Page 1

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*SLRPC1* SLR-PC – 1
Seat
No.
Set A
F.E. (Part – I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2015
ENGG. MATHEMATICS – I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct alternative : 14
1
1) If y = , then yn = __________
( x + 3) 2
( −1)n n ! (−1)n (n + 1) ! (−1)n (n + 1) !

a) b) c) d) None of these
(x + 3)n + 2 (x + 3)n + 2 (x + 3)n + 1
2) If y = sin2x, then yn = ___________
⎛ nπ ⎞ ⎛ nπ ⎞
a) − 2 n − 1 cos⎜ 2 x + ⎟ b) 2n − 1 cos⎜ 2 x + ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ nπ ⎞ ⎛ nπ ⎞
c) 2n − 1 sin ⎜ 2 x + ⎟ d) 2n cos ⎜ 2 x + ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
3) The Taylor’s series expansion of y = sinx about x = π 2 is

2 3 2 4
1⎛ π⎞ 1⎛ π⎞ 1⎛ π⎞ 1⎛ π⎞
a) 1 + ⎜ x − ⎟ + ⎜ x − ⎟ + ..... b) 1 + ⎜ x − ⎟ + ⎜ x − ⎟ + .....
2! ⎝ 2⎠ 3! ⎝ 2⎠ 2⎝ 2⎠ 4⎝ 2⎠
2 4
1⎛ π⎞ 1⎛ π⎞
c) 1 − ⎜ x − ⎟ + ⎜ x − ⎟ − ..... d) None of these
2! ⎝ 2⎠ 4! ⎝ 2⎠
P.T.O.
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SLR-PC – 1 -2- *SLRPC1*
1 + cos πx
4) The value of xlim is
→1 (x − 1)2
π −π
2
π2
a) 0 b) c) d)
2 2 2
5) The modulus and the amplitude of 2 + 2 3 i are
π 2π π π
a) 4, b) 4, c) 4, d) 4 3 ,
6 3 3 3
6) The imaginary part of e 2 + iπ is
a) 0 b) e π c) –1 d) e2
7) sinhx is equal to
a) sinix b) –isinix c) isinx d) isinix
8) Let the characteristic equation of a matrix A be λ2 − 2λ − 1 = 0 then

a) A–1 does not exist b) A–1 exist but not determine
–1
c) A = A – 2I d) A–1 = A + 2I
−1⎛ y ⎞ ∂u ∂u
9) If u = xy tan ⎜ x ⎟ then x ⋅ ∂ x + y ∂ y = __________
⎝ ⎠
a) u b) 2u c) 0 d) does not exist
10) If A is a matrix of order 4 × 3 and ‘r’ is the rank of matrix A, then
a) r ≤ 3 b) r ≤ 4 c) r = 4 d) r ≥ 3
dy
11) If f(x, y) = 0 then = ___________
dx
fx fy fy fx
a) f b) − c) d) − f
y fx fx y
12) By theory of approximations which of the following is correct for z = f(x, y) ?
a) δz = ∂ z δx + ∂ z δy b) δz = δx − δy
∂x ∂y
∂z ∂z
c) δz = δx + δy d) δz = δx − δy
∂x ∂y
13) The system AX = B has solution if
a) ρ(A ) = ρ ( A : B) b) ρ(A ) < ρ (A : B) c) ρ(A ) > ρ ( A : B) d) ρ(A ) ≥ ρ (A : B)
14) If X1, X2, X3 are linearly dependent vectors then
a) X1 = X2 = X3 b) X1 = kX2 + lX3
c) X1 = 0, X2 = 0, X3 = 0 d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC1* -3- SLR-PC – 1
Seat
No.

ENGG. MATHEMATICS – I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-5-2015 Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
SECTION – I
x 2 + 4x + 1
2. a) If y = , find yn. 3
(x + 1) (x − 1) (x + 2)
b) If y = e5x cosx cos3x, find yn. 3
2 2
c) If y = sin[2log(x + 1)], prove that (x + 1) yn + 2 + (2n + 1) (x + 1)yn + 1 + (n + 4)yn = 0 . 4
3. Attempt any three : 9
⎛ x ⎞
a) Prove that tan ⎜⎜
−1 ⎟ = x + 1 x 3 + 3 x 5 + ....
2 ⎟ 6 40
⎝ 1− x ⎠
b) Expand log(coshx) upto x6.
c) Expand 3x3 – 2x2 + x – 4 in powers of (x + 2).
⎛ 3 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎜ 2⎟
⎝x ⎠
d) Evaluate lim (cos 2x ) .
x→0
18
⎡ 1 + cos π9 + i sin π9 ⎤
4. a) Simplify ⎢ π π⎥
. 3
⎢⎣ 1 + cos 9 − i sin 9 ⎥⎦
b) Solve x6 – i = 0. 3
c) Expand sin 5 θ in a series of sines of multiples of θ . 3
⎛π ⎞ 2 2 2x
5. a) If tan⎜ + iα ⎟ = x + iy . Prove that x + y + = 1. 3
⎝6 ⎠ 3
b) Prove that tanh −1(sin θ) = cosh−1(sec θ) . 3

c) Separate real and imaginary parts of (1 + i)i. 3
Set A

SECTION – II
6. Attempt the following :

a) Test for consistency and solve if possible, 2x + 3y + 4z = 11, x + 5y + 7z = 15,
3x + 11y + 13z = 24. 3
b) Find the rank of matrix given below : 4
⎡2 3 −1 − 1⎤
⎢ ⎥
1 −1 − 2 − 4⎥
A=⎢
⎢3 1 3 − 2⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎣6 3 0 7⎦
c) Find the value of λ for which the following equations have non-trivial solution. 3
x + 2y + 3z = λ x, 3x + y + 2z = λ y, 2x + 3y + z = λ z.

⎡ 2 −3 1⎤
⎢ ⎥
a) Find all eigen values and eigen vector for negative eigen value where A = ⎢ 3 1 3⎥ . 3
⎢⎣ − 5 2 − 4 ⎥⎦
b) At what value of P the following vector are linear dependent ?
[1, 3, 2], [2, P + 7, 4], [1, 3, P + 3]. 3
⎡ 2 −1 1⎤
c) Find A–1 and A4 by using Cayley-Hamilton theorem where A = ⎢ − 1⎢ 2 − 1⎥⎥ . 3
⎢⎣ 1 − 1 2 ⎥⎦

a) If z = f(u, u) and u = lx + my, v = ly – mx then prove that
2 ⎛
2 ⎞
∂ 2z ∂ 2z 2
2
⎜ ∂ z + ∂ z ⎟.
+ = ( l + m ) ⎜ 2 ∂ v2 ⎟ 5
∂ x2 ∂ y2 ⎝ ∂u ⎠
⎛ x 2 + y2 ⎞ 2 2 2
b) If u = tan −1⎜⎜ ⎟ then prove that, x2 ⋅ ∂ y + 2xy ∂ u + y2 ⋅ ∂ u = − 2 sin3 u ⋅ cos u . 4
⎟
⎝ x−y ⎠ ∂ x2 ∂ x∂ y ∂ y2

∂(u, v, w )
a) If ux = yz, vy = xz, wz = xy then prove that, is constant. 3
∂( x, y, z)
b) The diameter and the altitude of a right circular cylinder are measured as 24 cms and 30 cms
respectively. There is a possible error of 0.1 cm in each measurement. Find the possible
error in the volume of the cylinder. 3
c) Find the extreme values of f(x, y) = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4. 3
_____________________
Set A

*SETA* SET-A
S e a t
N o .
F.E. (Part II) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER PROGRAMMING (Practical Exam.)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 29-4-2015 Max. Marks : 25

Time : 9.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instruction for Examiner : Distribute question C1 and C2 to alternate

student.
Instruction to students : 1) Candidates are informed to type the program
code in C and execute it.
2) Take the printout of program and output.
3) Submit the printout to examiner.
1. C1) Write a program to find largest number in an array of 10 elements.
_____________________

*SETA1* SET-A1
S e a t
N o .
F.E. (Part II) Examination, 2015


Time : 9.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instruction for Examiner : Distribute question C1 and C2 to alternate

student.
Instruction to students : 1) Candidates are informed to type the program
code in C and execute it.
3) Submit the printout to examiner.
1. C2) Write a program for addition of two matrices of size 3 × 3.
_____________________

*SETB* SET – B
Seat
No.
F.E. (Part – II) Online Programming Test Examination, 2015

COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Time : 1.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Candidates are informed to type the program code in C

and execute it.
2) If the program is giving desired output, take the printout of
the program and output of the program.
3) Attach the printout to the answer sheet.
Write a menu driven program to implement the different operations on string using
following string library function.
a) strlen() b) strcat() c) strcpy() d) strcmp()
MENU :
1. Find String Length
2. Join two strings together
3. Copy one string to other

4. Compare two strings (If equal or not equal).
Enter Your Choice :
______________

*SETB1* SET – B1
Seat
No.
F.E. (Part – II) Online Programming Test Examination, 2015

COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Time : 1.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Candidates are informed to type the program code in C

and execute it.
2) If the program is giving desired output, take the printout of
the program and output of the program.
3) Attach the printout to the answer sheet.
1. Any character is entered through the keyboard, write a program to determine

whether the character entered is a capital letter OR a small letter OR a digit OR
special symbol. (Use logical OR operators and ASCII value)
(ASCII value Range : 65 to 90 → Capital A to Z
97 to 122 → small a to z
48 to 56 → digits 0-9)
2. WAP to display the following Floyd’s triangle using for loop.
1
1 2
1 2 3
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 5
______________

*SETC* SET – C
Seat
No.
F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015

Day and Date : Thursday, 30-4-2015 Max. Marks : 25

Time : 9.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instruction for Examiner :

Distribute question B1 and B2 to alternate students.
Instruction to Candidate :
1) Candidates are informed to type the program code
in C and execute it.
3) Submit the printout to Examiner.
1. B1) Write a program for addition of two complex numbers (real, imaginary)
using structure.
______________

*SETC1* SET – C1
Seat
No.
F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015


Time : 9.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instruction for Examiner :

Distribute question B1 and B2 to alternate students.
Instruction to Candidate :
1) Candidates are informed to type the program code
in C and execute it.
3) Submit the printout to Examiner.
1. B2) Write a program for addition of two timings (hour, minutes) using structure.
______________

*SLRPC251* SLR-PC 251
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
S.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to right indicate marks.
3) Assume necessary data if required.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont

Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 20
1. Attempt following multiple choice questions : 20

1) Default initial value of Automatic Storage Class variable is
a) \0 b) 0 c) Garbage value d) Null
2) Float *p; what sizeof(*p) ; will return ?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
3) Which of the following can handle multi-word strings ?
a) printf b) puts c) a) and b) d) None of these
4) What strcmp(s1, s2) returns when s1 and s2 are equal ?
a) 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) None of the above
5) By default all the variables are
a) signed b) unsigned c) long d) double
6) What is the length of char name[] = Humpty Dumpty ?
a) 10 b) 11 c) 15 d) 18
7) Recursion uses what among the following in implementation ?
a) Queue b) Stack c) Tree d) Graph
8) Which storage class variable life is as long as the program execution doesnt come to
end ?
a) External b) Automatic c) Static d) Register
P.T.O.

SLR-PC 251 -2- *SLRPC251*
9) A is character where A is
a) Character b) Alphabet c) String d) Keyword
10) Output of main() {printf(%c,7[SUNDARAM]);}
a) A b) M c) R d) Error
11) What is meant by a in the following operation ?
fp = fopen(Random.txt,a);
a) Attach b) Append c) Apprehend d) Add
12) The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by
a) Counting microseconds
b) Counting the number of key operations
c) Counting the number of statements
d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm
13) The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
a) O(n) b) O(log n) c) O(n2) d) O(n log n)
14) An amount of memory required for an algorithm to run to completion is called as
a) Time complexity b) Space complexity
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
15) FILE is of type
a) int type b) char * type
c) struct type d) none of the mentioned
16) A sort which compares adjacent elements in a list and swap if necessary is called
a) Insertion sort b) Heap sort c) Quick sort d) Bubble sort
17) A function which accept the key to find the location of the record is called as
a) Key function b) Hash function
18) Collision in hashing technique can be resolved by using
a) Open addressing and rehashing
b) Open addressing and chaining
c) Open addressing and linear probing
d) None of the above
19) The algorithm complexity of O(2n) is called as
a) Linear b) Cubic c) Exponential d) Quadratic
20) The complexity of merge sort is
______________
Set A

*SLRPC251* -3- SLR-PC 251
S e a t
N o .

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS
Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four : (5×4=20)
a) Explain automatic and static storage classes with simple code.
b) Write a program of addition of two numbers using pointer to function.
c) Explain advantage and disadvantage of recursive techniques.
d) Explain factorial using recursion with stack values.
e) Explain malloc(), calloc(), free(), realloc() with simple program.
3. Write an algorithm and program of swapping two strings using pointer to functions
concepts. 10
4. Explain the Tower of Hanoi problem and its algorithm with program. 10
SECTION II
5. Solve any four : (4×5=20)
a) Write down all the iterations of selection sort on the following data :
12 34 5 62 16 43 25 18 19 13
b) Explain the difference between linear search and binary search.
c) Write a C program to print all contents of file on screen.
d) Use merge sort technique to sort the following :
60 10 21 19 17 22 14 84 2 7 18
e) Write an algorithm for binary search. Explain with example.
6. Attempt the following : 10
a) What is hashing ? Explain different methods of collision resolution technique.
b) Explain fseek() and ftell() in detail.
7. Write a C program to count the following using file operation. 10
i) Number of lines
ii) Number of words
iii) Number of characters.
___________________
Set A

Set A

A
S e a t
N o .
Set
T.E. Mechanical (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015
INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.
2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20)

1) Compression ratio in diesel engine is of the order of
a) 5 7 b) 10 12 c) 7 10 d) 14 20
2) In four stroke IC engine camshaft rotates at
a) same speed as crankshaft
b) twice the speed of crankshaft
c) half the speed of the crankshaft
d) none of the above
3) The air standard Otto cycle consists of
a) Two constant volume and two isentropic processes
b) Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
c) Two constant pressure and two constant volume processes
4) The major loss in CI engine is
a) direct heat loss b) loss due to incomplete combustion
c) rubbing friction loss d) pumping loss
5) The throttle valve controls the supply of
a) Air only b) Fuel only
c) Air fuel mixture d) None of the above
6) In carburetor lean mixture is required during
a) Idling b) Starting
P.T.O.

c) Accelerating d) Cruising
7) Main advantage of pintaux nozzle is
a) Better cold starting performance b) Ability to distribute the fuel
c) Good penetration d) Good atomization
8) Common rail injection system uses injection pressure of the order
a) 100-200 bar b) 200-400 bar c) 400-600 bar d) 1500 bar
9) In ignition system Dwell period
a) Is directly proportional to engine speed
b) Is inversely proportion to engine speed
c) Does not depends upon engine speed
10) Most commonly used lubrication system in automobile is the
a) Splash system b) Pressure system
c) Petroil system d) Gravity system
11) In spark ignition engines knocking tendency decreases
a) As compression ratio is reduced b) By controlling air fuel mixture
c) By controlling ignition timing d) None of the above
12) Knocking take place in CI engines
a) The start of combustion b) At the end of combustion
c) During combustion d) None of the above
13) The cylinder temperature after compression in a diesel engine is
a) 200°c b) 450°c c) 900°c d) 1000°c
14) Morse test is conducted on
a) Single cylinder engines b) Multy-cylinder engines
c) Vee engines d) Horizontal engines
15) Volumetric efficiency is measure of
a) Power of the engine b) Breathing capacity of the engine
c) Pressure rise in the cylinder d) Fuel which detonates easily
16) Volumetric efficiency of supercharged engine is
a) Between 90-100% b) Between 100-110%
c) Between 80-90% d) Between 70-80%
17) Octane number of iso-octane is
a) 0 b) 30 c) 60 d) 100
18) Anti-knock characteristics of alcohol as compared to gasoline is
a) Higher b) Lower c) Equal d) None of the above
19) D-MPFI system uses
a) Port injection b) Manifold injection
c) Direct injection d) Throttle body injection
20) NOx emission in SI engines will lowest during
a) Cruising b) Idling c) Accelerating d) Decelerating
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. Mechanical (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

Day and Date : Saturday, 16-5-2015 Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain valve timing diagram for four stroke engine, also discuss valve
overlap. 6
b) Derive an equation for air-fuel ratio for carburetor by approximate method. 8
c) Explain why actual cycle efficiency is much lower than air standard cycle.
Discuss any three losses in actual cycle. 6
3. a) Discuss selection of I.C. engine for automobile and Marine application. 6
b) A simple carburetor under certain condition delivers 5.45 kg/hr of petrol with an air
fuel ratio of 15. The fuel jet area is 2 mm2 with co-efficient of discharge of 0.75, if
the lip of nozzle fuel jet is 0.635 cm and the venture throat co-efficient of discharge
is assumed to be 0.8 calculate :
1) The venturi depression necessary to cause air and fuel flow at the desired rate.
2) The venturi throat diameter.
3) The velocity of air across the venture throat.
You may take density of air = 1.29 kg/m3 and specific gravity of petrol = 0.72. 8
c) Discuss spray formation, atomization and penetration. 6
4. a) Explain in detail Bendix drive of starting system. 6
b) An 8 cylinder, four stroke diesel engine has a power output 386.4 kW at 800 rpm.
The fuel consumption is 0.25 kg/kW.hr. The pressure in the cylinder at the beginning
of injection is 32 bar and maximum cylinder pressure is 55 bar. The injector is
expected to be set at 207 bar and maximum pressure at the injector is set to be
about 595 bar. Calculate the orifice area required per injector if the injection takes
over 12° crank angle. Assume following :
Specific gravity of fuel = 0.85 ; co-efficient of discharge for the injector = 0.6 ;
atmospheric pressure = 1.013 bar ; Effective pressure difference is the average
pressure difference over injection period. 8
c) What are the requirements of fuel system in CI engine ? Explain common rail
injection system. 6
Set A

SECTION II
5. a) Explain how flame speed is important in S.I. engine combustion. What are
the important factors affecting flame speed ? 6
b) Discuss the different stages of combustion in CI engines with the help of a
neat p- diagram.

6
c) Write short notes on : 8
i) Exhaust oxygen sensor
ii) Requirement of combustion chambers for S.I. engines.
6. a) Enlist the different methods for measuring frictional power. Explain the
Willans line method. 6
b) Write short notes on : 6
i) Turbo charging
ii) Standard pollution norms.
c) Following observations were recorded during a test on single cylinder diesel engine
having rpm = 400, mean effective pressure = 7.5 bar, Bore = 16 cm, stroke = 20 cm,
load on the brake = 380 N, spring reading = 50 N. Diameter of brake drum = 120 cm,
fuel consumption of the engine = 2.8 kg/hr, calorific value of fuel used = 42000 kJ/kg.
Find :
i) Indicated power
ii) Brake power of the engine
iii) Mechanical efficiency
iv) Break thermal efficiency. 8
7. a) List the alternative fuels used for S.I. engines and discuss their suitability for
the same. 6
b) Write a short note on Cetane Rating and explain the fuel additives used in
CI engines. 6
c) Write short notes on : (i) Evaporative emissions (ii) EGR. 8
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from Section I.
2) Q.No.6 is compulsory from Section II and solve any two
from remaining.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3.

1. Type-I (Match correct pair type question) 5

This is straight forward matching of Column I with Column II. Here is only one
matching (No multiple answers) Partial marking will be given.
Type-I
Match the pair :
1) Point to point NC A) DNC
2) Straight cut NC B) Milling
3) Contouring NC C) Spot welding
4) FMS D) Turning
5) NC E) Hardwired
Type-II (Select proper answer type question) 10
Select a proper answer given from three alternatives available.

1) Listing of relative cutter and work piece positions in manual part programming is
A) Manuscript B) Programming C) Automation
2) A comparator is required in
A) Open loop system B) Closed loop system C) Both A) and B)
P.T.O.

3) In NC tool the following function may not be automatic
A) Feed rate
B) Speed rate
C) Loading and unloading the work piece
4) FANUC is the name of
A) CNC tool B) CNC controller C) CNC job holding device
5) In CNC machine job holding and work piece change is done through
A) ATC B) MDI C) APC
Type-III 5
Select a proper answer given from two alternatives. Which is True/False
1) According to ISO machine tool axes definition for CNC machine +z axis is
defined when tool goes away from the workpiece.
A) True B) False
2) Adaptive control is used for controlling non machining time.
A) True B) False
3) Mainly CNC machines are costly than manual machines, it needs expensive
tool and repair is also expensive.
A) True B) False
4) Computer assisted part programming uses APT language for preparing NC
program.
A) True B) False
5) In incremental co-ordinate system the co-ordinate of all point is defined with
respect to same origin.
A) True B) False
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

CAD/CAM

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from Section I.

2) Q.No. 6 is compulsory from Section II and solve any two
from remaining.
SECTION I
2. a) What is CAD/CAM ? Discuss the concept of integration of CAD to CAM. 7

b) Discuss Graphic standards in CAD. 6
3. a) Explain various types of Database creations. 4

b) Define automation. Give various types of automations with suitable example. 3
c) A triangle PQR has its vertices at P (0, 0), Q (4, 0) and R (2, 3). It is to be
translated by 4 units in X direction and 2 units in Y direction then it is to be
rotated in anticlockwise direction about the new position of point R through
90 degree. Find the new position of the triangle. Explain your answer with a neat
sketch. 6
4. a) Write importance of curves in Graphics packages. What are various properties

of B Spline and Bezier curves ? 6
b) Give parametric representation of following analytical curves.

1) Lines
2) Circle
3) Ellipse or parabola or hyperbola. 4
c) Develop Matrix equation for Bezier Polynomial. 3
Set A

5. Attempt the following any four : 14
a) Co-ordinate or Windowing or window to view port transformations.
b) CAPP and its types.
c) History of CAD/CAM.
d) Commercially available Graphics software packages.
e) Types of Graphics terminals.
f) Differentiate between Wire frame and solid modelling.
SECTION II
6. a) Prepare a part program for stepped component given below. The various
details are : 8
Speed : 400 rpm Feed rate : 200 mm/min
Work material : Mild steel Tool material : HSS
Work piece size : 60 × 100

Tool type : Right hand facing tool
b) Explain ATC in CNC. 6

7. a) Describe EIA standards of parameter of Punched Tape with neat sketch. 4
b) Explain adaptive control in detail. 5
c) Compare NC and CNC machine tools. 4
8. a) What are the basic components of an NC system ? Explain with neat sketch ? 7
b) Explain canned cycles in part programming with suitable example. 6
9. a) What is part programming ? Explain the procedure associated with NC part
programming. 5
b) Enlist any four G code and M code. Explain functioning of any one G code. 4
c) Write a short note on DNC. 4
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
MACHINE DESIGN – II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
3) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

1. I) Match the pairs : 5

List – I List – II
A) Gears are used for Non-parallel P) Worm gears
non intersecting shafts
B) Gears are used for Non-intersecting Q) Bevel gears
shafts generally at right angles
C) Gears with no axial thrust R) Race rotation factor is 1.2
D) Gears are used for Intersecting S) Hypoid gears
shafts
E) Inner race stationary and outer T) Double helical gears
race is rotating
U) Race rotation factor is 1
II) Multiple correct answers objective questions : 8

A) The center to center distance between two helical gears depends upon
a) Normal module b) Normal circular pitch
c) Number of teeth d) All of the above
B) The resultant tooth force of bevel gears has
a) Tangential component b) Separating component
c) Circumferential component d) All of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 102 -2- *SLRPC102*
C) Autofrettage gives
a) Increase the pressure capacity b) Improves the volume capacity
c) Improves the Endurance strength d) Removing the residual stresses
D) The length of root of worm wheel depends upon
a) Number of starts b) Effective face width
c) Clearance d) Speed factor for worm wheel
III) Single correct answer type objective questions : 7

A) The breakdown of the oil film in gear causes
a) Abrasive wear b) Destructive pitting
c) Scoring d) Creep
B) The weld joint efficiency for a Class II pressure vessel according to IS 2825;1969 is
a) 0.5 b) 0.7 c) 0.85 d) 1
C) For designing a cylinder with ductile material having both ends open
a) Clavarino’s equation is used b) Birnies equation is used
c) Lame’s equation is used d) Any equation can be used
D) In thin film lubrication
a) There is no metal to metal contact
b) There is partial metal to metal contact
c) There is full metal to metal contact
E) The worm wheel should be
a) Embeddable and conformable b) Hard and conformable
c) Hard and embeddable d) None of the above
F) The maximisation of desirable effect is given by
a) Adequate design b) Optimum design
c) Generalised design d) Machine design
G) Dynamic load acting on a gear depends upon
a) Tooth error b) Number of teeth
c) Speed d) All of the above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC102* -3- SLR-PC – 102
Seat
No.
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015

MACHINE DESIGN – II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
SECTION – I
2. a) What are the helical gears ? In what way they are preferable to spur gears ? Mention
advantages of Herringbone gears. 5
b) Explain various types of gear tooth failures. 5
c) A pair of spur gears with a 20° pressure angle, consists of a 25 teeth pinion meshing
with a 60 teeth gear. The module is 5 mm, while face width is 50 mm. The pinion
rotates at 540 r.p.m. The gears are made of steel and heat treated to a surface
hardness of 250 BHN. Assume that dynamic load is accounted by means of the
velocity factor. The service factor and the factor of safety are 1.75 and 1.9 respectively.
Calculate wear strength of gear, the static load that the gears can transmit without
pitting and rated power that can be transmitted by gears. Use Cv = 3/(3 + v). 10
3. a) A cantilever beam of circular c/s and length 200 mm is subjected to a force of 5 KN
at the end. Factor of safety based on tensile yield strength is 1.5. Design the beam
with the objective of minimizing the material cost, out of the following materials :
Mass Density Material cost per unit Yield strength
Material
ρ (kg/m3) mass c(Rs./kg) Syt (N/mm2)
Steel 7800 14 400
10
Al. Alloy 2800 66 150
Mag. Alloy 1800 75 100
b) Calculate the power transmitting capacity of a pair of parallel helical gears
consisting of a 20 teeth pinion meshing with a 100 teeth gear. The pinion rotates at
720 rpm. The normal pressure angle is 20°, while the helix angle is 23°. The face
width is 40 mm and normal module is 4 mm. Both the gears are made of steel with
Sut = 600 N/mm2 and heat treated to a surface hardness of 400 BHN. Take Cs = 1.75
and factor of safety as 2. Assume that the velocity factor accounts for the dynamic
load.
Lewis form factor for various no. of teeth are as in table below :
No. of teeth 20 21 22 23 25 26 27 28 29
10
Y 0.32 0.326 0.33 0.333 0.34 0.344 0.348 0.352 0.355
Set A

SLR-PC – 102 -4- *SLRPC102*
4. a) Explain various end closures used for the pressure vessels with neat sketches. 8
b) A tube of inner and outer diameter 20 mm and 40 mm respectively is reinforced by
shrink fitting another tube of diameter 60 mm. This assembly is to withstand an
internal pressure of 10 MPa. The shrinkage is such that the maximum tangential
stress in both the tubes is the same. Calculate the contact pressure and plot the
resultant stresses. 12
SECTION – II
5. a) Derive the expression for beam strength of straight teeth bevel gear. 5
b) A pair of worm gears is designated as 1/40/10/5. Calculate :
i) The pcd of worm and worm wheel
ii) The centre distance
iii) The axial pitch of worm
iv) The facewidth of worm wheel. 5
c) A pair of straight teeth bevel gears has a velocity ratio of 2 : 1. A 7.5 kW power is
supplied to the pinion at 720 rpm. The module and the facewidth are 5 mm and 40 mm
respectively. The pressure angle is 20°, while the number of teeth on pinion are
20. Calculate the tangential, radial and axial components of the resultant tooth
force acting on pinion and gear. 10
6. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of worm gear drives ? Give the
applications. 5
b) Explain the mounting methods of rolling contact bearings with neat sketches. 5
c) A pair of worm gear is designated as 2/52/10/4. The input speed of the worm shaft
is 1000 rpm. The worm is made of case hardened carbon steel while the worm
wheel is made of phosphorus bronze (centrifugal cast). Determine the safe power
transmitting capacity based on beam strength according to IS 7443 – 1974 code.
Use the following data with usual notations.
Sb1 = 28.20 Sb2 = 7.00
Xb1 = 0.28 Xb2 = 0.53 10
7. a) Explain the working of hydrodynamic journal bearing with neat sketch. Also state
its applications. 5
b) A ball bearing is subjected to a radial load of 2500 N. The expected life of the
bearing for 95% reliability is 10000 hours are 1000 rpm. Calculate the dynamic
load capacity of the bearing so that it can be selected from a manufacturer’s
catalogue based on 90% reliability. If there are six such identical bearings each
with a reliability of 95%, what is the reliability of system ? 10
c) What are the dimensionless performance parameters used in Raimondi and Boyd
method ? 5
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015

EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective II) (New)
Day and Date : Saturday, 23-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
3) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it
clearly.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.

1. A) Match the pairs : (4×1=4)
(Column 1) (Column 2)
a) Separation based on Hooks Law p) Laplace Equation
b) Zero order isochromatics q) Black in white light
c) Electrical analogy r) Coloured in white light
d) Oblique Incidence s) Error in measurement of lateral
dimension change
t) Model rotation
B) Match the pairs : (4×1=4)
(Column 1) (Column 2)
a) 2 Arm sensitive bridge p) Brittle coating
b) 4 Arm sensitive bridge q) Equiangular
c) Threshold strain r) e0 = ESK

d) Delta rosette s) e0 = ESK
t) Amplification factor.
P.T.O.

C) Solve multiple correct answers : (4×2=8)

i) Photoelastic material should have
a) High Youngs Modulus b) Low figure of Merit
c) Less Youngs Modulus d) High figure of Merit
ii) D. C. excited Wheatstone Bridge can be finely balanced by
a) series b) differential series
c) shunt d) differential shunt
iii) Fringes seen through analyzer can give
a) Inclination of principal stress
b) Difference of principal stress
c) Moire
d) None
iv) Following are the types of strain gauges rosette
a) Delta b) Tee Delta
c) 3 Element rectangular d) Beta
D) Solve classical objectives : (4×1=4)

i) Template jig is essentially used to paste strain gauges for measurement of
a) torque b) force c) weight d) none
ii) Material Fringe value for photoelastic material should be
a) Low b) High c) Medium d) Not related to analysis
iii) Output voltage e0 is filtered for measuring
a) dynamic strain b) static strain
c) pressure d) none
iv) Series balancing gives
a) coarse balance b) fine balance
c) both d) none
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015

EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective II) (New)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
2) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain in brief : 8
i) Isoclinics
ii) Birefringence
iii) Isochromatics
iv) Polarization of light.
b) Derive the expression for the light intensity seen through analyzer when the
stressed model is kept in the dark field circular polariscope. 12
3. a) Explain the properties of different photo elastic materials. 6

b) A photo elastic model in the shape of a beam 1.5 cm deep and 8 mm thick is
stressed in pure bending. When a bending force of 300 N is applied at distance
of 30 mm each end and the ninth fringe just appears at the outer edge. Calculate
the material fringe value of the model and length of beam is 250 mm. 8
c) Derive an expression for determination of material fringe, value for rectangular
beam of thickness h and depth w subjected to pure bending. 6
4. a) What is the purpose of electrical analogy method ? Explain the method. 8

b) Explain the significance of material fringe value. 6
c) Write short note on scaling of model results to prototype. 6
Set A

SECTION II
5. a) The strain readings measured by an equiangular rosette at a point in the

stressed body are as follows a = 500 micro-strain, b = 350 micro-strain,
c = 200 micro-strain. Determine the principal strains, principal stress, its
directions and maximum shear stress.
Take E = 200 GPa and = 0.3.

8
b) Explain torque measurement by strain gauges. 4
c) Explain bonding of strain gauges and moisture proofing. 8
6. a) Explain different configuration of Wheatstone bridge circuit. 10

b) Explain temperature compensation for a strain gauge. 5
c) Discuss the reflection polariscope. 5
7. a) Explain moiré fringe method. What are the merits and demerits ? 6
b) Define transverse sensitivity of a strain gauge. Derive the expression for
transverse sensitivity of a strain gauge. 8
c) Explain the crack patterns observed in brittle coatings. 6
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
Elective – II : POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.

2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state it clearly.
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.

1. Choose the correct answer : 20

1) The electrical equipments used in power plant consist of the
a) Arrangement of bus bar b) Exciters
c) Reactors d) All of the above
2) The main sources of noise in a power plant are
a) turbo-alternators b) fans
c) power transformers d) all of these
3) India has set a goal elevating the share of renewable energy sources in power generation
up to _________ percent share of new capacity from renewable by 2012.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) No goal
4) If the ordinates of the chronological load curves are arranged in the descending order of
magnitude with the highest ordinates on left, a new type of load curve is called.
a) time duration curve b) load duration curve
c) synchronised curve d) all of these
5) Nuclear power plants give better performance at
a) lower load factors b) medium load factors
c) higher load factors d) no load factors
6) Demand factor is always
a) less than unity b) greater than unity
c) equal to unity d) equal to zero
7) Diversity factor is always
a) less than unity b) greater than unity
c) equal to unity d) equal to zero
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 104 -2- *SLRPC104*
8) The following method is not used to calculate the depreciation cost

a) Straight line method b) Sinking fund method
c) Unity method d) Rising fund method
9) Which is not types of tariff
a) Rising tariff b) Two part tariff
c) Three part tariff d) Block rate tariff
10) Pyranometer is used to measure
a) Beam radiation b) Diffuse radiation
c) Global radiation d) All of the above
11) The function of solar photovoltaic is to convert
a) Solar energy in to electricity b) Solar energy in to radiation
c) Solar energy in to thermal energy d) All of these
12) The energy demand increases day by day because of
a) Population increases b) Industrialization increases
c) Transportation increases d) All of these
13) Maximum power density available in the wind depends on
a) pitch control b) yaw control
c) blade diameter d) all of above
14) Objective of energy audit is
a) Identify the quality b) Identify the cost of various energy inputs
c) Either a) nor b) d) Both a) and b)
15) Heliostates are observed in
a) flat plate collector b) concentrated collectors
c) wind energy conversion system d) ocean thermal energy system
16) The studies conducted by energy management centre, New Delhi have indicated that
there is about __________ potential of energy conservation in the industrial sector.
a) 15% b) 25% c) 35% d) 45%
17) The Government has formulated an energy policy with objectives of management of
a) Supply for oil
b) Demand for oil and other forms of energy
c) Export and import for oil and other forms of energy
d) None
18) High pressure accumulator are observed in
a) wave energy plant b) tidal power plant
c) OTEC plant d) None of these
19) Tracking system is required in
a) wind energy b) ocean thermal energy
c) solar energy d) all of the above
20) Concentrated collector absorbs
a) Direct radiation only b) Diffuse radiation only
c) Direct and diffuse both d) None
______________
Set A

*SLRPC104* -3- SLR-PC – 104
Seat
No.
T.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

Elective – II : POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Discuss the role of private sector in energy management. 7

b) What is effect of variable load on power plant ? Describe different load factors. 6
c) The maximum (peak) load on a thermal power plant of 60 mW capacity is 50 mW at an
annual load factor of 50%. The loads having maximum demands of 25 mW, 20 mW, 8 mW
and 5 mW are connected to the power station. Determine :
a) Average load on power station
b) Energy generated per year
c) Demand factor
d) Diversity factor. 7
3. a) Explain the load curve with the help of sketches for

i) Street lighting load curve
ii) Industrial load curve of one shift. Make comparison of load for any two power plant. 7
b) Explain the methods of determining depreciation. 7
c) Discuss in details on organization of power sector in India. 6
4. Write short note on any four : (5×4=20)

a) Compressed air storage plants
b) Load sharing between base load and peak load power stations
c) Tariff method
d) Fixed and operating cost
e) Power factor improving methods.
Set A

SLR-PC – 104 -4- *SLRPC104*
SECTION – II
5. a) With neat sketch represent the method and classification of solar concentrators. 7
b) Discuss with neat sketch pyrheliometer. 6
c) Explain in detail solar geometry and solar radiations. 7
6. a) Discuss and derive expression for power of wind. 7
b) Explain methods of harnessing geothermal resources. 7
c) State advantages of wave energy and explain dolphin type wave machine. 6
7. a) Explain double basin system of tidal power. 7
b) What is an objective of energy audit ? Explain any one energy flow diagram. 7
c) Discuss energy conservation in
i) Sugar industry
ii) Chemical industry and
iii) Cement industry. 6
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

(Elective II) TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

1. A) Single correct answer type questions : (10×1=10)

1) In punching the allowance is given on
a) Die block cavity b) Punch
c) Punch and die block d) None of the above
2) Diamond pin location is used in fixture because
a) It does not wear
b) It is easy to manufacture
c) It is to clamp the part on diamond pins
d) It takes care of any variation in center distance between two holes
3) In the following tool signature as per ASA, the side rake angle is 10-6-8-7-8-6-2
a) 10° b) 6° c) 7° d) 5°
4) In break even analysis the region above the BE line is
a) Profit b) No loss no profit
c) Loss d) All above
5) The intermediate annealing is provided during the following operation
a) Deep drawing b) Punching
c) Blanking d) All above
6) In up milling the direction of rotation of cutters is in
a) Opposite to feed b) Same as the feed of table
c) Upward d) Downward
7) Angle between face and the flank of the single point cutting tool is known as
a) Rake angle b) Clearance angle
c) Lip angle d) Point angle
8) Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of
a) Cast Iron b) Mild Steel
c) Aluminium d) Tin
9) The tool life is largely affected by
a) Depth of cut b) Cutting speed
c) Feed d) All of the above
10) For manufacturing of washer in sheet metal which of the following dies are used
a) Compound die b) Progressive die c) Combination die d) None of these
P.T.O.

B) Multiple choice correct answer type questions : (2×5=10)
11) Jig is employed for
a) Facing b) Reaming
c) Drilling d) Spot facing
12) Fixed cost includes
a) Labor cost b) Power cost
c) Setup cost d) Cost of m/c
13) Breakeven point is used to analyze
a) Cost of machining b) Min. Qty to produce
c) Profit or Loss d) None of these
14) Which of the following costs are considered while determining EOQ for procurement ?
a) Inventory carrying cost b) Ordering cost
c) M.R.P. d) Sales price
15) The following operation is a forming operation
a) Embossing b) Notching
c) Punching d) Blanking
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

(Elective II) TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 and 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two questions out of Q. No. 3,
4 and 5 from Section I and attempt any two questions out of Q. No. 7, 8
and 9 from Section II.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. Design the press tool for production of component in fig. I. Giving following details.
i) Cutting Force
ii) Clearance between die and punch
iii) Strip layout
iv) Design of die and other various elements. Draw two view of press tool out of one should be sectional
view. 20
Fig. I
Material M.S., Shear Strength 38 kg/mm2.
OR
Design the drawing tool for production of component in fig. II and determine the following.
i) Blank size ii) No. of draws iii) % Reduction iv) Punch and die size
v) Drawing force vi) Blank holding force vii) Press capacity.
Fig. II
Material M.S., Thickness = 1 mm, Yield stress = 450 N/mm2
Draw one view of drawing tool showing all details. 20
Set A

3. a) During orthogonal machining with a cutting tool having a 12° rake angle, the chip thickness is measured to
be 0.44 mm, the uncut thickness being 0.18 mm. Determine,
i) Shear plane angle ii) Shear strain. 5
b) Compare between orthogonal cutting and oblique cutting. 5
4. a) Calculate the cutting speed for a tool life of 160 minute. The same tool had a
life of 9 min. When cutting at 250 m/min. n = 0.22. 5
b) Define the term Machinability. List the factors with which Machinability
associated. 5
5. Write note on (any two) : 10
a) Centre of pressure
b) Relationship between V, Vc, Vs. (Cutting velocity, Chip velocity, shear velocity)
c) Heat generation in metal cutting
d) Cutting tool materials.
SECTION II
6. Design and draw milling fixture for slot 6 × 6 mm for the Round headed bolt in Fig. III. 20
OR
Design a drill jig for 6 Ø hole for the Round headed Bolt shown in Fig. III. 20
Figure III
7. A new machine costs (installed and tooled) Rs. 1.0 lakhs. Its useful life is 10 years and has scrap value
of 5000/-. Old machine to be replaced has a book value as on date equal to Rs. 4,000/- and is scrapped
at a value of Rs. 3,000/-
i) Labour and m/c cost on old machine is Rs. 10 and Rs. 15 respectively.
ii) Labour and m/c cost on new machine is Rs. 10 and Rs. 20 respectively.
iii) Old machine can produce 50 pieces per hour.
iv) New machine is able to produce 125 pieces per hour.
v) Machine runs for 2200 hours per year.
vi) Take I = 12%, T = 3%, M = 5%.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

MECHANICAL VIBRATION (New) (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section-I and Section-II.
3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly.

1. Choose the correct answer :
1) If mass of body increases 9 times (20×1=20)
a) Frequency decreases 3 times b) Frequency increases 3 times
c) Frequency does not change d) Zero
2) In energy method for finding frequency of system
a) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is zero
b) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is constant
c) System is assumed to be non-conservative
d) Frequency cannot be determined
3) A system is to be critically damped if damping factor for the system is
a) More than one b) Equal to one c) Less than one d) Equal to zero
4) During Resonance
a) High amplitude of vibration occurs b) Low amplitude of vibration occurs
c) No vibration occurs d) Vibration remain unaffected
5) Dynamic vibration absorber is suitable for
a) Constant speed machine b) Varying speed machines
c) Zero speed range machines d) None of above
6) Resultant stiffness of two springs in series as compared to individual stiffness of any of
two springs
a) Is more b) Is less c) Is equal d) None of above
7) In a spring mass system if mass of system is doubled with spring stiffness halved, the
natural frequency of vibration
a) Remain unchanged b) Is doubled
c) Is halved d) Is quadrupled
P.T.O.

8) In a spring mass system the mass m and spring stiffness k is taken very high altitude,
the natural frequency of longitudinal vibrations.
a) Increases
b) Remain unchanged
c) Decreases
d) May increase or decrease depends on value spring mass
9) The energy dissipated per cycle depends upon of coefficient of friction in case of
a) Viscous damping b) Coulomb damping
c) Structural damping d) Slip damping
10) The characteristics of under damped system of motion are
a) Amplitude increases with time b) Amplitude decreases with time
c) Amplitude is constant with time d) None
11) A harmonic motion is
a) Necessarily periodic motion b) Non-periodic motion
c) A motion described in a circle d) A random motion
12) In a dynamic vibration absorber system, under tuned conditions which of the following
relation hold ?
a) K1K2 = M1M2 b) K1M2 = M1K2
c) K1M1 = M2K2 d) None
13) The equivalent stiffness of spring connected in series having stiffness k1 and k2 can be
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2) b) k1 + k2 c) (1/k1) (1/k2) d) None
14) Main properties of vibrating system
a) Mass and stiffness b) Mass, stiffness and damping
c) Stiffness and damping d) Damping and stiffness
15) If spring of stiffness K units is cut into 2 equal pieces, then stiffness of each spring
a) K/3 b) 2K c) 3K d) 5K
16) Accelerometer is designed with
a) Low frequency b) High frequency c) Zero frequency d) None
17) Vibrometers have natural frequency of order
a) 4 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 1000 Hz d) Above 10kHz
18) The material normally used for vibration isolation is
a) Rubber b) Metallic spring c) Both a) and b) d) glass
19) In case of nonlinear vibration frequency of system
a) Is constant b) Is not constant c) Cannot be predicted d) None
20) Each outcome of an experiment for random variable
a) A sample point b) A random point c) An observed value d) All of above.
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

MECHANICAL VIBRATION (New) (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section-I and Section-II.
SECTION I
2. a) Define following terms (any four) : 8
i) Simple Harmonic Motion
ii) Cycle
iii) Resonance
iv) Stiffness
v) Forced vibration.
b) State types of damping and explain any one type of damping system. 5
3. a) Explain steps involved in vibration analysis. 5
b) Discuss various ways to derive equation of motion for single degree of freedom systems. 5
c) Explain causes and effects of vibration. 4
4. a) For spring mass system as shown in figure (1), determine 10
i) Equation of motion ii) Natural frequency iii) Normal mode of system.
Figure (1)
b) Distinguish between periodic and non-periodic motion. 3
Set A

5. a) Three Rail bogies by two springs of stiffness 40×105 N/mm each as shown in figure (2).
The mass of each bogy is 20×103 kg. Determine the frequencies of vibration. Neglect the
friction between the wheels and rails. 9
Figure (2)
b) Explain in short different types of Vibrations. 4
SECTION II
6. a) Explain in brief probability distribution and probability density function. 5
b) Explain FFT analyzer in brief. 4
c) Write a short note on Vibration Isolation. 4
7. a) Explain principle of superposition in nonlinear vibration and brief about nature of nonlinearity
for simple pendulum. 8
b) Write a short note on vibration exciter. 5
8. a) What is dynamic vibration absorber and show effect of mass ratio on frequency ratio of
undamped dynamic vibration absorber. 8
b) Explain in brief random variable and random process in random vibration. 5
9. Write a short note on (attempt any two) : 14
a) Deterministic and Random vibration
b) Accelerometer
c) Time and Frequency signal analysis.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p. m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be Solved in first 30 minutes in

3) Put a tick mark for right answer of Q.1.

1. Tick the correct option : (20×1=20)

1) Brake specific fuel consumption is defined as
a) Fuel consumption per hour
b) Fuel consumption per kilometer
c) Fuel consumption per brake power
d) Fuel consumption per brake power Hour
2) Time loss factor in actual cycle is due to
a) Progressive combustion b) Heat loss through cylinder walls
c) Gas leakage d) Friction
3) In carburetor the top of the fuel jet with reference to petrol level in a float chamber
a) Is kept at same level b) Is kept at slightly higher level
c) Is kept slightly lower level d) None of above
4) In carburetor idling system is used
a) To compensate dilution due to exhaust b) For cold starting
c) For meeting maximum power d) For rapid throttle opening
5) The specific gravity of diesel oil is
a) 0.6 b) 0.75 c) 0.85 d) 1.2
6) Which of the following could be the probable reason of power loss in a diesel engine ?
a) Low injection pressure b) Restricted exhaust
c) Ineffective cooling d) Clogging of air cleaner
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 108 -2- *SLRPC108*
7) Volumetric efficiency of supercharged engine is
a) Between 100 – 110% b) Between 90 – 100%
c) Between 80 – 90% d) Between 70 – 80%
8) Supercharging of I.C. engine is essential for
a) Marine engine b) Aircraft engine
c) Stationary engine d) None of the above
9) Maximum torque is generated by an engine when
a) It runs at lowest speed b) It develops maximum power
c) It consumes maximum fuel d) It runs at maximum speed
10) For SI engine air consumption with engine speed
a) Increases and then decreases b) Increases
c) Decreases d) Remains constant
11) Carbon deposits in IC engine cylinder results in an increase of
a) Clearance volume b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Consumption duration d) Effective compression ratio
12) Which is the most effective alternative fuel for IC engine in rural area ?
a) CNG b) Biogas c) Alcohol d) Hydrogen
13) CO emission from SI engine are higher when the engine is in
a) Idling b) Cruising c) Accelerating d) Deaccelerating
14) Engine friction increases very rapidly with increase in
a) Stroke/bore ratio b) Compression ratio
c) Engine speed d) Engine load
15) Pre combustion chamber gives
a) Low mechanical efficiency b) Clean exhaust
c) High brake thermal efficiency d) High volumetric efficiency
16) Desirable characteristic of combustion chamber for SI engine to avoid knock is
a) Small bore
b) Short ratio of flame path to bore
c) Absence of hot surface in the end region
d) All of the above
17) The knocking tendency in SI engine can be decreased by
a) Adding benzole b) Decreasing compression ratio
c) Controlling ignition timing d) Adding dopes (like tetraethyl lead)
18) Swirl means
a) Radial motion to fuel air mixture
b) Circular motion to suction air
c) Directional movement to fuel spray
d) Circular motion to gas after combustion
19) Movement of air in the cylinder does not help in
a) Reducing noise b) Mixing of fuel with air
c) Distribution of fuel d) Reduction of after burning
20) Brake specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine at full load is nearly
a) 0.15 Kg/BHP hr b) 0.20 Kg/BHP hr
c) 0.25 Kg/BHP hr d) 0.30 Kg/BHP hr
______________
Set A

*SLRPC108* -3- SLR-PC – 108
Seat
No.
B.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) List the different components of an I.C. engine along with the nomenclature terms. 7
b) Compare the valve timing diagram for slow speed and high speed engine. 7
c) Explain altitude compensation in supercharged I.C. engine. 6
3. a) Discuss the mixture requirements at different loads and speeds for S I engine. 7
b) Explain the significance of spray formation with atomization and spray penetration. 6
c) Explain two important fuel supply circuits in carburetor for Car. 7
4. a) Calculate the diameter of fuel orifice of a four stroke engine which develops 25 KW per
cylinder at 2500 rpm. The SFC is 0.3 Kg/Kwh fuel with 30° API, The fuel is injected at a
pressure of 150 bar over a crank travel of 25°. The pressure in the combustion chamber
is 40 bar. Coefficient of velocity is 0.875 and specific gravity is given by
S.G. = 141.5/(131.5 + °API) 9
b) Discuss the factors for engine selection required for agricultural application. 6
c) Draw neat sketch of common rail injection system. 5
SECTION – II
5. a) Discuss the abnormal combustion in C.I. engine. 7
b) Explain the distinct phases of combustion process in S.I.engine. 7
c) Explain fuel rating in C.I. engine and S.I. engine. 6
Set A

SLR-PC – 108 -4- *SLRPC108*
6. a) Explain the parameters considered for heat balance sheet of slow speed I C engine. 7
b) Define following terms with their significance : (any three) 6
1) Volumetric efficiency
2) BSFC
3) Brake thermal efficiency
4) Indicated thermal efficiency
c) Explain with sketch three way catalytic convertor for S.I. engine emission control. 7
7. a) During the trial of a single cylinder, 4 stoke oil engine, the following results were
obtained,
Cylinder diameter = 20 cm
Stroke = 40 cm
Mean effective pressure = 6 bar
Torque = 407 Nm
Speed = 250 rpm
Oil consumption = 4 kg/hr
Calorific value of fuel = 43 MJ/Kg
Cooling water flow rate = 4.5 Kg/Min
Air used per Kg of fuel = 30 Kg
Rise in cooling water temperature = 45°C
Temperature of exhaust gases = 420°C
Room Temperature = 20°C
Mean specific heat of exhaust gas = 1 KJ/Kg K
Specific heat of water = 4.18 KJ/Kg K
Find ip, BP, and draw heat balance sheet for the test in KJ/Hr. 10
b) Explain suitability of two alternative fuels for C.I. engine with justification. 5
c) Explain the ignition lag in SI engine and its effect. 5
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
B.E. (Part – I) Mechanical Examination, 2015
POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Each question carries 1 mark.

