* Cold test by “ Endo special ice / Endodontic ice spray ” and percussion test are
the two most important tests in vitality diagnosis.
* Best cold test for pulp:

A- ice pack.
B- chloroethyl.
C- endodontic ice spray.
* Best cold test for pulp is: endodontic ice spray = endo special ice.
808. The way to remove mucocele is:

a- Radiation
b- Excision.
c- Chemotherapy.
d- Caterization.
809. 8 years old came with fractured maxillary incisor tooth with incipient
exposed pulp ‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﺼﺐ ﺍاﻧﻜﺸﻒ ﺟﺰء ﺑﺴﻴﯿﻂ ﺟﺪﺍا‬ after 30 minutes of the trauma, what’s
the suitable ttt.:
a- Pulpatomy.
b- Direct pulp capping.
c- Pulpectomy.
d- Apexification.
810. Pt. came to dental clinic having a heamological problem after lab test, you
found that factor VIII ( 8 ) is less 10 % what’s the diagnosis:
a- Heamophilia a.
b- Hemophilia b.
* Defect in factor IX ( 9 ) : hemophilia B .

811. All these are contraindicated to RCT except:
a- Non restorable tooth.
b- Vertical root fracture.
c- Tooth with insufficient tooth support.
d- Pt. who has diabetes or hypertension.
* Contraindications for endo treatment except:

A- non strategic tooth.
B- non restorable tooth.
C- vertical fracture tooth.
D- tooth with large periapical lesion. ***
812. Sharpening the curette and sickle, the cutting edge should
be at angle:
a- 50-60
b- 70-80
c- 80-90
d- 60-70
813. Avulsed tooth is washed with tap water, it should be replaced again:
a- Immediately.
b- After 2 hours.
c- 24 hrs.
814. 10 yrs old child, who is unable to differentiate the colors, and can’t tell his
name or address. He is acting like:
a. 3 years old.
b. 4 years old.
c. 10 years old.
815. Patient with complete denture pronouncing F as a

V:
A. Anterior teeth are upward from lip line.
B. Anterior teeth are downward from lip line.
* Upper anterior teeth : ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﻳﯾﻘﺼﺪ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ‬

: ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎ ﻁطﺎﻟﻤﺎ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻧﻤﺸﻰ ﺣﺴﺐ ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻤﺎ‬ *
* If the upper anterior teeth are too short ( too far superiorly OR upward from lip
line ), the pt. will say V as F.
* If the upper anterior teeth are too long ( too far inferiorly OR
downward from lip line ), the pt. will say F as V.

816. Patient with complete denture pronouncing F as a V:
A. Maxillary anterior teeth had placed too far from superiorly and anteriorly.
B. Mandibular anterior teeth had placed too far from inferiorly.
C. Maxillary anterior teeth had placed too palataly.
* Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far from superiorly and
anteriorly may result in difficulty in pronouncing F and V sounds.
* Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too

superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing:
a) f and v sounds. ***
b) d and t sounds.
c) s and th sounds.
d) most vowels.
* You deliver denture then the patient come complaining he

say F like V why:
1- maxillary anterior too superior. *** 2- maxillary anterior
too forward.
3- lower anterior too superior.
4- lower anterior too forward.
‫ ﺑﺮﺩدﻭو‬.. ‫ ﺣﺘﻰ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺒﻬﮭﺎ ﺯزﻯى ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻖ ﻣﻌﻜﻮﺳﺔ ﻣﺶ ﺯزﻯى ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻓﻮﻕق‬:‫ﺑﺲ ﻻﺣﻆ ﺟﻴﯿﺪﺍا‬
‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﺗﺒﻊ ﺍاﻻﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻻﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻟﻌﻠﻮﻳﯾﺔ ﺳﻮﺍاء ﻗﺎﻝل ﻗﺼﻴﯿﺮﺓة ﺃأﻭو ﻁطﻮﻳﯾﻠﺔ ﺃأﻭو ﻁطﺎﻟﻌﺔ ﻟﻔﻮﻕق ﺃأﻭو ﻧﺎﺯزﻟﺔ‬
. ‫ﻟﺘﺤﺖ ﻭوﻣﻠﻜﺶ ﺩدﻋﻮﺓة ﺧﺎﻟﺺ ﺑﺎﻻﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ‬
817. Pt. have a complete denture came to the clinic, tell you no
complaint in the talking or in the chewing, but when you exam him, you
see the upper lip like too long, deficient in the margins of the lip, reason
is?
A) Deficiency in the vertical dimension.
b) Anterior upper teeth are short.
c) Deficient in vit. B.

818. Child has a habit of finger sucking and starts to show orodental
changes, the child needs:
a- Early appliance.
b- Psychological therapy.

c- Rewarding therapy.
d- Punishment.
819. Knife ridge should be treated with:

1/ relining soft material.
2/ maximum coverage of flange.
3/ wide occlusal table.
4/ all.
820. Child 3 years old came to clinic after falling on his chin, you found
that the primary incisor entered the follicle of the permanent incisor
what you will do:
A) Surgical removal of the follicle.
B) Leave it.
C) Surgical removal of the primary incisor.
821. Tongue develops from:

1/ Mandibular arch & tuberculum impar.
2/ 1st branchial arch.
822. Perforation during endo space preparation what is the most
surface of distal root of lower molar will have tendency of perforation:
1/ Mesial surface.
2/ Distal surface.
3/ Buccal surface.
4/ Lingual surface.
823. Crown and root perforation:

1/ respond to MTA.
2/ use matrix with hydroxyapatite and seal with G.I.
3/ 1 & 2.
4/ root canal filling.
824. Acceptable theory for dental pain: ( OR for dentin hypersensitivity )

1/ hydrodynamic.
2/ fluid movement.
3/ direct transduction.
825. While u were preparing a canal u did a ledge ( a step

) then u used EDTA with the file, this may lead to:
a. Perforation of the strip. b.
Perforation of the apex.
c. Creation false canal.
* You make a ledge ( a step ) in the canal. You want to correct this.
What is the most complication occur in this step ( ledge ):
a. Creation false canal.
b. Apical zip.
c. Stripping. ***
d. perforation.
* Stripping = Stripping perforation = Lateral perforation = Peforation of the strip.

* perforation = apical perforation = perforation of the apex.
826. Removing of dentin in dangerous zone to cementum is:

1/ perforation.
2/ ledge.
3/ stripping.
4/ zipping.
• Stripping is a lateral perforation caused by over instrumentation through a thin wall (

danger zone ) in the root during removing of dentin.

827. Follow up of RCT after 3 years, RCT failed best treatment is to:
a) Extraction of the tooth.
b) Redo the RCT .
c) Apicectomy.
* Redo = Retreatment.
828. Acute abscess is:

A) Cavity lined by epithelium.
B) Cavity containing blood cells.
C) Cavity containing pus cells.
D) Cavity containing fluid.
* Acute abscess is a pathological cavity filled with pus cells and lined by a pyogenic
membrane.
829. The most close tooth to the maxillary sinus:

a) maxillary 1st molar.
b) maxillary 2nd molar.
c) maxillary 1st premolar.

830. Mechanochemical preparation during RCT mainly aims to:
1) Widening of the apex.
2) Master cone reaches the radiographic apex.
3) Proper debridement of the apical part of the canal.
831. Master cone doesn't reach the apex:

1) Ledge.
2) Residual remenants.
3) 1 & 2.

832.Child patient with oblitration in the centeral permenant incisor. What

will you do:
A. RCT.
B. Pulpotomy.
C. Pulpectomy.
D. Careful monitoring.

833. At which temperature that gutta percha reaches the alpha temp:
a- 42 - 48 c.
b- 50 – 60 c.
c- 70 – 80 c.
d- 100 c.
834.After completion of orthodontic treatment he came complaining of

pain in 11 teeth, radiograph shows absorption in the middle third of the
root of 11, what is the proper management:
a. Apply caoh at the site of resorption.
b. Do RCT in a single visit.
c. Extract the tooth & reimplant it.
d. Extract the tooth & do implantation.
835. Patient that has a central incisor with severe resorption and who's going
through an ortho treatment that is going to make him extract the premolars, which
of the following won't be present in the treatment plan:
a. rpd.
b. implant.
c. maryland bridge.
d. autoimplant of the premolars.
836. The aim of treatment maintenance is:

A) Prevent secondary infection.
B) Check tissue response.

837. The aim of maintaining therapy is:

a- Prevent recurrent disease.
b- Check tissue response.

838. Provisional restoration for metal ceramic abutment is:
a) Aluminum sheet.
b) Stainless steel crown.
c) Zno.
d) Tooth colored polycarbonate crown.

839. Dr. black ( GV. black ) periodontal instrument classification:
A. Study what the number represents in the instrument formula.
840. For GV. black classification study, what the number refers to angulation?
a. Number 1
b.Number 2
c. Number 3
d.Number 4
* For GV. black classification study what the number represents in the instrument formula : ( one
for width, one for length and one for angulation ).
* 1st: Width of blade, 2nd: Length of the blade and 3rd: Angle of blade and angle of cutting edge.
841. An adult had an accident, maxillary central incisors intruded, lip is painful
with superficial wound what is the trauma’s classification:
a) luxation.
b) subluxation.
c) laceration.
d) abrasion.
e) contusion.

842. Schick test is an intradermal test for determination of susceptibility to:
a. Diphtheria hypersensitivity.
b. Tuberculosis hypersensitivity.
843. In a curved root u bent a file by:

A. Put gauze on the file & bend it by hand.
b. Bend the file by pliers.
c. by bare finger.
d. By twist.

. ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﺁآﺓة‬ ‫ ﺑﻘﺒﻀﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺜﻨﻲ‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﺘﻢ‬ : ‫ ﺃأﻭوﻛﺴﻔﻮﺭرﺩد‬ ‫*ﻭوﺣﺴﺐ‬

844. Father for child 12 years pt. asked you about the age for the amalgam
restoration of his child, you tell him:
a) 2 years.
b) 9 years.
c) 2 decades.
d) All life.

845. Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of:
1. Two maxillary arches.
2. Maxillary arches and nasal arch.

846. Arrange the steps of cleft palate management:

1. Measures to adjust speech.
2. Establish way for nursing and feeding.
3. Cosmetic closure.
4. Prevent collapse of two halves.
A. 3 _ 4 _ 2 _ 1.
B. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3.
C. 1 _ 2 _ 3 _ 4.
847. 8 years old pt. had trauma to 8 presented after 30 minutes of injury, he had
crown fracture with incipient pulp exposure what u do:
1. Direct pulp capping.
2. Pulpotomy.
3. Pulpectomy.
4. Observe.
848. Time of PT, PTT:

A) 4 - 8 seconds, 18 - 20 seconds.
B) 11 - 15 seconds, 25 - 40 seconds
C) 17 - 20 seconds, 50 - 80 seconds.
849. Young pt. came without any complain. During routine x-ray appears
between the two lower molars lesion diameter about 2mm. & extend laterally with
irregular shape. What’s the type of cyst:
a) Dentigerous cyst.
b) Apical cyst.
c) Radicular cyst.
850. When extracting all maxillary teeth, the correct order is:
a) 87654321
b) 87542163
c) 12345678

851. For a patient that is on a corticosteroid therapy, upon oral surgery, the
patient is given:
A) 100 - 200 mg. hydrocortisone.
B) 400 - 600 mg. prednisone.

852. Patient under corticosteroid therapy, he will undergo surgical

extraction of third molar. what will you give to avoid adrenal crisis:
a- Dixamethasone ( 4 mg/I.V ).
b- Methyl prednisolone ( 40 mg / I.V ).
c- Hydrocortisone sodium sulfide ( 40 – 50 mg )
d- Hydrocortisone sodium succinate ( 100 – 200 mg ).

* Dixamethasone ( 4 mg/I.V ) is better than hydrocortisone sodium succinate ( 100 – 200 mg ) as
dixamethasone has a long duration of action.
853. Patient with lupus erythematous and under cortisone, he needs to surgical
extraction of a tooth. What should the surgeon instructs the patient:
a) Take half of the cortisone dose at the day of operation.
B) Double the cortisone dose at the day of operation.
c) Take half of the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and day after.
D) Double the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and day after.

854. The right corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris is:
a- 1 - 2 g/kg/daily.
b- 1 - 2 mg.
c- 10 mg.
d- 50 - 100 mg hydrocortisone.
855. The right corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris is:
a- 1 - 2 g/kg/daily.
b- 1 - 2 mg/kg/daily.
c- 10 mg/kg/daily.
d- 50 - 100 mg/kg/daily hydrocortisone.
856. The following are indications of outpatient general anesthesia except:

a) ASA categories 1 & 2.
b) The very young child.
c) Cost increase.
d) Patient admitted and discharge the same day.
857. The primary source of retention of porcelain veneer:

1. mechanical retention from undercut.
2. mechanical retention from secondary retentive features.
3. chemical bond by silane coupling agent.
4. micromechanical bond from itching of enamel and porcelain.
858. A removable partial denture patient, class II Kennedy classification. The last
tooth on the left side is the 2nd premolar which has a distal caries. What’s the type
of the clasp you will use for this premolar:
a) gingivally approaching clasp.
b) ring clasp.
859. Patient came to your clinic complaining that the denture becomes tight, during
examination you notice nothing, but when the patient stands you notice that his
legs bowing ( curved ). What you suspect:
a) Paget’s disease.
b) Bone arthiritis.
c) Another disease.
860. A 55 years old patient with multi-extraction teeth, after extraction what will
you do first:
a) Suturing.
B) Primary closure should be obtained if there is no luntant tissue.
C) Alveoplasty should be done in all cases.

‫ﺗﻨﻌﻴﯿﻢ ﺍاﻟﻌﻈﻢ ﻭوﺗﻌﻮﻳﯾﻀﻪﮫ ﺑﻌﻈﻢ ﺻﻨﺎﻋﻰ ﺩدﺍاﺧﻞ ﺍاﻟﺴﻮﻛﻴﯿﺖ ﻟﺘﻈﺒﻴﯿﻂ ﻭوﺿﻊ ﺍاﻟﻌﻈﻢ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻔﻚ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺮﻳﯾﺪﺝج‬
. ‫ﻟﻼﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩدﺓة ﺑﻌﺪ ﺫذﻟﻚ ﻟﻮ ﺗﻢ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺯزﺭرﺍاﻋﺔ ﺃأﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺃأﻭو ﻁطﻘﻢ ﻓﻮﻕق ﺯزﺭرﻋﺎﺕت ﺃأﻭو ﻁطﻘﻢ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ‬
* Alveoplasty should be done in all cases.
861. Child with traumatized lip, no tooth mobility, what will you do first:
a) Radiograph to check if there is foreign body.
b) Refer to the physician for sensitivity test.
862. 2nd maxillary premolar contact area:

a) Middle of the middle third with buccal embrasure wider than lingual embrasure.
B) Middle of the middle third with lingual embrasure wider than buccal embrasure.
c) Cervical to the incisal third.
863. Patient comes to the clinic with ill-fitting denture, during examination
you notice white small elevation on the crest of the lower ridge, what
will you tell the patient:
A) This lesion needs no concern and he should not worry.
B) The patient should not wear the denture for 2 weeks then follow up.

864. How do you know if there are 2 canals in the same root:
a) Radiographically with 2 files inside the root.
b) The orifices are close to each other.

865. Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark lines that appear in:
A) Enamel when view in horizontal ground.
B) Enamel when view in longitudinal ground.
C) Dentin when view in horizontal ground.
D) Dentin when view in longitudinal ground.
866. Patient complains from pain in TMJ. During examination you noticed
that during opening of the mouth, mandible is deviated to the right side
with left extruded. Diagnosis is:
A) Condylar displacement with reduction.
B) Condylar displacement without reduction.
Pt. Presented to u complaining of click during open and close. Thers is

867.
no facial asymmetry except when opening. What is the diagnosis:

1- Internal derangement with reduction.
2- Internal derangement without reduction.
3- Reumatoid arthritis.
868. Unilateral fracture of left condyle, the mandible will:

a) Deviate to the left side.
b) Deviate to the right side.
( ‫* ) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
869. Streptococcus activity is detected by:

A) Fermentation.
B) Catalase.
C) Hemolysis.
* What is the test name for detecting the virulent of

bacteria:
A- Hemolysis.
B- Catalase. ***
C- Fermentation.
870. Cleidocranial dysostosis characteristics:

a) Supernumerary teeth.
b) Clavical problems.
c) Delayed closure of fontanelles.
d) All of the above.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
871. To hasten zinc oxide cement, you add:

A) Zinc sulfide.
B) Barium sulfide.
C) Zinc acetate.
D) Barium chloride.
872. In which teeth the contact is at the incisal edge:

a) Lower anterior teeth.
b) Upper anterior teeth.
873. Child with mental disorder suffers from orofacial trauma, brought to
the hospital by his parents, the child is panic and irritable, the treatment
should done under:
a) Local anesthesia.
B) General anesthesia.
C) Gas sedation.
D) Intravenous sedation.
874. Fracture before 1 year of upper central incisor reach

the pulp in 8 years old child. How will you manage this
case:
a) RCT.
B) Apexification.
c) Direct pulp capping.
d) Indirect pulp capping.
875. 8 years old child came to your clinic with trauma to

upper central incisor with pulp exposure and extensive
pulp bleeding your treatment will be:
a. direct pulp capping.
b. pulpectomy with gutta percha filling.
c. apexification.
d. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide.
876. 10 years pt. came with necrotic pulp in upper central

incisor with root apex not closed yet, best treatment:
a. Calcium hydroxide.
b. Calcific barrier.
c. Apexfication with gutta percha filling.
d. Gutta percha filling.
877. Child 10 years came with trauma on the centeral incisor from a year
ago, and have discoloring on it, in the examination no vitality in this
tooth and in the x-ray, there is a fracture from the edge of the incisal to
the pulp, and wide open apex the best treatment ?
A) Calcification.
B) RCT with gutta percha.
C) Extraction.
D) Capping.
* Calcification = Calcific barrier = Apexfication with calcium hydroxide or MTA.

878. To remove a broken periodontal instrument from the gingival sulcus:
a) Schwartz periotriever.
879. 18 years old pt. presents complaining of pain, bad breath and bleeding
gingiva. This began over the weakend while studying for the final exam.
The Pt. may have which of the following conditions:
a. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis ( ANUG ).
b. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
c. Desquamative gingivitis.
d. Acute periodontal cyst.
880. Gingival condition occurs in young adult has bad oral hygiene and was
in the weakened:
A. ANUG.
B. desqumative gingivitis.
C. periodontitis.
D. gingivitis.
881. Differences between ANUG and AHGS is:

a. ANUG occurs in dental papilla while AHGS diffuse erythematous inflamed gingiva.
b. ANUG occurs during young adult and AHGS in children.
882. Student came to clinic with severe pain, interdental papilla is inflamed,
student has exams, heavy smoker, poor nutrition:
A. Gingivitis.
B. ANUG .
C. Periodontitis.
883. The rows show “truth”, the column show

“test result”:
a) Cell A has true positive sample.
B) Cell A has true negative sample.
C) Cell A has false positive sample.
D) Cell A has false negative sample.
884. Distinguishing between right & left canines can be determined:

a. because distal concavities are larger.
b. with a line bisecting the facial surface the tip lies distally.
c. others.
‫ ﺇإﺫذﺍا‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻲ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺨﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬،٬‫ ﺍاﻟﺪﺍاﺋﻢ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻨﺎﺏب‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻘﺼﻮﺩد‬ ‫ ﻛﺎﻥن‬ ‫ ﺇإﺫذﺍا‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺨﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا‬ ‫ ﻋﻠﻰ‬ ‫* ﺍاﻹﺟﺎﺑﺔ‬
‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬ ‫ ﺃأﻭو ﺩدﺍاﺋﻢ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻓﺎﻟﻤﻘﺼﻮﺩد‬ ‫ ﻣﺆﻗﺖ‬ ‫ ﻟﻜﻠﻤﺔ‬ ‫ ﺫذﻛﺮ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﻜﻦ‬ ‫ ﻟﻢ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺇإﺫذﺍا‬ ،٬‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﺆﻗﺖ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍاﻟﻨﺎﺏب‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻘﺼﻮﺩد‬ ‫ﻛﺎﻥن‬
. ‫ ﺩدﺍاﺋﻢ‬ ‫ﻧﺎﺏب‬

885. The best way to remove silver point:
a) Steiglitz pliers.
c) Ultrasonic tips.
d) H files.
e) Hatchet.
886. The best way to remove silver point:

a) pliers and hemostate.
c) Ultrasonic tips.
d) H files.
887. Mucoceles, the best ttt. is:

a) Excision.
b) leave it.
c) marsupialization.
d) cauterization.
888. Isolation period of chicken box should be:

A- after appear of rach by week.
B- untill vesicle becomes crusted .
C- until carter stage is last.
889. In fixed partial denture u use GIC for cemntation what

best to do:
A- remove smear layer by acid to increase adhesion.
B- do not varnish because it affects adhesion.
C- mixed slowly on small area untill becomes creamy.
D- remove excess when it in dough stage.
890. Child have tooth which have no moblity but have

luxation, best treatment:
A. Acrylic splint.
B. Non rigid fixation.
C. Rigid fixation.

* Non rigid fixation = Non rigid splinting = Flexible splinting =

Physiological splinting is done for no more than 2 weeks.
891. To drain submandibular abscess:

A) Intraorally through the mylohyoid muscles.
B) Extraorally under the chin.
C) Extraorally at the most purulent site.
D) Extraorally at the lower border of the mandible.
892. Scale to measure marginal deterioration:

1. Mahler scale.
2. Color analogues scale.
893. Streptococcus mutants cause caries & this disease is?

1/ epidemic.
2/ endemic.
3/ isolated.
894. One of these has no effect on the life span of hand

piece:
a- Low air in the compressor.
b- Trauma to the head of the hand piece.
c- Pressure during operating.
* Which of the following doesn't have damage effect on

hand piece:
A. Apply great pressure during use.
B. Infrequent moisturization. ***
C. Fall down of the head of the hand piece.
* Infrequent moisturization: ‫ﺍاﻟﻬﮭﺎﻧﺪ ﺑﻴﯿﺲ ﻻ ﺗﺨﺮﺝج ﻣﺎء ﺑﺎﺳﺘﻤﺮﺍاﺭر ﺃأﺛﻨﺎء ﺗﺸﻐﻴﯿﻠﻬﮭﺎ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا ﻳﯾﻀﺮ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻟﺴﻨﺔ ﻧﻔﺴﻬﮭﺎ ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﺍاﻟﻬﮭﺎﻧﺪ ﺑﻴﯿﺲ‬
895. Most used scalpel in oral surgery:

A- Bard parker blade # 15.
B. Bard parker blade # 11.
C. Bard parker blade # 12.
896. Advantage of wrought wire in RPD over cast wire:

A- Less irritation to the abutment.
B. Less cost.
C. Less corrosion.
897. Why we use acrylic plate (resin plate/base) more than metal
plate ( base ) in the complete denture:
A- Cannot do relining for the metal.
B. Metal is difficult to kept clean.
C. Metal is subjected to distortion and breakage.

* Compared to resin base, the main disadvantage of metallic base
in distal extension situation is that, metal base:
A. Is difficult to kept clean.
B. Transfer thermal changes quickly to mucosa.
C. Is subjected to distortion and breakage.
D. Cannot be relined in event of ridge resorption. ***
898. Relining of denture:

A- Remove all or part of fitting surface of the denture and add acrylic.
B- Add acrylic to the base of the denture to increase vertical dimension.
899. Rebasing of complete denture means:

a- Addition or change in the fitting surface.
b- Increasing the vertical dimension.
c- Change all the fitting surface.
* Rebasing is replacement of most or all of the denture base.
900. When do class I preparation of posterior tooth for composite

restoration:
a- remove caries only.
b- extend 2mm in dentin.
901. Color stability is better in:

a- Porcelain.
b- Composite.
c- GIC.
902. When all the teeth are missing except the 2 canines, according to
kennedy classification it is:
A- Class I modification 1.
B. Class I modification 2.
C. Class II modification 1.
D. Class II modification 2.
903. Antibiotics are most used in cases of:

a- Acute localized lesion.
b- Diffuse, highly progressing lesion.
904. Patient un-cooperation can result in fault of operation, technical

faults ‫ ﺍاﻷﺧﻄﺎء ﺍاﻟﻔﻨﻴﯿﺔ‬only are related to patient factor:
A. TRUE.
B. FALSE.
905. Bone graft material from site to another site in the same person:
a- Allograft.
b- Autograft.

c- Alloplast.
d- Xenograft.
* Autograft = Autotransplant.
906. Ester type of local anathsesia secreted by:

a- liver only.
b- kidney.
c- lung.
d- plasma.

* Ester type of local anathsesia is preferred to be used with pregnant women as it’s
secreted by plasma ( not kidney ) and also not related to placenta.
907. Where does the breakdown of lidocaine occurs :

A) kidneys.
B) Liver.
C) lung.
908. Energy absorbed by the point of fracture called:

a- ultimate strengh.
b- elastic limit.
c- toughness.
d- brittlness.
909. Patency filing:

a- push the file apically to remove any block at the apex.
b- rotate the file circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral canals.
c- file with bleaching agent.
910. Best stress transfer under amalgam:

a- with thin base layer.
b- with thick base layer.
c- If put on sound dentin.
911. Tooth with full crown need RCT, you did the RCT through the crown,
what is the best restoration to maintain the resistance of the crown:
A) Glass ionomer cement with definite restoration.
B) Amalgam.
912. 5 years old pt. had extraction of the lower primary molar & he had
fracture of the apex of the tooth what is the best ttt.:
1/ aggressive remove.
2/ visualization & remove.
3/ visualization & leave.
913. 7 years boy came to the clinic in the right maxillary central incisor
with large pulp exposure:
1/ pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2.
2/ pulptomy with Ca(OH)2.

3/ Direct pulp capping.
4/ leave it.

914. Old pt. came to replase all old amalgam filling he had severe occlusal
attrition, the best replacement is:
1/ composite.
2/ amalgam.
3/ cast metal restoration.
4/ full crowns.

915. Child has bruxism to be treated with:

a. sedative.
b. cusp capping.
c. vinyl plastic bite guard.

916. Avulsed tooth:
1/ splint (7-14) days.
2/ or (3- 14) weeks.
917. Proxy brush with which type of furcation:
A. Furcation Grade 1.
B. Furcation Grade 2.
C. Furcation Grade 3.
D. Furcation Grade 4.

918. Instrument which we use to make groove in the wax is:

A. Spoon excavator.
B. Burnisher.
C. Carver.
D. Mirror.
919. Instrument used for wax grooving for a die in FPD:

A. PKT no1.
B. PKT no3.
C. Spoon excavator.
D. Burnisher.
920. After u did upper & lower complete denture for old pt. He came back
to the clinic next day complaining of uncomfort with the denture. After
u recheck, no pain, good occlusion, good pronunciations, but u notice
beginning of inflammation in the gum and outer margins of the lips, u
will think this is due to:
1- Xerostomia.
2- Vitamin B deficiency.
3- Scleroedema.
921. Patient comes to your clinic with complete denture for routine visit no
complaining during speech or swallowing or opening the mouth just
glossitis and angular cheilitis and discomfort increasing while day:

a. Vitamin B deficiency.
b. Xerostomia.
c. Scleroedema.
. ‫ ﺏب ﺃأﻭو ﻧﻘﺺ ﺍاﻟﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ‬ ‫ ﻓﻴﯿﺘﺎﻣﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﻧﻘﺺ‬ ‫ ﻋﻠﻰ‬ ‫ ﺗﺪﻝل‬ ‫ ﺯزﻭوﺍاﻳﯾﺎ ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ‬ ‫* ﺍاﻟﺘﻬﮭﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﻠﺴﺎﻥن ﻭو‬
* Vitamin B deficiency ( vitamins B2, B6 or B12 ) OR iron dificiency.
* Vitamin B2 deficiency = Riboflavin deficiency.

922. Patient with leukemia, absolute neutrophilic count is 1700 what oral
surgeon should do:
a. go on the manager.
b. As usual pt.
c. postpone another day.
d. work with prophylactic antibiotic.
e. platelets transfusion.
. ‫ ﻓﻨﻌﺎﻣﻠﻪﮫ ﻛﺸﺨﺺ ﻁطﺒﻴﯿﻌﻰ‬1500 ‫ﺑﻤﺎ ﺃأﻥن ﺍاﻟﻌﺪﺩد ﺃأﻛﺒﺮ ﻣﻦ‬
923. Child came to your clinic have leukaemia, number of neutrophils is

(1400) want to extract his primary central incisor, will you treat him?
a. as usual pt.
b. give prophylactic antibiotic.
c. gives platelets before extraction.
d. do not extract.
924. Child came to your clinic have leukaemia number of neutrophils are
less than (1500) want to extract his primary central incisor, will you
treat him:
a. as usual pt.
b. give prophylactic antibiotic.
c. give platelets before extraction.
d. do not extract.
. ‫ ﻣﺶ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺸﺘﻐﻞ ﻭوﻻﺑﺪ ﻣﻦ ﻧﻘﻞ ﺻﻔﺎﺋﺢ ﺩدﻣﻮﻳﯾﺔ‬1000 ‫* ﺍاﻟﻌﺪﺩد ﺃأﻗﻞ ﻣﻦ‬
. ‫ ﻧﺸﺘﻐﻞ ﺑﺲ ﺑﻌﺪ ﻣﻨﻌﻄﻰ ﻣﻀﺎﺩدﺍاﺕت ﺣﻴﯿﻮﻳﯾﺔ ﻟﻠﻮﻗﺎﻳﯾﺔ‬1500 ‫ ﺍاﻟﻰ‬1000 ‫* ﺍاﻟﻌﺪﺩد ﻣﻦ‬

. ‫ ﻧﻌﺘﺒﺮﻩه ﺷﺨﺺ ﻁطﺒﻴﯿﻌﻰ ﻭوﻧﺸﺘﻐﻞ ﻋﺎﺩدﻯى‬1500 ‫* ﺍاﻟﻌﺪﺩد ﺃأﻛﺜﺮ ﻣﻦ‬
* In leukemia, dental treatment should only be performed if the absolute neutrophil count
(ANC) exceeds 1000 and if the platelet count at least 50000 . And prophylactic antibiotic
coverage should be provided in consultation with the pt.’s oncologist. ‫ﻁطﺒﻴﯿﺐ ﺍاﻷﻭوﺭرﺍاﻡم‬
Dental surgical procedures and administration of local anesthetic blocks should be avoided
during periods of thrombocytopenia ( it means that the platelet count is less than 50000
).
A platelet transfusion may be needed if the platelet count is less than 50000 .
* Patient with leukemia, absolute neutrophilic count is 1700 what oral surgeon
should do :
Go on the manager.
Postpone another day.
Work with prophylactic antibiotic.
Platelets transfusion.
: ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﻀﻄﺮ ﻧﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﻤﻮﺿﺢ ﺑﺎﻷﻋﻠﻰ ﻋﻠﺸﺎﻥن ﻣﻔﻴﯿﺶ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬

As usual pt. or non of the above .

925. Galvanic shock:

a. Put separating medium.
b. Wait.
c. put varnish.

* Galvenic shock: it gradually disappears in a few days.

‫ﺍاﻻ ﻟﻮ ﺍاﻷﻟﻢ ﻓﻀﻞ ﻣﺴﺘﻤﺮ ﻛﺘﻴﯿﺮ ﻭوﺗﺎﻋﺐ ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﻳﯾﺾ ﺃأﻭوﻯى ﻓﺴﻮﻑف ﻧﻀﻄﺮ ﺍاﻟﻰ ﺗﻐﻴﯿﻴﯿﺮ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة ﺍاﻷﻣﻠﺠﻢ‬
. ‫ﺑﺤﺸﻮﺓة ﻣﻦ ﻧﻮﻉع ﺃأﺧﺮ ﻛﺎﻟﻜﻤﺒﻮﺯزﻳﯾﺖ ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻟﺠﻼﺱس ﺃأﻳﯾﻮﻧﻴﯿﻤﺮ‬
926. 8 years old child suffered from a trauma at the TMJ region as infant
complaining now from limitation in movement of the mandible.
Diagnosis is:
a) Subluxation.
b) Ankylosis.
927. Generalised lymphadenopathy seen in:

a- Infection.
b- Lymphocytic leukemia.
c- HIV.
d- Perncious anemia.
A. a+b.
B. a+b+c.
C. only d.
D. b+d.

928. Contraindication of gingivectomy:
a- periodontal abscess.
929. Surgical interference with edentulous ridge for:

a- good retention, stability and continuous uniform alveolar ridge.

930. The tip of size 20 endo file is:

A- 0.02 mm.
B- 0.2 mm.

931. Bonding agent for enamel we use:

A- Unfilled resin.
B- primer & adhesive bonding agent.
C- Resin dissolves in acetone or alcohol.
D- Primer with resin modified glass ionomer.
932. We redo high copper amalgam restoration when we have:

a- Amalgam with proximal marginal defect.
b- Open margin less than 0.5 mm.

933. Thickness of amalgam in complex amalgam restoration

in cusp tip area:
A- 0.5 mm.
B- 1 - 1.5 mm.
C- 1.5 - 2 mm.
D- 2 - 3 mm.
934. For cavity class II amalgam restoration in a

second maxillary premolar, the best matrix to be used:
A) Tofflemire matrix.
B) Mylar matrix.
C) Gold matrix.
D) Celluloid strips.
935. Cast with (+ve) bubbles because of:

A- Mixing stone.
B- Voids in impression when taken by the dentist.
C- Pouring.
D- Using warm water when mixing stone.
936. Non absorbable suture:

A- Catgut.
B- Vicryl.
C- Silk.

937. The following is a non absorbable suture:

A. Plain catgut.
B. Chromic catgut.
C. Silk.
D. All the above.
938. Most important criteria for full ceramic FPD:

A- High compressive strength.
B- High tensile strength.
939. Reciprocal arm in RPD helps to resist the force applied by which parts:
A- retentive arm.
B- guide plane.
940. Pt. comes with pain in tooth when drink hot tea. Pain
continuous for 10 minutes diagnosis:
A- irreversible pulpitis.
B- necrotic.
941. Pulp with age:

A- reduces collagen fiber.
B- Increases cellular in pulp.
C- decreases pulp chamber size.
942. Pt. needs complete denture u take impression with irreversible

hydrocolloid ( alginate ) & poured it after late more than 15 min., the
cast appears short & chalky the reason is:
a. Dehydration of the impression.
b. Expansion of the impression.
c. Immerse the impression in a chemical solution.
943. After insertion of immediate complete denture, pt. removes denture at

night next day he couldn’t wearing it and came to you, why this is
happened:
a. Relief.
b. Swelling and inflammation after extraction.
c. Lack of skill for the patient to put the denture.

944. Over extended GP should removed using:

a- Ultrasonic vibrating.
b- Dissolving agent.
c- Rotary or round bur.
d- Surgery.
945. Sterilization means killing:

A- Bacteria and virus.