1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20)
1) India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at
a) Tarapore b) Kota c) Kalpakkam d) None of these
2) Diversity factor is always
a) equal to unity b) less than unity
c) more than unity d) less than or more than unity
3) Energy is a crucial input in the process of development of
a) Economic b) Social c) Industrial d) All of these
4) The layout of electrical equipments in a power plant consists of the
a) arrangement of bus bars b) circuit breakers
c) transformers d) all of these
5) The load factor of heavy industries may be taken as
a) 10 to 20% b) 25 to 40% c) 50 to 70% d) 70 to 80%
6) Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
a) sinking fund method b) straight line method
c) both a) and b) d) estimate value
7) In Hopkinson demand rate the energy bill is dependant upon
a) the energy consumed
b) the maximum demand of the consumer
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
8) Cost of wind energy generator as compared to conventional power plant for the
same power output is
a) Equal b) Lower c) Higher d) Half
9) For economical and better operation of a power plant ________ load is always
desirable.
a) variable b) oscillating
c) constant magnitude d) alternating
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 109 -2- *SLRPC109*
10) The load duration curve is nothing but a re-arrangement of a daily load curve with
loads set up in
a) descending order b) in partially selective order
c) ascending order d) a straight line
11) The pump storage plant essentially consists of a
a) only a single basin b) only a bottom small reservoir
c) head and a tail water pond d) pressure amplifier only
12) The general type of tariff is expressed as
a) bc + y b) by + c c) ax2 d) ax + by + c
13) Energy conservation involves
a) scrap rejection
b) surplus use of facilities
c) investment into energy efficient instruments
d) depreciation of funds
14) Insulation is to be provided at the back and at sides in the solar flat plate collector
a) to minimize the heat losses
b) to increases the rigidity
c) to help turbulence of circulating liquid
d) serve as a connectivity aiding heat transfer to atmosphere
15) The dispersion of solar energy is maximum at a wavelength of
a) 1.0 μ m b) 0.48 μ m c) 1.4 μ m d) 2.2 μ m
16) The maximum efficiency of a wind turbine is
a) 30% b) 36% c) 50% d) 59%
17) Maximum wind energy available is directly proportional to
a) square of the diameter of rotor b) air density
c) cube of wind velocity d) a) + b) + c)
18) Demand factor is defined as
a) average load /maximum demand
b) maximum demand /connected load
c) connected load/maximum demand
d) maximum demand × connected load
19) To make the best possible use of generating capacities the power stations are
a) isolated b) demarked into straight boundaries
c) interconnected to form a grid d) interminently earthed
20) Geo-thermal energy is the energy from
a) radiation of sun b) earth’s crust
c) forces of attraction of sun and earth d) atmosphere
______________
Set A

*SLRPC109* -3- SLR-PC – 109
Seat
No.
B.E. (Part – I) Mechanical Examination, 2015

POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – 1
2. a) Discuss about the role of NTPC and NHPC in the power development in India. 6
b) Explain the details of peak load and base load plant. Also name a few types of
peak load and base load plants. 7
c) The peak load on a power station is 30 MW. The loads having maximum demands
of 25 MW, 10 MW, 5 MW and 7 MW are connected to the power station. The
capacity of the power station is 40 MW and annual load factor is 50%. Find
i) average load on power plant
ii) energy supplied per year
iii) demand factor
iv) diversity factor. 7
3. a) State clearly what do you mean by a load curve. Explain with the help of figure a
street lighting load curve and an industrial load curve of one shift. 7
b) Draw a neat diagram of pump storage plant explaining it’s working as a peak load
plant. 7
c) With a neat sketch explain the working of an Exciter. Also write a note on A.C.
exciters. 6
4. a) What do you mean by switch gear ? How are they classified ? Explain different
functions performed by switch gear. 6
b) Differentiate between fixed and operating costs of power plants. Enlist and explain
the items which constitute the fixed and the operating cost. 7
c) Explain in detail the points to be to considered in the selection of the type of
generation. 7
Set A

SLR-PC – 109 -4- *SLRPC109*
SECTION – 2
5. a) In connection with solar energy define the following :

i) Angle of declination
ii) Earth’s poles
iii) Earth’s equator
iv) Altitude angle. 7
b) Explain with sketch a liquid flat plate solar collector. Briefly discuss the effect of
various parameters on the performance of liquid flat plate collector. 7
c) Explain Pyranometer and Pyrheliometer with neat sketch. 6
6. a) Explain with a neat sketch the working of Wind Energy Conversion System (WECS).
How are they classified ? 7
b) Write down the advantages and disadvantages of wind energy. Also with a neat
sketch explain the working of Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion System
(OTEC). 7
c) Classify Geo-Thermal resources and explain the working of geo-thermal vapour
dominated system with a neat sketch. 6
7. a) How can power be produced by using various tidal power plants ? 7

b) Discuss energy conservation in the following industries : 7
i) sugar industry
ii) cement industry
iii) paper and pulp industry.
c) Explain all the details of energy audit also showing various stages in energy audit. 6
————————
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. Civil (Part – I) Examination, 2015
CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.

1. Choose the correct answer.

i) Pick up the correct statement from the following 1
a) Gypsum in cement decreases the setting time
b) The first compound of cement which reacts with water, is C2S
c) Bulking of sand is less when its particles are fine
d) All the above
ii) The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt at 1
a) 1200°C b) 1400°C c) 1600°C d) 2000°C
iii) Vicat’s apparatus is used for 1
a) Consistency test b) Fineness test
c) Setting time test d) Soundness test
iv) The property of fresh concrete in which water tends to rise on the surface
while placing and compacting is called as 1
a) Segregation b) Bleeding
c) Bulking d) Creep
v) For ensuring quality of concrete, one should use 1
a) Single sized aggregates b) Well graded aggregates
c) Coarse aggregates d) All of the above
P.T.O.

vi) Workability can be improved by adding 1
a) air-entraining agent b) foaming agent
c) aluminium compound d) all of the above
vii) As compared to Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC), the use of Portland
Pozzolana Cement (PPC) 1
a) Increases shrinkage b) Increases strength
c) Reduces workability d) Increases bleeding
viii) Admixtures that cause early setting and hardening of concrete are called as 1
a) Accelerators b) Retarders
c) Air entraining agents d) Workability admixtures
ix) Pick up the correct statement from the following 1
a) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh
b) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete unworkable
c) Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated
d) All of the above
x) Slump test is done for 1
a) Workability of concrete b) Reliability of concrete
c) Segregation of concrete d) Strength of concrete
xi) Initial setting time of cement is 2
a) Minimum 30 min. b) Maximum 30 min.
c) Minimum 600 min. d) Maximum 600 min.
xii) IS provision for concrete mix design is given in 2
a) IS: 4031-1968 b) IS: 383-1970
c) IS: 456-2000 d) IS: 10262-2009
xiii) Fineness of cement is done by the sieve 2
a) 600 μ b) 300 μ c) 150 μ d) 90 μ
xiv) Grading of aggregate 2
a) Affects the workability
b) Affects the strength of concrete
c) Is depends on the shape and texture of the particles of the aggregates
d) Affects the w/c ratio
e) All the above is true
xv) The volume of 100 kg bag of cement is taken as _______ litres. 2
a) 35 litres b) 35 m3 c) 70 litres d) 70 m3
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Write short notes on :
a) Compounds of cement. 5
b) Effect of water to cement ratio on the strength of concrete. 5
c) Standard grading curves. 4
3. a) Table below shows the grading of aggregates. Find the fineness modulus of
40 mm, 20 mm and 10 mm aggregates. 8
Percentage passing for aggregate size

IS sieve
40 mm 20 mm 10 mm 4.75 mm
40 mm 90 10 2 −
20 mm − 95 15 3
10 mm − − 85 20
b) Write in brief on compaction of concrete. 5
4. a) Explain workability and enlist methods of measuring it. Explain one of the
methods for finding workability in details. 7
b) Explain the phenomenon of “Segregation” and “Bleeding” of concrete in
details. 6
5. a) Write a short note on initial setting time and final setting time of cement.
Explain in details the importance of these tests in practice. 6
b) Explain with neat sketches about dry and wet process of manufacturing of
cement. 7
Set A

SECTION – II
6. a) What are the factors affecting creep in concrete ? 4
b) What are the effects of creep and shrinkage ? How to control creep and
shrinkage of concrete ? 10
7. Write down the step by step procedure of concrete mix design by revised
IS 10262:2009. 13
8. a) What is the effect of water/cement ratio on durability ? 4

b) Why is porosity important with regard to : a) strength b) durability ? 9
9. a) What are the factors causing variations in concrete ? 4

b) Write in detail on light weight concrete. 9
————————
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Type I Questions carry one mark each.
2) Type II Questions carry two marks each.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page
No. 3.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

1. Choose the correct answer.
Type I Questions :
1) Operations Research is said to be

a) An art b) Science
c) Quantitative Analysis d) All of these
2) A feasible solution to LP problems
a) Must satisfy all the constraints
b) Need not satisfy all the constraints
c) Must be a corner point of feasible region
d) Must optimize the objective function
3) For a maximization LP problem, the objective function coefficient for an artificial variable is
a) M b) + M
c) Zero d) None of the above
4) Assignment problem is
a) Special type of transportation problem
b) Special type of LP problem
c) Both a) and b)
5) IBFS to the transportation problem is obtained by
a) Row minima method b) Column minima method
c) Matrix minima method d) All of the above
6) Which of the following criterion is not used for decision making under uncertainty ?
a) Maximin criterion b) Laplace criterion
c) Hurwicz criterion d) Expected value criterion
7) Network models help in project management for

a) Planning b) Scheduling
c) Controlling d) All of the above
P.T.O.

8) For critical activity, slack or total float must be
a) Positive small value b) Negative small value
c) Zero d) None of the above
9) Group replacement is not preferred for
a) Large number of identical items b) Low cost items
c) Items that are repairable d) Items that fail suddenly
10) The multi-stage decision problem can conveniently be solved by
a) Integer programming b) Simulation
c) Dynamic programming d) Assignment technique
Type II Questions :
1) For an objective function z = x1 + 2 × 2 subjected to two constraints 0

x1
1 and 0
x2
1 the maximum
and minimum values respectively are
a) Zero and one b) Three and zero
c) One and zero d) Five and zero
2) The number of basic variables in optimal solution of LPP corresponds to
a) Number of slack variables b) Number of artificial variables
c) Number of constraints d) None of the above
3) When money value changes 10% a year, discount factor for the second year will be
a) 1 b) zero
c) 0.826 d) 0.909
4) In PERT, the dispersion of frequency distribution curve between optimistic and pessimistic time estimates for an
activity is
a) Three sigma b) Five sigma
c) Six sigma d) All of the above
5) The Road Traffic problem in Bombay can be optimized by
a) Shortest path method b) Minimum spanning tree algorithm
c) Maximal flow algorithm d) None of the above
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from Section I and Section II.
3) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
1. Solve the following LPP by Big M method. 13
Min Z = 10x1 + 6x2 + 8x3
Subject to,
x1 + 2x2 + 4x3
24
2x1 + 4x2 = 40
x1, x2
0
2. a) Four contractors have submitted their tender for four jobs. The comparative statement reads as follows. The
cell entries are in lakhs of rupees.
Jobs
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 8
) # $ &
* & " $
Contractors
+ $ $ #
, " ! % &
Find the optimal assignment which will result in total minimum cost. 8
b) Explain in brief the applications of OR. 5
3. a) A certain product is manufactured at different factories and supplied to different destinations. The unit
transportation cost in rupees is given below. Determine IBFS by VAM. Also find the optimal transportation
schedule. 8
D e s t i n a t i o n s
D D D S u p p l y U n i t s
!
F 4 8 8 7 6
Factories F 1 6 2 4 1 6 8 2
F 8 1 6 2 4 7 7
D e m a n d
7 2 1 0 2 4 1
U n i t s
b) What is duality in LPP ? 5
Set A

4. Write a note on any two of the following : (7×2=14)
i) Bellmans principle used in dynamic program.
ii) Integer programming
iii) Sensitivity analysis.
SECTION II
5. a) Solve the following game by any dominance principle. Determine the optimal strategies for both the players. 8
Player B
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 8
4 2 0 2
4 3 1 3
Player A
4 3 7 - 5
!
" 4 3 3 - 1
b) Explain any three characteristics of game. 5

6. a) Price of machine tool is Rs. 15,000. Its operation and maintenance cost is Rs. 500 in the first year, progressively
increases by Rs. 200 in next two years, then by Rs. 500, Rs. 900, Rs. 1,500 and Rs. 2,200 in subsequent
years. Calculate the optimal replacement age of machine tool if the worth of money increases by 10% every
year. 8
b) When and why the group replacement policy is recommended ? 5
7. a) A small project consists of the following activities given with their time estimate in weeks. 8
A c t i v i t y 1 - 2 1 - 3 2 - 3 2 - 4 3 - 5 4 - 5 5 - 6
D u r a t i o n i n w e e k s 5 6 3 5 7 6 8
i) Draw the network.

ii) Determine the optimum project duration.
iii) Calculate total float for each activity.
b) Write a note on three time estimates used in PERT. 5
8. a) Find the shortest route from residence to the University. 6
b) Explain the following criteria used in decision analysis. 8

i) Savage criterion ii) Hurwicz criterion.
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

FINITE ELEMENT METHODS
Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
2) Answer any two questions from each Section.
1. Solve the objective questions (Any 20). All objective questions must be of simple answer type.
1) Three dimensional to two dimensional geometrical approximation of Crane Hook is a
A) Plane Strain Problem B) Plane Stress Problem
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
2) Post processing means
A) Meshing B) Solving
C) Result analysis D) Discritization
3) The function which dictate the nodal contribution of field variable is
A) Stress function B) Displacement function
C) Force function D) Shape function
4) Finite element analysis of thermal conduction without heat convection and radiation of a
fin around the electric motor casing is
A) One dimensional problem B) Two dimensional problem
C) Three dimensional problem D) None of the above
5) For analysis of fluid problems the appropriate commercial software package is
A) Catia B) Pro E C) CFD D) Hypermesh
6) Finite element methods is a
A) Approximate method of analysis B) Exact method of analysis
C) Experimental method of analysis D) None of the above
7) The modal analysis means finding
A) Mode shapes B) Natural frequencies
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
8) A measure of distortion of a element is
A) bandwidth B) damping ratio
C) aspect ratio D) shape function
9) As number of elements in a finite element model increases the size of element will
A) decrease B) increase
C) remains same D) not be predicted
P.T.O.

10) Stress analysis of crankshaft, cylinder block, connecting rods, chasis is a
A) Eigen value problem B) Steady state problem
C) Transient problem D) Non linear static problem
11) Improvement in the accuracy of finite element mesh by increasing the order of interpolation
function used in the elements is
A) h-refinement B) p-h refinement C) mesh refinement D) p-refinement
12) In Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) FEM is the following phase of a
manufacturing
A) CAD B) CAM C) CAE D) CAD/CAM
13) NAFEMS is a national agency which publishes guidelines on commercial software
packages for following
A) Finite element modeling B) Flexible manufacturing
C) Computer aided drafting D) None of the above
14) If the order of displacement interpolation function and geometry interpolation function is
same the element is called as
A) Sub parametric B) Super parametric
C) Parametric D) Iso parametric
15) Preprocessing means
A) Solving B) Meshing C) Result analysis D) None of the above
16) A symmetry condition where the same pattern is seen mirrored in a plane
A) Axial symmetry B) Cyclic symmetry
C) Planar symmetry D) Repetitive symmetry
17) For the Torsion problems the field variable considered to be distributed is
A) Current B) Displacement (deflections)
C) Velocity D) Rotation (twist)
18) The loading, constraints and other external effects applied to a model is
A) Boundary conditions B) Constraining
C) Meshing D) Modeling
19) The matrix which contains information on the distribution of unknown field variable in an
element in terms of nodal values
A) [J] B) [B] C) [N] D) [K]
20) A problem which is not a function of a time
A) Eigen value problem B) Steady state problem
C) Transient problem D) Propagation problem
21) Interpolation functions can take any mathematical forms although in practice they are usually
A) Trigonometric B) Exponential C) Polynomials D) None of the above
22) In a weighted residual method the difference between the exact solution of a differential
equation and a solution using approximating function
A) zero residual B) resultant
C) non zero residual D) none of the above
23) In finite element method the term finite stands for
A) Finite number of element B) Finite number of nodes
C) Finite number of equations D) Finite number of degrees of freedom
24) The element with quadratic interpolation function is called as
A) Quadratic element B) Cubic element
C) Linear D) None of the above
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

FINITE ELEMENT METHODS
Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain Weighted Residual Method and classify its weak and non weak forms. 7
OR
Solve the following differential equation by subdomain method and compare u(0.5) with
exact solution
+ u x2 = 0 0 x 1
@ K

@ N
Boundary conditions u(0) = 0, (1) = 1.

@ K
@ N
b) Compare analytical, numerical and experimental method of analysis. 6

c) Explain descritization in FEM with suitable example and also brief P-refinement and
h-refinement. 7
3. a) Explain Simplex, Complex and Multiplex elements. 7

b) Derive shape functions for one dimensional pin jointed bar element for linear variation of
displacement and prove that the shape function Ni equals one at node i and zero at node
j and similarly vice versa for shape function Nj plot the same. 6
c) Explain geometric approximations for stress analysis. 7
4. Write short notes on the following (any 5) : (5×4=20)

a) Application of FEM in Automobile domain
b) Simplification through symmetry
c) Types of node
d) Natural co-ordinates
e) Principle of minimum potential energy
f) Model check.
Set A

SECTION II
5. a) Use the finite element method to predict the temperature distribution and heat flour through
the composite skin shown in Fig. 7
A Brick KA = 80 × 103 W/mm °C

B Insulation KB = 1 × 103 W/mm °C
Assume unit cross sectional area for each element.
b) Explain the properties of one dimensional two dimensional and three dimensional element
with their interpolation functions. 6
c) Explain elimination and penalty approach. 7
6. a) Explain model validity and accuracy. 7

b) Write properties of global stiffness matrix. 7
c) Derive element equations for one dimensional heat transfer without heat convection.
Define and derive [B] [Matrix B]. 6
7. Write short notes (any five) : (5×4=20)

a) Dynamic problems
b) Material non-linearity
c) Torsion problems
d) Element distortions
e) Modal analysis
f) Beam, plate and shell element.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
EXPERIMENT STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective – I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.

A. Match the pairs : (4×1=4)
Column (1) Column (2)
a) A.C. Bridge p) Laplace Equation
b) Zero order Isochromatics q) Black in white light
c) Electrical analogy r) Coloured in white light
d) D.C. Bridge s) Easy to balance
t) Difficult to balance
B. Match the pairs : (4×1=4)
Column (1) Column (2)
a) 2 Arm sensitive Bridge p) Threshold Strain
b) Moire Fringes q) Grating of dark and light bands
1
c) Brittle Coating r) e0 = E sK ∈
2
d) 4 Arm sensitive Bridge s) e 0 = E sK∈
t) Photoelasticity
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 112 -2- *SLRPC112*
C. Solve Multiple correct answers. (4×2= 8)

i) Photoelastic material should have
a) High ‘E’ b) Low fσ c) Creep d) None
ii) D.C. excited Wheatstone Bridge can be finely balanced by
iii) Fringes seen through analyzer can be
a) Isoclinics b) Isochromatics c) Moire d) None
iv) D.C. excited Wheastone Bridge can be balanced by
D. Solve classical objectives. (4×1= 4)

i) Strain gauges for torque measurement are fixed using
a) template jig b) fixture c) weight d) none
ii) Creep for photoelastic material should be
a) Low b) High
c) Medium d) Not related to analysis
iii) For dynamic strain measuring potentiometers, Output voltage e0 is
a) Filtered b) Amplified c) Balanced d) None
iv) Coarse balancing is obtained by
c) diffrential shunt d) none
______________
Set A

*SLRPC112* -3- SLR-PC-112
Seat
No.
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

EXPERIMENT STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective – I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
2) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it
clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Explain in brief :
i) Isoclinics
ii) Birefringence
iii) Isochromatics
iv) Polarisation of light 8
b) Derive the expression for the light intensity seen through analyzer when the
stressed model is kept in the dark field circular polariscope. 12
3. a) Explain the properties of different photo elastic materials . 6
b) A half scale photoelastic model is made to represent a prototype design. A
single force of 1 kN will be applied to the proposed prototype.
i) The model is loaded to 1 kN and the maximum stress is found to be 7 MPa.
Determine the maximum stress in the prototype when loaded to 10 kN.
ii) If the modulus of elasticity of the model is 3.5 × 103 MPa and the modulus
of prototype is 70×103 MPa, estimate the total deflection of the prototype
if, the total deflection of the model is 5 mm. 8
c) Derive an expression for determination of material fringe, value for rectangular

beam of thickness ‘h’ and depth ‘w’ subjected to pure bending. 6
4. a) What is the purpose of electrical analogy method ? Explain the method. 8
b) Explain the significance of Material Fringe value. 6
c) Write short note on scaling of model results to prototype. 6
Set A

SLR-PC – 112 -4- *SLRPC112*
SECTION – II
5. a) Discuss the mechanism of formation of Moire fringes. 8
b) Discuss temperature compensation for a strain gauge. 6
c) Discuss the possibility of use of strain gauge for simple tension test. 6
6. a) Discuss the properties of strain gauge grid material. Discuss backing and
adhesives used. 8
b) The strain readings as measured by an equiangular rosette at a point in the

stressed body are as follows :
ε a = 500 μm / m , εb = 380 μm / m , and ε c = 200 μm / m , Determine the

maximum principal strain direction, the principal stresses, principal strains
and the maximum shear stress. Take E = 210 GPa and μ = 0.286. 12
7. a) Discuss the gauge factor for the strain gauge and derive the expression
for it. 10
b) Discuss the use of strain gauge for measurement of torque of a slow and fast
rotating shaft. 10
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (Mech.) Part I Examination, 2015

Elective I : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve five full questions including MCQ.
2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30

I. MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) (Total marks 10)
1) Match the pairs : (2×2=4)
a) Product Engineer p) Releasing the orders to tool dept.
b) Process Engineer q) Preparation of part print
r) Correction in part print
s) Analysis of part print
2) Which of the following lead to tolerance stack ? 2
a) Product design b) Selection of improper m/c
c) Method of processing and gaging d) Selection of improper torling
3) Which of the following are auxilliary process operations ? 2
a) Straightening b) Inspection c) Cleaning d) Dispatch
4) Steps involved in planning stage of process benchmarking are 2
a) Identification of what is to be benchmarked
b) Identification of comparative components
c) Determination of current performance gaps
d) Developing action plan
II. MCQ with only one answer correct (1 mark each) (Total 10 marks) :
a) SPM p) Versatile and flexible
b) GPM q) Danger of obsolescence
P.T.O.

a) Availability of market potential p) Managerial feasibility
b) Availability of man, Matt.,
Machinery reqd. for production q) Economic feasibility
c) Availability of tools, jigs, fixtures etc. r) Manufacturing feasibility
d) Market sales price and profit margin s) Design feasibility
e) Procurement of space, bldg., t) Feasibility related to
allied infrastructure selection of product
3) Qualifying operation is a 1
a) Basic process operation b) Auxiliary operation
c) Principle process operation d) Minor operation
4) Which of the following operation is supporting operation ? 1
a) Handling b) Hardening and tempering
c) Tapping d) Shot blasting
5) Which of the following is bilateral tolerance ? 1
0 . 0 1 0 0 . 0 0
0 . 0 5 0 . 0 5
a) 2 0 . 0 0 0 . 0 0
b) 2 0 . 0 0 0 . 0 5
c) 2 0 . 0 0 0 . 0 0
d) 2 0 . 0 0 0 . 0 0
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Mech.) Part I Examination, 2015

Elective I : PROCESS ENGINEERING

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 and Q. No. 5 are compulsory.

2) Attempt any two questions from Q.No. 2, 3, 4.
3) Attempt any two questions from Q.No. 6, 7, 8.
4) Assume suitable data wherever nesessary and state it
clearly.
SECTION I
1. Provide following information for machining of the part shown in Fig. 1.

The no. of parts to be produced is 1500. (4×5=20)
a) Sequence of operation indicating machine selected, holding method, machining
data for each set up. 13
b) Specification of gages and inspections equipments. 4
c) ISO or any commercial specifications for min. 5 tools. 3
2. a) Explain role of product engineer in industry. 5

b) What is tolerance stack ? Explain design tolerance stack with suitable
example. 5
3. a) Compare bet. job, batch and mass production with suitable example. 5
b) What is classification of operation ? What is importance of basic process
operation ? 5
4. Write notes on any two : (5×2=10)

a) Tolerance chart
b) Part print analysis
c) Economic aspects of processing
d) Work piece control
Set A

SECTION II
5. Draw process picture sheet for any four operations to be performed on the part
shown in Fig. 1. Process picture sheet shall include location, clamping and all
other relevant details. 20
6. a) Discuss design factors in m/c selection. 5
b) What are the advantages of combining the operation ? 5
7. a) Discuss the advantages and limitations of special purpose m/cs. 5

b) Explain the order of preference of tooling to be used in the organisation. 5
8. Write notes on any two of the following : (5×2=10)
a) CAPP
b) Machine selection for processing in existing workshop
c) Process Benchmarking
d) Automatic process control by in process gaging
_____________________ Set A

Seat
No. Set A
B.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : i)Answer any two question from each Section.

ii)Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
iii)Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
iv) Use of psychrometric chart and steam table is allowed.
v) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
vi) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.


1) A one tonne refrigerating machine means that
a) The total weight of the machine is 1 tonne
b) The quantity of refrigerant is 1 tonne
c) 1 tonne of water can be converted into ice
d) 1 tonne of ice when melts from and at 0°C in 24 hours, the refrigerating effect is
14000 kJ/h
2) The C.O.P. of a heat pump, for the same operating temperature limits, equals
a) (C.O.P.)REF b) 1 + (C.O.P.)REF
c) (C.O.P.)REF – 1 d) 1/(C.O.P.)REF
3) The capacity of a refrigerating machine is expressed as
a) Gross weight of machine in tonnes
b) Rate of abstraction of heat from the space being cooled
c) Inside volume of the cabinet
d) Lowest temperature attained
4) In air conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is
reversed ________________ cycle.
a) Otto b) Joule c) Brayton d) Carnot
5) In a vapour compression cycle, the superheated vapour state of refrigerant occurs
a) After passing through the condenser
b) After leaving the evaporator
c) Before entering the expansion valve
d) At exit from the compressor
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 114 -2- *SLRPC114*
6) In a refrigeration cycle, the superheating ___________ C.O.P.
a) Decreases b) Remains constant c) Increases d) None of the above
7) Which of the following components is common between vapour compression and
vapour absorption systems ?
a) Rectifier b) Condenser c) Generator d) Absorber
8) Which refrigerant is used in a vapour absorption refrigerator ?
a) Freon b) Sulphur dioxide c) Water d) Aqua ammonia
9) The Refrigerant Freon – 12 is a compound consisting of
a) Carbon, chlorine and fluorine b) Carbon, hydrogen and chlorine
c) Carbon, hydrogen and fluorine d) Carbon, hydrogen, chlorine and fluorine
10) Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest boiling point ?
a) Freon – 12 b) Carbon dioxide c) Ammonia d) Sulphur dioxide
11) During sensible cooling, wet bulb temperature
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) First increases then decreases d) First decreases then increases
12) The relative humidity, during heating and humidification
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains constant d) Unpredictable
13) The wet bulb temperature is a measure of __________ humidity.
a) Relative b) Absolute c) Specific d) Sensible
14) In a psychrometric chart, specific humidly lines are
a) Horizontal and uniformly spaced b) Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
c) Curved lines d) Vertical and uniformly spaced
15) For an air conditioning plant above 300 tonnes, which one of the following systems
would be normally preferred ?
a) Ammonia reciprocating compressor b) Centrifugal chiller
c) Absorption refrigeration system d) Hermetic refrigeration system
16) The most commonly used method for the design of duct size is the
a) Velocity reduction method b) Equal friction method
c) Static regain method d) Dual or double method
17) The minimum temperature to which moist air can be cooled under ideal conditions
in a spray washer is
a) Dew point temperature of the inlet air b) Wet bulb temperature of inlet air
c) Water inlet temperature d) Water outlet temperature
18) An apartment has a cooling load of 300 MJ/day. An air conditioning working
24 hours a day will have an approximate capacity of
a) 1TR b) 2TR c) 5TR d) 8TR
19) The wet bulb temperature during sensible cooling process
a) Decreases b) Remains constant
c) Increases d) Uncertain
20) If air is passed over a solid absorbent surface or through a liquid absorbent spray
simultaneous _____________ is accomplished.
a) Heating and humidification b) Hearing and dehumidification
c) Cooling and humidification d) Cooling and dehumidification
______________
Set A

*SLRPC114* -3- SLR-PC – 114
Seat
No.

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) Answer any two question from each Section.

ii) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
iii) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
iv) Use of psychrometric chart and steam table is allowed.
SECTION – I
2. a) Compare Vapour compression and Vapour absorption Refrigeration system. 6
b) Explain with neat sketch the working of Lithium Bromide absorption refrigeration
system. 8
c) What are the desirable properties of the refrigerant ? 6
3. a) Draw a schematic diagram of a cascade system of refrigeration and explain with

the help of p-h diagram. 10
b) Explain by flow diagram and on p-h diagram the compound compression with
flash inter cooling with single expansion valve along the flow line to evaporator. 10
4. Write short note on : (5×4=20)
i) Electrolux refrigeration.
ii) Need of refrigeration in aircrafts.
iii) Types of compressors.
iv) Enthalpy concentration chart.
Set A

SLR-PC – 114 -4- *SLRPC114*
SECTION – II
5. a) Obtain following psychrometric properties of moist air at 36°C and 20°C WBT
without using psychrometric chart.
1) Vapour pressure
2) Sp. Humidity
3) Relative Humidity
4) Vapour density. 8
b) Write a note on ventilation its objectives and requirements. 6
c) Define the following term : 6

i) DBT
ii) WBT
iii) DPT.
6. a) Following data refers to an AC system to be designated for an industrial process

for hot and cold climate ; outside conditions = 30°C DBT and 75% RH, Required
inside conditions = 20°C DBT and 60% RH. The required condition is to be achieved
first by cooling and dehumidifying and then by heating. If 20 m3 air is absorbed by
the plant every minute. Find :
1) Capacity of cooling coil in TR.
2) Capacity of heating coil in KW.
3) Amount of water removed per hr.
4) BPF of heating coil if its surface temperature is 35°C. 12
b) What do you understand by ventilation ? Explain how it is determine. 8
7. a) What is pressure loss in duct ? Explain static regain method. 8
b) Write down general rules in the design of duct. 6
c) Give types and uses of outlet diffusers, dampers used in AC system. 6
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Objective : 20
1. Conventional MCQ : (20×1=20)

1) _____________ involves selecting missions and objectives and the actions to achieve
them.
A) Planning B) Mission C) Strategy D) Goals
2) _____________ are distinct little businesses set up as units in a larger company to ensure
that a certain product.
A) Business Small Units B) Strategic Business Units
C) Small Business Units D) Business Branches Units
3) Under Theory _______ Average human being learn, under proper conditions, not only to
accept responsibility but also to seek it.
A) Y B) X C) W D) Z
4) _____________ managers are the real “team manger” in grid type.
A) 1.9 B) 5.5 C) 9.1 D) 9.9
5) _________ is the routes taken by the product/goods as they move from the
organization/producer to the ultimate consumer or user.
A) Routing B) Channel of distribution
C) Path D) Delivery
6) ________________ involves establishing the amount of work to be done and the time
when each element of the work will start.
A) Planning B) Routing C) Scheduling D) Organizing
7) ____________ attempts to make a job more varied by removing the dullness associated
with performing repetitive operations.
A) job enlargement B) job enrichment
C) continuous improvement D) job rotation
8) The financial needs which required upto _________ are treated as short term funds.
A) seven months B) one year
c) three years D) two years
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 115 -2- *SLRPC115*
9) In second group, Herzberg listed certain ____________, they include achievement,
recognition, challenging and growth in the job.
A) Dis-satisfiers B) demotivators C) motivators D) Satisfiers
10) ______________ refers to an individual’s subjective judgment about the fairness of rewards
she or he got, relative to the inputs, in comparison with reward of other.
A) Equity theory B) Maslow’s theory
C) X and Y theory D) All theories
11) A physical or chemical property or any other requirements used to define the nature of
the product is termed as
A) Quality properties B) Material properties
C) Quality characteristics D) Quality specifications
12) The maximum number of allowable defective in a lot is called as _________
A) Lot number B) OK number
C) Rejection number D) Acceptance number
13) When a decision on acceptance or rejection is made on the basis of single sample
drawn from a lot, the acceptance plan is called is
A) One time sampling plan B) Normal sampling plan
C) Standard sampling plan D) Single sampling plan
14) LTPD stands for
A) Lot Tolerance Perfect Defective B) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective
C) Lot tolerable Percent Defective D) Lot Tolerance Piece Defective
15) AQL stands for _________
A) Average Quality Level B) Acceptance Quality Level
C) Acceptance Quality Limit D) Average Quality Limit
16) The number of items in a lot is called as
A) Test quantity B) Sample size C) Batch size D) Lot size
17) _______ is the process of evaluating a portion of the products in a lot for the purpose of
accepting or rejecting the lot on the basis of conforming or nonconforming to the quality
specifications.
A) Acceptance sampling B) Batch sampling
C) Quality checking D) Lot sampling
18) In a sampling plan n = 500, n1 = 10, n2 = 8, c1 = 1, c2 =4, if the number of defectives in the
1st sample are 3, then the decision will be ______
A) no rejection B) take a second sample and inspect
C) go with production D) lot ok
19) For any given ‘N’ and ‘c’ there is maximum value of ___________ beyond which the
average fraction defective passed forward will not rise.
A) AQL B) AOQL C) AOQ D) OK lot
20) The success of sampling inspection depends upon _______
A) Lot size B) Sample size
C) Acceptance number D) All
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section – I.

2) Solve any three questions from Section – II.
SECTION – I
2. a) Explain authority and responsibility, power and empowerment. 6
b) Define marketing and distinguish between selling concept and marketing concept. 7
3. a) Explain the elements for performance appraisal. What are various methods of training
managers. 7
b) What is communication ? Explain communication process. 6
4. a) Explain system approach to management process. 7

b) What are functions of material management. 6
5. a) Explain Maslow’s theory and McGregor’s theory. 8

b) Which are sources of finance ? 6
SECTION – II
6. a) Name any three quality gurus and their contribution in quality. 6
b) Differentiate between single sampling plan and double sampling plan. Discuss the interest
of the consumer and the producer in the selection of sampling plans. 7
7. a) Write note on continuous improvement process. 6
b) Write short note on ISO 9000. Explain steps for registration. 7
8. a) Explain actual and ideal OC curve for a sampling plan. Also explain all concepts such as
producer’s risk, consumer’s risk, AQL, LTPD, AOQL etc. 7
b) Write note on ISO 14000. 6
Set A

SLR-PC – 115 -4- *SLRPC115*
9. a) In a manufacturing process the number of defectives found in the inspection of 15 lots of

400 items each are given below :
No. of
Lot No. No. of defectives Lot No.
defectives
1 2 9 18
2 5 10 8
3 0 11 6
4 14 12 0
5 3 13 3
6 0 14 0
7 1 15 6
8 0
a) Determine the trial control limits for np chart and state whether the process is in control.
b) What will be new value of mean fraction defective if some obvious points outside
control limits are eliminated. What will be the corresponding upper and lower control
limits and examine whether the process is still in control or not. 8
b) Differentiate between : Cost of quality and value of quality. 6
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015

MECHATRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Question no. 1 is an objective question and is compulsory.
2) The first ten questions i.e. from Qn. 1 to Qn. 10 carry
1 mark each. Qn. 11 to 15 carry two marks each. Only one
option among the four is the right answer.
4) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
1) Thermocouples are __________ transducers.
a) Active b) Passive c) Adhesive d) Both (a) and (b)
2) A. C. amplifier are best suited for
a) Steady state signals b) Low frequency signals
c) Rapidly varying signals d) None of these
3) Squirrel cage induction motor is
a) DC motor b) AC Motor
c) Stepper motor d) AC and DC
4) The most commonly used crystal frequency for 8051 microcontroller is
a) 12 MHz b) 9 MHz c) 7 MHz d) 10 MHz
5) In PLC, program is written in
a) PLC diagram b) Ladder diagram
c) Multiplexer diagram d) All the above
6) Protocol governs
a) Data format b) Error control
c) Timing d) Memory of data
P.T.O.

7) Condition monitoring of machine means
a) Cleaning of machinery
b) Measurement of vibrations
c) Determining the machine status
d) Use of sensors in machine
8) Application of latching contact in PLC
a) Performs timing operation
b) ON/OFF control using two separate switches
c) Perform counting operation
d) Serial to parallel data transfer
9) Registers are digital device used by the microprocessor for
a) Coding of data b) Transmission of data
c) Conversion of data d) Temporary storage of data
10) In OSI model the function of session layer is
a) Provide actual user information
b) Establishment of dialogues between application processes
c) Sending and receiving message
d) All the above
11) Interfacing is required for
a) Electrical buffering/isolation b) Sequencing of data
c) Code conversion d) Data movement
12) The octal equivalent of the decimal number (247)10 is
a) 368 b) 367 c) 371 d) 374
13) Artificial intelligence include the following term
a) Perception b) Communication interface
c) Cognition d) Error correction
14) Fibre optic sensor used for
a) Measurement of load b) Measurement of displacement
c) Measurement of light intensity d) Measurement of torque
15) The 8051 has _________ bytes of program memory and _________ bytes of
data memory.
a) 128, 4096 b) 4096, 128
c) 4096, 2048 d) 2048, 4096
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015

MECHATRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Explain how an automatic camera works. State clearly different sensors and
actuators used. Draw figures to support your explanation. 8
b) Discuss static characteristics of measurement systems. 6
c) What do you understand by the term signal conditioning ? How does it compare
to signal processing ? 6
3. a) Discuss the construction and working of stepper motor. List its advantages,
limitations and applications. 8
b) Discuss the various Registers that make up the 8085. Use diagrams to show
your explanation. 6
c) Explain with the help of neat sketch any two flow sensors. 6
4. a) Minimize the equation F(A, B, C, D) = m0 + m2 + m4 + m6 + m13 + m15 using

the Karnaugh map. Sketch the circuit diagram of the final solution. 8
b) Explain the advantages disadvantages and applications of both hydraulic and
pneumatic actuators. 6
c) What is noise filtering ? Discuss in brief the different types of filters. 6
Set A

SECTION II
5. a) Explain the architecture of 8051 microcontroller with a neat sketch. 8

b) What are the advantages of PLCs ? 6
c) Explain the difference between centralized, hierarchial and distributed
communication system. 6
6. a) Discuss Mechatronics control in automated manufacturing. 8

b) Device a circuits that can be used to start a motor and then after a delay of
100s start a pump. When the motor is switched off there should be a delay
of 10s before the pump is switched off. 6
c) Draw the ladder diagram logic functions AND, OR, NAND, NOR. 6
7. Write short notes on (any four) : 20

a) Ladder programming
b) OSI networking model
c) Network topology
d) Microprocessor application in Mechatronics
e) Fuggy logic.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective – II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first

30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.


1) In a clutch with coil springs the wear of clutch facing will cause the clampig
load to
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain constant d) Become infinite
2) The purpose of transmission in automobile is
a) Increase the speed b) Vary the power
c) Vary the torque d) All of above
3) The distance between the centers of the front wheel is known as
a) Track b) Axle width
c) Wheel base d) None of above
4) The function of universal joint is to allow the propeller shaft to
a) Change length b) Change inclination
c) Transfer torque at an angle d) None of above
5) Panhard rod is used to absorb the
a) Vertical loading b) Driving thrust
c) Side thrust d) Braking torque
6) The blade in a torque converter is having a shape which is
a) Square b) Round c) Flat d) Curved
7) Another name of steering link rod is
a) Track rod b) Tie rod c) Pitman arm d) Drag link
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 117 -2- *SLRPC117*
8) The shock absorber in autombile is used to
a) Absorb the energy b) Dissipate the energy
c) Release the energy d) Increase the energy
9) The type of steering gear used in Maruti car is
a) Rack and pinion b) Worm and roller
c) Worm and wheel d) None of above
10) Included angle is sum of
a) Camber and caster b) Caster and S.A.I.
c) Camber and S.A.I. d) Camber and toe in
11) The brake lining is mounted on
a) Brake shoe b) Brake drum
c) Wheel cylinder d) None of above
12) Air brakes are mostly used in
a) Trucks b) Cars c) Jeep d) Three wheelers
13) The type of reflector used in automobile head lamp is
a) Spherical b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic d) None of above
14) A discharged lead acid battery has on its plate
a) Pb b) PbO2 c) PbSO4 d) H2SO4
15) Using synchromesh unit, the two adjacent gears have their speeds
a) Increased b) Reduced
c) Equalised d) Uneqauilised
16) The crown wheel and pinion assembly is called as
a) Differential b) Rear axle
c) Cage d) Final drive
17) The braking efficiency in percentage for a new vehicle is about
a) 30 b) 50 c) 80 d) 100
18) The type of rear axle used in truck is
a) Semi floating b) Fully floating
c) Three quarter floating d) None of above
19) Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce
a) Torsional vibrations b) Vehicle speed
c) Jerky starts d) None of these
20) The purpose of using re-circulating ball type of steering gear is to reduce
a) Operational friction b) Operation cost
c) Toe out d) None of above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC117* -3- SLR-PC – 117
Seat
No.

AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective – II)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. a) Write short note on : 10

i) Front engine front wheel drive
ii) Material for vehicle bodies.
b) What are the requirements of good automobile power plant ? Discuss

suitability considerations for passenger cars and sports cars. 10
3. a) Write short notes on Electromagnetic clutch. 4
b) Describe with neat sketch fluid flywheel. 6
c) Discuss various requirements of a gear box in automobile. Explain with

neat sketch working of constant mesh gear box. 10
4. a) Derive equation for power and tractive force required for vehicle propulsion in
terms of air resistance, rolling resistance, gradient resistance. Also derive
equations for maximum acceleration, maximum drawbar pull and gradiability. 12
b) Write short notes on : 8

i) Epicyclic gear box
ii) Propeller shaft and universal joint.
Set A

SLR-PC – 117 -4- *SLRPC117*
SECTION – II
5. a) Write necessity of front wheel steering geometry. Explain with figure different
steering geometries for front wheel. 10
b) Explain with neat sketch air braking system. List advantages and
disadvantages over other type of brake. 10
6. a) Compare independent suspension system with conventional suspension system. 8

b) Compare Hotch-kiss and torque tube drive. 8
c) Write short notes on stabilizer bar. 4
7. Write short notes on any four : 20

a) Engine electronic control module
b) Starting system
c) Electric fuel gauge
d) Three wheeler with layout
e) Wind screen wiper and its working.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
Elective – II : PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.

1. i) The length of time between placing an order and receipt of material is called as
a) Order time b) Lead time c) Cycle time d) Process time
ii) Bill of Material (BOM) is a term associated with
a) MRP b) Line balancing
c) Scheduling d) Controlling
iii) 80 – 20 (pareto) principle is used in
a) XYZ analysis b) ABC analysis c) SDE analysis d) None of above
iv) Gantt chart is used for
a) Routing b) Sequencing c) Scheduling d) Dispatching
v) Bill of Material (BOM) is subsequence of
a) MPS b) Line balancing
c) Routing d) Controlling
vi) Penalty cost is included in
a) Ordering cost b) Shortage cost c) Holding cost d) None of above
vii) Services are
a) Tangible b) Intangible c) Both of above d) None of above
viii) OEE in TPM means
a) Overall Engine Effectiveness b) Overall Engine Emission
c) Overall Equipment Efficiency d) None of above
ix) Determining start and finish times for waiting jobs by assigning them to the
earliest available time slot at the work centre is known as
a) Backward scheduling b) Forward scheduling
c) General scheduling d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 118 -2- *SLRPC118*
x) If the frequency of ordering is increased, (for a given annumal and
consumption) then ordering cost will
a) Decrease b) Increase c) Remains same d) None of above
xi) VIT is targetted for
a) Zero inventory b) Average inventory
c) High inventory d) None of above
xii) TPM means
a) Total Production Management b) Total Process Management
c) Total Product Mix d) Total Productive Maintenance
xiii) In exponential smoothening method
a) More weightage is given to post date
b) More weightage is given to recent date
c) Less weightage is given to recent date
d) None of above
xiv) Mean rate of consumption during lead time (R) multiplied by mean lead time
(L) is equal to
a) Buffer stock b) Reserve stock c) Safety stock d) None of above
xv) Long term forecasting considers a period of
a) One year or less b) One to three years
c) More than three years d) None of above
xvi) A decision making process to determine when a job is to be started on a
machine and when it is to be completed is called as
a) Scheduling b) Sequencing c) Routing d) Forecasting
xvii) Regression analysis is a
a) Delphi model b) Group Technique
c) Causal model d) Time series model
xviii) The ratio of
sum of the absolute value of forecast error for all periods
is called as
Number of periods
a) Bias b) MAD c) RSME d) MSE
xix) Production planning and control means
a) Preplanning and routing b) Scheduling and dispatching
c) Expediating d) All of above
xx) Determining of sequence of operations and the allocation of facilities where
these operations are performed is called as
a) Master schedule b) Aggregate planning
c) Routing d) Forecasting
______________ Set A

*SLRPC118* -3- SLR-PC – 118
Seat
No.

Elective – II : PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : Solve any two questions from each Section.
SECTION – I
2. a) What is production/operations management ? Explain objectives and scope of
the same. 10
b) Compare manufacturing system with service system. 5
c) Explain exponential smoothening method of forecasting. 5
3. a) The forecast and the actual demand for six months is given below. Compute
the various types of errors in forecast. 10
Month 1 2 3 4 5 6
Actual
70 80 100 85 60 73
demand
Ferecasted
80 75 85 85 90 86
demand
b) Explain factors affecting make/buy decision. 5

c) Explain Aggregate planning. 5
4. a) There are seven jobs which are to be processed first on Machine I and then
on Machine II. The processing time is minutes are given below :
Job A B C D E F G
Machine I 6 24 30 12 20 22 18
Machine II 16 20 20 13 24 2 6
Find out the optimum sequence and total elapsed time. 10

b) What is scheduling ? Explain any one scheduling method. 5
c) Compare production planning with production control. 5
Set A

SLR-PC – 118 -4- *SLRPC118*
SECTION – II
5. a) Annual demand for a part is 11,000 units/year. Cost per unit is Rs. 2 ordering cost
is Rs. 36/order. Inventory carrying cost is at 9%.
Calculate :
i) EOQ
ii) Optimum number of orders per year.
iii) Minimum total cost of inventory per year. 10
b) Write a note on ABC analysis for inventory control. 5
c) Explain MRP. 5
6. a) Explain various types of maintenance. 10
b) Explain factors affecting selection of material handling equipment. 5
c) Explain supply chain management. 5
7. a) Explain principles of material handling. 10
b) Explain J.I.T. 5
c) Explain various costs associated with inventory. 5
____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.


1) The particular integral of (D + 2)2y = e2x is
N
a) b) c) d)
N N N A
N N N
A A A
"
2) L{tneat} =
n ! ( n 1 ) !
a) b) c) d)
n n 1
n n 1
n n 1
( s a ) ( s a )
( s a ) ( s a )
3) =
s

9 s 4

a) b) c) d)
1 3 t 1 2 2 1 4

c o s c o s t c o s t c o s t

9 2 9 3 3 9 9

4)

L

( s 2 )

J
a) e2tt b) c) e2t d) te2t

A
5) The solution of partial differential equation xp + yq = z is
a) (x, y) = 0 b) c) (xy, yz) = 0 d) (x2, y2) = 0

x y

, 0

y z

6) If , then L{f(3t)} is equals to

1
1 / s
L f ( t ) e
! I !
a) b) c) d)

3 / s
I ! I
A A A A
! ! ! I I
7) The general solution (D3 D)y = 0 is

a) y = c1ex + c2ex b) y = c1x + c2x2 + (c3 + c4x)ex
c) y = c1 + c2ex + c3ex d) None of these
P.T.O.

8) The solution of partial differential equation pq = 1 is
a) z = ax + ay + c b) z = ax + y+c c) z = ax + by + c d) z = ax + y+c

= >
9) If H(t) is unit step function, then L{H(t)} is equals to

I
a) b) 1 c) d) es

10) If and then div ( ) =

r x i y j z k
= H
a) 0 b) 1 c) 1 d) 2
11) The directional derivative of = xy + yz + zx at (1, 1, 1) is maximum in the direction of
a) i + j + k b) i j + k c) 2i + 2j + 2k d) 2i 2j + 2k
12) If = ae3t i + be2t j, then at t = 0 =

@ H
H
@ J
a) a b) ai c) ai + bj d) ae3t i
13) For Fourier series expansion, function must be
a) Harmonic b) Riemann c) Cauchy d) Periodic
14) _________ is the constant term in the Fourier expansion of ,0<x<a

a
f ( x ) x
a) 0 b) c) d) 1
= =
"
15) If z {f(k)} = F(z) then z {f(k + n)}=

a) zkF(z) b) zkF(z) c) znF(z) d) znF(z)
16) The inverse z-transform of is

z
, | z | 1
z 1
a) 1 b) 1 c) 0 d) k
17) The Fourier cosine transform of is

1 , 0 x 1

f ( x )
0 , x 1
a) b) c) d)
2 2 s i n s 2 c o s s
I . s i n s
s s
18) The infinite Fourier sine transform of f(x) is given by

2
a) b) c) d)
2
f ( x ) c o s s x d x f ( x ) s i n s x d x f ( x ) s i n s x d x
f ( x ) s i n s x d x

2

19) If z{f(k)} = (z) then z{krf(k)} = B
H H
H
a) b) c) d) none of these
d d d

z f ( z ) z . f ( k ) z f ( z )

d z d z d z

20) The meaning of is

1
{ X }
D 3
a) b) c) d) None of the above

! N ! N ! N ! N ! N
: A @ N A A : @ N A : A @ N

______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2. A) Attempt any two : 8

i) Solve (D5 D)y = 12ex + 8 sin x.
ii) Solve (D3 + 8)y = x4 + 2x.
iii) Solve z2 (p2 + q2 + 1) = 1.
B) A condenser of capacitance C is discharged through an inductance L and resistance R in series.
The charge q at time t satisfies the equation.
.
d q d q q
L R 0
d t C
d t
Given L = 0.25 Henries, R = 250

, C = 2 × 106 farads and q = 0.002 coulomb, i = 0 initially.
Obtain charge q interms of t. 6
3. a) Solve y2p2 x2q2 = x2y2z2. 5
b) Solve (y+z)p (x + z)q = x y. 4
c) Solve (D3 + 1)y = 2 cosh (x). 4
s i n ( 2 t )
4. a) Find Laplace transform of . 5

! J
e d t
b) Find . 4

3 s 1

( s 1 ) ( s 1 )

c) Obtain Laplace transform of saw-tooth wave function and f(t + T) = f(t). 4

K
f ( t ) t , 0 t T
5. a) Find L{t H(t 3) + t2

(t 3)}. 4
b) Find L1{tan1 (s + 1)}. 4

c) Evaluate the following integral by using Laplace transform e

J
s i n

3 t

d t
. 5

Set A

SECTION II
6. a) Find the angle between the surface ax2 + y2 + z2 xy = 1 and 6x2y + y2z + z = 1 at (1, 1, 0). 4
b) Show that the vector F ( y z ) i ( z x ) i ( x y ) k

is solenoidal and irrotational. 3
2 .
c) Prove that for 0 < x < , . 6

c o s 2 x c o s 4 x c o s 6 x

x ( x )
. . .

2 2 2
6
1 2 3

= N

7. a) Find the Fourier sine transform of and hence evaluate . 8

t a n s i n x d x

B N

b) Find the inverse z-transform of . 5

3 z 2 z
, 1 | z | 2
z 3 z 2
OR
c) Find the inverse z-transform of . 5

2 z 1 0 z 1 3
, 2 | z | 3
( z 3 ) ( z 2 )

k
8. a) Find the . 5

z 3 s i n , k 0

b) Find . 4
1

z 3 , k 0

c) Express the function as Fourier integral. Hence evaluate . 5

1 , f o r | x | 1

s i n w s i n w x
f ( x )
d w
0 , f o r | x | 1
c o s w
9. a) Obtain Fourier series of f(x) = x + x2 in (1, 1). Hence show that . 8

1 1 1 1
. . .
1 2
1 2 3 4
b) Prove that .

r
1

n ( n 2 )
. 5
n n 1
r r

_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC12* SLR-PC 12
A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Shear stress is due to
a) Two forces acting in the same direction along its longitudinal axis
b) Two forces acting in the opp. direction along its longitudinal axis
c) Tangential forces acting at a section in opposite directions
d) None of these
2) Hookes law is valid only when the stresses are within
a) plastic range b) proportionality limit
c) any range d) none of these
3) A reinforced concrete column subjected to an axial load. In general
a) the stress in steel and conc. are same
b) the strain in steel and conc. are same
c) both stress and strains in steel and conc. are same
d) none of these
4) In pure bending of beams
a) bending stress is maximum
b) bending stress is minimum
c) shear stress is zero
d) both shear and bending stresses are zero
5) In a simply supported beam of length L carrying a concentrated load P at the mid
span, the maximum bending moment at the centre is
a) PL b) c) d) Zero
P L P L
2 4
6) The bending stress at a distance y from the N.A. of the beam having moment of inertia I
and subjected to a bending moment M, is
I M I
M y
f f
f
M y y
P.T.O.