B- Bacteria, virus, fungus and protozoa.
C- Bacteria and fungus
946. Killing of bacteria is:

A- Bacteriostatic.
B- Bactericidal.
947. The most technique used with children:

A- TSD.
B- Hand over mouth.
C- Punishment.
. ‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﻤﻞ‬ ‫ ﺍاﺑﺪﺃأ‬ ‫ ﺛﻢ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺭرﻳﯾﻪﮫ‬ ‫ ﺛﻢ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻄﻔﻞ‬ ‫ ﺃأﺧﺒﺮ‬ *

* TSD : Tell - Show - Do .
948. Chronic pericoronitis:

A- Difficult mouth opening.
B- Halitosis.
C- All of the above.
949. Safe months to treat pregnant ladies:

A. 1 - 3.
B. 4 - 6.
C. 7 - 9.
950. Mandibular 1st permanent molar looks in morphology as:

a- primary 1st mand. molar.
b- primary 2nd mand. molar.
c- primary 1st max molar.
d- primary 2nd max molar.
951. Material which used for flasking complete denture:
a- Plaster.
b- Stone.
c- Refractory.
‫ ﺍاﻷﺻﺢ ﻭوﻧﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻫﮬﮪھﺎ ﻭوﻟﻮ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﻭوﺍاﺣﺪﻩه ﺑﺲ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻲ‬ ‫ ﺗﻜﻮﻥن‬ ‫ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت‬ ‫ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩدﻩه‬ ‫ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ‬ ‫ ﺍاﺫذﺍا‬a & b
. ‫ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل‬
952. Ideal properties of RC filling material is the following except:

a) Radiolucent in radiograph.
b) Not irritate the surrounding tissue.
c) Easily removable when retreatment is necessary.
d) Stable and less dimensional change after insertion.

953. The best method for core build up is:
1. Amalgam.
2. Compomer.
3. Glass ionomer.
954. Best core material receiving a crown on molar:

a) Amalgam.
b) reinforced glass ionomer.
d) composite.
955. Most common site which drain pus is:

a) Mandibular central incisors.
b) Mandibular canines.
c) Mandibular first molar.
956. When removing moist carious dentin which exposes the pulp, dentist
should:
1- Do direct pulp cap.
2- Do indirect pulp cap.
3- Prepare for endo.
957. In prevention of dental caries, the promotion of a healthy diet is:

1- low effective measure.
2- Moderately effective measure.
3- High effective measure.
4- Mandatory measure.
958. Treatment of cervical caries in old patients with a temporary
restoration is best done by:
a) Glass ionomer.
b) Composite resitn.
c) Amalgam.
959. Most used sugar substitute:

a) Sorbitol.
b) Mannitol.
c) Insulin.
d) Xylitol.

* Xylitol is a tooth friend sugar.
960. What the influence of xylitol:

a. It causes caries.
b.Safe to the teeth.
c. Increase saliva.
d.Decrease saliva.

961. The retainer of rubber dam:
a) Four points of contact two buccally and two lingually without rocking.
b) Four points of contact two buccally and two lingually above the height of contour.
c) Four points of contact two mesially and two distally.
d) 2 points ……
962. Hypercementosis and ankylosis are seen in:

a- paget disease.
b- monocytic fibrous dysplasia.
c- hyperparathirodism.
963. The infection will spread cervically in infection from:

a- lower incisors.
b- lower premolars.
c- lower 2nd and 3rd molars.
d- upper incsisors.
964. In hypertension patient, the history is important to detect the severity:

a: true.
b: false.
965. In inflamed mucosa due to wearing denture, when do new denture:

a- immediately.
b- after week.
c- Put tissue conditioning material and wait until the tissue heals and take impression after
2 weeks.

966. Forceps to hold flap when suturing:

A. Adson’s. B.
Curved hemostat. C. Allis
forceps. D. Needle.
‫* ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﻟﻢ ﻳﯾﺤﺪﺩد ﻫﮬﮪھﻞ ﺍاﻟﺨﻴﯿﺎﻁطﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻤﻨﻄﻘﺔ ﺍاﻷﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﺃأﻡم ﺍاﻟﺨﻠﻔﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ ﻓﺎﺫذﺍا ﻛﺎﻧﺖ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻤﻨﻄﻘﺔ‬
‫ﺍاﻷﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﺘﻜﻮﻥن ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺍاﺩدﻳﯾﺴﻮﻥن ﻓﻮﺭرﺳﻴﯿﺒﺲ ﻭوﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻛﺎﻧﺖ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻤﻨﻄﻘﺔ‬
‫ﺍاﻟﺨﻠﻔﻴﯿﺔ ﻓﻬﮭﺘﻜﻮﻥن ﺍاﻟﺠﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻲ ﺳﺘﻴﯿﻠﻴﯿﺲ ﻓﻮﺭرﺳﻴﯿﺒﺒﺲ ﻭوﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻟﻢ ﻳﯾﺤﺪﺩد ﺍاﻟﻤﻨﻄﻘﺔ ﻓﻰ‬
‫ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻓﺎﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ ﺃأﻛﻴﯿﺪ ﻣﺶ ﻫﮬﮪھﻴﯿﺠﻴﯿﺐ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ ﻓﺘﻜﻮﻥن ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻟﻤﻮﺟﻮﺩدﻩه ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻣﻦ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﻳﯾﻦ ﺍاﻟﻨﻮﻋﻴﯿﻦ ﻓﻘﻂ ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﻔﻮﺭرﺳﻴﯿﺒﺴﺎﺕت‬
967. Pulp oedema:
1- has no effect on vascular system.
2- fluid is compressed in the vessels limiting the intercellular pressure.
3- Interstitial pressure increased due to increased vascularity.
4- causes necrosis of the pulp tissues.
968. Master cone doesn't reach the apex:

1) ledge.
2) residual remenants.

3) 1 & 2.
969. Pterygomandibular raphe:

a. Insertion & origin.
b. muscles.
c. should be medial to the injection.
d. all of the above.
970. The divergence should be mesiodistally for an

amalgam restoration:
a. no it should be convergent.
b. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge = 1.6 mm.
c. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge only > 1.6mm.
d. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge only < 1.6mm.
‫ ﻣﻦ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺃأﻗﻞ‬ 5 & 4 ‫ ﻟﻠﻀﺮﺳﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﻣﻠﻢ‬1.6 ‫ ﻣﻦ‬ ‫ ﺃأﻗﻞ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻴﯿﺰﻳﯾﺎﻝل ﻭوﺍاﻟﺪﻳﯾﺴﺘﺎﻝل‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﺎﻓﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﻦ‬ ‫ ﻛﻞ‬ ‫ ﺳﻤﺎﻛﺔ‬ ‫ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ‬ ‫* ﺇإﺫذﺍا‬
. ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺤﻀﻴﯿﺮ‬ ‫ ﻋﻨﺪ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﺎﻓﺘﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﺑﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﺗﺒﺎﻋﺪ‬ ‫ ﻋﻤﻞ‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﺘﻢ‬ ‫ ﺃأﻥن‬ ‫ ﻓﻴﯿﺠﺐ‬ 7 & 6 ‫ ﻟﻠﻀﺮﺳﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﻣﻠﻢ‬2
971. Patient with radiopacity in the periapical area of a 1st mandibular molar
with a wide carious lesion and a bad periodontal condition is:
a. condensing osteosis.
b. hypercementosis.
972. Patient had anaphylactic shock due to penicillin injection, what's the most
important in the emergency treatment to do:
a. 200 mg hydrocortisone intravenous.
b. 0.5 mg epinephrine of 1/10000 intravenous.
c. adrenaline of 1/1000 intramuscular.
973. Bronchial asthma, epinephrine concentration subcutaneously:

A) 1/1000
B) 1/10000
C) 1/100000
974. Which is contraindicated to the general anaesthia:

a. patient with an advanced medical condition like cardiac disease.
b. down's syndrome patient.
c. child with multiple carious lesion in most of his dentition.
d. child who needs dental care, but who's uncooperative, fearful…etc.

975. Continuous condensation technique in gp filling is:

a. obtura I.
b. obtura II.
c. ultrafill.
d. System B.

.Thermoplastized GP. ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﺮﺍاﺭرﻳﯾﺔ‬ ‫ ﺑﺮﻛﺎ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻢ ﺃأﻧﻮﺍاﻉع ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﺠﺎﺗﺎ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻟﻰ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺛﺔ‬ ‫*ﺍاﻟﺨﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت‬
976. Best material for major connector:

a. Gold wrought wire.
b. Chrome cobalt.
c. Gold palladium.
d. Titanium.
977. On a central incisor receiving a full ceramic restoration,

during finishing of the shoulder finish line subgingivally we
use:
A. Diamond end cutting. B.
Fissure bur. C. Round
bur.
978. In a class III composite with a liner underneath, what's the
best to use:
a. light cured GI.
b. Zno eug.
c. Reinforced zno eug.
979. Outline of 2nd molar access opening:

. ‫ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻔﻚ‬ ‫ ﻓﻲ‬ ‫* ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻳﯾﻘﺼﺪ‬
A. Triangular with the base mesially. B. Triangular
with the base distally. C. Ovoid shape.
D. Non of the above.
980. The outline form of maxillary molar access opening is triangular. The
base of this triangle is directed toward :
A) Buccal.
B) Palatal.
C) Mesial.
D) Distal.
981. After usage of sharp scalpels, needles what's the best management:
1) throw in a special container of sharp instruments.
2) sterilize and reuse.
3) throw in ordinary plastic waste basket.

982. Sharpening of hand instrument mounted air driven better than

unmounted due to:
A) Fine grift.
B) Sterilization.
C) Ability to curve instrument.
983. Unmounted sharpening instruments are better than mounted because:

a. has finer grains.
b. don't alter the bevel of the instrument.

c. easier to sterilize.
d. less particles of the instruments are removed.

984. Pt. came to the clinic complaining from pain related to swelling on
maxillary central incisor area with vital to under percussion?
1/ periapical cyst.
2/ incisive cyst.
3/ globulomaxillary cyst.
4/ aneurysmal bone cyst.

• Incisive cyst = Incisive canal cyst = Nasopalatine duct cyst.
985. Pt. came to the clinic with a lesion confined to the middle of the hard
palate, on the clinical examination the lesion is fluctuant & tender. On
the x-ray radiolucent area between the two central incisors roots. The
diagnosis will be:
a- Glubulomaxillary cyst.
b- Incisive canal cyst.
c- Bohn's nodule.
d- Aneurysmal bone cyst.

Boy came to the clinic in the right maxillary central incisor with large
986.
pulp exposure:
1/ pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2.
2/ pulpotomy with Ca(OH)2.
3/ Direct pulp capping.
4/ leave it.
987. The percentage of simple caries located in the outer wall of the dentin
(proximal sides of the tooth) which left without cavitations is around:
1- 10%
2- 30%
3- 60%
4- 90%
988. Irrigation solution for RCT when there is infection and draining from
the canal is:
a) Sodium hypochlorite.
b) Iodine potassium.
c) Sodium hypochlorite and iodine potassium.

989. Irrigation solution for RCT when there is infection and draining from
the canal is:
a) Sodium hypochlorite.
b) Iodine potassium.
c) Sodium hypochlorite and H2O2.

990. Trigeminal neuralgia treated by carbomizapine, the max. dose per day
divided in doses is:
A- 200 mg.
B- 500mg.
C- 1000mg.
D- 1200mg.
991. 10 years child with congenital heart disease came for extraction of his
lower 1st molar, the antibiotic of choice for prevention of infective
endocarditis is:
a- Ampicillin 30 mg /kg orally 1hour before procedure.
b- Cephalixin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
c- Clindamicin 20mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
d- Amoxicillin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
992. What is uses of microscope?
A. To see metaobolic.
B. To see live cells.
C. To see dead cells.
993. Best way to detect presence of 2 canals:

A. putting 2 files & take x-ray.

994. Patient has a palatal torus between hard & soft palates, the major
connector of choice:
a. anteroposterior palatal strap.
b. u shaped.
c. posterior palatal strap.

995. White lesion bilaterally on cheek & another member in the family has
it:
a. leukoplakia.
b. white sponge nevus.
c. lichen planus.

996. Pt. construct for him a complete denture after few days he came to u
complaining from pain & white spots on the residual ridge do relief in
that area & give him ointment and after few days he came again
complaining the same but in another area, the main cause is :
a. Uneven pressure on the crest of alveolar ridge.
b. Increase vertical dimension.
997. After final inlay cementation and before complete setting of cement we
should:
a- remove occlusal interferences.
b- Burnishing of peripheries of restoration for more adaptation.
c- lowering occlusal surface.

998. Pt. with renal dialysis, the best time of dental ttt. is:
a- 1 day before dialysis.
b- 1 day after dialysis.
c- 1 week after dialysis.
999. Pt. presented with vehicle accident u suspect presence of bilateral

condylar fracture what is the best view to diagnose condylar fracture:
1. Occiptomenatal.
2. Reverse towne.
3. Lateral oblique 30 degree.
• Reverse towne is used to diagnose fractures of condyles & ramus areas.
1000. Female came needing to endodontic for central insicor, and have
medial composite restorations in the mesial and distal walls, and have
attrition in the insicial edge the best restoration?
1. Jacket crown.
2. Full crown.
3. Metal crown.
1001. Child has dental caries in 3 or 4 surfaces of his first

primary molar we will replace them with:
A. preformed metal crown.
B. porcelain crown.
C. amalgam crown.
D. composite restoration.
* preformed metal crown = stainless steel crown.
1002. The nerve which supplies the tongue and may be

anesthetized during nerve block injection:
1. V.
2. VII.
3. IX.
4. XII.
* VII nerve: ( 7 : Facial nerve ).

1003. Electro surgery rate:
a. 1.5 – 7.5 millions cycles per seconds.
b. 7.5 – 10 millions cycles per seconds.
c. 10 – 25 millions cycles per seconds.
d. 30 millions cycles per seconds.
1004. Pt. came to the clinic after he has an accident. X-ray revealed
bilateral fracture of the condyles. Mandible movements are
normal in all directions. What is your treatment?
1. Inter maxillary mandibular fixation.
2. Fixed IMF for 6 weeks.
3. Inter mandibular fixation.
4. No treatment is performed only anti inflammatory drugs and
observation.
1005. 9 years old Pt. came to the clinic after he has an accident. X-ray
revealed bilateral fracture of the condyles. Mandible movements are
normal in all directions. What is your treatment?
1. Inter maxillary mandibular fixation.
2. Fixed IMF for 6 weeks.
3. Inter mandibular fixation.
4. No treatment is performed only anti inflammatory drugs and observation.
1006. 6 years old patient received trauma in his maxillary primary incisor,
the tooth is intruded. The permanent incisor is expected to have:
1. Yellowish or whitish discoloration.
2. Displacement.
3. Malformation.
4. Cracks in enamel.
1007. 6 years old patient received trauma in his maxillary primary incisor,
the tooth is intruded. The permanent incisor is expected to have:
a. Displacement.
b. Malformation.
c. Cracks in enamel.
d. Yellowish or whitish discoloration with hypoplasia.
1008. Head and neck nevi with multi lesion is:

1/ Eagle syndrome.
2/ Albright syndrome.

1009. Avulsed teeth with replantation, dentist evaluates

prognosis with :
1/ flexible wire.

2/ ridge wire.
3/ in follow-up pd. wire.
* The ideal splint for avulsed teeth is a flexible splint by a flexible wire.

1010. Pt. needs complete denture, when u did the examination u notice the
maxillary tubersity will interfere with denture:
1/ need no. 12 blade for extention.
2/ partial thickness flap extend buccal & palatal.
3/ suture under tension.
1011. For recording of vertical dimention we use:

a. Willis Gauge.
b. Caliper.
c. Face bow.
* Willis Gauge or another method ” Two dots technique “.
1012. What name of bur used in proximal surface of laminate veneer?

A. Radial.
B. Dimond.
C. Fissure.
1013. What name of bur used in facial surface of veneer?

A. Dimond.
B. Fissure.
1014. Pacifier habit what you see in his mouth?

a. Open bite.
b. Cross bite.
* Children who use pacifier are more likely to show anterior open bite, posterior
crossbite and increased overjet.
1015. In the pulp:

1. Cell rich zone contains fibroblasts.
2. Cell free zone contains capillaries and nerve networks.
3. Odonotbalstic layer contains odontoblasts.
‫ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻣﻤﻜﻦ ﺗﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺃأﻯى ﺍاﺟﺎﺑﺔ‬ Dental Decks - page 226 ‫ ﺍاﻟﺼﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻓﻲ‬ ً‫ﺮﻓﻴﯿﺎ‬
‫ﺣ‬ ‫ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻭوﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩدﺓة‬ ‫* ﻛﻠﻬﮭﺎ‬
. ‫ ﻓﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ‬all of the above ‫ﻣﻨﻬﮭﻢ ﺃأﻭو ﻟﻮ ﻛﺎﻥن ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬

1016. What type pontic design would you do in a patient with a
high esthetic demand when preparing teeth number 9 – 11 for a F P D:
a- Ridge lap or saddle pontic.
b- Ovate pontic.
c- Modified ridge lap pontic.
1017. Design of anterior pontic:

a- Modified ridge lab.
b- Saddle.
c- Hygienic.
1018. Skeletal bone of skull develops from :

a- Neurocranium ossification.
b- Intramembranous ossification.
c- Endochondral ossification.
* Endochondral ossification : Short bones and long bones and bones of skull ( temporal,
sphenoid and ethmoid bones ).
* Intramembranous ossification: Flat bones.
1019. Skeletal face is from:

a. Neural crest.
b. Paraxial mesoderm.
c. Lateral plate mesoderm.
1020. Glenoid fossa is found in:

1/ Orbital cavity.
2/ Nasal cavity.
3/ Middle cranial fossa.
4/ Temporal bone.
* Glenoid fossa = Mandibular fossa.

* The mandibular fossa: is a depression in the temporal bone.
1021. The spread of odontogenic infection is based on:

1/ Host defense.
2/ Virulent of microorganism.
3/ No. of bacteria.
4/ All.
1022. 3rd generation of apexo locator:

a. Uses with all pts.
b. Needs more research.
c. Increases chair time.
d. Decreases radiographic film need.
1023. Pt. taken heparin ( or warfarin ) he should do surgery after:
1/ 1 Hrs.
2/ 2 Hrs.
3/ 4 Hrs.
4/ 6 Hrs.
1024. Twins came to your clinic during routine examination,

you found great change behaviour between both of them this
due to:
A) Hereditary.
B) Environment.
C) Maturation.
Dentistry for child and adolescent:

* The differences between monozygotic twins ‫ﻣﺘﻤﺎﺛﻠﻴﯿﻦ‬‫ ﺗﻮﺃأﻣﻴﯿﻦ‬ result from differences in
environment but those between dizygotic twins" ‫ ﺗﻭوﺃأﻣﻳﯾﻥن ﻏﻳﯾﺭر ﻣﺗﻣﺎﺛﻠﻳﯾﻥن " ﻣﻧﻔﺻﻠﻳﯾﻥن‬result from
differences in both environment and heredity.
1025. Epiliptec patient, you will not give him:

A) Aspirin.
B) Azoles.
C) Metronidazole.
D) All of the above.
1026. Dylantin ( phynotoin ) don’t give with:

A) Aspirin.
B) Azoles.
C) Metronidazole.
1027. Pregnant 25 years, bleeding on probing, location on papilla of

anterior area of the maxilla, isolated:
A) Giant cell granuloma.
B) Pyogenic granuloma.
1028. Porcelain, highly esthetic, anterior maxilla area, we choose:

A) Dicor.
B) In ceram.
C) Impress.
1029. Pt. has discoloration on his max. ant. central, and u planning to do
veneer for him. Which type of porcelain has high easthetic?
a. in ceram.

b. dicor glass reinforced risen.
c. impress.
1030. The highest strength in porcelain:

A) ZR ( zirconia ) reinforced in ceram.
B) Ceramometal crown.
C) In ceram crown.
1031. Amalgam pain after restoration due to:
A) Phase 2 gamma.
B) Phase 1 gamma.
C) Zinc containing alloy.
D) Admix alloy.
1032. Zinc if added to amalgam:

a. Increases moisture sensitivity and causes expansion.
b. Increases marginal integrity and longevity than zinc free amalgam.
c. a + b.
1033. Endocrine and exocrine gland is :

A) pancreas.
B) Pituitary gland.
C) Thyroid gland.
D) Salivary gland.
E) Sweat gland.
1034. Silane coupling agent for wetting wall of pulp:

1- decreases wall tension.
2- increases wall tension.

1035. In endo, one of sealer property is to be flowable (or wettable ), to
enhance this quality we can mix it with a material that have:
a. Low surface tension.
b.High surface tension.
1036. Silane coupling agent:

1/ used with porcelain to enhance wettability of bonding.
2/ used with tooth and porcelain.
1037. For discharged sharp instruments ( blades, needle tips, wedges,

…etc ) put in :
A) dicharged paper basket.
B) designed sharp instrument special container.
C) disinfected in autoclave then throw.
D) put it in multifoil.
1038. Female patient came to your clinic with continuous severe pain
related to 1st maxillary molar. After examination dentist diagnose the
tooth is carious and has irreversible pulpitis. He decides to do RCT.
After enough time for anaesthisation, the patient won’t
allow the dentist to touch the tooth due to severe pain. Dentist should:
A) Give another appointment to the patient with description of antibiotics.
B) Extraction.
C) Intra-pulpal anaesthia.
1039. 32 years old patient came to your dental office suffering from a
bad odour and taste from his mouth. By examination, patient has an
anterior mandibular 3 units bridge that bubbles upon applying water
spray and slight pressure. Cause:
A) Broken abutment.
B) Food impaction underneath the pontic.
C) Separation between the abutment and the retainer.
1040. Patient complaining from pain in the floor of the mouth ( or

beneath the lower jaw ), your diagnosis is related to the salivary glands,
what’s the best x-ray to help you:
A) panoramic.
B) occlusal.
C) Sialograph.
1041. Distal surface for first upper premolar, contact with the
neighboring teeth:
A) in the middle with buccal vastness wider than lingual one.
B) in the middle with lingual vastness wider than bucccaly one.
1042. The movement of polymorphic cells in the gaps of intracellular

to the blood capillary outside it called:
A) Porosity.
B) Slinking.
C) Diapedesis.
1043. Child with cleft palate and cleft lip with anodontia due to:
a- Van der woude syndrome.
b- Treacher collins syndrome.
c- Paget disease.

1044. Which of the following canals in # 14 is most difficult to locate:
a- Palatal.
b- Distobuccal.
c- Mesiobuccal.
d- All of above.
1045. Which condition is an apical lesion that develop acute exacerbation of

chronic apical abscess:
a- Granuloma.
b- Phoenix abscess.

c- Cyst.
d- Non of above.
1046. Acute exacerbation of chronic pulpitis:

a) Reversible pulpitis.
B) Irreversible pulpitis.
C) Acute periodontitis.
1047. Which tooth requires special attention when

preparing the occlusal aspect for restoration:
a- lower 2nd molar.
b- lower 1st premolar.
c- lower 2nd premolar.
d- upper 1st molar.
1048. Pt. came to u with coloration bluish ( or greenish ) and

black in the gingival margins. He said that he has
gasteriointensinal problem. This is caused because of:
a- Mercury.
b- Lead.
c- Bismuth.
d- Arsen.

1049. How can u repair fractured rest ( in the place where it passes over the
marginal ridge of the tooth ) in removable partial denture?
A- Spot welding.
b- Electric soldering.
c- Industrial brazing.
1050. Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark lines that appear in:
1. Enamel when view in horizontal ground.
2. Enamel when view in longitudinal ground.
3. Dentin when view in horizontal ground.
4. Dentin when view in longitudinal ground.
1051. Sealer is used in RCT to:

1- Fill in voids.
2- Increase strength of RC filling.
3- Disinfect the canal.
1052. Child patient presented with swelling in the buccal and palatal
maxillary anterior area two days ago, the pathology of the lesion there is
a giant cell, what is the diagnosis:
1. Giant granuloma.
2. Hemangioma.
1053. Child with anodontia and loss of body hair, the diagnosis is:
1. Down's syndrome.
2. Ectodermal dysplasia.
3. Fructose problem.
4. Diabetic.
1054. Cavity etching before applying GIC is:

1. Polyacrylic acid 10 seconds.
2. Polyacrylic acid 60 seconds.
3. Phosphoric acid 10 seconds.
4. Phosphoric acid 60 seconds.
1055. To increse retention of GIC u should use:

a- 37% polyacrylic acid for 15 seconds.
b- 35% polyacrylic acid for 10 seconds.
c- 10% polyacrylic acid for 10 seconds.
d- 10% polyacrylic acid for 15 seconds.
1. a,b.
2. a,d.
3. c,d.
4. c only.
5. d only.
1056. Surgery for ridges aims to:

1. Vertical dimension.
2. Speech.
3. Modify ridge for stability.
1057. Patient with warfarin ( or heparin ) treatment and you want to do

surgery, when you can do:
1. When PTT is 1 – 1.5 INR on the same day.
2. When PTT is 2 – 2.5 INR on the same day.
3. When PT is 1 – 1.5 INR on the same day.
4. When PT is 2 – 2.5 INR on the same day.
1058. Patient with pain on the upper right area, and the patient can not tell
the tooth causes the pain, what is the least reliable way to do test pulp:
1. Cold test.
2. Hot test.
3. Electric test.
4. Stimulation the dentin.

1059. Pt. have denture, after 5 years he complains of ulcer and inflammation
in lower buccal vestibule. What is the diagnosis:
1/ Hypertrophic frenum.
2/ Epulis fissurment.
1060. Patient presented to you after fitting the immediate denture 5 – 10

months, complaining pain and over tissue in the mandibular. What is
the diagnosis:
1. Epulis fissurment.

2. Hypertrophic frenum.
1061. Main reason for surgical pocket therapy:

a. Expose the roots for scaling and root planning.
b. Remove supragingival calculus.
1062. Biological width:

a. 1 mm.
b. 2 mm.
c. 3 mm.
d. 4 mm.
1063. Biological depth:

A. Crestal bone to gingival sulcus.

1064. Periodontal attachment contains:

A. Epithilum, sulcus & connective tissue.
1065. Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed

to:
a. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
b. Remove the necrotic cementum.
c. Change the root surface to become biocompatible.
e. a & b only.
1066. Best measurement of periodontitis by:

a. Pocket depth.
b. Bleeding.
c. Attachment level.
1067. The tissue response to oral hygiene instructions is detected by:
a- Prop pocket depth.
b- Less bleeding on propping.
1068. After scaling and root planning, healing occurs by:

a. Long junctional epithelium.
b. New attachment.
c. New bone and connective tissue formation.
d. New attached periodontal ligament fibers.
1069. During examination 34 shows gingival recession buccally, the least correct
reason is:
a. Frenum attachment.
b. Pt. is right hand brushee.
c. Occlusal force.
d. Inadequate gingiva.

1070. Periodontal pocket differs most significantly from
gingival pocket with respect to:
a. Depth.
b. Tendency to bleed on gentle probing.
c. The location of the bone of the pocket.
1071. All of these are right ways to handle the instrument except:
A- Modified pen handle.
b- Inverted pen.
c- Pen handle.
d- Palm and thumb.
1072. Amalgam is used in extensive cavities :
a- When the cusp is supported by dentine and proper retentive preparation.
b- When cusps lost and thin supported wall.
c- When one cusp is lost and need to apply restoration to replace it.
1073. What is the most factor encouraging dental caries:

A) Xerostomia.
B) Hypocalcification.
C) Smoking.

1074. Incipient caries in the old patients is mostly due to:

A) Smoking.
B) Saliva.
C) Xerostomia.
1075. The best definition to odontoblast:

a- It’s subjacent to predentine & odontoblastic process.
b- Odontoblast cell is more in the cellular pulp than radicular.
1076. The last sensation which disappears after local anesthisea:

A- pain.
b- deep pressure.
c- temperature.
1077. The kind of onlay wax used in cast:

1. baraffin.
2. bee.
1078. Wax inlay which type contains in much gradient?

a) Baraffin wax.
b) Bee wax.
1079. Non odontogenic lesion similar to endo lesion:

a- Hyperparathyroidism.
b- Initial stage of cemental dysplasia.
c- ossifying fibroma.
d- Dentigeaus cyst.
e- ameloblastoma.
f- Lateral periodontal cyst.
j- myxoma & hemangieoma.
1080. While RCT if u penetrate the furcation area of roots what u will do?
a. Mineral Trioxide Aggregate ( MTA ).
b. Caoh.
c. Formocresol.
1081. The mineral trioxide aggregate ( MTA ) is best material for:

a. Indirect pulp capping.
b. Apexogenesis.
c. Apexification.
d.Root canal obturation.
e. All except a.

1082. The fundamental rule in the endodontic emergencies is:

a. control pain by inflammatory non steroid.
b. diagnosis is certain.

1083. Female pt. comes with endo treated upper central with mesial & distal
caries and have incisal abrasion. Porcelain veneer is planned with
modification to cover incisal edge. Veneer should end:
a. fourth lingualy 0.5 mm before centric occlusal.
b. fourth 1.5 mm before centric occlusion.
c. fifth 1.5 mm before centric occlusion.
1084. Pt. comes with siuns, u make gp tracing & take radiograph the gp
appears in lateral surface of the root:
a. periodontal abscess.
b. periodontitis.
c. lateral acessory canal.
1085. Technique of endo fill where we use continuous

condensation:
A. Vertical condensation.
B. Horizontal condensation.
C. Ultrafil.
D. Obtura I.
* Continuous condensation techniques: vertical condensation & system

b.

1086. Post graduated student use MTA, the prognosis depends on prevent:
a. immediate suture.
b. disturbance during closure of wound.
c. using a flab.
1087. The cause of black cast which prevents pickling due to:
a. Over heat.
b. Contaminate with gas.
c. Incomplete casting.
1088. Sharpening the curette and sickle, the cutting edge should be at
angle:
A- 50-60.
B- 70-80.
C- 80-90.
D- 60-70.
1089. Pt. takes 40 cortisone in day of procedure:

a. double the dose just day of procedure.
b. double the dose day of procedure & day after.
c. stop the medication.
1090. What is the dominant type of fibers found in cementum:

A) Longitudinal fiber.
B) Circular fiber.
C) Sharpey's fiber.
1091. Fibers which completely embedded in cementation and pass from

cementation of one tooth to the cementation of adjacent tooth is:
1. Sharpey's fiber.
2. Transceptal fibers.
3. Longitudinal fibers.
1092. What is the main function of impression tray holes :

A) Fixing the Impression material.
1093. A Tailor is presented to your dental office, what’s

the most common feature to be found in his teeth upon
examination :
A) Attrition.
B) Abrasion.
C) Erosion.
D) Abfarction.

1094. Abrasion of enamel and root surfaces may result from the long
term use of:
A. A hard toothbrush.
B. Tooth abrasive toothpaste or powder.
C. Vigorous use of the toothbrush.
D. A and B only.
E. A, B and C.
1095. Patient came to your clinic complaining of pain, upon

examination you can’t find a cause. What’s the next logical step to do in
investigation:
A) Panoramic x-ray.
B) CT Scan.
C) MRI.
D) Regular tomography.
1096. Contraindications of implant except:

1- many dental caries.
2- malignancy.
3- radiation therapy.
1097. Dental implants are successfully with min. failure:

a- premaxilla area in the upper arch.
b- Posterior area of the maxillary arch.
c- Mandible between the mental foramens.
d- Buccal shelf of the mandible.
• Minimal failure of implantation is in mandible between the mental foramens.

• Maximum failure of implantation is in maxilla in the posterior area.
1098. What’s the best implant type allowing

osseointegration:
A) Root-form endosseous implant.
1099. The indications of implantation:

1. Diabetic patient.
2. Loss of one tooth only with the adjecent teeth.

1100. What medical condition should prevent the dentist from
practicing dentistry :
A) Diabetes.
B) Hypertension.
C) Influenza.
D) Headache.
1101. Patient complaining of xerostomia & frequent

going to the toilet at night:
A) Diabetes mellitus.
1102. Which of the following materials is not a hemostatic
agent :
A) Oxidized cellulose.
B) Gelvon.
C) Zinc oxide.
1103. patient suffering from a submandibular gland abscess, dentist

made a stab incision and is fixing a rubber drain to evacuate the
pus, the drain is sutured to :
A) Intra-oral.
B) From angle of the mandible.
C) Between mylohoid muscles.
1104. Patient suffering from a submandibular gland abscess, dentist made a

stab incision and is fixing a rubber drain to evacuate the pus, the
drain is sutured to:
A) Intra-oral between the mylohoid muscles.
B) Extraorally from the most fluctant point.
C) Extraorally under the chin.
1105. The best material for taking full crown veneers impression is:
A) Poly-sulphide.
B) Poly-ether.
C) Irreversible hydrocolloid.
D) Polyvinyl siloxane.
1106. What is the concept of pro-taper system :

A) Step down tech.
B) Step back tech.
C) Crown down tech.
1107. Preparation of tooth for metal ceramic restoration should be

done in:
A) Two planes.
B) parallel to long axis.
1108. Labial reduction for porcelain metal restoration must be:

1. One plane for aesthetic.
2. Two planes by follow the morphology.
1109. Preparation for labial surface in one plane in the preparation for
metal crown is:
A) More retentive.
B) Less retentive.
c) Less cutting of tissues .
1110. When removing lower second molar :

A) Occlusal plane perpendicular to the floor.
B) Buccolingual direction to dilate socket.
C) Mesial then lingual.
1111. Upon opening an incision in a periapical abscess in a lower 1st

molar, you open :
A) The most bottom of the abscess.
B) The most necrotic part of the abscess.
C) Extraoral.
1112. What’s the test used for HIV:

A. Elisa. ( called also : EIA ).
1113. Neonate 2 years old has a lesion on the centrum of

the tongue with the eruption of the 1st tooth:
A) Riga-fede disease. ( Sublingual traumatic ulceration ).
1114. Which of the following conditions is highly indicated for the

short therapy of DOTS and is directly observed once in the clinic:
A) Tuberculosis.
B) HIV.
C) H1N1.
D) Mental Illness.
1115. At the begining of the operation day in the clinic, you should
start the water/air spray for three minutes in order to get rid of which
type of microorganisms:
A) Streptococcus mutans.
B) Streptococcus salivarius.
1116. The main link between the pulp and the periodontium
is:
A. Apical foramen.
B. Dentinal tubules.
C. Accessory canals.
D. PDL.

1117. Patient came with severe pain related to right 1st
mandibular molar, there's no swelling related, pulp test is
negative, no evidence in radiograph. Diagnosis:
A. Irreversible pulpitis.
B. Acute periodontal abscess.
C. Suppurative periodontal abscess.
1118. Which of the following teeth has a contact area between

the incisal ( occlusal ) third and middle third:
A. 1st maxillary premolar.
B. 1st mandibular premolar.
C. 1st maxillary molar.
D. Central mandibular Incisor.
* 1st mandibular premolar & 2nd mandibular premolar.
1119. A pt. came to your clinic after examination you found deformity
in the neck and collar bones and supernumerary teeth what is the
diagnosis :
a. Cleidocranial dysostosis.
b. Amelogensis imperfecta.
1120. Pt. with complete denture complains from tightness of denture

in morning then becomes good this due to:
A) Relif of denture.
B) Lack of cheeck elastisty.
C) Poor post dam.

1121. Old pt. comes with set of compelete denture with tight denture in
morning and become loose later in a day what is the cause:
a. Lack of posterior palatal seal.
b. Deflecting of occlusion.
c. Excessive relining of denture.
d. Inelasticity of cheek.
1122. A border line diabetic pt. came with denture stomatitis you
found abundant debris in the tissue surface area of the denture, the
proper management is:
A. Systemic antibiotic.
B. Topical antifungal.
C. Systemic antifungal.
D. Topical antibiotic.