7) Temperature stresses are induced
a) when the temp. is increased only
b) when the temp. is decreased only
c) when there is change in temp. with restriction to deformation
d) none of these
8) The bending stress is maximum at
a) top of the beam always b) bottom of the beam always
c) neutral axis of the beam d) none of the above
9) The maximum bending moment occurs at
a) a section where SF is zero b) a section where SF is max.
c) a section where SF is min. d) a section where SF changes its sign
10) Brittle materials show
a) sufficient warning before failure b) the deformations are more before failure
c) almost no warning before failure d) none of these
11) In case of circular section
a)
m a x
= 1.33
avg. b)
m a x
= 1.5
avg.
c)
m a x
= 2.5
avg. d)
m a x
= 1.25
avg.
12) Shear stress is maximum at
a) extreme top fiber b) extreme bottom fibre
c) neutral axis d) none of above
13) Strain energy (u) caused by bending is given by the relation
!
a) b) c) d)
M
M M
u d x
u d x
u d x u d x

2 E I
2 E I 2 E I
E I
14) Flitched beam is a type of

a) continuous beam b) composite beam c) cantilever beam d) fixed beam
15) Section modulus for rectangular beam having b is width and d is depth is
!
!
a) b) c) d) none of above
> @ @ >
> @
$ $
16) A hollow shaft of the same cross sectional area as that of solid shaft can
a) resist less torque b) resist more torque
c) resist equal torque d) resist double torque
17) The circumferential stress in a thin spherical shell, when subjected to an internal pressure
(p) is equal to
a) b) c) d)
2 ,
2 , 2 , 2 ,
& J
" J J J
18) Across a cross section shear stress is zero, where bending stress is
a) maximum b) minimum c) zero d) less than zero
19) In a beam of I section maximum shear force is carried by
a) upper flange b) lower flange c) web d) complete section
20) The flexural rigidity of beam is
a) EI b) E/I c) d)
1
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : a) In Section I, question no. 2 is compulsory, solve any two from the remaining.
b) In Section II, solve any three questions.
c) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
d) Assume any suitable data, if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four of the following : (4×4=16)
a) Define stress, strain, Poissons ratio and bulk modulus.
b) Draw the typical bending stress distribution for a rectangular section.
c) Explain different types of common beams and loads ? Explain with sketches.
d) Draw SFD and BMD for the beam.
e) Explain the behaviour of mild steel in tension test.

f) Write a note on double eccentricity in columns.
3. a) What is factor of safety ? 3
b) A composite beam shown in Fig. 1 is made up of steel in portion AC and copper in portion
CD. The two materials are rigidly joined at C. Find the extension of the bar under the
loading as shown in Fig.

Fig. 1
Take Es = 2 × 105 N/mm2
Ec = 1.1 × 105 N/mm2 9
4. Draw the SF and BM diagrams for the following beam. Locate the points of contraflexure and
calculate the maximum bending moment. 12
Set A

SLR-PC 12
-4- *SLRPC12*
5. The cross section of a beam is as shown in Fig. below. 12
If the permissible stress is 150 N/mm2, find its moment of resistance.

SECTION II
6. Attempt the followings :
a) A shaft running 3 Hz has to transmit 100 kW. The shaft must not be stressed beyond
60 and must not twist more than 1° in a length of 2m. Select suitable diameter considering
N
G = 80 Gpa. 7
m m
b) Obtain expression for strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied with impact. 7
7. A simply supported timber beam 150 mm wide × 300 mm deep is simply supported over a
span of 4.5 m. It is loaded with uniform load of 8 . 13
k N
Evaluate :
m
a) Shear stress developed in a layer 60 mm above the N.A. of a section located at 1.5 m from
the left support.
b) Maximum shear stress in the above section.
c) Maximum shear stress in any where in beam.
8. A thin spherical shell 1000 mm in dia. with its wall thickness of 1.5 mm is filled with fluid of
atmospheric pressure. What intensity of pressure developed in it ? Also calculate circumferential
stress at that pressure and increase in diameter. 13
Take E = 200 Gpa
1
0 . 3
9. Fig. shows a flitched beam consisting of two timber joint 200 mm × 75 mm and a steel plate
150 mm × 10 mm securely bolted between them. The beam is simply supported on a span of
6 m and carries U.D.L. of intensity . Calculate the maximum tensile and compressive stresses
N
9 0 0
in both materials, due to this load. 13
Esteel = 210 Etimber = 8.75 All dimensions in mm.

k N k N
m m m m
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Electronics) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – I
Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-5-2015 Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Use of data sheet is allowed.

1) Junction capacitance of p-n junction diode is considerable when the diode circuit is
subjected to _________
a) Low signal frequency b) Middle range of frequencies
c) High signal frequency d) None of the above
2) No load voltage across a rectifier with capacitor connected across it is _________ no
load voltage across a rectifier with inductor in series.
a) Greater than b) Smaller than c) Equal to d) None of the above
3) Ideal value of ripple factor for capacitor filter is _____________
a) Zero b) Infinity c) Vm d) Maximum
4) If input AC voltage to bridge rectifier is 20V then exact DC o/p voltage across load resistor
is __________
a) 20 V b) 16.6 V c) 17.11 V d) None of the above
5) Charging time constant of a capacitor connected in clamper circuit is approximately
___________
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) 100 times greater than discharging time constant
6) Voltage multiplier circuit provides _____________
a) Voltage multiplication b) Current multiplication
c) Power multiplication d) Both a) and b)
7) Zener diodes are __________
a) Specially doped p-n junctions b) Normally doped p-n junctions
c) Lightly doped p-n junctions d) None of the above
8) Zener effect is valid approximately _________
a) Below 5 V b) Above 5 V
c) Equal to 5 V d) Above very high voltages
9) The transfer characteristics of a diode relates to ___________
a) The diode current and input voltage b) The diode current and output voltage
c) Output voltage and input voltage d) The diode current and diode voltage
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 120 -2- *SLRBB133*
10) If a Vm is the peak value of an applied voltage in a half wave rectifier with large capacitor
across the load, then PIV of the diode is _____________
a) Vm b) Vm/2 c) 2Vm d) None of the above
11) FETs are having faster on and off times due to _____________
a) Absence of barrier potential
b) Presence of threshold voltage
c) Larger inter electrode capacitances
d) Absence of storage charges as they are unipolar
12) In single stage CE amplifier if bypass capacitor is removed then voltage gain of amplifier
___________
a) Remains constant b) Decreases c) Increases d) Becomes zero
13) For voltage amplification MOSFET is operated in _________ region.
a) Ohmic b) Saturation c) Pinch-off d) Both b) and c)
14) In common emitter if current gain varies from 74.75 to 311.5 then corresponding common
base current gain will be
a) 0.9868 to 0.9968 b) 0.9668 to 0.9668 c) 1.9868 to 1.9968 d) 1.9668 to 1.9668
15) In an astable multivibrator has C1 = 0.01 μ F, C2 = 0.05 μ F, R1 = 2 K Ω and R2 = 10 K Ω
then frequency of oscillation is
a) 27.75 KHz b) 277.5 KHz c) 2.775 KHz d) 0.2775 KHz
16) In the transistor shown in figure. Collector to ground voltage is + 20V. Which of following
is the probable cause of error ?
a) Collector emitter terminals are shorted

b) Emitter to ground connection is open
c) Collector base terminals are shorted
d) All above
17) DC negative feedback is present in
a) Self bias b) Collector to base bias
c) Voltage divider bias d) All above
18) The magnitude of collector junction reverse bias voltage decreases, then effective base
width is
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) First decreases and then remains constant
19) Voltage divider bias is used in amplifier quite often because it
a) Limits AC signal going to base
b) Depends on β dc
c) Reduces dc base current
d) Makes operating point almost independent of β
20) The FET configuration used in the unity gain buffers is _____________
a) Common Gate b) Common Drain c) Common Source d) All above Set A
______________

*SLRBB133* -3- SLR-PC – 120
Seat
No.

ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) Use of data sheet is allowed.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four : (4×5)

1) What is a DC load line of a diode ? Explain the use of this tool. Draw a DC load line for the
following circuit.
R = 1kΩ
2) A bridge rectifier is subjected to an input AC voltage of 30 V. Find DC o/p voltage, RMS

load voltage, DC load current, ripple factor and PIV rating of diode across a load of 10K.
Assume practical diode.
3) Explain positive clamper circuit with the help of circuit diagram, waveforms and transfer
function.
4) What is the difference between a normal p-n junction diode and zener diode ? Compare
with the help of VI characteristics. What is the power dissipation of zener diode when
forward biased ?
5) Explain the operation of voltage quadruple.
Set A

SLR-PC – 120 -4- *SLRBB133*
3. Attempt any two : (2×10)
1) Derive the ripple factor expression for π filter. Compare all types of filters.
2) Design an unregulated power supply using LC filter to provide DC voltage of 40 V, and

ripple of only 0.2% at 200 mA.
3) Define and derive the important performance parameters of bridge rectifier.
SECTION – II
a) Explain switching characteristics transistor during turn on and turn off process.
b) Discuss thermal stability of transistor bias circuit with regard to ICBO and VBE.
c) Design voltage divider bias circuit for the following specification. VCC = 12 V, VCEQ = 6 V
ICEQ = 4mA, βmin = 120 .
d) Explain working of Bistable multivibrator using transistor.
e) Explain operation of common source FET amplifier.
1) Explain operation of Astable multivibrator. Derive an expression frequency of oscillation

and duty cycle and condition for minimum hfe.
2) Design a single stage CE voltage amplifier for Av = 120, Vo(rms) = 4 V, Lower cutoff
frequency = 25 Hz, Use BC 147B hfe = 240, hie = 4.5 K′ Ω , Vcc = 12 V.
3) Explain construction, working and characteristics of N channel depletion MOSFET.
_____________________
Set A

*SLR-PC-121* SLR-PC – 121
Seat
No.
Set A
NETWORK THEORY AND ANALYSIS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Objective questions : (1×20=20)
1) The transmission parameters B and D are obtained by
a) By shorting input terminals b) By shorting output terminals
c) By opening input terminals d) By opening output terminals
⎡5 2⎤ ⎡7 3⎤
2) The impedance matrices of two, two-port networks are given by ⎢ ⎥ and ⎢3 10 ⎥ .
⎣2 8⎦ ⎣ ⎦
If the two networks are connected in series, what is the impedance matrix
of the combination ?
⎡5 3⎤ ⎡7 2⎤ ⎡12 5⎤ ⎡12 1⎤
a) ⎢2 10 ⎥ b) ⎢3 8⎥ c) ⎢ 5 8⎥ d) ⎢ 5 2⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
3) The h parameters h12 and h22 are obtained
a) By shorting input terminals b) By shorting output terminals
c) By opening input terminals d) By opening output terminals
4) What is the phase angle of parallel resonance circuit at resonance ?
a) zero b) 90° c) 180° d) 360°
5) In a series RLC circuit operating above the resonant frequency, the current
a) I leads Vs b) I lags Vs c) I is in phase with Vs d) None
6) The total reactance of a series RLC circuit at resonance
a) XL = XC b) Zero c) XL ≠ XC d) None
7) The current flowing through 3 Ω resistance in circuit shown in Fig. (a)
Fig. (a)
a) 2.5 A b) 1.25 A c) 0.96 A d) None
8) If one of the resistors in a parallel circuit is removed what happens to the total resistance ?
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains constant d) Exactly double
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 121 -2- *SLR-PC-121*
9) A practical current source consists of
a) An ideal current source in series with a resistance
b) An Ideal current source in parallel with a resistance
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
10) The maximum power transfer theorem can be applied
a) Only to DC circuit b) Only to Ac circuit c) Both AC and DC circuit d) None
11) Capacitor does not allow sudden changes.
a) In current b) In voltages c) Both current and voltage d) None of above
12) The time constant of a series RL circuit is
a) LR b) L R c) R L d) e −R L
13) When a series RC circuit is connected to a voltage source ‘V’ at t = 0, the current passing
through the capacitor C at t = 0+ is
V R V
a) b) c) RC d)
R V RC
14) An ideal filter should have
a) Zero attenuation in the attenuation band b) Infinite attenuation in the pass band
c) Zero attenuation in the pass band d) None
15) A low pass filter is one which
a) Passes all low frequencies
b) Attenuates all high frequencies
c) Passes all frequencies up to cut off frequency and attenuates all other frequencies
d) None
16) Cut-off frequency of k-type high pass filter is
1 1
a) fc = b) fc = c) fc = fα 1 − m2 d) None
π LC 4π LC
17) The function is said to be having simple poles and zeros only
a) The poles are not repeated b) The zeros are not repeated
c) Both poles and zeros are not repeated d) None of above
18) The system is said to be stable, if and only if
a) All the poles lie on right half of the s-plane
b) Some poles lie on the right half of the s-plane
c) All the poles does not lie on the right half of the s-plane
d) None of above
19) The port voltages for the two port network are
V1 = 5I1 + 3I2
V2 = 3I1 + 8I2
Obtain “T” network. The value of Za, Zb and Zc will be respectively shown in Fig. (b)
Fig. (b)
a) 3, 5, 2 b) 3, 2, 5 c) 2, 3, 5 d) 2, 5, 3
20) The Q factor of parallel resonance is
1
a) b) WCR c) WL d) WC
WCR R R
______________
Set A

*SLR-PC-121* -3- SLR-PC – 121
Seat
No.

NETWORK THEORY AND ANALYSIS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Solve any four questions : (5×4=20)

a) Determine transmission parameter of given network shown in Fig. (1)
Fig. (1)
b) Determine ‘H’ parameter of given network shown in Fig. (2)
Fig. (2)
c) A series RLC circuit consist of R = 1 k Ω , L = 100 mH and C = 10 μ F. If a voltage of 100
V is applied across the combination determine resonant frequency, Bandwidth and Q
factor.
Set A

SLR-PC – 121 -4- *SLR-PC-121*
d) For the circuit shown in Fig. (3). The current is at its maximum value with capacitor value
C = 20 μ F and 0.707 times its maximum value with C = 30 μ F. Find the value of Q at
W = 500 rad/sec and circuit constant.
Fig. (3)
e) Determine the loop current by using mesh analysis, circuit shown in Fig. (4)
Fig. (4)
f) Determine the maximum power delivered to load and RL. Circuit shown in Fig. (5)
Fig. (5)
Set A

*SLR-PC-121* -5- SLR-PC – 121
3. Solve any two questions : (10×2=20)

a) i) Discuss variation of capacitive and inductive reactance and total impedance with
frequency of series RLC circuit.
ii) Maximum current of 0.5 A flows through the circuit when the capacitor is at 10 μf with
a fixed frequency and voltage of 5 V. Determine resonance frequency. Bandwidth, Q
factor and resistance, circuit shown in Fig. (6)
Fig. (6)
b) Derive the expression for driving point impedance at the input port of a load terminated
network in terms of z-parameters and in terms of Y-parameters.
c) State Norton’s theorem and determine the current flowing through 5 Ω resistor
(A, B) of circuit shown in Fig. (7) by using Norton’s theorem.
Fig. (7)
SECTION – II
a) Draw and explain m-derived low pass filter.
b) Design T-pad attenuator to give attenuation of 60 dB and to work in a line of 500 Ω

impedance.
Set A

SLR-PC – 121 -6- *SLR-PC-121*
c) Explain pole and zeros of network function and its use with an example.
d) Draw the pole zero diagram for the given network function and hence obtain V(t).
4s
V(s) =
(s + 2)(s + 3)
e) Explain DC response of RL series circuit.
5. Solve any two : (10×2=20)

a) Design a band elimination filter having design impedance of 600 Ω and cut-off
frequencies f1 = 2 KHz and f2 = 6 KHz.
b) Explain DC response of series RLC circuit in detail.
c) For the given network shown in Fig. (8), determine Z11(s), Z21(s) and G21(s).
Fig. (8)
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Part – I) (Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015
DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.
1) When two n bit binary number are multiplied, the product will contain at the
most
a) n bits b) 2n bits c) n2 bits d) n + 2 bits
2) A gate is enabled when its enable input is at logic 1. The gate is
a) OR b) NAND c) NOR d) None of these
3) A + A B + A B C + A B C D + . . . =
a) A+ B +C + . . . b) A + B + C + D + . . .
c) 1 d) 0
4) The simplified form of the Boolean expression (X + Y + XY) (X + Z) is
a) X + Y + Z b) XY + YZ c) X + Y Z d) XZ + Y
5) An n variable K-map can have
a) n2 cells b) 2n cells c) nn cells d) n2n cells
6) The NAND – NAND realization is equivalent to
a) AND – NOT realization b) AND – OR realization
c) OR – AND realization d) NOT – OR realization
7) The number of select lines m, required to select one out of n input lines is
a) m = log2n b) m = logn c) m = ln n d) m = 2n
8) The logic family with both logic levels negative is
a) TTL b) ECL c) CMOS d) MOS
9) Which logic device is called a distributor ?
a) multiplexer b) demultiplexer
c) encoder d) decoder
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 122 -2- *SLRPC122*
10) The word length of the Hamming code to represent decimal digits is
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
11) A BCD counter has _________ different states.
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 15
12) The output Qn of JK flip-flop is ‘0’. It remains same to ‘0’ when a clock pulse
is applied. The input Jn and Kn are respectively
a) 1 and X b) 0 and X c) X and 0 d) X and 1
13) A Johnson’s counter is made by using a single D-FF. The resulting circuit
is
a) JK flip-flop b) SR flip-flop c) T flip-flop d) D flip-flop
14) In the Melay machine output depends
a) current state and input b) only on input
c) only on current state d) none of the above
15) In PLA
a) Both AND and OR array are programmable
b) AND array is fixed OR is programmable
c) AND is programmable and OR is fixed
16) How many flip-flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count
from 0 to 1023 ?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
17) The characteristic equation of SR flip-flop is
a) Q+ = S + R’Q b) Q+ = SQ + Q c) Q+ = SQ + R’Q’ d) Q+ = SQ’ + Q
18) When a flip-flop is set, its output will be ?
a) Q = 0, Q’ = 1 b) Q = 1, Q’ = 0 c) Q = 0, Q’ = 0 d) Q = 1, Q’ = 1
19) The initial content of 4-bit serial-in-parallel out, right shift, shift register shown
in figure is 0110. After three clock pulses are applied contents of shift register
will be
clock serial in 00 11 11 00
a) 0101 b) 1010 c) 0000 d) 0001
20) A 4 – bit pre-settable down counter has preset input 0101. The preset operation
takes place as soon as counter becomes minimum 0000. The modulus of
counter is
a) 6 b) 7 c) 4 d) 8
______________
Set A

*SLRPC122* -3- SLR-PC – 122
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part – I) (Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015

DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
a) Explain in detail encoder and decoder.
b) Determine the fan-out of the circuit of following figure, also find its noise
margin. + VCC
1.6 K Ω 130 Ω
4KΩ + 5V
4K Ω
Q3 + SV
1KΩ
A Q2
Q1
Q4 Q1 I1
1K Ω Q1
c) Construct Hamming Code for BCD 0110, use oven parity.

d) Design full adder using only 2- input NOR gates.
e) Explain magnitude comparator.
Set A

SLR-PC – 122 -4- *SLRPC122*
3. a) What is hazard in combinational circuit ? Explain types of hazard and explain

hazard free logic circuit for the equation Y = π M (0, 1, 4, 6). (1×8=8)
b) Solve any two : (2×8=16)

i) Explain PMOS, NMOS, CMOS invertor family in detail.
ii) Implement the following function f(A, B, C, D) = ∑ m (0, 1, 3, 4, 7, 10, 14)
using
a) 16 : 1 MUX b) 8 : 1 MUX
iii) Reduce using mapping the expression π m (2, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 14) and
implement it in universal logic.
SECTION – II
a) Design a 2-bit ripple counter.
b) Show that JK flip-flop can be used as T flip-flop.
c) Derive the characteristic equation for D flip-flop.
d) Write a short note on PAL.
e) Design a 4-bit ring counter using shift register.
5. a) Design a decade asynchronous counter using T flip-flop. Draw neat circuit

diagram and waveforms. 8
b) Attempt any two : (8×2=16)

i) Design a sequential circuit specified by state diagram shown using
D flip-flop.
ii) Explain Moore machine with example. Compare Moore and Melay machine.
iii) What is a shift register ? Draw and explain different types of shift registers.
_____________________ Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .

DATA STRUCTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) In insertion sort method all data reside in the
a) main memory b) disks c) tapes d) floppy
2) Which of the following sorting algorithm is slowest ?
a) Quick sort b) Bubble sort c) Tree sort d) Shell sort
3) What is the worst time complexity for merge sort to sort an array of N elements ?
a) O(N2) b) O(logN) c) O(N logN) d) O(N)
4) When the element is deleted from the rear end of the queue then
a) Front is increased by 1 b) Rear is increased by 1
c) Front is decreased by 1 d) Rear is decreased by 1
5) The prefix notation of the expression A/B^C+D is
a) +/A^BCD b) /+AB^CD c) AB/C^D+ d) ABC^/D+
6) For statically implemented circular queue of six elements if Front = 1 and Rear = 2,
what will be the value of front and rear after inserting two more elements ?
a) F = 1, R = 2 b) F = 1, R = 4 c) F = 4, R = 1 d) F = 4, R = 4
7) Which of the following name does relate to stacks ?
a) FIFO lists b) LIFO lists c) Piles d) Push-down lists
8) The operation of processing each element in the list is known as
a) Sorting b) Merging c) Inserting d) Traversal
9) The depth of a complete binary tree is given by
a) Dn = n log2n b) Dn = n log2n + 1 c) Dn = log2n d) Dn = log2n + 1
P.T.O.

10) Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and conquer type ?
a) Bubble sort b) Insertion sort c) Quick sort d) All of above
11) The BFS uses which of the following data structure to hold the nodes ?
a) stack b) queue c) tree d) none of the above
12) For the following tree, the in-order traversal results in
a) A, B, D, G, H,C, E, I, F b) G, H, D, B, I, E, F, C, A
c) G, D, H, B, A, E, I, C, F d) G, H, D, B, A, E, I, C, F
13) What is the best definition of a collision in a hash table ?
a) Two entries are identical except for their keys
b) Two entries with different data have the exact same key
c) Two entries with different keys have the exact hash value
d) Two entries with exact same key have different hash values
14) The finite pool of available nodes is called as
a) Linked list b) Stack c) Queue d) Avail list
15) Which sorting technique is called as partition exchange sort ?
a) Insertion sort b) Shell sort c) Quick sort d) Merge sort
16) A directed graph containing no cycle is called
a) Directed a cyclic graph b) Dag
c) Non cyclic graph d) Both a) and b)
17) Singly linked list can be implemented using
a) Dynamic allocation b) Static allocation
c) Contiguous allocation d) None of the above
18) Which of the following stack operations could result in stack underflow ?
a) is-empty b) Pop c) Push d) All of the above
19) What is the worst case time complexity for quick sort for n elements ?
a) O (N) b) O (N log N) c) O(N2) d) O(N log N2)
20) A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in
the middle
a) Linked lists b) Stacks c) Queues d) Deque
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

DATA STRUCTURE

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

1) Explain the algorithm for operations on circular queue.
2) Write an equivalent infix expression of following prefix expression :
a) A/B*C^DE
b) *+XYZA
3) Define data structure. Mention the real life applications of data structure.
4) What is recursion ? What is the use of stack in recursion, explain with one example.
5) Explain doubly linked list and give its advantages over other linked list.
3. Attempt any two : (10×2=20)
1) Write a C program to implement stack using structure.
2) a) What is an empty linked list ? How do you check whether a given linked list is
empty ?
b) Write a routine to delete every second element of linked list.
3) Write a program to implement circular queue using array.
Set A

SECTION II
1) Explain selection sort algorithm with one example.
2) Write a program for linear search of an element in a given list.
3) Explain binary tree, B+ tree and AVL tree with neat diagram.
4) Define graph and explain how graph is represented with the help of incidence
matrix ?
5) Construct the expression tree for the expression and also give pre-order and post-
order traversal of it.
A* (B+C)/D-E
1) What are the different ways of tree traversal ? Explain each one in detail.
2) With neat diagram discuss various types of graph.
3) Write and explain an algorithm to implement insertion sort for the following
elements
5, 12, 87, 25, 9, 65, 98, 34
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Electronics) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
4) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.

1. Choose correct option : (20×1=20)

1) In case of auto transformer of copper saving is ___________ times weight of two
winding transformer.
a) K b) (1 – k) c) (1 + k) d) 1/k
2) Following is not 3-phase transformer connection.
a) T – T b) V – V c) L – L d) None of the above
3) _____________ is the starter used for d.c. shunt motor when field failure protection
is required.
a) 3-point starter b) 4-point starter c) 5-point starter d) both a) and b)
4) In Linear induction motor stator is
a) round b) flat c) zig-zag d) none of the above
5) Universal motor runs satisfactorily on
a) AC supply b) DC supply c) both d) none of the above
6) In Ward Leonard system of speed control there are total _____________ machines
are used.
a) two b) three c) one d) four
7) The current drawn by a 200 V, Four pole d.c. series motor is 10A, motor resistance
is of 0.5 ohm then back emf is _____________ V.
a) 195 b) 200 c) 210 d) 199
8) The power factor of the induction motor is
a) unity b) 0 c) lagging d) none of the above
9) According to two wattmeter method formula for total reactive power is
a) W1 + W2 b) W1 – W2 c) W1/W2 d) none of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 124 -2- *SLRPC124*
10) According to the principle of operation of a three phase induction motor the air gap
flux is _______________
a) pulsating b) synchronously rotating
c) Variable d) none of the above
11) Following is the electrical braking
a) rheostat b) inductance c) capacitance d) transducer
12) In case of DC shunt motor torque is proportional to
a) flux b) armature current
c) flux*armature current d) flux/armature current
13) If X2 is rotor reactance at standstill, then rotor reactance at running condition is
a) S X2 b) X2 c) S/X2 d) X2/s
14) The shape of slip torque characteristic is
a) parabola b) rectangular hyperbola
c) hyperbola d) rectangular parabola
15) The rotor conductors in three phase squirrel cage I. M. are ____________
a) Star winding b) delta winding c) iron bars d) copper bars
16) In case of DOL starter following protection is given
a) over voltage b) over current c) both a) and b) d) none of the above
17) Brake load test is ___________
a) no load test b) full load test c) O. C. test d) S. C. test
18) In case two wattmeter method power factor is ___________ [1.71*(W1 – W2)
(W1 + W2)
a) tan–1 b) cos–1 c) cot–1 d) sin–1
19) Current transformer is used for stepping
a) up low value of current b) up low value of voltage
c) down high value of current d) down high value of voltage
20) For lathe machine _____________ is used
a) DC shunt motor
b) three phase squirrel cage induction motor
c) both a) and b)
______________
Set A

*SLRPC124* -3- SLR-PC – 124
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION – I

a) Determine torque developed in armature and back e.m.f. of 300 (v), 6 pole series
motor with 400 armature conductors lap connected and supplying 9(kw) by taking
50 (amp) from mains. The flux per pole is 30 (mwb) and
Ra = 0.5 (ohm).
b) Draw neat diagram and explain wind power generation.
c) Two wattmeters connected to measure the input to a balanced three phase load
indicate 2500 watts and 500 watts respectively. Find power factor of the circuit :
a) When both readings are positive and
b) When the latter reading was obtained after reversing the connection to the
current coil of wattmeter.
d) Explain plugging type braking used for d.c. series and shunt motor.
e) If W1 and W2 are wattmeter reading, derive relation for power factor angle in
terms of wattmeter readings.
3. a) Draw neat diagram and explain working of three point starter. (8×2=16)
b) A series motor runs at 500 rpm on a certain load. Calculate the resistance of field
diverter to raise the speed to 625 rpm, the developed torque remains constant.
Neglect saturation and ohmic drop in the field and armature,
Rse = 0.054 (ohm).
OR
b) Explain with neat diagram Ward Leonard speed control method used for d.c.
shunt motor.
Set A

SLR-PC – 124 -4- *SLRPC124*
SECTION – II

a) Compare group drive Vs individual drive.
b) Discuss different causes of low power factor.
c) A delta-delta bank of three 10-kva transformers supplies three phase load. When
one of the transformer is removed find out – capacity of V-V bank and utility factor.
d) A 4 pole, 50 (Hz) three phase induction motor running with speed 1440 (rpm). Find
slip and rotor current frequency for this condition.
e) Write the speed controls methods used for three phase induction motor and explain
ony one.

a) Compare three phase squirrel cage and slip ring induction motor.
b) Explain with diagram torque slip characteristics of three phase induction motor.
c) A 8 pole, 600 (Volt), 50 (Hz) three phase star connected induction motor running
has stand still rotor Z = 0.01 + j 0.05 Ω per phase and full load slip is 3%.
Find speed at full load and maximum torque condition. Also find ratio of T
maximum to T full load.
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015

ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book
Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Use of electronic data sheet is allowed.

1. Multiple choice questions. (20×1=20)
1) An amplifier circuit has an overall current gain of 100 and an input resistance of 10 K
with a load
resistance of 1 K
. The overall voltage gain of the amplifier is
a) 5 dB b) 10 dB c) 20 dB d) 40 dB
2) When two amplifiers each of bandwidth, fH = 10 KHz are cascaded, the overall bandwidth becomes
a) 10 KHz b) 6.4 KHz c) 5 KHz d) 20 KHz
3) Which one of the following parameters is used for distinguishing between a small signal and a large-signal
amplifier ?
a) Voltage gain b) Frequency response
c) Harmonic distortion d) Input/output impedances
4) The most preferred high power output stage for hi-fi AF amplifier is of the
a) Class B push pull type b) Class B single ended type
c) Class A type d) Class C type
5) For a transconductance amplifier input and output resistances are respectively
a) Infinity and zero b) Zero and Infinity c) Zero and Zero d) Infinity and Infinity
6) A cascaded amplifier comprises N identical non-interacting stages, each having a lower 3 dB frequency of fL.
If fL* is the lower 3 dB frequency of the cascaded amplifier, then which one of the following is correct ?
a) fL* = fL b) fL* = fL c) d)
f
1
f
f *
f *
N

2 1
7) Which one of the following statements is true ?

The efficiency of class B push pull amplifiers is much higher than that of class A amplifiers primarily
because
a) The distortion is kept within acceptable limits
b) One half of the input signal is amplified using one transistor and the other is phase inverted and fed to the
other transistor
c) Matched pair transistors are used in the class B push pull operation
d) The quiescent dc current is avoided
8) In a feedback amplifier, the feedback improves the signal to noise ratio for noise signal
a) Present with the amplifier b) Present at the output
c) Internally generated in the amplifier d) Both internally generated and present with the input
P.T.O.

9) An amplifier with open loop gain of 1000, lower 3 dB cut-off frequency of 100 Hz and upper 3 dB cut-off
frequency of 1 MHz. If a negative feedback of 60 dB is provided to this amplifier, the lower 3 dB and upper
3 dB cut-off frequencies with feedback will be respectively.
a) 33 Hz and 1 MHz
b) 50 Hz and 2 MHz
c) 33 Hz and 2 MHz
10) An unbypassed emitter resistor introduces ______ feedback.
a) Voltage series b) Current series c) Voltage shunt d) Current shunt
11) The basic difference between series regulator and shunt regulator is
a) The position of control element b) Type of error detector
c) The amount of current that can be controlled d) Type of sample circuit
12) In series voltage regulator error amplifier compares
a) Input voltage and reference voltage
b) Feedback voltage and reference voltage
c) Input voltage and output voltage
d) All above
13) The protection circuit which not only limits the output current, but gradually reduces to zero if short circuit
condition occurs
a) Simple current limiting circuit b) Foldback current protection circuit
c) Thermal shut down circuit d) None of the above
14) For an ideal voltage regulator, the ideal values of line regulation, load regulation and ripple rejection
respectively are
a) 0, 0, 0 b) , 0, 0 c) 0, 0, d) , , 0
15) For voltage to frequency conversion application ______ is used.

a) Monostable multivibrator b) Astable multivibrator
c) Schmitt trigger d) All above
16) For frequency divider network application using IC555 ______ is used.
a) Monostable multivibrator b) Astable multivibrator
c) Schmitt trigger d) Bistable multivibrator
17) IC 74121 is
a) Astable multivibrator with Schmitt trigger
b) Bistable multivibrator with Schmitt trigger
c) Monostable multivibrator with Schmitt trigger
18) The conditions for maintenance of oscillations in RC phase shift oscillator is
a) b)
" 4 ? ' 4 " 4 ? ' 4
D B A ! D B A !
4 4 ? 4 4 ?
c) d)
" 4 ? ! 4 " 4 ? ! 4
D B A ' D B A '
4 4 ? 4 4 ?
19) If 1.5% of the output of an amplifier is feedback positively to input. The minimum gain required for oscillations is
a) 66.67 b) 0.67 c) 666.7 d) 6.67
20) In ______ frequency is determined by charging and discharging time constants during exchange of energy.
a) Harmonic oscillator b) Sinusoidal oscillator
c) Both a) and b) d) Relaxation oscillator
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.
4) Use of electronic data sheet is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following (any 4) : (4×5=20)
1) What is impedance transformation ? It is required to match a 16
speaker load to a transformer coupled

Class A amplifier so that the effective load resistance seen at the primary of transformer is 10 K . What

would be the turns ratio ?

2) Derive the expression of collector efficiency of Class A amplifier.
3) Identify the type of negative feedback in the circuit given below and calculate feedback factor and
voltage gain with feedback. Assume hie = 2 K
and hfe = 100.
4) What is the effect of voltage series feedback on the performance measures of a BJT amplifier ?
5) Explain Darlington Emitter follower circuit and its characteristics.
3. Answer the following (any two) : (2×10=20)

1) What is harmonic distortion ? Derive the expression for total power in terms of total harmonic distortion.
2) For the two stage RC coupled amplifier shown below determine input resistance, individual stage gains
and overall voltage gain in dB. Also draw h-equivalent circuit.
3) Design a two stage RC coupled amplifier to meet following specifications : Load resistance = 3 K
,
Rs = 600 , output voltage = 9 Vpp with supply voltage of 15 V and ; lower cut-off frequency is 50 Hz. Also

modify this design to have a voltage series negative feedback with closed loop voltage gain of 100.
Set A

SECTION II
4. Solve any four questions : (4×5=20)
1) Explain working of a linear ramp generator using IC555.
2) Design a timer circuit that operates on 6 V volt supply and turns on solid state relay for 100 msec when
triggered. The minimum voltage required to turn on the relay is 3.5 V and the control current range of the
relay is from 3 to 20 mA. The oil resistance is 400
.
3) Derive an expression for general format of LC oscillator.
4) Explain Barkhausen criteria for oscillation. How an amplifier can be converted into an oscillator ?
5) Design an adjustable voltage regulator using 78 XX to vary output voltage between 5 V and 11 V.
5. Solve any two questions : (10×2=20)

1) Explain Astable Multivibrator with internal circuit and derive an expression for its frequency and duty cycle.
2) Design a transistorized Colpitts oscillator for the frequency of 40 MHz with output of V0 = 3 Vpp and
RL = 2 K
. Use transistor having following specification hfe
50, hie = 1 K
, Icmax = 100 mA.
3) Explain feedback current limiting and thermal shutdown circuit for IC voltage regulators.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
ANALOG COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct answer. (20×1=20)
1) The most suitable method for detecting a modulated signal (3 + 6 cos ωm t ) cos ωm t
is
a) envelope detector b) synchronous detector
c) ratio detector d) both a, b
2) Power in one of the sideband
a) (m2Pc)/4 b) (m2Pc)/8 c) (m2Pc)/2 d) (m2Pc)/16
3) At low frequency, modulation noise found in a transistor is
a) transit time noise b) flicker noise
c) resistance noise d) shot noise
4) An AM wave is given by
eAM = 10(1+0.4cos103t+0.3cos104t) cos106t. the modulation index of the envelope
is
a) 0.4 b) 0.5 c) 0.3 d) 0.9
5) Vestigial sideband modulator (C3F) is normally used for
a) HF point to point communication b) Monaural broadcasting
c) TV broadcasting d) Stereo broadcasting
6) The positive RF peaks of an AM voltage rise to a maximum value of 12 V and drop
to a minimum of 4 V. The modulation index assuming single tone modulation is
a) 3 b) 1/3 c) ¼ d) 1/2
7) The percentage power saving when the carrier and one of the sidebands are
suppressed in an AM wave modulated
a) 94.4% b) 83.3% c) 66.66% d) 50%
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 126 -2- *SLRPC126*
8) The main advantage of superhetrodyne receiver is
a) simple circuit
b) synchronous detector
c) improvement in selectivity and sensitivity
d) both a, b
9) Noise is primarily a variation in
a) Frequency b) Phase c) Amplitude d) None of these
10) For boosting the high frequencies the circuit used is
a) Amplifier b) Pre-emphasis
c) De-emphasis d) Filter
11) If an FM wave is represented by the equation e = 10 sin (9 * 108t + 4 sin 1,500 t),
that what is the a carrier frequency ?
a) 127.32 MHz b) 150.00 MHz c) 143.31 MHz d) 208.00 MHz
12) An FM signal with modulation index m is applied to a frequency tripler. The
resulting output has a modulation index
a) 0 b) m/3 c) m d) 3m
13) FM signal can be converted into AM signal using
a) frequency discriminator b) AFC
c) slope detector d) squaring circuit
14) One of the drawbacks of FM signal is
a) high noise b) limited range
c) low signal strength d) none of the above
15) A popular half wavelength antenna is the
a) Ground plane b) Collinear c) End fire d) Dipole
16) The electromagnetic waves are reflected by the ionosphere due to their interaction
with
a) electrons b) ultraviolet rays c) protons d) infrared rays
17) The important parameter for estimation of Traffic intensity are/is
a) average call arrival rate b) average holding time per call
c) both a & b d) none of these
18) What two sine wave frequencies are produced when the 3 key is pressed ?
a) 697 and 1477 Hz b) 852 and 1330 Hz
c) 770 and 1209 Hz d) 941 and 1336 Hz
19) Which of the noise does not occur in transistor ?
a) short noise b) flicker noise c) partition noise d) resistance noise
20) During day time, the ionosphere consists of
a) D, E, F layers b) D, E, F1 layers
c) D, E, F2 layers d) D, E, F1, F2 layers
______________
Set A

*SLRPC126* -3- SLR-PC – 126
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four. (4×6=24)
a) Draw and explain the communication system block diagram.
b) Explain third method for generation of SSB-SC with the help of block diagram.
c) Calculate the percentage power saving when the carrier and one of the sideband
are suppressed in an AM wave modulated to a both of
a) 100 percent and b) 50 percent.
d) Draw the block diagram of high level AM transmitter. Explain the function of each
block.
e) Compare AM with FM. What are advantages of AM over FM ?
3. Attempt any two. (2×8=16)
a) Explain how modulation index will be calculated from amplitude modulated wave.
Draw the waveforms for amplitude modulated wave for modulation index less than
one, equal to one and greater than one. Suggest demodulation techniques for
these modulated waves.
b) What are different characteristics of AM receiver ? Draw and explain superhetrodyne

receiver.
c) The antenna current of AM broadcast transmitter, modulated to a depth of 40 percent

by an audio sine wave, is 11 A. It increase to 12 A as a result of simultaneous
modulation by another audio sine wave. What is the modulation index due to this
second wave ?
Set A

SLR-PC – 126 -4- *SLRPC126*
SECTION – II
4. Attempt any four. 16

a) What is an audio equalizer ? What is its necessity in FM transmitter ?
b) What is noise ? What are it effects ? Explain classification for noise.
c) Explain actual height and virtual height of an ionized layer.
d) Define the term Time Consistent Busy Hour, Call Completion Rate, Busy Hour
Call Attempts, Busy Hour Calling Rate, Day to Busy Hour Traffic Ratio, Server,
Traffic Intensity, Erlang.
e) Explain half dipole antenna with its application.
5. Attempt any three. 24

a) With suitable phase diagram and circuit diagram explain Foster Seeley
Discriminator.
b) Derive an expression for relation between noise figure and noise equivalent
resistance.
c) Explain classification on switching system.
d) With suitable block diagram explain a FM receiver.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .

LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Select correct option : (1×20=20)

1) AD 534 is a _______________
a) VCO b) PLL c) op amp d) none of these
2) Which is below is an open loop application ?
a) widow detector b) zero crossing detector
c) voltage comparator d) all of above
3) For a practical integrator __________________ is used in feedback.
a) only C b) only R
c) R and C in series d) R and C in parallel
4) For we are talking about ___________

2 R R

T 2 R C l n ,

a) Wien bridge oscillator b) Phase shift oscillator

c) Triangular wave generator d) Square wave generator
5) A comparator followed by an integrator is a
a) Schmitt trigger b) Log amplifier
c) Triangular wave generator d) Square wave generator
6) Op AMP is a ________________ coupled ________________ amplifier.
a) capacitor, high gain b) directly, class AB
c) directly, high gain d) capacitor, non linear
P.T.O.

7) As ideal op amp has infinite input resistance
a) op amp draws no current at both of its terminals
b) no current enters into op amp
c) any signal source can drive op amp and no loading on previous driving stage
d) all of above
8) Slope of voltage transfer curve of op amp is ________________
a) open loop gain b) input resistance
c) slew rate d) none of these
9) Make odd man out : input offset current, input offset voltage, thermal drift, CMRR
a) input offset current b) input offset voltage
c) thermal drift d) CMRR
10) For 741C maximum input bias current is _______________
a) 500 nA b) 50 nA c) 5 nA d) 50
A
11) Open loop gain of the op amp is very _______________ and bandwidth is very
_____________
a) high, high b) small, high c) high, small d) small, small

12) , we are talking about

.

8 8 8
N O

a) differential amp with one op amp b) differential amp with two op amp
c) non inverting amp d) inverting amp
13) Resistance ROM connected from NI terminal of op amp to ground is to
a) compensate for input offset voltage b) reduce effect of input offset current
c) reduce effect of input bias current d) balancing of op amp
14) Total output offset voltage varies with
a) change in temperature b) change in supply voltage
c) time d) all of these
15) A negative half wave rectifier uses ______________ in feedback loop.
a) resistor b) capacitor
c) no component (short) d) diode
16) Make odd man out : SE/NE 560, 564, 565, 566
a) 560 b) 564 c) 565 d) 566
17) ______________ are also called as dc inserter/restorer.
a) Clippers b) Clampers
c) Schmitt trigger d) Precision rectifiers
18) Frequency at which gain is 3 dB down of its value at 0Hz is called
a) UGB b) break frequency c) noise frequency d) all of these
19) Output resistance of a 741C is _______________ ohms.
a) zero b) 50 c) 75 d) none of these
20) Bode plot is used for _________________
a) Feedback analysis b) Thermal drift calculations
c) CMRR calculations d) Stability analysis
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) For differential amplifier with two OPAMPs. Derive expression for voltage gain. 8
OR
b) Derive an expression for input bias current compensating network for

Op Amp with feedback. Also comment on component selection. 8
c) What is multistage roll off ? Explain multistage gain (magnitude and phase)
as a function of frequency. Also sketch gain as a function of frequency. 8
d) Draw and explain in brief V to I converter with floating and grounded load. 8
a) What are the limitations of the basic differentiator circuit ? How it can be overcome ?
b) Explain inverting Summing, Scaling and Averaging Amplifier.
c) What are the major contributors for output offset voltage ?
d) What are various thermal drifts ? What are the various ways to specify them ? How user
can select an Op Amp based on these ? Explain with example.
e) With suitable example explain how Op Amp with less slew rate causes distortion with
open loop applications.
Set A

SECTION II
4. a) Draw and explain Schmitt Trigger. Derive expression for UTP and LTP. 8
OR
b) Explain precision diode full wave rectifier. Why it is also called as an absolute value
circuit. 8
c) With block diagram explain operation of PLL. Explain PLL as frequency multiplier. 8
d) With suitable diagram and waveform explain dual slope ADC. 8
a) Draw and explain first order high pass Butterworth filter. Discuss design procedure and
comment on component selection.
b) Draw and explain sawtooth wave generator. Discuss design procedure and comment on
component selection.
c) Explain internal diagram of VCO NE/SE 566.
d) Explain with a typical example how 1408 can be used in unipolar range.
e) Draw and explain all pass filter.
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Select suitable option : (1×20=20)
1) The system y(t) = x(t) + 2x(t + 3) is
a) Causal system b) Non-causal system
c) Partly (a) and partly (b) d) None of these
2) A system having impulse response h(t) will be BIBO stable if

a)
| h ( t ) |
b)
| h ( t ) |
c)
| h ( t ) | 0
d)
| h ( t ) | 1

3) Convolution is used to find

a) The impulse response of an LTI system
b) Frequency response of a system
c) The time response of a LTI system
d) The phase response of a LTI system
4) The term an in Fourier series expansion gives
a) DC component b) Cosine component
c) Sine component d) AC component
5) The ________ signal has the property that it is unchanged by a time shift of T.
a) Causal signal b) Even signal c) Periodic signal d) Static signal
6) The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not have
a) DC term b) Cosine term c) Sine term d) Odd harmonic terms
7) Identify the memoryless system from the following
J
a) y[n] = b) y[n] = x[n 1] c) y(t) = d) y[n] = (2x[n] x2[n])2

x [ k ]
N @

?
P.T.O.

8) In exponential Fourier series, Cn in terms of coefficients of trigonometric series is
given by
a) an jbn b) an + jbn c) (an jbn) d) (an + jbn)

9) The difference between unit step and first difference unit step is
a) Unit step signal b) Impulse response
c) Delayed unit step d) Unit impulse
10) The fundamental period T of the continuous time signal jej5t is
a) 0.2 sec

b) 0.4 sec c) 0.3 sec

d) 0.5 sec
11) A function having frequency f is to be sampled. The sampling time T should be

a) T = b) T > c) T < d) T

B B B B
12) As per time displacement theorem in Laplace transformation, displacement in the

time domain by T becomes
a) Division by s in the s domain b) Division by esT in the s domain
c) Multiplication by s in the s domain d) Multiplication by esT in the s domain
13) If f(t) = A (t a), F(s) is
a) Aeas b) A eas c) Aaeas d) Aaeas

14) If R1 is the region of convergence of x(n) and R2 is the region of convergence of y(n),
then the region of convergence of x(n) convuluted y(n) is
a) R1 + R2 b) R1 R2 c) R1 R2 d) R1 R2
15) Z-transform converts convolution of time signals to

a) Addition b) Subtraction c) Multiplication d) Division
16) When two honest coins are simultaneously tossed, the probability of two heads
on any given trial is
a) 1 b) c) d)
!
" "
17) What is the Nyquist frequency for the signal x(t) = 3 cos 50 t + 10 sin 300 t
cos100 t ?
a) 50 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 200 Hz d) 300 Hz

18) The autocorrelation of a rectangular pulse is
a) Another rectangle pulse b) Square pulse
c) Triangular pulse d) Sinc pulse
19) The probability of an event B under the condition the event A has already occurred
is known as
a) Probability b) Conditional probability
c) Joint probability d) Both b) and c)
20) The PDF of a random variable X is given by
f(x) = 2(1 x)2 0<x<1
=0 elsewhere
The mean of the random variable is
a) b) c) d)

______________ Set A
" $ &

*SLRPC128* -3-
SLR-PC 128
S e a t
N o .

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
a) State and explain the different operations on signals with examples.
b) Perform the CT transformation for the signal shown
[x(t) + x(2 t)]u(1 t)

c) Explain the following properties of an LTI system with examples.
i) Stability ii) Causality
d) State and explain the properties of convolution sum and convolution integral.
e) Find the Fourier transform of non periodic signal x(t) with magnitude and phase
spectrum.

a) Obtain the convolution of two CT functions given below. Also sketch the result.
y(t) = 4 for 0 t 2
=0 elsewhere
y(t) = 2 for 2 t 2
=0 elsewhere Set A

b) Find the exponential Fourier series and plot the magnitude and phase spectrum of
half wave rectified time domain signal shown in figure.
c) Find whether the following CT-LTI system is stable.
SECTION II
a) State and explain sampling theorem in frequency domain.
b) Find the Z transform and sketch the R.O.C. for the following sequence
x[n] = (0.6)n u[n] + (0.4)n u[n].
c) What is Auto correlation ? Explain the properties of Auto correlation.
d) The probability that Ramesh passes in the subject signals and systems is 0.45
and the subject probability and random process is 0.32 and in both is 0.15. What
is the probability that he passes in
i) Atleast in one subjects ii) Neither of the subjects
iii) One of the subjects iv) Not in signals and systems
e) Write a note on Power Spectral Density.
a) The analog signal m(t) is given as
m(t) = 2 cos200 t + 3 sin6000 t + 8 cos1200 t, calculate

i) Nyquist sampling rate

ii) If the given m(t) is sampled at the rate Fs = 5000 Hz, what is the DT signal
obtained after sampling.
iii) What is the analog signal reconstructed from the samples if ideal interpolation
is used.
b) If f(x) = 2(1 x)2 0<x<1
=0 otherwise
Is the PDF of a random variable X, find E(6x + 3x2], E[2x + 3], and variance of 2x + 3.
c) ADT-LTI system is characterized by transfer function H[Z] = .

Z ( 3 Z 4 )

Z ( Z 3 )

Specify the R.O.C. of H[z] and determine h[n] for

i) The system is stable ii) The system is causal iii) The system is anticausal.
_____________________ Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Part – I) (Electronics Engineering) (Old) Examination, 2015
CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) Assume data, if necessary.
3) All questions are compulsory.
1. 1) In force voltage analogy, mass is analogous to (20×1=20)

a) voltage b) current c) inductance d) capacitance
2) Missile launching and guidance system is the example of __________ system.
a) feedback control b) open loop control
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
3) Routh Hurwitz criterion gives us number of roots lying in
a) left of s.plane b) right of s.plane
c) on the origin of s.plane d) none of these
4) Slow response is given by ____________ system.
a) open loop b) closed loop c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
5) Which of the following is used in digital position control system ?
a) A.C. Servomotor b) Synchro c) Stepper motor d) D.C. Servomotor
5 3 1
6) The characteristics equation of system is S + S + S + 5 = 0, this system is
a) marginally stable b) unstable
c) absolutely stable d) conditionally stable
7) The error detector element in control system gives
a) sum of reference signal and feedback signal
b) sum of reference signal and error signal
c) the difference of the reference signal and feedback signal
d) the difference of the reference signal and output signal
8) The transfer function for the following block diagram is
R (s) C (s)
+ G (s)
–
H (s)
G (s ) G (s ) 1 1
a) 1 + G (s) ⋅ H (s) b) 1 − G (s) H (s) c) 1 + G (s) H (s) d) 1 − G (s) H (s)
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 129 -2- *SLRPC129*
9) In case of synchro error detector, the electrical zero position of control transformer is
obtained, when angular displacement between rotors is
a) zero b) 45° c) 90° d) 180°
10) Which of the following can work as error detecting devices ?
i) a pair of potentiometer ii) a pair of synchros
iii) a metadyne iv) a control transformer
a) i and ii b) iii and iv c) ii, iii and iv d) iv
11) In type one system
a) no pole is at origin b) one pole is at origin
c) two poles are at origin d) none of these
12) The angle with real axis by asymptote in root locus is given by
(2q + 1) 180
a) Φ = where q = 0, 1, 2, ....., (p – z – 1)
p−z
(2q + 1) 180
b) Φ = where q = 1, 2, ...., (p – z)
p−z
(2q + 1) 180
c) Φ = where q = 0, 1, 2, ...., (p – z – 1)
p+z
(2q + 1) 180
d) Φ = where q = 1, 2, ....., (p – z)
z −p
13) Lead compensation is used to
a) improve steady state response b) decreases bandwidth
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
14) In Bode plot on X-axis ________ is taken.
a) frequency b) log frequency
c) magnitude in db d) phase angle in degree
15) A system has the following open loop transfer function ; it consists of ______ open loop
poles and _____ open loop zeros G (s) = K (s + 4)

s (s + 1) (s + 2) (s + 3)
a) 1 and 4 b) 4 and 1 c) k and 4 d) 1 and k
nd
16) In frequency domain analysis the resonant frequency for II order system is given by
a) ωr = ωn 1 − 2ζ
2
b) ωr =
ωn
2
c) ωr =
1 − 2ζ 2
ω
(2
d) ωr = ωn 1 − 2ζ ζ )
1 − 2ζ n
17) Each branch of root locus of the characteristics equation of a closed loop control system
begins from
a) origin b) open loop poles c) open loop zero d) no of the above
18) In frequency domain analysis the input is
a) step signal b) sine wave with variable frequency
c) ramp signal d) parabolic signal
19) Cascade compensation is also called as
a) parallel compensation b) feedback compensation
c) series compensation d) series parallel compensation
20) Angle of departure in the root locus is given by
a) Φ d = 180 − (Φ p − Φ z )

b) Φ d = 180 − (Φ z − Φ p )

c) Φ d = (Φ z − Φ p ) − 180
d) Φ d = (Φ p − Φ z ) − 180 Set A
______________

*SLRPC129* -3- SLR-PC – 129
Seat
No.

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION – I

a) What is control system ? Give the transfer function for closed loop control system.
b) Derive the transfer function of series R.L. circuit.
c) Find transfer function for following block diagram.
+ + C (s)
G1 G2
R (s) –
–
H2
H1
d) Explain A.C. servomotor.

e) Write a short note on Routh’s stability criterion.
3. a) Write a short note on potentiometer as control component. 8

b) Solve any one : 8
i) Explain automatic air craft landing system in detail.
ii) Obtain over all transfer function C/R for following signal flow graph
H1 G4 G6
1
G2
G8 C
R G1
G7
⊥ G3
H2 G5
Set A

SLR-PC – 129 -4- *SLRPC129*
SECTION – II

a) Write a short note on PLC and its types.
b) State the rules for determining centroid and breakaway point in construction of root locus.
c) State frequency response specifications.
125
d) For unity feedback control system, whose open loop transfer function is G (s) =
s (s + 10)
and H (s) = 1 calculate damping factor, standard frequency and peak over shoot.
e) Explain standard test signals.
5. Solve any two : (2×8=16)

a) Sketch the bode plot and determine the gain cross over frequency and phase cross
10
over frequency for the system G (s) = .
s (1 + 0.5 s) (1 + 0.1s)
b) What is compensator ? What is the need of compensator ? Explain different types in

short,
40 (s + 2)
c) A unity feedback system has G (s) = determine all error coefficients and
s (s + 1) (s + 4)
error for ramp input with magnitude.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
SURVEYING – I
Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective multiple choice. Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory.
Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5 and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.
2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
1. Choose correct alternative :
1) During two peg test of dumpy level, the true difference in level is calculated by taking the
readings from the instrument set
a) Midway between the two pegs b) Over two pegs
c) Over any one of the two pegs d) None of these
2) Sensitiveness of bubble tube is calculated as
a) Angular value of one division of bubble tube
b) Radius of longitudinal curvature of bubble tube
c) Both of these
d) None of these
3) If distance between staff and dumpy level is 1000 meter, the refraction correction
(in meter) for staff reading will be
a) + 0.0112 b) – 0.0112 c) + 0.0673 d) – 0.0673
4) During the simple method of measurement of horizontal angle, the face left observations
and face right observations are carried out
a) In clockwise direction only
b) In anticlockwise Direction only
c) In Clockwise and anticlockwise directions respectively
d) In Anticlockwise and clockwise directions respectively
5) With theodolite set at ‘T’ to 0° vertical angle, the staff reading on a staff held on ABM
with 100 m RL is 1 m. If vertical angle to ‘S’ (bottom of spout) is (minus) 45° and
horizontal distance ‘T’ to ‘S’ is 10 m, the R. L. of ‘S’ will be
a) 1 m b) 101 m c) 111 m d) 91 m
6) If true bearing of a survey line is 34°30’ and the magnetic bearing of the line is 38°, the
magnetic declination will be
a) 3°30’ East b) 3°30’ West c) 3°30’ North d) 3°30’ South
7) If angular and linear measurements are equally precise, then the closed theodolite traverse
is balanced by
a) Transit Rule b) Bow Ditch’s Rule c) Graphical Method d) None of these
P.T.O.

8) The process of establishing intermediate points with a theodolite on a given straight line
whose ends are inter visible is called as
a) Lining in b) Balancing in c) Transiting d) Swinging
9) The Fathometer is used for measurement of
a) Fat content in fish b) Distance from the sea shore
c) Depth of sea water d) Speed of boat or ship
10) The Velocity of sound in sea water directly depends on
a) Mean Sea Level b) Salinity of water
c) Depth of sea water d) Distance from the sea shore
11) In plane table survey, the station occupied by plane table is located using
a) Resection method b) Intersection method
c) Radiation method d) None of these
12) Most accurate method of orientation of plane table is
a) Magnetic North b) Backsighting c) True North d) Radiation
13) There is no solution to three point. Problem if the plane table station is
a) Inside the great circle
b) Outside the great circle
c) On the circumference of great circle
d) At the center of great circle
14) When contours intersect each other it indicates ?
a) Level surface b) Horizontal surface
c) Vertical cliff d) Overhanging cliff
15) The contour interval is inversely proportional to
a) Steepness of the area b) Extent of the area
c) Scale of the map d) None of above
16) At what angle does a valley line intersect contours ?
a) 90° b) 45° c) 30° d) 0°
17) Pickout the correct statement.
a) Contour maps can not be used to ascertain the intervisibility of points
b) Contours drawn underwater are known as aqueous contours
c) Contour interval may be located in the field by a gradienter
d) None of these
18) The area of an irregular plotted closed figure can be accurately obtained with the help of
a) Pentagraph b) Parallax bar c) Plannimeter d) None of above
19) Meridian distance of a surveyline is the
a) Distance of its midpoint from the meridian
b) Distance of its far end from the meridian
c) Distance of its near end from the meridian
d) Departure of the line
20) Prismoidal formula yields better results when
a) There is large difference between the two end areas of a prismoid
b) The cross sections are spaced closely
c) The surface irregularities have been measured in the field
d) All of the above
______________
Set A

Seat
No.
SURVEYING – I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5
and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.
SECTION – I
2. a) During the two peg test following readings were observed
Instrument Staff Staff reading

Remark
at Station (meter)
C A 1.585
• Dist AB = 100 m,
B 1.225
• Dist AC = Dist CB = 50 m
• Dist AD = 20 m, D is beyond
D A 1.425
A along the line BA produced
B 1.150
Find :
i) True difference in level between A and B.
ii) Correct staff reading at B
iii) Correct staff reading at A. 8
b) Explain instruments and process of precise levelling with sketch. 6
3. a) Following are the readings taken during a closed theodolite traverse.
Line Length (m) Corrected Whole Circle Bearing
PQ 150.000 85 ° 14’1’’
QR 75.500 178 °
RS 153.200 270 °
SP 63.000 1°
i) Calculate consecutive coordinates.

ii) Calculate the linear error of closure.
iii) Also calculate corrections using Transit Rule.
iv) Calculate independent cordinates assuming independent coordinates of P as (500,500). 8
b) Write a note on Spire Test. How is the adjustment carried out ? 5
Set A

4. a) During a closed compass traverse following bearings were omitted. Determine the omitted
measurements. 8
Corrected Whole Circle

Line Length (m)
Bearing
PQ 150.000 Roughly East
QR 75.500 Roughly South
RS 153.23 270°
SP 63.000 1°
b) Explain Trigonometrical leveling with suitable sketch for the case of object accessible
from theodolite station. 5
5. a) Explain construction and use of Nautical sextant. 4

b) Explain construction and use of Lead wire, Box sextant, Hand level. 9
SECTION – II
6. a) Write short note on “Total Station”. 5

b) A railway Embankment is 12 m wide. The ground is level in a direction transverse to the
centre line. Calculate the volume contained in a 100 m length by trapezoidal rule and
prismoidal rule, if the side slope is 1.5 : 1, The centre heights at 20 m, interval are 3.7 m;
2.6 m; 4.0 m ; 3.4 m ; 2.8 m; 3.0 m ; 2.2 m. 9
7. a) Explain “Three point problem” and describe the solution by tracing paper method. 8
b) Which are instruments useful for contouring with plane table ? 5
8. a) Draw a sketch of mechanical plani-meter and show its various parts. Write the stepwise
procedure to determine area of a closed figure using mechanical planimeter. 8
b) Describe direct method of contouring. 5
9. a) The following offsets were taken at 15 m intervals from a survey line to an irregular boundary
line. 3.5, 4.30, 6.75, 5.25, 7.50, 8.80, 7.90, 6.40, 4.40. 3.25 m. Calculate the area enclosed
between the surveyline, the irregular boundary line and the first and last offsets by
a) The trapezoidal rule,
b) The Simpson’s rule. 8
b) Define “zerocircle”. What is the need of finding the area of the zerocircle. 5
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1. Multiple choice questions. Choose correct option : (20×1=20)

1) The relationship between S-domain and Z-domain is
a) Z = e(ST) b) Z = e(jST) c) S = e(ZT) d) Z = e(–ST)
2) Z-transform reduces to Fourier transform when it is evaluated on
a) a half circle b) Z circle c) Unit circle d) Imaginary circle
3) A DT signal has
a) Continuous time and continuous amplitude
b) Continuous time and discrete amplitude
c) Discrete time and continuous amplitude
d) Discrete time and discrete amplitude
4) Overlap and save algorithm uses overlap for
a) Output sequences b) Input sequences
c) Both input and output sequences d) Adds the overlapped output
5) The following realization minimizes the delay elements.
a) Direct form-I realization b) Direct form-II realization
c) Cascade form realization d) Parallel realization
6) The system is linear if
a) It is a homogeneous b) It is additive
c) It is a homogeneous or additive d) It is a homogeneous and additive
7) The FFT algorithm calculates
a) DTFT b) DCT c) IDFT d) DST
8) Multiplication in frequency domain is convolution in time domain in time. It is a
a) Linear convolution b) Circular convolution
c) Any type of convolution d) Linear conv. converted to circular conv
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 130 -2- *SLRPC130*
9) Using long division, we divide numerator polynomial by a denominator polynomial
to obtain a power series in Z–1 depending on whether the series to be recovered is
a) anti-causal signal b) causal signal c) both sided signal d) none
10) The ROC of Z-transform of x[n] = δ [n] is
a) entire Z-plane b) entire Z-plane expect Z = 0
c) entire Z-plane expect Z = ∞ d) none of above
11) The features in which P-DSP is superior to advanced microprocessor is
a) low cost b) low power
c) computational speed d) Real time I/O capability
12) TMS320C54 processor uses ____________ architecture.
a) simple b) complex c) Harward d) Von Meumann
13) In impulse invariant transformation, relation between Ω and ω is
a) Ω = ωT b) Ω = ω / T
c) ω = tan(ΩT) d) Ω = ( T / 2) tan(ωT / 2)
14) Butterworth filters have
a) wide transition region b) sharp transition region
c) oscillation in transition region d) maximally flat pass band
15) Which of the following is not true for IIR filters ?
a) impulse response duration is infinite
b) they have poles
c) they give linear phase response
d) all above
s
16) For the butterworth filter with transfer function H(S) = . The cutoff frequency
s+4
Ωc is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 1 d) None of these
17) The Ideal filters are
a) causal b) non causal
c) may be causal or non causal d) none of these
18) The approximate width of the main lobe in rectangular window of length M is
a) 4π / M b) 8π / M c) 12π / M d) 16π / M
19) Which of the following is true for FIR filters ?
a) the have linear phase b) are always stable
c) they are all zero filters d) all above a, b, and c
20) A Barrel shifter with 16 inputs and left shifts from 0 to 15 requires ____________
number of control lines.
a) 4 b) 15 c) 16 d) none of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC130* -3- SLR-PC – 130
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instruction : 1) All questions are compulsory.

SECTION – I
2. Solve any four of the followings : (4×5=20)

a) Find 4 point DFT of the sequence x(n) = cos (n π /4)
b) Find Z transform and sketch ROC for x[n] = u[n].
c) Compute circular convolution of the signal x1[n] = { 2 , 1, 2, 1} and x2[n] = { 1 , 2, 3, 4}.
↑ ↑
d) Explain DFT as linear transformation along with cyclic property of twiddle factor.
e) Obtain the cascade realization of the system characterized by transfer function
2(z + 2)
H(z) =
z(z − 0.1)(z + 0.5)(z + 0.4)
3. Solve any two of the followings : (2×10=20)

a) Differentiate between overlap add and overlap save method. Explain the general
method of signal segmentation estimation using overlap add method.
b) Derive the formulae for conversion from lattice structure to direct form for an IIR
filter.
c) Develop a DIF FFT algorithm. Hence determine X(k) of the sequence
x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1).
SECTION – II

a) Convert the analog filter to digital filter whose system function is
25
H(s ) = The digital filter should have a resonant frequency of
(s + 0.1)2 + 25
wr = 0.1 π . Use lmpulse invariant method.
Set A

SLR-PC – 130 -4- *SLRPC130*
b) Draw and explain the structure for 4 × 4 Baron multiplier for unsigned numbers.
c) Explain the frequency sampling method for design of FIR filters.
d) Design the first order low pass filter with fc = 1 kHz and sampling frequency
fs = 10000 sps. Use bilinear transformation method.
e) Explain in details, the special addressing modes in relation with DSP processor
with suitable example.

a) Explain the Bilinear transformation for digital filters in detail.
b) Explain the applications of DSP in Audio processing and Biomedical field.
c) The desired frequency response of a low pass filter is
⎧ π
⎪1 − ≤ ω≤ π/2
jω
Hd(e ) = ⎨ 2
π
⎪0 ≤ | ω|≤ π
⎩ 2
Determine hd(n). Also determine h(n) using symmetric rectangular window with
window length 7.
_____________________
Set A

*SLR-PC-131* SLR-PC 131
Set A
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015

MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) The memory address of the last location of a 1K-byte memory chip is given
as EBFFH. The starting address of this memory is
a) E800H b) E7FFH c) E801H d) EC00H
2) The memory map of a 2 KB memory begins at the location 4000 H. What is
the last location on the chip ?
a) 43FFH b) 4FFFH c) 47FFH d) 7FFFH
3) What is the addressing mode used in instruction MOV D.M ?
a) Direct b) Indirect c) Indexed d) Immediate
4) Which is non-maskable interrupt ?
a) TRAP b) RST 7.5 c) RST 6.5 d) RST 5.5
5) Number of address lines required to access 32 KB of memory are
a) 10 b) 16 c) 12 d) 15
6) The instruction LXI H, 9000 requires _______ T-states.
a) 13 b) 7 c) 10 d) 18
7) Vector location of RST 5.5 interrupt is
a) 0024H b) 002CH c) 0034H d) 003CH
8) The unit that supervises each instruction in the microprocessor 8085 is
a) ALU
b) Control Unit
c) Accumulator
d) Instruction decoder
P.T.O.

SLR-PC 131 -2- *SLR-PC-131*
9) DAA stands for
a) Decimal Adjust Accumulator
b) Direct Adjust Address
c) Decimal Adjust Address
d) Direct Adjust Accumulator
10) How many flags are in status register in 8085 ?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
11) The status register of 8251 is
a) 16 bit b) 4 bit c) 8 bit d) 6 bit
12) The 8253 mode 1 is
a) Interrupt on terminal count
b) H/W retriggerable one shot
c) Rate generator
d) Square wave generator
13) The eight bit ADC having resolution
a) 1/16 b) 1/64 c) 1/128 d) 1/256
14) For I/O mapped I/O, control signals used are
a) Active low RD and WR
b) Active high RD and WR
c) Active low IOR and IOW
d) Active low MEMR and MEMW
15) In mode 1 operation of 8255 which ports provides handshaking signals ?
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C d) Port D
16) For bidirectional data transfer, 8255 can be used in
a) Mode 0 b) Mode 1 c) Mode 2 d) BSR mode
17) _______ can be used as an output port.
a) Buffer b) Latch c) Decoder d) Encoder
18) For DAC 0808, the output ________ is proportional to input digital count.
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Voltage and Current
19) What is RIM ?
a) Read Interrupt Mask
b) Restore Interrupt Mask
c) Red Input Mask
d) Read Interrupt Memory
20) Control register and status register of 8251 are having the different address.
a) True b) False
_______________ Set A

*SLR-PC-131* -3- SLR-PC 131
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Answer any four : (4×5=20)
a) Explain de-multiplexing of AD0-AD7 pins of 8085.
b) Explain different types of memory.
c) Write an assembly program to add five BCD numbers stored from 9100 h.
d) Write a program to transfer the array of ten elements stored from 2000 h to 2100 h.
e) Define T state, machine cycle and instruction cycle.
3. Answer any two : (2×10=20)
a) Interface one 4K × 8 EPROM using 2K × 4 EPROM chips with 8085 such

that the starting address assigned 0000H.
b) Explain how interrupts are enabled and disabled and pending interrupts are
read. Explain hardware interrupts of 8085.
c) How will you make the use of following pins of 8085 ? Explain it with suitable
examples.
ALE, HOLD and HLDA, SOD and READY.
Set A

SLR-PC 131 -4- *SLR-PC-131*
SECTION II
a) Draw the block diagram of 8251 and explain it.
b) Draw timing diagram for the instruction : 1000 : OUT 40h.
c) Draw and explain R-2R Ladder DAC.
d) Explain mode of operations of 8255.
e) Interface 2 LEDs and 2 switches to the 8085 and write a program to turn on
the LED if respective switch is closed.

a) Interface ADC 0808 to 8085 and write a program for analog to digital
conversion.
b) Draw and explain interfacing of 8253 with 8085. Specify the assumed data.
c) Explain the mode and command words of 8251. Write a program to receive
10 bytes serially. Assume baud rate 16x, 8 bits/character, 1 stop bit.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) In a Cartesian coordinate system, axes x, y and z are at ___________ to each
other.
a) 45° b) 90° c) 120° d) 180°
2) In terms of spherical co-ordinate system variables, y of cartesian co-ordinate system
is given as
a) r sin θ cos ϕ b) r sin θ sin ϕ c) r cos θ sin ϕ d) r cos θ cos ϕ
3) If the electric field established by three point charges Q, 2Q and 3Q exert a force
3F on 3Q and 2F on 2Q, then what is the force exerted on the point charge Q ?
a) F b) – F c) 5F d) – 5F
4) Energy is
a) Power/sec b) Power x sec
c) Watts d) Joules
5) The surface integral of the electrical field intensity is the
a) net flux emanating from the surface
b) electric charge
c) charge density
d) flux density
6) Another boundary condition using Maxwell’s equations is given as
a) Htan ‘1’ + Htan ‘2’ = 0 b) Htan ‘1’ – Htan ‘2’ = 0
c) Htan ‘1’ + Htan ‘2’ = Js d) Htan ‘1’ – Htan ‘2’ = Js
7) Ampere’s Circuital Law can be applied ___________ the conductor.
a) Inside b) Outside
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 132 -2- *SLRPC132*
8) Magnetic flux density is the same as
a) Magnetic induction b) Magnetic field strength
9) ∇ 2 V = __________ is known as Poisson’s equation.
a) 0 b) ρν c) – ρν d) – ρν / ε
10) The γ is known as
a) Proportional constant b) Personal constant
c) Parameter constant d) Propagation constant
11) If μ = 1 μ H/m for a medium, H = 2 A/m, the energy stored is
a) 0.5 J/m3 b) 1 μ J/m3 c) 2 μ J/m3 d) none
12) Impedance of an antenna is matched to feed
a) Line b) Radio
13) For static field following equation is correct
a) ∇ × B = J b) ∇ × H = J + D
c) ∇ × H = J d) ∇ .B = J
14) The following term indicates velocity
a) με b) 1/ με c) μ/ε d) ε/μ
15) Radiation resistance of half wave dipole is
2 2
a) 36 Ω b) 73 Ω c) 292 Ω d) 80 π (dl / λ )
16) In a _______________ transmission line, the reflection coefficient domain is a
circle of unitary radius.
a) Lossy b) Lossless c) None of these d) Cannot say
17) For the uniform plane wave travelling in x-direction
a) Ex = 0 b) Hx = 0
c) Ex = 0 and Hx = 0 d) Ey = 0
18) Effective area of isotropic radiator is
a) π / λ2 b) π / 2λ2 c) λ2 / 2π d) λ2 / 4π
19) A field can exist if it satisfies
a) Faraday’s Law b) Ampere’s Law
c) Guass’ Law d) All Maxwell’s eqs.
20) Wave speed in terms of frequency f and wavelength λ is expressed as
a) f / λ b) λ / f c) λf d) (λ + f )
______________
Set A

*SLRPC132* -3- SLR-PC – 132
Seat
No.

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any four questions. (4×4)

a) Differentiate between dot and cross products with suitable examples.
b) For x, y and z positive, let ρ v = 40 xyz c/m3. Find the total charge within the region
defined by 0 ≤ x, y, z ≤ 2.
c) Derive Maxwell’s Equation for static fields.
d) Explain significance of displacement current.
e) Short Note : Energy stored in magnetic field.
3. Answer any three questions. (8×3)

A) Four like charges of 30 μ C located at 4 corners of square diagonal measures 8 m.
Find the forces on 150 μ C at 3 m above the center of the square.
B) Find E at P (1, 5, 2) in free space if a point charge of 6 μ C is located at
Q (0, 0, 1), a infinite line charge of 180nC/m lies along the x-axis and uniform sheet
charge equal to 25nC/m2 lies in the plane Z = – 1.
C) Find H at P (2, 3, 5) in Cartesian coordinates if there is an infinitely long current
filament passing through the origin and point C. The current of 50 A is directed
from the origin C, where the location of C is C (0, 0, 1) and C (0, 1, 0).
D) Derive point form of Ampere’s law.
SECTION – II
4. Answer any four questions : (4×4)

a) What is uniform plane wave ? What is meant by transverse electromagnetic wave ?
b) Write a note on Polarization.
c) Derive the transmission line equation stating with field theory.
Set A

SLR-PC – 132 -4- *SLRPC132*
d) What is radiation resistance and give its significance ?

e) Find the radiation resistance of a dipole antenna λ / 10 long. What will be antenna
efficiency if the loss resistance of the dipole antenna is 2 Ω ?
5. Answer any three questions. (8×3)

a) Derive the expression for impedance at any point on transmission line at a
distance ‘x’ from the receiving end.
b) A lossless 300 Ω transmission line is terminated in 450 – j600 Ω at 10 MHz.
Find :
i) Voltage and Current reflection coefficient
ii) VSWR
iii) Impedance at 0.3 λ from load.
c) State and derive Poynting theorem and give its significance.
d) Derive the power radiated by alternating current element.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
Set A
T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015
CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
Book Page No.3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/objective type questions Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on top of page.
MCQ/Objective type questions
1) In Laplace transform, ratio of output to input is called
a) Transfer function b) Efficiency c) Amplification factor d) Gain
2) Higher accuracy is provided by ___________ system.
a) open loop b) closed loop c) both a) and b) d) cant say
3) Example of digital position control system is
a) Stepper motor b) D.C. Series motor c) D.C. Shunt motor d) 1 AC motor
4) The transfer function for the given network
a) b) RCS + 1 c) d)
4
5
5
4 + 5 +
5) can be replaced by
a) b)
c) d)
6) Synchro transmitter-receiver unit is a

a) 2 A.C. device

b) 3 A.C. device
c) D.C. device d) 1 AC voltage
device
7) Settling time for 2% tolerance is
4 3 2 1
a) b) c) d)
n n n n
P.T.O.

8) In 1st order system, when unit step input is applied, response having maximum value ___________
at t
.
a) zero b) unity c) infinity d) none of these

9) Log compensator reduces
a) band width b) rise time c) transient response d) all above
10) Damped frequency of II order system is given by
a) = 2)
n(1 b) d = n c) d = d) d = 2

n
n
11) The band width in frequency domain analysis of 2nd order system is given by
1
a) b)
2 2 4

2 4

" "

" "
b n
b n

c) d)
1 1
2 2 4

" "
b n
" "
b n

12) In root locus centroid is given by

a) r e a l p a r t s o f p o l e s r e a l p a r t s o f z e r o s
p z
b) r e a l p a r t s o f z e r o s r e a l p a r t s o f p o l e s
p z
c) r e a l p a r t s o f p o l e s r e a l p a r t s o f z e r o s
p z
d) r e a l p a r t s o f p o l e s r e a l p a r t s o f z e r o s
p z
13) Following are the frequency domain parameter

a) damping factor b) natural frequency c) damping frequency d) none of above
14) Lead compensation gives
a) faster response b) more settling time
c) more rise time d) more overshoot
15) The phase cross over frequency is the point on frequency axis of the system at which the phase
plot of G (j ) crosses at ______________ degree line.
a) zero b) 90 c) 180 d) 270
16) For G(S) = the numbers of asymptotes are

K
s ( s 1 0 ) ( s 2 0 )
a) k b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
17) In Bode plot on X-axis __________ is taken.
a) phase angle in degree b) log frequency
c) magnitude in db d) frequency
18) Angle of departure in the root locus is given by
a)
d
&

p

z
b)
d
&

z

p

c)
d

z

p
&

d)
d

p

z
&
19) In frequency domain analysis the input is

a) Step signal b) Sine wave with variable frequency
c) Ramp signal d) Parabolic signal
20) In bode plot, if
C ?

F ?
the system is
a) stable b) unstable c) marginally stable d) none of these

Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
2) Assume data, is necessary.
3) Marks are indicated to the right of question.
SECTION I
1) Find the transfer function of given circuit.
2) Explain DC servomotor (armature controlled) and derive the transfer function for the same.
3) Determine steady state error to unit step and unit parabolic input for unity feed back system whose

transfer function is G(s) = .

I I " I
4) Find transfer function for the given block diagram.
+
C
5) Derive relation for rise time of IInd order system.
3. a) For unity feed back control system whose open loop transfer function is 8
G(s) = and H(S) = 1 calculate

#
I I $
i) damping factor ii) damping frequency

iii) rise time iv) peak time
v) settling time vi) peak overshoot
vii) natural frequency viii)
Set A

b) Solve any one :
I) Explain rules for block diagram reduction technique. 8
II) Explain controller, its types and one of its type with suitable example.
SECTION II
a) Draw pole zero plot showing and determine centroid, asymptote lines for following system
G(s) H(s) = .
K ( s 1 )
s ( s 2 ) ( s 3 ) ( s 4 )
b) Explain lag compensator.

c) What is special case no.l of Routh criterion ? Explain method to solve this case.
d) Determine stability of the system represented by following characteristic equation by using Hurwitzs
criterion S3 + S2 + S + 1 = 0.
e) Draw neat diagram and explain frequency domain specifications.
a) Sketch the root locus for the system
G(s) H(s) = .
K
s ( s 2 ) ( s 3 )
b) What is polar plot ? Explain method to obtain gain margin and phase margin from polar plot.
c) Using Rouths criterion determine the range of K for stability of system given by following characteristic
equation S4 + 6S3 + 30S2 + 60S + K = 0
______________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct option : (20×1=20)

1) The number of multipliers required for realization of FIR systems is reduced if we choose
a) Direct form b) Cascade form
c) Parallel form d) Linear phase realization
−k
∑M
k = 0 bkz
2) Consider H(z) = the number of memory locations for direct form II
−k
1 + ∑N
k = 1 akz
realization of above is
a) M + N + 1 b) M + 1 c) Min (M, N) d) Max (M, N)
1
3) Consider the transfer function H(z) = −k
the given system is
1 + ∑N
k = 1 akz
a) FIR system b) IIR system c) LTI system d) None of these

4) N point sequence is circularly odd if
a) X (n) = x (– n) b) X (n) = – x (– n)
c) X (N – n) = – x (n) d) X (N – n) = x (n)
5) If x (n) is real and odd, its DFT is
a) Real and odd b) Real and even
c) Purely imaginary and odd d) Purely imaginary and even
6) Let x (n) = {1, 4, B, 3} and X (k) is the 4 point DFT of x (n). If X (0) = 10, then A = ?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 2
7) In the basic butterfly structure of DIT FFT algorithm, number of complex multiplications
and additions are
a) 2 and 1 respectively b) 1 and 2 respectively
c) 2 and 4 respectively d) 4 and 2 respectively
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 135 -2- *SLPPC135*
8) Product of two DFTs is equivalent to ________ of corresponding time domain sequences.
a) Cross correlation b) Circular convolution
c) Linear convolution d) Auto correlation
9) Z-transform reduces to Fourier transform when it is evaluated on
a) A half circle b) Z circle c) Unit circle d) Imaginary circle
10) Overlap and save algorithm uses overlap for
a) Output sequences b) Input sequences
c) Both input and output sequences d) Adds the overlapped output
11) The addressing mode that is convenient for FFT computation is
a) Indirect addressing b) Circular mode addressing
c) Bit reversed addressing d) Memory mapped addressing
12) The frequency mapping from s domain to z domain using impulse invariant technique is
a) Many to many b) Many to one c) One to many d) None of above
13) Butterworth filters have
a) Only poles b) Only zeros
c) Both poles and zeros d) None of these
14) To convert the analog LPF with cutoff frequency Ωc to LPF with cutoff frequency Ωc *
we need to transform
ΩcΩc * Ωc *
a) s b) s s
s Ωc
Ωc
c) s S Ωc Ωc * d) s S
Ωc *
15) Which of the following is true for FIR filters ?
a) They have linear phase b) Are always stable
c) They are all zero filters d) All above a, b and c
16) Robot vision is the _________ application of DSP.
a) General b) Audio c) Image d) Biomedical
17) FIR filters are
a) All pole filters b) All zero filters c) Pole zero filters d) Unstable filters
18) The main lobe width of the window of size M is
a) Directly proportional to M b) Inversely proportional to M
c) Independent of M d) None of these
19) Coefficient quantization errors results from
a) Filter output exceeds word length
b) ADC quantization
c) Representing coefficients with limited number of bits
d) Discarding lower order bits of coefficients.
20) With repetitive MAC operations, the accumulator sum grows. The bits used to handle this
growth are
a) Parity bits b) Extra bits c) Guard bits d) Overflow errors
______________
Set A

*SLPPC135* -3- SLR-PC – 135
Seat
No.

DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Solve any four of the following : (4×5=20)
a) Explain in brief the major factors influencing the choice of specific realization. Draw the
direct form realizations for linear phase FIR systems with length of filter M odd.
b) Consider x (n) = {1 2 4 3}. Calculate 4 points DFT using direct computation.
c) Compute circular convolution of the signal x1 [n] = {2, 3, 2, 3} and x2 [n] = {1, 2, 3, 4}.
d) Explain the relation between DFT and Z transform.

e) Draw and explain the block diagram of real time DSP system.
3. Solve any two of the following : (2×10=20)

a) Consider the input sequence x (n) = [1 2 4 3 – 2 – 1 3 4 2 2 1 – 3] and impulse response
h (n) = [3 1 4]. Compute convolution using Overlap and add method.
b) Consider the LTI system with impulse response h (n) = 2n*u (n) – (3/4) *u (n – 1). Obtain
the transfer function H (z). Obtain the Direct form I and Parallel realization structures.
c) Develop a DIT FFT algorithm. Hence determine X (k) of the sequence
x (n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1}.
SECTION – II
a) Describe the applications of DSP in various fields.
b) Give the transfer function of Butterworth LPF of order N. Explain in brief how to compute
order and cutoff frequency of the filter from the desired specifications of filter
c) Explain in brief frequency sampling method of FIR filter design.
2
d) For the analog transfer function H ( s) = . Determine H (z) using Impulse
(s + 1) (s + 3 )
invariant method. Draw the direct form I structure for implementing H (z).
e) Compare FIR filters and FIR filters.
f) Explain VLIW architecture with the block diagram. Give advantyages and disadvantages
of VLIW architecture.
Set A

SLR-PC – 135 -4- *SLPPC135*

a) Explain the Bilinear transformation for digital filters in detail.
b) Design a second order Butterworth LPF whose cutoff frequency is 500 Hz at a
sampling frequency of 5000 Hz using Bilinear transformation technique.
c) A filter is to be designed with the desired frequency response as
⎧⎪ 0
−π/4≤ ω≤ π/4
Hd (e jω ) = ⎨ π
⎪⎩e
− j2ω ≤ ω ≤π
4
Determine the filter coefficients hd (n) if the window function is defined as
⎧⎪ 1
w(n) = ⎨ otherwise 0 ≤ n ≤ 4
⎪⎩0
Also determine H(e jω ) of the designed filter.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Electronics) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Question No. 1 is compulsory.

1) What is the addressing mode used in instruction MOV M, D ?
2) In the TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, which is having top priority ?
a) TRAP b) RST 7.5 c) RST 6.5 d) RST 5.5
3) Number of Address lines required to access 2KB of memory are
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13
4) The instruction “LDA 9000” requires _________ T-states.
a) 13 b) 7 c) 10 d) 18
5) Vector location of TRAP interrupt is
a) 0024H b) 002CH c) 0034H d) 003CH
6) Memory addressing capacity of 8085 is __________
a) 8K b) 16K c) 64K d) None of above
7) The unit that supervises each instruction in the microprocessor 8085 is
a) ALU b) Control Unit
c) Accumulator d) Instruction decoder
8) Which of below makes accumulator zero ?
a) XRA A b) CMA c) ORA A d) ANA A
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 136 -2- *SLRPC136*
9) W and Z are __________ registers in 8085.
a) Special b) General purpose
c) Temporary d) All of above
10) The memory map of a 16 KB memory begins at the location 4000 H. What is
the last location on the chip ?
a) 43FFH b) 4FFFH c) 47FFH d) 7FFFH
11) In 8255, under the I/O mode of operation, we have _________ modes.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
12) 8251 is a
a) UART
b) USART
c) Programmable Interrupt controller
d) Programmable interval timer/counter
13) Which pins are bidirectional pins during mode-2 operation of the 82C55 ?
a) PA0-PA7 b) PB0-PB7 c) PC3-PC7 d) PC0-PC2
14) How many counters are in 8253 ?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
15) The four bit ADC having resolution
a) 1/16 b) 1/64 c) 1/128 d) 1/256
16) The status register of 8251 is
17) Which bit of control word of 8255 decides either BSR or I/O mode ?
a) D4 b) D0 c) D6 d) D7
18) The 8253 mode 0 is
a) Interrupt on terminal count b) H/W retriggerable one shot
c) Rate generator d) Square wave generator
19) To increase resolution of DAC
a) Increase number of input bits b) Use registers with better tolerance
c) Increase Vref d) Use faster op-amp
20) For I/O mapped I/O, address lines used are
Set A
______________
*SLRPC136* -3- SLR-PC – 136
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

a) Why to need the demultiplex AD0-AD7 lines ? How to demultiplex AD0-AD7
lines ?
b) Explain how information is stored and retrieved from stack using PUSH and
POP and the stack pointer.
c) Write an assembly program to split hex data into two nibbles and store it in
memory.
d) Write a program to count the even numbers from the given array of
10 elements.
e) Explain different types of memory.

a) Interface one 8K×8 EPROM and two 8K×8 RAM with 8085 such that the
starting address assigned to each memory chip is 0000H, 4000H and 6000H
respectively using a 3×8 decoder IC.
b) Explain all hardware interrupts with a neat sketch of interrupt structure.
c) What is subroutine ? Explain CALL and RET instructions and write a program
to find n! Using subroutine.
Set A

SLR-PC – 136 -4- *SLRPC136*
SECTION – II

a) Draw the block diagram of 8255 and explain it.
b) Compare I/O mapped I/O and memory mapped I/O interfacing.
c) Draw and explain successive approximation ADC.
d) Explain mode 0 and mode 1 of programmable timer 8253.
e) Interface DAC with 8085 and write a program to generate a triangular wave.

a) Interface ADC 0808 to 8085 and write a program for analog to digital
conversion.
b) Interface 4×4 matrix keyboard to 8085. Write a program to detect a key.
c) Draw and explain block diagram of 8251 and also explain the mode and
command words.
____________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Select suitable option : 20
1) Which of the following is/are scalar quantity (s) ?

a) distance b) density c) temperature d) all of these
2) A unit vector has its magnitude as
a) 0 b) 1 c)
d) none of these
3) A vector P i n
Cartesian coordinates is represented by
a) ( P
x
, P

, P
z
)
b) ( P
x
, P
y
, P
z
)
c) ( P
N
, P

, P

)
d) none of these
4) Multiplication of two vectors is
a) vector b) scalar
c) either vector or scalar d) cannot say
5) Cylindrical coordinate z is related to the Cartesian coordinate as
a) tan1(y/x) b) z c) xy/z d) cot z
6) In the Cylindrical coordinate system, z ranges between
a) 0 and 1 b) and 0 c) 0 and d) and
7) Divergence theorem is applicable for a _________ that is bounded by a

a) volume, surface b) surface, volume
c) surface, line d) line, surface
8) Curl measures
a) rate of change of vector b) circular rotation
c) both a) and b) d) none of these
P.T.O.

9) Unit of electric intensity of
a) joules/coulomb b) newton/coulomb
c) volt/meter d) both b) and c)
10) The force between two point charges of 1 nC each with a 1 mm separation in
air is
a) 9 × 103 N b) 9 × 106 N c) 9 × 109 N d) 9 × 1012 N
11) Amperes Circuital Law is analogous to __________ Law in electrostatics.
a) Lenzs b) Gausss c) Biot-Savarts d) Faradays
12) Magnetic flux density is the same as
a) Magnetic induction b) Magnetic field strength
13) ___________ gradient of magnetic scalar potential gives magnetic field
intensity.
a) Positive b) Negative c) Double d) Integral
14) Maxwells equations in ___________ form give unformation at points of
discontinuity in electromagnetic fields.
a) Differential b) Integral c) Algebraic d) None of these
15) Phase velocity is given as
a)
b)
c) /
d) None of these
16) For a good conductor
a) = 0 b) c) d)

17) Standing wave consists of two travelling waves of ________ amplitudes and
_________ is direction.
a) Unequal, same b) Unequal, opposite
c) Equal, same d) Equal, opposite
18) Transmission coefficient is given as

19) If antenna directivity and antenna gain are equal, then antenna efficiency is
_______ %.
a) 20 b) 50 c) 75 d) 100
20) If antenna array elemental spacing is large, then directivity will be
a) Small b) More c) None of these d) Cannot say
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four questions : (4×4=16)

a) Given A 2 a
find the smaller angle between them

x 4 a

y a n d B 6 a

x 4 a

z ,
using Cross product.

b) State and explain Strokes theorem.
c) Point charge of + 3 C and 3 C located at (0, 0, 1) mm and (0, 0, 1) mm
respectively, find E at (1, 2, 1.5) mm.

d) Explain differential components for cylindrical system.
e) Derive the Lorentzs force equation for moving charges.
3. Answer any three questions : (8×3=24)

a) A pair of 200 mm long concentric conductor of radius of 50 mm and 100 mm
is applied with dielectric 10¤0. A voltage is applied between conductors to
established dielectric field E = (10/r)6 ar V/m, between the cylinders calculated
energy stored.
b) Derive the expression for magnetic field intensity due to infinite length current
carrying filament.
c) State and explain point form of Gausss Law.
d) Let E = V/m and calculate

6 y 6

a a 5 a ,

x y z

a) VPQ given P ( 7, 2, 1) and Q (4, 1, 2)

b) VP if V = 0 at (2, 0, 1)
Set A

SECTION II
4. Answer any four questions : (4×4=16)

a) Derive the wave equation for electric field and magnetic field in Lossless
medium.
b) Define the term displacement current and conduction current.
c) Derive the transmission line equation stating with field theory.
d) Define Directive Gain and Directivity of antenna.
e) A signal of 10 V is applied to a 50 coaxial transmission line terminated in

200 load. Find reflection coefficient and magnitude of reflected voltage.

5. Answer any three questions : (8×3=24)

a) Derive the expression for radiation fields of current element.
b) A lossless 100
transmission line is terminated in 200 + j 200
. Find
i) Voltage reflection coefficient
ii) VSWR
iii) Impedance at 0.375
from load.
iv) Shortest length of line for which impedance is purely resistive for 15 V
applied to the line.
v) The value of this resistance.
c) State and derive Poynting theorem and give its significance.
d) Derive the equation for reflection coefficient and transmission coefficient by
perfect dielectric medium for normal incidence.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Assume suitable examples and case study to support your
answer.

1) Information is
a) Data b) Processed data
c) Manipulated input d) Computer output
2) Strategic information is needed for
a) Day to day operations b) Meet government requirements
c) Long range planning d) Short range planning
3) Tactical information is needed for
a) Day to day operations b) Meet government requirements
c) Long range planning d) Short range planning
4) Which of the following describes e-commerce ?
a) Doing business electronically b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods d) All of the above
5) Which type of e-commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other ?
a) B2B b) B2C c) C2B d) C2C
6) Which products are people most likely to be comfortable buying on the internet ?
a) Books b) PCs c) CDs d) All of the above
7) Increases exponentially with time
a) Manpower b) Money c) Resources d) Data
P.T.O.

8) The same data are stored in many places relate to
a) Data redundancy b) Data isolation
c) Data integrity d) All of the above
9) Involve the ownership and value of information
a) Privacy issue b) Accuracy issue
c) Property issue d) None of the above
10) Allow people to compare information in quickly
a) Record b) Table c) Array d) All of the above
11) The word process is
a) System in action b) Execution of activities
c) Execution of tasks d) None of the above
12) The objective of activity planning is
a) Estimation b) Planning c) Co-ordination d) All of the above
13) PERT stands for
a) Process Evaluator and Return Technique
b) Process Evaluation and Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
d) Project Estimation and Review Technique
14) CPM is a type of network planning model
a) Activity on node b) Activity on arrow
c) Activity on line d) None
15) Activities can be organized in different ways and we can call these as
a) Planning b) Process model c) SDLC d) Network
16) Is the combination of social, legal, economic, physical and political factors ?
a) Social environment b) Business environment
c) Ethical environment d) All of the above
17) Following is not used for showing progress
a) Gantt chart b) Slip chart c) Ball chart d) Histrogram
18) The usual effect of shortening critical path is
a) More slippage b) Risk mitigation
c) Some other become critical d) Free float
19) Activity span is difference between
a) Earliest start and latest start b) Latest finish and latest start
c) Earliest start and latest finish d) Earliest finish and latest finish
20) Who is responsible for setting, monitoring and modifying objectives ?
a) Program manager b) Project maintaining committee
c) Project manager d) Project steering committee
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Assume suitable examples and case study to support your
answer.
SECTION I
1) How information systems support the work of groups ?
2) Distinguish between B2C, B2B and intra-business EC.
3) Describe online advertising, its methods and benefits.
4) List the information resources that are usually managed by end users.
5) Define ethics and list its four categories as they apply to IT.
1) Distinguish between Inter-organizational Information Systems (IOS) and

electronic markets.
2) Discuss the major limitations of e-commerce. Which of them are likely to

disappear ? Why ?
3) Explain in detail relationship between a companys databases and its data

warehouse.
Set A

SECTION II

1) Define organization and organizational structure.
2) Explain software development life cycle in brief.
3) Short note : Stakeholder.
4) Explain WBS with an example.
5) Discuss objectives of activity planning.

1) What are the different steps for constructing precedence network model ?
2) Explain step wise project planning in detail.
3) What are the major differences between the old economy and the new economy ?
Explain with examples.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING
Day and Date : Friday, 8-5-2015 Total Marks : 100

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.

3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
4) Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet.
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.

1. State wheather following statement is correct or incorrect. 20

1) Framed structure can withstand earthquake.
2) Grillage foundation is a shallow type of foundation.
3) Trapezoidal footings are always used at the centre of the plot.
4) Bat is portion of brick cut across length.
5) Ashlar masonry is cheapest form of stone masonry.
6) Stretcher bond is used in case of walls having lesser thickness only; it cannot
be used for walls having larger thickness.
7) Composite masonry is used to improve appearance of the walls.
8) Abutment is the end support of an arch.
P.T.O.

9) In design of staircase maximum limit for rise is 500 mm.
10) Selection and type of roof depends upon the shape or plan of building.
11) In case of roofs; valley is reverse of hip.
12) Bottom rail is horizontal member of shutter.

13) Head, sill and horn are main parts of an arch.
14) Bay window is provided on roofs.
15) Back flap hinges are used for very heavy shutters.
16) Frog is important part of stone masonry.
17) Lime stone is used for manufacture of concrete.
18) Alumina is chief constituent of any clay.

19) Mortar is mixture of sand, cement, coarse aggregates and water.
20) Winders are used for changing direction of the stair.
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
2) Section II to be drawn on half imperial drawing sheet.
Use both sides of the sheet.
3) Section I to be written in answer book.
5) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any five questions. (8×5=40)
a) Draw a neat diagram for section of a staircase and show at least 8 parts/
elements.
b) Define and draw : Half bat, Three quarter bat, Bevelled bat and King closer.
c) Write a detailed note on fixtures and fastenings used in doors and windows.
d) Discuss in detail functional requirements of building.
e) Write a note on glass block masonry.
f) Enlist different types of arches. Draw sketches of any three types.
g) Distinguish between load bearing and framed structure.
h) What are factors that affect choice of flooring material ?
SECTION – II
3. A) Design and draw to scale 1:30, plan and vertical section for open well R.C.C.
staircase for public building. 20
a) Vertical height to be covered = 3600 mm
b) Width of flight = 1500 mm
c) R.C.C. pardi for railing = 100 mm thick
Reinforcement details are not to be shown
(Write step by step calculation on sheet with pencil only)
OR
Set A

Design and draw to scale 1 : 30, plan and vertical section for doglegged folded
R.C.C. staircase for a bungalow
a) Height to be climbed = 3000 mm
b) Width of flight = 1000 mm
c) R.C.C. parapet railing – 80 mm thick
Reinforcement details are not to be shown

(Write step by step calculation on sheet with pencil only)
B) Draw to a scale of 1 : 10, sectional plan, elevation and sectional elevation of a

double leaf framed and panelled for following data. 20
(All dimensions are in mm)

a) Clear opening = 1000 x 2100
b) Cross section of frame = 100 x 75
c) Vertical styles = 100 x 40
d) Top rail = 100 x 40
e) Lock rail = 150 x 40
f) Bottom rail = 200 x 40
g) Frieze rail = 100 x 40
Panels = 6 numbers (25 mm thick)

OR
Draw plan of alternate layers and elevation of

1) One brick and
2) One and half brick thick wall in English B.B. Masonry to the scale of 1 : 10
Assume standard brick size and mortar joint thickness as
10 cm x 10 cm x 20 cm
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
DIGITAL COMMUNICATION (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1. Choose the suitable option : (1×20=20)

1) __________ provides security in digital communication.
a) Source coding b) Multiplexing
c) Carrier modulation d) Spread spectrum
2) Natural sampling is interpreted as __________ of two signals.
a) Addition b) Multiplication c) Convolution d) Subtraction
3) Which of below is not a block of a PAM demodulator ?
a) Envelope detector b) Low pass filter
c) High pass filter d) None of these
4) Which of below is true of PAM ?
a) Bandwidth requirement is large
b) Noise is difficult to separate
c) Power content of the modulated signal is not constant
d) All of these
5) Companding is an example of
a) Sampling b) Uniform quantization
c) Non uniform quantization d) Noise reduction technique
6) Song algorithms is __________
a) DM b) ADM c) APCM d) ADPCM
7) A discrete memory less information source can be characterized by the list
of symbols, the probability assignment to these symbols and specification of
__________ of these symbols.
a) Entropy b) Energy c) SNR d) Rate of generation
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 141 -2- *SLRPC141*
8) The __________ indicates a measure of the average information per message
transmitted in a system.
a) Entropy b) Transfer entropy
c) Mutual information d) All of these
9) If R ≤ C, then error free transmission is possible even in the presence of
noise. In this statement R and C indicates
a) Bit rate and symbol capacity b) Symbol rate and bit capacity
c) Symbol rate and channel capacity d) Information rate and channel bandwidth
10) If the SNR is 20 dB, and the bandwidth available is 4 kHz, which is appropriate
for telephone communications, then channel capacity is __________
a) 26.63 kbits/S b) 80 kbits/S c) 63.26 kbits/S d) 27.34 kbits/S
11) If two events are statistically independent then P(AB) = __________
a) P(A) b) P(B/A) × P(A) c) P(A) × P(B) d) P(A) + P(B)
12) A rate efficiency of a (n, k) block code is __________
a) k/n b) n/k c) n-k d) k-n
13) __________ carriers are used for QPSK.
a) Pulse b) Orthogonal c) Shifted d) Four
14) __________ needs a duplex arrangement.
a) FEC b) ARQ
c) Linear block codes d) All of above
15) Frame synchronization occurs in three modes namely
a) search, check and lock b) search, lock and acquire
c) check, lock and release d) search, check and release
16) H(X) / log M = __________
a) Efficiency b) Average message length
c) Minimum average message length d) Average entropy
17) On Off Keying is a special case of __________
a) MSK b) ASK c) PSK d) QPSK
18) QAM has __________ points on signal space diagram.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
19) Take odd man out : baseband signal, message, modulating signal, passband
signal
a) Baseband signal b) Message
c) Modulating signal d) Passband signal
20) Shannon Fano and Huffman coding are the examples of __________ coding.
a) Channel b) FEC c) Entropy d) None of above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC141* -3- SLR-PC – 141
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. Solve any three : (8×3=24)

a) Explain the operation of PAM modulator and demodulator circuit.
b) Explain the block diagram of a PCM Transmitter and Receiver. Show the
waveforms at the output to each block.
c) Define the following terms :
I) Information
II) Entrogy
III) Joint entrogy
IV) Conditional entropy.
d) With suitable diagram explain delta modulation transmitter and receiver.

a) Explain aliasing error. How can it be overcome with the help of an
anti-aliasing filter ?
b) A video signal has 3,00,000 elements per picture frame, 10 distinguishable
brightness levels and 30 picture frames transmitted per second. If the S/N is
30 dB, calculate the bandwidth required to transmission of the video signal.
c) State Shannon Hartley theorem for continuous channel. If the bandwidth is
infinite, what is the capacity of the channel ?
d) With suitable diagram explain digital communication system.
e) Compare PCM and delta modulation.
Set A

SLR-PC – 141 -4- *SLRPC141*
SECTION – II
4. a) Determine Huffman code for following messages. Also find efficiency and
redundancy.
[X] = [x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6, x7] [P(X)] = [0.05, 0.15, 0.2, 0.05, 0.15, 0.3, 0.1] 8
b) Explain BASK modulation with square law. 8
c) How a VCO can be used for FSK modulation ? 8

OR
d) With suitable example explain – fixed length, variable length, distinct, prefix
free, uniquely decodable codes. 8

a) Explain optimum receiver.
b) Explain non linear clock recovery.

c) Compare QPSK with OQPSK.
d) Explain BFSK modulation.
e) What are the conditions of form parity matrix for linear block code ? Comment
on the parity matrix for linear block code.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
5 A J
A
)
T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.

1. Objective questions : 20
1) After reset, SP register of 8051 is initialized to address __________
a) 8 H b) 9 H c) 7 H d) 6 H
2) Which pin of port 3 of 8051 is has an alternative function as read control
signal for external data memory ?
a) P3.7 b) P3.3 c) P3.6 d) P3.1
3) In 8051 serial port interrupt is generated, if ________ bits are set.
a) IE, T0 b) RI, IE c) IP,TI d) RI, TI
4) In 8051 an external interrupt I vector address is of
a) 000BH b) 001BH c) 0013H d) 0023H
5) In modes 2 and 3, if _________ bit of SCON is set will causes enable
multiprocessor communication.
a) SM1 b) TB8 c) SM2 d) SM0
6) Interfacing LCD with 8051 ______ data lines are used along with the
_________ signals.
a) 6, RS, RW b) 5, RW, EN c) 8, RS, EN, RW d) 9, RS, EN, RW
7) Of the lower 128 byte of RAM in the 8051, how many bytes are bit addressable ?
a) Eight b) Thirty two c) Sixteen d) Four
8) When 8051 is powered up, stack begin at
a) 07 h b) 70 h c) 08 h d) 80 h
P.T.O.