1123. Pain in central incisors from:
A. Central & lateral incisors.
B. Lateral & canine.
C. Canine & premolar.
D. Premolar & molar.
1124. To treat non vital tooth with open apex when doing access
openning with gates glidden bur take care to: : ‫ﺍاﺣﺮﺹص ﻋﻠﻰ ﺃأﻥن‬
A. Remove all dentin.
B. Remove minimal dentine.
C. Follow conservative method.
1125. To treat non vital tooth with open apex when doing access opening
with gates glidden drill take care to avoid: : ‫ﺃأﺣﺮﺹص ﻋﻠﻰ ﺃأﻥن ﺗﺘﺠﻨﺐ‬
a. Remove all dentin.
b.Remove minimal dentine.
c. Follow conservative method.
1126. 20 years old pt. have avulsed tooth for 60 min. the management
to return vascularity of the tooth:
A. Scrap the surface of the root.
B. Place the tooth in sodium sulfide.
C. Place it in sodium chloride then sodium sulfide.
1127. The peripheries of the custom tray should be under extended to

all border and clearance from the frenum areas:
1. 2mm.
2. 4mm.
3. 6mm.
4. 8mm.
1128. The goal of making the peripheries of the custom tray under
extended to all bordered clearance from the frenum areas:
1. To give enough space for the used impression material to allow border molding the tray.
2. To give enough space for the die spacer.
3. To give enough space for the cementation material.
4. None.
1129. The base plate could be made by:

1. Acrylic plate.
2. Ceramic plate.
3. Wax plate.
4. 1 and 3.
1130. The vertical height of the maxillary occlusion rim from the

reflection of the cast is:
1. 12mm.
2. 22mm.
3. 32mm.
4. 42mm.
1131. The anterior width of the maxillary occlusion rim

is:
1. 5mm.
2. 10mm.
3. 15mm.
4. 20mm.
1132. The posterior width of the maxillary occlusion

rim:
1. 8-10mm.
2. 8-15mm.
3. 10-15mm.
4. 15-20mm.
1133. The anterior height of the mandibular occlusion rim is:

1. 6mm.
2. 16mm.
3. 26mm.
4. 36mm.
1134. The posterior height of mandibular occlusion rim is:

1. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of retro molar pads.
2. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the frenum areas.
3. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the alveolar ridges.
4. None.
1135. Record the occlusal plane in order to:

1. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which will be occupied
by artificial teeth.
2. To determine vertical and horizontal levels of the teeth.
3. a and b.
4. None.
1136. The protrusive condylar guidance should be set on the

articulator at:
1. 30 – 35 degree.
2. 50 degree.
3. 60 degree.
d. 70 degree.
1137. The lateral condylar posts should be set on the articulator at:
a. Zero degree.
b.20 degree.
c. 40 degree.
d.None.
1138. The incisal guide should be set on the articulator at:

a. Zero degree.
b.20 degree.
c. 40 degree.
d.None.
1139. The primary goal of anterior tooth selection is:

a. To provide good functional requirements.
b.To satisfy aesthetic requirements.
c. To let the patient feel comfortable.
d.None.
1140. The primary goal of posterior tooth selection is:

a. To provide good functional requirements.
b.To satisfy aesthetic requirements.
c. To satisfy psychological requirements.
d.None.
1141. You need…….to get the teeth shade:

a. Shade guide.
b.Incisal guide.
c. Acrylic teeth.
d.Porcelain teeth.
1142. The teeth materials are:

1. Acrylic teeth.
2. Porcelain teeth.
3. a and b.
4. None.
1143. The width of the lower teeth is:

1. 1/2 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship.
4. None.
1144. Generally posterior teeth are classified into:

1. Anatomy (cusp) teeth.
2. Non-anatomy (cuspless) teeth or flat.
3. a and b.
4. None.
1145. The process of positioning or arranging teeth on the denture

base is termed:

1. Casting.
2. Investing.
3. Setting up.
4. Flasking.
1146. Important functions must be considered when arranging

anterior teeth:
1. Aesthetics.
2. Incision.
3. Phonetics.
4. All.
1147. Which surface of the central incisor that contacts the median
line:
1. Distal.
2. Mesial.
3. Buccal.
4. Lingual.
1148. The incisal edge of the maxillary lateral incisor is……..above

and parallel to the occlusal plane:
1. 1/2 mm.
2. 1 mm.
3. 2 mm.
4. 3 mm.
1149. The long axis of the maxillary cuspid is inclined

slightly to the:
1. Mesial.
2. Distal.
3. Buccal.
4. Lingual.
* But, the tip of the maxillary cuspid is inclined slightly to the distal.
1150. The long axis of the maxillary first molar is inclined to:
1. Buccal.
2. Mesial.
3. Distal.
4. Lingual.
1151. It is called ……….. when the occlusal surfaces of the right and
left posterior teeth are on the same level:
1. Vertical plane.
2. Horizontal plane.
3. Compensating curve.
4. All.

1152. The ………. of the maxillary first bicuspid is raised
approximately 1/2 mm. of the occlusal plane:
1. Buccal cusp.
2. Lingual cusp.
3. Mesial surface.
4. All.
1153. All maxillary posterior teeth touch the occlusal plane except:
1. First bicuspid.
2. Second bicuspid.
3. First molar.
4. Second molar.
1154. The distance between the lingual surfaces of the maxillary

anterior teeth and the labial surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth
is:
1. Vertical overlap ( overbite ).
2. Horizontal overlap ( overjet ).
3. Occlusal plane.
4. All.
1155. The distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and
mandibular anterior teeth is:
1. Horizontal overlap ( overjet ).
2. Vertical overlap ( overbite ).
3. Occlusal plane.
4. All.
1156. The average distance between the lingual surface of the

maxillary anterior teeth and the buccal surface of the mandibular
anterior teeth is:
( Horizontal overlap “ overjet “ ) :
1. 1/2mm.
2. 1mm.
3. 2mm.
4. 3mm.
* An ideal bite has an overbite of 1 – 3 mm. and an overjet of 1 – 3

mm.
* Vertical overlap “ overbite “ and horizontal overlap “ overjet “ is 1 - 3 mm.
1157. Which tooth of the mandibular anterior teeth that touch the
lingual surface of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal centric
relation?
1. Central incisor.
2. Lateral incisor.
3. Cuspid (Canine).
4. None.
1158. The mesial surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts:

1. The mesial surface of the central incisor.
2. The distal surface of the central incisor.
3. The mesial surface of the cuspid.
4. The distal surface of the cuspid.
1159. The tip of cusp of the mandibular cuspid is 1mm above the
occlusal plane to establish ………. of the maxillary anteriors :
1. Horizontal overlap.
2. Occlusal plane.
3. Vertical overlap.
4. All.
1160. The relation involves the movement of the mandible to the side
either right or left in which the act of mastication is to be accomplished.
Therefore the side to which the mandible moves is called:
1. Balancing side.
2. Working side.
3. Compensating side.
4. All.
1161. When the mandible moves to the working side, the opposite side
cusp to cusp contacts in order to balance stresses of mastication. This
relation is called:
1. Working relation.
2. Balancing relation.
3. Occlusal relation.
4. None.
1162. In order to distribute the primary forces of mastication, to fall

within the base of the denture, the mandibular teeth are set:
1. On the buccal edge of the ridge.
2. On the lingual edge of the ridge.
3. On the crest of the ridge.
4. All.
1163. The mandibular posterior tooth that has no

contact with any maxillary teeth during the balancing
occlusion is:
1. First bicuspid.
2. Second bicuspid.
3. First molar.
4. Second molar.
1164. The used device in flasking procedure is called:

1. Articulator.
2. Separating medium.
3. Flask.
4. None.

1165. We vaseline the inner surface of the flasks all rounds:
1. To help in the packing procedure.
2. To separate the models ( casts ) safety.
3. 1 and 2.
4. None.
1166. The procedure that follows the flasking procedure is called:
1. Polishing.
2. Deflasking.
3. Packing.
4. Curing the acrylic.
1167. Teeth selection in setting up is based on these factors:

1. Shade of the teeth.
2. Size and shape of the teeth.
3. Angle of the teeth.
4. 1 and 2.
5. All the above.
1168. Direct pulp capping is done in:

1. Primary molar.
2. Primary incisor.
3. Permanent molar.
4. None of the above.
1169. Indirect pulp capping is done in:

1. Primary molar.
2. Premolar and molar.
3. Incisors.
4. All the above.
1170. What do we use as temporary filling material in anterior region

when aesthetic is important:
1. Composite.
2. Glass ionemer cement.
3. Zinc oxide eugenol.
1171. The maximum dose of x-ray exposure dose for radiographic

technique:
1. 100 milli roentgens per week.
2. 10 roentgens per week.
Dental Decks - page 62

* 100 milli roentgens per week = 0.1 rem per week.
* 5 rem in one year.
1172. Acute periapical abscess characterized by:

1. Varying degree of pain.

2. Varying degree of swelling.
3. Some time not shown on the radiograph.
4. All the above.
1173. It is preferable to be the length of the handle of the custom tray:

1. 10 mm.
2. 20 mm.
3. 15 mm.
4. 25 mm.
1174. ………… is the art and science of functional, anatomic and
cosmetic reconstruction of missing or defective parts in the maxilla,
mandible or face by the use of non living substances:
1. Complete denture.
2. Maxillofacial prostheses.
3. Orthodontics.
4. Partial denture.
1175. …….. is the one that provides application and device to restore
aesthetic and functional requirements to patients with maxillofacial
defects:
1. Endodontist.
2. Pedodontist.
3. Maxillofacial prosthodontist.
4. Peridontist.
1176. The objectives of maxillofacial prosthetics:

1. Aesthetic.
2. Functions.
3. Protect the tissues.
4. All.
1177. The type of maxillofacial defects:
1. Congenital defects.
2. Acquired defects.
3. Developmental defects.
4. All.
1178. Cleft palate, cleft lip, missing ear, prognathism are:
4. None.
1179. Accidents, surgery, pathology are:

4. None.
1180. Extra-oral restorations are:

1. Radium shield.

2. Ear plugs for hearing.
3. Missing eye, missing nose or ear.
4. All.
1181. Lost part of maxilla or mandible with the facial

structures is classified by:
1. Intra-oral restorations.
2. Extra-oral restorations.
3. Combined intra-oral and extra-oral restorations.
4. All.
1182. The lack of continuity of the roof of the mouth through the
whole or part of its length in the form of fissure extending
anteroposteriorly is:
1. Obturator.
2. Splint.
3. Stent.
4. Congenital cleft palate.
1183. The factors that influence the induction of cleft palate:

1. Hereditary.
2. Environmental.
3. 1 and 2.
4. None.
1184. A prosthesis used to close a congenital or acquired opening in

the palate is:
1. Stent.
2. Splint.
3. Obturator.
4. None.
1185. …….. are appliances used for immobilization of fragments of

broken parts of jaw bones in their original position until repair takes
place?
1. Splints.
2. Stents.
3. Obturators.
4. Speech aids.
1186. The prepared surface of an abutment to receive the rest is

called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Rest seat.
4. None.

1187. The part of a removable partial denture that contacts a tooth it
affords primarily vertical support is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Rest.
4. None.
1188. The part of a removable partial denture is:

1. Rests.
2. Major connecters.
3. Retainers.
4. All.
1189. A rigid part of the partial denture casting that unites the rests
and another part of the prosthesis to the opposite side of the arch is
called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Retainer.
4. Rest.
1190. The part of a removable denture that forms a structure of

metal struts that engages and unites the metal casting with the resin
forming the denture base is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Denture base connecter.
4. Retainer.
1191. The rests are classified into:

1. Anterior rests.
2. Posterior rests.
3. 1 and 2.
4. None.
1192. The surveyor instrument consists of:

1. Vertical arm.
2. Cast platform or table.
3. Small analysis rod.
4. All.
1193. The primary guiding surface that determines the insertion for
the partial denture is:
1. The tooth surface opposite to the edentulous areas.
2. The tooth surface adjacent to the edentulous areas.
3. None.
1194. The one who is supposed to give the correct design of the
removable partial denture:
1. Prosthodontist.

2. Technician.
3. Assistant.
4. None.
1195. To fabricate a removable partial casting requires making a

second cast of high-heat investment material this cast is called:
1. Study cast.
2. Master cast.
3. Refractory cast.
4. All.
1196. Kennedy divided all partial edentulous arches:
1. Tow main types.
2. Three main types.
3. Four main types.
4. Five main types.
1197. According to the Kennedy's classification, the bilateral

edentulous areas located posterior to the remaining natural teeth is:
1. Class one.
2. Class two.
3. Class three.
4. Class four.
1198. According to the Kennedy's classification, unilateral edentulous

area with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior is:
1. Class one.
2. Class tow.
3. Class three.
4. Class four.
1199. We should select the shade for a composite resin ( or porcelain )

utilizing a:
1. Bright light.
2. Dry shade guide.
3. Dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam.
4. None of the above are correct.
1200. 4th canal in upper first molar is found:

1. Lingual to MBC.
2. Buccal to MBC.
3. Distal to MBC.
1201. To get file size 24, the following length should be cut from file
size 20:
1. 1mm.
2. 2mm.
3. 3mm.
4. 4mm.
* 1 mm cut = 2 size large.

1202. Red color endo file acccording ADA:
a. 20
b.25
c. 30
d.35
1203. The following canals may be found in an upper molar:

1. Mesio-buccal.
2. Disto-buccal.
3. Mesio-palatal.
4. Disto-lingual.
5. Palatal.
a) 1+2+4.
b) 1+2+4+5.
c) 2+3+4+5.
d) 1+2+3+5.
* Mesio-palatal = MB2 = M2 .
: ‫ ﺃأﻣﻠﻐﻢ‬ ‫ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة‬ ‫ ﻓﻴﯿﻪﮫ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺬﻱي‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﻦ‬ ‫ ﺗﻠﻮﻥن‬ ‫ ﻋﻦ‬ ‫ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل‬ .1204

.‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﺎﺟﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻗﻨﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﺿﻤﻦ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺰﺋﺒﻖ‬ ‫ ﺗﺴﺮﺏب‬ ‫ ﻟﻤﻨﻊ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻣﻠﻐﻢ‬ ‫ ﺗﺤﺖ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻔﺎﺭرﻧﻴﯿﺶ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺿﻊ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﻞ‬.1
1205. Patient has fixed bridge after you check in mouth of the
patient u see change color of bridge cloudy to milky what
causes?
a. Excessive fired.
b. Reduced fired.
c. Excessive moisture.
d. Increased poursity.
* When porcelain is fired too many times, it appears as a milky state

and makes glazing is very difficult.
1206. The ideal crown to root ratio of a tooth be utilized

as a bridge abutment is:
a- 3:1
b- 2:1
c- 1:2
d- 1:1
‫* ﻫﮬﮪھﻀﻄﺮ ﺃأﺧﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻷﺧﻴﯿﺮﺓة ﺭرﻏﻢ ﺃأﻧﻬﮭﺎ ﻟﻴﯿﺴﺖ ﺍاﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﺍاﻷﻳﯾﺪﻳﯾﺎﻝل ﻭوﻟﻜﻨﻬﮭﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺍاﻟﻮﺣﻴﯿﺪﺓة‬
: ‫ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻭوﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻰ ﻳﯾﺒﻮﺿﺢ ﺍاﻟﻨﺴﺐ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ‬
* Optimal ( or ideal ) crown root ratio and the minimal acceptable

ratio is:
a- 1:1 and 2:3 respictivly.
b- irrelevant as long as ther is no mobility.
c- 3:2 and 1:1 respectively.
d- 2:3 and 1:1 respictively. ***
e- irrelevant as long as ants law satisefied.
1207. First step in ttt. of abused tissue in patient with existing denture
is to:
A. Educate the patient.

Dental decks – page 401
1208. The primary role of the anterior teeth on a denture is:

i. Esthetics.
ii. Incising.
iii. Occlusion.
Dental decks - page 407
1209. Pt. has a lesion in tongue which suffering from scar fever, the
lesion when removed leave a bleeding area under it, diagnosis is:
a. Leukoplaqua.
b.Candida.
c. Ulcer.
1210. Food low cariogenic affects the following should be characteristic:

1/ Low buffering capacity.
2/ PH low than 3.
3/ Contains minerals.
1211. When resection tip of the root in apexectomy, the

cut shoud be:
a. Perpendicular to long axis of the tooth.
b. Paraller to long axis.
c. Acut angle.
d. Obtuse angle.

1212. Child patient with painful herpes simplex, the

treatment is acyclovir with:
1. Vit. C.
2. Local anesthesia with multivitamins.
3. Local anesthesia with protein.
* Multivitamins are: ( vitamin A, vitamin C & vitamin E ).
1213. Adding of surfactant to irrigation solution during RCT to increase

wettability of canal walls by:
a- lowering surface tension.
b- increasing surface tension.
c- Passing through dentinal tubules.
1214. Patient returned to you after 1 month from doing

amalgam filling with definite severe pain, due to:
a) Contamination with moisture leading to amalgam expansion.
b) Unidentified pulpal exposure.
c) Supra occlusion.
d) Gingival access.
1215. The function of post:

a. provides retention for a crown.
b. enhances the strength of the tooth.
c. provides retention for a core.
d. provides the root canal sealing.
1216. patient comes with severe stained anterior central left maxillary
incisor with small distal caries & lost incisal edge treated by:
a. Full ceramic restoration.
b. Composite.
c. Metal crown.
1217. The ideal post drill for most posterior teeth is:
a. gates glidden size 3
b. peeso drill size 3-6
c. profile size 60-70
d. peeso drill size 2-3
1218. The decision to retreat substandard ‫ﺩدﻭوﻥن ﺍاﻟﻤﺴﺘﻮﻯى‬endodontics shoud

be based on:

1- Radiographic evaluation of the endodontic treatment quality.
2- periapical pathology.
3- patient symptoms.
4- physical exploration of the root canal type and quality seal.
5- Restorative treatment plan.
1219. The most common injuries in child is:

1/ Avulsed tooth.
2/ Root.
3/ Intrusion of the tooth inside the socket wall.
* The most common injuries of teeth in children are luxation ( avulsion &
intrusion but avulsion is the most common ).
( ‫* ) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻰ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
1220. Child with previous history of minor trauma with
excessive bleeding we do test, the result is prolonged PT &
slightly increase clotting time & ……………. test is +ve, the
diagnosis is:
a. Hemophelia b.
b. Thrombocytopenia.
c. Vit. K deficiency.
* Hemophelia a or b: ( prolonged PPT ).

* Thrombocytopenia: ( prolonged bleeding tim e & highly decrease in platelets count ).
* Vit. K deficiency: ( prolonged PT, increase clotting time excessive bleeding

w ith m inor traum a ).
1221. Pt. came to your clinic complaining from his gingiva which
bleeds alot with any little pressure, on clincal examination u found
pinpoint purple dots and general rash like of ecchymosis on his body,
laboratory finding is highly decrease in platelets ( slightly
less than 25000 ) have a history of ecchymosis and bruising ‫ﺗﺠﻤﻌﺎﺕت‬
‫ ﺩدﻣﻮﻳﯾﺔ‬all over his body:
a. Thrombocytopenic purpura.
b. Vit. K deficiency.
c. Hemophelia a.

:‫* ﺍاﻟﻌﺪﺩد ﺍاﻟﻄﺒﻴﯿﻌﻰ ﻟﻠﺼﻔﺎﺋﺢ ﺍاﻟﺪﻣﻮﻳﯾﺔ‬
Normal platelets count is: 150000 – 450000
1222. The best test for vitality of crowned tooth is:

i. Cold with rupper dam.
ii. Electric test with rubber dam.
iii. Percussion.
1223. Nitrous oxide interferences with:

A. Vit B12.
B. Vit B6.
C. Vit A.
D. Vit C.
1224. Salivary gland role in maintaining tooth and bacteria integrity on the
oral cavity is done by:
a- Bacterial clearance.
b- Remineralization.
c- Buffering and direct anti-bacterial role.
d- Bacterial clearance and reminerlization.
1225. physiolgical activity of local anesthesia:

a. Lipid solubility.
b.Diffusibility.
c. Affinity for rotine bending.
d.Percent ionizing at physiologic pH.
e. Vasodilation properties.

1226. Physiolgical activity of local anesthesia:
a. Lipid solubility of unionized form.
b.Diffusbility.
c. Affinity for rotine bending.
d.Percent ionizing at physiologic pH.
e. Vasodilation properties.

b.Water solubility of unionized form.
c. Lipid solubility of ionized form.
d. Water solubility of ionized form.
1228. What is the form of local anesthesia when enters the nerve
tissues:
1. lipid soluble ionized form.
2. lipid soluble non-ionized.
3. water soluble ionized.

4. water soluble nonionized.
1229. Intraosseous injection of local anesthesia to lower

molar:
a. Perforate the bone mesial to the tooth.
b. Give one with 1:50000 epinipherine.
c. Give 1/4 to 1/5 of the cartridge.
d. Ask the pt. if he has numbness in his lower lip after injection.
* Perforate the bone mesial to the tooth. ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﺛﻘﺐ ﺍاﻟﻌﻈﻢ ﺻﺢ ﺑﺲ ﺍاﻟﻐﻠﻄﺔ ﺍاﻧﻪﮫ ﻗﺎﻝل ﻣﻴﯿﺰﻳﯾﺎﻝل ﻷﻧﻬﮭﺎ‬
. ‫ﻣﺶ ﻫﮬﮪھﺘﻔﺮﻕق ﻧﺎﺣﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻟﻤﻴﯿﺰﻳﯾﺎﻝل ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻟﺪﻳﯾﺴﺘﺎﻝل‬
* Give 1/4 to 1/5 of the cartridge. . ‫ ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻧﻀﻊ ﻛﻤﻴﯿﺔ ﻗﻠﻴﯿﻠﺔ ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﻤﺨﺪﺭر‬
1230. Reimplant of avulsed tooth, what you do:

A- Optimal reposition and fixed splint.
B- Optimal reposition and flexible splint.
C- Observe.
D- Watch with splint periodontally.

* Avulsed tooth:
Splint tooth in position with a flexible splint. Have patient bite into occlusion to be certain that
the position is correct before applying the splint. The splint will be kept in place for about one
week.
angina ‫ ﺍاﻟﺼﺪﺭرﻳﯾﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺬﺑﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻟﻤﺮﻳﯾﺾ‬ ‫ ﺗﻌﻄﻰ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺎﻟﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ﺍاﻷﺩدﻭوﻳﯾﺔ‬ .1231

: ‫ ﻣﺎﻋﺪﺍا‬pectoris
probranolol .1
Nsaids .2
* Nsaids as: Aspirin & Prufen.

: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺎﻟﺠﺔ‬ ‫ ﻋﻨﺪ‬ ‫ ﻟﻸﻗﻨﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻮﺻﻮﻝل‬ ‫ ﺣﻔﺮﺓة‬ ‫ ﻟﺠﺪﺭرﺍاﻥن‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻣﺜﻞ‬ ‫ﺍاﻟﺸﻜﻞ‬ .1232
. ‫ ﺍاﻹﻁطﺒﺎﻕق‬ ‫ ﺳﻄﺢ‬ ‫ ﺑﺎﺗﺠﺎﻩه‬ ‫ ﻣﺘﺒﺎﻋﺪﺓة‬.1
. ‫ ﺍاﻹﻁطﺒﺎﻕق‬ ‫ ﺳﻄﺢ‬ ‫ ﺑﺎﺗﺠﺎﻩه‬ ‫ ﻣﺘﻘﺎﺭرﺑﺔ‬.2
. ‫ ﻣﺘﻮﺍاﺯزﻳﯾﺔ‬.3
. ‫ ﺑﺰﻭوﺍاﻳﯾﺎ‬.4
1233. Thermal pulp test principle of:

1/ Blood supply of pulp.
2/ Nerve supply of pulp. 3/ AO
fibers.
* Nerve supply of pulp: ( AS nerve fibers of pulp ).
1234. Rideal-Walker test is the test for detecting activity of:

a. Disinfection.
b. Antibiotics.
c. Sterealization by dry heat.
d. Sterealization by wet heat.
‫ ﺳﻨﻮﺍاﺕت‬ ‫ ﺗﻼﺕت‬ ‫ ﻣﻦ‬ ‫ ﺃأﻗﻞ‬ ‫ ﻁطﻔﻞ‬ ‫ ﻋﻨﺪ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻔﻠﻮﺭرﺍاﻳﯾﺪ‬ ‫ ﻣﻌﺠﻮﻥن‬ ‫ ﺍاﺳﺘﺨﺪﺍاﻡم‬.1235

:
. ( ‫ ﺑﻪﮫ ) ﻣﻄﻠﻮﺏب‬ ‫ ﻣﻨﺼﻮﺡح‬ 1
. ‫ ﻣﺤﺪﻭوﺩد‬ 2
. ‫ ﺳﻤﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك‬ 3
.1236
When tooth formation starts in uterine live?
1. Between 5-6 weeks in utero.
2. Between 9-10 weeks in utero.
3. Between 1-2 months in utero.
* The first sing of tooth development takes place?

A. 2-3 weeks in utero.
B. 6-7 weeks in utero. ***
C. 9-11 weeks in utero.

: ‫* ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻳﯾﺒﺪء ﺗﺸﻜﻞ ﺃأﻭو ﺗﻄﻮﺭر ﺃأﻭو ﻅظﻬﮭﻮﺭر ﺃأﻭوﻝل ﻋﻼﻣﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺗﻜﻮﻳﯾﻦ ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﻣﺎ ﺑﻴﯿﻦ‬
.. ‫ ﺃأﺳﺎﺑﻴﯿﻊ ﺑﺎﺧﺘﻼﻑف ﻧﻮﻉع ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﻭوﻣﻜﺎﻥن ﻭوﺟﻮﺩدﻫﮬﮪھﺎ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻔﻚ ﺍاﻟﻌﻠﻮﻯى ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻰ‬8 ‫ ﺍاﻟﻰ‬5
. ‫ﻟﺬﻟﻚ ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ ﻋﻤﺮﻩه ﻣﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻴﯿﺠﻴﯿﺒﻠﻚ ﺃأﺳﺎﺑﻴﯿﻊ ﻣﺘﻘﺎﺭرﺑﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت‬
* The calcification of the primary teeth begins in utero at?

13-17 weeks. ***
1237.Testing a tooth with porcelain fused to metal with:

a) Cold test.
b) Cold and hot.
c) Cold with rubber dam.
1238. Die ditching means:

a) Carving apical to finish line.
b) Carving coronal to finish line.
c) Mark finish line with red pen.
1239. When esthetic is important, posterior class I composite

is done in :
a. Subgingival box.
b. Bad oral hygiene.
c. Contact free area.
d. Class I without central contact.
1240. Child 10 years old came to the clinic with periodontitis associated with
the 1ry & 2ry dentitions with severe generalized bone destruction and
calcificationon, the general examination shows hyperkeratosis of hands
& feet is noticed, the diagnosis is:
a. Hypophosphotasia.
b. Prepuberty periodontitis.
c. Papillon lefevre syndrome.
d. Juvenile periodontitis.
1241. Pt. with palmar plantar keratosis and periodontitis in

permanent dentition is likely to has:
a. Papillon-lefevere syndrome.
b. Down’s syndrome.
c. Leukemia.
d. Hypophosphatesia.
1242. Early exfoliation of deciduous teeth is seen in:

a. Papillon-lefevere syndrome.
b. Peter-killy syndrome.
c. Pierre robin syndrome.
d. Non of the obove.
1243. When take x-ray in upper premolar to locate lingual

root using mesial shift it will appear:
a: distal.
b: buccal.
c: lingual.
d: mesial.
1244. While taking x-ray for upper right first premolar with two
equal roots using mesial slob, its lingual root will move [
comparing to the zygomatic process ]:
A. Distal.
B. Mesial.
C. Palatal.
D. Lingual.
1245. Maternal immunity that passed from mother to

the fetus through the placenta, IgG & IgA is considered:
a- Natural passive immunity.
b- Natural active immunity.
c- Acquired passive immunity.
d- Acquired active immunity.
* Natural passive immunity OR Natural acquired passive immunity.
1246. When u want to make immediate complete denture after

extraction all teeth what the type of suture u will use:
a. Horizontal mattress suture.
b. Vertical mattress suture.
c. Interrupted suture.
d. Continous locked suture.
1247. Smear layer composed of:
1. Dentine debris.
2. Inorganic particles.
3. Bacteria.
4. All the above.
1248. During making filing by Ni/Ti, it gets fractured due the
property of:
a- Rigidity.
b- Axial fatigue.
c- Torsion.
torsional stresses. * Fracture of Ni/Ti rotary files is due to the cyclic fatigue and
‫ ( ﻓﺴﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﻛﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻛﺪﺓة ﻓﺴﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء‬b & c ) ‫* ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻟﻮ ﻗﺎﻝل‬
.‫ﷲ‬
‫ ﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻤﻨﻰ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻟﻰ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺮﺣﻰ‬ ‫ ﻣﻨﻄﻘﺔ‬ ‫ ﻓﻲ‬ ‫ ﺻﻐﺮﻯى‬ ‫ ﺟﺮﺍاﺣﺔ‬ ‫ ﻟﺪﻳﯾﻪﮫ‬ ‫ ﻣﺮﻳﯾﺾ‬.1249
‫ ﺃأﻯى ﻋﺼﺐ‬. ‫ ﺍاﻟﺮﺣﻰ‬ ‫ ﺃأﻧﺴﻲ‬ ‫ ﺃأﻟﻢ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺟﺪ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﻨﻲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻔﻜﻲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﺼﺐ‬ ‫ ﺗﺨﺪﻳﯾﺮ‬ ‫ﻭوﺑﻌﺪ‬
‫ ؟‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺨﺪﻳﯾﺮ‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﻜﺘﻤﻞ‬ ‫ﻧﺨﺪﺭرﻩه ﺣﺘﻰ‬
1. Lingual nerve.
2. Mental nerve.
3. Mylhoyid nerve.
4. Auriculotemporalis nerve.
‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك ﺍاﻋﺮﺍاﺽض‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻠﺜﺔ ﻟﻴﯿﺲ‬ ‫ ﻋﻠﻰ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻠﻮﻥن‬ ‫ ﺍاﻧﺘﻔﺎﺥخ ﺍاﺯزﺭرﻕق‬ ‫ ﻟﺪﻳﯾﻪﮫ‬ ‫ ﻁطﻔﻞ‬ .1250
‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺸﺨﻴﯿﺺ؟‬ ‫ ﻣﺎ‬ ‫ ﻏﺰﻳﯾﺮ‬ ‫ ﻟﻌﺎﺏب‬ ‫ﻓﻘﻂ‬
A. Eruption hematoma.
1251. After remove impacted 3rd lower molar, there is

parasthesia why?
a. Irritating the nerve during extraction.
b. Broke mandible.
1252. The test for testing the bur in which all the blades of
the bur pass through 1 point called:
a. Run out.
b. Concentricity.
c. Run out and concentricity.
d. None of above.
( ‫ ﺍاﻗﺮء ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬ )

1253. Mobility in midface with step deformity in
frontoygomatic suture. Diagnosis:
1. Lefort II.
2. Lefort III.
3. Bilateral zygomatic complex fracture.
1254. Moon face appearance is not present in :
a. Le fort I.
b. Le fort II.
c. Le fort III
d. Zygomatic complex.
e. Le fort II and Le fort III.
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1255. Two weeks baby born with 2 anterior teeth which is highly
mobile, and his mother have no problem or discomfort during
nursing him. What is ur managemnt:
a. Do not do anything as the baby have no problem during feeding.
b. Do not do anything as the mother don’t feel discomfort.
c. U must extract as soon as possible to avoid accident inhalation of them.
d. Do nothing, it will shell by it self.
( ‫ ﺍاﻗﺮء ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬ )

1256. Most common cause of chipped porcelain in PFM:
a- Thin layer of metal.
b- Thin layer of porcelain.
c- Centric occlusal contact at the junction of porcelain and metal.
1257. The forces action through a FPD onto the

abutment tooth should be directed:
1- As far as possible at right angles to the long axes of the teeth.
2- Parallel to the long axis of the teeth.

3- By decreasing the facio-lingual dimension of the pontic.
4- By decreasing the mesio-lingual dimension of the pontic.
5- In a mesial direction so that teeth nearer the midline will offer
additional support.
a. 1+3+4
b. 1+2+5
c. 1+4+5
d. 2+3
e. 2+4
f. 2+5
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1258. Which not compatible to the pulp:

A- GIC.
B- Zinc phosphate cement.
C- Zinc polycarboxylate cement.
1259. The working time of zinc phosphate cement is shortened ( decreased )

by:
a- Concentrating the acid.
b- Warming of glass slab.
c- Incremental mixing of powder.
d- All of the above.
1260. You sent shade of PFM, technician gives you different color with same
shade:
a- Non uniform porcelain.
b- Thick opaque.
c- Thin opaque.
1261. Bridge came from lab with different shade:

1- Thick metal.
2- Thin porcelain.
3- Not uniform thickness of porcelain.
: ‫ﻭوﻓﻰ ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل ﺃأﺧﺮ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ‬

Increased porcelain thichness OR thick porcelain.
1262. Most abrasive contact:

a- tooth to tooth.
b- Porcelin to tooth.
c- gold to tooth.
1263. Length of post:

a- 1/2 root.
b- 2/3 root.

c- 1/2 root containing in bone.
d- As much longer and leave 4 mm. apical seal.
( ‫ ﺍاﻗﺮء ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻲ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬ )

1264. Concentrating of acid used in etching porcelain
veneer:
a- 9.6 % hydrofluoric acid.
b- 35 % phosphoric acid.
c- 37 % phosphoric acid.
d- 37 % hydrofluoric acid.
• 9.6 % hydrofluoric acid & 37 % phosphoric acid.

. ‫ ( ﻫﮬﮪھﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﺑﺲ ﺍاﻟﻨﻮﻉع ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﺃأﻓﻀﻞ ﺑﻜﺘﻴﯿﺮ‬a & c ) ‫ﺍاﻻﺗﻨﻴﯿﻦ ﻳﯾﻨﻔﻌﻮ ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻟﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬
1265. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far

superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing:
a) f and v sounds.
b) d and t sounds.
c) s and th sounds.
d) most vowels.
1266. An advantage of rubber-base impression material over reversible

hydrocolloid material is that rubber base impression material:
a) will displace soft tissue.
b) Requires less armamentarium.
c) is significantly more accurate.
d) is more accurate if saliva, mucous or blood is present.
1267. Best provisional coverage for anterior teeth is:

a- Tooth colored polycarbonate crown.
b- Stainless steel crown.
c- Zinc oxide engenol.
1268. In a clinical research trial we primarly need to:

a) Get written subject in the patient's own native language.
b) Verbally write subject briefly.
c) Tell patients that they are part of study.

1269. Radiolucent structure occupied by a
radiopaque structure that forms a mass of disorganized
arrangement of odontogenic tissue:
a. Complex odontoma.
b. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst.
c. Compound odontoma.
* Compound odontoma: ‫ ﻛﺘﻠﺔ ﻣﻨﻈﻤﺔ ﺍاﻟﺘﺮﺗﻴﯿﺐ ﻭوﺗﺸﺒﻪﮫ ﺷﻜﻞ ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن‬a mass of organized
arrangement of odontogenic tissue.
* Complex odontoma: ‫ﻛﺘﻠﺔ ﻏﻴﯿﺮ ﻣﻨﻈﻤﺔ ﺍاﻟﺘﺮﺗﻴﯿﺐ ﻭوﻻ ﺗﺸﺒﻪﮫ ﺷﻜﻞ ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن‬ a mass of
disorganized arrangement of odontogenic tissue.
1270. Which of these canal irrigants is unable to kill e. feacalis

:
A. Naoh.
B. MTAD.
C. Chlorhexidine.
( Naoh not Naocl ) : ‫ ﺧﺪ ﺑﺎﻟﻚ ﻛﻮﻳﯾﺲ ﺃأﻭوﻯى‬ *

1271. The least effective irrigant against
e. feacalis:
a) Sodium hypochlorite ( Naocl ).
b) Tetracycline.
c) Iodine.
d) Chlorohexidine.


1- naoh.
2- mtad.
2- saline.
3- chlorohexidine.

1- naocl.
2- mtad.
2- saline.
3- chlorohexidine.

: ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﻣﺔ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬ ‫ﻣﻠﺤﻮﻅظﺔ‬
* Sodium hypochlorite = Naocl not Naoh.
• MTAD is more effective than Naocl in killing E. faecalis.
• Naocl is more effective than MTA in killing E. faecalis.
Irrigant solution of pulp ‫ﻟﻴﯿﺴﺖ‬ MTA ‫ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﺍاﻝل‬

• Also, Chlorohexidine & Tetracycline can kill E. faecalis but these are very weak.
• Naoh, saline & iodine are unable or uneffectine irrigants ( or least effective irrigants ) in
killing E. faecalis.
1274. While dentist making biomechanical preparation by

using NI TI file, it’s broken this is because the property of:
a. elastisity and memory.
b. rigidity and memory.
c. axial fatigue.
d. tarnish.
* The most important reasons for breaking Ni Ti files is cyclic fatigue and torsional stresses.
1275. Root end resection, what is the conditioning:

a. Cetric acid.
b. Tetracyclin.
c. EDTA.
* Cetric acid is a retrograde filling material but it’s used rarely.
( ‫ ﺍاﻗﺮء ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻲ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬ )

1276. During endodontic surgery, the irrigation solution

used is:
a. Saline.
b. EDTA.
c. Naocl.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1277. Sterilization means killing of:
a. Virus.

b. Fungi.
c. Bacteria.
d. Virus, fungi, bacteria & bacteria spores.
e. Virus, fungi & bacteria.
1278. Edentulous pt. class II kenndy classification 2nd premolar used as abutment when
we serving we found mesial undercut what is the proper clasp used:
1/ wrought wire with round cross section.
2/ wrought wire with half round cross section.
3/ cast clasp with round cross section.
4/ cast clasp with half round cross section.
1279. Patient who has un-modified class II kennedy classification, with good
periodontal condition and no carious lesion, the best clasp to use on the
other side:
a) Reciprocal clasp.
b) Ring clasp.
c) Embrasure clasp.
* Reciprocal clasp = Aker's clasp.
1280. A removable partial denture patient class II Kennedy classification.

The last tooth on the left side is the 2nd premolar which has a distal
caries. What’s the type of the clasp you will use for this premolar:
A. Reciprocal clasp.
B. Gingivally approaching clasp.
C. Ring clasp.
1281. Balanced occlusion in complete denture helps in:

A. Retention.
B. Stability.

1282. After a trauma ( injury ) on a primary tooth what
is the least possibility?
A. Changes in the permanent tooth enamel color.
B. Changes the primary tooth color.
C. Apex pathology on primary tooth.
* Patient 3 years old had injury ( trauma ) in the primary

teeth, the permanent teeth rarely undergo to:
A. Microabrasion in the enamel. ***
B. Discoloration.
C. Dilaceration.
D. Partially stoppage of the root formation.
* Discoloration and hypoplasia are the most frequent effects on permanent teeth
after trauma to primary teeth.
* Enamel hypoplasia: incomplete development of enamel causing a thin and weak
enamel layer..
1283. In case of infiltration anesthesia we give:
a) submucosal.
b) intraosseous.
c) subperiosteal.
d) none.

1284. The patient who have not breakfast, we never give him
anesthesia because:
a) hyperglycemia.
b) hypoglycemia.
c) increased heart rate.
d) hypertension.

1285. Gingivitis means:

a) Inflammation of the periodontal ligaments.
b) Inflammation of the bone.
c) Inflammation of the gingiva.
d) Inflammation of the tongue.

1286. Patient is suffering a pain during sleep the diagnosis is:
a) Inflammation of dentin.
b) Inflammation of enamel.
c) Inflammation of cementum.
d) Inflammation of pulp.

1287. Permanent restoration is:
a) Calcium hydroxide.
b) Amalgam.
c) Alginate.
d) Zinc oxide eugenol.

1288. Composite is used mainly for:
a) Anterior teeth.
b) Posterior.
c) a+b.
d) None.

1289. For injection local anesthesia in the lower jaw we use:
a) Short needle.
b) Long needle.
c) None.

1290. In case of advanced upper jaw to the lower jaw
this is called:
a) Angle class I.
b) Angle class II.
c) Angle class III.

1291. The best method for brushing:
a) Vertical.
b) Horizontal.
c) Bass sulcular method ( Bass method ).

1292. Apecectomy means:
a) Surgical removal of the apical portion of the root.
b) Removal of one or more roots.
c) The root and the crown are cut lengthwise.
d) None.

1293. The instruments for examination are:
a) Probe and tweezer.
b) Mirror.
c) a + b.
d) Amalgamator.

1294. Panorama x-ray is used for:
a) Periapical tissues.
b) Interproximal caries.
c) Giving complete picture for upper and lower jaws.
d) None.

1295. Adrenaline is added to local anesthesia for:
a- Increasing the respiratory rate.
b- Prolonging the effect of local anesthesia.
c- Increasing the bleeding.
d- None.

1296. …… is a white lesion:
a- Lichen planus.
b- Cancer.
c- Heamatoma.
d- None.

1297. Fordyce's spots is on:
a- Tongue.
b- Oral mucosa.
c- Upper lip.
d- Throat.
1298. …… is an anticoagulant agent:

a- Aspirin.
b- Heparin.
c- Paracetamol.
d- Evex.
* Heparin OR Warfarin is an anticoagulant agent.

1299. Duct of submandibular gland is:
a- Wharton.
b- Bartholin.
c- Barvenous.
d- Stensen.
* Stensen is the duct of parotid gland.
1300. Leukoplakia is present on:

a- The mouth.
b- Eye.
c- Heart.
d- Lungs.

1301. Cranial nerves are:

a- 12 nerves.
b- 14 nerve.
c- 10 nerve.
d- 16 nerve.
* Twelve pairs of cranial nerves. . ‫ ﺯزﻭوﺝج ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻷﻋﺼﺎﺏب‬12

According to two digits system, 42 means:

1302.
a- lower right lateral incisor.
b- upper left lateral incisor.
c- upper right lateral incisor.
d- none.
According to universal system, 6 means:

1303.
a- upper left first molar.
b- lower left first molar.
c- lower right first molar.
d- None.
* Number 6 refers to upper right canine.
1304. A preventive agent is:

a- Composite.
b- Glass ionomer.
c- Fluoride.
d- Zinc oxide eugenol.

1305. One of the following releases fluorides:
a- Composite.
b- Glass ionomer.
c- Fluoride.
d- Zinc oxide eugenol.

1306. Dental plaque is formed after:
a- 6 hours.
b- 12 hours.
c- 24 hours.
d- 48 hours.

1307. Tooth paste with fluoride is:
a- Systemic application.
b- Topical application.
c- a+b.
d- None.
1308. Fluoride in water it concentrates:

a- 2 ppm.
b- 1 ppm.
c- 3 ppm.
d- None.
* 1 ppm or 1-1.5 mg/litre.
1309. Too much ingestion of fluoride may lead to:

a- Dental caries.
b- Dental fluorosis.
c- Gingivitis.
d- None.

1310. Deficiency of vitamin C leads to:

a- Scurvy.
‫‪b- Anemia. ‬‬
‫‪c- Rickets. ‬‬
‫‪d- Defect in blood clotting.‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪1311.‬‬ ‫‪Deficiency of vitamin K leads to: ‬‬

‫‪a- Scurvy. ‬‬
‫‪c- Rickets. ‬‬
‫‪d- Defect in blood clotting.‬‬ ‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪1312.‬‬ ‫‪Deficiency of vitamin D leads to: ‬‬
‫‪a- Scurvy. ‬‬
‫‪c- Rickets.‬‬
‫‪d- Defect in blood clotting.‬‬
‫‪* Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to pernecious anemia.‬‬
‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا (‬

‫‪1313. At which age will a child have 12 permanent and‬‬
‫‪12 primary teeth:‬‬
‫‪i.‬‬ ‫‪9 years old.‬‬
‫‪ii.‬‬ ‫‪11 years old.‬‬
‫‪iii.‬‬ ‫‪14 years old.‬‬
‫‪iv.‬‬ ‫‪None of the above.‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫*‪ ‬ﻋﻨﺪ ﻋﻤﺮ ‪ 9‬ﺳﻨﻮﺍاﺕت ‪ :‬ﺍاﻷﺭرﺑﻌﺔ ﺃأﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻨﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻷﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻔﻚ ﺍاﻟﻌﻠﻮﻯى ﻭوﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻰ ﻣﺶ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩدﻳﯾﻦ ﻭوﺑﻴﯿﻄﻠﻊ ﺑﺪﻟﻬﮭﻢ ﺃأﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺩدﺍاﺋﻤﺔ ﺃأﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﻋﻠﻮﻳﯾﺔ ﻭوﺳﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ ﻭوﺑﻴﯿﻜﻮﻥن ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﺍاﻷﺭرﺑﻌﺔ ﺿﺮﻭوﺱس‬
‫ﺍاﻟﺪﺍاﺋﻤﺔ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺩدﺱس ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩدﻳﯾﻦ ﺍاﺫذﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا ‪:‬‬
‫* ﻋﺪﺩد ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻨﻴﯿﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻔﻜﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﻌﻠﻮﻯى ﻭوﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ‪ 12 ‬ﺳﻦ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻢ ‪ 4 :‬ﺃأﻧﻴﯿﺎﺏب ﻭو ‪8‬‬
‫ﺿﺮﻭوﺱس ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻤﺎ‬
‫) ‪.( D & E‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫* ﻭوﻋﺪﺩد ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﺪﺍاﺋﻤﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻔﻜﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﻌﻠﻮﻯى ﻭوﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ‪ 12‬ﺳﻦ ﺃأﻳﯾﻀﺎ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻢ ‪ 8 :‬ﺃأﺳﻨﺎﻥن‬
‫‪ ‬ﺃأﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﻋﻠﻮﻳﯾﺔ ﻭوﺳﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ ﻭوﺍاﻷﺭرﺑﻌﺔ ﺿﺮﻭوﺱس ﺍاﻷﻭوﻟﻰ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻴﯿﺎ ) ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺩدﺱس ( ‪.‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪187 | P a g e‬‬ ‫‪All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com‬‬

1314. Medicine ethics aim to:

a.
The dentist should study to know patient psychology.
b.
Not to compromise or undermine ability to treat patient in
community as professional.
c. Ability to make decision.
d. All of above.
1315. Patient during recurrent normal check, he had diffirent sense on

percussion on his tooth and x_ray widening lamina dura apical 3rd?
a) Chronic apical priodontitis.
b) Acute apical periodontitis.
c) Chronic abscess.
1316. During surgery, firmly handle forceps of flap tissue:

A) Stillies forceps.
B) Adson forceps.
‫* ﺻﻴﯿﻐﺔ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻏﻴﯿﺮ ﻣﻈﺒﻮﻁطﻪﮫ ﻻﻧﻪﮫ ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻳﯾﺤﺪﺩد ﻫﮬﮪھﻞ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻤﻨﻄﻘﺔ ﺍاﻷﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ ﺃأﻡم ﺍاﻟﺨﻠﻔﻴﯿﺔ ﻛﻤﺎ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل‬
: ‫ﺍاﻟﺬﻯى ﺟﺎء ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕت ﺣﺪﻳﯾﺜﺎ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺍاﻷﺗﻰ‬
* You make an extraction to lower third molar and need suture so, you
hold soft tissue ( flap ) by:
1- Stillies forceps. ***
2- Adson forceps.
3- Curved hemostat.
* Stillies forceps holds soft tissues as flaps during suturing but in the
posterior area region because it’s long.
* Adson forceps holds soft tissues as flaps during suturing but in the anterior
area because it’s short.
* Allis forceps holds large and fibrous tissues to be removed in exision as
Epulis Fisuratum.
* Curved hemostat: is uses to hold artery or vein if incised during surgery to stop the
bleeding and may be known as arterial forceps.
1317. Lemphadenopathy due to:

a) Infection.
b) Lymphocytic leukemia.
c) HIV.
d) Pernicious aneamia.
e) a,b and c
*
1318. The aim from prosthetic surgery:

A) Increase stability, retention & ridge dimension.

b) Increase vertical dimension.
c) Esthetic anterior.
1319. Composite can be done in:

a) Conservative class one.
b) Uncontrolled application class 2 proximal.
c) Deep gingival margin.
1320. Selection of steam heat ( autoclave ) over dry hot ( oven ):

a) protein cell collagen under high pressure.
b) save effect on sharp instruments, no dull or corrosion.

1321. Most common cause of caries:

A) Xerostomia.
B) Diet sugar consumption.
1322. Epoxy resin: ( Endo sealer )

A. contains formaldehyde toxic.
B. contains corticosteroids.
C. resorbable so it weakens the endo fill.
D. all.
1323. Extra canal in upper 6 presents in which root:

A) MB ROOT.
B) DB ROOT.
C) PALATAL ROOT.
1324. In case of internal resorption your ttt. is:

a) Ca(OH)2 application.
b) Formocresol medicament.
c) Zinc oxide eugenol.
1325. In primary tooth for restoration before putting the filling u put:
a. base.
b. calcium hydroxide.
c. varnish.
d. you put the filling after proper cleaning and drying.
1326. A child with thumb sucking habit he will develop:

a. anterior openbite and posterior crossbite.

1327. Immature tooth with external apical third resorption:
a) Ca(OH)2 application.
b) Apexification & GP filling.
1328. Colour of normal gingival is interplay ‫ ﺗﻔﺎﻋﻞ‬between:

a. Keratin - vascularity melanin - epithelial thickness.

* Color of normal mucosa “ gingiva “ is pink.
1329. During mentoplasty, doctor should take care for

injury of what nerve:
a. Mental nerve.
b. Lingual nerve.
c. Lower branch of the facial nerve.
• Mentoplasty: is a chin reduction surgery.

• Genioplasty: is a chin addition surgery.
* So, during mentoplasty Or genioplasty, mental nerve injury may occur.
1330. Amputation means:

d) None.
* Amputation is also called : Radisectomy.
1331. Hemisection means:

d) None.
* Best method to protect teeth after bicuspedization?

A. Crowning. ***
B. Splinting.
C. Extraction.
Bicuspedization & Hemisection: the crown and root are cut

lengthwise to two parts. ‫ﻳﯾﺘﻢ ﻓﺼﻠﻬﮭﻢ ﺑﺎﻟﻄﻮﻝل ﺍاﻟﻰ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﯿﻦ ﺑﺴﺒﺐ ﻣﺸﺎﻛﻞ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻌﻈﻢ‬
‫) ﻣﺸﺎﻛﻞ ﺑﻴﯿﺮﻭو ( ﺃأﻭو ﻋﻠﺸﺎﻥن ﺿﻌﻒ ﻓﻰ‬.bifurcation involvement ‫ﻣﻨﻄﺔ ﻣﻔﺘﺮﻕق‬
‫ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﻭوﺭر‬
• Bicuspedization = Bisection.
• Bicuspedization & Hemisection have a difference:
In bicuspedization, the two parts are preserved, restored and crowned.
But in hemesection, the one part ( not intact ) is extracted and another
part ( intact or semi intact ) is preserved, restored and crowned.

1332. For treatment of pericoronitis:

a- Extraction of the tooth.
b- Analgesic + sterility + antibiotic.
c- Cleaning with concentrated phenol.
d- None.
‫* ﺧﻠﻊ ﺍاﻟﺴﻦ ﻳﯾﺘﻢ ﻓﻲ ﺍاﻟﺤﺎﻻﺕت ﺍاﻟﺸﺪﻳﯾﺪﺓة ﻭو ﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﺩدﺍاﺋﻤﺎ ﻛﻤﺎ ﺃأﻥن ﺍاﻟﻐﺴﻮﻝل ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﺃأﻭوﻝل ﻣﺤﺎﻭوﻟﺔ‬
. ‫ﻟﻠﻌﻼﺝج ﻭوﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﺑﻤﺤﻠﻮﻝل ﻣﻠﺤﻲ ﺩدﺍاﻓﺊ‬
1333. Outline of Pericoronitis treatment may include:

1. Mouth wash and irrigation.
2. Extraction of the opposing tooth.
3. Surgical removal of the causative tooth.
4. All the above.
1334. Attrition may be caused by:

a- Friction due to pipe.
b- Friction during sleep.
c- Gastric acid.
d- None.

* Friction during sleep = bruxism.

1335. Sterilization in dry oven:
a- one hour at 160 c.
b- 90 minutes at 160 c.
c- two hours at 160 c.
d- None.
* Sterilization in dry oven: two hours at 160 c or one hour at 170 c.
1336. The roots of the following teeth are closely related

to the maxillary sinus:
a- Canine and upper premolar.
b- Lower molar.
c- Upper molar and premolar.
d- None.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﻌﺸﺮﺓة ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﺔ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
1337. Patient positions are:

a- Upright position.
b- Supine position.
c- Subsupine position.
* b & c are called: Reclined positions.

1338. For the right handed dentist seated to the right of the
patient, the operator zone is between:
a- 8 and 11 o'clock.
b- 2 and 4 o'clock .
c- 11 to 2 o'clock .
1339. For right handed dentist, the static zone is between:

a- 8 - 11 o'clock.
b- 11 - 2 o'clock.
c- 2 - 4 o'clock.
1340. For right handed dentist, the assistant zone is between:

a- 8 - 11 o'clock.
b- 11 - 2 o'clock.
c- 2 - 4 o'clock.

1341. For right handed dentist, the transfer zone is between:
a- 8 - 11 o'clock.
b- 4 - 8 o'clock.
c- 2 - 4 o'clock.
* For right handed dentist,

a. Operator Zone : 8 _ 11 o’clock.
b. Static Zone : 11 _ 2 o’clock.
c. Assistant Zone : 2 _ 4 o’clock.
d. Transfer Zone : 4 _ 8 o’clock.
1342. Burs are:

a- Critical items.
b- Semi critical items.
c- Non critical items.
1343. Mouth mirror is:

a- critical items.
b- semi critical items.
c- non critical.
1344. Saliva ejector is placed:

a- At the side of working.
b- Under the tongue.
c- Opposite the working side.
d- b+c.
1345. HVE is placed: HVE is: High Volume Evacuator.

a- At the side of working.
b- Under the tongue.
c- Opposite the working side.
d- b+c.
1346. Grasping the HVE is by:

a- Thumb to nose grasp.
b- Pen grasp.
c- a+b.
d- none.

/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1347. Carbohydrate is digested in:

a- mouth.
b- small intestine.
c- large intestine.
d- none.

* in mouth: ‫ﻳﯾﻘﺼﺪ ﺃأﻥن ﺑﺪﺍاﻳﯾﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻀﻢ ﺍاﻟﻜﺮﺑﻮﻫﮬﮪھﻴﯿﺪﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ‬

1348. Carbohydrate is essential for:
a- Building the body.
b- Supplying the body with energy.
c- a+b.
d- none.
1349. The following factors affect the health:

1- hereditary.
2- environement.
3- social and economic factors.
4- family welfare.
A) 1+2
B) 1+2+4
C) 1+2+3
1350. Diagnostic cast wax up helps in:

a- Predicts the result of treatment.
b- Explains the treatment plan to patient.
c- All of the above.


( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻰ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1351. In mean of compressive strength and tensile strength which is
strongest:
a- Resin cement.
b- Zinc phosphate cement.
c- G.I. cement.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1352. Shoulder is the finish line of choice for:

a- Full veneer.
b- PFM.
c- ¾ crown.
• Indications of shoulder finish line : ceramometal crown & in ceram crown.
1353. Which of the following characteristics of inlay wax is its major

disadvantage:
a) Flow.
b) Rigidity.
c) Hardness.
d) High thermal expansion.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﻌﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﺔ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1354. As the gold content of a dental solder decreases, the: (
As = If : ‫ ﺧﺪ ﺑﺎﻟﻚ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎ‬ )
a) Hardness decreases.
b) Ductility increases.
c) Corrosion resistance decreases.
d) Ultimate tensile strength decreases.
. ‫* ﻷﻥن ﺍاﻟﺬﻫﮬﮪھﺐ ﺃأﻛﺜﺮ ﻣﻌﺪﻥن ﻣﻄﺎﻭوﻉع ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻣﻘﺎﻭوﻡم ﻟﻠﺼﺪﺃأ‬


1355. The most ductile and malleable metal is:

a) Sliver.
b) Gold.
c) Copper.
d) Platinum.

* The most ductile and malleable metal is Gold.

. ‫ ﺃأﻛﺜﺮ ﻣﻌﺪﻥن ﻣﻄﺎﻭوﻉع ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺍاﻟﺬﻫﮬﮪھﺐ‬
1356. In processing an acrylic denture in a water bath, a

proper heating cycle is desired because of the possibility
of:
a) Warpage.
b) Shrinkage of the denture.
c) Porosity due to boiling of the monomer.
d) Crazing of the denture base around necks of the teeth.
1357. Elastic impression material is:

a) Rubber.
b) Plaster.
c) Zinc oxide.
d) Compound.

1358. Alginate contains calcium sulfate in concentration

of:
a) 40 %.
b) 50 %.
c) 12 %.
d) None.

• Calcium sulfate is a reactor ‫ ﻣﻨﺸﻂ‬found in alginate in 12 %.

1359. In an alginate impression material, tri sodium

phosphate is the:
a) filler.
b) Reactor.
c) Retarder.
d) Accelerator.

• Sodium phosphate is a retarder ‫ ﻣﺜﺒﻂ‬ found in alginate in 2 %.

1360. The principal function of an indirect retainer is to:

a) Stabilize against lateral movement.
b) Prevent settling of the major connector.
c) Minimize movement of the base away from supporting tissue.
d) Restrict tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the
partial denture.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////

1361. Child 8 years old hearing loss, flush around his mouth and
notches in incisors and bolbous molars. What is your
diagnosis?
a) Gardner syndrome.
b) Congenital syphilis.

1362. Nicotinic stomatis: ( Or: Stomatitis nicotina )

a) acanthosis with keratin.
b) brickle cell like shape bases.

• In nicotinic stomatis, the palate exhibits signs of hyperkeratosis and

acanthosis.

1363. On radiograph, onion skin appearance and under
microscope there is glycogen:
a- Osteosarcoma.
b- Pindborg tumor.
c- Ewing sarcoma.
1364. Using a larger file while reducing the length in

endodontics is called:
A. Step back.
B. Crown down.
C. Both of them.

• Using a larger file while reducing the length in endodontics is called a Step
back technique.
. ‫ﺍاﻁطﻠﻊ ﻟﺒﺮﻩه ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻓﺎﻳﯾﻞ ﻛﺒﻴﯿﺮ‬
• Using a smaller file to reach the apex in endodontics is called a Crown down
technique. . ‫ ﺍاﻧﺰﻝل ﻟﺘﺤﺖ ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻓﺎﻳﯾﻞ ﺻﻐﻴﯿﺮ‬
1365. What is the name of the instrument used to diagnose halitosis:

a. Halimeter.

1366. You examined a child and found that the distal part of
the upper primary molar is located mesial to the distal outline
of the lower primary molar. This is called:
a. distal step.
b. mesial step.

. ‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﻼﻗﺔ ﻋﻜﺴﻴﯿﺔ‬: ‫* ﻻﺣﻆ ﺟﻴﯿﺪﺍا‬
* Distal step: Maxillary terminal plane is mesial to mandibular terminal plane.
* Mesial step: Maxillary terminal plane is distal to mandibular terminal plane.

1367. Pt. came with prominence in the forehead and the potassium
sulfate level increased with curved legs and enlarged mandible and

maxilla:
a. Paget disease.
b. Hyperpotasium sulfate syndrome.
c. Bone arthiritis.
1368. What the name of the depressions present on molars in

the middle and between the cusps:
a. Developmental grooves.
b. Supplemental grooves.
c. Fissures.
d. Central fossae.
1369. Patient had enamel and dentin hypoplasia your ttt.:

a) Porcelain crowns.
b) Splinting with composite.
c) Composite bridge.
1370. Patient had bulimia ‫ ﻣﺮﺽض ﺍاﻟﺸﺮﺍاﻫﮬﮪھﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻷﻛﻞ‬and had lesion in palatal
surface in upper teeth with recurrent vomiting. What is the type of
lesion :
a) Attrition.
b) Abrasion.
c) Erosion.

1371. Parotitis with purualant exudate, what you will do:
A. Immediate coverage with antibiotic 7 days.
B. delay selection antibiotics until know culture result.
C. antiviral drug.
D. gives patient wide spectrum antibiotic until result of lab culture.
1372. Parotitis with purualant exudate, what you will do :

A. Immediate coverage with antibiotic 7 days.
B. delay selection antibiotics until know culture result.
C. antiviral drug.
D. imperialic antibiotic and make culture to know bacteria and antibiotic sensitivity.
1373. Pt. came to u needing upper partial denture class II

kinnedy classification, he has palatal defect ( torus palatinus ),
preferable partial denture with:
a- Horseshoe.
b- Palatal bar.
c- Anterio posterior palatal bar.
d. Anterio posterior palatal strap.
.

: ‫ * ﺍاﻟﺨﻼﺻﺔ‬
‫ ﺑﺲ ﻣﻘﺎﻟﺶ ﺍاﻥن ﺣﺠﻤﻪﮫ ﻛﺒﻴﯿﺮ ﺃأﻭو ﻭوﺍاﺻﻞ ﻟﻮﺭرﺍا‬Torus palatinus ‫ ﻟﻮ ﻗﺎﻝل ﺍاﻥن ﻓﻴﯿﻪﮫ‬.1
:‫ﺃأﻭو ﻟﻮ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﻣﺶ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩد ﺃأﺻﻼ‬
* The best major connector is: Anterio posterior palatal bar that used in classes i, ii & iv.
* The next preferable major connector is: Anterio posterior palatal strap that used in classes ii
& iv.

:‫ ﺑﺲ ﻗﺎﻝل ﺍاﻥن ﺣﺠﻤﻪﮫ ﻛﺒﻴﯿﺮ ﺃأﻭو ﻭوﺍاﺻﻞ ﻟﻮﺭرﺍا‬Torus palatinus ‫ ﻟﻮ ﻗﺎﻝل ﺍاﻥن ﻓﻴﯿﻪﮫ‬.2
* Horseshoe major connector: Is the least accurate major connector so, it’s the least preferable major
connector BUT when torus palatinus prevents ‫ ﻳﯾﻤﻨﻊ ﺍاﺳﺘﺨﺪﺍاﻡم ﺍاﻷﻧﻮﺍاﻉع ﺍاﻷﺧﺮﻯى ﻧﻈﺮﺍا ﻟﻜﺒﺮ ﺣﺠﻤﻪﮫ‬using
other major connectors as it extends to the posterior limit of the hard palate ( large torus palatinus )
and it’s used in any class.
method is:
A- Community based programs.
B- Private based programs.
C- Individually based programs.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺛﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1375. One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are
confined to the attached gingival and hard palate:
a. True.
b. False.
1376. Pt. came with bristles ‫ ﺷﻌﻴﯿﺮﺍاﺕت‬even on mucous

membrane, u asked for immune test:
a. Pemphigus.
b. Bullous pemphigoid.
c. Lichen planus.
1377. Cheek biting in lower denture can occur if:

a. Occlusal plane above tongue.
b. Occlusal plane below tongue.
c. Occlusal plane at lower lip.
Complete Denture 17th Ed.:

* Cheek biting: is most common and is mainly due to inadequate overjet.
Solution: Increase the overjet by reducing the buccal of the lower posterior teeth.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1378. Permeability of dentine:

a. Bacterial product go through it.
b. Decrease by smear layer.
c. Allow bacteria to go in.
d. All of above.
1379. Gracey 13/14:

a. Mesial posterior.
b. Distal posterior.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1380. Each of the following is correct except which one:
a. Bad breath appears to be largely bacteria in origin.
b. Bad breath originating from the gastrointestinal tract is quite common.
c. Self-perceptions of bad breath appear to be unreliable.
d. Fear of having bad breath may be a severe problem for some people.
* ( it’s a severe problem “ not may be a severe problem “ for many people not some people ).
* Because it's difficult to rate your own breath, many people worry excessively about
their breath even though they have little or no mouth odor.
1381. When using the buccal object rule in horizontal

angulation, the lingual object in relation to the buccal
object:
a. Move away from the x-ray tube head.
b. Move with the x-ray tube head.
c. Move in an inferior direction from the x-ray tube head.
d. Move in a superior direction from the x-ray tube head.

• In the lingual object rule, it appears to move in the same direction with the
x-ray tube head.
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1382. Radiographic evaluation in extraction:

A. Relationship of associated vital structures.
B. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition.
C. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility.
E. A & B.
1383. Radiographic evaluation in extraction except:

A. Relationship of associated vital structures.
B. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition.
C. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility.
E. A & B.
1384. Odontogenic tumors:

a. Arise from dental tissues.
b. Can turn malignant but rarely.
c. Have specific radiographic features.
1385. Prophylactic antibiotic needed in:

A. Anesthesia not intraligamentary.
B. Suture removal.
C. Routine tooth brushing.
D. Orthodontic band.
1386. Electric pulp tester on the young is not accurate because:

a) Late appearance of Fibers A.
b) Late appearance of Fibers C.
c) Early appearance of fibers A.
d) Early appearance of fibers C.
1387. A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he

returns complaining of discomfort at the site of the restoration,
radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present. This is due to:
a) lack of matrix usage.
b) Improper wedging.
c) pulpitis.


* A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he returns
complaining of discomfort at the site of the restoration, radiographically
an overhanging amalgam is present. This is due to:
A) Lack of matrix usage. ***
B) No burnishing for amalgam.
* Causes of amalgam overhanging:

1) Improper wedging.
2) Lack of matrix usage.
3) Improper finishing.
‫ ﻟﻜﻦ‬. ‫ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﺒﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﻭوﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻁطﺒﻌﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه‬
‫ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺑﻠﻚ ﺍاﻻﺗﻨﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻣﻔﺮﻭوﺽض ﻧﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﻭوﺍاﺣﺪ ﺑﺲ ﻓﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﺐ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل‬
‫ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﻋﺪﻡم ﺍاﺳﺘﺨﺪﺍاﻡم ﺍاﻟﻮﻳﯾﺪﺝج ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﺳﺘﺨﺪﺍاﻣﻪﮫ ﺑﻄﺮﻳﯾﻘﺔ ﺧﻄﺄ ﻭوﺫذﻟﻚ ﻻﻋﺘﺒﺎﺭر ﺃأﻥن ﻣﻴﯿﻨﻔﻌﺶ‬
. ‫ ﻣﻦ ﻏﻴﯿﺮ ﻣﺎﺗﺮﻳﯾﻜﺲ ﺑﺎﻧﺪ‬2 ‫ ﺃأﺻﻼ ﺗﻌﻤﻞ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة ﺃأﻣﻠﺠﻢ ﻛﻼﺱس‬

( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1388. Occlusal splint device:

1/ Used during increase vertical dimension.
2/ Alleviate muscle of mastication.
3/ Occlusal plane CR/CO.
4/ All.
1389. Child with late primary dentition has calculus and
gingival recession related to upper molar what is the
diagnosis:
1. Periodontitis.
2. Local aggressive periodontitis.
3. Viral infection.
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1390. Histopathologically, early verrucous carcinomas:

a. Have characteristic microscopic features.
b. Can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis.
c. Can be confused with lichen planus.
d. Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis.

( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻲ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
1391. Pt. came with muliple cysts on his scalp and neck ‫ﻓﺮﻭوﺓة‬
‫ﺍاﻟﺮﺃأﺱس ﻭوﺍاﻟﺮﻗﺒﺔ‬and osteomas ‫ ﻭوﺭرﻡم ﻋﻈﻤﻰ‬on his mandible and
multible on his mandible side, what is the diagnosis:
a. Gardner syndrome.
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia.
c. Ectodermal dystosis.
d. Oesteogenesis imperfecta.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1392. Diabatic pt. with multiple nevi on the neck and

scalp, and multiple jaw cysts, ur diagnosis will be:
a. Eagle syndrome.
b. Gorlin – goltz syndrome.
c. Pierre Robin syndrome.
d. Non of the above.
1393. Pt. came to ur clinc have painless ulcer on the lip, which begin last 6 weeks as
elevated border with deep center ulcer developed very quickly during first 4 weeks
then slowly growing or stop growing have no history of truma but the pt. works
outside under exposure of the sun. Biobsy reveals PMN & acanthotic exudate, what
is the diagnosis:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma.
b. Keratoacanthoma.
c. Verrucus cell carcinoma.
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻷﺭرﺑﻌﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1394. A reline ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﺒﻄﻴﯿﻦ‬ for a complete denture is contraindicated when:
a) There is extreme over closure of the vertical dimention.
b) Centric occlusion and centric relation do not coincide. c) The denture
contains a broken tooth.
d) There is resorption of the ridge.
1395. Complete re-epithelization after surgery occurs after:

a. 1-5 days.
b. 10-15 days.
c. 17-21 days.
1396. A low sag factor in a metal-ceramic FPD causes:

1- Flow of metal under functional load.
2- High abrasion resistance.
3- Less deformation of bridge spans when fired.
4- Poor metal-ceramic bond strength.
5- Contamination of porcelain.
a. 1 only.
b. 1 and 4.
c. 2 and 3.
d. 3 only.
e. 4 and 5.
f. All of the above.
1397. Nickel-chromium allergic from dentures appears more in:

a) Male.
b) Female.
c) Equal.
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1398. We put the pin very close to line angle because this area:
A- less material of restoration need.
B- Intiate dentin caries.
C- need less condensation of material.
D- Great bulk of dentin.
1399. Best root canal material primary central incisor:

a- Iodoform.
b- Guttapercha.
c- Formacresol.
• Iodoform, Ca(oh)2 and ZOE are root canal materials for the primary teeth.
1400. HBV disinfection:

1) Iodophors and hypocloride.
2) Formaldahide.
3) Dettol / 100% ethyl alcohol.
4) Ethyl dioxide gas.
a. 1+2.
b.1+2+3.
c. 3+4.
d.2+3.

* Iodophors and hypocloride, formaldahide, dettol and 80 % ethyl alcohol.
1401. Filling in RCT must finish:

a- Exactly the radiographic apex.
b- Few millimeters before apex.
c- At the half distance between apex and the pulp chamber.
d- Filling the pulp chamber.
1402. Filling in RCT must finish:

a- Exactly up the radiographic apex.
b- Few millimeters before apex.
c- At the half distance between apex and the pulp chamber.
d- Filling the pulp chamber.
1403. The organism that not found in newborn mouth:

a- streptococcus mutant.
b- streptococcus salivarius.
c- e-coli.
d- skin bacteria.
1404. The organism that rarely found in newborn mouth:

a- streptococcus mutant.
b- streptococcus salivarius.
c- e-coli.
d- skin bacteria.
1405. Initial step to do post and core in RCT tooth is:

A. remove gutta bercha by hot.
B. by cleaning cavity of caries and remove old filling.
C. immediate insertion.
D. gates glidden drill.
1406. How can remove a hard discolored dentine?

a. Excavator.
b. Stanless steal burs with low speed.
c. Very low speed.
d. High speed carbide burs.