9) ________ of 8051 does not have internal pull-up registers.

a) Port 3 b) Port 2 c) Port 1 d) Port 0
10) The assembler of 8051 requires ______ extension file as an input.
a) .asm b) .c c) .uv2 d) .msv
11) The PIC 16F877 has _______ on chip flash program memory.
a) 4 K × 8 bytes b) 4 K × 14 words
c) 8 K × 8 bytes d) 8 K × 14 words
12) The PIC 16F877 has ______ I/O ports.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3
13) Operating CCPI module in PWM mode, PWM period can be set by writing
to _________ register.
a) PR1 b) TMR2 c) PR2 d) CCP1RL
14) What is the address of the last location of on-chip flash program memory for
PIC 16F877 ?
a) 0FFF h b) 1FFF h c) FFFF h d) 7FFF h
15) The program counter in PIC 16F877 is _________ bit wide.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
16) In PIC 16F877 the _______ module is with prescaler and postscaler.
a) Timer 0 b) Timer 2 c) Timer 1 d) Timer 3
17) The PIC 16F877 has _________ bytes on chip EEPROM data memory.
a) 192 b) 128 c) 368 d) 256
18) Operating CCP1 module in PWM mode, duty cycle can be set by writing to
_____ register.
a) CCP1RH and CCP1CON < 5 : 4> b) TMR2
c) PR2 d) CCP1RL and CCP1CON < 5 : 4>
19) Timer 1 of the PIC 16F877 is ________ bit, accessed as
a) 8, timer/counter b) 16, timer/counter
c) 8, timer d) 8, counter
20) The ________ pins can become the I/O control inputs for the parallel slave
port.
a) PORT A b) PORT B c) PORT E d) PORT A
____________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015

MICROCONTROLLERS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.

SECTION I
2. Answer any four (5 marks each) : 20

a) Compare microprocessors and microcontrollers.
b) Define addressing mode. Explain the different addressing modes in 8051 with
suitable example.
c) Write a program to add five BCD numbers stored from 50h. Store the BCD
result from 60h.
d) Write an 8051 program to toggle pin P1.0 continuously every 250 ms. Use
Timer 1, mode 1 to create the delay. Assume XTAL = 11.0592 MHz.
e) Explain the MOVC A, @A + PC and MOVC A, @A + DPTR instruction with
example.
3. Answer any two (10 marks each) : 20

a) Draw and explain interfacing of 16*2 LCD to 8051. Write a program to display
HI from second row-sixth column using busy flag.
b) Interface 4*4 keyboard to 8051. Explain it and write a program to read the
value of key pressed.
c) Draw and explain interfacing of 16 K × 8 Data RAM to 8051. Write an assembly
program to read 100 bytes of data from P1 and save the data in external
starting at RAM location 5000 h.
Set A

SECTION II
4. Answer any four (5 marks each) : 20

a) List out the features of PIC16F877.
b) Draw and explain memory organization in PIC 16F877.
c) Draw and explain Timer0 module in PIC 16F877.
d) Explain I2C operation in PIC microcontroller.
e) How do you enable and disable the interrupts in PIC 16F877 ? Explain interrupt
structure.
5. Answer any two (10 marks each) : 20

a) How do you operate CCP module in PWM mode ? Explain PWM operation.
Write a program to create PWM output with Duty Cycle = 50% and
Period = 0.5 ms.
b) Explain operation of internal ADC in PIC with associating SFRs.
c) Explain interfacing of eight LEDs to PORTB of PIC and write a program to
turn on and off LEDs continuously.
______________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Electronics) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) In single phase semiconverter if supply voltage is 350 V, 100 Hz and ∝ = 90 Vdc(max)
is ___________
a) 157.54 b) 315.55 c) 126.07 d) 350
2) The silicon control switch is
a) four layer, four terminal PNPN device b) it has two gates, unilateral device
c) its anode voltage is fixed fraction d) all above
3) In commutation circuit, employed to turn off an SCR, satisfactory turn off time is obtained
a) Circuit turn off time is less than device turn off time
b) Circuit turn off time is greater than device turn off time
c) Circuit time constant is greater than device turn off time
d) Circuit time constant is less than device turn off time
4) R-C snubber is used in parallel with the thyristor to
a) reduce dv/dt across it b) transient voltage spikes are damped
c) both a and b d) to protect from di/dt
5) Thyristor can be termed as __________ switch and TRIAC can be termed as
__________ switch.
a) AC, DC b) DC, AC c) AC, AC d) DC, DC
6) A single phase fully controlled bridge converter supplies an inductive load. If ∝ = 60
then average dc voltage is __________
Vm 2Vm Vm
a) b) c) d) 0.95 Vm
π π 2
7) IGBT is
a) voltage controlled device b) latch proof device
c) both a and b d) current controlled device
8) PIV rating of TRIAC is
a) Same as thyristor
b) not very significant due to nature of its application
c) inferior and very much less than thyristor
d) greater than thyristor
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 143 -2- *SLRPC143*
9) IGBT
a) Performance is closer to BJT than MOSFET
b) Is combination MOSFET and BJT
c) Performance is closer to MOSFET than BJT
d) Both a and b
10) Which of the following PNPN device has a terminal for synchronization purpose ?
a) SCS b) SUS c) TRIAC d) DIAC
11) Optocoupler provides __________ between firing circuit and power circuit.
a) direct coupling b) isolation
c) impedance matching d) protection
12) _________ is used in control circuits requiring higher light sensitivity with greater output.
a) Photo darligton amplifier b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor d) LDR
13) Single phase preventer is used to protect motor form
a) overvoltage b) undervoltage c) single phasing d) overload
14) A photo diode works on the principle of
a) photoconductive effect b) photovoltaic effect
c) photo electric effect d) photo thermal effect
15) PLC is capable of
a) counting and calculating analog signals
b) comparing analog signals
c) processing analog signals
d) all above
16) In SMPS output voltage is controlled by controlling
a) magnitude O/P voltage b) magnitude of I/P voltage
c) duty cycle d) both a and b
17) The integral mode of control is designed
a) to eliminate offset inherent in proportional mode control
b) to produce control signal that depends on absolute value of offset
c) for application in which load disturbances occur frequently
d) all above
18) __________ is used in temperature ON-OFF controller to reduce noise and to add dead
band symmetric about set point.
a) Instrumentation amplifier b) Schimitt trigger
c) Voltage follower d) Differential amplifier
19) Ladder logic is ____________
a) Programming method used for PLC
b) Control unit for PLC
c) Schematic way of representing system hardware
d) Both a and c
20) In ladder diagram, temperature limit switches
a) Operates when temperature exceeds specific limits
b)
c) Provides overheating protection
d) all above Set A
______________

*SLRPC143* -3- SLR-PC – 143
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part – II) Examination, 2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
1) A single phase fully controlled converter is triggered at π / 3 radian and SCR’s continue
to conduct up to π / 6 after end of respective half cycle. Considering discontinuous
conduction mode for inductive load. Calculate output voltage and RMS output voltage, if
converter is supplied by 150 VAC, 50 Hz. Also draw output waveform.
2) Explain gate pulse amplifier circuit for single thyristor.
3) Explain Class D auxiliary pulse commutation. Sketch associated waveforms.

4) Explain parasitic model of IGBT.
5) Explain phase control circuit using TRIAC and UJT.
1) Discuss the effect of source inductance on the performance of single phase full
controlled rectifier. Derive an expression for its output voltage in terms of (i) Vm , α, μ and
(ii) Vm, α , Ls and Id.
2) With help of structural diagram, explain working of GTO and its switching characteristics.
3) Explain following methods of over voltage protections circuits :
i) Snubber circuits for dv/dt suppression.
ii) Non linear surge suppressor.
iii) Electronic crowbar circuit.
Set A

SLR-PC – 143 -4- *SLRPC143*
SECTION – II

1) Explain working of single phase preventer circuit.
2) What is data acquisition system ? Explain working of multichannel data acquisition system.
3) A sensor output is in the range of 30 mV to 300 mV as a variable varies over its range.
Develop a signal conditioning network so that this becomes 0 to 5 V. The circuit must have
very high input impedance.
4) Explain working of mechanical light chopper system using photocell.
5) Describe construction, working and spectral response of the photo transistor.

1) Design multichannel indicator using 31/2 digit display for following specification.
a) Channel 1 – Process variable is temperature ranging from 0° to 550° C and sensor to
be used is PT 100. PT 100 specification-resistance of PT 100 at 0 C = 100 Ω ,
sensitivity = 0.004 Ω / C .
b) Channel 2 – Process variable is temperature ranging from 0° to 850° C and sensor to be

used is thermocouple with sensitivity = 51μV / C . Assume suitable data if necessary.
2) Explain working of different types of non-isolated SMPS.
3) Explain principle of Buck-Boost control in servo controlled voltage stabilizer. Draw a
neat block diagram of AC servo controlled voltage stabilizer and explain its working.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015

VLSI DESIGN (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Figures at right indicate full marks.


1) For CMOS inverter, when output Vf = VDD the amount of energy stored in capacitor is
equal to __________
a) CV DD 2 b) CVDD/2 c) CVDD2/2 d) CV DD
2) Which of the following VHDL constructs are not synthesizable ?
a) Wait for 5 ns b) if c) Case d) All above
3) When the signal assignment statement appears within a process, it is considered as
a) Sequential b) Concurrent c) Conditional d) None of these
4) The number of other gates that a specific gate drives is
a) Fan-out b) Fan in c) Driver d) None of these
5) Which is default delay in VHDL ?
a) Delta delay b) Intertial delay
c) Transport delay d) None of the above
6) A process cannot have a sensitivity list when _________ is employed
a) Loop b) Generate c) If d) Wait
7) The number of transistors required to implement 3 input AND gate are
a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
8) The VHDL statement clk <=not clk after 25ns generate a clk with duty cycle
a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) None of these
9) Which of the following is sequential statement ?
a) Signal assignment b) Variable assignment
c) Wait statement d) All of these a, b, c
P.T.O.

10) VHDL statement Op <= input when e = 1 else z; infers
a) 2 : 1 multiplexer b) Tristate buffer c) Buffer d) None of these
11) A practical approach for generating the test vectors on chip is to use ________ lists.
a) Random b) Deterministic c) Look-up table d) Pseudorandom
12) The element in product term allocator that connect their input to one of their two or three
outputs is __________
a) Product term OE
b) Multiplexer
c) Programmable signal steering element
d) None of these
13) Propagation delays that are expected in the implemented circuit can be determined by
a) Timing simulation b) Functional simulation
c) Implementation d) Place and route
14) Flattering process in synthesis
a) Increase the fan-out loading on input signals
b) Makes the design smaller in size
c) Is a process of mapping to gates
15) The pattern generated by signal input compressor circuit is called __________ of tested
circuit.
a) Pseudo random sequence b) Signature
c) Random sequence d) None of above
16) LFSR counter is also known as
a) Sequence detector
b) Shift register
c) Maximum length sequence generator
d) Random counter
17) CLB of FPGA XC 4000 can be configured as a small SRAM storing up to _________ bits.
18) Which of the following method is used for testing the sequential circuit ?
a) Random tests b) Scan path technique
c) Path sensitizing technique d) All of these
19) The functional blocks that perform combinatorial or sequential logic, and also have the
added flexibility for true or complement, along with varied feedback paths in a CPLD are
known as
a) Product term allocator b) Macrocell
c) Programmable switch matrix d) None of these
20) Struck at fault is generated when
a) An input to gate is incorrectly connected to power supply
b) Input is high
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above.
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015

VLSI DESIGN (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Figures at right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

a) Describe transmission gates.
b) Explain the concept of operator overloading.
c) Write a VHDL code for half adder.
d) Explain DC characteristics of CMOS inverter.
e) Explain entity and architecture related to VHDL.
f) Write a VHDL code for 1 bit comparator.

a) Explain noise margin and power dissipation with respect to CMOS.
b) With the help of example explain about package in VHDL.
c) Explain the following :
i) Process statement
ii) Wait statement.
d) Write a VHDL code for 4×4 bit multiplier.
SECTION II

a) Write a note on LFSR.
b) Explain RTL simulation in detail.
c) Write note on : Constraints and attributes with respect to synthesis.
d) Write VHDL code for serial in Serial out shift register.
Set A

e) Consider the circuit shown below. Derive a table showing various stuck-at-0 and stuck-
at-1 faults by all the possible tests. Find a minimal test set for this circuit.
f) What device does the following code represent ? Explain.

Process (clk)
begin
if RST = 1 then Qtmp := 0;
elsif clkevent and clk = 0 then
if T = 1 then
Qtmp := not Qtmp;
end if;
end if;
Q <=Qtmp;
end process;

a) Explain in brief following with respect to Xilinx 9500 CPLD.
1) IOB
2) Programmable switch matrix.
b) Write a note on design for testability. Explain scan path technique with example.
c) Design a state table for a Moore circuit that meets the following specification :
1) The circuit has one input, w, and one output, z.
2) All changes in the circuit occur on the positive edge of a clock signal.
3) The output z is equal to 1 if during two immediately preceding clock cycles the input w
was equal to 1. Otherwise, the value of z is equal to 0. Write VHDL code for above.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

OPERATING SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) The device communicates with the machine via a connection point, called
a) Bus b) Port c) Processor d) None
2) The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in
a) Process Register b) Program Counter
c) Process Table d) Process Unit
3) A single thread of control allows the process to perform
a) Only one task at a time b) Multiple tasks at a time
4) If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ________
and the short term scheduler will have a _______ to do.
a) full, little b) full, lot c) empty, little d) empty, lot
5) In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process
is completed, the process goes from the running state to the
a) Blocked state b) Ready state
c) Suspended state d) Terminated state
6) I/O redirection
a) Implies changing the name of file
b) Can be employed to use an existing file as input file for a program
c) Implies connection 2 program through a pipe
7) Thrashing
a) Always occurs on large computers
b) Is a natural consequence of virtual memory system
c) Can always be avoided by swapping
d) Can be caused by poor paging algorithm P.T.O.

8) A high paging rate
a) May cause high I/O rate b) Keeps the system well running
c) Too much processor activity d) Always creates a slow system
9) Which of the following page replacement algorithm suffers from Beldys
anomaly ?
a) Optimal replacement b) LRU
c) FIFO d) Both a) and c)
10) Resource allocation graph is used
a) To represent the dead lock
b) To detect the dead lock
c) To avoid the dead locks
d) To prevent the dead lock
11) Page Table Length Register (PTLR) indicates size of
a) Page Table b) Size of page c) Main memory d) Virtual memory
12) Which memory allocation policy allocates the largest hole to the process ?
a) Best Fit b) First Fit c) Worst Fit d) None of them
13) Which of the following memory allocation scheme suffers from External
fragmentation ?
a) Segmentation b) Pure demand paging
c) Swapping d) Paging
14) First-In-First-Out (FIFO) scheduling is
a) Non Preemptive Scheduling b) Preemptive Scheduling
c) Fair Share Scheduling d) Deadline Scheduling
15) Device drivers are implemented to interface
a) Character devices b) Block devices
c) Network devices d) All of the mentioned
16) Which buffer holds the output for a device ?
a) Spool b) Output c) Status d) Magic
17) The file system in computer is divided into
a) Blocks b) Sections c) Partitions d) None of the above
18) Operating system is
a) Collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) System service provider to the application programs
c) Link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) All of the mentioned
19) The number of processes completed per unit time is known as
a) Output b) Throughput c) Efficiency d) Capacity
20) Which process can affect of be affected by other processes executing in the
system ?
a) Cooperating process b) Child process
c) Parent process d) Init process
______________ Set A

*SLR-PC-145* -3- SLR-PC 145
S e a t
N o .

OPERATING SYSTEM

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

a) Write note on threads.
b) Explain first come first serve scheduling algorithm.
c) Explain batch processing system.
d) Draw and explain process state diagram.
e) Analyse bounded buffer problem as classical problems of synchronization.

a) What is Deadlock ? List the conditions that lead to deadlock. How deadlock
can be prevented ?
b) Explain SJF and RR scheduling algorithm with suitable example and compare
them.
c) Find Average Waiting Time and Average Response time for SJF and RR
algorithm.
Process CPU Burst Time
P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
CPU burst time given in millisecond. Time Quantum is 4.
Set A

SECTION II

a) What is fragmentation ? Explain different types of fragmentation with neat
diagram.
b) Explain how swapping mechanism is useful for the multi-programming operating
system.
c) Explain direct memory access.
d) Explain different directory operations in brief.
e) Write note on LRU page replacement algorithm.

a) Describe deadlock prevention scheme in detail.
b) What is page fault ? Describe the steps in handling page fault with neat
diagram.
c) Explain file accessing methods and file system protection.
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) A PWM signal can be generated by
a) a monostable multivibrator b) integrating the PPM signal
c) a astable multivibrator d) differentiating the PPM signal
2) Pulse Position modulation is a process whereby
a) The position of the pulse is changed as a function of the sampled value
b) The width of the pulse is varied as a function of time
c) The amplitude of the pulse is varied as a function of time
d) None of these
3) Highly probable message contains
a) Greatest amount of information
b) Little information
c) Amount of information is not dependent upon probability of the message
d) none of these
4) Nit is a unit of information when base of the logarithm is
a) 2 b) 10 c) natural d) none of these
5) Which of the following method is employed in telephony
a) TDM b) FDM c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
6) Entropy H of a message
a) Is the rate at which the information is transmitted
b) Is given as bits/symbol
c) Should be low in a good channel
d) None of these
P.T.O.

7) In DM system, the granular noise occurs when the modulating signal
a) increase rapidly b) remains constant c) decrease rapidly d) none of these
8) The _________ noise occurs when the step size is too large relative to the local slope
characteristics of the input waveform.
a) Granular noise b) Gaussian noise c) Random noise d) Shot noise
9) If two events are statistically independent then P(AB) =
a) P(A) b) P(B/A) × P(A) c) P(A) × P(B) d) P(A) + P(B)
10) The signal to quantization noise ratio in PCM system depends upon
a) Sampling rate b) Number of quantization levels
c) Message signal bandwidth d) None of these
11) BPSK stands for
a) Binary Phase Shifting Key b) Broad Phase Shifting key
c) Bit Phase Shifting key d) Binary Pulse Shifting key
12) In a system using QASK and 4 bits to form a symbol, the required bandwidth is
a) same as BPSK b) half of that in BPSK
c) one-fourth of that in BPSK d) none of the above
13) The non-coherent ASK receiver is _____ than the coherent receiver.
a) more complex b) much simpler c) less complex d) none of these
14) Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be effected using
a) correlation receiver b) band pass filters and envelope detectors
c) matched filter d) discriminator
15) The signal space diagrams given below corresponds to
a) BFSK b) BASK c) BPSK d) QPSK
16) For a BPSK scheme, the bit error probability is given by

1 1 E b 1 E b 1 1 E b
a) b) c) d)
1 E b

e r f c e r f c e r f c
e r f c

2 2 2 N o 2 N o 2 2 N o
2 2 N o

17) The key circuit used in a DPSK modulator is

a) NAND gate b) NOR gate c) OR gate d) XOR/XNOR gate
18) In QAM, both identities are varied
a) amplitude and phase b) frequency and phase
c) bit rate and phase d) baud rate and phase
19) If in a particular digital communication system application, the receiver designed is an optimum
coherent receiver, the channel noise is white and bits are transmitted using rectangular
pulses then which one of the following statements would be in consistent ? The receiver is
a) a correlation receiver b) matched filter receiver
c) an integrate and dump receiver d) a sample, hold and dump receiver
20) Cost as loop is a method for
a) Frame synchronization b) Carrier synchronization
c) Symbol synchronization d) None of these
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four : 16

a) Define the term signals, Band pass signals, Baseband signal.
b) Explain a PWM modulator using IC 555.
c) Define the information theory and mutual information
d) How Delta modulation is different from PCM ?
e) Verify the expression I (X ; Y) = I (Y ; X).

1) With suitable diagram explain DPCM modulator and demodulator.
2) Derive the expression for condition of maximum entropy.
3) A DMS X has five symbols x1, x2, x3, x4 and x5 with 0.4, 0.19, 0.16, 0.15 and 0.1 respectively
i) Construct a Shannon Fano code for X and calculate the efficiency of the code.
ii) Repeat for Huffman code and compare the result.
4) Explain the PCM system. State its advantages and disadvantages.
SECTION II

1) Explain generation of ASK from baseband signal.
2) What is ARQ ? Explain its type.
3) Explain Matched Filter BPSK Detector.
4) A convolution code is described by g1 = [ 1 0 0 ], g2 = [ 1 0 1 ], g3 = [ 1 1 1 ]. Find the
advance transfer function and the free distance of this code
5) With suitable example explain baseband modulation and bandpass modulation.
Set A

5. Answer any three : 24

1) With suitable waveforms explain QPSK and OQPSK.
2) An error control code has the following parity check matrix.

0

i) Determine the generator matrix G

ii) Find the code word that begin with 101
III) Decode the received code word 1 1 0 1 1 0.
3) Explain frame synchronization.
4) Explain QAM modulator and demodulator.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .

MICROCONTROLLERS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 19-5-2015 Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.



1) In 8051 an Timer1 interrupt vector address is of ________________
a) 000Bh b) 001Bh c) 0013h d) 0023h
2) When 8051 is powered up, stack begin at ________________
a) 07h b) 70h c) 08h d) 80h
3) ________________ of 8051 does not have internal pull-up registers.
a) Port 3 b) Port 2 c) Port 1 d) Port 0
4) The assembler of 8051 requires ________________ extension file as an input.
a) hex b) asm c) obj d) bin
5) In 8051, serial communication mode 1 the baud rate will be ________________
a) variable b) fosc/164 c) fosc/32 d) fosc/12
6) If IP register has been set as 0 × 00 then
a) INT1 has the highest priority
b) INT0 has the highest and serial interface as the lowest priority
c) Timer overflows have the highest priorities
d) There is no priority, interrupt processes in the order of its occurrence
7) When SM2 bit in SCON register is
a) 1, it facilitates the multiprocessor communication in case of mode 1 and 3
b) 1, it facilitates the multiprocessor communication in case of mode 2 and 3
c) 0, it facilitates the multiprocessor communication in case of mode 2 and 3
d) 0, it facilitates the multiprocessor communication in case of mode 0 only
8) RS0 and RS1
a) are not in the PSW as these are not the flags
b) are in the register sets (banks)
c) are the bits-4 and 5, respectively, for selecting the register bank in the PSW
d) are the bits-3 and 4, respectively, for selecting the register bank in the PSW
P.T.O.

9) _________________ registers can be used as memory pointer in indirect addressing
mode.
a) r0 and r1 b) r0 to rr7
c) r0 and r1 from each bank d) r0 and r1 from bank0
10) What is the address range of SFR Register bank in 8051 ?
a) 00H-77H b) 40H-80H c) 80H-7FH d) 80H-FFH
11) The PIC 16F877 has ______________ bytes on chip EEPROM data memory.
a) 192 b) 128 c) 368 d) 256
12) Timer 2 of the PIC 16F877 is _____________ bit, accessed as _____________
a) 8, timer/counter b) 16, timer/counter
c) 8, timer d) 8, counter
13) In PIC 16F877 reset vector is at _______________ in program memory.
a) 0000 h b) 0004 h c) 0040 h d) 0400 h
14) The _____________ pins can become the I/O control inputs for the parallel slave port.
a) PORT A b) PORT B c) PORT D d) PORT E
15) The PIC 16F877 MSSP module in I2C mode, implements ______________ bit and
________________ bit addressing.
a) 7, 10 b) 10, 8 c) 7, 8 d) 11, 7
16) Operating CCP1 module in PWM mode, PWM period can be set by writing to
_______________ register.
a) PR1 b) TMR2 c) PR2 d) CCP1RL
17) In PIC to make Port B an input port, we must place _______________ in register
____________________
a) 00 h, PORTB b) FF h, PORTB c) 00 h, TRISB d) FF h, TRISB
18) The PIC 16F877 has a _________________ level deep × _______________ bit wide
hardware stack.
a) 8, 13 b) 13, 8 c) 8, 12 d) 12, 8
19) What is the address of the last location of on-chip flash program memory for PIC 16F877 ?
a) 0FFF h b) 1FFF h c) FFFF h d) 7FFF h
20) The program counter in PIC 16F877 is ______________ bit wide.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

MICROCONTROLLERS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
a) Explain Port 0 structure in detail.
b) Write a 8051 program to find smallest number from a given array of 10 elements.
c) Explain modes of operation of Timers in 8051.
d) Write 8051 assembly program to on and off alternative bits of P2 continuously every 500 ms.
Use Timer1, mode1, XTAL = 11.0592 MHz.
e) Explain interrupts in 8051.
3. Solve any two : (10×2=20)
a) Explain serial communication in 8051. Write a 8051 assembly program to transfer the
message TRUE serially at 9600 baud, 8-bit data, 1 stop bit. Do this continuously.
b) Draw and explain interfacing of 16 × 2 LCD to 8051. Write a program to display ABC
from second row-fifth column.
c) Interface of DAC to 8051. Write a program
i) To generate triangular wave
ii) To generate a saw tooth wave.
Set A

SECTION II
a) Write PIC program to add two 16 bit numbers.

b) Draw and explain bit format of STATUS register in PIC 16F877.
c) With block diagram explain Timer-2 module used in PIC microcontroller.
d) Write the steps to reading the EEPROM data memory in PIC and write a program for the
same.
e) Explain the parallel slave port mode of operation in PIC.
a) Explain the following instructions with their syntax.
1) BTFSS
2) DECFSZ
3) RETLW
4) IORWF.
b) How do you operate CCP module in PWM mode ? Explain PWM operation.
c) Explain Serial Peripheral Interface in PIC.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Electronics) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
forget to mention, Q. P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.


1) It is preferable to use train of pulse of high frequency for gate triggering of SCR in order
to reduce
a) Power dissipation b) di/dt problem
c) Size of pulse transformer d) both a) and c)
2) MOSFET’s are suitable for
a) Low voltage switching b) High voltage switching
c) Low power d) None
3) R-C snubber is used in parallel with the thyristor to
a) reduce dv/dt across it b) transient voltage spikes are damped
c) both a) and b) d) to protect from di/dt
4) In the following circuit function of transistor is
a) To make SCR ON b) To make SCR OFF
c) To provide control signal to trigger SCR d) To amplify anode current
5) The sensitivity of TRIAC to gate current is greatest during ______ quadrant.

a) I and II b) II and IV c) I and IV d) III and IV
6) A GTO
a) Requires special turn off circuitry like thyristors
b) Can be turned off by removing the gate pulse
c) Can be turned off by negative current pulse at the gate
d) Can be turned off by positive current pulse at the gate
7) IGBT is
a) Current controlled device b) Bidirectional device
c) Voltage controlled device d) Both b) and c)
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 148 -2- *SLRPC148*
8) In 1 phase fully controlled converter with inductive load RMS value of output voltage
Vm
a) b) Vm (1 + cos α ) c) 0.707 Vm d) Both a) and c)
2 π
9) In single phase semiconverter if supply voltage is 350 V, 100 Hz and α = 90° Vdc is
a) 157.54 b) 315.55 c) 126.07 d) 350
10) In dual converter due to circulating current losses are _______ and efficiency is ______
a) increases, reduces b) reduces, increases
c) reduces, remains constant d) increases, increases
11) In low power AC control circuit output power is controlled by
a) Varying conduction angle of TRIAC b) Changing supply
c) Varying TRIAC rating d) Varying load
12) Which of the following PNPN device has a two gate terminal ?
a) SCS b) SUS c) SBS d) All above
13) In _____________ UPS, load is always fed through inverter.
a) Continuous type b) ON-line c) both a) and b) d) OFF line
14) As compared to UJT, SUS
a) Switched at fixed voltage determined by its internal avalanche diode
b) Switching current Is much higher than UJT
c) Need definite polarity of applied voltage
d) All above
15) Optocoupler provides ___________ between control circuit and power circuit.
a) Direct coupling b) Isolation
c) Impedance matching d) Protection
16) An UJT relaxation oscillator has RE = 60K ′Ω , C = 0.25 μF and η = 0.65 , then pulse
repetition frequency is
a) 63.57 Hz b) 6.357 Hz c) 6357 Hz d) 630.57 Hz
17) In forward converter, energy is transferred to the transformer secondary
a) when transistor is in saturation b) when transistor is in active region
c) only when transistor is off d) at all times
18) In CVT
a) Working principle based on Ferro resonance
b) Capacitor is connected across secondary winding
c) Capacitor is connected in series with secondary winding
d) Both a) and b)
19) In ___________ , the heating is uniform throughout workpiece.
a) Dielectric heating b) Induction heating
c) Resistance heating d) Infrared heating
20) In induction heating change in frequency affects the
a) Rate of heating b) Depth of penetration of heat
c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC148* -3- SLR-PC – 148
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015

INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
1) Explain switching characteristics of thyristors during its turn on and turn off process.
2) A single phase half controlled converter is operated from 120 V, 50 Hz AC supply. The RL
is 10 Ω . If average output voltage is 25% of the maximum possible output voltage. Calculate :
a) Firing angle
b) Average output voltage and current.
3) Explain working of electronic crowbar circuit.
4) Compare IGBT, E-MOSFET and GTO.
5) Explain working of full controlled converter with RLE load. Draw associated output
waveforms for α = 60°.
1) Explain working of dual converter with circulating current mode. Derive an expression for
circulating current of Single phase dual converter. Draw associated waveforms.
2) Sketch the cross sectional view of IGBT, explain its operation and switching characteristics.
3) What is forced commutation ? Explain Class D Auxiliary pulse commutation. Draw the
waveforms of relevant voltage and currents.
Set A

SLR-PC – 148 -4- *SLRPC148*
SECTION – II
1) What is SCS ? How is it different form SCR ? Explain its any one application.
2) What is necessity of optocoupler ? Explain its different configuration.
3) Explain working of solid state voltage stabilizer using Thyristors.
4) How three phase induction motor protect against single phasing ? Explain with suitable
circuit.
5) Explain working of proximity detector circuit with suitable circuit.
1) Describe microcontroller based firing scheme for single phase controlled converters
with flow chart.
2) Draw the block diagram and describe working of Isolated switched mode power supply.
List its merits.
3) Explain equivalent circuit and VI Characteristics of PUT. Explain working of an

oscillator employing PUT. Derive an expression for frequency of triggering.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Part – II) (Electronics Engineering) Examination, 2015
VLSI DESIGN (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Which of the following is not a keyword in VHDL ?
a) end b) if c) behavioral d) generate
2) Which of the following is not a valid identifier in VHDL ?
a) M 41 b) P c) r2d2 d) Dec_42
3) Which of the following is not valid VHDL statement ?
a) wait for 0 ns b) wait for A c) wait for 5 ns d) none of these
4) Consider the VHDL statement A < = B and C after 5 ns; Here ________ delay
model is used.
a) Transport b) Delta c) Inertial d) None of these
5) If A = “110”, B = “111” then A & B is equal to
a) False b) “110111” c) “110” d) True
6) Which of the following is a sequential VHDL statement ?
a) Process b) When-else c) With select d) None of these
7) Which of the following is true for linear feedback shift register ?
a) it is a counter
b) it’s a maximum length sequence generator
c) has 2n – 1 sates
c) all of these
8) To change the flip flop state on the falling edge of the clock signal, the statement
used is
a) if clock’ event and clock = ‘1’ then
b) if clock = ‘0’ then
c) if clock’ event and clock = ‘0’ then
d) if clock’ falling then
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 149 -2- *SLRPC149*
9) Assuming the left operand as BIT vector “10011101” Sla 3 gives
a) 11110011 b) 11101111 c) 10011000 d) 00010011
10) If A, B and C are all integers with initial value 0 and A changes to 4 and B changes
to 5 at time = 4 ns. If following concurrent statements are executed the value of A
and C at time 10 ns are
A < = B – 1 after 5 ns;
C < = A + 2 after 8 ns;
a) A = 4 & C = 12 b) A = 4 & C = 0 c) A = –1 & C = 0 d) A = –1 & C = 12
11) RTL simulation does
a) Preparation of Net lists b) Verifying correctness
c) Preparing Timing analysis d) None of above
12) Input of synthesis process are
a) RTL VHDL description b) Circuit constraints
c) Technology library d) All of above
13) In FPGA, The programmable connection between different points are achieved
by
a) Antifuse b) Fuse c) Both a and b d) None of above
14) Random test method is used for deriving the test set for
a) Combinational circuit b) Sequential circuit
c) Both a & b d) None of these
15) The power dissipation of CMOS IC
a) Decreases with frequency b) Increases with gate size
c) Decreases with gate size d) Increases with frequency
16) SPLD, CPLD’s and FPGA are all _______ type of devices.
a) PAL b) PLD c) EPROM d) SRAM
17) To check the functional correctness of the design, _________ can be done.
a) Simulation b) Synthesis c) Translate d) Filter
18) CPLD contains several PAL type simple programmable logic devices called
a) AND-OR Arrays b) Macro Cells c) Microcells d) Fuse Link Array
19) The Ability to Tolerate noise Without affecting the correct operation of Circuit is
known as
a) Dynamic power dissipation b) Static power dissipation
c) Noise Margin d) None of above
20) The process of converting an un optimized Boolean description to pla format is
known as
a) Mapping b) Factoring c) Flattening d) Translation
______________
Set A

*SLRPC149* -3- SLR-PC – 149
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part – II) (Electronics Engineering) Examination, 2015

VLSI DESIGN (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Explain the transport and inertial delays in VHDL.
b) Write VHDL code for Barrel shifter with Behavioral Architecture.
c) Write VHDL code for D Flip flop with synchronous reset and Negative edge
triggered.
d) Draw the circuit represented by following VHDL process.
process (clk)
begin
if clr = ‘1’ then Q < = ‘0’;
elsif clk’event and clk = ‘0’ and CE = ‘1’ then
if C = ‘0’ then
Q < = A and B;
else
Q < = A or B;
end if;
end if;
end process;
Why is clr on the sensitivity but not C ?
e) Explain following statement of VHDL with suitable example -
i) if-else
ii) Assert
iii) Loop statement.
Set A

SLR-PC – 149 -4- *SLRPC149*
f) What is wrong in following model of 4 to 1 MUX ? (If is not a syntax error). Write
corrected code.
entity mux41 is
Port(10, 11, 12, 13 : in bit;
A, B : in bit;
F : out bit);
end mux41;
Architecture mux_beh of mux41 is
Signal sel : integer range 0 to 3;
Begin
process (A, B, I0, I1, I2, I3)
Begin
Sel < = ‘0’;
If A = ‘1’ then sel < = sel + 1; end if;
If B = ‘1’ then sel < = sel + 2; end if;
Case sel is
When 0 = > F < = I0;
When 1 = > F < = I1;
When 2 = > F < = I2;
When 3 = > F < = I3;
End case;
End process;
End mux_beh;
3. Attempt any two. (2×8=16

a) Write VHDL code for the Mealy machine whose state table is as below.
Present Next State Output (z)

State X=0 X=1 X=0 X=1
S0 S0 S2 0 1
S1 S0 S2 0 0
S2 S2 S3 1 0
S3 S3 S1 0 1
Set A

*SLRPC149* -5- SLR-PC – 149
b) Explain Functions and Procedures in VHDL. Write a function which takes a 4 bit
input and returns 5 bit vector with even parity.
c) Write VHDL code 2 bit comparator. Also write structural code for 4 bit comparator
using 2 bit comparator as a component.
SECTION – II
4. Solve any four. (4×4=16)

a) Explain IO Block of Xilinx 9500 series.
b) Describe in detail simulation steps in RTL simulation.
c) Explain in detail CMOS logic.
d) Explain Path Sensitizing method of deriving the test set for the circuit using suitable
example.
e) Explain power dissipation in CMOS circuits in detail.
f) Draw and explain synthesis process in brief.
5. Solve any three. (8×3=24)

a) Draw and explain Spartan 4000 FPGA architecture.
b) Explain the difference between functional simulation and timing simulation.
c) Draw and explain DC characteristics of CMOS Inverter.
d) Explain following methods to test the circuits
i) Built In Self Test
ii) Boundary Scan Test.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

*SLRPC15* SLR-PC 15
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory.
2) Q. No. 2 from Section I and Q. No. 6 from Section II are
compulsory.
3) Solve any two questions from questions 3, 4 and 5 from Section I.
4) Solve any two questions from questions 7, 8 and 9 from Section II.
5) Q. No. 1should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book

1) Unit of surface tension is
a) N/m2 b) N/m c) N/m3 d) kg/m2
2) Newtons law of viscosity is given by
!
a) b) c) d)
@ K d u d u d u
. . ( ) .
@ O d y d y d y
3) Fluids which do not follow the linear relationship between shear stress and
rate of deformation are termed as _______ fluids.
a) Newtonian b) Non-Newtonian c) diabent d) None of these
4) The piezometer measures ________ pressure only.
a) Absolute b) Gauge c) Atmospheric d) None of above
5) If the position of metacentre (M) remains below C.G. of body, the body remains
in state of _______ equilibrium.
a) Stable b) Unstable c) Neutral d) All of above
6) The point of application of total pressure on surface is
a) Centroid of surface b) Centre of Pressure
c) Either of above d) None
7) The laminar flow is characterized by
a) Existence of eddies
b) Irregular motion of fluid particles
c) Fluid particles moving in a layer parallel to boundary surface
d) None
P.T.O.

8) Path followed by fluid particle in motion is called
a) Stream line b) Path line c) Streak line d) None
9) If Re number is less than 2000, the type of flow is
a) Laminar flow b) Transition flow c) Turbulent flow d) None
10) Inclined single column manometer is useful for the measurement of ____ pressures.
a) High b) Small c) Medium d) Negative
11) Velocity head is given by
a) b) c) d)
8
8
8 8
C C
C
12) An __________ is opening in the wall or base of vessel through which fluid flows.
a) Venturimeter b) Orificemeter c) Pitot-tube d) Mouth piece
13) The flow in town water supply is generally
a) Laminar b) Turbulent c) Transitional d) Uniform
14) The shear in turbulent flow is mainly due to
a) Heat transfer b) Mass transfer
c) Momentum transfer d) All above
15) Relation between Cd, Cv and Cc is
a) b) c) Cd = Cv × Cc d) Cc = Cd × Cv
+
+
+ + +
@ L ?
16) Darcy -Weisbach equation is used to find head loss due to

a) Friction b) Pipe leakage c) Pipe bends d) Viscosity
17) Following is condition for detached flow.

K K K
a)
O

b)
O

c)
O

d) None of above

O O O
18) Energy thickness is given by following relations

a) b) c) d) None of above
K K
K K K

@ O
@ O @ O

L
L L L

19) Boundary layer exists in which of following ?

a) flow of real fluids b) flow of ideal fluids
c) flow over flat surfaces only d) pipe flow only
20) Loss of head at exit of pipe is given as
! !
a) b) c) d)
8 8 8 8
C C C C
______________
Set A

*SLRPC15* -3-
SLR-PC 15
S e a t
N o .

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 from Section I and Q. No. 6 from Section II are
compulsory.
2) Solve any two questions from questions 3, 4 and 5 from Section I.
3) Solve any two questions from questions 7, 8 and 9 from Section II.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three : 12
a) State Newtons law of viscosity and obtain expression for shear stress.
b) State and prove hydrostatic law.
c) Define :
i) Stream function
ii) Velocity potential
iii) Flow net
d) Explain with neat sketch single column manometer.
3. a) Derive expression for depth of centre of pressure from free surface of liquid of
an inclined plane surface submerged in liquid. 8
b) Determine the total pressure and centre of pressure on an isosceles triangular
plate of base 6 m and ht. 6m when it is immersed vertically in an oil of sp. gr.
0.8. The base of plate co-incides with free surface of oil. 6
4. a) Calculate specific weight, mass density and specific gravity of one litre of
liquid which weighs 10 N. 6
b) Derive continuity equation for 3-D. flow. 8
5. a) Differentiate between : 6
i) Steady flow and unsteady flow
ii) Ideal fluid and real fluid
iii) Rotational flow and Irrotational flow
Set A

b) A differential manometer is connected at two points A and B of two pipes as

shown in fig. Find difference in mercury level in differential manometer. 8
SECTION II
a) Explain Bernoullis theorem.
b) Explain : i) Syphon ii) Water hammer
c) Explain concept of HGL and TEL.
d) Define : i) Orifice ii) Mouthpiece
7. a) Write note on Nikurades experiment in detail. 6

b) Rate of flow of water through horizontal pipe is 0.25 m3/sec. Dia. of pipe
which is 200 mm is suddenly enlarged to 400 mm. The pressure intensity in
smaller pipe is 11.772 N/cm2. 8
Determine :
i) Loss of head due to sudden enlargement (he)
ii) Pressure intensity in large pipe (PL)
iii) Power loss due to sudden enlargement (P)
8. a) Find displacement thickness, the momentum thickness and energy
thickness for velocity distribution in the boundary layer given by . 8

K O
7
b) Explain the detailed procedure of Hardy-Cross method for pipe network. 6
9. a) Water is flowing through pipes having diameter 400 mm and 250 mm at bottom
and upper end respectively. The intensity of pressure is 28.5 N/cm2 and upper
end is 12.6 N/cm2. Determine difference in datum head, if the discharge
through pipe is 50 lt/sec. 8
b) Derive Dupuits equation for equivalent length and equivalent dia. of pipe. 6
_____________________ Set A

*SLRPC150A* SLR-PC 150 A
Seat
No.

TECHNICAL SELF LEARNING MODULE I Robotics

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures of right side indicate maximum marks.

2) Use suitable data if required.
3) Following questions include Section I and II.
I. Solve any four : 20

a) Explain the object recognisation technique.
b) What is encoder ? State different applications and types of encoder.
c) Write note on Vision based sensors.
d) Explain the levels of safety sensor system in robotics.
e) Draw any four joints using robot.
II. Solve any three : 30

a) Classify the robot based on application and control system.
b) Describe the steps involved in preventive maintenance.
c) Explain any grip parts or materials used in robotic application.
d) Compare stationary robot with mobile robot based on application, construction,
speed and capacity.


*SLR-PC-150C* SLR-PC – 150 C
Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Electronics) Part II New Examination, 2015
TECHNICAL SELF LEARNING MODULE II
PROGRAMMING IN VISUAL BASIC. NET
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt all the questions.


1) State whether the statement true or false.
i) Function procedures are public by default.
ii) Function procedure return values whereas sub procedures cannot return
a value to the calling procedure.
A) True, True B) True, False C) False, True D) False, False
2) Type casting in VB. Net is implemented by means of __________ statement.
A) Type() B) TypeDef() C) Btype() D) Ctype()
3) The member “clear” of the array class that sets a range of array elements to
zero, false or null reference is a __________ method.
A) Shared B) Method C) Class D) Object
4) The corresponding. Net FCL type for Short is
A) System. Int32 B) System. Int64
C) System. Int16 D) System. Object
5) Visual Studio. NET provides which feature :
A) debugging B) application deployment
C) syntax checking D) All of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 150 C *SLR-PC-150C*
6) Which is not a main component of the Visual Studio IDE ?

A) Solution Explorer B) Tool Box
C) Start Menu D) Designer Window
7) An object is composed of :
A) properties B) methods C) events D) All of the above
8) Which is not true about forms and controls in Visual Basic ?
A) They are pre-built.
B) They are graphical objects.
C) New versions of the classes must be created with each project.
D) Buttons can be created with the drag and drop method.
9) The Net class library :
A) contains over 25,000 classes.
B) uses namespaces to manage all of the classes.
C) has the system. Form namespace for classes used in Windows-based
application.
D) Both a and b.
10) Which is a type of procedure found in VB. Net ?
A) Event B) Function c) Sub D) All of the above
_______________
Set A

*SLR-PC-150C* SLR-PC – 150 C
Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Electronics) Part II New Examination, 2015
TECHNICAL SELF LEARNING MODULE II
PROGRAMMING IN VISUAL BASIC NET
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt all the questions.
2. Explain various components. net frame works. 10
3. Explain procedures. Also describe various ways to pass parameter. 10

OR
What is exception ? Explain structure error handling. How exception raise explicitly ?
4. Attempt any four questions. 20
A) Write a note on data types a variable in vb. net.
B) Explain textbox control along with it’s a properties, method, events.
C) Explain nested if an for next with example.
D) Explain procedure and function with example.
E) Explain string function with example.
__________________
Set A

Set A

*SLRPC150B* SLR-PC – 150B
Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING (Module – II) (Technical)
Electronic Instrumentation
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one
mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No.
3 only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on
Top of Page.

Duration : 15 Minutes Marks :10
1. Select suitable option. 10
1) If the voltage across resistor of value 25 K Ω is to be measured with sensitivity
of 20 K Ω /V, then % error is
a) 5.2% b) 6.3% c) 3.2% d) 2.5%
2) Environmental error is a type of _________ errors.
a) Gross b) Systematic
c) Random d) None of the above
3) ________ display can operate in a reflective or transmissive configuration.
a) LED b) LCD
c) Plasma d) None of the above
4) ______ standards are the basic reference standards used by measurement
and calibration laboratories.
a) Primary b) Secondary
c) Working d) Both a) and b)
5) In a logic timing analyzer, user defined threshold is used to
a) cut off undesired frequencies
b) decide 0 and 1 transition points for the input signal
c) decide the sampling frequency
d) decide the memory capacity
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 150B -2- *SLRPC150B*
6) Harmonic distortion is due to

a) DC level of the signal
b) Distortion in the measuring equipment
c) Nonlinear device or system
d) None
7) A single channel DAS consists of a signal conditioner followed by an
a) ADC b) DAC c) multiplexer d) none
8) Strip chart recorders are _________ type of recorder.
a) analog b) digital
c) both a) and b) d) none of the above
9) In X-Y recorder, the writing head is controlled by
a) Graph chart paper b) Chopper
c) Servo feedback d) None of the above
10) A modern paperless recorder can be
a) A circular chart display b) An alarm display
c) A graphic display d) All of the above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC150B* -3- SLR-PC – 150B
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015

SELF LEARNING (Module – II) (Technical)
Electronic Instrumentation

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. Attempt any three : (4×3 =12)
a) Define the terms accuracy, error, precision and resolution.
b) Explain input guarding provided to a system to reduce ground loop interference.
c) Compare LCD and plasma display.
d) Explain dynamic response of zero-order instruments.
3. Attempt any one : (8×1=8)
a) Draw and explain block diagram of universal counter-timer.
b) Draw and explain a neat block diagram of DC signal conditioning system.

Give suitable example.
c) State the three types of systematic errors, giving examples of each.
Set A

SECTION – II
4. Attempt any three : (4×3 =12)

a) Draw and explain working of distortion analyzer using notch filter.
b) What is a sensor ? Explain basic functionality of a sensor system.
c) Classify data recorders and list its requirements.
d) List applications of smart sensors.
5. Attempt any one : (8×1=8)

a) With a simplified block diagram, explain working of superhetrodyne spectrum
analyzer. List its applications and limitations.
b) Explain in detail multi-channel Data Acquisition System.
c) Explain working of magnetic tape recorder. List its disadvantages.
———————
Set A

*SLRPC151* SLR-PC –151
Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (Electronics) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.

1. Tick mark the correct answer :

1) In three phase half controlled converter if firing angle is 30° then converter becomes
________ converter.
a) 3 pulse b) 6 pulse c) 12 pulse d) both a) and b)
2) In three phase half controlled converter average maximum output voltage for continuous
conduction mode is
3 3Vm 3 3Vm 3Vm 3Vm
a) b) c) d)
π 2π π 2π
3) The value of dc voltage for single phase semiconverter under continuous current mode is
Vm Vm Vm
a) (1 − cos α) b) Vm (1 + cos α ) c) (1 − cos α) d) (1 + cos α )
π π 2π 2π
4) Jones chopper
a) Is an example of Class D commutation b) Is an example of voltage commutation
c) Is an example current commutation d) Both a) and b)
5) Using multiphase chopper supply harmonic current is ________ and ripple amplitude
_________
a) Increases, increases b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, decreases d) Decreases, increases
6) Class C chopper
a) Formed by combining Class A and B chopper
b) Load voltage is always positive
c) Load current is either positive or negative
d) All above
7) In __________ chopper frequency is varied with either TON or TOFF constant.
a) Variable frequency system b) Pulse width modulation constant
c) Constant frequency TRC d) All above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC –151 -2- *SLRPC151*
8) In three phase 180° conduction mode.
a) At any instant of time two thyristors are ON b)Triplen harmonics are absent
c) Possibility of short circuit d) Both b) and c)
9) A three phase controlled converter operating with 3 ϕ 415, 50Hz supply is
feeding a highly inductive load. Then PIV is ________
a) 586.00 b) 586.89 c) 239.6 d) 718.8
10) In dual converter due to circulating current losses are ________ and efficiency is ________
a) Increases, reduces b) Reduces, increases
c) Reduces, remains constant d) Constant, increases
11) Basic series inverter uses ________ commutation technique.
a) Class F b) Class A c) Class B d) Class D
12) In full bridge series resonant inverter
a) Power flow from source is continuous
b) Power flow from dc source is only during one cycle
c) Harmonic content is less as compared with half bridge
d) Both a) and b)
13) In three phase 120° conduction mode bridge inverter with fundamental output
frequency of 60 Hz, if fifth harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other
components in the output voltage wave, in Hz, would be
a) 420, 660, 780, high frequencies b) 60, 420, 660, 780, high frequencies
c) 420, 660, 780 d) 60 Hz
14) In armature voltage control method using dc choppers if chopping frequency decreases,
then motor speed.
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains constant d) Independent of chopping frequency
15) In cycloconverter drive speed control range is limited to _______ of base speed.
a) 66% b) 33% c) 100% d) 200%
16) Variable voltage and variable frequency supply for speed control of induction motor is
made available using
a) Cycloconverter b) Inverter c) Rectifier d) Both a) and b)
17) A single phase bridge inverter has dc input voltage Vs = 100V. Then amplitude of square
wave is
a) 100V b) 50V c) 200V d) 100/ 2
18) In single phase bridge inverter if peak reverse blocking voltage is 150V then input dc
voltage is
a) 300V b) 150V c) 150/ 2 d) 75V
19) In Parallel inverter output frequency is
a) Independent of commutating components but it depends on triggering frequency
b) Depends on commutating components
c) Depends on load parameter
d) Remains constant
20) In a three phase to three phase cycloconverter using six pulse there are
a) Two groups of SCR’s per phase, each group consisting of 6 SCR’s
b) Four groups of SCR’s per phase, each group consisting of 6 SCR’s
c) Two groups of SCR’s per phase, each group consisting of 3 SCR’s
d) Two groups of SCR’s per phase, each group consisting of 12 SCR’s
______________
Set A

*SLRPC151* -3- SLR-PC –151
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
SECTION – I

1) A single phase full wave controlled rectifier with C.T. transformer (Primary 230V and
Secondary 40-0-40V) and output is used to charge battery 12V. Current limiting resistor
is put in series with battery. Calculate
a) Conduction angle of each thyristor
b) Value of current limiting resistor if Idc = 4A
c) Power delivered to battery.
2) Explain the working of single phase half controlled converter with RLE load. Sketch
associated waveform for α = 60°.
3) Explain working of morgans chopper with associated voltage and current waveform as a
function of time.
4) A three phase semiconverter is operated from 3 ϕ star connected 208V, 50 Hz mains
supply and load resistance of 15 Ω . If it is required to obtain average output voltage of
50% of the maximum possible output voltage. Calculate i) Firing angle ii) Average output
voltage iii) Average output current.
5) Describe design consideration for Chopper circuit.

1) Explain microprocessor based firing scheme for single phase half controlled converters
with flow chart.
2) Explain operation of three phase half wave controlled rectifier. Derive an expression for
average output voltage for continuous conduction mode. Sketch associated waveform
for α = 0°.
3) Explain working of single SCR chopper circuit with associated voltage and current
waveform as a function of time.
Set A

SLR-PC –151 -4- *SLRPC151*
SECTION – II
1) Explain working of single pulse modulation technique. Derive an expression of RMS output
voltage. How it eliminates nth harmonic component from output voltage ?
2) Explain operation of half bridge series resonant inverter. Draw associated voltage and
current waveforms.
3) Explain working of single quadrant closed loop control of induction motor.
4) Explain with neat diagram speed control of separately excited dc motor using three phase
full converter.
5) Explain working of single phase midpoint cycloconverter with resistive load. The frequency
is fo/fs = 1.4. Sketch associated waveforms.
1) Describe operation of three phase to single phase cycloconverter using six pulse converter
for purely resistive load. Sketch associated waveforms for frequency ratio f0/fs = 1/5.
2) Explain following method for improvement of power factor.

a) Overexcited synchronous motor.
b) Capacitive power factor corrector.
c) Static VAR compensator.
3) Explain working of three phase bridge inverter 180° conduction mode. Derive an expression
for RMS value of line voltage. Draw line voltage waveforms by considering Vdc = 330V
and load resistor RL = 100 Ω .
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part– I) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Student has to solve Question No. 1 within first 30 minutes of
scheduled time.

Multiple Choice Question : (20×1=20)

1. Each correct solution carries one mark.
1) Physical layer define characteristics of interface between device and
1) transmission medium
2) another device
3) another peer physical layer at other side
4) modem
2) In mesh topology, if there are five nodes then there will be _______ links.
1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20
3) The _________ generates the data and passes it along with any control information to a
__________
1) DTE; DCE 2) DCE : DTE
3) DCE; node 4) DTE; application
4) HDLC is an acronym for
1) High-duplex line communication 2) High-level data link control
3) Half-duplex digital link combination 4) Host double-level circuit
5) Flow control is needed to prevent
1) Bit errors 2) Overflow of the sender buffer
3) Overflow of the receiver buffer 4) Collision between sender and receiver
6) Synchronous transmission has
1) a start bit 2) a stop bit
3) gaps between bytes 4) none of the given
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 152 -2- *SLRPC152*
7) _________ requires the maximum number of I/O ports.
1) Bus 2) Star 3) Mesh 4) Ring
8) In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to _______ addresses.
1) four 2) five 3) six 4) none of the above
9) UDP and TCP are both _________ layer protocols.
1) data link 2) network 3) transport 4) none of the above
10) Information field contains the user data in ________ and network management information
in a
1) S-Frame, U-Frame 2) U-Frame, I-Frame
3) I-Frame, U-Frame 4) None of the above
11) Router works on the ________ layers.
1) Network 2) Physical and Data Link
3) All of above 4) None of above
12) UDP is called a ________ transport protocol.
1) connectionless, reliable 2) connection-oriented, unreliable
3) connectionless, unreliable 4) none of the above
13) The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port
numbers. They are called the _______ ports.
1) well-known 2) registered 3) dynamic 4) none of the above
14) UDP needs the ________ address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application
process.
1) Port 2) Application 3) Internet 4) None of the above
15) The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines ________
1) the sending computer
2) the receiving computer
3) the process running on the sending computer
4) none of the above
16) UDP packets are called
1) user datagram 2) segments
3) frames 4) none of the above
17) UDP uses ______ to handle outgoing user datagram from multiple processes on one
host.
1) flow control 2) multiplexing 3) de-multiplexing 4) none of the above
18) Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read data at the same
speed, TCP
1) speeds up the slower process 2) slows down the faster process
3) uses buffers 4) none of the above
19) The acknowledgment number in TCP’s AC K is
1) independent 2) randomly generated
3) cumulative 4) none of the above
20) A SYN segment cannot carry data; if consumes __________ sequence number(s)
1) no 2) one 3) two 4) none of the above
______________ Set A

*SLRPC152* -3- SLR-PC – 152
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

1) Differentiate between peer to peer and primary secondary relationship in computer
communication. Categorize basic five topologies in terms of line configurations.
2) What is the advantage of shielded twisted pair over unshielded twisted cable ? Explain
co-axial medium for communication.
3) What is the necessity of scrambling and descrambling ? Discuss scrambling briefly.
4) How does information get passed from one layer to another in OSI model ? Discuss
responsibilities of data link layer.
5) What is the difference between error correction and error detection mechanism ? Explain
different error detection methods.
3. Attempt any two : (2×10= 20)

1) What is relationship between window size and sequence number in case of sliding window
flow control ? Explain sliding window flow control in detail.
2) What are the different modes of data transfer in HDLC ? Draw and explain different frame
formats in HDLC.
3) Draw and explain the frame format of IEEE 802.4 LAN for communication. Also discuss
logical ring maintenance in detail.
SECTION – II
4. Attempt any four : (4×5= 20)
1) What is best-effort delivery service ? Explain the purpose of time to live and fragmentation
field in IP header format.
Set A

SLR-PC – 152 -4- *SLRPC152*
2) How different is net-id from host-id ? Find network addresses for the following IP addresses :
i) 205.23.67.6
ii) 114.34.71.6
iii) 225.23.6.7
3) What is meaning of physical address in computer communication ? Explain various IP

addressing classes.
4) What is the difference between virtual circuit and datagram switching ? Discuss shortest
path routing algorithm.
5) Explain working switches, bridges and routers in the network.
5. 1) Draw TCP/IP layered model and explain it in detail. How congestion is handled
in TCP ? 10
2) What are static and dynamic routing algorithms ? Explain link state routing
algorithm in detail. 10
OR
2) Which are the different methods of file transfer ? Explain one method in
detail. 10
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Radio channel used for a call set up is _________ channel.
a) data b) voice c) control d) management
2) A center excited cell uses _______ antenna.
a) omni-directional b) sector-directional
c) yagi d) dipole
3) If N is cluster size, 1/N is
a) frequency reuse factor b) capacity
c) no of channels d) none of above
4) The signals are function of
a) time b) location c) both d) none
5) submarine communication use _______ propagation.
a) ground wave b) sky wave c) line of sight d) all of the above
6) The CDMA system has a soft capacity limit. That is increasing the number of
users will ________ the system performance.
a) increases b) decreases
c) stabilise d) none of the above
7) Channel data rates are _________ in CDMA systems.
a) very low b) very high
c) moderate d) none of the above
P.T.O.

8) The approach used to avoid slow state after roaming is
a) transmission/time out freezing b) transaction oriented TCP
c) selective retransmission d) fast retransmit/fast recovery
9) The cell size in CDMA is __________ compared to GSM.
a) larger b) smaller c) same d) none of the above
10) Which of the below is not a signal processing block in a PHY layer of a
HiperLAN2 ?
a) OFDM b) decimator c) mapping d) none of these
11) Which of below is a standard for WPANs ?
a) IEEE 802.11 b) IEEE 802.3 c) IEEE 802.15 d) WATM
12) The mechanism used in M-TCP is
a) splits TCP connection in to two b) splits TCP connections, choke sender
c) snoop data d) snoops data and acknowledgement
13) After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
a) internet relay chat b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol d) none of the mentioned
14) What is DHCP snooping ?
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP
infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned
15) In wireless network an extended service set is a set of
a) connected basic service sets b) all stations
c) all access points d) none of the mentioned
16) Mostly _________ is used in wireless LAN.
a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
17) Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN ?
a) collision detection b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission d) none of the mentioned
18) In the piconet of bluetooth one master device
a) cannot be slave b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same piconet d) none of the mentioned
19) A network mobility supporting ATM switch is
a) EMAS b) NMAS c) RS d) ACT
20) Indirect TCP is segmentation of the single TCP connection into ______
connection.
a) two TCP b) multiple TCP c) six TCP d) none of these
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Programmable calculator is not allowed.
2) Solve five full questions including MCQ.
SECTION I
a) With suitable example and diagram explain FHSS.
b) What is soft and hard handoff ?
c) Explain Blocked Calls Cleared Trunking.
d) Explain interleaving in GSM signal processing.
e) Explain different dedicated control channels in GSM.
3. Attempt any two : 20
a) With suitable diagram explain different interfaces in different subsystems of
GSM architecture.
b) Explain Walsh code spreading in forward traffic channel in detail for IS-95.
c) With suitable block diagram explain briefly all channels in forward link for IS-95.
SECTION II
a) With suitable example describe disadvantages of wireless LAN over its wired
counter part.
b) Describe ad-hoc architecture for IEEE 802.11.
c) What are salient features of HiperLAN2 ?
d) What are the requirements of handover in a WATM ?
e) What is agent solicitation ? Why it is required ?

a) Draw protocol stack and explain each component in brief of bluetooth.
b) Describe ad-hoc architecture for WLAN. Explain its advantages and
disadvantages with suitable examples.
c) What is DHCP ? What are its applications ? With suitable diagram explain
basic DHCP configuration.
_____________________ Set A

Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .

ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
1) The inner surface of LCD material is coated with
a) Tin-oxide b) Gallium Arsenide
c) NLC d) Phosphide
2) Which type of ohmmeter is used to measure high value resistance ?
a) Series b) Shunt c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
3) In standard signal generator, frequency stability is limited by
a) Tank circuit b) Gain of wide band amplifier
c) Modulation index d) All of above
4) __________ oscillators are used for RF signal generator.
a) Crystal b) LC c) RC d) Both (a) and (b)
5) Which of the errors are usually treated statistically ?
a) Instrumental b) Environmental
c) Random d) Mean
6) Two or more mixing stages are added in a superheterodyne spectrum analyzer to
a) Increase frequency resolution b) Decrease frequency resolution
c) Increase amplitude resolution d) Decrease amplitude resolution
7) FFT algorithms
a) Are slower than DFT algorithm b) Are faster than DFT algorithm
c) Always have same speed as DFT d) Cannot be executed using computers
8) In a logic timing analyzer, user defined threshold is used to
a) Cut off undesired frequencies
b) Decide 0 and 1 transition points for the input signal
c) Decide the sampling frequency
d) Decide the memory capacity P.T.O.

9) In a conventional counter if counting register counts up to 1500 and the frequency
displayed is 150 kHz, the selected gate time is
a) 1 ms b) 10 ms c) 1 us d) 10 us
10) The dynamic range of frequency counter is generally limited by
a) Linear response range of input amplifier
b) Counting register
c) Display
d) Time base circuit
11) Which of below is the first building block of frequency measurement ?
a) Gate b) Display c) Counter d) Schmitt trigger
12) __________ generator generates volumes of binary information.
a) Data b) Arbitrary function
c) Arbitrary waveform d) Vector
13) A set of readings has a wide range and therefore it has
a) Low precision b) High precision
c) Low accuracy d) High accuracy
14) A 1 mA ammeter has a resistance of 100 . It is to be converted to a 1A ammeter.

The value of shunt resistance is

a) 0.001
b) 0.1001
c) 100000
d) 100
15) A dArsonval movement has a sensitivity of 40,000

and its internal resistance
is 4000 . The resistance of multiplier to convert it to 1 V voltmeter is

a) 44000
b) 36000
c) 3600
d) None
16) In a series type of ohmmeter the zero adjustment should be done
a) By changing the value of series resistance
b) By changing the value of shunt resistance connected across the meter movement
c) By changing both series as well as the shunt resistance
d) By changing the battery voltage
17) The pulse rise time is defined as the time taken by the pulse
a) To go from 10% to 90% of its amplitude
b) To go from 0% to 100% of its amplitude
c) To go from 0% to 90% of its amplitude
d) To go from 10% to 100% of its amplitude
18) The sensitivity of rectifier AC meters is
a) More than that of DC meters b) Less than that of DC meters
c) Equal to that of DC meters d) Always infinite
19) Which of the following is not a component of quality cost ?
a) Prevention cost b) Installation cost
c) Appraisal cost d) Cost of failure
20) ISO for model for quality assurance in final inspection and test is
a) 9001 : 1994 b) 9002 : 1994 c) 9003 : 1994 d) 9003 : 1993
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .

ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
a) Explain LCD display with neat diagram. Give its advantages and disadvantages.
b) Define the terms : accuracy, precision, resolution, expected value and sensitivity.
c) What is the role of input conditioning circuit in electronic counters ?
d) With suitable example explain loading effect of voltmeter.
e) A 1 mA meter movement with an internal resistance of 50

is to be used in a
0 to 1 A, 0 to 5 A and 0 to 10 A range for the arrangement of DC analog ammeter.
Find the value of the required shunt resistances.
3. a) With suitable diagram explain direct analog synthesizer for 1 99 MHz. 10
b) Explain AWG. What are the methods used to modify waveforms ? 10
OR
c) Explain with block diagram : frequency counter for frequency measurement
and period measurement. 10
Set A

SECTION II
a) Explain total harmonic distortion and intermodulation distortion.
b) What is quality ? How it is managed ?
c) What is meant by spectrum analysis ? Compare it with time domain analysis.
d) Explain Deming cycle and quality circle in detail.
e) Compare the FFT analyzer with the superheterodyne spectrum analyzer.
5. a) Draw the block diagram of logic analyzer and explain its types. 10
b) With suitable diagram explain field bus and network devices. 10

OR
c) With neat diagram explain architecture of ISO 9000 series. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
MECHATRONICS (Elective – I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
iii) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
iv) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t

1. Select correct alternatives : 20

1) The variable frequency drive is suitable for
a) DC Servo Motor b) DC Series Motor
c) AC Motor d) DC Shunt Motor
2) The device which provides maximum isolation is
a) Pulse transformer b) Normal transformer
c) Opto isolator d) None of the above
3) In PID which parameter is responsible for oscillation ?
a) KP b) KD c) KI d) PO
4) The basic element of ON/OFF controller is
a) Amplifier b) Comparator c) Oscillator d) Differential amplifier
5) In PID which parameter is responsible for maximum overshoot.
6) Proportional band of a controller is defined as the range of
a) Measured variable to the set variable
b) Air output as the measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum to minimum
7) Proportional band of the controller is expressed as
a) Gain b) Ratio
c) Percentage d) Range of control variables
8) The term reset control refers to
a) Proportional b) Integral c) Derivative d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 155 -2- *SLRPC155*
9) The integral control

a) Increases the steady state error b) Decreases the steady state error
c) Increases the noise and stability d) Decreases the damping coefficient
10) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater increases the
offset will
a) Increase b) Reduce
c) Remain un effected d) None of the above
11) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional band
a) Increases b) Reduces
c) Remains unchanged d) None of the above
12) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electronic PID controller is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
13) Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state response ?
a) Proportional action
b) Proportional + Integral action
c) Proportional + Differential action
d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action
14) In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be
__________ so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero d) None of the above
15) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant has to be
________ so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased b) Reduced
16) For electric traction which drive is most suitable ?
a) Two quadrant b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant d) None of these
17) Actuators are interfaced with which card of PLC ?
a) Memory card b) Output card c) Input card d) Power supply
18) Which sensor is self generating type ?
a) Thermocouple b) RTD c) PT100 d) Thermostat
19) Execution time of PLC depends on
a) Memory size b) Ladder size
c) Power supply used for PLC d) Number of I/O
20) The number of I/O’s for micro PLC are
a) more than 8 b) less than 4 c) more than 16 d) more than 32
______________
Set A

*SLRPC155* -3- SLR-PC – 155
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS (Elective – I)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
a) Compare ON/OFF and Proportional Controller.
b) What different methods of motor control ? Explain any one in detail.
c) What are different blocks of PLC ? How PLC is interfaced with machine ?
d) Write short note on interpolation.
3. Solve any two : 15
a) Explain Chopper as a DC drive with suitable.
b) Convert 0 to 250°C into 4 MA to 20 MA.
c) Draw ladder diagram for washing machine with suitable symbols.
4. Design analog ON-OFF controller for following specification : 10
i) Process variable range – 0 to 1200°C
ii) Set point maintained at 500°C
iii) Use J type thermocouple with sensitivity 51 micro V/°C
iv) Dead band +/-1%
v) Assume suitable data.
Set A

SLR-PC – 155 -4- *SLRPC155*
SECTION – II
5. Write short note any three : 15
a) Analog sensor
b) MEMS
c) Industrial robot
d) Interfacing of actuators with system.
a) Explain with neat diagram “How Pneumatic Power Systems Works ?”
b) What is proximity sensor ? Explain with example.
c) Compare analog sensors and digital sensors with examples.
7. Explain different components of electromechanical system. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to


1) Which one of the following is also called ‘rat race’ ?
a) E plane tee b) H plane tee c) Magic tee d) Hybrid ring
2) Radar principle is used in
a) detection of aircraft b) burglar alarms
c) garage door openers d) all of the above
3) GaAs FET is preferd to
a) lower frequency b) higher frequency c) both a) and b) d) none of above
4) Which of the following is not used as a microwave mixer or detector ?
a) PIN diode b) Crystal code
c) Schottky barrier diode d) Backward diode
5) The resistance values of a PIN diode under positive bias and negative bias respectively are
about
a) a few ohms and a kilo ohms b) about 100 ohms and 1000 ohms
c) about 0.1 ohm and 100 ohms d) about 1000 ohms and 10000 ohms
6) The speed at which axial electric field due to signal advances in a TWT is equal to
a) speed of light
b) (speed of light) (helix pitch helix circumference)
c) (speed of light) (helix pitch) (helix circumference)
d) (speed of light) (helix circumference helix pitch )
7) Fibers have Numerical Aperture (NA) in the range of 0.15 to 0.4 fibers with higher NA value would have
a) reduced losses b) high bandwidth
c) reduced and low bandwidth d) more losses and low bandwidth
8) If rv is reflection coefficient and VSWR is voltage standing wave ratio, then
VSWR − 1 VSWR − 1 VSWR + 1 VSWR + 1

a) ρ = b) | ρν | = c) ρν = d) | ρν | =
ν VSWR + 1 VSWR + 1 VSWR − 1 VSWR − 1
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 157 -2- *SLRPC157*
9) The transit time (in cycles) for electrons in repeller space of reflex klystron oscillator for sustaining
oscillations in (n is any integer)
1 3
a) 2 (n – 1) b) 2n – 1 c) n + d) n +
2 4
10) The different access methods which permit many satellite users to operate in parallel through a
single transponder without interfering with each other as
a) Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA) b) Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
c) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) d) All of the above
11) A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signal and weak in coming signal
c) minimise free-space losses
d) maximise antenna gain
12) Geosynchronous communication satellites travel around the earth in circular orbits with a forward
speed of about _______ km/h.
a) 11200 b) 0 c) 36000 d) 22800
13) In satellite communication, highly directional antennas are used to
a) direct the spot beam to a particular region of space on Earth
b) strengthen the beam to overcome the cosmic noise
c) make corrections in change of polarisation of the beam
d) select a particular channel in transmission and reception
14) Low-orbit satellites are not used for communications because they
a) produce sonic booms
b) do not provide 24 hour/day contact to the users on Earth
c) heat up and melt
d) none
15) The traffic-handling capacity of an Earth station on the uplink depends on
a) its EIRP b) satellite antenna gain
c) noise associated with the satellite d) all of the above
16) _________ is used for boosting the fiber transmission capacity.
a) Wavelength-Division Multiplexing (WDM) b) Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM)
c) Frequency-Division Multiplexing (FDM) d) None of these
17) For global communication, the number of satellites needed is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 10 d) 5
18) The angle between incident ray and normal to the plane is
a) Angle of reflection b) Angle of incident c) Angle of coefficient d) None of these
19) In second generation, wavelength of multimode fiber is
a) 1310 nm. b) 850 nm. c) 1420 nm. d) 1550 nm.
20) In an optical fiber the refractive index of cladding material should be
a) Nearly 1 b) Very low
c) Less than of core d) More than that of core
______________
Set A

*SLRPC157* -3- SLR-PC – 157
Seat
No.

ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. Attempt any three : (3×8= 24)

a) Derive Hull cut off voltage equation for a magnetron.
b) Describe in detail the principles of the following terms Gunn Effect, high domain, two valley theory
and three valley theory.
c) Derive the radar range equation. Write radar performance factors.
d) Explain principle of operation Tunnel diode and list its applications.

a) What are the advantages of microwave frequencies over low frequency ?
b) Explain the function of circulator.
c) Derive the S matrix for H plane tee.
d) Explain basic principle of radar system.
e) Compare CW Doppler radar and FM-CW radar.
SECTION – II
4. Attempt any three : (3×8= 24)
a) Explain in detail Attitude and Orbit Control System (AOCS) and power subsystem.
b) Draw the block diagram of earth station and explain in detail.
c) Explain construction and working of edge emitting double hertojuncation LED.
d) Write a note on :
i) Satellite radio broadcasting
ii) Antennas used in Satellite Communication.
Set A

SLR-PC – 157 -4- *SLRPC157*
a) What is meant by geostationary satellite ?
b) Explain in detail orbital effects in communication system performance.
c) Explain in detail launch and launch vehicles.
d) Comparison of single mode, multimode step index and graded index optical fiber.
e) Derive numerical aperture of step index fiber.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
AUDIO VIDEO ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) In a tape recorder, greater the gap size, lower will be the ________ to give optimum
output.
a) Magnetism b) Wavelength c) Tape length d) Head gap
2) Compare to progressive scanning, the interlacing technique reduces bandwidth because
a) The picture scanning rate is increased
b) The picture scanning rate is reduced
c) The effective picture scanning rate is kept same while pixel scanning rate is halved
d) b and c
3) VSB modulation is preferred for TV transmission because.
a) it reduces bandwidth required to half
b) it avoids phase distortion problems at low frequencies
c) it is less critical than SSB modulation
d) b and c
4) The front porch is kept ahead of the line sync pulse
a) to black out the line before the sync initiates the flyback
b) to allow the video signal to settle to a constant amplitude before the line sync is initiated
c) to blank out the transient oscillations in the horizontal deflection
d) none
5) Which of the following relation is correct ?
F S G G
a) S = b) F = c) F = d) S =
2G 2G 2S 2F
6) The signals U and V are
a) Same as I and Q
b) Same as colour difference components R-Y and B-Y
c) Modified I and Q
d) Modified colour difference components
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 158 -2- *SLRPC158*
7) Colour burst is used in PAL to
a) Synchronise subcarrier phase
b) To identify the phase alternation line
c) Detect presence or absence of colour in the transmission
d) All of above
8) _________ circuit is used to vary gain of the receiver according to strength of signal
picked by antenna.
a) AFT b) RF c) IF d) AGC
9) Delay line matrix is used in PAL receiver
a) To derive R, G and B colours
b) To separate the colour difference components
c) Cancel the phase errors
d) b and c
10) Hue complementary to magenta is
a) Yellow b) Blue c) Cyan d) Green
11) The phase of the colour subcarrier burst signal in PAL system is along the axis at
a) ± 180° b) ± 45 ° c) 180 ± 45° d) None
12) The process of bringing beam together in picture tube is known as
a) convergence b) purity c) degaussing d) pincushion
13) The length of tape magnetized by one cycle of audio signal is called
a) bar magnet b) wavelength c) tape length d) head gap
14) The width to height ratio used in standard TV is called
a) White ratio b) Brightness ratio c) Aspect ratio d) None
15) The luminance signal is given as
a) Y = 0.3R + 0.6G + 0.11B b) Y = 0.3R + 0.59G + 0.12B
c) Y = 0.3R + 0.6G + 0.12B d) Y = 0.3R + 0.59G + 0.11B
16) The equation of I-signal for NTSC colour system is
a) 0.60R – 0.28G – 0.32B b) 0.60R + 0.28G + 0.32B
c) 0.60R – 0.32G – 0.28B d) 0.60R + 0.32G + 0.28B
17) The __________ antenna is widely used with television receivers for locations of 40 to 60 km
from the transmitter.
a) turnstile b) loop c) ferrite d) yagi
18) Which of the following technique is used for modulating video signal ?
a) Amplitude modulation b) Pulse code modulation
c) Picture modulation d) Frequency modulation
19) Photo-conductive principal is used in __________ camera tube.
a) Orthicon b) PIL c) Vidicon d) None
20) The I signal in NTSC is located at ___________ with respect to colour signal in balanced
modulator.
a) 33° b) 57° c) 90° d) 147°
______________
Set A

*SLRPC158* -3- SLR-PC – 158
Seat
No.

AUDIO VIDEO ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Give the relationship between gap-size, tap speed and frequency of the audio signal.
Explain the importance of this equation to get optimum output for audio.
b) What are the minimum audio requirements for multimedia PC specifications ?
c) What is the function of electron multiplier in Image Orthicon camera tube ?
d) How does use of vestigial sideband technique reduces bandwidth of video transmission
in television ?
e) Why are front and back porch intervals provided before and after the horizontal sync
pulse ?

a) Short note on MIDI. Compare MPEG1, MPEG2.
b) With block diagram explain working of high level transmitter used for television transmission.
What are its major drawbacks ?
c) What are the different types of cartridges used in disc system ? Explain each one of them
with suitable diagram.
d) Explain with neat sketch each part of tape recorder system.
SECTION – II
a) List the features of PAL system.
b) Explain additive and subtractive colour mixing.
c) With circuit diagram explain working of degaussing coil used with picture tube.
Set A

SLR-PC – 158 -4- *SLRPC158*
d) Show that interlaced scanning reduces flicker and conserves bandwidth.
e) Explain :
i) dark current
ii) photo transfer characteristics of camera tubes.
5. Attempt any three : (3×8=24)
a) What are different characteristics of colour ? Explain chromaticity diagram.
b) Explain with neat diagram SECAM coder. Compare SECAM with PAL.
c) Explain trintron picture tube. How is purity and convergence related to colour receiver ?
d) What are the requirements of RF tuner ? Draw block diagram of RF tuner.
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
N o .
Set
B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015
EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
1) A _____________ processor has large number of general purpose registers.
a) CICS b) RISC
2) _____________ mode is used when the processor encounters an instruction
that is not supported by the implementation.
a) Supervisor b) System c) Undefined d) Abort
3) Let r0 = 0 × 02020202 and r1 = 0 × 00009000. What will be the content of r1
after execution of instruction LDR r0, [r1], #4 ?
a) 0 × 00009000 b) 0 × 02020202 c) 0 × 00009004 d) 0 × 00008ffb
4) In ARM_____________ exception is having the highest priority.
a) Reset b) Supervisor c) System d) Interrupt request
5) _____________ is the debug hardware built into the processor that allows
breakpoints and watch points to be set.
a) JTAG b) Embedded ICE Macro-cell
c) Boundary scan d) None of the above
6) ARM uses the thumb _____________ bit instruction set to improve code
density.
a) 32 b) 8 c) 64 d) 16
7) Let r0 = 0×00000000 and r1 = 0×00000005. What will be the content of r0
after execution of instruction ADD r0, r1, r1, LSL #1 ?
a) 0 × 00000000 b) 0 × 00000005 c) 0 × 0000000a d) 0 × 0000000f
P.T.O.

8) The ARM register _____________ is the program counter.

a) R12 b) R13 c) R14 d) R15
9) The on-chip ADCs of LPC2148 has _____________ bit resolution and
_____________ conversion time.
a) 8, 2.44 sec

b) 10, 2.44 sec c) 12, 1.44 sec d) 10, 1.44 sec

10) In LPC2148 the _____________ register is used to select the direction of

port pins P1.0 to P1.31.
a) IOCLR1 b) IODIR0 c) PINSEL2 d) IODIR1
11) The SPI bus can operate with a _____________ master device/s and with
_____________ slave device/s.
a) single, one b) single, one or more
c) two, single d) two, two
12) Information about a task maintained in a
a) Stack b) Translation Look aside Buffer
c) Task control block d) Task condition block
13) CAN stands for
a) Controller Area Network b) Cascaded Area Network
c) Control Area Network d) Communication Area Network
14) A _____________ is software for controlling, receiving and sending a byte or
stream of bytes from or to device.
a) Kernel b) Shell c) Processor d) Device Driver
15) Binary, Mutual exclusion, Counting are the types of
a) Queues b) Pipes c) Semaphores d) Mailboxes
16) Inter task communication can be done through
a) Mailboxes b) Queues c) Pipes d) All of above
17) In 12 C _____________ device/s exchange data during one conversation.
a) Only one b) Only two c) More than two d) All of above
18) MODBUS devices communicate using a master-slave technique in which
_____________ device/s can initiate transactions.
a) Only one b) Only two c) More than two d) All
19) SDA and SCL signal lines are used in _____________ communication.
a) SPI b) CAN c) MODBUS d) 12C
20) Using USB up to _____________ devices may be connected to a single host
controller.
a) 2 b) 64 c) 127 d) 256
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
a) Write an ARM assembly program to subtract two 64 bit numbers.
b) Write a short note on Device drivers.
c) Explain nomenclature used for ARM processors.
d) Explain processor selection for an embedded system.
e) Define embedded system. Explain major characteristics which differs
embedded system from desktop computer.
a) Discuss different design metrics used in development of an embedded system.
b) Draw and explain ARM core data flow model.
c) Explain hardware and software architecture of embedded system.
SECTION II
a) Explain CAN bus in detail.
b) Write a note on MODBUS.
c) Explain different inter-process communication techniques.
d) Define RTOS. Explain its function.
e) Explain embedded communication using 12C.
a) Explain procedure for determining PLL setting and list required conditions.
Also configure CPU clock for 60 MHz if the 10 MHz external crystal is used
as a clock source for LPC2148.
b) Explain embedded system used in Digital Camera.
c) What is context switch or task switch ? Explain with neat diagram.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) From Section – I : Attempt any two questions from
Q. No. 2, Q. 3 and Q. No. 4.
3) From Section – II :Attempt any two questions from
Q. No. 6, Q. No. 7 and Q. No. 8.
4) Question No. 5 and Q. No. 9 are compulsory.


1) Rocks in the core of synclined fold are
a) Older b) Younger c) Plutonic d) Faulted
2) Gutenbergs discontinuity lies in between
a) Crust and Mantle b) Mantle and Core
c) Inner core and Outer core d) Sial and Sima
3) The lustre of Mica group is ___________
a) Earthy b) Resinous c) Pearly d) Greazy
4) Laterite is ___________ type of rock.
a) Metamorphic b) Igneous
c) Sedimentary d) Semi-Metamorphic
5) ___________ is the concordant igneous intrusion in folded region.
a) Sill b) Laccolith c) Lopolith d) Phacolith
6) ___________ structure is due to the development of centres of contraction at
equally spaced intervals on the cooling surfaces.
a) Ropy b) Columnar c) Flow d) Pillow
7) Thin bedding, less the one centimeter in thickness are called ___________
a) Lamination b) Stratification c) Current bedding d) Graded bedding
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 16 -2- *SLR-PC-16*
8) Majority of the faults are formed due to ___________ processes.
a) Tectonic b) Volcanic c) Residual d) All the above
9) Baselevel erosion takes in ___________ stage of stream erosion.
a) Old stage b) Youthful stage
c) Maturity stage d) Mid-oceanic stage
10) The symmetrical s-shaped loops found in a course of a river, are called
______
a) Gorges b) Canyons c) Meanders d) All the above
11) The point of origin of an earthquake with in the earths crust is called _________
a) Epicentre b) Focus c) Isoseismal lines d) Tsunami
12) During volcanic eruptions particles that ranges in size between 0.25 to
4.0 milimeter are called
a) Volcanic Bomb b) Volcanic Ash
c) Volcanic Cyndrs. d) Volcanic Dust
13) ___________ is a structure made to discharge the surplus water from
storage reservoir into the river on the downstream side of the Dam.
a) Galleries b) Heel c) Spillway d) Toe
14) Selection of dam site is favorable site mainly on ___________
a) Anticline b) Syncline
c) Down stream deeping beds d) None of the above
15) ___________ seismic waves are faster than other.
a) S-waves b) P-waves c) L-waves d) R-waves
16) Earth dam fails due to ___________
a) Watertable fluctuation
b) Velocity of water
c) Percolation of water
d) Overlapping due to insufficient height
17) A bridge which is suspended with the help of cables and steel towers across
a deep and narrow river valley is called ___________
a) Suspension bridge b) Beam bridge
c) Cantilever bridge d) All above
18) Which of the following is desirable site for tunneling ?
a) Tunnel through axis of anticline b) Tunnel through trough of syncline
c) Tunnel through limbs of anticline d) None of the above
19) Artesian well represents ___________ type of aquifer.
a) Confined b) Unconfined c) Perched d) Gravel
20) The resistance offered by a rock towards mechanical wear and tear is called as
a) Crushing strength b) Durability
c) Density d) Fire resistance
______________ Set A

*SLR-PC-16* -3- SLR-PC – 16
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) From Section – I : Attempt any two questions from
Q. No. 2, Q. 3 and Q. No. 4.
2) From Section – II : Attempt any two questions from Q. No. 6,
Q. No. 7 and Q. No. 8.
3) Q. No. 5 and Q. No. 9 are compulsory.
4) Draw neat figures wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
2. a) Write the geological work carried out by river with reference to the processes
and features of weathering, erosion, transportation and deposition. 7
b) Agents and types of Metamorphism. 7
3. a) Describe any three structures of sedimentary rocks. 7

b) Define joints. Explain any three joint based on there geometrical
classification. 7
4. a) Explain various forms of concordant Igneous intrusions. 7

b) Define volcano. Explain types of volcano. 7
5. Write notes on any four of the following : 12

1) Canyons and Gorges
2) Batholith
3) Rudaceous deposits
4) Core of the earth
5) Angular Unconformity.
Set A

SLR-PC – 16 -4- *SLR-PC-16*
SECTION – II
6. a) Explain requirement of good reservoir site. 7

b) Define tunnel and describe difficulties in tunneling. 7
7. a) Describe engineering properties of rocks. 7

b) Define landslide and describe causes and prevention of landslide. 7
8. a) Define ground water and describe sources of ground water. 7

b) Define earthquake and describe effect and precautions of earthquake. 7
9. Write note on any four of the following : 12

1) Seismograph
2) Effect of rise in the level of ground water in the reservoir area
3) Unconfined Aquifer
4) Suitability of basalt as building stone
5) Seismic waves.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
Set A
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1. Multiple choice question : 20

1) The type of packet format supported by X.25 are as follows
a) Control packet b) Data packet c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
2) DLCI identifies _________ in frame relay.
a) Virtual circuit b) Receivers address
c) Frame d) Both b) and c)
3) In X.25 defines the protocols from
a) Layer 2 to Layer 3 b) Layer 1 to Layer 2
c) Layer 1 to Layer 3 d) Layer 3 to Layer 2
4) X.25 is a
a) Protocol b) Data Service
c) Telephone service d) Technology
5) A X.25 protocol use
a) Store and forward method b) Stop and wait method
c) Store and stop method d) None of these
6) DLCI can have a value between
a) 0 and 1025 b) 0 and 125
c) 0 and 256 d) 0 and 1023
7) Narrow band ISDN is a digital service where the transport speeds are _______
(T1) or less
a) 1.533 Mbps b) 1.544 Mbps c) 1.555 Mbps d) 1.552 Mbps
P.T.O.

8) Advantages of ISDN internetworking are
a) Quality b) Economy c) Availability d) All of these
9) Which service provide up to thirty independent 64 kbps B channels and a
separate 64 kbps D channel to carried the signaling.
a) Basic rate access b) Primary rate access
10) The ______ channel can be used for telemetry and alarms.
a) B b) D c) C d) H
11) The data transmission is a fixed length of data known as
a) Cell b) Frame c) Relay d) Cell relay
12) The cell relay protocol corresponds to first ______ layer of OSI.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
13) AVC is a virtual channel composed of
a) Frames b) Cells c) Relay d) Protocol
14) In cell relay, the communication is performed between
a) Two VP b) Two VC c) VP and VC d) VP and VCI
15) In ISDN _______ , the network can change or process the content of the
data.
a) Bearer services b) Teleservices
c) Supplementary services d) None of the above
16) Which is a portion carries the actual information ?
a) Payload b) Payment c) Payroll d) None of these
17) ATM can support.
a) Different speeds
b) Various traffic types
c) Quality of service attached to applications
d) All of these
18) Narrow band ISDN provides for the following services.
a) Circuit-switched voice b) Circuit-switched data
c) Low-speed packet d) All of these
19) Commercial TV is an example of
a) Messaging service
b) Conversational service
c) Distributive service with user control
d) Distributive service without user control
20) SONET is standard for _______ networks.
a) Twisted pair cable b) Coaxial cable
c) Ethernet d) Fiber-optic cable
______________ Set A

*SLRPC160* -3-
SLR-PC 160
S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Elective II)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I

1) What is acknowledged and un-acknowledged data transfer ? Specify benefits
and drawback of each. Explain advantages of Packet switching over circuit
switching.
2) Explain effect of packet size on transmission time. Discuss external and
internal virtual circuit and datagram operations.
3) Compare between Analog and Digital switching. Explain structure of I-series
recommendations for ISDN.
4) What is interworking ? Explain call negotiation procedure in ISDN-ISDN
interworking.
5) What is rate adaption ? Explain various methods of rate adaption used in
ISDN.

1) Draw and explain ISDN protocol architecture. Discuss various ISDN
connections and ISDN addressing structure.
2) Draw functional block diagram of UNI in ISDN. Which reference points are
used in ISDN ? Explain their significance.
3) Draw and explain LAPF frame format. Discuss LAPF core formats.
Set A

SECTION II

1) Discuss HEC operation at ATM receiver.
2) Draw and explain ATM cell format for user to network direction.
3) Explain different ATM service categories.
4) Define performance parameters throughout, call blocking probability, BER,
switch delay, cell loss probability and jitter on delay related to ATM switches.
5) Draw and explain SONET layer model.
5. Attempt any two :

1) What is the broadband service mean ? Explain various broad band services. 10
2) How ATM cell are transferred over physical layer ? Explain STS-1 frame
format and related pointers in SONET. 10
OR
3) How ATM cell is processed at switching centers ? Explain basic ATM switch
element. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
PLC AND INDUSTRIAL CONTROLLERS (Elective – II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
iii) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
iv) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.


1) Proportional band of the controller is expressed as
a) Gain b) Ratio
c) Percentage d) Range of control variables
2) The term reset control refers to
a) Proportional b) Integral c) Derivative d) None of the above
3) The integral control
a) Increases the steady state error b) Decreases the steady state error
c) Increases the noise and stability d) Decreases the damping coefficient
4) The word address in PLC not includes
a) SMPS b) INPUT c) OUTPUT d) Rack number
5) The device which provides maximum Isolation is
a) Pulse transformer b) Normal Transformer
c) Opto isolator d) None of the above
6) In PID which parameter is responsible for Oscillation ?
7) The basic element of ON/OFF controller is
a) Amplifier b) Comparator
c) Oscillator d) Differential Amplifier
8) Which sensor is semiconductor sensor ?
a) RTD b) PT100 c) LM335 d) Thermocouple
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 161 -2- *SLR-PC-161*
9) Proportional band of a controller is defined as the range of
a) Measured variable to the set variable
b) Air output as the measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum to
minimum
10) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater
increases the offset will
a) Increase b) Reduce
c) Remain uneffected d) None of the above
11) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional
band
a) Increases b) Reduces
c) Remains unchanged d) None of the above
12) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electronic PID
controller is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
13) Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state
response ?
a) Proportional action
b) Proportional + Integral action
c) Proportional + Differential action
d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action
14) In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has
to be ___________ so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced b) Increased
15) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant
has to be so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased b) Reduced c) Reduced to zero d) None of the above
16) For electric traction which drive is most suitable ?
a) Two quadrant b) Four quadrant c) Single quadrant d) None of these
17) Actuators are interfaced with which card of PLC ?
a) Memory card b) Output card c) Input card d) Power supply
18) Which sensor is self generating type ?
a) Thermocouple b) RTD c) PT100 d) Thermostat
19) Execution time of PLC depends on
a) Memory size b) Ladder size
c) Power supply used for PLC d) Number of I/O
20) The number of I/O’s for micro PLC are
a) More than 8 b) Less than 4 c) More than 16 d) More than 32
______________
Set A

*SLR-PC-161* -3- SLR-PC – 161
Seat
No.

PLC AND INDUSTRIAL CONTROLLERS (Elective – II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Why SMPS is preferred over linear power supply in case of PLC ?
b) Write note on classification of PLC.
c) What are different blocks in PLC ?
d) State advantages of PLCs over Hard Wired Relay.

a) Develop a ladder diagram to start and stop the motor using ‘START’, ‘STOP’
push buttons (PB). Represent the solution as per
i) Physical Ladder
ii) Programmable ladder.
b) Develop and draw ladder diagram automatic bottle filling plant.
c) What are the different specifications of PLC ? Explain two in detail.
4. Develop a ladder diagram for an elevator. The platform moves the objects UP
and DOWN. The platform carries something to UP position when UP button is
pushed, and when DOWN button is pushed the platform carries something to
DOWN position. 10
SECTION – II

a) Compare grounded load converter and floating load converter.
b) Design converter for conversion of 0 to 250° C into 4 MA to 20 MA with
suitable sensor.
Set A

SLR-PC – 161 -4- *SLR-PC-161*
c) Describe design of control logic for DAS.

d) Explain with neat sketch why the current range is 4 MA to 20 MA. Why it is
started from 4 MA instead of ZERO.
6. Solve any two. 15

a) What are different components of robotic system ? How these components
are interfaced ?
b) Explain different types of float sensors.
c) Design 2 Channel Data Acquisition System with following specification :
Channel 1 :
i) Temp. Range – 0 to 900° C
ii) Sensor – Thermocouple
Channel 2 :
i) Temp. Range – 0 to 100° C
ii) Sensor – LM 35.
7. Design analog proportional controller for following specification : 10

i) Process variable range 0 to 800° C.
ii) Set point maintained between 400° C to 600° C
iii) Use E type thermocouple with sensitivity 7 micro V/°C
iv) Proportional band 85%
v) Assume suitable data.
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) The particular integral of (D + 2)2y = e2x is
N
a) b) c) d)
N N N A
N N N
A A A
"
2) L{tneat} =
n ! ( n 1 ) !
a) b) c) d)
n n 1
n n 1
n n 1
( s a ) ( s a )
( s a ) ( s a )
3) =
s

9 s 4

a) b) c) d)
1 3 t 1 2 2 1 4

c o s c o s t c o s t c o s t

9 2 9 3 3 9 9

4)

L

( s 2 )

J
a) e2tt b) c) e2t d) te2t

A
5) The solution of partial differential equation xp + yq = z is
a) (x, y) = 0 b) c) (xy, yz) = 0 d) (x2, y2) = 0

x y

, 0

y z

6) If , then L{f(3t)} is equals to

1
1 / s
L f ( t ) e
! I !
a) b) c) d)

3 / s
I ! I
A A A A
! ! ! I I
7) The general solution (D3 D)y = 0 is

a) y = c1ex + c2ex b) y = c1x + c2x2 + (c3 + c4x)ex
c) y = c1 + c2ex + c3ex d) None of these
P.T.O.

8) The solution of partial differential equation pq = 1 is
a) z = ax + ay + c b) z = ax + y+c c) z = ax + by + c d) z = ax + y+c

= >
9) If H(t) is unit step function, then L{H(t)} is equals to

I
a) b) 1 c) d) es

10) If and then div ( ) =

r x i y j z k
= H
a) 0 b) 1 c) 1 d) 2
11) The directional derivative of = xy + yz + zx at (1, 1, 1) is maximum in the direction of
a) i + j + k b) i j + k c) 2i + 2j + 2k d) 2i 2j + 2k
12) If = ae3t i + be2t j, then at t = 0 =

@ H
H
@ J
a) a b) ai c) ai + bj d) ae3t i
13) For Fourier series expansion, function must be
a) Harmonic b) Riemann c) Cauchy d) Periodic
14) _________ is the constant term in the Fourier expansion of ,0<x<a

a
f ( x ) x
a) 0 b) c) d) 1
= =
"
15) If z {f(k)} = F(z) then z {f(k + n)}=

a) zkF(z) b) zkF(z) c) znF(z) d) znF(z)
16) The inverse z-transform of is

z
, | z | 1
z 1
a) 1 b) 1 c) 0 d) k
17) The Fourier cosine transform of is

1 , 0 x 1

f ( x )
0 , x 1
a) b) c) d)
2 2 s i n s 2 c o s s
I . s i n s
s s
18) The infinite Fourier sine transform of f(x) is given by

2
a) b) c) d)
2
f ( x ) c o s s x d x f ( x ) s i n s x d x f ( x ) s i n s x d x
f ( x ) s i n s x d x

2

19) If z{f(k)} = (z) then z{krf(k)} = B
H H
H
d d d

z f ( z ) z . f ( k ) z f ( z )

d z d z d z

20) The meaning of is

1
{ X }
D 3
a) b) c) d) None of the above

! N ! N ! N ! N ! N
: A @ N A A : @ N A : A @ N

______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I

i) Solve (D5 D)y = 12ex + 8 sin x.
ii) Solve (D3 + 8)y = x4 + 2x.
iii) Solve z2 (p2 + q2 + 1) = 1.
B) A condenser of capacitance C is discharged through an inductance L and resistance R in series.
The charge q at time t satisfies the equation.
.
d q d q q
L R 0
d t C
d t
Given L = 0.25 Henries, R = 250

, C = 2 × 106 farads and q = 0.002 coulomb, i = 0 initially.
Obtain charge q interms of t. 6
3. a) Solve y2p2 x2q2 = x2y2z2. 5
b) Solve (y+z)p (x + z)q = x y. 4
c) Solve (D3 + 1)y = 2 cosh (x). 4
s i n ( 2 t )
4. a) Find Laplace transform of . 5

! J
e d t
b) Find . 4

3 s 1

( s 1 ) ( s 1 )

c) Obtain Laplace transform of saw-tooth wave function and f(t + T) = f(t). 4

K
f ( t ) t , 0 t T
5. a) Find L{t H(t 3) + t2

(t 3)}. 4
b) Find L1{tan1 (s + 1)}. 4

c) Evaluate the following integral by using Laplace transform e

J
s i n

3 t

d t
. 5

Set A

SECTION II
6. a) Find the angle between the surface ax2 + y2 + z2 xy = 1 and 6x2y + y2z + z = 1 at (1, 1, 0). 4
b) Show that the vector F ( y z ) i ( z x ) i ( x y ) k

is solenoidal and irrotational. 3
2 .
c) Prove that for 0 < x < , . 6

c o s 2 x c o s 4 x c o s 6 x

x ( x )
. . .

2 2 2
6
1 2 3

= N

7. a) Find the Fourier sine transform of and hence evaluate . 8

t a n s i n x d x

B N

b) Find the inverse z-transform of . 5

3 z 2 z
, 1 | z | 2
z 3 z 2
OR
c) Find the inverse z-transform of . 5

2 z 1 0 z 1 3
, 2 | z | 3
( z 3 ) ( z 2 )

k
8. a) Find the . 5

z 3 s i n , k 0

b) Find . 4
1

z 3 , k 0

c) Express the function as Fourier integral. Hence evaluate . 5

1 , f o r | x | 1

s i n w s i n w x
f ( x )
d w
0 , f o r | x | 1
c o s w
9. a) Obtain Fourier series of f(x) = x + x2 in (1, 1). Hence show that . 8

1 1 1 1
. . .
1 2
1 2 3 4
b) Prove that .

r
1

n ( n 2 )
. 5
n n 1
r r

_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (E&TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Select the appropriate option : (1×20=20)

1) Forward drop across diode will __________ with increase in temperature.
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) None
2) The Ripple frequency of half wave rectifier is
a) Fin b) 2 fin c) 3 fin d) .5 fin
3) For faithful amplifier circuit ‘Q’ point must be fixed in
a) Active region
b) Middle of active region
c) Middle of active region and below P.D. curve
d) Anywhere on output characteristic
4) Which of the following circuit provide unity current gain and high voltage gain ?
a) CE b) CB c) CC d) None
5) The process of base width modulation in transistor is called
a) Biasing b) Thermal Runaway
c) Early effect d) Compensation
6) The % regulation of an Ideal rectifier should be
a) Infinity b) Negative c) Zero d) None
7) The reverse saturation current in diode with increasing temperature
c) Remains the same d) Becomes zero
8) The phase shift provided between input and output for CE and CC amplifier is
a) 0° and 0° b) 0° and 180° c) 180° and 0° d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 163 -2- *SLR-PC-163*
9) Input resistance of CE amplifier is

a) hfe b) hfc c) hie d) hic
10) For single stage RC coupled amplifier, the component value are R1 = 10k,
R2 = 2 k, Rc = 10 k, RE = 1 k, RL = 10 K, VCC = 15 V, CE = 47 uF, Cc = 100uF,
The dc and Ac resistance are respectively
a) 11 K and 5 K b) 5 K and 11 K c) 1 K and 10 k d) None
11) For fixed bias circuit value of base resistance required to provide the quiescent
current of 20 mA, with Vcc = 10 v, hfe = 100, VBE = 0 v is
a) 50 k b) 25 k c) 12.5 k d) none
12) The Ripple frequency of voltage doubler is
a) Fin b) 2 fin c) 3 fin d) Zero
13) JFET can work as VVR in
a) Ohmic region b) Pinchoff c) Cutoff d) Active
14) Zener after reverse breakdown can be used as
a) Current source b) Constant voltage source
c) Both a) and b) d) None
15) The process of self destruction of transistor due to temperature is called
a) Biasing b) Thermal Runaway
c) Early effect d) Compensation
16) For an ideal diode forward resistance and reverse resistance respectively
a) Zero and Infinity b) Infinity and zero
c) Zero and zero d) None
17) ICBO can be obtained with common base configuration with
a) IB = 0 b) IC = 0 c) IE = 0 d) none
18) The E MOSFET is
a) Uni polar b) Bipolar
c) None polar d) None
19) Input resistance of JFET amplifier is
a) High b) Same as BJT
c) Very low d) Very high
20) H parameter model is valid for
a) DC only b) Up to mid frequency range
c) At very high frequency d) Both a) and b)
______________
Set A

*SLR-PC-163* -3- SLR-PC – 163
Seat
No.
S.E. (E&TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN – I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :1) All questions are compulsory.
SECTION – I

a) For the circuit shown below assume the diodes are ideal, write transfer
characteristics equation. Plot Vo against Vi for input Vi = 3 sin wt.
b) Design capacitor filter for Vo = 15 V, IL = 10 mA, ripple factor = 0.03. Assume

F = 50 Hz.
c) Explain different rating of PN junction Diode.
d) Explain effect of temperature variation on PN junction characteristics.
e) Explain with suitable circuit diagram voltage doubler.
f) Design Zener diode regulator for Vo = 5 Volt, for input voltage 10 to 20 V with
IL = 50 mA, Izmax = 20 mA.
3. Solve :
a) Design power supply with capacitor filter to give output voltage of 50 volt at
1 K ohm and ripple factor not exceeding 3%. Use two diode rectifier. 10
b) Explain with suitable circuit diagram, waveforms and transfer characteristics
operation of shunt positive, negative and combinational clipper. 10
OR
b) Derive following parameters for full wave rectifier circuit using two diodes.
Ripple factor, efficiency, PIV, Vo rms and output frequency. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 163 -4- *SLR-PC-163*
SECTION – II

a) Design collector to base bias circuit for operating point at (3 mA, 5 V). Given
hfe = 100, Vbe = 0.6 volt, S = 5 and Vcc = 15 V.
b) Derive the relationship between Icbo and Iceo.
c) What are different JFET parameters and relationship between them ?
d) Draw H parameter model for common base configuration state the
approximations and draw approximate model.
e) Operating point of the transistor amplifier should be at the middle of active
region for faithful amplification. Justify above statement using appropriate
graph.
5. Solve :
a) Design single stage RC coupled amplifier for given requirements 10
Q point = (5 V, 8 mA)
Voltage gain = 150, Stability factor = 3 ;
Signal range 20 Hz to 40 KHz. And Rs = 50 ohm.
hfe = 200; Vbe = 0.6 Volt.
Load resistance = 1 K ohm
Supply voltage = 15 Volt.
b) What is frequency response ? Explain effect of external capacitances on
frequency response and derive expression for lower cut off frequency in
terms of CE (neglect effect of CC). 10
OR
b) Derive expression for voltage and current gain, input and output resistance
using H parameter model for fixed bias CE amplifier and give typical values
of H parameters. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. ( (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
1. MCQ : (20×1=20)
1) Vbd in the network shown below
a) 8V b) 6V c) 16V d) None
2) In the circuit shown Rab in k Ω is
a) 3 b) 6 c) 2 d) None
3) A cut set schedule gives relation between
a) Branch currents and link currents b) Branch voltages and tree branch voltages
c) Branch voltages and link voltages d) Branch currents and tree currents
4) Superposition theorem is applicable only to networks that are
a) linear b) time-invariant c) nonlinear d) passive
5) When n resistances each of value r are connected in parallel, then resultant resistance is x.
When these n resistances are connected in series, total resistance is
a) nx b) rnx c) x/n d) n2x
6) At resonance, the term bandwidth includes all frequencies that allow what percentage of maximum
current to flow ?
a) 50 b) 62.3 c) 70.7 d) 95.3
7) What is the high cutoff frequency for an RLC circuit that resonates at 2000 Hz and has a bandwidth of
250 Hz ?
a) 2125 Hz b) 2250 Hz c) 1750 Hz d) 8.0 Hz
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 164 -2- *SLRPC164*
8) A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent loop. The number of branches in the network is
a) 13 b) 12 c) 11 d) 10
9) A two port network is reciprocal, if and only if
a) Z11 = Z22 b) BC – AD = –1 c) Y12 = – Y21 d) h12 = h21
10) When two port networks are connected in parallel the resultant
a) Z parameters are the sum of individual parameters
b) Y-parameters are the sum of individual parameters
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
11) The circuit shown in figure is in steady state, when switch is closed at t =0.Assuming that the
inductance is ideal, the current through inductor at t = o+ equals
a) 0 A b) 0.5 A c) 1 A d) 2 A
12) The transient response occurs only in
a) resistive circuits b) inductive circuit c) capacitive circuits d) both (b) and (c)
13) When series RC circuit is connected to a constant voltage at t = 0, the current passing through
the circuit at t = 0+ is
V V
a) infinite b) zero c) R d) ωc
14) The laplace transform of a unit step function is
1 1 1
a) 1 b) s c) 2 d) s + a
s
15) The final value theorem is used to find the
a) steady state value of the system output b) initial value of system output
c) transient behavior of system output d) none of these
16) This filter transmits all frequencies lying between two cut-off frequencies and attenuates all frequencies
below lower cut off frequency and upper cut-off frequency.
a) low pass b) high pass c) band pass d) band stop
17) It α is attenuation in Nepers then attenuation in dB is
α
a) 0.8686 b) 8.686 α c) 0.1 α d) 0.01 α
18) The driving point impedance is defined as the ratio of transmitting voltage to transform current at
a) same port b) other port c) both (a) and (b) d) none
19) The RC circuit shown in figure is
a) low pass filter b) high pass filter c) band pass filter d) band reject filter
20) The characteristic impedance is given as
a) Zoc.Z sc b) (Zoc . Zsc)2 c) Z oc . Z sc d) Zoc

______________
Set A

*SLRPC164* -3- SLR-PC – 164
Seat
No.
S.E. ( (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Solve any four questions. (4×5= 20)
1) Find Io in the network shown using source transformation.
2) If an 8-K Ω load is connected to the terminals of the network shown, VAB = 16V. If a 2– K Ω load is
connected to the terminals VAB = 8V. Find VAB if a 20K Ω load is connected to the terminals.
3) Find the Z-parameters of the two-port circuit of fig.
Set A

SLR-PC – 164 -4- *SLRPC164*
4) Explain Cascade connection of 2 two port networks.