1407. Class II amalgam restoration with deep caries, the patient comes with
localized pain related to it after 3 months due to:
a) Undetected pulp horn exposure.
b) Overocclusion.
c) Moisture contamination during the restoration.
///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1408. Class II amalgam restoration with deep caries the patient comes with
localized pain related to it after one month due to:
a) Undetected pulp horn exposure.
b) Over occlusion.
c) Moisture contamination during the restoration.
‫ﻣﺮﻳﯾﺾ ﺃأﺟﺮﻳﯾﺖ ﻟﻪﮫ ﻣﻌﺎﻟﺠﺔ ﺟﺬﻭوﺭر ﻧﺎﺟﺤﺔ ﻟﻠﺮﺣﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻟﻰ ﻭوﻟﻜﻨﻪﮫ ﻋﺎﺩد ﺑﻌﺪ ﺃأﻳﯾﺎﻡم ﻳﯾﺸﻜﻮ‬ .1409
‫ ( ﻭوﺑﺎﻷﺷﻌﺔ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة ﺍاﻟﻌﺼﺐ ﺟﻴﯿﺪﺓة ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﻅظﻬﮭﺮ‬severe pain on biting ) ‫ﻣﻦ ﺃأﻟﻢ ﺷﺪﻳﯾﺪ ﻋﻨﺪ ﺍاﻟﻌﺾ‬
1. Vertical root fracture. : ‫ﺣﺸﻮ ﺯزﺍاﺋﺪ ﻋﻠﻰ ﺟﺎﻧﺐ ﺃأﺣﺪ ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﻭوﺭر ﻓﻤﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺍاﻟﺘﺸﺨﻴﯿﺺ‬
2. Crack.
3. Perforation.
‫ﻩه‬
‫ ﺳﻨﻮﺍاﺕت ﺃأﺣﻀﺮﻩه ﻭوﺍاﻟﺪﻩه ﻟﻠﻌﻴﯿﺎﺩدﺓة ﻭوﺧﻼﻝل ﺍاﻟﻔﺤﺺ ﺍاﻛﺘﺸﻒ ﺍاﻟﻄﺒﻴﯿﺐ ﺃأﻥن ﺍاﻟﻄﻔﻞ ﻋﻨﺪﻩه ﻣﺸﻜﻠﺔ‬6 ‫ ﻁطﻔﻞ ﻋﻤﺮﻩه‬.1410
( ‫ (ﻣﻊ ﻭوﺟﻮﺩد ﺗﺸﻮﻫﮬﮪھﺎﺕت ﺑﺎﻟﻌﻈﻢ ﺍاﻟﻮﺟﻨﻲ‬clavicle bones absence ) ‫ﺑﺎﻟﺴﻤﻊ ﻭوﺍاﻛﺘﺸﻒ ﻏﻴﯿﺎﺏب ﻋﻈﻢ ﺍاﻟﺘﺮﻗﻮﺓة‬
malar “ zygomatic or cheek “ bones are malformed or absent ), what’s the diagnosis:
1. Teacher colins syndrome.
2. Down’s syvdrome.
1411. A child with caries in the incisors we call this

caries:
a. Rampant caries.
b. Nursing caries.
c. Children caries.
1412. Pt. during routinly check up need preventive treatment pit & fissure sealant,
upon examination the dentist found small caries lesion & he decised to do a small
preparation and do restoration for this pt., this can be called:
A. Pit & fissure seleant.
B. Preventive restoration.
C. Conservative restoration.
1413. Best method to protect teeth after

bicuspedization?
A. Crowning.
B. Splinting.
C. Extraction.
* Hemisection means:
c) The root and the crown are cut lengthwise. ***
d) None.
Bicuspedization & Hemisection: the crown and root are cut

lengthwise to two parts. ‫ﻳﯾﺘﻢ ﻓﺼﻠﻬﮭﻢ ﺑﺎﻟﻄﻮﻝل ﺍاﻟﻰ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﯿﻦ ﺑﺴﺒﺐ ﻣﺸﺎﻛﻞ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻌﻈﻢ‬
‫) ﻣﺸﺎﻛﻞ ﺑﻴﯿﺮﻭو ( ﺃأﻭو ﻋﻠﺸﺎﻥن ﺿﻌﻒ ﻓﻰ‬.bifurcation involvement ‫ﻣﻨﻄﺔ ﻣﻔﺘﺮﻕق‬
‫ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﻭوﺭر‬
• Bicuspedization = Bisection.
• Bicuspedization & Hemisection have a difference:
In bicuspedization, the two parts are preserved, restored and crowned.
But in hemesection, the one part ( not intact ) is extracted and another
part ( intact or semi intact ) is preserved, restored and crowned.
: ‫ﺃأﻣﻠﻐﻢ‬ ‫ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل ﻋﻦ ﺗﻠﻮﻥن ﺍاﻟﺴﻦ ﺍاﻟﺬﻱي ﻓﻴﯿﻪﮫ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة‬ .1414
. ‫ ﻭوﺿﻊ ﺍاﻟﻔﺎﺭرﻧﻴﯿﺶ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺍاﻷﻣﻠﻐﻢ ﻟﻤﻨﻊ ﺗﺴﺮﺏب ﺍاﻟﺰﺋﺒﻖ ﺿﻤﻦ ﺍاﻷﻗﻨﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻟﻌﺎﺟﻴﯿﺔ‬: ‫ ﺍاﻟﺤﻞ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬.1
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺘﺴﻌﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1415. Principle of elevator use all of the following except:
1) Wheel and axle.
2) Wedging the socket wall.
3) Wedging.
4) Lever.
1416. Stage Ib disease of squamous cell carcinoma:

a- T1 NO MO.
b- T3 NO MO.
c- T2 NO MO.
d- T4 NO MO.
* Stage IA disease ‫ >ــــ‬T1 NO MO.

* Stage IB disease ‫ >ــــ‬T2 NO MO.
1417. File #40 means:

a. 0.40 is the diameter at d1.
b. 0.40 is from d1 to d16.
1418. Pt. has bad oral hygiene and missing the right and left lateral incisors
what’s ttt.:
1- Implant.
2_ RPD.

3_ Conventional fpd.
4_ Maryland bridge.
1419. How many canals can be present in mandibular second molars :
a. 1, 2, 3 or 4 .
b. 2, 3 or 4.
c. 3 or 4.
d. 3.
1420. Cement appears in radiography like caries and can not

distinguish from it:
a) Calcium hydroxide include hydroxyl group.
b) Zinc phosphate.
c) Glass ionomer.
e) Zinc polycarboxlate.
f) None of above.
* Calcium hydroxide ( cement ) & Composite ( restoration ).
1421. In primary teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme is:

a) Flush terminal.
b) Mesial step.
c) Distal step.
1422. The most common cause of dry mouth in adult patients

is:
a. Tranquillizer.
b.Anti-histaminics.
c. Insulin.
d.Birth control pills.
1423. A pier abutment is :

a. Periodontally weak abutment.
b.With edentulous space on both sides of the abutment.
c. Edentulous space on one side of the abutment.
d.Abutment tooth away from the edentulous space.
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
:‫ ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻲ‬ ‫ﺍاﻟﻘﺴﻢ‬

1424. 8 years child came without complaint while rutine exam you found
obliteration of canal in maxillary central incisor what u will do:
a. Extraction.
b. RCT.
c. Pulpotomy.
d. None of above.

1425. All are participating in the determination of the
posterior extension of the maxillary denture except:
A. Vibrating line.
B. Hamular notch.
C. Fovae palatine.
D. Retromolar (pad) areas.
* The posterior extension of maxillary complete denture

can be detected by the followings except:
a. Hamular notch.
b. Fovea palatine. ***
c. Vibrating line.
‫* ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻣﻔﺮﻭوﺽض ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺙث ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﺑﻴﯿﺴﺘﺨﺪﻣﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﻣﺠﺎﺑﻠﻴﯿﺶ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬

‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﻰ ﻻ ﺗﺴﺘﺨﺪﻡم ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر‬Retromolar (pad) areas ‫ ﺃأﻭو‬Non of the above
Fovea palatine.
1426. To a great extent, the forces occurring through a removable

partial denture can be widely distributed and minimized by the
following methods:
a. Proper location of the occlusal rests.
b. Selection of lingual bar major connector.
c. Developing balanced occlusion.

1427. Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement:
a. Phenyntoin.
b. Cyclosporine.
c. Nifedipine.
d. Aspirin.
a. The highest incidence of drug induced gingival hyperplasia ( gingival
enlargement ) is reported to Phenytoin ( Dilantin ).
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1428. Pt. came to u with sublingual space infection, change in color of mucosa of floor of
the mouth. The tongue is elevated how u will do incision for drainage:
a. Extra orally parallel to lower border of the mandible.
b. Extra orally,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,
c. Intraorally parallel to wharton's duct.
d. Intraorally between mylohyoid muscles.

1429. Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the measurements which:
: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻘﻴﯿﺎﺳﺎﺕت‬ ‫ ﺩدﻗﺔ‬ ‫ ﺗﻌﻜﺲ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﻘﻴﯿﺎﺳﺎﺕت‬ ‫ﻣﻮﺛﻮﻗﻴﯿﺔ‬
a. Measures what is intended to be measured.
b. Produces repeatedly the same results under a variety of conditions.
c. Detects reasonably small shifts in either direction, in group condition.

1430. You extract tooth with large amalgam restoration, how to manage the
extracted tooth:
1. Autoclave and deep buried.
2. Sharp container.
3. Ordinary waste container.
4. Office container.
1431. Polysulfide impression material:

a. Should be poured within 1 hour.
b. Can be poured after 24 hours.
c. Can be poured 6-8 hours.
* Polysulfide impression material: should be poured immediately or within 1 hour.
1432. Polysulfide impression material :

a. Should be poured within 1 hour.
b. Should be poured within 12 hours.
c. Need a special instrument.
d. Need coolant water.
1433. Polysulfide rubber base which used for final impression must be:
A. Pouring in first 1 hour. B. Pouring
in first 2 hours.
C. Using cooling water.
D. Pouring in first 12 hours.
1434. Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally

retarded pt.:
1. Neutral sodium fluoride.
2. Stannous fluoride.
3. Acidulated fluoride solutions.
) ‫* ﺍاﻟﻨﻮﻉع ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻖ ﺍاﻟﺬﻯى ﺗﻢ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻩه ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﺃأﻓﻀﻠﻬﮭﻢ ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﺍاﻷﻓﻀﻞ ﻣﻨﻪﮫ ﻟﻬﮭﺆﻻء ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﺿﻰ‬
: ‫ﺍاﻟﻤﺘﺄﺧﺮﻳﯾﻦ ﻋﻘﻠﻴﯿﺎ ( ﻭوﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻭوﺟﺪ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻓﻼﺑﺪ ﻣﻦ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻩه ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬
Flouridr varnish.
1435. Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally
retarded pt.:
1. Neutral sodium fluoride.
2. Stannous fluoride.
3. Acidulated fluoride solution.
4. Fluoride varnish.
1436. To plan the line-angles in the proximal cavity in a class II

you use:
A. Straight chisel.
B. Bin-angled chisel.
C. Enamel hatchet.
d. Beveled chisel.
( Bi-beveled hatched ) : ‫ﺑﺎﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ‬

* Enamel hatched is used for planning enamel and dentin during cavity
preparation.
: ‫ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﻤﻔﻀﻞ‬ ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن‬ round bur ‫ ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬ ‫ ﻭوﺟﻮﺩد‬ ‫ ﺣﺎﻟﺔ‬ ‫ﻓﻲ‬
* All internal line angles should be rounded to dicrease internal stresses.
Removing caries with a large diameter round bur automatically produces the
desired shape.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻷﺭرﺑﻌﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
1437. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class II

amalgam cavity should be removed using a:
i. Straight chisel.
ii. Hatchet.
iii. Gingival curette.
iv. Gingival marginal trimmer.
1438. Removal of undermined enamel in class II cavity is done

by:
A) Chisel.
B) Angle former.
C) Excavator.
( Binangled chisel ) : ‫ﺑﺎﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ‬
1439. Hand instrument which we used to make internal angles

retentive grooves and preparation of cavity walls in the cavity
is:
a. Angle former.
b. Chisel.
c. File.
d. Enamel hatched.
* Angle former: is used to make line and point angels.
1440. Which of the following burs would you prefer to use

preparing a slot for the relation of an extensive
amalgam restoration on maxillary molar: ( Slot preparation =
Class II preparation ).
a. Number 5 round bur.
b. Number 56 fissure bur.
c. Number 556 fissure bur.
d. Number 35 cone bur.
* Number 35 cone bur or No. 33 1/2 inverted cone bur.
///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1441. Acyclovir dose for treatment of herpes:

a) 200 mg / 5 times a day.
b) 200 mg / 4 times a day.
c) 400 mg / 4 times a day.
d) 800 mg / 4 times a day.
‫ ﺩدﻯى ﺍاﻟﺠﺮﻋﺔ ﺍاﻷﻓﻀﻞ ﻭوﻟﻮ ﻣﺶ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩدﻩه ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر‬200 mg / 5 times a day (orally for 5-7 days)
400 mg / 4 times a day.

1442. The functions of cement bases are:
a. To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
b. The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
a. All.
b. None of the above.
c. 1 only.
d. 2 only.
* Cement base thickness is typically: 1 to 2 mm.
1443. Early loss of anterior tooth:

a. Affects phonetics.
b. Affects esthetics.
c. Causes space loss.
d. A and b.
e. All the above.
1444. Intraosseous cyst in radiograph appears:

1/ multiradiolucent may or not expand to cortical bone.
2/ radiopaque may or not expand to cortical bone.
3/ multiradiolucent may with resorption of cortical bone.
4/ radiopaque may with resoption of cortical bone.
1445. Type of autoclave used:

a- Hot oven outoclave.
b- Class b autuclave.
c- Class s autoclave.
d- Class d autoclave.
‫* ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻟﺚ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل‬
. ‫ﺯزﻯى ﻓﻮﻕق ﻛﺪﻩه ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ‬

* 3 Types of autoclave used in dentistry are:
1) Class N autoclave and it’s the most common dental autoclave.
2) Class B autocave.
3) Class S autoclave. ( for special purposes ).

1446. Crown with open margin can be due to:
a. Putting die space on finishing line.
b. Waxing not cover all crown preparation.
c. Over contouring of crown prevents seating during insertion.
( acute inflammation ) or ulcers ) ‫ ﺣﺎﺩدﺓة‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﻬﮭﺎﺑﺎﺕت‬ ‫ ﻣﻦ‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﻌﺎﻧﻲ‬ ‫ ﻣﺮﻳﯾﺾ‬ ‫ ﻋﻦ‬ ‫ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل‬ .1447
‫ ﺿﻐﻮﻁط‬ ‫ ﻧﺘﻴﯿﺠﺔ‬ ‫ ﺗﻌﺒﺎﻧﺔ‬ ‫ ﻧﻔﺴﻴﯿﺘﻪﮫ‬ ‫ ﻭوﻛﺎﻧﺖ‬ ‫ ﺳﻨﺔ‬ 18 ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﻳﯾﺾ‬ ‫ ﻭوﻋﻤﺮ‬ attached gingiva ‫( ﻓﻲ‬
: ‫ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت‬ . ‫ ﺣﻴﯿﺎﺗﻪﮫ‬ ‫ﻓﻲ‬
A. Aphthous ulcer.
B. Recurrent herpes ulcer.
C. ANUG.
D. Allergic stomatitis.

/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1448. The most desirable finished surface composite resin can be

provided by:
a. White stones.
b. Hand instrument.
c. Carbide finishing burs.
d. Diamond finish burs.
e. Celluloid matrix band.
1449. The best finished composite surface is achieved

by:
1. 12 fluted bur.
2. Diamond bur.
3. Matrix band with no additional finish.
* 12 fluted bur = Carbide finishing bur.
1450. Best finishing of composite done by:

1. Carbide bur.
2. Diamond bur.
3. Mounted stone.
4. Best retained under matrix band .

* The 12-fluted carbide burs used to perform gross finishing of composite restorations.
1451. Child with 7 years old when extraction of lower

frist molar the tip of root is fractured in the socket how
to manengment:
a- Leave it if the mother n't complain during feeding.
b- Should be removed by file.
c- Take x-ray to insure if n't swallwed or in respiratory.
1452. How many canals can be present in mandibular second

molars:
a. 1, 2, 3 or 4.
b. 2, 3 or 4.
c. 3 or 4.
d. 3.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺛﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﺔ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
1453. The most common immediate treatment reported for

fractured teeth was:
a. 25%.
b. 50%.
c. 82%.
d. 95%.
1454. What is the proper cavity preparation for V-shaped

cervical erosion lesion to be restored with glass ionomer cement:
a. Cervical groove, incisal groove.
b. Cervical groove, incisal bevel.
c. 4 retention points, 90 margin.
d. No mechanical preparation is necessary.
* Make a bevel in composite restorations ( in anterior teeth or posterior teeth in

cases of cervical lesions but without a bevel in other lesions in posterior teeth ) but
no bevels in glass ionomer cement restorations in anterior or posterior teeth.


1455. If the initial working length film shows the tip of a file to be
greater than 1 mm from the ideal location, the clinician should:
a. Correct the length and begin instrumentation.
b. Move the file to 1 mm short of the ideal length and expose a film.
c. Interpolate the variance, correct the position of the stop to this distance,
and expose the film.
d. Confirm the working length with an apex locator.
e. Position the file at the root apex and expose a film.
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1456. Trauma causes fracture of the root at junction

between middle and cervical thirds:
A) Do endo for coronal part only.
B) RCT for both.
C) Leave.
D) Extraction.
E) Splint the two parts together.
1457. Pt. with a history of subacute bacterial endocarditis is a

medical problem in a surgery because of the possibility of:
a. Bacteremia.
b. Septicemia.
c. Hypertension.
d. Mitral stenosis.
e. Auricular fibrillation.
A. a,b and c.
B. a, b and d.
C. a,d and e.
D. b,c and e.
E. c,d and e.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻲ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1458. Blood supply of the palate is from:
a. Greater palatine artery.
b. Lesser palatine artery.
c. Facial artery.
d. Long sphenopalatine artery.
e. Anatomising branches from all of the above except c.

/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1459. Epithelial cells:

a. Rest of malassez decrease with age. b.
Rest of malassez increase with age.
c. Hertwig sheath entirely disappear after dentinogenesis.
d. Epithelial remnants could proliferate to periapical granuloma.
1460. Formation of lateral periodontal cyst is due to:

a- Nasolacrimal cyst.
b- Hertwig's epithelial root sheath.
c- Epithelial rest of malassaz.
d- The epithelial rests or glands of serres.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺛﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬
1461. The type of cement wich give retention to crown:

a- Zn phosphate.
b- Zn polycarpoxylate.
c- Resin.
d- Resin modified glass ionomer.
* Cement producing mechanicl bond with gold alloy:

A- GIC.
B- Zinc phosphate cement. ***
D All of the above.
* Resin cement gives the best retention to crown.

* Zinc phosphate cement gives the mechanicl bond with gold alloy.
1462. Ethics of the study include all of the following except:

: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻌﻠﻤﻲ‬ ‫ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺒﺤﺚ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺪﺭرﺍاﺳﺔ‬ ‫ﺃأﺧﻼﻗﻴﯿﺎﺕت‬
a. Privacy of all subjects.
b. Informed consent may be required or not.
c. Object if the subject refuse to take part of the study.
1463. Clinical research:

a. No different between blind & double blind.
b. If there's need of intervention.
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1464. X- ray shows large pulp chamber, thin dentine

layer and enamel:
a- Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
b- Dentine dysplasia.
1465. Provisional luting cement: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻼﺻﻖ ﺍاﻟﻤﺆﻗﺖ‬

a. Prevents restoration from dislodgement.
b. Sealing.
1466. Maryland bridge:

a. Use with young.
b. To replace single missing tooth.
1467. Pt. has bad oral hygine and missing the right and
left lateral insicor what’s a ttt.:
1- Implant.
2- RPD.
3- Conventional fpd.
4- Marylad bridge.
1468. Maryland bridges depend upon:

a. Chemical retention.
b. Indirect retention.
c. Micromechanical retention.
d. None of the obove.
* Maryland bridge is cemented by acid etch & composite.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﻌﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1469. Composite restoration follow up after 2 years
showed stained margin:
A. Stress from polymerization shrinkage.
B. Hydrolic destruction on bond.
C. Marginal leakage or microleakage.
1470. High copper amalgam prevents:

a. Marginal leakage.
b. Wear.
c. No benefit.

* High copper amalgam increases strength, prevent marginal leakage and
corrosion.
1471. Digital radiography is a technique that shows transition

from white to black. Its main advantage is the ability to
manipulate the image by computer:
a. 1st T, 2nd F.
b. 1st F, 2nd T.
c. Both T.
d. Both F.
: ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻤﺎ‬ ‫ ﻟﻠﺘﺼﻮﻳﯾﺮ ﺍاﻟﺪﻳﯾﺠﻴﯿﺘﺎﻝل‬ ‫ ﻓﺎﺋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ﺃأﻫﮬﮪھﻢ‬
. ‫ ﻟﻸﺷﻌﺔ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﻌﺮﺽض‬ ‫ ﺯزﻣﻦ‬ ‫ ﺗﻘﻠﻴﯿﻞ‬: ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻴﯿﺰﺓة ﺍاﻷﺳﺎﺳﻴﯿﺔ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻰ‬
. ‫ﻭوﺃأﻳﯾﻀﺎ ﺍاﻟﺘﻌﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻊ ﺍاﻟﺼﻮﺭرﺓة ﺑﺎﻟﻜﻤﺒﻴﯿﻮﺗﺮ‬
1472. The imaging showing disk position and

morphology and TMJ bone:
a. MRI.
b. CT.
c. Arthrography.
d. Plain radiograph.
e. Plain tomography.
* To check a perforation in the desk of the TMJ we need :

A) MRI.
B) arthrography. ***
C) cranial imagery.
D) traditional tomography.
E) computerized tomography.
1473. Enamel:
a. Repair by ameloblasts.
b. Permeability reduces with age.
c. Permeability increases with age.
d. Permeable to some ions.

‫ ﻓﻲ‬ ‫ ﻛﻤﺎ‬ ‫ ﺟﺎء‬ ‫ ﺍاﺫذﺍا‬ ‫ ﺃأﻣﺎ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻷﻓﻀﻞ‬ ‫ ﻓﻬﮭﻮ‬ ‫ ﻣﻌﺎ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬ ‫ ﺍاﻻﺣﺘﻤﺎﻻﻥن‬ ‫ ﺟﺎء‬ ‫ ﻓﺎﺫذﺍا‬ ‫ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﻴﯿﻦ‬ b & d
. ‫ ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ‬ ‫ ﺃأﺻﺢ‬ b ‫ ﺍاﻻﺣﺘﻤﺎﻝل‬ ‫ ﺃأﻥن‬ ‫ ﻓﺄﻅظﻦ‬ ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل‬
1474. Upper teeth palatal mucosa supplied by:

a. Nasopalatine.
b. Anterior palatine.
c. Both.
d. Post superior alveolar nerve.
1475. Indirect retainers mostly needed:

a. Class VI.
b. Class I.
c. Class III.
d. Class III with modification.
* Indirect retainers need Classes I, II & IV.

//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1476. X-ray periapical for immature tooth is:

A. Generally conclusive.
B. Simply inconclusive.
C. Should be compered with another types.

1477. Child patient takes sedation before appointment
and presents with physical volt. What should dentist
do:
A. Conscious sedation.
B. Redo sedation.
C. Tie with papoose board.
D. Tie in unite with bandage

* Pedo pt. with extremely –ve behavior, to restrain the
extremity :
A. Use mouth prope.
B. Belt.
C. Board. ***

* Papoose board: ( ‫ﺗﻜﺘﻴﯿﻒ ﺍاﻟﺠﺴﻢ ) ﺗﺜﺒﻴﯿﺖ ﺍاﻟﺮﺃأﺱس ﻭوﺭرﺑﻂ ﺍاﻟﻴﯿﺪﻳﯾﻦ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺮﺟﻠﻴﯿﻦ‬
.
1478. Caries detection dye composed mainly of:
a- 5% acid fuchsin.
b- 5% basic fuchsin.
c- Propylene glycol.

* Propylene glycol or 0.5% basic fuchsin.

1479. When increase vertical dimension you have to:

1/ increase minimal need.
2/ construct anterior teeth first then posterior teeth.
3/ use provisional crowns for 2 months.
4/ all

( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1480. Treacher-collins syndrome is mainly:

1/ Mandibular retrognathia.
2/ Loss of hearing.
* Mandibular retrognathia: 70-80% of cases.

* Loss of hearing: 50% of cases.
1481. A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he

returns complaining of discomfort at the site of the restoration,
radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present. This is due to:
A) Lack of matrix usage.
B) No burnishing for amalgam.
* A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he returns

complaining of discomfort at the site of the restoration, radiographically an
overhanging amalgam is present. This is due to:
a) Lack of matrix usage.
b) Improper wedging. ***
c) Pulpitis.

* Causes of amalgam overhanging:
1) Improper wedging.
2) Lack of matrix usage.
3) Improper finishing.
‫ ﻟﻜﻦ‬.. ‫ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﺒﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﻭوﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻁطﺒﻌﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه‬
‫ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺑﻠﻚ ﺍاﻻﺗﻨﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻣﻔﺮﻭوﺽض ﻧﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﻭوﺍاﺣﺪ ﺑﺲ ﻓﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﺐ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا‬
‫ﻋﺪﻡم ﺍاﺳﺘﺨﺪﺍاﻡم ﺍاﻟﻮﻳﯾﺪﺝج ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﺳﺘﺨﺪﺍاﻣﻪﮫ ﺑﻄﺮﻳﯾﻘﺔ ﺧﻄﺄ ﻭوﺫذﻟﻚ ﻻﻋﺘﺒﺎﺭر ﺃأﻥن ﻣﻴﯿﻨﻔﻌﺶ ﺃأﺻﻼ‬
. ‫ ﻣﻦ ﻏﻴﯿﺮ ﻣﺎﺗﺮﻳﯾﻜﺲ ﺑﺎﻧﺪ‬2 ‫ﺗﻌﻤﻞ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة ﺃأﻣﻠﺠﻢ ﻛﻼﺱس‬
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1482. Contents of the anaesthesia carpule:

A) Lidocaine + epinephrine + ringer’s liquid.
B) Lidocaine + epinephrine + distilled water.
C) Lidocaine + epinephrine only.

‫ ﺭرﻧﺠﺮ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻻﺑﻴﯿﻨﻔﺮﻳﯾﻦ ( ﻭوﻣﺎﺩدﺓة ﺣﺎﻓﻈﺔ ﻟﻸﺩدﺭرﻳﯾﻨﺎﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﺳﺎﺋﻞ‬ ) ‫ ﻭوﺃأﺩدﺭرﻳﯾﻨﺎﻟﻴﯿﻦ‬ ‫ ﻟﻴﯿﺪﻭوﻛﺎﻳﯾﻴﯿﻦ‬ : ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﺨﺪﺭر ﺗﺤﺘﻮﻯى ﻋﻠﻰ‬ ‫* ﺃأﻣﺒﻮﻟﺔ‬
. ‫ ﻣﻘﻄﺮ‬ ‫ ﻭوﻣﺎء‬ ( Nacl ‫) ﺻﻮﺩدﻳﯾﻮﻡم ﻛﻠﻮﺭرﺍاﻳﯾﺪ‬
Local anesthetic agent (lidocaine) - vasoconstrictor ( adrenaline “ epinephrine “ ) - preservative substance
( for adrenaline ‫ ) ﻣﺎﺩدﺓة ﺣﺎﻓﻈﺔ ﻟﻸﺩدﺭرﻳﯾﻨﺎﻟﻴﯿﻦ‬ Ringer’s liquid ( Nacl ) - distilled water.
‫ ﺃأﻣﺎ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺯزﻯى ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺩدﺍا‬.. ‫ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻳﯾﺠﻤﻊ ﺑﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﻭوﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه‬
. ‫ﻛﺪﻩه ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل‬
1483. Distal fissure of premolar contact opposes:

a- Middle of the middle third & buccal fissure is wider than lingual.
b- Cervical line & lingual fissure is wider than buccal.
c- Middle of the middle third & vice versa.
d- Cervical of the middle third & vice versa.
1484. You make a ledge in the canal. You want to correct this.
What is the most complication occur in this step:
b. Apical zip.
c. Stripping.
d. Perforation.
* Ledge = step
* Perforation = apical perforation = perforation of the apex.
* Stripping = stripping perforation = lateral perforation = perforation of the strip.
* In RCT, over preparation of the outer wall of the optical

curvature of the canal with inflexible instrument will cause:
A. Zipping. ***
B. Perforation.
C. Elbow formation.
D. Ledge formation.
E. Crazing.
* Zipping = Apical zip.
1485. To prevent gingival injury place the margin of the retainer:

A. At the level of gingival crest.
B. Above gingival crest.
C. Apical to gingival crest 1 mm.
d. Apical to gingival crest 0.5 mm.
1486. A completely edentulous patient, the dentist delivers a denture in the 1st
day normally, 2nd day the patient returns unable to wear the denture again, the
cause is:
a) Lack of skill of the patient.
b) Lack of frenum areas of the complete denture.
1487. How can you alter the setting time for alginate:
a) Alter ratio powder water.
b) Alter water ratio.
c) We can’t alter it.
d) By accelerated addition.
‫ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﻩه ﺍاﻟﻄﺮﻳﯾﻘﺔ ﺗﻐﻴﯿﺮ ﺑﻌﺾ ﺻﻔﺎﺕت ﺍاﻷﻟﺠﻴﯿﻨﺎﺕت ﻭوﻟﺬﻟﻚ ﺃأﻓﻀﻞ ﻁطﺮﻳﯾﻘﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺗﻐﻴﯿﻴﯿﺮ ﺩدﺭرﺟﺔ ﺣﺮﺍاﺭرﺓة ﺍاﻟﻤﺎء‬
. ‫ ( ﻓﺎﺫذﺍا ﻭوﺟﺪﺕت ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻓﻬﮭﻰ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻫﮬﮪھﺎ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ‬Alter water temperature )
1488. How can you alter the setting time for alginate:
a) Alter ratio powder water.
b) Alter water temperature.
c) We can’t alter it.
d) By accelerated addition.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻰ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1489. What’s the reason of the wax shrinkage upon fabrication of
the bridge/crown:
A. Solidification shrinkage.
B. Porosity shrinkage.
C. No shrinkage occurs.

////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

1490. Patient who has un-modified class II kennedy classification, with good periodontal
condition and no carious lesion, the best clasp to use on the other side:
a) reciprocal clasp.
b) ring clasp.
c) embrasure clasp.
d) gingivally approaching clasp.
* reciprocal clasp = aker's clasp.
1491. You should treat ANUG until the disease completely removed.
Otherwise, it will change to necrotic ulcerative gingivitis NUG:
A) Both sentences are true.
B) Both sentences are false.
C) 1st true, 2nd false.
D) 1st false, 2nd true.
1492. Studies show that complete remineralization of surface o

an accidentally etched enamel:
a- never occur.
b- after hours.
c- after weeks.
d- after months.
1493. Wax properties are:

1/ Expansion.

2/ Internal stress.
. ‫* ﺃأﻋﺘﻘﺪ ﺃأﻥن ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻧﺎﻗﺺ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻮﺍا ﺃأﻥن ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﻴﯿﻦ‬
: ‫* ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﻴﯿﻦ ﺣﻴﯿﺚ ﺃأﻥن‬

Wax properties are:
1. Thermal expansion.
2. Internal stress.

‫ ﺍاﺫذﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺛﻨﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻌﺎ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎء ﺑﻨﻔﺲ ﺍاﻟﺼﻴﯿﻐﺔ ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻘﺔ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ‬ *
. ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ‬

//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1494. Inlay wax must invest fast because of flow and

quick deformity, this due to:
A. Relaxation of internal stress.
B. Thermal expansion.
C. Ductility.
1495. Inlay wax must invested fast because of flow and

quickly deformity of dimension, this property due to:
a. Slow flow.
b. Internal stress.
* Wax patterns should be invested soon because:

a. The wax exhibits shrinkage.
b. Becomes brittle.
c. Subjected to fracture.
d. The wax has memory and begins to distort. ***
1496. Teenager boy with occlusal wear the best ttt. is :1/ remove the
occlusal.
2/ teeth capping.
3/ restoration.

1497. In FPD in upper posterior teeth we should have gingival
embrasure space to have healthy gingival, so the contact:
a- In the middle.
b- Depend on the opposing occlusion.
c- Occlusally as far as you can.
1498. Complex amalgam restoration when to do it:

A- Weak of the cusp with undermined enamel.
B- Bevel and contra bevel.
C- Weak cusp should strengthen it by resin.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻰ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1499. Most important sealer criteria to be success:
A- High viscosity.
B- High retention.
C- High strength.
D- Can add colorant.
E- High resilience.
‫* ﻻﺣﻆ ﺟﻴﯿﺪﺍا ﺍاﻟﻔﺮﻕق ﺑﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻳﯾﻤﻜﻦ ﺃأﻥن ﻳﯾﺘﻢ ﺍاﻟﺴﻬﮭﻮ ﺑﻴﯿﻨﻬﮭﻤﺎ ﺑﻜﻞ‬
‫ﺳﻬﮭﻮﻟﺔ ﻻ ﻗﺪﺭر ﷲ ﺗﻌﺎﻟﻰ ﻣﻦ ﺣﻴﯿﺚ ﺍاﻟﻜﻠﻤﺘﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﺮﺋﻴﯿﺴﻴﯿﺘﻴﯿﻦ ﻓﻰ‬
:( sealant & sealer ) ‫ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ‬
* The principal feature of a sealant that is required for
success is:
a) High viscosity.
b) Adequate retention. ***
c) An added colorant to make the appearance slightly different from
occlusal enamel.
d) High strength.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1500. Discoloration of endo treated teeth:

a- Hemorrhage after trauma.
b- Incomplete remove GP from the pulp chamber.
c- Incomplete removal of pulp tissues.
1501. Patient came to your clinic with dull pain in the #6, no response
to the pulp tester, in radiographs it shows 3mm of radiolucency at the
apex of the root. Diagnosis is:
a) Chronic apical periodontitis.
b) Acute apical periodontitis.
c) Acute periodontitis with abscess.
d) Chronic apical abscess.

1502. The nasopalatine bone forms a triangle will be parallel to an
imaginary line extended between cemento-enamel junctions of
adjacent teeth:
a. True.
b. False.
1503. 7 years patient came with untreared truma to

tooth that became yellow in colour what you should tell
the parents:
a: pulp is dead.
b: pulp became calcified.
c: the tooth will absorb normally.
1: a and b.
2: a and c.
3: all of the above.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1504. The needle holder used in suturing of lower third molar:
A. Curved hemostat.
B. Allis forceps.
C. Adson forceps.
D. Regular tweezers.
1505. Instrument which use for grasping a tissue when remove

thick epulis figuratum:
a- Allis forceps.
b- Adson forcep.
c- Curved hemostat.
d- Stillies forceps.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻲ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1506. The favored relationship in case of fabrication of
a lower class 1 RPD opposing a natural dentition is:
1- Prognathism.
2- Working side.
3- Balancing side.
4- None of the above.
* The favored relationship in case of fabrication of a lower class I

or II RPD opposing a natural dentition is: working balanced occlusion.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1507. Baby born without which bacteria:
B) Streptococcus salivaris.
1508. For a newly erupted tooth, the most bacteria found

around the tooth is:
B) Streptococcus salivaris.
1509. Pt. with renal transplantation came with white

elevated lesion on tongue and no history of smoking or
tobacco chewing diagnosis is:
A- Candidiasis.
B- Iatrogenic lesion.
C- Hyperkeratosis.
D- Stomatitis.
* Oral candidiasis is a frequent oral lesion in renal transplant patients.
1510. Patient with 5 years old denture has a severe

gag reflex, upon history he says he had the same symptoms in
the first few days of the denture delievery and it went all
alone:
a. Patient has severe gag reflex.
b. Patient has underlying systemic condition.
c. Denture is overextended.
* Bone resorpion of the ridge leads to overextension of the distolingual area of

the denture .

1511. Immature tooth has less sensation of cold & hot due to:
1. Short root.
2. Incomplete innervations.
3. Wide pulp chamber.
1512. Electric pulp tester on the young is not accurate because:

1. Short root.
2. Incomplete innervations.
3. Wide pulp chamber.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻷﺗﻲ ﻣﻬﮭﻢ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1513. In centric occlusion is normal but in eccentric occlusion, the lower
anterior teeth & upper anterior teeth interfere with contact what
should be do:
1/ Reduction of mand. incisors.
2/ Reduction of lingual inclination of max. incisiors.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1514. Premature contact between upper and lower ant. teeth in eccentric
occlusion while there is absolutely no contact on the centric occlusion,
so the management is by grinding of:
A- incisal edge of ant. max. teeth.
B- Incisal edge of ant. mand. teeth.
C- Inclination of ant. max. teeth lingual.
D- Inclination of ant. mand. teeth.

1515. Instrument used to remove dark color in dentin:
A. Round stone bur with low speed.
B. Round diamond bur with low speed.
C. Large excavator.
D. Carbide bur with high speed.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺛﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1516. Patient feels severe pain upper mouth, pain is radiated
to eye and ear, after you check no caries and when you
pressure on maxillry premolar he feels pain. In x-ray no
change what dignosis?
a. Acute apical periodontits.
b. Maxilary sinusitis.
c. Canine space infection.
d. Dentoalveolar infection.

1517. Class III crown fracture in child patient, the type of
pontic:
a. Ovate.
b. Egg shaped.
c. Hygienic.
d. Ridge lap.
* Ovate pontic: is highly esthetic pontic used in class II & III crown fractures.
1518. What is the test name for detecting the virulent of

bacteria:
A- Hemolysis.
B- Catalase.
C- Fermentation.
* Streptococcus activity is detected by:

A) Fermentation. ***
B) Catalase.
C) Hemolysis.
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1519. Apiceoctomy, what is the right statement:

1. Incisor with an adequate RCT and 9mm lesion.
2. Lateral incisor with good condensing RCT but swelling and pain 14 day after
the treatment, the tooth asymptom before the obturation.
3. First upper premolar with lesion on the buccal root.
1520. Which will design first in the study cast of RPD with a lingual bar
major connector:
A. The lower border of lingual bar major connector.
B. The upper border of lingual bar.
C. Indirect rest and rest seat.
* During the designing of a partial denture ( lingual bar ) in the lower arch for a a
patient, what will u start with?
a- the upper border of the bar. ***
b- inferior border of the bar.
c- designing the rest seats location.
d- extension of the denture base.

1521. Naocl is used in RCT:
A. Oxidative effect.
B. Irrigant solution of choice.
C. Efficacy increasing with diluting.
D. Better result when used combined with alcohol.
1522. Receiving the impression after removal from the mouth

directly:
1. It must be disinfected immediately.
2. It must be poured immediately.
3. It must be mounted immediately.
4. It must be left for minutes.
1523. Retentive grooves:

1. Always axiobuccal and axiolingual.
2. Prevent lateral displacement of restoration.
3. Is axiopulpal and axiogingival.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1524. Tooth number 26, had a root canal treatment since two years,
upon x-ray you found a radiolucency with bone
resorption along one of the roots:
a. Ca(OH)2.
b. Resection of the whole root.
c. Redo RCT.
d. Periodontal currettage.

* Periodontal currettage: . ‫ﻓﻰ ﺣﺎﻟﺔ ﺍاﻻﻣﺘﺼﺎﺹص ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻌﻈﻢ ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﺭر‬

* Resection of the whole root ( Root ambutation ): ‫ﻓﻰ ﺣﺎﻟﺔ ﺍاﻻﻣﺘﺼﺎﺹص ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﺭر ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﻓﻰ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻟﻌﻈﻢ ﻭوﻻﺯزﻡم ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﺿﺮﺱس ﻳﯾﺤﺘﻮﻯى ﻋﻠﻰ ﺃأﻛﺜﺮ ﻣﻦ ﺟﺬﺭر ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺴﺖ ﺳﻨﻪﮫ ﺃأﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ‬

1525. If you do mouth wash by 10% glucose, the PH can be
read from the curve:
A. The PH in dental plaque after the mouth rinse (mouth wash) with 10 % glucose ( or
fructose ) changes ( up and down ) but the most high PH is 6.5 – 7 .
1526. Pt. have trauma in upper central incisor, the tooth and
the alveolar bone move as one piece, in examination
intraorally x-ray you will see:
a. gap between the apex of root and alveolar bone.
b. definite line of fracture.
c. no appear in x-ray.
1527. Yellow-brown hypomineralization of enamel with or

without hypoplasia can be treated by:
A. Acid-pumice microabrasion.
B. Composite restoration.
C. Fixed crown.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1528. 3 months baby had black-blue discolured rapid growing

swelling, the x-ray shows unilocular radiolucency and
displaced tooth bud, is it:
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst.
b. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumour.
c. Ameloblastic fibroma. -

1529. What first treatment of thump suking?
a. Consult.
b. Rewarder therapy

1530. A 7 years child has a habit of finger sucking what is the
best way to start a therapy with:
a. Rewarding therapy.
b. Counseling therapy.
c. Punishment.
d. Remaindering therapy.
* Counseling therapy: ‫ ﻋﻼﺝج ﻧﻔﺴﻰ ﻭوﻟﻮ ﻣﻨﻔﻌﺶ ﻓﻰ ﻭوﻗﺖ ﻗﺼﻴﯿﺮ ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻳﯾﺮﻛﺐ ﺍاﻟﺠﻬﮭﺎﺯز ﺍاﻟﺬﻯى‬
‫ﻳﯾﻤﻨﻊ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﻩه ﺍاﻟﻌﺎﺩدﺓة ﻣﺒﺎﺷﺮﺓة ﻷﻥن ﺑﻌﺪ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا ﺍاﻟﺴﻦ ﺍاﻟﺘﺸﻮﻫﮬﮪھﺎﺕت ﺳﻮﻑف ﺗﻈﻬﮭﺮ ﺑﺎﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﺪﺍاﺋﻤﺔ‬
. ‫ﻭوﺍاﻟﻔﻚ ﺃأﻳﯾﻀﺎ ﻭوﻳﯾﺪﺧﻞ ﻓﻰ ﻣﺸﺎﻛﻞ ﺗﻘﻮﻳﯾﻤﻴﯿﺔ‬
1531. 7 years old pt. thumb sucking, what is the management:
1. Rewarding system.
2. Counseling therapy.
3. Adjunctive therapy.
4. Nothing.



1532. Glass ionomer:
a) introduction 1970 .
b) needs dry field when application.
c) both.
d) none of the above.
* Glass ionomer introduction in 1969, 1970 OR 1972 .
1533. Pacifier habit what you see in his mouth 7 years old
pt.:
a. Anterior open bite with expansion max. bone.
b. Anterior open bite, posterior crossbite.
c. Move incsial to labial.
1534. Which one of the conditions would delay a dentist's

decision of taking full mouth x-ray examination?
a. Pregnancy.
b. Patient had full mouth examination by x-ray 6 months ago.
c. Patient will receive radiotherapy next week.
d. Patient had CT examination last week.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

1535. The narrowest canal found in a three root maxillary

first molar is the:
1. Mesio-buccal canal.
2. Disto-buccal canal.
3. Palatal canal.
4. Disto-palatal canal.
5. Mesio-palatal canal.
* Mesio-palatal canal = MB2 = M2 = 4TH canal and it’s the narrowest canal in the maxillary first
molar.
* Mesiobuccal canal is narrower than distobuccal canal.
1536. Which part of root canal diameter is the smallest:

a. Radigraphical apex.
b. Apical foramen.
c. Apical constriction.

* Apical constriction is the smallest part in the root canal.
* Apical foramen is the largest part in the root canal.
* What is the smallest area in root canal:

A- apex in radiograph.
B- cementoenamel junction.
C- dentinoenamel junction.
D- cementodentinal junction.
apical constriction ‫* ﻟﻜﻦ‬

‫ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻭوﺟﺪﺕت ﻁطﺒﻌﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا ﻧﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻫﮬﮪھﺎ ﻷﻧﻬﮭﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺍاﻷﺻﺢ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺃأﺻﻐﺮ ﺟﺰء ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻘﻨﺎﺓة ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﺭرﻳﯾﺔ‬
. ‫ﻋﻠﻰ ﺍاﻻﻁطﻼﻕق‬

1537. Record the vertical dimension in order to:

a. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which
will be occupied by an artificial teeth.
b. To determine vertical and horizontal levels of the teeth.
c. a and b.
d. None.
1538. Rideal walker test for:

A. Disinfection.
B. Sterilization.
C. Cleaning.
1539. TB patient in active stage ( sputum ‫ ) ﺍاﻟﺒﻠﻐﻢ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺒﺼﺎﻕق‬when we do

treatment:

‫‪a. Emergency case.‬‬
‫‪b. With rupper dam.‬‬
‫‪c. With mask.‬‬
‫‪d. Postpone the treatment.‬‬ ‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪ ) :‬ﺍاﻟﺒﻠﻐﻢ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺒﺼﺎﻕق ‪* TB in active stage ( sputum‬‬

‫‪It’s an emergency case: send him to emergency dental care in‬‬ ‫‪a hospital.‬‬
‫‪* If TB is inactive, you can do dental treatment.‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪1540.‬‬ ‫‪When root perforation we close it by:‬‬

‫‪A- G.I. ‬‬
‫‪B- Caoh.‬‬ ‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪C- Silver point.‬‬
‫‪D- Composite. ‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪* MTA is the best material for treatment of the perforations then Caoh then G.I.‬‬
‫‪1541.‬‬ ‫‪Irrigation solution for RCT causes protein coagulation‬‬

‫‪is:‬‬
‫‪1- Sodium hypochlorite.‬‬
‫‪2- Iodine potassium.‬‬
‫‪3- Formocresol.‬‬
‫‪4- None of the above.‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا (‬
‫‪ .1542‬ﻋﻨﺪ‪ ‬ﺍاﺟﺮﺍاء‪ ‬ﻣﻌﺎﻟﺠﺔ‪ ‬ﺃأﻓﺔ‪ ‬ﺫذﺭرﻭوﻳﯾﺔ‪ ‬ﻣﻌﺎﻟﺠﺔ‪ ‬ﻟﺒﻴﯿﺔ‪ ‬ﺗﻘﻠﻴﯿﺪﻳﯾﺔ ﻣﺘﻰ‪ ‬ﻧﺒﺪﺃأ‪ ‬ﺑﺼﻨﻊ‪ ‬‬
‫ﺍاﻟﺘﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ ‪:‬‬
‫ﻣﺒﺎﺷﺮﺓة‪ ‬ﺑﻌﺪ‪ ‬ﺍاﻧﺘﻬﮭﺎء‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺎﻟﺠﺔ ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻴﯿﺔ‪ ‬ﻭوﺍاﻷﻻﻡم‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺤﺎﺩدﺓة‪ ‬ﺗﺒﻘﻰ‪ ‬ﻟﻌﺪﺓة‪ ‬ﺃأﻳﯾﺎﻡم‪ ‬ﺍاﻭو‪ ‬ﺃأﺳﺎﺑﻴﯿﻊ‪ ‬ﺑﻌﺪ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺎﻟﺠﺔ‪.‬‬ ‫‪1‬‬
‫ﻧﺼﻨﻊ‪ ‬ﺗﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ‪ ‬ﻣﺆﻗﺖ‪ ‬ﻟﺘﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﻮﻅظﻴﯿﻔﺔ‪ ‬ﻭوﺍاﻟﺸﻜﻞ‪ ‬ﻭوﻧﻨﺘﻈﺮ‪ ‬ﺷﻔﺎء‪ ‬ﺍاﻷﻓﺔ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺬﺭرﻭوﻳﯾﺔ ﺷﻌﺎﻋﻴﯿﺎ‪ ‬ﻟﻤﺪﺓة‪ 4 ‬‬ ‫‪2‬‬
‫‪ 8‬ﺃأﺷﻬﮭﺮ ‪.‬‬
‫ﻧﺼﻨﻊ‪ ‬ﺗﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ‪ ‬ﻣﺆﻗﺖ‪ ‬ﻟﺘﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﻮﻅظﻴﯿﻔﺔ‪ ‬ﻭوﺍاﻟﺸﻜﻞ‪ ‬ﻭوﻧﻨﺘﻈﺮ‪ ‬ﺷﻔﺎء‪ ‬ﺍاﻷﻓﺔ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺬﺭرﻭوﻳﯾﺔ ﺷﻌﺎﻋﻴﯿﺎ ﻟﻤﺪﺓة‪ 12 ‬‬ ‫‪3‬‬
‫‪ 24 ‬ﺷﻬﮭﺮ ‪.‬‬
‫ﻛﻞ‪ ‬ﻣﺎ‪ ‬ﺳﺒﻖ‪ ‬ﺧﻄﺄ ‪.‬‬ ‫‪4‬‬
‫* ﻟﻜﻦ ﻓﻰ ﺣﺎﻟﺔ ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺎﻟﺠﺔ ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻟﻌﺎﺩدﻳﯾﺔ ﻭوﻟﻢ ﺗﻜﻦ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎﻙك ﺃأﻯى ﺃأﻓﺔ ﻋﻨﺪ ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﺭر ﻓﻴﯿﻤﻜﻦ ﺃأﻥن ﻧﻀﻊ‬

. ( 1 ‫ﺍاﻟﺘﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ ﺍاﻟﺘﺎﺟﻰ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺤﺎﻝل ﺃأﻭو ﺧﻼﻝل ﺃأﻳﯾﺎﻡم ﺃأﻭو ﺧﻼﻝل ﺃأﺳﺎﺑﻴﯿﻊ ) ﺭرﻗﻢ‬
‫ ﻧﺼﻨﻊ‬ ‫ ﻣﺘﻰ‬ ‫ ﺫذﺭرﻭوﻳﯾﺔ‬ ‫ ﺣﻮﻝل‬ ‫ ﺟﺮﺍاﺣﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﻊ‬ ‫ ﻟﻜﻦ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻖ‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل‬ ‫ ﻧﻔﺲ‬.1543
:‫ ﺍاﻟﻨﻬﮭﺎﺋﻲ‬ ‫ﺍاﻟﺘﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ‬
. ‫ ﺷﻬﮭﺮ‬ 2 1 ‫ﻣﻦ‬ 1
. ‫ ﺷﻬﮭﺮ‬ 3 2 ‫ﻣﻦ‬ 2
. ‫ ﺷﻬﮭﺮ‬ 4 3 ‫ﻣﻦ‬ 3
. ‫ ﺷﻬﮭﺮ‬ 8 6 ‫ﻣﻦ‬ 4

‫ ﺃأﻁطﻮﻝل ﻳﯾﻤﻜﻦ ﺃأﻥن ﺗﺼﻞ ﻟﺴﻨﺔ ﻭوﻧﻀﻊ ﺗﻌﻮﻳﯾﺾ ﺗﺎﺟﻰ ﻣﺆﻗﺖ‬ ‫ ﻣﺪﺓة‬ ‫ ﻧﻨﺘﻈﺮ‬ ‫ ﺟﺮﺍاﺣﺔ ﺣﻮﻝل ﺫذﺭرﻭوﻳﯾﺔ‬ ‫ ﺑﻮﺟﻮﺩد‬ *
. ( ‫ ﺷﻬﮭﻮﺭر‬8 ‫ ﺍاﻟﻰ‬6 ‫ﻭوﻧﺘﺎﺑﻊ ﺷﻔﺎء ﺍاﻷﻓﺔ ﺍاﻟﺬﺭرﻭوﻳﯾﺔ ﺷﻌﺎﻋﻴﯿﺎ ﻟﻤﺪﺓة‬
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

1544. Selection of shade for porcelain is done except:
a) Before preparation.
b) We must rest the eye by looking to a yellow color.
c) We must look to the tooth only 5 sec.

1545. 6 years child in routine examination, explorer
wedges ‫ ﺷﺒﻚ ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻧﺤﺸﺮ‬in the pit of 2nd molar, other teeth free dental
caries what is the management:
a fluoride gel application.
b fissure sealant.
c restore it with amalgam restoration.
d- restore it with composite restoration.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻷﺭرﺑﻌﺔ ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﺔ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1546. The treatment of weeping canals is:
a- Caoh.
b- Formocresol.

1547. Parotid malignancy shows perineural spread is seen as:

a. Warthon’s path.

b. Ductal papilloma.
c. Polymorphic adenoma.
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
1548. Salivary gland disease ( tumor ) with perineural invasion:

1. pleomorphic adenoma.
2. Adenocyctic carcinoma.
* Adenocyctic carcinoma = Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
1549. We want to do a maxillary PD to a patient using

anterior-posterior strap, we want it to be rigid,we use:
1. gold.
2. cast gold.
3. co-cr.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1550. What is the form of local anesthesia when enters the

nerve tissues:
1. Lipid soluble ionized form.
2. Lipid soluble nonionized.
3. water soluble ionized.
4. water soluble nonionized.

b. Water solubility of unionized form.
c. Lipid solubility of ionized form.
d. Water solubility of ionized form.

1552. The degree of taper for crown preparation:

a. 3 - 5.
b. 15.
* degree of taper = degree of convergency for crown preparation.

‫‪ .1553‬ﺣﺸﻮﺓة‪ ‬ﺃأﻣﻠﻐﻢ‪ ‬ﻣﻘﺎﺑﻠﺔ‪ ‬ﻟﺤﺸﻮﺓة‪ ‬ﺃأﻭوﻥن‪ ‬ﻻﻱي )‪ ‬ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻳﯾﻘﺼﺪ ﺫذﻫﮬﮪھﺐ ( ﻭوﺗﺴﺒﺐ‪ ‬ﺃأﻻﻡم ‪ ‬‬
‫ﻓﻤﺎ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﻌﻤﻞ‪: ‬‬
‫‪ 1‬ﺗﻐﻴﯿﻴﯿﺮ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺤﺸﻮﺓة ‪.‬‬
‫‪ 2‬ﻗﻠﻊ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺴﻦ ‪.‬‬
‫‪ 3‬ﻭوﺿﻊ‪ ‬ﻓﺎﺭرﻧﻴﯿﺶ ‪.‬‬
‫‪ 4‬ﻭوﺿﻊ‪ ‬ﻣﺎﺩدﺓة‪ ‬ﻋﺎﺯزﻟﺔ ‪.‬‬
‫* ﺗﻐﻴﯿﻴﯿﺮ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺤﺸﻮﺓة‪ ) :‬ﻳﯾﺘﻢ ﺗﻐﻴﯿﻴﯿﺮ ﺍاﻷﻣﻠﺠﻢ ﺑﻤﺎﺩدﺓة ﺃأﺧﺮﻯى ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا ﺣﻞ ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺢ ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﻻﺣﻆ ﺟﻴﯿﺪﺍا ﺃأﻧﻨﺎ ﻧﻠﺠﺄ ﻟﻬﮭﺬﺍا ﺍاﻟﺤﻞ ﺑﻌﺪﻣﺎ‬
‫ﻧﻨﺘﻈﺮ ﺍاﺧﺘﻔﺎء ﺍاﻷﻟﻢ ﺗﺪﺭرﻳﯾﺠﻴﯿﺎ ﺑﻌﺪ ﻋﺪﺓة ﺃأﻳﯾﺎﻡم ﺃأﻭو ﺃأﺳﺒﻮﻉع ﻉع ﺍاﻷﻛﺜﺮ ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﺍاﺳﺘﻤﺮ ﺍاﻷﻟﻢ ﺑﺸﺪﺓة ﻓﺎﻧﻨﺎ ﻧﻠﺠﺄ ﻟﺘﻐﻴﯿﻴﯿﺮ‬
‫ﺍاﻷﻣﻠﺠﻢ ﺑﻤﺎﺩدﺓة ﺃأﺧﺮﻯى( ‪.‬‬
‫‪////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////‬‬
‫‪ .1554‬ﻣﺮﻳﯾﺾ‪ ‬ﻟﺪﻳﯾﻪﮫ‪ ‬ﺑﻮﺭرﺳﻠﻴﯿﻦ‪ ‬ﻋﻠﻰ‪ ‬ﺳﻨﺔ ﻋﻠﻮﻱي‪ ‬ﻣﺎﺫذﺍا‪ ‬ﻧﻀﻊ‪ ‬ﻟﻪﮫ‪ ‬ﻋﻠﻰ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺴﻨﺔ‬
‫ﺍاﻟﻤﻘﺎﺑﻠﺔ ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ ‪:‬‬
‫‪ .1‬ﺑﻮﺭرﺳﻠﻴﯿﻦ ‪ .‬‬
‫‪ .2‬ﺑﻮﺭرﺳﻠﻴﯿﻦ‪ ‬ﻣﻊ‪ ‬ﺳﻄﺢ‪ ‬ﺇإﻁطﺒﺎﻕق‪ ‬ﻣﻦ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺬﻫﮬﮪھﺐ ‪.‬‬
‫‪ .3‬ﺃأﻛﺮﻳﯾﻞ‪ ‬ﻣﻊ‪ ‬ﺍاﻟﺬﻫﮬﮪھﺐ ‪.‬‬
‫‪ .4‬ﺃأﻛﺮﻳﯾﻞ‪ ‬ﻗﺎﺳﻲ ‪.‬‬
‫‪1555. Patint with haemophelia what is the additional‬‬

‫?‪anaesthetic procedure used with him‬‬
‫‪A. Intraligmentary, intraosseous and intrapappillary anaesthetic‬‬

‫‪techniques.‬‬
‫‪1556.‬‬ ‫( ?‪What is the material which we use after apexectomy‬‬

‫) ‪Retrograde filling material‬‬
‫‪a. Citric acid.‬‬
‫‪b. EDTA.‬‬
‫‪c. Tetracycline.‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬
‫‪1557. Temprature that damage the bone during implant‬‬

‫‪procedure: ‬‬
‫‪ ‬‬

A. If temperature is raised in the bone to 47 C for more than 1
minute.
* Bone cells will be damaged irreversibly causing excessive resorption and osseointegration
failure.
1558. Hemiseptal fracture: (hemiseptum defect):

a. Horizontal recession - one wall fracture.
b. Horizontal recession - two walls fracture.
c. Horizontal recession - three walls fracture.
1559. Maximum porcelain thickness:

i. 1 – 1.5 mm.
ii. 1.5 – 2 mm.
iii. 2 – 3 mm.
1560. High mylohyoid crest in patient for complete denture, the

surgeon must avoid vital structure which is:
a. Lingual nerve.
b. Mental nerve.
c. Facial nerve.
1561. In the normal tissues, the basal cell layer adheres to

:
A. Prickle cell layer ( suprabasal cell layer ).
1562. Three years old pt. came to clinic with his parents he has
asymptomatic swelling bluish in color fluctant, in midline of palatal
raphe, diagnosis is :
A- Bohn's nodules.
B- Herps semplex virus.
C- Lymphepithelial cyst.
D- Gingival cyst.
E. Epstein's pearls.
* Epstein's pearls: in the midline of palatal raphe.

* Bohn's nodules: away from the palatal raphe on buccal and palatal surfaces of
alveolar bone.
* Gingival cyst: away from the palatal raphe on the crest of alveolar bone.

1563. Mandibular foramen is :
A. Above occlusal plane in elderly people.
B. At the occlusal plane in adult.
C. Below the occlusal plane in children.

1564. Dentin etching often takes:
a. 15 sec.
b. 30 sec.
c. 45 sec.
d. 60 sec.
1565. Preparation to small occlusal cavity to premolar the

width of cavity is :
a. 1/4 inter cuspal distance.
b. 1/2 inter cuspal distance.
c. 1/5 inter cuspal distance.
d. 3/5 inter cuspal distance.
* In premolars, the width of cavity is 1/4 inter cuspal distance ( for small or
conservative cavities ).
* In molars, the width of cavity is 1/3 inter cuspal distance ( for large or not
conservative cavities ).
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1566. Pt. of HBV came to ur clinic and during dental procedures have
a sever Injury and bleeds alot, what is ur management:
1. Squeeze the wound but do not scrub.
2. Wash the wound with water and put waterproofe plaster.
3. Asset the virulent of the pt. and refer him for infectous disease consltant.
4. Ask him to apply pressure on the wound to stop bleeding.
a. 1+2+3.
b. 1+4.
c. 1+2+4.
d.3+4.
( ‫) ﺍاﻗﺮﺃأ ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﻌﺔ ﻭوﺛﻤﺎﻧﻮﻥن ﺳﺆﺍاﻻ ﺍاﻷﺗﻴﯿﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻬﮭﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺟﺪﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬

1567. Tissue displacement for making an impression is improved

by:
1. Removing sufficient tooth substance subgingivally.
2. Improving the health of the gingival tissue before the preparation.
3. Using reversible hydrocolloid rather than polysulphide, rubber silicon or
polyether impression materials.
a. 1+2.
b. 1+3.
c. 2+3.
1568. An elastic impression for a full crown would be inaccurate

when:
a. Free gingival obliterated a part of preparation.
b. A small amount of saliva was on part of the preparation when the impression
being made.
c. Both of the above.
d. Undercuts was present.
1569. For best impression of prepared tooth with elastic impression

material, the prepared tooth should be:
a. Verry dry.
b. Free of surface moisture.
c. A thin layer of saliva should be there.
d. Cover with surface tension reducing agent.
1570. Ring linear is used as a lining in a casting to:

a- Insulate against the thermal conductivity.
b- Allow for expansion of the investment.
c- Prevent fracture of the investment during heating.
d- Facilitate removal of the investment after casting.
e- All of the above.
1571. Wax patterns should be invested soon because:

a. The wax exhibits shrinkage.
b. Becomes brittle.
c. Subjected to fracture.
d. The wax has memory and begins to distort.
* Inlay wax must invest fast because of flow and quick deformity, this is
due to:
a. Relaxation of internal stress. ***
1572. Heating gypsum casting investments above 1300°F ( 700° C ) in

the presence of carbon results in:
a- Fine grain size.
b- Shrinkage porosity.

c- Oxidation of castings.
d- Sulfur gases being released.
* Over heating of casting leads to: sulfur gases are released causing blacking of metal and
greenish staining of porcelain.
* In soldering PFM FPD, greenish staining on porcelain without

effect glazing this staining is due to:
a- Over heating firing. *** b- Flux.
c- Investment contact.
1573. In articulator, incisal guidance represents:

a- Horizontal guidance.
b- Condylar guidance.
c- Equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlaps.
1574. The most accurate impression least distortion if poured

after 24 hours:
a- Polyether.
b- Silicon.
c- Reversible hydrocolloids in humidor.
d- Compound impression.
1575. Post should set passively in root canal and crown should
set with slight resistance:
a- Both statement are false.
b- Both statement are true.
c- First statement is true and second is false.
d- First statement is false and seconds statement is true.
* Post may set in root canal passively or actively but crown should give resistance and
retention.
1576. In the metal-ceramic technique, the bond between

porcelain and the noble-metal alloy is dependant on the:
1- Proper matching of coefficients of thermal expansion of metal and porelain.
2- Formation of base-metal oxides.
3- Formation of noble-metal oxides.
4- Surface roughness of the alloy.
a. 1 only.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 2 and 4.
e. 1 and 4.
* Formation of base-metal oxides. ‫ﺑﻨﻀﻴﯿﻒ ﻣﻌﺎﺩدﻥن ﺃأﺧﺮﻯى ﻋﻠﻰ ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺪﻥن ﺍاﻟﻨﻮﺑﻞ ﻋﻠﺸﺎﻥن‬
‫ﺗﻄﻠﻊ ﻛﻤﻴﯿﺔ ﺃأﻭوﻛﺴﻴﯿﺪ ﻛﺎﻓﻴﯿﺔ ﻟﻌﻤﻞ ﺍاﻟﺘﺮﺍاﺑﻂ ﺍاﻟﻜﻴﯿﻤﻴﯿﺎﺋﻰ ﺑﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺪﻥن ﻭوﺍاﻟﺒﻮﺭرﺳﻴﯿﻠﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻛﻤﻴﯿﺔ‬
‫ﺍاﻷﻭوﻛﺴﻴﯿﺪ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﺑﻴﯿﻄﻠﻌﻬﮭﺎ ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺪﻥن ﺍاﻟﻨﻮﺑﻞ ﻏﻴﯿﺮ ﻛﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﻓﻴﯿﺔ ﻟﻌﻤﻞ ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا ﺍاﻟﺘﺮﺍاﺑﻂ ﻋﻠﺸﺎﻥن ﻛﺪﻩه‬
. 3 ‫ ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ‬2 ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬
1577. In casting the substructure for a metal ceramic

restoration, it is necessary to use:
1- Gypsum-bonded investment.
2- Phosphate-bonded investment.
3- Gas-air torch.
4- Crucible which has not been used for other gold alloy.
a. 1 and 3.
b. 1 and 4.
c. 2 only.
d. 2and 3.
e. 2 and 4.
1578. In order to maintain the health of the tissue beneath a

pontic, it is desirable to:
1- Scrape the ridge area on the cast and use gold for the ridge contact.
2- Scrape the ridge area on the cast and use porcelain for the ridge contact.
3- Have passive contact with ridge tissue when the restoration is placed in the
mouth.
4- Have slight blanching of the ridge tissue when the restoration in the mouth.
5- Have minimal tissue coverage.
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 5
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 3 and 5.
f. 4 and 5
1579. The most frequent cause of porosity in a

porcelain restoration is:
a- Moisture contamination.
b- Excessive firing temperature.
c- Excessive condensation of the porcelain.
d- Inadequate condensation of the porcelain.

1580. Cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for
corrosion resistance is:
a- Silver.
b- Nickel.
C- Cobalt.
d- Chromium.
e- Tungsten.
* Chromium or chrom : ‫ﺍاﻟﻜﺮﻭوﻡم ﻣﺎﺩدﺓة ﻣﻘﺎﻭوﻣﺔ ﻟﻠﺼﺪﺃأ‬
1581. Three weeks after insertion FPD, marked discomfort to

heat and cold occurs, there are no other symptoms. The most
likely cause is:
a- Gingival recession.
b- Unseating of the FPD.
c- Deflective occlusal contact.
d- Torsional forces on one abutment tooth.
e- Incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared aboutment teeth.
* Unseating of the FPD: ‫ﺍاﻧﺨﻼﻉع ﺍاﻟﺘﺮﻛﻴﯿﺒﺔ ﻭوﺗﺤﺘﻬﮭﺎ ﺳﻦ ﻣﺶ ﻣﻌﻤﻮﻟﻪﮫ ﺍاﻧﺪﻭو‬

1582. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown

restoration is:
a- Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus.
b- Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth.
c- Lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts.
d- Lack of prominent cusps deep sulcus and sharp marginal ridge.
1583. A permanently cemented FPD may become loose

because of:
a- Insufficient retention in the abutment preparation.
b- Deformation of the metal casting on the abutment.
c- Lack of embrasure space.
d- Torque.
e- Passive contact of the pontic to the ridge lap.
A. a,b
B. a,b,d
C. b,d,e

D. c,d,e
E. d,e
1584. From properly mounted diagnostic casts, determination

can be made for fixed prosthodontic treatment planning
concerning:
a- axial alignment of the abutment teeth.
b- Physical condition of the abutment teeth.
c- Gingival tissue contour and pocket depth.
d- Tentative design of abutment preparation.
A. a only.
B. a ,b. c.
C. a, b & d.
D. b ,c, d.
E. all of the above.
1585. Which following condition in a FPD could cause

porcelain bonded to metal to loosen (
fractured/separated):
a- Removal of 0.7 mm of bulk from the facial surface of the abutment teeth.
b- Contamination of the metal framework ( metal coping ).
c- Baking the facing too rapidly.
d- Insufficient mechanical locks.
A. a,b.
B. a,b,c.
C. b,c.
D. b,c,d.
E. d only.
F. All of the above.
1586. The porcelain metal bond is :
a. Chemical.
b. Mechanical.
c. a & b.
1587. A patient is missing a mandibular first molar, the

maxillary molar has extruded approximately 2.8 mm into the
space, periodontally is acceptable. Restoring satisfactory
occlusion with FPD will require:
a- Extraction of maxillary molar.
b- Reducing and restoring the maxillary molar to normal occlusal plane.
c- Reducing and polishing the maxillary molar to normal occlusal plane.
d- None of the above.
1588. Which of the following applied when selecting a shade
for metal-ceramic restoration:
a- It is a better to select a shade with too low value than too high value if staining
to be improve the match.
b- It is a better to select a shade with too high value than too low value if staining is
not to be used to improve match.
c- The basic shade selected should be that of the middle third of tooth to be
matched.
d- None of the above.
1589. To select shade of porcelain:

a) One light. b) Before
preparation.
c) Wet tooth.
d) Shade guide must be wet.
Which true?
A. a,b.
B. a,c,d.
C. b,c,d.
D. a,b,c,d.
* And under different light sources not one light source.
1590. Cement producing mechanical bond with gold alloy:

A- GIC.
B- Zinc phosphate cement.
D- All of the above.
* The type of cement wich give retention to crown:

a- Zn phosphate.
b- Zn polycarpoxylate.
c- Resin. ***
d- Resin modified glass ionomer.
* Zinc phosphate cement gives the mechanicl bond with gold alloy.
* Resin cement gives the best retention to crown.
1591. All expect one are present in Zinc phosphate cement

liquid:
a- Water.
b- H2SO4.
c- H3PO4.
d- AIPO4.
1592. The strength of zinc phosphate cement is increased by

increase powder/liquid ratio:
a- True.
b- False.
1593. Zinc polycarboxylate cement is better than zinc

phosphate cement in:
a- Compressive strength.
b- Low solubility.
c- Film thickness.
d- Adhesion to enamel.
1594. Open margin in crown could be due to:

a- proximal contact.
b- Failure to demargination of wax.
c- Die spacer in the margin.
d- All of above.
1595. To create space for cement:

a- Die space.
b- Roughen of metal and tooth.
c- Investment expansion. d- Electro.
* To create space for cement: by die space or increase investment expansion ‫ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻳﯾﻘﻮﻝل‬
‫ ﺃأﻧﻬﮭﺎ ﺑﺎﻟﺰﻳﯾﺎﺩدﺓة‬.
1596. Patient with sensitivity may be due to:

a- crack.
b- gap between tooth and restoration.
1597. In soldering PFM FPD, greenish staining on porcelain

without effect glazing this staining due to:
a- Over heating firing. b-
Flux.

c- Investment contact.
* Heating gypsum casting investments above 1300°F ( 700° C )

in the presence of carbon results in:
a- Fine grain size.
b- Shrinkage porosity.
c- Oxidation of castings.
d- Sulfur gases being released.
* Over heating of casting leads to: sulfur gases are released causing blacking of metal and
greenish staining of porcelain.
1598. During try in and rocking FPD, what will do:

a- Gap will fill with cement.
b- Adjust tooth preparation.
c- Adjust metal and disconnect and soldering.
1599. Cause of fracture porcelain bonding to metal:
a- Thick opaque.
b- Occlusion on junction of porcelain and metal.
1600. Most acceptable theory of bonding porcelain and noble metal:

a- Formation of base metal oxide.
b- Formation of noble metal oxide.
c- Adhesion.
1601. Cement appears in radiographic like caries and cannot

distinguish from it:
a) calcium hydroxide include hydroxyl group.
b) zinc phosphate.
c) glass ionomer.
e) zinc polycarboxlate.
f) none of above.
1602. When porcelain is basked against metal, it should

possess a:
a) High fusion expansion.
b) High fusion temperature.
c) Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of the metal.
d) Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of metal.