5) Draw reactance curves for RLC series circuit. At what frequency series RLC circuit resonates ?
What is the effect of variation in R on frequency response ?
6) Calculate the value of L at which circuit consisting of Parallel connection of two impedances 5+jXL Ω
and 10–j12 Ω will resonate at a frequency of 1000 rad/sec.
3. Solve any two questions. (2×10= 20)

1) Derive the expression for resonant frequency for RLC series circuit and find the indicated quantities
for the circuit of Figure
a) Resonant frequency expressed as ω (rad/s) and f(Hz).

b) Total impedance at resonance
c) Current at resonance
d) VL and VC.
2) Derive the expression for Y parameters in terms of Z parameters and hence determine Z and Y
parameters for the circuit shown below.
3) State and prove Maximum Power transfer theorem. A DC voltage source has open circuit voltage of
20 and internal resistance of 2 Ω . Determine the value of the load resistance that gives maximum
power dissipation. Find the value of this power.
SECTION – II
4. Attempt any four. (4×5= 20)
a) What is filter ? What are applications of filter. Determine cut-off frequency for filter shown below.
Set A

*SLRPC164* -5- SLR-PC – 164
b) What is attenuator ? State the purpose for which attenuator is used. Derive relation between decibel
and Neper.
V
c) For network shown in figure below, determine transfer function G12 = 1 .
V2
d) A series RC circuit has R = 50 Ω and C = 1 μ F. The initial charge on capacitor is 5 μ C. At t= 0,

the switch is closed. Find current at t > 0.
e) Explain initial and final steady state conditions for resistor, inductor and capacitor.
5. Attempt any two : (10×2= 20)
a) What are disadvantages of constant k-filter. Design m-derived high pass filter with cut-off frequency
10 KHz. Design impedance 500 Ω and m = 0.4 (both T and if π type )
b) For circuit shown in figure, find equation of current if switch is closed at t = 0. Also find vtg across L
and R, find current at t = 0.1 sec and the time at which voltage across L and R are equal.
c) Design T and π type attenuator with following specification attenuation : 20 dB Ro = 640 Ω
__________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (E & TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) The gray code equivalent of binary number (11000001)2 is
a) 1100001 b) 1100011 c) 1000011 d) 110101
2) The following number system is used in K-map representation
a) Binary b) BCD c) Gray d) Hexadecimal
3) Which table shows output for every possible combination of input variables ?
a) Function table b) Truth table c) Routing table d) ASCII table
4) A comparison between serial and parallel adder is that a serial adder
a) is slower b) is faster
c) has same speed as parallel adder d) is more complicated
5) By placing an inverter between both input of an S-R flip flop, it becomes
a) JK flip flop b) D flip flop
c) T flip flop d) Master slave JK flip flop
6) The output of a logic gate is ‘1’ when all its inputs are at logic ‘0’, the gate is either
a) NAND or an EX-OR gate b) NOR or an EX-OR gate
c) AND or an EXNOR gate d) NOR or an EXNOR gate
7) In standard TTL gates, the totem pole output stage is primarily used to
a) Increase the noise margin of the gate
b) Decrease the output switching delay
c) Facilitate a wired or logic connection
d) Increase the output impedance of the circuit
8) The output Qn of a J-K flip-flop is zero. It changes to one, when a clock pulse is applied
with the inputs Jn and Kn are
a) I and X b) X and O c) O and X d) X and I
9) A multiplexer is basically a combination logic circuit to perform the operation
a) AND – AND b) OR – OR c) AND – OR d) OR – AND
10) The Q output of a J-K flip flop is toggle when input levels are
a) LOW – LOW b) LOW – HIGH c) HIGH – LOW d) HIGH – HIGH
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 165 -2- *SLRPC165*
11) Which of the following is not an application of shift register ?
a) Delay generator b) Serial-to-parallel converter
c) Ring counter d) Flip-flop converter
12) The output of a MOD - 2 counter given as a clock input of a MOD-5 counter gives a
a) MOD-5 counter b) MOD-10 counter
c) MOD-25 counter d) None of these
13) Which of the following is not a synchronous circuit ?
a) Ring counter b) Shift register
c) Twisted ring counter d) Ripple counter
14) The number of states required for implementing a given function in Mealay machine is
________ that is required by the Moore machine.
a) one less than b) one more than
c) equal to d) none of the above
15) The PLA has three input variables. The total number of AND gates in its plane is
a) 8 b) 6
c) 3 d) none of the above
16) For the circuit shown, the counter state (Q1 Q0) follows the sequence
D0 Q0 D1 Q1
clk
a) 00, 01, 10, 11, 00 ... b) 00, 01, 10, 00, 01 ...
c) 00, 01, 11, 00, 01 ... d) None of the above
17) How many flip-flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count from 0 to 1023 ?
a) 1 b) 6 c) 10 d) 24
18) The Moore circuit output depends on
a) only on present state of the flip-flop b) only on next state of the flip-flop
c) on both d) none of the above
19) The IC 7490 is a
a) synchronous decade counter b) synchronous divide-by-16 counter
c) asynchronous decade counter d) asynchronous divide-by-16 counter
20) A N-stage ripple counter will count up to
a) 2N b) 2N – 1
c) N d) None of the above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC165* -3- SLR-PC – 165
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

i) Design a logic circuit for the function given, F = Σ m (0, 2, 3, 7, 9, 10, 13) .
ii) Compare TTL and CMOS logic family.
iii) Write a note on 4 bit parallel adder.
iv) Implement the following function using 4 : 1 multiplexer, F (x, y, z) = Σ m (0, 2, 3, 5) .
v) Draw the construction, write the characteristic table, characteristic equation and excitation
table for D and J-K flip flop.
3. i) Design a gray to binary code convertor. 8

ii) Attempt any two : (2×8=16)
a) Explain the characteristics of TTL logic family with typical values.
b) What do you mean by race around condition ? Explain how it is overcome in Master-
Slave J-K flop-flop.
c) Design and explain 16 : 1 Demux using 4 : 1 Demux.
d) Write a note on 4 bit magnitude comparator.
SECTION – II

i) Explain bidirectional shift register.
ii) In binary counter the clock input frequency is 512 KHz and the output frequency from the
last flip flop is 4 KHz. Determine
a) the MOD number and
b) the counting range.
Set A

SLR-PC – 165 -4- *SLRPC165*
iii) Design divide-by-6 counter using IC 7490.

iv) Compare Moore machine and Mealay machine.
v) Explain 4-bit divide-by-N counter with wave forms.
vi) Draw the waveforms to shift data 1010 to left in 4-bit serial in serial out shift register.
5. a) In a sequential circuit shown below has one input X, one output Z and two J-K flip-flops.
Identify circuit is Moore machine or Mealay machine. Prepare its excitation table, state
table and state diagram. 8
X JA A JB B
B
X
CIK A Z
X A
KA KB B
B
b) Attempt any two : (2×8=16)

i) Implement the following function using PLA
F1 = ABC + ABC + AC
F2 = ABC + A C + ABC
ii) Design a synchronous counter by using T flip flop with an irregular binary count
sequence of 1, 2, 5, 7.
iii) Design a sequence generator using D flip-flop to generate the sequence 100011.
iv) Draw a logic diagram, truth table and output wave forms for a 4-bit ripple counter.
_________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
S.E. (E and TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

DATA STRUCTURE USING C
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.



1) Deletion and insertions in a stack are carried out from
a) Front b) Rear c) Top d) Pop
2) If top is initialized to 1 and the position of top is at 4, then number of elements in a stack is
a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 0
3) Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to postfix notation ?
a) Tree b) Stack c) Link list d) Queue
4) If the insertion and deletions happen from both the ends then the queue is called a
a) Dequeue b) Header queue c) Queue d) Circular queue
5) What can we say about the array representation of a circular queue, when it contains
only one element ?
a) Front = rear = NULL b) Front = rear + 1
c) Front = rear 1 d) Front = rear 1 = NULL
6) Recursively the fib(3) is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0
7) The following sequence of operations carried out on a stack
push (A), push (B), pop (), push (A), push (B), pop (), pop (), pop (), push (B), pop (). The
sequence of popped out item is
a) BBAAB b) BBABA c) BABBA d) BAABB
8) What is the time required to search an element in a DLL of length n ?
a) 0 (1) b) 0 (logn) c) 0 (n) d) 0 (n2)
9) If head node contains NULL, then the number of nodes in SLL is
a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 0
P.T.O.

10) _________ field of the first node contains address of second node in a DLL.
a) Header b) Next c) Data d) Previous
11) If h is any hashing function and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n < = m,
then expected number of collisions involving a particular key x is
a) Less than 1 b) Less than n c) Less than m d) Less than n/2
12) You have to sort a list L consisting of sorted list followed by a few random elements.
Which of the following sorting methods would be especially suitable for such a task ?
a) Bubble sort b) Selection sort c) Quick sort d) Insertion sort
13) For an undirected graph with n vertices and e edges, the sum of the degree of each
vertex is equal to
a) 2n b) (2n 1)/2 c) 2e d) e2/2
14) The complexity of merge sort algorithm is
a) 0 (n) b) 0 (log n) c) 0 (n2) d) 0 (n log n)
15) If a node having two children is deleted from a binary tree, it is replaced by its
a) Inorder predecessor b) Inorder successor
c) Preorder predecessor d) None of the above
16) The number of interchanges required to sort 5, 1, 6, 2, 4 in ascending order using bubble
sort is
a) 6 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8
17) The complexity of searching an element from a set of n elements using binary search
algorithm is
a) 0 (n) b) 0 (log n) c) 0 (n2) d) 0 (n log n)
18) The number of leaf nodes in a complete binary tree of depth d is
a) 2d b) 2d 1 + 1 c) 2d + 1 + 1 d) 2d + 1
19) For the following tree, the inorder traversal results in
a) ABDEFCGHJKL b) DFEBGKJLHCA
c) DBFEAGCKJHL d) ABDEGHFCKL
20) The depth of a binary tree is
a) The minimum level of any leaf in the tree
b) Maximum height of any node in the tree
c) Maximum height of tree
d) The maximum level of any leaf in the tree
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (E and TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

DATA STRUCTURE USING C

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All question are compulsory.


a) Define data structure. Explain the dequeue with neat diagram.
b) Write an algorithm to convert in bin expression to postfix expression.
c) What is link list ? Explain the different types of link list with a suitable example.
d) Define DLL. Explain the operations of creation and insertion of DLL.
e) Write a C program to finding the Fibonacci sequence with recursive functions.
3. Solve any two : (2×10=20)

a) Evaluate the following postfix expression
i) 98 + 382 /
2+
ii) 593 + 42

7+
b) What are the applications of SLL and DLL ?

c) Evaluate the following postfix expressions with their values
i) AB$C D EF/GH +/+ for A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 10, F = 1, G = 2

and H = 3.
ii) ABCDE$ / for A = 1, B = 2, C = 2, D = 1 and E = 2.


a) Compare linear search and binary search.
b) What is hashing ? Explain any two hashing functions.
c) Use bubble sort technique to sort the following :
3, 27, 22, 12, 10, 6
Show the steps in each iteration.
Set A

d) Explain the algorithm for insertion of a node in a binary search tree with example.
e) Define the following terms with diagrams :
1) Undirected graph
2) Loop
3) Outdegree
4) Weighted graph
5) Null graph.

a) What is collision ? Explain open addressing technique in detail.
b) The following sequence gives the preorder and inorder traversal of binary tree :
Preorder : ABCDEGFHIJ
Inorder : BCAEGDHFIJ
Draw the binary tree. Show the intermediate steps.
c) Explain the Depth first traversal method of a graph with flowchart and example.
_______________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II)

Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
4) Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed.
1. Multiple choice questions : 20
1) The gain of negative feedback amplifier is 40 dB. If the attenuation of the feedback path is 50 dB,
the gain of the amplifier without feedback is
a) 78.92 b) 146.32 c) 215.51 d) 317.23
2) The advantages of using negative feedback in an amplifier is that its gain can be made practically
independent of
a) Temperature changes b) Age of components
c) Frequency d) All of the above
3) Negative feedback in an amplifier
a) Lowers its lower 3 dB frequency b) Raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) Increases its bandwidth d) All of the above
4) The darlington pair consist of the two stages
a) CE and CC b) Both CE c) Both CC d) CE and CB
5) The overall bandwidth of two identical voltage amplifiers connected in cascade will
a) Remains the same as that of a single stage
b) Be worse than that of a single stage
c) Be better than of a single stage
d) Be better if stage gain is low and worse if stage gain is high
6) In multistage amplifier direct coupling is especially suited for amplifying
a) High frequency AC signals b) Changes in DC voltages
c) High level voltages d) Sinusoidal signals
7) The startup gain of an oscillator must be ________ one.
a) Equal to b) Less than
c) Greater than d) None of these
8) At resonance the impedance of the crystal is
a) Minimum b) Maximum c) Equal to d) None of these
P.T.O.

9) From the following figure find VB2
+vcc = 20 v
C1 1.2K
Q1
Q2 RL
C2
vin
1.2K
a) 0V b) 0.7V c) 9.3V d) 10.7V

10) The main features of a large signal amplifier is the circuits
a) Power efficiency b) Max. power limitation
c) Impedance matching d) All of the above
11) The reference voltage and dropout voltage for fixed voltage regulator 7805 respectively are
a) 2V, 5V b) 5V, 5V c) 3V, 5V d) 4V, 5V
12) Match the following
i) IC 74123 A) Negative fixed voltage regulator
ii) IC 337 B) Negative adjustable voltage regulator
iii) IC 7912 C) Retriggerable monostable
iv) IC 555 D) V to F converter
a) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D b) i-C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D
c) i-A, ii-D, iii-B, iv-C d) None of these
13) Pulse width for monostable multivibrator with R = 100K and C = 0.05 F is

a) 21.1 ms b) 0.011 sec.

c) 5.5 msec. d) None of these
14) For LM 317, Iadj. = 100
A, R1 = 240
, R = 3.4 K , the output voltage for the circuit is

a) 14 V b) 13 V c) 1.399 V d) None of these

15) The conversion efficiency of class B power amplifier is
a) 50% b) 62.5% c) 78.5% d) 25%
16) Schmitt trigger circuit is also
a) Square wave converter b) Level detector
c) Bistable multivibrator d) All of the above
17) If charging time of astable multivibrator is 5 seconds and discharging time is 4 seconds then duty
cycle =
a) 65.55% b) 55.55% c) 75% d) 100%
18) The power supply has no load voltage and full load voltage of 15 V and 12.5 V respectively, then
percentage load regulation is
a) 25% b) 20% c) 16.66% d) 25.5%
19) IC 555 can be used to design
a) Ramp generator b) Square wave generator
c) Voltage to frequency converter d) All of the above
20) The circuit which generate a delay on power on is called
a) Monostable multivibrator b) Power on delay circuit
c) Bistable multivibrator d) Both (a) and (b)
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II)

Examination, 2015

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
4) Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following (any four) : (4×5=20)

1) Describe cascode amplifier.
2) Explain multistage amplifier ? What is the need of cascading multiple stages ?
3) What is the effect of negative feedback on frequency response and gain of an amplifier ?
4) What is complementary symmetry power amplifier ?
5) Identify the type of negative feedback present in the following circuit. Calculate feedback factor .

+v cc
R1 55K 5K
v0
R2 10K 1K
vi
6) Derive frequency of oscillations for hartely oscillator.
3. Answer the following (any 2) : (2×10=20)

1) Derive the expressions for Rif, Rof Avf for voltage series feedback amplifier and current series
feedback amplifier.
2) Calculate maximum output AC power, maximum input DC power, maximum percentage efficiency
and transistor dissipation for a Class B amplifier using a supply of Vcc = 28 V and driving a load of
16 .
3) Design Wien bridge oscillator using transistor for frequency range from 20Hz to 200KHz with peak
output of 5V at RL = 1K . Use Vcc = 12V.

Set A

SECTION II

a) Design the circuit using IC 555 to switch on and off the LED in a regular interval 50 ms.
b) Describe the features of IC74121 and IC74123.
c) With suitable circuit diagram and waveform, explain Schmitt trigger using transistor.
d) Design constant current source using IC7812 for current variations between 20-50 mA for maximum
output voltage 20V.
e) Design power on delay circuit for providing a delay of 5 second.
5. Solve any two : (10×2=20)

a) Design transistorized series voltage regulator with pre regulator for providing constant output
voltage of 15V, input voltage variations are between 20-30V, load current is 1A. (Assume suitable
data)
b) Design square wave generator circuit using transistor for frequency 10KHz, duty cycle 60% and
amplitude 10V.
c) Define line and load regulation and with suitable circuit diagram explain the different protection
circuit for voltage regulator.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (E&TC) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Assume suitable data, if required.
3) Figure to right indicate full marks.


1) Thermal noise is also called as
a) Johnson noise b) Resistor noise c) White noise d) All of above
2) In a communication receiver, the noise is most likely to affect the signal
a) at the transmitter b) in the channel
c) in the information source d) at the destination
3) Flicker noise is
a) inversely proportional to frequency b) directly proportional to frequency
c) independent of frequency d) is constant over all frequencies
4) When dealing with random noise calculations it must be remembered that
a) all calculations are based on peak to peak values
b) all calculations are based on peak values
c) all calculations are based on average values
d) all calculations are based on root mean square values
5) Which of the following is the most reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise
characteristics ?
a) signal to noise ratio b) noise factor
c) shot noise d) thermal noise
6) The transmitted power in AM is
a) directly proportional to modulation index b) inversely proportional to modulation index
c) constant d) independent of modulation index
7) Base modulation is considered to be
a) low level modulation b) high level modulation
c) linear amplifier d) buffer amplifier
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 168 -2- *SLRPC168*
8) Vestigial sideband modulation is used for transmission of

a) HF point to point communication b) monaural broadcasting
c) TV broadcasting d) stereo broadcasting
9) One of the following cannot be used to remove unwanted sideband in SSB
a) filter system b) phase shift method
c) third method d) balanced modulator
10) A balanced modulator is used to generate
a) Double Sideband Full Carrier (DSBFC)
b) Double Sideband Suppressed Carrier (DSBSC)
c) Single Sideband (SSB)
d) Independent Sideband (ISB)
11) In FM, noise to signal ratio (N/S) increases with an
a) increase in modulating frequency b) decrease in modulating frequency
c) increase in carrier frequency d) decrease in carrier frequency
12) Wideband FM uses a frequency deviation of
a) 75 kHz b) 10 kHz c) 180 kHz d) 100 kHz
13) FM receivers have in intermediate frequency value of
a) 455 kHz b) 10.7 MHz c) 30 MHz d) 60 MHz
14) A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal at 1200 kHz.
The image frequency is
a) 750 kHz b) 900 kHz c) 1650 kHz d) 2100 kHz
15) The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver
a) is created within the receiver itself
b) is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
c) is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
d) is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned
16) For a folded dipole antenna, the input impedance is
a) four times that of the straight dipole b) two times that of the straight dipole
c) half of that of the straight dipole d) eight times that of the straight dipole
17) All broadcast radio signals received in daytime propagate by means of
a) tropospheric waves b) troposcatter
c) surface waves d) none of above
18) The critical frequency of a given layer is _________ after having beamed straight up at it.
a) the highest frequency that will be returned down to the earth
b) the lowest frequency that will be returned down to the earth
c) the particular frequency that will be returned to the earth
19) In a crossbar exchange, in the group selection stage
a) the call is started by originating marker
b) the call is switched through the desired direction
c) the calling subscriber is connected to the called subscriber
20) A telephone switching system provides
a) subscriber loop signalling b) Interexchange signalling
c) Intraexchange signalling d) all of above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC168* -3- SLR-PC – 168
Seat
No.
S.E. (E&TC) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Assume suitable data, if required.
SECTION – I
1) State and explain different source of noise.

2) Explain different transmission media used in communication system.
3) Compare the TRF and superheterodyne receiver types. Which is better ? Why ?
4) Explain why VSB is required in video transmission. Draw frequency response and show
different elements.
5) Explain the working of practical diode detector.
1) What are the generation technique for SSB ? Explain any one method in detail with the
help of block diagram.
2) Explain the working of balanced modulator using FET. State the mathematical analysis.
3) a) The total power content of an AM signal is 1000 W. Determine the power being
transmitted at the carrier frequency and at each of the side bands. When the percent
modulation is 100%. 5
b) The percent modulation of an AM wave changes from 40% to 60%. Originally, the
power content at the carrier frequency was 900 W. Determine the power content at
the carrier frequency and within each of the side bands after the percent modulation
has rises to 60%. 5
Set A

SLR-PC – 168 -4- *SLRPC168*
SECTION – II
1) Distinguish between narrow band FM and wide band FM.
2) Explain the operation of FET reactance modulator.
3) Compare and contrast strowger and crossbar switching system.
4) Compare manual and automatic switching system in telephone.
5) Explain ground wave propagation.
1) Explain how armstrong method converts phase modulation into frequency modulation.
2) Define and explain beam width, radiation resistance and antenna gain.
3) Explain time division switching and space division switching in detail.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
CONTROL SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) The block diagram contains
a) System output variable b) System input variable
c) The functional relations of the variables d) All the above
2) In SFG the nodes represent
a) The system variable b) The system gain
c) The system parameters d) None of above
3) The output of feedback control system must be a function of
a) Reference I/P and O/P b) Output
c) Reference input d) Reference I/P and error signal
4) Signal flow graph is a
a) Topological representation of non-linear differential equation
b) Schematic graph
c) Special type of graph for analysis of modern control system
d) Plot between frequency and magnitude in dB
5) The block diagram is given below is equivalent to
a) b) c) d)
6) As compared to closed loop system an open loop system is

a) More stable as well as more accurate b) Less stable as well as less accurate
c) More stable but less accurate d) Less stable but more accurate
7) The open loop control system is one in which
a) O/P is independent of control I/P
b) Only system parameters have effect on control output
c) O/P is dependent on control I/P
d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 169 -2- *SLRPC169*
8) In F-V analogy, velocity is analogous to
a) Voltage b) Current c) Charge d) None of above
9) When two or more blocks connected in parallel, resultant block is the ______ of
individual block transfer function.
a) Product b) Division c) Sum d) Subtraction
10) The friction is represented by F =
d2 x(t )
a) B x(t) b) B
2
c) B dx(t ) d) B
dt dt
11) Transient response of a system is mainly due to
a) Internal forces b) Stored energy c) Friction d) Inertia forces
12) The system is represented by its transfer function has poles lying on the imaginary
axis then the system is said to be
a) unstable b) marginal stable c) stable d) none of these
13) Which of the following is not a electromechanical system
a) stepper motor b) transformer c) synchro d) DC motor
14) A unity feedback system has an open loop transfer function is
G(S)H(S) = K
S(S + 4S + 13) the angle of asymptotes are given by
2
a) 45°, 135°, 225° b) 60°, 180°, 300° c) 90°, 180°, 270° d) 45°, 90°, 135°
15) The lead compensator introduces
a) phase lead in the system
b) attenuation in the system
c) amplification in the system
d) initially phase lead and then phase lag in system
16) In AC servomotor control voltage is ________ out of phase w.r.t. reference voltage.
a) 90° b) 180° c) 40° d) 120°
17) The peak overshoot is given by,
a) %M = e − πξ 1 − ξ2 b) %M = e − πξ 1 − 2 ξ2
P P
2 2
c) %M = e −ξ 1 + ξ d) %M = e −πξ 2 − ξ
P P
18) If one pole is at origin it contributes __________ slope.
a) –20 dB/Decade b) –40 dB/Decade c) 0 dB/Decade d) 120 dB/Decade
19) Determine the no. of sign changes in first column of the following equation
S3 + 6S2 + 11S + 6.
a) two b) four c) one d) no sign change occurs
40(S + 2)
20) G(S)H(S) = positional error co-efficient for the system is
S(S + 1) (S + 4)
a) 0 b) 40 c) one d) ∞
______________
Set A

*SLRPC169* -3- SLR-PC – 169
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

CONTROL SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Find the transfer function for following circuit :
b) Explain liquid level control system.

c) Explain angle condition and magnitude condition.
d) Explain standard test input signals.
e) Derive the formula for mason’s gain formula.
3. Solve any two : (10×2=20)

a) Explain stepper motor in detail.
b) Explain force-voltage and force-current analogy.
c) Construct the signal flow graph for the following set of equations.
Y2 = G1Y1 + G3 Y3 Y3 = G4 Y1 + G2 Y2 + G5 Y3 Y4 = G6 Y2 + G7 Y3 where Y4 is the
Y
output. Find the transfer function 4 .
Y1
SECTION – II

a) Explain Lag-Lead compensator.
C(S) 25
b) A second order system is given by = 2 find its rise time, peak
R(S) S + 6S + 25
time, peak overshoot and settling time.
Set A

SLR-PC – 169 -4- *SLRPC169*
c) Explain the rules of root locus in brief.

d) Find F-V analogy of following mechanical system.
e) Explain frequency response specifications.
5. Solve any two : (10×2=20)
80
a) Draw the bode plot of following system G(S)H(S) = and
S(S + 2) (S + 20)
comment on stability.
b) Draw the root locus for the system G(S)H(S) = K(S + 4) .

S(S 2 + 2S + 2)
10(S + 1)
c) For unity feedback system having G(S)H(S) = determine
2
S (S + 2) (S + 10)
i) Type of system
ii) Error co-efficients
t2
iii) 1 + 4t + .
2
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Civil) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
STRUCTURAL MECHANICS – II
Day and Date : Wednesday 13-5-2015 Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Figures right to indicate full marks.

1) At a certain cross section of a shaft 150 mm in dia. there is a bending moment
of 5 kN m and twisting moment of 12 kNm. The maximum direct
stress induced in the section will be 1
a) 27.176 N/mm2 b) 27176.222 N/mm2
c) 2.7176222 × 106 N/mm2 d) 2717.6222 N/mm2
2) The equivalent length is equal to half the actual length of a column with 1
a) One end fixed and other end free b) Both end fixed
c) Both end hinged d) One end fixed and other end hinged
3) The strength of column with both ends fixed is ________ times the strength of column
when its one end is fixed and other end free other parameters remaining same. 1
a) 16 b) 4 c) 2 d) 18
4) Bending moment at every section of three hinged arch subjected to UDL over
entire span is 1
a) Twice the reaction b) Zero c) Half the reaction d) None of the above
5) Maximum principal strain theory was postulated by 1
a) St. Venant b) Rankine c) Mohr d) Tresca
6) Two struts are made of the same material. The length of the first strut is one forth of
the second the ratio of Eulers buckling load for the first strut to that of second is 1
a) 16 : 1 b) 1 : 16 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1
7) The torque transmitted by solid shaft of diameter 50 mm if the shear stress is not
exceed 48 N/mm2 would be 1
a) 0.375 π N-m b) 1.8 π N-m c) 37.5 π kN-m d) 4.0 π kN-m
P.T.O.

8) The equivalent bending moment M under action of bending moment and torque
T is 1
a) M2 + T2 b) M + M2 + T2 c) 1/2 ( M2 + T2) d) 1/2 (M + M2 + T2)
9) An arch acts as inverted cable so it receives 1
a) Tension b) Compression
c) Bending moment d) All of the above
10) The maximum shear stress on principal plane is 1
a) Zero b) Twice of max principal stress
c) Twice of min principal stress d) None of the above
11) The value of Young’s modulus of elasticity in tension is, 1
a) Less than that in compression b) More than that in compression
c) Same as that in tension d) None
12) Slope at the supports of a simply supported beam carrying a point load at
the centre is given by 1
WL 2 WL 3 WL 2 WL 3
a) b) c) d)
6 EI 12 EI 16 EI 16 EI
13) A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole span.
The deflection at the centre is y. If the distributed load per unit length is doubled
and also depth of the beam is doubled, then the deflection at the centre would be 2
y y
a) 2y b) 4y c) d)
2 4
14) Influence line method is used for 1
a) Moving load b) Rolling load c) Static load d) Both a) and b)
15) Castigliano’s theorem deals with 1
a) Axial thrust b) Bending moment c) Torsion d) Strain energy
16) Influence line diagrams are based upon following 1
a) Betti’s principle b) Castigliano’s theorems
c) Muller Breslau’s principle d) Saint-Venant’s principle
17) The amount of deflection of a beam subjected to some type of loading
depends upon 1
a) Cross section b) Bending moment c) Length d) All above
18) ILD for B.M. for following beam carrying unit rolling load is like, 2
a) b) c) d)
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS – II
Day and Date : Wednesday 13-5-2015 Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures right to indicates full marks.

2) Use of non-programmable calculator is permissible.
4) Solve any three questions in Section – I.
5) Solve any three questions in Section – II.
6) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
2. a) Determine the ratio of buckling strength of two circular columns-one hollow and
other solid. Both the columns are made of the same material and have same length,
cross-sectional area and end conditions. The internal diameter
of the hollow column is half of its external diameter. 6
b) A steel column of 10 m effective length consist of two channels ISLC 350 placed
back to back at spacing of 250 mm. Find the critical load for the column by Euler’s
theory. Take E = 2 × 105 N/mm2.
Properties of one channel ISLC 350 are given below :
Area = 4947 mm2 Ixx = 9312.6 × 104 mm4 Iyy = 394.6 × 104 mm4
Distance of center of Gravity from back of the channel = 24.1 mm.
Figure No. 1 8
Set A

3. a) At a certain point in a stressed body, the principal stress are σ x = 80 MPa and
σ y = – 40 MPa. Determine σ and τ on plane whose normals are at + 30°
and + 120° with the x axis using graphical method. 8
b) Define principal stress and principal plane. Also write an expression for the principal
stresses at a certain point in a stressed body subjected to σ x , σ y and τ . 5
4. a) Define equivalent BM and Equivalent Torque. 4

b) A solid circular shaft of dia. 150 mm carries B.M. and T.M. of magnitudes 60 kN-m
and 80 kN-m respectively. Find the major principal stress induced in
the section. Where does it develop ? 9
5. a) Enlist different theories of Elastic failure. Explain maximum principal strain

theory. 5
b) A three-hinged parabolic arch of uniform cross section has a span of 60 m and a
rise of 10 m. It is subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity 10 kN/m as
shown in Fig. No. 2. Show that the bending moment is zero at any
cross section of the arch. 8
SECTION – II
6. A beam ABC of length 9 m has one support of the left hand and the other support at a
distance of 6 m from the left end. The beam carries a point load of 12 kN at right end
and also carries a uniformly distributed load of 4 kN/m over a length of 3 m as shown
in fig. Determine the slope and deflection at C. Use Macaulay’s method. 13
Set A

7. a) State Castigliano’s first theorem. 2
b) The bend ABC shown in Fig. carries a concentrated vertical load ‘P’ at A. Find
the vertical and horizontal deflections of A. Assume uniform flexural rigidity. 12
8. a) Define influence line diagram. Give its significance. 4
b) A uniformly distributed load of 50 kN/m of 6 m length crosses a girder of span 40 m

from left to right. With the help of influence lines, determine the values of S.F. and
B.M. at a point 12 m from the left support, when the head of the load is 16 m from
the left support. 9
9. Draw the influence lines for reactions at supports A, B, C and bending moment at
support B for the beam shown in fig. There is a hinge provided at D. Find their max.
values when a travelling load of 60 kN per metre may cover any part of the span. 13
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (Part – II) (Electronics and Telecomm. Engineering)
Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) Which of below configuration of Op-Amp has smallest bandwidth ?
a) open loop b) non-inverting
c) inverting d) differential
2) What should be maximum bandwidth for a gain of 100 in case of IC 741 ?
a) 1 MHz b) 100 KHz c) 10 KHz d) 1 KHz
3) Average of the two input bias currents of an Op-Amp is called as
a) input current b) offset current
c) input offset current d) none of above
4) Op-Amp is ___________ coupled __________ amplifier.
a) capacitor, high gain b) directly, class AB
c) directly, high gain d) capacitor, nonlinear
5) Output offset voltage changes with
a) temperature b) time
c) supply voltage d) all of above
6) Frequency at which gain is 3 dB down of it’s value at 0 Hz is called as
a) UGB b) break frequency
c) noise frequency d) all of these
7) + Vsat/ (1 + AB) is total output offset voltage for
a) Inverting amplifier b) Non-inverting amplifier
c) Both a and b d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 170 -2- *SLRPC170*
8) Voltage follower is special case of
a) inverting amplifier b) non inverting amplifier
c) differential amplifier d) clipping circuit
9) A scaling amplifier can be designed using _________ configuration.
a) inverting amplifier b) non inverting amplifier
c) differential amplifier d) all of above
10) For a practical integrator __________ is used in feedback.
a) Only C b) Only R
c) R and C in series d) R and C in parallel
11) Zero crossing detector is special case of
a) basic comparator b) peak detector
c) schmitt trigger d) window detector
12) Which of below is an open loop application ?
a) Window detector b) Zero crossing detector
c) Voltage comparator d) All of above
13) Which of the following oscillator is better for variable frequency operation ?
a) phase shift b) wien bridge
c) both a and b d) none
14) For function generator IC 8038, magnitude of sine wave output is given by
a) 0.22 Vs b) 0.11 Vs c) 0.33 Vs d) none
15) To obtain triangular wave from square wave _________ is used.
a) differentiator b) integrator c) clamper d) clipper
16) A negative half wave precision rectifier uses ___________ in feedback loop.
a) resistor b) capacitor
c) no component (short) d) diode
17) VCO is
a) Voltage Compensated Oscillator b) Voltage Controlled Offset
c) Voltage to Current Converter d) Voltage to Frequency Converter
18) PLL can be used as
a) Analog multiplier b) Frequency multiplier
c) Both a and b d) None
19) The advantage of active filter is
a) gain adjustment flexibility b) frequency adjustment flexibility
20) For first order low pass filter if fH is 1 KHz, passband gain is 2 and C = 0.01 μ F,
the value of R is __________ Ω .
a) 1.59 K b) 1 K
c) 11.9 K d) None of these
Set A
______________

*SLRPC170* -3- SLR-PC – 170
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part – II) (Electronics and Telecomm. Engineering)

Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION – I
a) Draw and explain high frequency equivalent circuit of Op-Amp.
b) Derive expression for gain of inverting amplifier using virtual ground concept.
c) Derive the expression for voltage gain of differential amplifier using two
Op-Amp.
d) Explain I to V converter using Op-Amp.
e) Explain universal balancing techniques for Op-Amp.
3. a) Explain summing, scaling and averaging amplifier using non-inverting mode

of Op-Amp. 10
OR
b) Explain basic integrator and practical integrator with circuit, waveforms and
frequency response. 10
c) Derive expression for voltage gain with feedback, input resistance with
feeedback and output resistance with feedback for voltage series feedback
amplifier using Op-Amp. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 170 -4- *SLRPC170*
SECTION – II
a) Explain window detector using Op-Amp.
b) Draw and explain phase shift oscillator using Op-Amp.
c) Explain sample and hold circuit.
d) Explain frequency multiplier using PLL.

e) What are advantages of active filters ?
5. a) With neat circuit and waveforms, explain square wave generator using
Op-Amp. Write expression for time period of output. 10
OR
b) With the help of block diagram and pin diagram, explain the operation of
function generator IC 8038. 10
c) Explain second order low pass butterworth filter using Op-Amp. Explain
filter design steps. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) With u (n) as unit step function, u (n) – u (n – 1) is
a) δ (n) b) δ (n) – δ (n – 1)
c) δ (n) + δ (n – 1) d) δ (n) + δ (n + 1)
π
2) The period of the function cos (t – 1) is
4
a) 1/8 sec b) 4 sec c) 8 sec d) none of these
3) Any periodic signal may be called as
a) causal b) non-causal c) anti causal d) none
4) y (n) = odd [x (n)], the system is
a) dynamic, nonlinear b) static, linear
c) atatic, nonlinear d) dynamic, linear
5) If y (t) = a t2 x (t) + b t x (t – 2), the system is
a) linear, time invariant b) nonlinear, time variant
c) linear, time variant d) nonlinear, time invariant
n n −1
6) Consider the signal x (n) = ∑ m = − ∞ ∂ (m) − ∑ m = − ∞ ∂ (m) is same as
a) δ (n − 1) b) δ (n) − δ (n − 1) c) δ (n) d) none of these
∞
7) The system s = ∑ n = 0 u (n) = ∞ is
a) unstable b) stable c) quasistable d) none of these
8) The linear convolution of x1 (n) = (1, – 2, 3, 1) and x2 (n) = (2, – 3, – 2) is given by
a) y (n) = (2, – 7, 10, – 3, – 9, 1) b) y (n) = (2, – 5, 10, – 3 , – 9, – 2)
c) y (n) = (2, – 7, 10, – 3, – 9, – 2) d) none of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 171 -2- *SLRPC171*
9) Given h (n) = 5n u (3 – n), the system is

a) causal, stable b) causal, unstable
c) non-causal, stable d) non-causal, unstable
10) The signal u (t) – u (t – 1) is
a) energy signal b) power signal
11) If x (n) = u (n) – u (n – 3) then ROC is
a) Entire Z plane
b) Entire Z plane, except z = 0
c) Entire Z plane, except z = ∞
d) Entire Z plane, except z = 0 and z = ∞
12) For a signal x (t) = 1 + cos 10 πt + cos 40 πt then Nyquist rate is
a) 10 Hz b) 20 Hz c) 25 Hz d) 40 Hz
13) Dirichlet conditions for periodic signals are : In each period
a) The function x (t) has only finite number of maxima and minima
b) The function x (t) has finite number of discontinuties
c) The function x (t) is absolutely integrable over one period
d) All the above
14) When the system has poles inside the unit circle in Z-domain
a) The system is stable and its impulse response is a decaying function
b) The domain behavior will be exponentially rising signal
c) The system is unstable
d) The impulse response is marginally constant
15) A signal x (t) has a Fourier transform X (w). If x (t) is a real and odd function of t, then X (w) is
a) A real and even function of w b) An imaginary and odd function of w
c) An imaginary and even function of w d) A real and odd function of w
16) The Fourier transform of f (at) is given by
a) f (at) ↔ aF (w) b) f (at) ↔ (2/a) F (w)
c) f (at) ↔ (1/a) F (w/a) d) none of these
17) Sampling a signal is equivalent to multiplying it with
a) A sync function b) A train of impulse
c) A train of sync functions d) A rectangular window
18) Z transform reduces to Fourier transform when it is evaluated on
a) A half circle b) Z circle c) Unit circle d) Imaginary circle
19) If x (n) exists only for n < 0 then it is called as _____ sequence.
a) Bilateral b) Unilateral c) Both a and b d) None
20) The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not have the
a) DC term b) Cosine term
c) Sine term d) Odd harmonic terms
______________
Set A

*SLRPC171* -3- SLR-PC – 171
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) A continuous time signal x (t) shown in figure below. Sketch and label carefully each of
the following signals
i) x (t + 1) ii) x (1 – t/2)
x (t)
2
–1 0 1
–1
b) Determine whether following signal is periodic or not. If periodic, find fundamental period.
i) x (t) = jej5t ii) x (t) = 3 cos 4t + 2 sin πt
c) Show that if x1 (n) is an odd signal and x2 (n) is even signal, then x1 (n).x2 (n) is an odd signal.
d) Find which of the following signals are causal or not.
i) x (t) = eat u (t) ii) x (n) = u (n + 3) – u (n – 2)
e) Explain system properties.

a) Check whether following system y (t) = even [x(t)] is
i) static or dynamic ii) linear or non-linear
iii) causal or non-causal iv) time variant or time invariant
b) Obtain convolution of LTI sequence with input x (n) and unit impulse response h (n) given
as x (n) = (0.5)n u (n) h (n) = u (n)
c) Determine whether the system with unit impulse response h (t) = e– 3t. u (t – 2) is stable
and causal justify your answer.
Set A

SLR-PC – 171 -4- *SLRPC171*
SECTION – II

1) State and explain sampling theorem in detail.
2) State and prove convolution property of Fourier transform.
3) Find Z transform with its ROC for x (n) = 2n – 2. u (– n – 1).
4) Obtain inverse Fourier transform of x (t) = e – at.u (t).
5) Find Z transform of x (n) = sin (won) . u (n)

1) Find the Fourier transform of x (t) = e –a/t/.
2) A) Find Z transform of x (n) = u (n).
B) Determine the sequence x (n) associated with Z.T given below using partial fraction
2z 2
expansion method. X (z) = ; Right sided sequence.
(z + 1) (z + 2)2
3) Find Fourier series coefficient for the continuous time periodic signal
⎧1.5 for 0 < t < 1
x ( t) = ⎨ with fundamental frequency ω0 = π .
⎩− 1.5 for 1 < t < 2
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING AND RADIATING SYSTEMS (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary.

1. Solve the following : (1×20=20)

1) The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges
is doubled, the force will be
a) 60 N b) 30 N c) 40 N d) 15 N
2) The direction of electric field due to positive charge is
a) Away from the charge b) Towards the charge
3) The units of capacitance are
a) Volts/Coulomb b) Coulombs/Volt
c) Ohms d) Henry/Wb
4) The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is
equal to the amount of charge enclosed. The statement is associated with
a) Coulombs square law b) Gausss law
c) Maxwells first law d) Maxwells second law
5) Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
a) E = D/
b) E = D2/t c) E = D
d) E = D2

6) The relative permittivity of free space is given by

a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000
7) Electric field intensity is a quantity
a) scalar b) vector c) both a) and b) d) none of the above
P.T.O.

8) The relative permittivity of vacuum is
a) 8.854 b) 8.854 × 1312 c) Unity d) Zero
9) Electric dipole moment is given by
a) P = Qd2 b) P = d3
c) P = QD d) None of the above
10) Energy density in magnetic field is
a) b) c) d)

- - 0 0
11) For perfect dielectric material the attenuation factor is is equal to

a) infinity b) zero c) constant d) 1/
12) In Yagi Uda Array, the back lobe is minimized due to use of
a) Directors b) Active element
c) Reflector d) Current element
13) For an EM wave if both Ex and Ey are present and are of same magnitude
and time phase difference between the two components is 90° then the
wave is said to be
a) Linearly polarized in x direction b) Linearly polarized in y direction
c) Circularly polarized d) Eliptically polarized
14) Beam solid angle of an isotropic antenna is
a) 1 b) 4 c) 4 2
d)
15)
is known as
a) Proportional const. b) Personal const.
c) Parameter const. d) Propagation const.
16) The intrinsic impedance for free space is
a) b) c) d)
K
j u
K K
j

17) The conductivity of free space is

a) =1
b) =0
c)
=
d)
= 1
18) The direction of propagation of EM wave is given by
a) E b) H c) E × H d) E.H
19) The radiation field of an antenna at a distance r varies
a) 1/r b) 1/r2 c) 1/r3 d) 1/r4
20) The average poynting vector can be given as
a) 1/2 Re (E × H*) b) Re (E × H) c) E × H d) E × H* Set A
______________

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING AND RADIATING SYSTEMS (Old)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four : 20

a) State and explain the Strokes theorem in detail.
b) Convert the following points specified in Cylindrical into Cartesian coordinate
system.
i) 2 , 5

3
, 2
ii)

4 , , 1

c) Prove that -
= grad V.
d) Starting from point form of Gausss law derive the Poissons and Laplace
equations.
e) Explain the concept of vector magnetic potential in detail.

a) Two uniform line charges, 8 nC/m each, are located at x = 1, z = 0 and at
x = 1, y = 2 in free space. If potential at the origin is 100 V, find potential at
P(4, 1, 3).
b) State Amperes law and prove that H J
.
c) What are the boundary conditions ? Derive the boundary conditions in
electrostatic field.
Set A

SECTION II

a) Write Maxwells equation in point and integral form for time varying field.
(Derivation is not expected).
b) Given E(z, t) = 103 sin (wt
z) ay in free space. Find H(z, t).
c) Explain loop antenna.
d) A thin dipole antenna is ( /15) and ( /16) long. Find radiation resistance.

e) Find depth of penetration,

of an EM wave in copper at f = 60 Hz. For copper

= 5.8 × 107 mho/m,
H
= 1,
r = 1.

a) Explain five basic antenna parameters in detail.
b) Explain end-fire and broad side antenna arrays.
c) Given E = 10 sin (wt z) ay v/m in free space. Determine D, B, H.

_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes

I. Choose one of the correct alternatives : 20
1) Highly probable message contains
a) Greatest amount of information
b) Little information
c) Amount of information is not dependent upon probability of the message
d) None of these
2) Following is not a disadvantage of digital communication
a) Binary coding
b) Critical synchronization requirement
c) Quantization noise
d) Presence of Jitter
3) Channel capacity
a) Restricts the rate at which information is transmitted
b) Gives the no. of signals that can be transmitted simultaneously
c) Is not at all dependent upon the channel noise
d) None of these
4) PCM transmission requires __________ bandwidth as compared to AM.
a) more b) less c) same d) none of these
5) Quantization noise occurs in
a) PAM b) TDM c) PWM d) PPM
6) The entropy of a message source generating 4 message with probabilities
0.5, 0.25, 0.125 and 0.125 is
a) 1 bit/msg b) 1.75 bits/msg c) 3.32 bits/msg d) 5.93 bits/msg
7) PCM systems require regenerative repeaters over long distances. The correct
sequence of the operations which such a repeater perform is
a) Timing, equalization and decision making
b) Equalization, timing and decision making
c) Timing, thresholding and equalization
d) Thresholding, timing and equalization
8) In _________ equalizers, the error vector is continually estimated during the normal
course of data transmission.
a) Preset b) Adaptive c) Transversal d) None of these
P.T.O.