1603. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of
transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of
the:
a) concentration of the fillers and plasticizers.
b) percentage of composition by weight of water.
c) concentration of potassium sulfate.
d) Temperature.
1604. The principal feature of a sealant that is required for

success is:
a) High viscosity.
b) Adequate retention.
c) An added colorant to make the appearance slightly different from occlusal
enamel.
d) High strength.
‫* ﻻﺣﻆ ﺟﻴﯿﺪﺍا ﺍاﻟﻔﺮﻕق ﺑﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ ﻭوﻳﯾﻤﻜﻦ ﺃأﻥن ﻳﯾﺘﻢ ﺍاﻟﺴﻬﮭﻮ ﺑﻴﯿﻨﻬﮭﻤﺎ ﺑﻜﻞ‬
‫ﺳﻬﮭﻮﻟﺔ ﻻ ﻗﺪﺭر ﷲ ﺗﻌﺎﻟﻰ ﻣﻦ ﺣﻴﯿﺚ ﺍاﻟﻜﻠﻤﺘﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﺮﺋﻴﯿﺴﻴﯿﺘﻴﯿﻦ ﻓﻰ‬
: ( sealant & sealer ) ‫ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻦ‬
* Most important sealer criteria to be success:
A- High viscosity.
B- High retention.
C- High strength.
D- Can add colorant.
E- High resilience. ***

1605. The retention of a pin:

a) increases as the diameter of the pin increases.
b) Increases as the diameter of the pin decreases.
c) Decreases as the diameter of the pin increases.
d) The retension of a pin has nothing to do with the diameter of the pin.
1606. In which of the following properties does a type IV partial

denture gold alloy exceed a base-metal partial denture alloy in
numerical value:
a) Hardness.

b) Specific gravity.
c) Casting shrinkage.
d) Fusion temperature.
1607. Within practical limits, when the water/powder ratio is

increased beyond the recommended amount in mixing plaster
( or gypsum ): ‫ ﺳﻮﺍاء ﻗﺎﻝل ﺑﻼﺳﺘﺮ ﺃأﻭو ﺟﻴﯿﺒﺴﻢ ﻷﻥن ﺍاﻟﺒﻼﺳﺘﺮ ﻧﻮﻉع ﻣﻦ ﺃأﻧﻮﺍاﻉع ﺍاﻟﺠﻴﯿﺒﺴﻢ‬
a) Setting time is increased.
b) Setting expansion is decreased.
c) Compressive strength is decreased.
1608. An overload of the mucosa will occur if the:

a) Teeth used for replacement are non-anatomic.
b) Bases covering the area are too small in outline.
c) Bases covering the area are too large in outline.
d) Bases covering the area are overextended distally.
* An overload of the mucosa will occur if the bases covering the area are too small in
outline Or if denture bases are underextended.
1609. Overextension of a mandibular denture base in distobuccal

area will cause dislodgement of the denture during function
as the result of the action of the:
a) masseter muscle.
b) buccinator muscle.
c) pterygomandibular raphe.
d) lateral tendon of temporalis muscle.
1610. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a

crown prepration is that:
a) It is dull knife edge.
b) Its position is subgingival.
c) Its position is supragingival.
d) Its position be easily discernible.

1611. A thin application of cavity varnish over the cut surface
of a prepared tooth just prior to the cementation of a crown
or a bridge with zinc phosphate cement will:
a) Impede the seating of the restoration .
b) Insulate the tooth against thermal change.
c) Increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity.
d) Reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp.
1612. Metal-ceramic restorations may fail due to fracture of

ceramic material. This can best be avoided if:
a) occlusal forces are minimal.
b) the metal is not over 0.5 mm thick.
c) the ceramic material is at least 1.5 mm thick .
d) The casting is designed to reduce stress concentration in the ceramic
material.
1613. For a removable partial denture, the lack of indirect

retention would be manifested by:
a) Tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the prosthesis.
b) Movement away from the tissue of the extension base of the prosthesis.
c) Settling of the major connector of the prosthesis.
d) Lateral and medial movement of the extension base of the prosthesis.
* The principal function of an indirect retainer is to:

c) Minimize movement of the base away from supporting tissue. ***
d) Restrict tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the partial denture.
1614. The posterior palatal bar should be placed in a

relationship:
a) To incorporate the hamular notch on each side .
b) Which is anterior to the junction of the movable and immovable

soft palates.
c) Which is posterior to the junction of the movable and immovable
soft palates.
d) Extending from one hamular notch to the another hamular notch
across the fovea palatinae.
* Posterior palatal bar should be placed posterior to the junction of the movable and
immovable soft palates ( posterior to the vibrating line ).
1615. Most elicit painful area is:

a) Gingival wall.
b) Proximal wall.
c) Pulpal wall.
d) None of the above.
1616. Success of implant is 55 % in maxilla and 60 % in

mandible:
a) Both true.
b) Both false.
c) First statement true and second is false.
d) First statement false and second is true.
. ‫ ﻓﻰ ﻛﻼ ﺍاﻟﻔﻜﻴﯿﻦ‬% 98 ‫* ﺃأﻧﻈﻤﺔ ﺍاﻟﺰﺭرﻉع ﺍاﻟﺤﺪﻳﯾﺜﺔ ﺗﺤﻘﻖ ﻧﺴﺒﺔ ﻧﺠﺎﺡح ﻗﺪ ﺗﺼﻞ ﺍاﻟﻰ‬
1617. Most common type of porcelain in dentistry:

a) High fusion.
b) Medium fusion.
c) Low fusion.
* The most common types of porcelain used in dentistry are: low fusion and
ultra low fusion.

1618. Casting shrinkage ‫ ﺍاﻻﻧﻜﻤﺎﺵش‬of gold alloy IV
related to:
a) Thermal expansion.
b) Coefficient of thermal expansion.
c) None of the above.
* Thermal expansion ‫ﺍاﻟﺤﺮﺍاﺭرﻯى‬ ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﻤﺪﺩد‬compensates for casting shrinkage. ‫ﺍاﻻﻧﻜﻤﺎﺵش‬

‫ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺪﻧﻰ‬
* Casting shrinkage ‫ ﺍاﻻﻧﻜﻤﺎﺵش ﺍاﻟﻤﻌﺪﻧﻰ‬of gold alloy IV related to: thermal contraction.
‫ﺍاﻻﻧﻘﺒﺎﺽض ﺍاﻟﺤﺮﺍاﺭرﻯى‬
1619. Most common occurs due to denture:
a) Sore spots.
b) Angular chelitis.
1620. Reversible hydrocolloid

properties: ( Agar agar ):
a) Hydration.
b) Dehydration.
* Reversible hydrocolloid ( Agar agar ) is: hydrated (

hydrophilic: ‫) ﻣﺤﺐ ﻟﻠﻤﺎء‬.
1621. Radiation stent used to locate the proper position of

implant. Surgical stent makes some modifications to use as
radiation stent:
a. Both true.
b. Both false.
c . First true, second false.
d. First false, second true.
* Surgical stent is used to locate the proper position of implant. * Surgical stent does n’t
used as a radiation stent.

1622. Fiber composite FPD used for: ( Fiber post )
a) Posterior teeth.
b) Patient have allergic for metal.
* Fiber post is used in posterior teeth and anterior teeth.
1623. Implant absolute not used for:

a) Patient takes radiotherapy.
b) Smoking.
1624. Patient takes radiation needing implant:

a) Wait 6 mouths.
b) Cessation of smoking.
1625. Path of preparation depends on:

A) Esthetic.
B) Contour.
C) Pulpal wall.
(‫ )ﻋﺒﻴﯿﺪﺓة‬. ‫ ﺳﺒﻖ‬ ‫ ﻣﺎ‬ ‫ ﻛﻞ‬ ‫ ﺧﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬ ‫ ﻭوﺟﻮﺩد‬ ‫ ﻳﯾﺠﺐ‬- D
1626. Sequence of colour shade:

a) Chroma, hue, value.
b) Hue, chroma, value.
c) Value, chroma, hue.
1627. Crowns are to be placed on abutment teeth for a

PD, then:
a- Wax pattern contours should be surveyed.
a- Crowns should be placed prior to surveying for clasp design.
b- Wax pattern should carved to the original morphology.

1628. Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be
made, it is necessary to determine:
a- The axial center of opening-closing rotation pupils.
b- The inclination of each condoyle.
c- Physiologic rest position.
d- Centric relation.
e- All of the above.
1629. The non-rigid connector may be used in FPD in

those cases involving:
a- Long span bridges replacing two or more teeth.
b- Short span bridges replacing one missing tooth where the prepared abutment
teeth are not in parallel alignment.
c- Long span bridges opposing a mucosa- borne partial denture where the anterior
retainer of the bridge strikes an opposing natural tooth, but the distal portion of
the bridge is in occlusion with the removable partial denture.
d- Long or short span bridges where one of the abutment teeth has limited
periodontal support.
1630. Splinting of several teeth together as abutments

for a FPD is done to:
a- Distribute occlusal load.
b- Facilitate plaque control.
c- Improve retention of the prosthesis.
d- Preserve remaining alveolar support.
E- Assure optimum design of embrasure.
1631. Advantage of shoulder finishing line is:

a- It provides enough thickness of porcelain.
b- Make the margin of restoration obvious in impression.
c- Assist the technician to locate the finish line on the die.
1632. Regarding gingival retraction, the following are true

except one is false, the false is:
a- Retraction by electro-surgery is contraindicated for patient with cardiac
pacemaker.
b- It can be done by chemical, mechanical, and electrosurgery.

c- Retraction cord impregnated in epinephrine is the best for all cases.
d- Retraction cord can't be used in severely inflamed gingival.
* Retraction cord impregnated ‫ ﻣﻐﻤﻮﺱس‬in epinephrine is contraindicated with cardiac

patients. . ‫ﻣﻤﻨﻮﻉع ﻣﻊ ﻣﺮﺿﻰ ﺍاﻟﻘﻠﺐ‬
* Gingival retraction by electro-surgery is contraindicated in patients with cardiac
pacemaker. ‫ﺟﻬﮭﺎﺯز ﺗﻨﻈﻴﯿﻢ ﺿﺮﺑﺎﺕت ﺍاﻟﻘﻠﺐ‬
1633. The most important property of cement for durable

restoration: ‫ﺩدﺍاﺋﻤﺔ‬ ‫ ﺗﺮﻛﻴﯿﺒﺔ‬
a- Low co-efficient of thermal expansion.
b- Compressive strength.
c- Solubility in oral fluids.
. ‫ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﺩدﻯى ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻫﮬﮪھﺎ‬ Resistance to solubility in oral fluids ‫ﻟﻮ ﻗﺎﻝل ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﻩه ﺍاﻟﺼﻔﺔ‬
1634. The most retentive pin is:

a- Cemented pins.
b- Self threaded.
c- Fictional type.
1635. The least preferable abutment for FPD is:

a- Rotated and tipped tooth.
b- Endodontically treated tooth.
c- A tooth with short tapered root and long clinical crown.
d- A tooth with little remaining tooth structure.
1636. The use of amalgam post-core depends on:

a- Remaining tooth stracture.
b- Width of root canal.
Correct incisal and gingival color of metal-ceramic

1637.
restoration, the color may be modified by:

1- Use of stains.
2- Use of stained porcelain.

3- Re-firing at high temperature.
4- Changing the light reflection by grinding and re-polishing.
a. 1 only.
b. 1 and 2 only.
c. 1,2 and 3.
d. 2 only.
e. 2 and 3 only.
f. 4 only.
1638. In which of the following ways do surface

characteristics of porcelain affect the perceived form of
the final restoration?
1- A surface smoother than normal will give the impression of a larger
size.
2- Horizontal highlights suggest increased length.
3- Vertical highlights give an illusion of width.
4- Changes in contour and resulting highlights can be used to alter the
apparent long axis tooth.
a. 1,2 and 3.
b. 1,3 and 4.
c. 1 and 4 only.
d. 3 and 4 only.
1639. Which of the following contribute to the bonding of

dental porcelain to metal casting alloys?
1- Metallic bonds.
2- Chemical bonding.
3- Adhesive bonds.
4- Mechanical bonding.
a. 1 and 2 only.
b. 1,2 and 4.
c. 1,3 and 4.
d. 2 and 4 only.
e. 3 and 4 only.
f. All of the above.
1640. In an ideal centric occlusion, the mesio-facial cusp of

the permanent maxillary first molar opposes the:
a- Central fossa of the mandibular first molar.

b- Mesial fossa of the mandibular first molar.
c- Facial embrasure between mandibular second premolar and first molar.
d- Sulcus of the disto-facial groove of the mandibular first molar.
e- Sulcus of the mesio-facial groove of the mandibular first molar.
1641. In children pulp damage is less frequent than in adults

due to:
a- Minor subluxation does not cut the blood supply.
b- More hemoglobin content in children.

c- Less nutritional deficiences.

1642.Which of these is used for gingival contouring (

gingivectomy ):
A. PK.2
B. PK.4
C. Bard Parker.
* Bard Parker: surgical blades no. 11 & 12 .

1643. To increase the retention of full crown for a short
molar:
a. Use zinc phosphate.
b. Retentive vertical groove.
c. Shoulder finish line.
1644. Pt. infected by anthrax ‫ﺍاﻟﺨﺒﻴﯿﺜﺔ‬

‫ﻣﺮﺽض ﺍاﻟﺠﻤﺮﺓة‬, after
examination, doctor should disinfect with:
a. 12 % cholorohexedin.
b. Antibacterial hand scrub.
c. Non antimicrobial soap.
b. Wash your hands with water and soap ( disinfect with water and non antimicrobial soap
OR with water and antimicrobial soap but not with antibacterial hand scrup ).

. ‫ ﻭوﻻ ﺗﻐﺴﻠﻬﮭﺎ ﺑﻤﻀﺎﺩد ﻟﻠﺠﺮﺍاﺛﻴﯿﻢ‬ ‫ﺍاﻏﺴﻞ ﻳﯾﺪﻳﯾﻚ ﺑﺎﻟﻤﺎء ﻭوﺍاﻟﺼﺎﺑﻮﻥن ﻓﻘﻂ‬
1645. 8 y old pt. swollowed 10 ml of 10% f, what the

immediate action:
a. Ingest milk.
b. Hospitalization.
1646. Decrease the polymerization shrinkage of

composite by:
a. Incremental placement with increase time of curing.
b. Incremental placement with high intensity light cure.
1647. Pt. with sialothiasis we want to take x-ray with

ordinary film in order to show the stone we should:
a. Take x-ray in the same way as usual.
b. Increase the intensity of x-ray.
1648. Retrograde filling is indicated in what condition?

a. Max. central incisor with good filling with 9 mm radiolucency.
b. Max. premolar with post and core buccal root with 4 mm short
filling and radiolucency at the apex but the palatal root with good
filling.
c. 1st molar with MBR and DBR short filling and platal root with
fracture instrument.
1649. 2 walls defect in perio what is the best graft to

treat this defect :
a. Cortical freeze dried bone allograft.
b. Cancellous freeze dried bone allograft.
c. All are the same.
. ‫* ﺍاﻻﺛﻨﻴﯿﻦ ﺻﺢ ﺑﺲ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﻁطﺎﻟﺐ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﻣﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺍاﻟﻨﻮﻉع ﺍاﻷﻓﻀﻞ‬

1650. Test for determinig the efficiency of sterilizing
agent is:
a. Fungi.
b. Virus.
c. Bacteria.
d. Bacterial spores.
1651. Which of the following doesn't have damage effect on

hand piece:
A. Apply great pressure during use.
B. Infrequent moisturization.
C. Fall down of the head of the hand piece.

* Infrequent moisturization: ‫ﺍاﻟﻬﮭﺎﻧﺪ ﺑﻴﯿﺲ ﻻ ﺗﺨﺮﺝج ﻣﺎء ﺑﺎﺳﺘﻤﺮﺍاﺭر ﺃأﺛﻨﺎء ﺗﺸﻐﻴﯿﻠﻬﮭﺎ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا‬
. ‫ ﻳﯾﻀﺮ ﺍاﻟﺴﻨﺔ ﻧﻔﺴﻬﮭﺎ ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﺍاﻟﻬﮭﺎﻧﺪ ﺑﻴﯿﺲ‬
* One of these has no effect on the life span of hand piece:

a- Low air in the compressor. ***
b- Trauma to the head of the hand piece.
c- Pressure during operating.
1652. Pt. with lesion in the posterior of the tongue we want to

take excisional biopsy, how to pull the tongue forward:
A. Mennesota tongue retractor.
B. Mirror handle.
C. Towel clip.
* Towel clip: ‫ﺑﻴﯿﺸﺪ ﺍاﻟﻠﺴﺎﻥن ﻟﻸﻣﺎﻡم ﺃأﺛﻨﺎء ﺃأﺧﺪ ﺍاﻟﺒﻴﯿﻮﺑﺴﻰ ) ﺍاﻟﻌﻴﯿﻨﺔ ( ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ ﺍاﻟﺨﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﺍاﻟﺬﻯى‬
. ‫ﻳﯾﺴﺘﺨﺪﻡم ﻟﺘﻮﺟﻴﯿﻪﮫ ﺍاﻟﻠﺴﺎﻥن ﻭوﺍاﻟﺨﺪ ﻭوﺍاﺑﻌﺎﺩدﻫﮬﮪھﻤﺎ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻟﻴﯿﻤﻴﯿﻦ ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻟﻴﯿﺴﺎﺭر‬
1653. Pedo pt. with extremely –ve behavior, how to

restrain this extremity:
A. Use mouth prope.

B. Belt.
C. Board.
* Papoose board: ( ‫ﺗﻜﺘﻴﯿﻒ ﺍاﻟﺠﺴﻢ ) ﺗﺜﺒﻴﯿﺖ ﺍاﻟﺮﺃأﺱس ﻭوﺭرﺑﻂ ﺍاﻟﻴﯿﺪﻳﯾﻦ ﻭوﺍاﻟﺮﺟﻠﻴﯿﻦ‬
* Child patient takes sedation before appointment and

presents with physical volt. What should dentist do:
A. Conscious sedation.
B. Redo sedation.
C. Tie with papoose board. ***
D. Tie in unite with bandage
.
1654. During anathesia what's true:

A. The needle should be inserted before cartridge.
B. The needle cap is inserted before the stopper.
C. Excessive force should be applied to allow insertion of the cartridge
into the harpoon.
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1655. Vasoconstrictors are:

a) Lidocaine.
b) Adrenaline.
d) Sulpha.
c) All of the above.

1656. When we extract roots we start with:

a) Forceps.
b) Periosteal elevators.
c) Elevators.
d) Needles.

1657. In case of bad odor in the entrance of the pulp we:

a) Extract the tooth.
b) Remove the pulp.
c) R.C.T.
d) None.


1658. Insulin is a medicine for:
a) Hypertension.
b) Cardiac diseases.
c) Diabetes.
d) Decrease in platelets count.
1659. In case of infiltration we give:
a) Anti inflammatory.
b) Antibiotic.
c) a and b.
d) None.
1660. For the mandible we prefer:

a) Infiltration.
b) Block.
c) Intraossous.
d) None.
1661. Phosphoric acid is applied for:

a) 10-20 seconds.
b) 30-45 seconds.
c) 20-30 seconds.
d) None.
1662. The lower teeth are supplied with:

a) Maxillary nerve.
b) Infra orbital nerve.
c) Mandibular nerve.
1663. The main cause of inflammation of gingiva (

gingivitis ):
a) Smoking.
b) Calculus.
c) Bacteria.
d) Fluoride.
* Bacteria OR Bacterial plaque.
1664. The pregnant woman is suffering from:

a) Gingival recession.

b) Pregnant granuloma.
c) Periapical abscess.
d) None.

1665. Muscles of the tongue are:

a- 17
b- 18
c- 19
d- 20
1666. Sterilization in autoclave:

a- 20-30 minutes at 121 c.
b- 2-10 minutes at 134 c.
c- a+b.
d- None.
1667. Crossbite means:

a- Upper teeth occlude inside the lower teeth.
b- Upper teeth occlude outside the lower teeth.
c- a and b.
d- None.
* Crossbite means: Upper teeth occlude inside the lower teeth OR :

Upper teeth occlude lingual to the lower teeth.
1668. The efficiency of the autoclave is decreased due

to:
a- Sterilization without cleaning the instruments.
b- Over loading.
c- Dry blood on the instruments.
1669. The food which build new cells:

a- Carbohydrates.
b- Proteins.
c- Fats.
d- Minerals.

1670. Brushing of the anterior teeth from the lingual

side is:
a- Vertical.
b- Horizontal.
c- Oblique.
d- None.

1671. When we delay the cleaning and sterilization of
instruments we put it in:
a- Holding solution.
b- Sodium hypochlorite.
c- a+b.
d- None.
* Holding solution: water or detergent ‫ ﻣﻨﻈﻒ‬.

1672. Before doing vitality pulp test, the tooth must be:
a- Moist.
b- Dry.
c- Moist or dry not affect.
d- None.
1673. One plane labial reduction leads to:

A. Overcounterd crown.
B. Improved retention.
C. Occlusal disharmony.
* Occlusal disharmony OR decreased retention.
1674. Patient 3 years old had injury ( trauma ) in the

primary teeth, the permanent teeth rarely undergo to:
A. Microabrasion in the enamel.
B. Discoloration.
C. Dilaceration.
D. Partially stoppage of the root formation.
* Microabrasion in the enamel and completely stoppage of the root formation are

rarely occurs in the permanent successors.
* After a trauma ( injury ) on a primary tooth, what is the
least possibility?
A. Changes in the permanent tooth enamel color.
B. Changes the primary tooth color.
C. Apex pathology on primary tooth. ***
* Discoloration and hypoplasia are the most frequent effects on permanent teeth
after trauma OR injury to primary teeth.
* Enamel hypoplasia: incomplete development of enamel causing a thin and weak
enamel layer..

1675. Galgavin-vermilion formula used in:
A. Calculation of flouride in water according to temperature
.
1676. The punch hole in the rubber dam for a child

is:
a. small.
b. medium.
c. large.
d. the hole size is not important.
* Large size punch hole: ‫ﺩدﺍا ﺑﺎﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﻟﺤﺠﻢ ﻓﺘﺤﺎﺕت ﺍاﻟﺮﺍاﺑﺮ ﺩدﺍاﻡم ﻟﻸﻁطﻔﺎﻝل ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻟﻜﺒﺎﺭر‬
* Medium size rubber dam: ‫ﺑﺎﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﻟﺤﺠﻢ ﺍاﻟﺮﺍاﺑﺮ ﺩدﺍاﻡم ﻧﻔﺴﻪﮫ ﻟﻸﻁطﻔﺎﻝل ﻟﻜﻦ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻜﺒﺎﺭر ﺑﻨﺴﺘﺨﺪﻡم ﺍاﻟﺤﺠﻢ ﺍاﻟﻜﺒﻴﯿﺮ‬ ‫ﺩدﺍا‬
. 5*5 ‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻘﻮﻟﻮ ﺍاﻟﺤﺠﻢ ﺍاﻟﻮﺳﻂ‬: ‫* ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل ﻭوﻗﺎﻝل ﻣﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺍاﻟﺤﺠﻢ ﺍاﻷﻓﻀﻞ ﻟﻠﺮﺍاﺑﺮ ﺩدﺍاﻡم ﺑﺎﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﻟﻸﻁطﻔﺎﻝل‬
1677. The reason of separation or fracture of opaque

layer in ceramo metal crown in gold:
a. Technique not using conditioning material on opaque layer.
b. Contact of occlossion on opaque layer.

1678. Patient had intrinsic stain in anteriors you decide to put full
veneer crowns porcelain fused to metal had irreversible pulpitis, you
decide to make RCT and make access opening from palatal side. What
is the most appropriate filling to do will not disturb the crown
cementation ?
A) Reinforced cement and any appropriate filling.
b) Towel.
c) Pin amalgam seal.

1679. When we can put composite restoration in

recently bleached tooth :
A. After 1 week.
B. After one month.
C. After one day.
In prefabricated twisted pin in amalgam it should

1680.
be go equaly into dentin alloy :
a. one mm.
b. two to three mm.
c. five mm.
d. only in enamel.

1681. Inferior orbital fissure located:

a. Lateral wall & floor of of orbit.
b. The medial part of orbit.
c. Between the two wings of sphenoid.

1682. In standard instrument for proper work, the

cutting edge should be:
a. perpendicular to the handle.
b. parallel to the handle.
c. acute angle.
d. inverted angle.
* Blade of periodontal instrument should be:

A- Perpindicular to long axis.
B- Parallel to long axis.
C- Perpindicular to the shank. ***

1683. Which of the following not considered type of
healing of fractured root:
a. healing by bone deposition in proximity.
b. healing by cementium deposition in proximity.
c. healing by cementium and soft tissue in proximity.
d. healing by soft tissue inflammation in proximity..
* Healing by soft tissue inflammation in proximity OR healing by

granulation tissue not considered types of healing of fractured root.
1684. 6 years old came to u with carious lower molar

sinus drainage:
a. Pulp pathosis.
1685. Symptoms of conginital syphilis:

A. Deafness, notch incisor, bolbous cuspless molar and oral pigmentation.

1686. Treatment of grade 2 furcation involvement
: A. Scalling, rooth planning,
bone grafts with guided tissue regeneration GTR.
1687. Stephan curve for plaque:

a. Rapid drop under critical ph 5.5 followed by slowly raise.
1688. Patients with high caries activity have low PH and

the PH falls on the lower level:
a. Carbohydrate retained to the tooth has prolonged effect.
b. After rinsing by 10 % glucose, the PH falls within 2 – 3 minutes
below the critical level of PH and remain for about 30 – 50 minutes.
c. Fall the PH below the critical level of PH, the enamel can be
remineralized.
1689. For the prevention of mercury toxicity in the

clinic put it in:
1. Water.
2. Sodium chloride.
3. The appearance of radial.
4. Fixer of radial.
1690. 21 years old pt. has submandiular space infection swelling in

36 area and 38 is missing, on radiograph he has radioloucency
extend in 36 37 38 areas with septal tubercula and root
resorption:
A. Keratocyst.
B. Ameloplastoma.
C. Dentegerous cyst.
1691. Pt. has high mastication forces has caries on posterior teeth
and he want only esthetic restoration:
a. Composite with beveled margins.
b. Composite without beveled margins.
c. Light cured GI.
d. Zinc phosphate cement.
1692. Anomalis during initiation and profilration of tooth

germ will lead to:
a. Amelogenasis imperfecta.
b. Dentinogenasis imperfecta.
c. Dentinal dysplasia.
d. Oligodontia.
* Oligodontia: ‫ﻧﻘﺺ ﻓﻰ ﻋﺪﺩد ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن‬

1693. 8 years patient came to your clinic has impaired hearing, upon
examination his mouth you found copper color lesion, notched
incisor and mass on the occlusal surface of the molars. This
patient has:
A. Congenital syphilis.

B. Gardner's syndrome.
1694. Child 8 years old hearing loss, flush around his mouth
and notches in incisors and bolbuos molars. What is
your diagnosis?
A) Gardner syndrome.
B) Congenital syphilis.
1695. Child 2 years old came to your clinic with his parents,
he has bony lesion bluish-black in color, the most
probable diagnosis is:
A. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor.
B. Gaint cell granuloma.
C. Ameloblastic fibroma.
1696. Autoclaving technique is depending on:

A. Dry heat.
B. Steam heat.
C. Chemicals.
Steam heat or vapour heat or moist heat.
1697. Radiographically interdental bone appears perpendicular to the

CEJ _ if the CEJ of many number of adjacent teeth are not in
the same level, the interdental bone will appear or create
angulations, the both statements are:
a- First true.
b- Both true.
c- Both false.
d- Second true.
1698. Blade of periodontal instrument should be:

A- Perpindicular to long axis.
B- Parallel to long axis.

C- Perpindicular to shank.
* In standard instrument for proper work, the cutting

edge should be:
a. perpendicular to the handle. ***
b. parallel to the handle.
c. acute angle.
d. inverted angle.
1699. The cell primary site of ATP production is:

a- Mitochondria.
b- Lysosomes.
c- Nucleus.
d- Nucleolus.
e- Vacuoles.
1700. The organelle most directly involved in cellular aerobic respiration

is:
a- Ribosome.
b- Mitochondrion.
c- Nucleus.
d- Lysosome.
e- Golgi apparatus.
1701. The organelle most closely associated with the manufacture of

proteins within the cell:
a- Ribosome.
b- Lysosome.
c- Nucleolus.
d- Cell wall.
e- Cell membrane.
1702. The packing and sorting of protein is the function of:

a- Endoplasmic reticulum.
b- Golgi apparatus.
c- Mitochondria.
d- Nucleus.
1703. The process of attraction of neutrophils to a site of local tissue

injury is called:
a- Phagocytosis.
b- Diapedesis.
c- Chemotaxis.
d- Epistaxis.

1704. The process of cell engulfing particle is called:
a- endocytosis.
b- exocytosis.
c- phagocytosis.
d- pinocytosis.
1705. Compomer restorative materials are:

a. Glass ionomer with polymer components.
b. Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses.
c. Composite resin for cervical restorations only.
1706. Balanced occlusion refers to:

a. The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric
occlusion only.
b. The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and
eccentric jaw positions.
c. A type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth.
1707. Fractured tooth to alveolar crest, what's the best way to produce
ferrule effect?
A) Restore with amalgam core sub-gingivally.
B) Crown lengthening.
C) Extrusion with orthodontics.
.


1- decreases with the increase of cavity preparation.
4- Bacterial toxins can pass through before the actual penetration of bacteria.
1709. One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the

ulcers that confined to the attached gingiva and hard palate:
i. True.
ii. False.
• Visicles become ulcers found in attached gingiva, hard palate and lip.
1710. Fordyce's spots is on :

a- Tongue.
b- Oral mucosa.
c- Upper lip .
d- Throat.
‫ ﻭوﺿﻊ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة ﺟﻼﺱس ﺃأﻳﯾﻨﻮﻣﻴﯿﺮ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺣﺸﻮﺓة ﺃأﻣﻠﺠﻢ ﻭوﺣﺪﺙث ﻧﻘﺺ ﻓﻲ‬.1711Marginal
leakage ‫ﺍاﻟﺤﻮﺍاﻑف‬
: ‫ﻓﻤﺎ ﺍاﻟﺴﺒﺐ‬
. ‫ ﺗﺤﺮﺭر ﺍاﻟﻔﻠﻮﺭر ﻓﻮﺭرﺍا ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﺠﻼﺱس‬1
. ‫ ﺍاﻟﻤﻴﯿﻨﺎ ﺍاﻣﺘﺼﺖ ﺍاﻟﻔﻠﻮﺭر ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻟﺠﻼﺱس‬2
. ‫ ﺗﺤﺮﻳﯾﺮ ﺍاﻟﻨﺤﺎﺱس ﻣﻦ ﺍاﻷﻣﻠﺠﻢ‬3
. Wear ‫ ﺍاﻻﻫﮬﮪھﺘﺮﺍاء‬4
* Enamel absorbs the fluoride from GIC restoration leading to marginal leakage.
1712. Best pontic is :
a. Ridge lap.
b. Hygiene.
c. Saddle.
1713. Which of the following events occurs during

dentinogenesis:
a. Odontoblasts become long cuboidal.
b. The matrix and proteoglycans maturate with collagen fibers.
(
1714. 10 years child with congenital heart disease ( or any cardiac

disease ) came for extraction of his lower 1st molar, the antibiotic of
choice for prevention of infective endocarditis is:
a- ampicillin 30mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
b- cephalixin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
c- clindamicin 20mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
d- amoxicillin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
ttt.:
Amoxicillin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
Or also, ampicillin 50 mg/kg im. or iv. 1hour before procedure.
In patients that allergic to amoxicillin or ampicillin, clindamicin 20mg/kg orally 1hour before
procedure is taken.
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
: ‫ﺃأﺣﺪﺙث ﺃأﺳﺌﻠﺔﺑﺎﻟﻤﻨﺘﺪﻯى‬
1715. Child 3 years old with congenital heart disease and
has deep caries with diffuse abscess and he is transfered
to hospital for special management. What they will give
the child before start:
A- Endocarditis prophilaxis.
B- Intravenous antibiotic.
1716. Patient has ulcers on the cheek and lip and has
bull's eye lesion ‫ ( ﻋﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﺜﻮﺭر‬or: target lesion ) with
surrounded odema and erythema on the hand and foot.
What’s your diagnosis:
A- Herpetic ulcer.
B- Bollus pemphigoid.
C- Erythema multiform.
D- Bahget's desease.
1717. A 45 years old patient with badly broken upper second molar
which will be extracted. After the dentist injected the local
anesthesia, patient complaints from nausea & blood perssure
became 100 \ 70 ‫ ﺍاﻟﻀﻐﻂ ﻭوﺍاﻁطﻰ‬. When dentist asks the patient about
his medical condition he informs dentist that he is under ttt. of
osteoarthritis. ‫ ﺍاﻟﺘﻬﮭﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﻤﻔﺎﺻﻞ ﺍاﻟﻤﺰﻣﻦ‬
What is the cause of this condition?
1. Hypotension.
2. Bronchial asthma.
3. Adrenal insufficiency.
‫ ﻷﻥن ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﻳﯾﺾ ﺑﻴﯿﺎﺧﺪ ﻛﻮﺭرﺗﻴﯿﺰﻭوﻥن ﻟﻌﻼﺝج ﺍاﻟﺘﻬﮭﺎﺏب ﺍاﻟﻤﻔﺎﺻﻞ ﺍاﻟﻤﺰﻣﻦ‬Adrenal insufficiency

. ‫ﻭوﻛﺎﻥن ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻳﯾﻀﺎﻋﻒ ﺟﺮﻋﺔ ﺍاﻟﻜﻮﺭرﺗﻴﯿﺰﻭوﻥن ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍاﻟﺨﻠﻊ ﺑﺴﺎﻋﺔ ﻟﻬﮭﺬﺍا ﺣﺪﺙث ﺍاﻟﻐﺜﻴﯿﺎﻥن ﺃأﻭو ﺍاﻟﺪﻭوﺧﺔ‬
1718. Salivary gland disease ( tumor ) with perineural invasion:
1. Pleomorphic adenoma.
2. Adenocyctic carcinoma.
1719. Parotid malignancy shows perineural spread is seen as:

A. Warthon’s path.
B. Ductal papilloma.
C. Polymorphic adenoma.
D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
* Adenocyctic carcinoma = Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
1720. AH26 is a root canal sealer:

A- contains zinc oxide.
B- contains steroids.
C- is an epoxy resin.
D- all of the above.

1721. All except one present in zinc phosphate cement
liquid:
1- Water.
2- H2SO4.
3- H3PO4.
4- ALPO4.
1722. Sequence of color shade:

1- chroma hue value.
2- value chroma hue.
3- chroma value hue.
1723. Most common type of porcelain in dentistry is:

1- High fusion.
2- Medium fusion.
3- Low fusion.
1724. In removable partial denture, lack of indirect

retention would be manifestated:
1- tissue ward movement of distal extension base.
2- movement of extension base away from tissue. 3- settling major
connector of prosthesis.
* The principal function of an indirect retainer is to:

c) Minimize movement of the base away from supporting tissue. ***
d) Restrict tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the partial
denture.
1725. Sequence of treatment planning:

A. Opertive, endo, perio, surgery and ortho.
B. Endo, perio, operative, surgery and ortho.
C. Perio, endo, operative, surgery and ortho.
D. B & C.
1726. A patient came to you with multiple vesicles on the

attached gingiva in the area of upper anteriors after having
extensive dental treatment the day before, what is the possible
cause of the ulcers?
a- recurrent herpes gingivostomatitis.

b- recurrent aphthous ulcer.
c- mucositis.
1727. During the designing of a partial denture ( lingual bar

) in the lower arch for a patient what will u start with?
a- upper border of the bar.
b- inferior border of the bar.
c- designing the rest seats location. d- extension of the
denture base.
* Which will design first in the study cast of RPD with a

lingual bar major connector:
A. The lower border of lingual bar major connector.
B. The upper border of lingual bar. ***
C. Indirect rest and rest seat.
1728. A child with trauma and swollen lip for the last few
days, no pain and teeth are good, what will u do next?
a- take an x-ray of the lip to exclude any foreign object.
b- cold packs to manage the swelling.
c- anti inflammatory drugs.
1729. When you do RCT and you want to prescribe an

antibiotic. What's the drug of choice:
A- clindamycin.
B- erythromycin.
C- penicillin.
D- metronidazol.
* But, in the difficult cases ( as abscesses ): a combination of penicillin and

metronidazol should be taken.
* In case of penicillin allergy, clindamycin is taken.
1730. Child 10 years old came to you with truma on

maxillary central incisor before 36 hours and has large
pulp exposure. What will you do:
A- pulpectomy with calcium hydroxide.
B- pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide.
direct pulp capping. C-
D- extraction.
1731. Mutant streptococci is:

A- endemic.
B- epidemic.
1732. Best cold test for pulp:

A- ice pack.
B- chloroethyl.
C- endodontic ice spray.
Best cold test for pulp is: endodontic ice spray = endo special ice.
* The most superior way to test the vitality of the tooth with:
A- Ice pack.
B- Chloroethyl.
C- Endo special ice. ***
D- Cold water spray.
* Cold test by “endo special ice or endodontic ice spray” and percussion test are
the two most important tests in pulp vitality diagnosis.
1733. Over exposure of nitrous oxide inhibits metabolism

of vitamin:
A. vitamin d.
B. vitamin b12.
C. vitamin b6.
1734. What is the smallest area in root canal:

A- apex in radiograph.
B- cementoenamel junction.
C- dentinoenamel junction.
D- cementodentinal junction.
‫ ﻓﺎﺫذﺍا ﻭوﺟﺪﺕت ﻁطﺒﻌﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا‬apical constriction ‫ﻭوﻓﻰ ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل ﺃأﺧﺮ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻓﻴﯿﻬﮭﺎ‬
. ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻫﮬﮪھﺎ ﻷﻧﻬﮭﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺍاﻷﺻﺢ ﻭوﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺃأﺻﻐﺮ ﺟﺰء ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻘﻨﺎﺓة ﺍاﻟﺠﺬﺭرﻳﯾﺔ ﻋﻠﻰ ﺍاﻻﻁطﻼﻕق‬
* Which part of root canal diameter is the smallest:
i. Radigraphical apex.
ii. Apical foramin.
iii. Apical constriction. ***
* Apical foramen is the largest part in the root canal.
1735. Apical foramen:

1- Content in the apex of root.
2- Detected by apexolocator.
3- In the lateral canal.
4- Releted to orifice.
‫ ﻣﻌﺎ ﻓﻄﺒﻌﺎﺍاﺍاﺍا ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﺃأﻣﺎ ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﺟﺎء ﻛﻤﺎ‬2 & 1 ‫ ﻭوﺍاﺫذﺍا ﺟﺎء ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻓﻴﯿﻪﮫ‬2 ‫ ﻭوﺃأﻳﯾﻀﺎ ﺭرﻗﻢ‬1 ‫ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺭرﻗﻢ‬
. ‫ ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ‬1 ‫ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻖ ﻓﻬﮭﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺭرﻗﻢ‬
1736. All these materials are used in the impression for

partial denture with distal extention except:
1- plastic pearl.
2- elastic.
3- silicon.
4- zoe.
1737. All these causes xerostomia except:

1- antidepressant agent.
2- complete denture.
3- radiotherapy.
4- defect in salivary gland.

‫ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻟﻢ ﻳﯾﻜﻦ‬Non of the above ‫* ﻛﻞ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻘﺔ ﺗﺴﺒﺐ ﺟﻔﺎﻑف ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻟﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬
antihistaminics " ‫ ﻭوﻁطﺒﻌﺎ‬. ‫ ﻭوﺫذﻟﻚ ﻻﻧﻪﮫ ﻳﯾﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺃأﻗﻞ ﺳﺒﺐ ﻟﺤﺪﻭوﺙث ﺟﻔﺎﻑف ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ‬2 ‫ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩدﺍا ﻓﺎﻧﻨﺎ ﺳﻨﻀﻄﺮ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺭرﻗﻢ‬
. ‫ &" ﻫﮬﮪھﻢ ﺃأﺷﻬﮭﺮ ﺃأﺩدﻭوﻳﯾﺔ ﺗﺴﺒﺐ ﺟﻔﺎﻑف ﺍاﻟﻔﻢ‬antidepressants
1738. Why we use caoh between visits in RCT:

1- antibacterial.
2- formation hard tissue.
3- primary seal.
4- resorption pathology.
1739. The ratio of organic to inorganic material is

approximately the same in:
a- cementum and dentin.
b- compact bone and cementum.
c- spongy bone and dentin.
d- alveolar compact bone and spongy bone.
e- all of the above.
1740. Retentive grooves:

1. Always axiobuccal and axiolingual.
2. Prevent lateral displacement of restoration.
3. Is axiopulpal and axiogingival.
1741. Indirect retainer mostly needed:

1- class VI.
2- class I.
3- class III.
* Indirect retainer is used with classes I, II & IV.
1742. You make extraction to lower third molar and

need suture so you hold soft tissue by:
1- Stillies forceps.
2- Adson forceps.
3- Curved hemostat.
* Stillies forceps holds soft tissues as flaps during suturing but

in the posterior area because it’s long.
* Adson forceps holds soft tissues as flaps during suturing but
in the anterior area because it’s short.
* Allis forceps holds large and fibrous tissues to be removed in
exision as Epulis Fisuratum.
* Curved hemostat: is uses to hold artery or vein if incised
during surgery to stop the bleeding and may be known as
arterial forceps and it’s a needle holder that holding the needle
for suturing.
1743. Firm neck node, what the diagnosis:

1- Squamous cell carcinoma.
2- Basal cell carcinoma.
3- Ameloblastoma.
1744. You deliver denture then the patient comes

complaining he says F like V why:
1- maxillary anterior too superior. 2- maxillary
anterior too forward.
3- lower anterior too superior.
4- lower anterior too forward.
* If the upper anterior teeth are too short ( too far superiorly ), the pt.
will say V as F.
* If the upper anterior teeth are too long ( too far inferiorly ), the pt. will
say F as V.
‫ ﺣﺘﻰ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺒﻬﮭﺎ ﺯزﻯى ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻟﺴﺎﺑﻖ ﻣﻌﻜﻮﺳﺔ ﻣﺶ ﺯزﻯى‬:‫ﺑﺲ ﻻﺣﻆ ﺟﻴﯿﺪﺍا‬

‫ ﺑﺮﺩدﻭو ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﺗﺒﻊ ﺍاﻻﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻻﻣﺎﻣﻴﯿﺔ‬.. ‫ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻓﻮﻕق ﺩدﻭوﻝل‬
‫ﺍاﻟﻌﻠﻮﻳﯾﺔ ﺳﻮﺍاء ﻗﺎﻝل ﻗﺼﻴﯿﺮﺓة ﺃأﻭو ﻁطﻮﻳﯾﻠﺔ ﺃأﻭو ﻁطﺎﻟﻌﺔ ﻟﻔﻮﻕق ﺃأﻭو ﻧﺎﺯزﻟﺔ ﻟﺘﺤﺖ ﺍاﻻ ﻟﻮ ﺟﺎﺏب‬
‫ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺑﺘﻮﻉع ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻓﻜﺪﺓة ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﻤﺸﻰ ﺣﺴﺐ‬
. ‫ ﻭوﻛﻤﺎﻥن ﻣﻠﻜﺶ ﺩدﻋﻮﺓة ﺧﺎﻟﺺ ﺑﺎﻻﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﺴﻔﻠﻴﯿﺔ‬. ‫ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ‬

* Patient with complete denture pronouncing F as a V:

A. Anterior teeth are upward from lip line.
B. Anterior teeth are downward from lip line. ***

‫ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺎ ﻁطﺎﻟﻤﺎ ﺟﺎﺏب ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ ﻣﻊ ﺑﻌﺾ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻧﻤﺸﻰ ﺣﺴﺐ‬ *
. ‫ﺍاﻟﻘﺎﻋﺪﺗﻴﯿﻦ‬
* Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete denture

too superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in
pronouncing:
a) f and v sounds. ***
b) d and t sounds.
c) s and th sounds.
d) most vowels.
* Patient with complete denture pronouncing F as a V:

A. Maxillary anterior teeth had placed too far from superiorly and anteriorly. ***
B. Mandibular anterior teeth had placed too far from inferiorly.
C. Maxillary anterior teeth had placed too palataly.

* Pt. have a complete denture came to the clinic, tell you no complaint in
the talking or in the chewing, but when you exam him, you see the upper
lip like too long, deficient in the margins of the lip, reason is?
A) Deficiency in the vertical dimension. ***
B) Anterior upper teeth are short.
C) Deficient in vit. B.

1745. Frankel appliance is used in:
A. Prevent oral habit.
B. Prevent cross bite.
* Frankel appliance is an orthodontic appliance used to prevent cross bite and

treat classes I, II or III malocclusions.
1746. What can not diagnosed by radiography:

a- Proximal caries. ‫ﻳﯾﺸﺨﺺ ﺑﺎﻻﺷﻌﺔ‬
b- Abscesses. ‫ﻳﯾﺸﺨﺺ ﺑﺎﻻﺷﻌﺔ‬
c- Severe gingivitis. ‫ﻳﯾﺸﺨﺺ ﺑﺎﻷﺷﻌﺔ‬
d- …………….
‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻭوﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻋﻠﻰ ﺣﺴﺐ ﻣﺘﻴﯿﺠﻰ ﻭوﺗﻘﺎﺭرﻥن ﺑﻴﯿﻨﻬﮭﺎ‬ d ‫ﺃأﻋﺘﻘﺪ‬
. ‫ ﻭوﺗﺤﺪﺩد ﺃأﻳﯾﻬﮭﻤﺎ ﺍاﻷﺻﺢ‬c ‫ﻭوﺑﻴﯿﻦ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬
////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
////////////////////////////////////////
1747. Enamel rods form the main structure of enamel, they

extend from the DEJ toward the dental pulp:
1- true.
2- false.
* Enamel rods = Enamel prisms.
* Enamel rods ( enamel prisms ) form the main structure of the enamel. It’s
the basic and the largest structural elements of the enamel. These rods extend from
the dentinoenamel junction DEJ toward the enamel.
1748. 8 years old child present to the clinic with a fractured

crown of upper central incisor and the pulp is slightly
exposed and bleeds superficially, Rx:
1- direct pulp cap.
2- pulpectomy.
3- pulpotomy.
4- apexification.
1749. Fracture upper central incisor in 8 years old child

with pulp exposure, management is:
a. Apixification.
b. Pulpotomy.
c. RCT.
1750. When removing moist ( soft ) carious dentin which
exposes the pulp , dentist should:
1- do direct pulp cap.
2- do indirect pulp cap.
3- prepare for endo.
1751. Treatment of a periodontal abscess caused by a foreign

body is:
1- gingivectomy.
2- antibiotics.
3- elimination of the pocket.
4- none of the above.
* Treatment of a periodontal abscess caused by a foreign body is: elimination of the

causative factor that’s the foreign body.
1752. Stainless steel pins are used mainly in amalgam to

enhance:
1- retention.
2- strength.
3- resistance form.
4- all of the above.
* Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for:

a. Increase retention.
b. Increase resistance.
b. Increase strength.
c. a and b. ***
Pins increase both retention and resistance forms

but mainly the retention.
Post ‫ﻭوﻧﻔﺲ ﺍاﻟﻜﻼﻡم ﺗﻤﺎﻣﺎ ﻣﻊ ﺍاﻟﺒﻮﺳﺖ‬
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
1753. Buccal frenum:

a- the oral activities in this area are horizontal as well as vertical so wider clearance is
usually needed.
b- it is usually in the areas of the first premolars.
c- the center of the denture will be a little narrow in this area due to the activity of the
levator anguli muscle.
d- the center of the denture will be a little narrow in this area due to the activity of the
depressor anguli muscle.
e- a, b and d.
f- a, b and c.
1754. The finishing line form on prepared tooth for metal

ceramic crowns should be:
a- sharp internal line angle f.l.
b- marginal step f.l.
c- feather edge f.l.
d- chamfer, shoulder, or shoulder beveld f.l.
1755. Which one of the following impression materials is

inelastic ( rigid ), sets by acid base reaction:
a- impression plaster.
b- zinc oxide eugenol.
c- alginate.
e- thiokol rubber.
* Zinc oxide eugenol impression material: is inelastic ( rigid ) material and its setting is
done by a chemical reaction ( acid base reaction ).
1756. Optimal ( or ideal ) crown root ratio and minimal

acceptable ratio is:
a- 1:1 and 2:3 respictivly.
b- irrelevant as long as there is no mobility.
c- 3:2 and 1:1 respectively.
d- 2:3 and 1:1 respictively.
e- irrelevant as long as ants law satisefied.
* The ideal crown to root ratio of a tooth be utilized as a

bridge abutment is:
a- 3:1
b- 2:1
c- 1:2
d- 1:1 ***
‫* ﻫﮬﮪھﻀﻄﺮ ﺃأﺧﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻷﺧﻴﯿﺮﺓة ﺭرﻏﻢ ﺃأﻧﻬﮭﺎ ﻟﻴﯿﺴﺖ ﺍاﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﺍاﻷﻳﯾﺪﻳﯾﺎﻝل‬

optimal ( or ideal ) ratio
minimal acceptable ratio ‫ﺑﻞ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺍاﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﺍاﻟﻤﻘﺒﻮﻟﺔ ﻋﻠﻰ ﺍاﻷﻗﻞ‬
‫ﻭوﻟﻜﻨﻬﮭﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻰ ﺍاﻟﻮﺣﻴﯿﺪﺓة ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﻭوﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻟﻠﻰ ﻗﺒﻠﻪﮫ ﺑﻴﯿﻮﺿﺢ ﺍاﻟﻨﺴﺐ‬
. ‫ﺍاﻟﺼﺤﻴﯿﺤﺔ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﺎ‬
1757. Important part of the distal extention RPD that

maintains the stability:
A- Retentive arm.
B- Reciprocal arm.
C- Occlusal rest.
D- Denture base.

1758. The distal extention RPD receives its suppot:
A. From terminal abutments.
B. Mostly from residual ridge.
C. Equally from abutments and residual ridges.
D. Exclusively from residual ridge.
E. Denture base.
1759. The retraction cord displaces the tissue:

a- laterally.
b- apically.
c- apically and laterally.
* The retraction cord displaces the tissue apically and laterally 0.5 mm away from
tooth preparation.
1760. Chemomechanical tissue retraction:

A. Displaces the gingival tissue laterally.
B. Displaces the gingival tissue apically.
C. Causes shrinkage of gingival tissue.
D. Causes tearing of gingival tissue attachment.
. ‫* ﻫﮬﮪھﺬﺍا ﺍاﻟﻨﻮﻉع ﺑﺎﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ ﺑﻴﯿﻮﺳﻊ ﺍاﻷﻧﺴﺠﺔ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻴﯿﺎﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍاﺍا ﻓﻘﻂ‬

Chemomechanical tissue retraction = Chemomechanical retraction cord.
1761. Which of impression materials has syneresis: ‫ﻓﻘﺪﺍاﻥن ﺍاﻟﻤﺎء‬

A. Alginate.
B. Agar agar.
C. Silicons.
• Syneresis and impitition: ‫ﻓﻘﺪﺍاﻥن ﺍاﻟﻤﺎء ﻭوﺍاﻣﺘﺼﺎﺹص ﺍاﻟﻤﺎء‬

occur in both alginate and agar agar but it’s more in alginate.
‫ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻟﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻳﯾﺠﻤﻊ ﺍاﻟﺨﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻷﻭوﻝل ﻭوﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﺟﻪﮫ ﺯزﻯى ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺩدﺍا‬
. ‫ﻫﮬﮪھﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﺍاﻷﻭوﻟﻰ ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ‬
: ‫ﻟﻜﻦ ﺷﻮﻑف ﺍاﻟﺴﺆﺍاﻝل ﺩدﺍا ﻭوﺍاﺿﺢ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺨﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت‬
1762. Which one of the following materials undergoes

syneresis?
a. Alginate.

b. Rubber Base.
c. Polyether.
d. Impression Compound.
e. Silicone Rubber.
1763. Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by

a physical reaction, and is subject to syneresis and imbibition?
a. Irreversible Hydrocolloid.
b. Reversible Hydrocolloid.
c. Polysulfide Rubber.
d. Condensation Silicone.
e. Polyether.
1764. Which material undergoes to hysteresis:

A. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
B. Reversible hydrocolloid.
C. Impresssion plaster.
D. Metallic oxide paste.
Reversible hydrocolloid = agar agar.

Irreversible hydrocolloid = alginate.
Reversible and Irreversible hydrocolloids ( agar agar and alginate ) are
elastic impression materials and have the properties of syneresis and
imbibition.
But the difference between them:
Agar agar sets by a physical reaction and this reaction is reversible.
Alginate sets by a chemical reaction and this reaction is irreversible.
Syneresis and imbibition are more in alginate than in agar agar.
Only, agar agar has the property of hysteresis.
Alginate is the least accurate impression material.
1765. Which is the least accurate impression material:

A. Agar agar.
B. Alginate.
C. Compound.
D. Silicone.
1766. Which is the most accurate impression material:
A. Agar agar.
B. Alginate.
C. Compound.
D. Silicone.
* Silicone = Additional type silicone = Polyvinyl siloxane .

1767. Zinc phosphate cement thickness to be between:
a- 13 - 35 um.
b- 25 - 40 um.
c- 60 - 100 um.
d- Thickness acceptable is not specified.
* The maximum thickness for a type I zinc phosphate cement is 25 um.

* The maximum thickness of a type II zinc phosphate cement is 40 um.
* But, the thickness of zinc phosphate cement to provide effective thermal insulation ( zinc
phosphate cement base ) should be between 0.5 – 1 mm.
1768. Denture pressure on the papilla can cause:

a- parathesia.
b- pain.
c- burning sensation. d- relief should be
provided.
e- all of the above.
1769. The most common difficulty associated with patients

suffering from neuromascular disorders in construction of
complete denture is:
a- recording jaw relation.
b- difficult in impression making.
c- difficult in arrangement of posterior teeth.
d- difficult in border molding the impression.
1770. Immediate denture serves many of the following except

one:
a- maintanance of the patient appearance.
b- improving the appearance of the patient.
c- restoring adequate function of proprioception.
d- less ridge resorption occurs.
1771. Etiology of subpontic osseous hyperplasia: ( OR subpontic

exostosis )
a- Chronic irritation.
b- Exessive functional stresses.
‫ ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻟﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﻳﯾﺠﻤﻊ ﺑﻴﯿﻨﻬﮭﻤﺎ ﻁطﺒﻌﺎ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭرﻩه ﺑﺲ ﻟﻮ ﻻﺯزﻡم ﻧﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬.. ‫* ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﻥن ﺻﺤﻴﯿﺤﺎﻥن‬
. ‫ﻭوﺍاﺣﺪ ﻓﻘﻂ ﻳﯾﺒﻘﻰ ﻫﮬﮪھﻨﺨﺘﺎﺭر ﺍاﻻﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر ﺍاﻟﺜﺎﻧﻰ ﺍاﻥن ﺷﺎء ﷲ‬
* Subpontic osseous hyperplasia: developed more in posterior mandibular
bridge.
* Etiology of subpontic osseous hyperplasia:
1. Chronic gingival irritation.
2. Exessive functional stresses.
1772. Constituant of alginate which is insoluble is:

a- calcium alginate.
b- sodium alginate.
c- sodium sulfate.

/////////////////////////////////////
1773. Hand cutting instruments are composed of:
A. Handle and neck.
B. Handle and blade only.
C. Handle, shank and blade.
D. Handle, neck and shank.
E. Handle, neck, shank, and blade.
1774. Use of water spray during cutting procedures have

following advantages:
A. Dehydration of oral tissues.
B. Tooth restorative material and other debris are carried away.
C. Pulp is protected from heat.
D. Clean view of cavity can be achieved.
E. Bacterial contamination controlled.
1775. G.V. Black concluded that the following areas on tooth

surface are relatively non self cleanable:
A. Pits and fissures.
B. Tips and cusps.
C. Crests of marginal / crusing ridges.
D. All inclined planes of cusps and ridges.
E. Fossae.
1776. Senile ( geriatric ‫ ) ﺍاﻟﻤﺮﺿﻰ ﺍاﻟﻌﻮﺍاﺟﻴﯿﺰ‬carious lesions are most

commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the teeth:
A. Pits and fissures.
B. Oulusal, incisal, facial and lingual embrasures.
C. Inclined planes of cusps.
D. Root surfaces of teeth.
E. Interdental surfaces.
1777. The main advantage in developing high copper amalgam

alloy is:
A. Elimination of gamma 1 phase.
B. Increase the strength of amalgam.
C. Decrease the flow value of amalgam.
D. Elimination of gamma phase 2.
E. Reduce the conductivity of amalgam.

1778. In a cavity preparation cavo-surface margin will be
junction between:
A. Cavity wall / floor and adjacent tooth surface.
B. Cavity wall and floor.
C. Floor of occlusal box and proximal box.
D. Proximal wall of one tooth with another.
E. Axial wall and occlusal floor.
1779. The optimum depth of a self threading pin for an amalgam

restoration is:
A. 0.5 mm.
B. 1 mm.
C. 2 mm.
D. 4 mm.
E. 5 mm.
1780. Diamonds are superior bur for cutting:

A. Cementum.
B. Dentin.
C. Enamel.
D. Soft tissues .
E. Carries.
1781. Class III amalgam restorations are usually prepared on:

A. Distal surfaces of anterior teeth.
B. Mesial surfaces of canine.
C. Distal surfaces of canine.
D. Distal surfaces of incisors and mesial surfaces of canine.
E. Mesial and distal surfaces of all the teeth.
1782. The final finishing of silicate / glass ionomer restorations

is done after:
A. 7½ minutes.
B. 24 hours.
C. 30 minutes.
D. 1 hour.
E. 1 minute.
1783. Pits and fissure sealants are usually derived from:

A. BIS-GMA resin.
B. Polyurethames.
C. Zinc phosphate.
D. Both A and B.
E. Ataconic acid.
1784. Instruments used for handling resins are made of:
A. Stainless steel.
B. Carbon steel.
C. Teflon coated metal.
D. Platinum.
E. Gold.
1785. Tooth surfaces involved in class II design 6 are:

A. Occlusal, proximal, part of facial and lingual surfaces.
B. Occlusal, facial and lingual surfaces.
C. Proximal and facial / lingual surfaces.
D. Proximal, axial angle and facialcervical.
E. Two or more surfaces of endodontically treated tooth.
1786. In class V design 3 cavity preparation, extension looks

like:
A. Y.
B. Snake eye.
C. Moustache.
D. Dove-tail.
E. Kidney shape.
1787. Toilet of cavity is:

A. Removal of debris by washing with H2O.
B. Removal of debris by cold air spray.
C. Removal of debris by hot air spray.
D. Washing the cavity with soap solution.
E. Washing the cavity with medicament.
1788. Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration

is seen at:
A. Cavosurface margin.
B. The contact area.
C. The isthmus area.
D. Proximal box.
E. Gingival floor.
1789. The most widely used irrigant displaying optimal

cleansing bactericidal properties is:
A. Formocresol.
B. Sodium Hypochlorite.
C. Saline.
D. Hydrogen peroxide.
E. Gultraldehyde.
1790. Pain on percussion before endodontic treatment

indicates:
A. Reversible pulpitis.
B. Irreversible pulpitis.
C. Pulp necrosis.
D. Inflammation of periodontal tissues.
E. Exposed dentine.
1791. For the extripation of entire pulp, necrotic debris, and

foreign material, one should use:
A. Raemers.
B. Files.
C. Barbed broaches.
D. Burs.
E. Plain broaches.
1792. In RCT, over preparation of the outer wall of the optical

curvature of the canal with inflexible instrument will cause:
A. Zipping.
B. Perforation.
C. Elbow formation.
D. Ledge formation.
E. Crazing.
* Zipping = Apical zip.
* You make a ledge in the canal. You want to correct this. What is
the most complication occur in this step:
b. Apical zip.
c. Stripping.
d. Perforation.
* Ledge = Step
* Perforation = Apical perforation = Perforation of the apex.
* Stripping = Stripping perforation = Lateral perforation = Perforation of the strip.

1793. While examining the RCT done by other dentist, you find a
case where the radiograph shows densely packed gutta-percha
in coronal third but poorly packed in apical third, the most likely
cause is:
A. Excessive packing of dentine chips in apical one third.
B. Failure to coat accessing cones with sealers.
C. Failure to obtain proper depth of penetration with compacting instrument.
D. Too much root canal sealer.
E. Use of accessory cones with fine tips.
* compacting instrument = spreder.

1794. A patient presents with a draining sinus tract in labial
vestibule of a maxillary central incisor. To confirm your
diagnosis about the origin of pathoses you should:
A. Open the concerned root chamber.
B. Taking the bite-wing radiograph.
C. Thread gutta-percha through the root canal and expose a radiograph.
D. Thread gutta-percha through the tract and expose a radiograph.
E. Measure the periodontal pocket.
1795. Which of the following is the appropriate file for removing

gutta-percha from root canals?
A. K file.
B. H file.
C. Flexo file.
D. S file.
E. Rat tail type.
1796. A young 12 years old boy presents with reddish over-

growth of tissue, protending from carious exposure in lower
molar. What may be the possible diagnosis?
A. Pulp polyp.
B. Pulpal hyperemia.
C. Varicosed polyp.
D. Pulpal granuloma.
E. Gum boil.
1797. An 8 years old boy presents with class III fracture of

tooth#11, which appeared an hour ago, the apex is not closed.
Your treatment should be:
A. Direct pulp capping with Ca(OH)2.
B. Pulpectomy follows by RCT.
C. Pulpotomy and fill with Ca(OH)2.
D. Smoothening of ledges and restore with composite.
E. Restoration with Glass ionomer cement.
1798. What is the space between the lateral incisor and canine
called in maxillary deciduous teeth?
A. Leeway space.
B. Primate space.
C. Freeway space.
D. Bolton space.
E. Interdental space.
1799. The recommended concentration of fluoride in communal

water supply is:
A. 0.1 ppm.
B. 0.5 ppm
C. 1.0 ppm.
D. 2.0 ppm
E. 5 ppm.
1800. The pulp chamber in milk teeth in proportion to that of

permanent teeth is:
A. Bigger in milk teeth.
B. Smaller in milk teeth.
C. Same in both teeth.
D. Absent in milk teeth
E. Less vascular in milk teeth.
1801. The treatment of choice for vital, wide apex tooth which
shows pulp exposure is:
A. Pulpotomy.
B. Pulpectomy.
C. Apexification.
D. Apexogenesis.
E. Indirect pulp capping.
1802. What is the common cause of failure of pulpotomy that

employs Ca(OH)2 in primary molars?
A. Pulp fibrosis.
B. Pulp calcification.
C. Ankylosis.
D. Internal resorption.
E. Profused bleeding.

• The ph of ca(oh)2 is 12 ( alkaline ph ) that causes pulp irritation and internal resorption
so, ca(oh)2 or pulpotomy with ca(oh)2 not used with the primary teeth. While in permanent
teeth, it’s used as it forms a reparative dentin and treat internal and external root
resorption.
1803. The walking bleach technique is:

A. Use heat treatment.
B. Requires patients to report in 24 hours.
C. Can be done in poorly obturated canals.
D. Uses mixtures of sodium perborate and 3% hydrogen peroxide.
E. Tooth stain remover ( hydrochloric acid ).
1804. Recapitulation is:

A. Uses successively larger files to flare the canals.
B. Removing the debris with smaller instruments than the instruments that go to apex.
C. Circumferential filing with H files.
D. Using various types of files and reamers to enlarge canals.
E. Irrigation of canals with sodium hypochlorite.
1805. Biologically active sealer which promote peri-apical

healing contains:
A. ZnO Engenol.
B. Cortico-steroids.
C. Ca(OH)2.
D. Silver-points.
E. Zinc phosphate.
1806. In esthetic dentistry, color of the tooth is:

A. Hue.
B. Chroma
C. Value.
D. Translusency.
E. Prismatic effects.
1807. Post crown is indicated in the following case:

A. Insufficient coronal tooth portion.
B. Loss of enamel but dentine is still left in crown.
C. Insufficient root portion of tooth.
D. Middle third fracture of root.
E. Erosion of tooth substance.
1808. A stabilized root fracture with evidence of hyper-

calcification of pulpal space requires:
A. No further treatment.
B. Endotherapy with gutta percha.
C. Endotherapy with Ca(OH)2.
D. Surgical removal of apical segment.
E. Post retained crown.
1809. While making a crown for erosion of tooth substance,

ideal choice of crown is:
A. Porcelain crown.
B. Metal crown.
C. Porcelain fused metal crown.
D. Acrylic crown.
E. Partial crown.
1810. In patients showing generalized attrition, normal

treatment prior to crown preparation is:
A. Desensitization of crown of tooth.
B. Periodontal surgery.
C. Sealing.
D. Conventional root canal treatment.
E. Crown built up with composite.
1811. Temporary crown / bridge is made to last for short period

of time to:
A. Protect prepared dentin.
B. To maintain appearance.
C. To prevent tilting / overeruption of prepared tooth.
D. Maintain occlusion.
E. Improve masticatry process.
1812. Identify the macromechanical minimal preparation bridge:

A. Resin bounded bridge.
B. Adhesive bridge.
C. Maryland bridge.
D. Conventional bridge.
E. Rochette bridge.
* The micromechanical minimal preparation bridge is maryland bridge.
1813. How many surfaces does the pontic has:

A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.
D. Seven.
E. Two.
1814. Cast, soldered and porcelain are three types of:

A. Fixed connectors.
B. Movable connectors.
C. Partial connectors.
D. Both A and B.
E. Temporary connectors.
1815. A good treatment plan in planning the bridge is:

A. To inform the patient about present condition extent of proposed treatment time
and cost.
B. Not to tell anything to the patient.
C. Patients detailed past dental history.
D. Patient must know about drawbacks of treatment.
E. The patient should be only told the minimum possible things mainly about time and
cost.
1816. Which crown will have the maximum retention:

A. Full cast crown.
B. ¾ crown and no grooves.
C. 3/5 crown and groove.
D. 7/8 crown and groove.
E. Post retain crown.
1817. Tooth buds generally initiated after birth are:

A. Entire permanent dentition.
B. All permanent and some primary teeth.
C. First and second premolars and second and third molars only.
D. It is very variable.
E. Lower central incisors only.
. ‫* ﻟﻜﻦ ﺑﻘﻴﯿﺔ ﺍاﻷﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﻛﻠﻬﮭﺎ ﺑﺨﻼﻑف ﺍاﻟﻤﺬﻛﻮﺭرﻳﯾﻦ ﺑﺘﺘﻜﻮﻥن ﺍاﻟﺒﺮﺍاﻋﻢ ﺑﺘﺎﻋﺘﻬﮭﺎ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍاﻟﻤﻴﯿﻼﺩد‬
1818. The most common type of odontogenic cyst is the: OR : The most
common type of inflammatory odontogenic cyst is the:
A. Dentegirous cyst.
B. Periapical cyst.
C. Odontogenic keratocyst.

D. Residual cyst.
* Periapical cyst = Radicular cyst = Dental cyst.
1819. The most common type of developmental odontogenic cyst is the:

A. Dentegirous cyst.
B. Periapical cyst.
C. Odontogenic keratocyst.
D. Residual cyst.
* The most common odontogenic cyst is the periapical cyst ( radicular

cyst / dental cyst ).
* The second most common odontogenic cyst is the dentigerous cyst (
follicular cyst ).
* The third most common odontogenic cyst is the keratocyst ( primordial
cyst ).
/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
‫ﻧﺴﺘﺒﻌﺪ ﺍاﻟﻐﻠﻂ‬
large exposure & non-vital tooth‫ ﺩدﻱي ﻧﻌﻤﻠﻬﮭﺎ ﻓﻲ‬apexification ‫ﺑﺎﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﻝل‬
pulplectomy : ‫ﺑﺎﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﻝل‬
permanent ‫ ﻭوﻟﻴﯿﺲ‬primary molars , ‫ﺑﻨﻌﻤﻠﻬﮭﺎ ﻓﻲ‬partial
. ‫ ﻳﯾﻜﻮﻥن ﻣﻘﻔﻮﻝل ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻻﺳﻨﺎﻥن ﺍاﻟﻠﺒﻨﻴﯿﺔ ﺃأﻳﯾﻀﺎ‬Apex ‫ ﻻﺯزﻡم ﺍاﻝل‬RCT ‫ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻲ‬complete
‫ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺑﻴﯿﺘﻌﻤﻞ ﻓﻲ‬direct pulp capping

small pin point exposure (during preparation),early,no bleeding at the exposure site or an amount
the would be considered normal(but no hyperemia or inflammation),
pulpotomy ‫ﺑﺼﺮﺍاﺣﺔ ﻫﮬﮪھﻮ ﺍاﻟﻠﻲ ﻛﺎﻥن ﻣﺤﻴﯿﺮﻧﻲ ﻣﻊ ﺍاﻝل‬
pulpotomy
primary &young permanent teeth ,vital,no root completion ,slight amount of bleeding at ‫ﺑﻴﯿﺘﻌﻤﻞ ﻓﻲ‬
the exposure site considered within normal
small exposure(and patient reported late) or large exposure(and patient reported early


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-­‐ 2014 Revision

Orginal documents were by Dr. Maestro Dr. Somod (d.somod@hotmail.com)

Please contact me at mohsen@ozident.com for further information or correction

1|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

2. The periodontium comprises which of the following tissues:

3. The following chemically bonds to the tooth:

5. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:

6. What’s the first sign of Syncope:

8. Loss of consciousness, most frequent cause:

9. Orthognathic ridge relationship ( class II ) presents several problems

* Orthognathic Ridge Relationship:

10. Class III jaw relation in edentulous Pt.:

11. Planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:

12. The posterior extension of maxillary complete denture

‫* ﻳﯾﻌﻨﻰ ﻣﻔﺮﻭوﺽض ﺍاﻟﺜﻼﺙث ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭرﺍاﺕت ﺑﻴﯿﺴﺘﺨﺪﻣﻮ ﻓﻰ ﺍاﻟﺘﺤﺪﻳﯾﺪ ﻭوﻟﻜﻦ ﻟﻮ ﻣﺠﺎﺑﻠﻴﯿﺶ ﺍاﺧﺘﻴﯿﺎﺭر‬

* All are participating in the determination of the

14. Vibrating line:

3|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

18. Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It

19. After insertion of complete denture, Pt. came complaining

4|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

22. All relate to retention of maxillary complete denture except:

23. Best instrument to locate vibrating line, it is:

24. We can use for palatal posterior seal:

5|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

31. Polyether impression materials:

33. Lingual plate:

34. Lingual bar contraindication except :

35. Lingual bar indication:

36. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of major connector

37. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:

41. Examination of residual ridge for edentulous Pt. before construction of

42. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly Pt. for construction of

43. In recording man-max relation, the best material used without

* Bite registration paste as zinc oxide euginol paste.

45. Function of post dam: ( PPS )

7|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

* posterior seal = posterior palatal seal = post dam = pps.

46. In recording jaw relation, best to use:

48. The goal of construction of occlusion rims is:

49. A temporary form representing the base of a denture

50. To recheck centric relation in complete denture:

52. Cost effective method to prevent dental caries:

8|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

60. When tooth paste is used, the child is advised:

61. Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is:

9|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

63. Mentally ill child, the best way to apply fluoride:

64. Fluoride decreases dental caries by remineralization of enamel:

65. Person drinking fluoridated water, using toothbrush with fluoride,

66. Dental fluorosis:

67. Fluorides are most anticaries effective when:

69. Fluoride reduces caries activity by:

10 | P a g e All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

71. Optima water fluoridation:

72. Optima water fluoridation:

73. Optima water fluoridation:

74. Acidulated phosphate fluoride:

76. A tooth very painful to percussion, doesn’t respond to heat,

78. What is a pier abutment?

82. Gingival retraction is done:

83. Regarding tissue retraction around tooth:

-‐ 2014 Revision