9) A device commonly used for recording undesirable bit strings is called a
a) unscrambler b) decoder c) encoder d) scrambler
10) Systems using signal dependent step sizes are called
a) PCM b) DM c) ADM d) DPCM

1 1 E b
a) b)
1 E b

e r f c
e r f c

2 2 2 N o
2 2 N o

1 E b 1 1 E b
c) 2
e r f c

N o

d) 2
e r f c

2 N o

12) The non-coherent ASK receiver is _________ than the coherent receiver.
a) more complex b) much simpler
c) less complex d) none of these
13) The bit stream 01001 is differentially encoded using Delay and EXOR scheme
for DPSK transmission. Assuming the reference bit as 1 and assigning phases
of 0 and for 1s and 0s, respectively in the encoded sequence, the

transmitted phase sequence becomes

a)
0 0 b) 0
00 c) 0
0 d) 0
14) A correlation receiver consists of

a) a multiplier and integrator b) an integrator only
c) multiplier only d) adder and integrator
15) Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be effected using
a) Correlation receiver b) Band pass filters and envelope detectors
c) Matched filter d) Discriminator
16) The key circuit used in a DPSK modulator is
a) NAND gate b) NOR gate
c) OR gate d) XOR/XNOR gate
17) The early late gate synchronizer is a technique used for
a) Carrier synchronization b) Symbol synchronization
c) Frame synchronization d) None of these
18) Multichannel signal transmission is commonly used on time-varying channels to
overcome the effects of
a) attenuation b) signal fading
c) amplification d) phase shift
19) Costas loop is a method for
20) Which of the techniques provides security in digital communication ?
a) Source coding b) Multiplexing
c) Carrier modulation d) Spread spectrum
__________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
II. a) Answer any three : 12

i) Define and explain the terms Bandwidth and S/N trade-off.
ii) With block diagram explain working of DM, also state its limitations.
iii) Explain Scrambling process with the help of neat diagram.
iv) Write short note on Inter Symbol Interference.
b) A DMS has eight symbols with different probabilities as below : 8
M M 1 M 2 M 3 M 4 M 5 M 6 M 7 M 8
P ( x ) 1 / 8 1 / 8 1 / 1 6 1 / 1 6 1 / 1 6 1 / 1 6 1 / 3 2 1 / 3 2
Construct Shannon fano code and calculate code efficiency.
III. a) Answer any two : 12

i) With the help of circuit diagram explain PWM modulator and demodulator.
ii) Compare in detail PCM and Analog modulation.
iii) Explain M-ary Signalling schemes. List the advantages of M-ary over binary
signalling schemes.
b) Write a short note on Eye-Diagram and list the information obtained from
eye-pattern. 8
Set A

SECTION II
IV. a) Answer any three : 12

i) Write a note on non coherent FSK demodulation technique.
ii) Explain Mth power loop method of carrier recovery technique.
iii) Write a note on multicarrier digital communication in AWGN channels.
iv) What do you mean by self synchronization ? Explain in detail in which
demodulation technique is used.
b) What is M-ary PSK system ? Explain the demodulation of M-ary coherent
PSK system with example. 8
V. a) Answer any two : 12

i) Write a short note on Frame Synchronization.
ii) Explain M-ary wideband FSK system.
iii) Write a note on matched filter.
b) Write a note on FFT based multicarrier system. 8
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Part – I) (E&TC) (Old) Examination, 2015
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) State-transition diagram is
a) A stimulus-response model b) Data-flow model
c) Architectural model d) Composition model
2) Which of the following is tool in design phase ?
a) Abstraction b) Refinement
c) Information hiding d) All above
3) Advantages of CBSE
a) Reduced software cost b) Faster delivery
c) Reduced risk d) All
4) Release testing is also known as
a) Functional testing b) Regression testing
c) Alfa testing d) None
5) Information hiding is to hide from user the details that
a) are relevant to user b) are not relevant to user
c) may be maliciously handled by user d) are confidential
6) A classification scheme that shows how object class is related to other classes is
known as
a) Relation b) Taxonomy c) Fixation d) None
7) Non functional requirements are ___________ associated with individual system feature.
a) Always b) Rarely c) Never d) None of these
8) Functional requirement specification of a system should be
a) Complete b) Consistent c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 174 -2- *SLRPC174*
9) Attributes of good software

a) maintainability b) dependability
c) efficiency and usability d) all
10) The goals of software testing leads to
a) defect testing b) violation testing
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) none
11) The highest level in a typical project reporting structure is
a) Project manager b) Steering committee
c) Team leader d) Human resource officer
12) ___________ is carried out to calculate the latest dates on which each activity may be
started and completed.
a) Backward pass b) Forward pass
c) End pass d) None
13) ___________ is one of the stages in creation of a programme.
a) Program infrastructure b) Blue print
c) Dependency diagram d) Estimate effort
14) Lack of skills and proven approach to project management and risk management leads to
a) Organization failure b) Management failure
c) Project risk d) Project failure
15) __________ provides a more striking visual indication of those activities that are not
progressing to schedule.
a) Slip chart b) Time line c) Gantt chart d) Ball chart
16) Any delay in _________ activities will cause a delay in completion date of the project.
a) free float b) base lined c) critical path d) scheduled
17) The base line budget is based on
a) activity network b) cost monitoring
c) proposed plan d) none
18) The diagram showing for each product which other products are required as input is
called __________ diagram.
a) product based b) precedence
c) product driven d) project process
19) One of the objectives of activity planning is
a) Planning b) Estimation c) Co-ordination d) None
20) Sponsoring group will get enough information from
a) Program mandate b) Program brief
c) Blue print d) Vision statement
______________
Set A

*SLRPC174* -3- SLR-PC – 174
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part – I) (E&TC) (Old) Examination, 2015

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Explain software evolution as a fundamental process activity.
b) Explain integration testing with neat diagram.
c) Explain CBSE approach with neat diagram.
d) Write attributes of good software.
e) Write a note on software requirement document.
3. a) Explain waterfall model in detail. (1×8=8)

OR
a) Explain interface testing in detail.
b) Explain ‘CASE’ (Computer Aided Software Engineering) in detail. (1×8=8)
c) Explain concept of path testing. (1×4=4)
SECTION – II
4. A) Attempt any two : (2×6=12)

i) Explain Gantt chart to visualize the progress of project.
ii) What are categories of risk ?
iii) Write a short note on forward pass for activity planning.
B) Solve all : (2×4=8)
i) Define critical path and give its significance.
ii) What are different categories of risk ?
5. A) Solve any one : (1×8=8)

a) What is change control ? Discuss the change control procedures.
b) Write a short note on CPM.
B) Attempt all : (3×4=12)
i) List rules and conventions for activity on arrow network.
ii) Explain different cost benefit analysis methods.
iii) What is project ? What are different activities of management ?
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – I)
Examination, 2015
DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct option : 20
1) Transform domain is used as it,
a) Enhances the signal b) Compresses the signal
c) Reduces data points d) Increases data points
2) Fourier transform of a rectangular window is
a) A sync function b) An impulse train
c) A modified sync function d) A rectangular window
3) The circular convolution of N-point sequences is evaluated in the range
a) – N < m < N b) – N < m < 0 c) 0 < m < N d) 0 < m < N – 1
4) Sectioned convolution is performed if one of the sequence is very much larger than the
other in order to overcome,
a) Long delay in getting output b) Larger memory space requirement
5) The discrete time system, y(n) = x(n – 3) – 4x(n – 10) is a
a) Dynamic system b) Memoryless system
c) Time varying system d) None of the above
6) If DFT {x(n)} = X(K) then DFT {x(n + m)N} is
− j2 πKm − j2πK j2πKm j2 πK
a) X(K ) e N b) X(K )e mN c) X(K )e N d) X(K )e mN
7) The phase factors are multiplied before add and subtract operation in
a) DIT Radix – 2 FFT b) DIF Radix – 2 FFT
c) Inverse DFT d) Both a) and c)
8) In DFT computation using Radix – 2 FFT, the value of N should be for m stages,
m
a) N = m b) N = 2m c) N = 2m d) N =
2
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 175 -2- *SLRPC175*
9) The direct form I and II structures of IIR system will be identical in,
a) All pole system b) All zero system
c) Both a and b d) First order and second order system
10) The realisation of linear phase FIR system for odd values of ‘N’ needs,
N N+1
a) multipliers b) multipliers c) N – 1 multipliers d) N multipliers
2 2
11) When analog Butterworth filter is converted to DT filter using impulse invariant technique,
then
a) Aliasing can be eliminated b) Aliasing is always present
c) Aliasing can be reduced by reducing T d) Aliasing cannot be reduced by reducing T
12) BLT method uses which of following mapping function :
Z −1 1+ S z −1 1+ Z
a) S = or Z = b) S = or S =
Z+1 1− S z+1 1− Z
z −1 1− S z+1 1+ S
c) S = or Z = d) S = or Z =
z+1 1+ S z −1 1− S
13) VLIW processing increases
a) Number of instructions that are processed per cycle
b) Complexity in processing
c) Execution time
d) None of above
14) A digital filter is causal if its impulse response
a) h(n) = 0 for n > 0 b) h(n) = 0 for n < 0
c) h(n) = 0 for n = 0 d) None of the above
15) Oscillations due to overflow of adder can be avoided
a) By avoiding overflow
b) By avoiding scaling at input
c) By modifying transfer characteristics of adder by allowing it to saturate
d) By modifying transfer characteristics of adder by allowing it to be linear
16) Gibb’s phenomenon occurred due to
a) Linear phase b) Truncation of infinite Fourier series
c) Window method d) None of above
17) VLIW architecture is preferred due to
a) Scalability b) Increased performance
c) Have more number of execution unit d) All of above
18) MAC function unit increments coefficient register pointer
a) By 2 b) By 4 c) By 6 d) By 1
19) The advantage of bilinear transformation is
a) One to one mapping b) No aliasing
20) The binary signed number 0.101011001 when rounded to eight bits will result in the number
given by
a) 0.10101101 b) 0.10101100 c) 0.10101111 d) 0.10101010
______________
Set A

*SLRPC175* -3- SLR-PC – 175
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – I)

Examination, 2015
DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
a) Check the following system for time invariance
i) y(n) = n x(n)
ii) y(n) = x(– n)
b) Find z-transform of
x(n) = (0.2)n u(n) + (0.6)nu(n) state ROC.
c) Find cross correlation of two finite length sequences
x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 1}
y(n) = {1, 1, 2, 1}
d) Find linear convolution using circular convolution.
x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 1}
h(n) = {1, 1, 1}
e) The first five points of 8-point DFT of a real valued sequence are
{28, – 4 + j9.565, – 4 + j4, – 4 + j1.656, – 4} Determine remaining three points.

a) Compute IDFT of the sequence
X(K) = {7, – 0.707 – j0.707, –j, 0.707 – j0.707, 1, 0.707 + j0.707, j, –0.707 + j0.707} using
DIT algorithm.
b) Perform linear convolution of following sequences using overlap add method.
x(n) = {1, 2, 3, – 1, – 2, – 3, 4, 5, 6}
h(n) = {2, 1, – 1}
c) Realise the system in cascade and parallel structure.
H(Z) =
(1+ Z −1)3 .
⎛ − 1 −1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜1 Z ⎟ ⎜ 1 − Z −1 + Z − 2 ⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠⎝ 2 ⎠
Set A

SLR-PC – 175 -4- *SLRPC175*
SECTION – II
1) Explain difference between general purpose processor and digital signal processor.
2) With block diagram explain FIR implementation technique.
3) Explain finite word length effects in designing IIR filter.
4) Explain MAC in digital signal processor.
5) Explain application at DSP in audio processing.

1) Explain with timing diagram concept of pipelining used in digital signal processor.
2) Design an ideal low pass filter using Fourier method whose desired frequency response
( )
is Hd ejω = 1
π
3
≥ ω≥ −
π
3
= 0 π≥ ω > π
3
1) Determine the impulse response h(n) for N = 9
2) Determine H(z).
3) Design an analog low pass Butterworth filter with pass band and stop band cut off
frequencies 800 rad/sec. and 1800 rad/sec. The pass band attenuation is – 3 dB and stop
band attenuation is – 10 dB.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSOR AND PERIPHERALS (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Contents of accumulator after execution of following program are
LXIH, C200H
MVI A, 02H
LXI B, C200H
STAX B
MOV A, M
HLT
a) C2H b) 00H c) 02H d) None
2) LHLD 2000H is _________ byte instruction and requires ________ machine cycles for
its execution respectively.
a) 3, 5 b) 3, 4 c) 3, 2 d) 3, 1
3) Clock frequency for 8085 is 2 MHz, the time required to execute the following program is
MVI C, 04H
UP : DCR C
JNZ UP
RET
a) 70 μs b) 42 μs c) 40 μs d) None
4) I/O mapped I/O uses _________ bit address and only _________ instructions respectively.
a) 16, 2 b) 16, many c) 8, 2 d) 8, many
5) Reset in signal is __________ whereas ready is __________
a) high, low b) high, high c) low, low d) low, high
6) EPROM memory is _________ whereas RAM is __________
a) volatile, read write b) nonvolatile, read write
c) nonvolatile, random access d) both b and c
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 176 -2- *SLRPC176*
7) Invalid instruction from the given options is
a) STAX B b) STAX H c) STA B d) Both b and c
8) To construct 2K × 8 memory using 1K × 4, no. of chips required are
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 8
9) Memory of capacity 2K × 8 is interfaced with 8085 with starting address C000H. Instruction
used to initializes the stack at second last memory location is
a) LXI H, C7FFH b) LXI SP, C7FF c) LXI SP, C7FE d) LXI H, C7FE
10) The vector address of in instruction RST 7.5 and TRAP respectively are
a) 0024, 0028 b) 003C, 0024 c) 003C, 0030 d) 0040, 0036
11) Control word 20H of 8255 specify
a) PC0 = 0 in BSR mode b) PC0 = 1 in BSR mode
c) PC0 = 0 in I/O mode d) None
12) ADC which used DAC as its internal block is
a) single slope b) counter type
c) successive approximation method d) both b and c
13) Contents of flag register and accumulator of 8085 after execution of following program
respectively are
LXI B, 2000H
MVI A, 30H
PUSH, B
POP PSW
RET
a) 20H, 00H b) 00H, 20H c) 30H, 30H d) None
14) Tristate buffer and latch devices respectively are
a) output, input b) input, output c) input, input d) output, output
15) In mode 1 input of 8255, for interrupt driven data transfer INTEA is set by using
a) PC 4 b) PC 3 c) PB 2 d) PC 5
16) For 8251 to enable the transmitter and receiver, the bits used in control word format
respectively are
a) D1 & D2 b) D0 & D2 c) D0 & D3 d) D7 & D0
17) Control word format for 8253 to generate square wave at OUT2 pin with 8 bit count and
BCD counting is
a) 97H b) 9FH c) 8CH d) both a and b
18) Delay provided by 8253 is function of
a) Count value and 8085 clock b) Count value and 8253 clock
c) Count value only d) All of the above
19) 8255 is interface in memory mapped I/O. The chip select signal is generated with all bits 0.
What is the address of port B and C.W.R. respectively ?
a) 0000H, 0003H b) 0001H, 0003H c) 01H, 03H d) none
20) The interrupts which are level triggered are
a) TRAP b) RST 5.5 c) INTR d) Both b and c
______________
Set A

*SLRPC176* -3- SLR-PC – 176
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

MICROPROCESSOR AND PERIPHERALS (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
3) Draw neat diagrams where required.
SECTION – I

a) Explain various types of semiconductor memories. Explain battery back up circuit.
b) Realize 2K × 8 memory from 1K × 4 memory chips. Draw suitable diagram.
c) Draw and explain timing diagram of CALL 2000H instruction.
d) Explain the importance of following chips in microprocessor based system.
74244, 74373, 74245, 74138
e) When processor enters in wait and halt state ? Explain the different ways to take processor
out of these states.
3. A) What are different hardware interrupts ? Explain triggering levels, vector addresses and
priorities of these interrupts. Write an ALP to perform 2’s complement of 8-bit number
which is available at memory location when RST 5.5 interrupt is activated. 12
B) Write an ALP to generate square wave at SOD pin : 8
i) Frequency 1 KHz and duty cycle 60%
ii) Frequency 2 KHz and duty cycle 50%.
OR
B) List out the feature of 8085 and explain its functional pin configuration. 8
SECTION – II

a) Draw an interfacing circuit to interface 1 KB memory with 8085 with starting address
2000H.
b) Write an ALP to blink alternately two LEDs connected at PA0 and PA1 of 8255. (Assume
I/O mapped I/O scheme for interfacing)
Set A

SLR-PC – 176 -4- *SLRPC176*
c) Specify the mode word and command word of 8251 for the following system requirement :
T × C = 153.6 KHz
Asynchronous mode with baud rate = 9600
Character length = 8-bits
Two stop bits
No parity check
d) Explain functional pin configuration and features of 8255.
e) With suitable circuit diagram, explain weighted resistor DAC. State its demerits.
5. A) Draw complete interfacing circuit to interface stepper motor with 8085. Write an ALP to
rotate it in full stepping. 10
B) Interface 8253 with 8085 in memory mapped I/O mode. Explain mode 1 with suitable timing
diagram. 10
OR
B) Interface DAC with 8085. Write an ALP to generate sine wave and square wave. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (E & TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING AND RADIATING SYSTEMS (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.

1. Solve the following : (1×20=20)

1) The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
a) Faraday’s laws b) Kirchhoffs laws
c) Coulomb’s laws d) None of the above
2) The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its
a) Capacitance b) Charge
c) Energy d) None of the above
3) A region around a stationary electric charge has
a) An electric field b) A magnetic field
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
4) Tesla is a unit of
a) Field strength b) Inductance c) Flux density d) Flux
5) Which of the following is a vector quantity ?
a) Relative permeability b) Electric field intensity
c) Flux density d) Potential
6) The unit of relative permeability is
a) Henry/Meter b) Henry
c) Henry/sq. m d) It is dimensionless
7) ∇ × ∇ × A =
a) ∇ ( ∇ .A) – ∇ 2 A b) ∇ ( ∇ × A) – ∇ 2 A
c) ∇ 2 A – ∇ ( ∇ × A) d) ∇ 2 A – ∇ ( ∇ .A)
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 177 -2- *SLRPC177*
8) The electric field strength of charge
a) Decreases with distance b) Decreases with square of distance
c) Increases with distance d) Increases with square of distance
9) Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
a) E = ∈ D b) E = D2/t c) E = D/ ∈ d) E = ∈ D2
10) The surface over which Gauss’s law is applied must be
a) Open b) Semi closed c) Closed d) Infinitely long
11) Fraunhoffer region is
a) far-field region b) near field region
c) region of constant field d) the region of no field
12) Unit of solid angle is
a) degree b) radian c) steredian d) none
13) The skin depth for ideal conductor is
a) ∞ b) zero c) finite d) ωμσ
14) For time varying fields ∇. B = ?
a) ρ V b) zero c) D d) none
E
15) In a uniform plane wave is
H
μ ∈
a) b) c) 1 d) none
∈ μ
16) The direction of propagation of EM wave is given by ______________
a) E b) H c) E× H d) none
17) E = E cos ( ω t + β z) az , where β is

a) Phase shift constant b) Propagation constant

c) Wave impedance d) Proportional constant
18) Magnetic field intensity due to dipole is proportional to
a) 1 3 b) 1 2 c) r d) r2
r r
19) Poynting vector gives _____________
a) instantaneous power density b) average power density
c) total power d) total power density
20) ∇ × H = J + Jd is based on _______________
a) Ampere’s law b) Modified Ampere’s law
c) Faraday’s law d) None
______________ Set A

*SLRPC177* -3- SLR-PC – 177
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING AND RADIATING SYSTEMS (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Given P (r = 6, Φ = 125°, z = – 3) and Q (3, – 1, 4) find
i) Distance from point P to origin
ii) The length of perpendicular from Q to the Z axis
iii) The distance from P to Q
b) Write short note on line, surface and volume integral.
c) State and explain Coulombs law in detail.
d) Uniform line charges of 120 nC/m lie along the entire extent of the three co-ordinate
axes. Assuming few space conditions, find E at P (– 3, 2, – 1).
e) Prove that E = – grad V.

a) Derive the expression for electric field intensity due to infinitely long line charge.
b) Given that D = (10 / 3) a x (C / m2 ) , evaluate both sides of the divergence theorem.

For the volume of a cube 2 m on the edge, centered at the origin and with the
edges parallel to axes.
c) Derive the boundary conditions in electrostatic fields for conductor-free space and
dielectric-dielectric interface.
SECTION – II

a) Explain and prove magnetic boundary conditions.
b) Explain polarization in detail.
c) Explain pattern multiplication with example.
Set A

SLR-PC – 177 -4- *SLRPC177*
d) The electric field vector in free space is given by E = Em sin α cos (ωt − βz)ay V/m.
Find H .
e) In a Homogeneous region where μr = 1 and ∈r = 50 .
E = 20πe j(ωt − βz ) ax ( V / m)
B = μ 0 Hme j (ωt −βz ) ay T
Find ω and H if wavelength is 1.78 m.

a) Explain five basic antenna parameters.
b) What values of A and B are required to satisfy Maxwell’s equation in a medium
where ∈r = 4 and σ = 0 ?
c) i) Derive expression for magnetic field intensity due to circular current carrying
loop on axis.
ii) A circular loop located on x2 + y2 = 9, z = 0 carries a direct current of 10A
along aφ . Determine H at (0, 0, 4).
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (E and TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

PRINCIPLES OF DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1) The entropy of the message source generating three messages with probabilities
0.5, 0.25 and 0.25 is
a) 1 b/message b) 1.5 b/message c) 1.75 b/message d) 2 b/message
2) The main advantage of PCM is
a) Less bandwidth
b) Less power
c) Better performance in presence of noise
d) Possibility of multiplexing
3) The coding efficiency is given by
a) 1-R b) 1+R c) 1/R d) None of the above
4) In __________ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The
voltage remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other level in the
second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization.
a) Manchester b) Differential Manchester
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)
5) Mutual Information in case of Noise Free Channel is given by
a) H(X) b) H(X/Y) c) H(Y) d) Both a) and c)
6) Flat-top sampling leads to
a) An aperture effect b) Aliasing
c) Loss of signal d) None of the above
7) In DM, the slope overload distortion can be reduced by
a) Decreasing the step size b) Decreasing the granular noise
c) Decreasing the sampling rate d) Increasing the step size
8) Consider the following statements comparing DM with PCM system : DM requires
1. A lower sampling rate 2. A higher sampling rate
3. A large bandwidth 4. Simpler Hardware
Which of these statements are correct ?
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4
P.T.O.

9) A PAM signal can be detected by using
a) An ADC b) An integrator c) A bandpass filter d) A highpass filter
10) Which is the most important subsystem for recovering and reconstructing signals
in TDM system ?
a) Envelope detector followed by a LPF
b) Synchronization system for proper timing
c) BPF to segregate the channels
d) Coherent detector to ensure frequency and phase correction
11) For the same Pe, PSK, DPSK and QPSK when compared, QPSK requires
a) Larger power b) Equal power c) Least power d) None of these
12) Amplitude shift keying is also known as on-off keying.
a) True b) False
13) The signal space diagrams given below corresponds to
a) BFSK b) BASK c) BPSK d) QPSK

14) The probability of error for M-ary FSK decreases as
a) M decreases b) M increases c) M constant d) None of these

1 1 E b
a) b)
1 E b

e r f c
e r f c

2 2 2 N o
2 2 N o

1 1 1 E b
c) d)
E b

e r f c e r f c

N o
2 2 2 N o

16) The early late gate synchronizer is a technique used for

a) carrier synchronization b) symbol synchronization
c) frame synchronization d) none of these
17) _____ is most affected by noise.
a) PSK b) ASK c) FSK d) MSK
18) A correlation receiver consists of
a) a multiplier and integrator b) an integrator only
c) multiplier only d) adder and integrator
19) A major problem of multicarrier modulation is
a) Fading b) Diversity
c) High peak to average power ratio d) None of these
20) Costas loop is a method for
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (E and TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

PRINCIPLES OF DIGITAL COMMUNICATION

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instruction : Make suitable assumptions only if necessary. But state

them clearly.
SECTION I
2. A) Attempt any three : (4×3=12)
1) Draw and explain the working of PAM demodulator circuit.
2) State Shannons Theorem. Explain trade-off between bandwidth and S/N ratio.
3) Compare PAM, PWM and PPM.
4) Explain working of Equalizer and its anyone type.
B) Apply the Shannon-Fane coding procedure for following message ensemble. Also
calculate average length of code and its efficiency, Assume M = 3.
[X] = [x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 x6 x7]
[P] = [0.04 0.08 0.08 0.08 0.12 0.2 0.4] 8
1) Derive the expression for mutual information. Comment on the Mutual

Information in case of Noise Free Channel.
2) Explain ISI and Eye Diagram.
3) With block diagram explain TDM-PCM telephony system.

Set A

B) Find the mutual information and channel capacity of the channel shown in figure.
Given (x1) = 0.6 and p(x2) = 0.4.
SECTION II
4. A) Answer any three : 12

i) Explain PLL based method of carrier recovery technique.
ii) Compare ASK, FSK, PSK and DPSK.
iii) Write a note on frame synchronization.
iv) Explain how to minimize peak to average power ratio in multicarrier system.
B) Explain M-ary differential PSK transmitter and receiver. 8
5. A) Answer any two : 12

i) Write a note on FFT based multicarrier system with neat block diagram.
ii) What are different symbol synchronization methods ? Explain DTTL method
in detail.
iii) Explain M-ary wideband FSK system.
B) Explain correlator receiver. Compare correlator receiver with matched filter. 8
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Part – I) (E&TC) (New) Examination, 2015
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Data flow and state machine models are types of
a) Context models b) Behavioral models
c) Data models d) Object models
2) Release testing is also known as
a) Functional testing b) Regression testing
c) Alfa testing d) None
3) The goals of software testing leads to
a) Defect testing b) Violation testing
4) In object oriented design of software, objects have
a) Attributes and names b) Attributes and operations
c) Attributes, names and operations d) None of these
5) Advantages of CBSE
a) Reduced software cost b) Faster delivery
c) Reduced risk d) All
6) UML stands for
a) Unified Modified Language b) Unified Monitoring Language
c) Unified Modeling Language d) None of these
7) Functional requirement specification of a system should be
a) Complete b) Consistent
8) Which of the following is tool in design phase ?
a) Abstraction b) Refinement
c) Information hiding d) All above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 179 -2- *SLRPC179*
9) State-Transition diagram is
a) A stimulus-response model b) Data-flow model
c) Architectural model d) Composition model
10) Software specification is the process of
a) Understanding and defining the services which are required
b) Identifying constraints on system
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
11) _________ is carried out to calculate the latest dates on which each activity may
be started and completed.
a) Backward pass b) Forward pass c) End pass d) None
12) The Gantt chart is used for
a) Tracking project progress b) Knowing the activities
c) Knowing starting date of project d) Knowing end date of project
13) The base line budget is based on
a) Activity network b) Cost monitoring
c) Proposed plan d) None
14) _________ provides a more striking visual indication of those activities that are
not progressing to schedule.
a) Slip chart b) Time line c) Gantt chart d) Ball chart
15) The person handles many projects simultaneously
a) Programme manager b) Project manager
c) Team leader d) Software developer
16) Any delay in _______ activities will cause a delay in completion date of the project.
a) Free float b) Base lined c) Critical path d) Scheduled
17) Sponsoring group will get enough information from
a) Program mandate b) Program brief
c) Blue print d) Vision statement
18) Important criteria to become programme manager is
a) Expert in technical b) Good at management skill
c) Experience as project manager d) All
19) The highest level in a typical project reporting structure is
a) Project manager b) Steering Committee
c) Team leader d) Human Resource Officer
20) The diagram showing for each product which other products are required as input
is called diagram
a) Product based b) Precedence
c) Product driven d) Project process
______________
Set A

*SLRPC179* -3- SLR-PC – 179
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part – I) (E&TC) (New) Examination, 2015

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Explain software evolution as a fundamental process activity.
b) Explain integration testing with neat diagram.
c) Explain CBSE approach with neat diagram.
d) Write attributes of good software.
e) Write a note on software requirement document.
3. a) Explain interface testing in detail. (1×8=8)

OR
a) Explain Waterfall model in detail.
b) Explain ‘CASE’ (Computer Aided Software Engineering) in detail. (1×8=8)
c) Explain concept of path testing. (1×4=4)
SECTION – II

i) Explain Gantt chart to visualize progress of project.
ii) Write a short note on forward pass for activity planning.
iii) Explain product based approach for identifying activities.
B) Solve all : (2×4=8)
i) What are different steps in constructing precedence network model ?
ii) What are steps for planning risk ?
5. A) Solve any one : (1×8=8)

a) Draw and explain stepwise project planning.
b) Explain critical chain concept.
B) Attempt all : (3×4=12)
i) Explain Work Breakdown Structure with example.
ii) Explain different cost benefit analysis methods.
iii) What is project ? What are different activities of management ?
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
SURVEYING – II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory and is objective multiple choice.
2) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory, attempt any two out of Q. 3
to Q. 5 and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.


1) The stadia method diaphram is provided for measuring
a) Elevation b) Vertical bearing
c) Horizontal distance d) None of these
2) Analytic lens is used in
a) Dumpy level b) Theodolite
c) Internal focussing tacheometer d) External focussing tacheometer
3) In tangential tacheometry the staff is held
a) Inclined b) Normal to the line of sight
c) Vertically d) All the above
4) With notations carrying their usual meanings, the superelevation (h) railways is
given by relation
a) h = gv2/GR b) h = gR2/GV c) h = Gv2/gR d) h = g2v/GR
5) Apex distance given by
a) R (sec ∅ /2 – 1) b) R (cos ∅ /2 – 1)
c) R (sin ∅ /2 – 1) d) None of these
6) A vertical curve is designed on the basis of the
a) Radius of the curve b) Minimum sight distance
c) Change of gradient d) All of above
7) The radius of a one-degree curve is
a) 1719 m b) 1760 m c) 1790 m d) 2000 m
P.T.O.

8) Which of the following system provides three-dimensional positioning system ?
a) ISS b) TRANSIT c) GPS d) All the above
9) In GPS, satellites are placed in orbits with orbits radius approximately
a) 15000 km b) 15200 km c) 26600 km d) 18000 km
10) The speed of light is
a) 3 × 108 m/s b) 2 × 109 m/s c) 3 × 109 m/s d) 2 × 108 m/s
11) The number of orbital planes and satellites in each orbit are, respectively
a) 6 and 4 b) 4 and 6 c) 4 and 3 d) 3 and 4
12) The scale of vertical photographs of a flat terrain, with a variation in the flying
altitude, will be
a) Uniform b) Non-uniform
c) Uniform, if tilt is not there d) Non-Uniform, if tilt is not there
13) Aerial photographs are
a) Perspective projection b) Orthographic projection
c) Isometric projection d) Gnomonic projection
14) Remote sensing can be defined as collecting information about a target
a) Without seeing it b) By touching it
c) Without a physical contact with it d) From ground station
15) Which of the following cannot be achieved by remote sensing ?
a) Detection of forest fires b) Detection of pollutants
c) Prevention of earthquakes d) Land use pattern
16) Creation of image-based GIS from multigeo-datasets is characterised by which
subsystem of GIS ?
a) Management b) Input c) Processing d) Display
17) Cell-like units are characteristic of
a) Raster data structures b) Cellular data structures
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Vector data structures
18) Line in polygon method is characteristic of
a) Raster overlay b) Vector overlay
c) Buffer operation d) Intersecting operation
19) Route survey consists of following survey
a) Reconnaissance b) Preliminary
c) Construction d) All of these
20) Project survey for building involve
a) Setting out plot boundaries b) Setting out building units
c) Fixing various levels of building d) All of above
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

SURVEYING – II

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory, attempt any two out of Q. 3

to Q. 5 and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.
SECTION – I
2) Solve any two from remaining.
3) Assume suitable data if any.
2. a) The following observations were made in a tacheometric survey. Calculate the

R L’S of A, B and C and the horizontal distance AB and BC. The tacheometer is
fitted with an anallatic lens and the multiplying constant is 100 and RL of IS 450 m. 9
Instrument Staff Vertical

HI (m) Staff Reading (m)
Station Station Angle
A 1.345 B.M. – 5° 30′ 0.905, 1.455, 2.005

A 1.345 B + 8° 00′ 0.755, 1.655, 2.555
B 1.550 C + 10° 00′ 1.500, 2.250, 3.000
b) Explain the methods of tacheometry. 5
3. a) Two straights AB and BC intersect at a chainage of 510.23 m, the angle of

intersection being 126° 48′ the radius of the curve is 300 m. Calculate all data
necessary for setting out the curve by the method of offsets from the
chord produced, assume a peg interval of 30 m. 8
b) What are the different types of curves ? Draw neat sketches of each. 5
Set A

4. a) Describe sources of error in GPS. What is meant by selective availability ? 6
b) Write a note on applications of GPS system. 7
5. a) Explain the procedure to set out compound curve in detail. 8
b) Write short note on GPS surveying techniques. 5
SECTION – II
6. a) The scale of an aerial photograph is 1 cm = 100 m. The photograph size is

20 cm × 20 cm. Determine the number of photographs required to cover an
area of 100 sq.km, if the longitudinal lap is 60% and the side lap is 30%. 8
b) Explain parallax bar with neat sketch. 6
7. a) What do you understand by electro-magnetic spectrum ? State wave region,

along with their uses for remote sensing applications. 7
b) Write a detailed note on applications of remote sensing. 6
8. a) Explain various types of data structures used in GIS. 7
b) Write a short note on : 6

i) Objective of GIS
ii) Applications of GIS.
9. a) Describe the procedure of setting out of tunnels. 8
b) Explain procedure to set out a bridge. 5
________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (E & TC) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
minutes in Answer Book on Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
1. Choose the correct answer. 20
1) The signal is represented in frequency domain if
a) X-axis represents frequency b) x-axis represents time
c) y-axis represents time d) y-axis represents frequency
2) z-transform reduces to Fourier transform when it is evaluated on
a) a half circle b) z circle
c) unit circle d) imaginary circle
3) Multiplication in frequency domain is convolution in time domain. It is a
a) linear convolution
b) circular convolution
c) linear convolution converted to circular convolution
d) any type of convolution
4) In place computation is recommended as it
a) reduces memory requirement b) increases memory requirement
c) increases output sequence d) adds the output
5) Linear convolution of two real sequences with P and Q points, respectively
can be converted to a circular convolution by appending extra zeros to
every sequence until its length is
a) P + Q b) P + Q + 1 c) P + Q – 1 d) P – Q – 1
6) When aliasing occurs ?
a) low frequency becomes high frequency
b) high frequency becomes a mid frequency
c) high frequencies above signal bandwidth becomes low frequencies below
signal bandwidth
d) none
7) Goertzel algorithm evaluates the
a) DTFT coefficients b) DFT coefficients
c) z-transform d) FT coefficients
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 180 -2- *SLRPC180*
8) The size of input data blocks in overlap add method is
a) L b) L + M c) L + M – 1 d) L + M + 1
9) Circular convolution of the sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, –2, 2} is
a) {3, 2, –1} b) {–1, 2, 3} c) {2, 3, –1} d) {3, 2, –2}
10) The number of multiplications needed in DFT calculation of 64 point sequence is
a) 4096 b) 192 c) 64 d) 1000
11) FIR filter is always stable because
a) all its poles are at origin b) all its zeros are at origin
c) h(n) = h(N–1–n) d) none of above
12) FIR filter is also known as __________ filter.
a) Cascade structure b) transversal
c) ARMA d) AR
13) The ideal filter has impulse response of
a) finite duration
b) infinite duration between 0 and ∞
c) infinite duration between ∞ and + ∞
d) finite duration between − ϕ and + ϕ
14) IIR filter design is based on _________ filter design.
a) analog b) discrete time c) digital d) none
15) To avoid overflow of adders, scaling is added
a) at output of adder b) at input of first adder
c) at input of second adder d) at output of second adder
16) Following realization minimizes delay elements
a) Direct form – I b) Direct form – II c) Cascade d) Parallel
17) Fast algorithm for calculation of predictor coefficient, use
a) cascade form realization b) parallel form realization
c) lattice form realization d) direct form realization
18) Kaiser window has an adjustable parameter that controls
a) the stop band width b) main lobe width
c) stop band attenuation d) stop band width
19) When impulse response of the ideal filter is truncated in Fourier domain there is ?
a) multiplicaiton of filter with rectangular window
b) multiplication of two transforms
c) convolution of two transforms
d) convolution of filter with rectangular window
20) The transformation function to be used for converting HPF to BPF is obtained
by replacing S by
S 2 + ω2O S 2 + ω2 S2 + ωO2 ωS
a) S = b) S = c) S = d) S = S2 + ω2
ωS2 ωS ωS O
Set A
______________

*SLRPC180* -3- SLR-PC – 180
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & TC) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Figures to right indicates full marks.
3) Assume necessary data if necessary.
SECTION – I

a) Give relationship between DFT and Z transform.
b) What is twiddle factor ? Explain symmetry and periodicity property of twiddle
factor.
c) Compute four point DFT of the sequence x(n) = {0, 2, 4, 6}.
d) Obtain linear convolution of the sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 3}, h(n) = {–1, –2}
using circular convolution.
e) Compute 4 point FFT of a sequence x(n) = {0, 1, 2, 3} using DIF FFT algorithm.
a) Find IDFT of the given sequence using DIT FFT algorithm.
X(K) = {7, – 0.707– j 0.707, – j, 0.707 – j 0.707, 1, 0.707 + j 0.707, j, – 0.707 + j 0.707}
b) Given the sequence x1(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4} x2(n) = {1, 1, 2, 2}.
Find x3(n) such that X3(K) = X1(K) X2(K).
c) Find output y(n) of a filter whose impulse response is h(n) = (1, 2) and input
signal is x(n) = {1, 2, –1, 2, 3, –2, –3, –1, 1, 1, 2, –1} using overlap save
method.
Set A

SLR-PC – 180 -4- *SLRPC180*
SECTION – II

a) Explain applications of DSP in Telecommunication.
b) Give the equation specifying Bartlet, Hamming and rectangular window.
2
c) For analog transfer function H(S) = determine H(z) using impulse
(s + 1)(s + 2)
invariance method.
d) What is bilinear transformation ? Explain steps to design IIR filter using bilinear
transformation.
e) What is warping effect ? What is its effect on magnitude and phase response ?
5. Attempt any two of the following : (2×10=20)
a) i) Realize the second order system y(n) = 2 rcos (w0) y(n – 1) – r2y(n – 2) +
x(n) – rcos (w0) x(n – 1) in Direct form – II.
ii) Draw and explain direct form – I and direct form – II structure of second
order system realization.
b) Design an ideal high pass filter with a frequency response
π
Hd(ejw) = 1 for ≤w≤π
4
π
=0 for w ≤
4
Find the values of h(n) for N = 11 and H(Z) using Hamming window.
c) Design seven coefficient FIR LPF using frequency sampling method with
following specifications.
H(e jw ) = e − j(N−1)w / 2 for 0 ≤ w ≤ π / 2
=0 for π / 2 ≤ w ≤ π
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Part – I) (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (New) Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSORS

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



1) How many address lines are there in 32 K byte memory chip ?
a) 13 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16
2) Number of machine cycles and T states required to execute XTHL instruction are
a) M.C. = 5, T = 16 b) M.C. = 5, T = 18
c) M.C. = 3, T = 16 d) None of these
3) Vector location of RST 6.5 interrupt is
a) 0024H b) 003CH c) 0034H d) 002CH
4) A 16-bit address bus allows access to a memory of capacity.
a) 1 MB b) 16 KB c) 32 KB d) 64 KB
5) To take processor out of halt state permanently which of the following is the
solution ?
a) Hold b) Interrupt c) Reset d) Both b) and c)
6) IN and OUT instructions are used in which of the following I/O scheme ?
a) I/O mapped I/O b) Memory mapped I/O
7) The register in the 8085A that is used to keep track of the memory address of the
next op-code to be run in the program is the
a) Stack pointer b) Program counter
c) Tri-state buffer d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 181 -2- *SLRPC181*
8) What is SIM ?
a) Select Interrupt Mask b) Sorting Interrupt Mask
c) Set Interrupt Mask d) None of these
9) To clear the contents of accumulator which following is/are correct options (s)
a) MVI A, 00H b) SUB A c) XRA A d) All
10) Specify the contents of accumulator and Cy flag when following instructions are
executed. Assume Cy flag is set before execution of the program.
MVI A, 0FH
XRA A
RAL
a) A = 87H, CY = 1 b) A = 10H, CY = 0
c) A = 01H, CY = 0 d) None of these
11) In 8253 pulse generator is _______________
a) Mode-2 b) Mode-3 c) Mode-0 d) Mode-4
12) In 8251, a maximum size character that is used for communication is of
a) 16 bits b) 8 bits c) 5 bits d) 6 bits
13) The control word of 8255 to configured port B in mode 1 output and port A in
mode 1 input is
a) 10H b) 80H c) FFH d) None
14) To generate square wave using 8253 with 16 bit count value for counter 0, the
control word format is BCD (BCD mode only)
a) 37H b) 3FH c) 33H d) Both a) and b)
15) RS-232 interface is used for
a) Serial communication b) Parallel communication
c) Printer interface d) Generating different waveforms
16) The control word format to set PC6 bit in BSR mode
a) 0BH b) 0CH c) 0DH d) 0EH
17) To generate the waveforms like sine wave, square wave the IC required are
a) 8085, 8255, ADC b) 8085, 8255, DAC
c) 8085 only d) Both b) and c)
18) The direction of SOC signal for ADC 0808 IC.
a) Input b) Output c) Input and Output d) None
19) To generate square wave using only 8085 IC, the instruction/s required are
a) SID and SOD b) Only RIM c) Only SOD d) SIM
20) 8086 as _____________ of segment registers.
a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 2
______________
Set A

*SLRPC181* -3- SLR-PC – 181
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part – I) (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (New) Examination, 2015

MICROPROCESSORS

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

a) Explain demultiplexing of address and data bus.
b) Write an ALP to generate Fibonacci series.
c) Write an ALP to transfer a block of data. The data is stored in memory from C550H
to C55FH. The data is to be stored from C570H to C57FH in reverse order.
d) Draw timing diagram of an instruction MVI R, data.
e) Draw and explain flag register of 8085.
3. a) Explain various addressing modes with example. 10

b) Interface 1K × 8 memory to 8085 using 1K × 4 memory chips. Give addressing
range of each chip. 10
OR
b) Explain the function of following program also explain SIM instruction and
RIM instruction. 10
EI
MVI A, 08H
SIM
Set A

SLR-PC – 181 -4- *SLRPC181*
SECTION – II
a) List out the features of 8251.

b) Write an ALP to generate square wave using 8253. Assume Clock frequency
= 2MHz and square wave frequency = 1KHz.
c) Write an ALP to perform the following operations.
i) Take any 8 bit number from Port B, add 02H number in it and store the result in
any memory location.
ii) Take any 8 bit number from Port A, subtract 02H number from it and send the
result in Port C.
d) Draw and explain 4-bit binary weighted type DAC.
e) Define the following terms – related with DAC.

i) Monotonicity
ii) Resolution
iii) Settling time
iv) Slew rate
v) Accuracy.
5. Solve any two : (2×10=20)

a) Explain IC 8255 by considering the following parameters
i) Feature
ii) Internal Block Diagram
iii) Control word format in I/O mode.
b) i) Write an ALP to rotate stepper motor in clockwise direction.
ii) Write an ALP to display 0 to 9 numbers on seven segment.
c) List the features of 8086 microprocessor and also explain the architecture of 8086
microprocessor with the help of neat block diagram.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – II)
Examination, 2015
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGG. (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

one mark.
1) Due to ________ property of microwaves it can be used in radar.
a) heating b) absorption c) penetration d) directive
2) H-plane TEE is called
a) reciprocal device b) voltage divider
c) power device d) 3 dB splitter
3) In case of Directional Coupler amount of coupling is decided by
a) No. of holes b) Hole dimensions
c) Both a and b d) None of these
4) Which of the following is one port circuit ?
a) H plane TEE b) Isolator c) Waveguide d) None of these
5) Which of the following is ferrite device ?
a) directional coupler b) magic TEE
c) circulator d) none of these
6) Secondary constants of transmission line are
a) R, L,C,G b) α, β, L c) R, α , C, β d) None of these
7) ________ is the dominant mode in circular waveguide.
a) TE11 b) TM10 c) TEM d) None of these
8) In waveguide dominant mode means the one which has
a) lowest cut-off wavelength b) highest operating frequency
c) lowest cut-off frequency d) none of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 183 -2- *SLRPC183*
9) Smith chart is used to solve ________ problems.
a) TEEs b) Transmission lines
c) Mirowave tubes d) None of these
10) Phase velocity X Group Velocity =
a) c b) c c) c 2 d) none of these
11) Changing the frequency of magnetron by changing anode voltage is known
as
a) variation frequency b) frequency pulling
c) frequency pushing d) frequency linearization
12) Which of the following is not a TWT flow wave structure ?
a) Helix b) Ring bar
c) Periodic permanent magnet d) Coupled cavity
13) In which ways can a conventional klystron be tuned ?
a) Synchronously tuned b) Efficiency tuned
c) Broadband tuned d) All of above
14) Mark out transferred electron device in the following
a) BARITT diode b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode d) Step recovery diode
15) The common unit of Radar Cross Section (RCS) is
a) dBsm b) dBrcs
c) dBm d) none of the above
16) What does ‘MTI’ stand for ?
a) Multiple target indication b) Moving target indication
c) Mean time interval d) None of the above
17) In 2 cavity Klystron amplifier, the maximum fundamental component of beam
occurs at bunching parametrer value of
a) 0.58 b) 0.52
c) Mean time interval d) None of the above
18) The measurement of low power (0.01 mW to 10 mW) is done by using
a) Calorimetric technique b) Calorimetric wattmeter
c) Calorimetric bolometer d) Bolometer technique
19) The attenuation in dB can be expressed as
a) A (dB) = 20 log (Pin/Pout) b) A (dB) = 10 log (Pin/Pout)
c) A (dB) = 20 log (Pout/Pin) d) A (dB) = 20 log (Pout/Pin)
20) The semiconductor diode which can be used in switching circuits at microwave
range is
a) PIN diode b) Varactor diode c) Tunnel diode d) Gunn diode
______________
Set A

*SLRPC183* -3- SLR-PC – 183
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – II)

Examination, 2015
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGG. (Old)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iii) Draw the neat figures wherever necessary.
iv) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four of the following : (4×5=20)

a) Explain the working of Isolator with phasor diagram.
b) Explain different hazards caused by microwaves.
c) Explain the performance parameters of directional couplers.
d) A rectangular waveguide has dimensions a = 3.5 cm and b = 8 cm. Calculate
the cut-off frequency and cut off wavelength for the wave travelling through
waveguide in TM dominant mode.
e) Explain with neat diagram working of E plane TEE.
3. a) With neat diagram explain any three applications of magic TEE. 10

b) Find phase velocity and group velocity for 100 MHz wave in normally
dispersive medium for which phase velocity is given by
1) v = k λ
2
2) v = 2 × 10 7 λ 3
(2×5= 10)
OR
b) Derive the equations for field components for TMmm mode for rectangular
waveguide. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 183 -4- *SLRPC183*
SECTION – II
4. Answer any four : 20

a) What are the limitations of the conventional tubes at microwave frequencies ?
Explain how these limitations can be overcome.
b) What is a PIN diode ? Describe its construction and characteristics.
c) Explain A scope and PPI displays with reference to radars. What are their
limitations ?
d) What is strapping in magnetron ? Explain in detail.
e) Explain the measurement of impedance using slotted line.
5. Attempt any two of the following : 20

a) Write a note on microwave transistors.
b) Explain the basic principle of radar system and also derive the radar range
equation.
c) Describe the construction of reflex klystron with applegate diagram and
voltage characteristics.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. 1) Bit 00 of bit addressable RAM corresponds to

a) Bit 0 of RAM address 00H b) Bit 0 of RAM address 10H
c) Bit 0 of RAM address 20 h d) Bit 0 of RAM address 30H
2) Timer 1 runs and Timer 0 stops when
a) TCON .6 = 1 and TCON .4 = 0 b) TCON .4 = 0 and TCON .5 = 1
c) TCON .6 = 0 and TCON .4 = 1 d) TCON .4 = 1 and TCON .5 = 0
3) Which bit of IP is to be set for making serial port interrupt as highest priority ?
a) IP.1 b) IP.3 c) IP.4 d) IP.5
4) If IP register has only the default priorities then which of the following has the highest
priority ?
a) INT 0 b) INT 1 c) Timer 0 overflow d) Serial port
5) A subroutine or a procedure is the program which
a) Cannot be used as an independent program
b) Is identical to ISR
c) Affects the SP by decrementing it by TWO
d) Is used to replace a set of repetitive instructions
6) MOVC instruction uses following operands
a) PC only b) A and A + PC c) A and Ri + PC d) A and Ri + DPTR
7) MOVX instruction is used to transfer data between
a) Internal memory and accumulator
b) External data memory and accumulator
c) External code memory and accumulator
d) External data memory and general purpose register
8) If A = 05 and B = 64H then after MUL AB the SFRs A and B
a) Do not change
b) A will have 01 and B will have F4H
c) A will have F4H and B will have 01
d) A will have 00H and B will have F4H
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 184 -2- *SLRPC184*
9) AC flag is affected in
a) Addition, subtraction, multiplies and divide
b) Multiply and divide
c) Addition and subtraction
d) Addition, subtraction and multiplication
10) A BIT address using instruction can change a BIT at
a) BIT addressable SFRs only
b) BIT addressable SFR and internal RAM only
c) Carry, BIT addressable SFR and internal RAM only
d) Carry and BIT addressable SFRs only
11) 16F877A is dip package with ______________ pins respectively.
a) 40 b) 20 c) 16 d) 24
12) 16F877 has ______________ interrupt sources.
a) 8 b) 3 c) 4 d) 14
13) Following is 8 bit timer for 16F877
a) Timer 0 b) Timer 1 c) Timer 2 d) Both a) and c)
14) Which of following registers are not available in pic :
1) PC 2) DPTR 3) SP 4) Accumulator
a) {2, 3} b) {3, 2, 1} c) {1, 2, 3, 4} d) {3, 2}
15) PIC 16F877 has internal flash memory of ______ and data memory of ________
a) 8 kb, 64 kb b) 8 kb, 364 kb c) 8 kb, 368 bytes d) 80 kb, 68 kb
16) Data bus of PIC 16f877 is ______________ bit wide.
a) 16 b) 8 c) 32 d) 64
17) The reset vector and interrupt vector for PIC respectively are
a) 0000h, 0004h b) 0000h, 0000h c) 0007h, 0004h d) 0000h, 0007h
18) Show the results of the following code
MOVLW 04H
IORLW 30H
a) 30H b) 34H c) 38H d) 04H
19) Reading the PORTA register reads the status of the ______________ and writing to it will
write to the port ______________
a) Latch, pin b) Pin, pin c) Latch, latch d) Pin, latch
20) The result and the destination for following code is
MOVLW 15h
ADDLW 13h
a) 18h, 13h b) 18h, 15h c) 13h, 13h d) 28h, 13h
______________
Set A

*SLRPC184* -3- SLR-PC – 184
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (Old)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Show the contents of the PSW register after the execution of the following instructions :
MOV A, #0BFH
DD A, #1BH.
b) With suitable examples, explain various addressing modes of 8051.
c) Ten hex numbers are stored in RAM locations 50H onwards. Write a program to find the
biggest number in the set. The biggest number should finally be saved in 60H.
d) Write the steps to represent negative number in 8051. Show the following numbers are
represented in the 8051 :
a) – 7 b) – 56 c) – 128 d) 0
e) Explain TMOD register with register format.
3. a) What are various types of interrupts and write steps in executing an interrupts
in 8051 ? Explain IE (Interrupt Enable) register with register format. 10
b) Draw and explain interfacing circuit to interface DAC 0808 to 8051. Write ALP when
switch SW = 0, the DAC output gives a staircase waveform. Connect
switch SW to pin P0.0. 10
OR
c) Draw interfacing circuit to interface LCD with 8051. Explain various pins of
LCD required to interfacing with 8051. Write an ALP to display “WELCOME”. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 184 -4- *SLRPC184*
SECTION – II
1) Explain the instructions XORLW, XORWF, IORLW and IORWF in detail.
2) With neat diagram explain timer 1 and its control register.
3) Write the assembly language program for toggling the LED.
4) Explain interrupts in detail of PIC 16f877.
5) Explain how pipelining is implemented in PIC 16f877.
1) Explain in detail addressing modes of PIC. Write assembly language program for
subtraction of two sixteen bit numbers.
2) Draw interfacing of a switch, led and a buzzer to PIC when switch is closed the led
should be turned ON and buzzer sounds otherwise led and buzzer should be OFF.
Write assembly language program for above said logic.
3) What is advantage of Harvard architecture ? Draw and explain block diagram of PIC
16f877. Give any six core features of PIC.
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
N o .
Set
T.E. (E and TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) In SCR holding current is
a) equal to latching current b) less than latching current
c) more than latching current d) not related to latching current
2) The typical range of on state voltage for SCR is
a) 1 to 1.5 V b) 3 to 5 V
c) 5 to 10 V d) 10 to 20 V
3) Line synchronized UJT firing circuit is also known as
a) ramp triggering b) digital triggering
c) anode triggering d) none of these
4) Triac is
a) unidirectional device b) bidirectional device
c) tridirectional device d) none of these
5) MOSFET is a
a) current controlled device b) voltage controlled device
c) current and voltage controlled device d) none of these
6) IGBT offers
a) high input impedance b) low input impedance
7) Auxiliary commutation is _____________ type commutation.
a) class A b) class B c) class C d) class D
8) A single phase half wave circuit is one which produces _____________ number
of load current during one cycle of source voltage.
a) two b) three c) six d) only one
P.T.O.

9) For continuous conduction in a single phase full converter each pair of SCRs
conducts for
a)
b)
c)
d)

10) In three phase full converter, the six SCRs are fired at an interval of
a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°
11) Cycloconverters are more efficient than d.c.link converter because they
a) produce output frequency only in one stage
b) do not use any rotating part
c) use very less power
d) produce high quality sinusoidal waveform at low output frequency
12) A DC chopper operates on 230 V dc and frequency of 400 Hz, feeds an RL load.
The output voltage of chopper is 150 V, the ON time is
a) 1.6305nsec b) 1.63msec c) 1.863nsec d) 0.006nsec
13) In three phase bridge inverter with 180° conduction mode, if Vs is input dc
voltage then RMS value of phase voltage is
a) b) 0.474 Vs c) both a) and b) d)

V L
V L
14) In ____________ commutation, charged capacitor is switched by an auxiliary SCR

to commutate main SCR.
a) Voltage b) Current c) Load d) Both a) and b)
15) Peak reverse voltage of single phase bridge inverter is _______________ as
single phase half bridge inverter.
a) Twice b) Same c) 50% d) 75%
16) In single phase half bridge inverter dc input voltage is 150 V. Then rms value of
output voltage is
a) 150 V b) 300 V c) 75 V d) 106.6
17) In armature voltage control method using dc choppers if chopping frequency
increases, then motor speed
a) decreases b) increases
c) remains constant d) independent of chopping frequency
18) In single pulse modulation of PWM inverter, 5th harmonic can be eliminated if
pulse width is equal to
a) b) 72° c) 1.25 rad d) all above

H = @
19) If TON is kept constant and TOFF is varied then chopper control technique is
a) Variable frequency b) Fixed frequency
c) Current limit control d) Both a) and b)
20) A cycloconverter can be considered to be composed of two converters
a) connected back to back b) series connected
c) parallel connected d) series-parallel connected
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (E and TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I

a) Explain any one type of forced commutation.
b) Write a short note on IGBT.
c) Draw and explain working of single phase half wave converter with R load.
d) Explain dv/dt protection for SCR.
e) Give the derivation of average output voltage of three phase full wave converter
with R load.

a) Explain digital firing circuit for SCR.
b) Explain construction, working, characteristics and ratings of TRIAC.
c) Explain three phase half wave converter with diagrams and waveforms.
d) A single phase half wave converter is used to supply power to resistive load of
10
from 230 V 50 Hz AC supply at a firing of 30° calculate
a) Average output voltage
b) RMS output voltage
c) Load current
SECTION II

1) Derive an expression for output voltage, duty cycle and effective input resistance
for step down chopper. Sketch associated waveforms.
2) Explain working of single phase to single phase cycloconverter for 4 : 1 output.
Draw output waveforms for resistive load.
3) Explain working of on line UPS with suitable block diagram.
Set A

4) Explain working of single phase full bridge inverter with inductive load. Sketch
associated waveforms.
5) Explain working multiple pulse width modulation technique.

1) Explain time ratio control and current limit control strategies used for choppers.
2) Explain working of three phase bridge inverter with resistive load in 120°
conduction mode. Derive an expression for RMS value of line voltage and phase
voltage. Draw relevant line and phase voltage.
3) Explain principle of induction heating and explain any one applications of
induction heating.
4) Explain working of series resonant inverter. Sketch associated waveforms.
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o . )
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II)

Examination, 2015
OPTICAL COMMUNICATION (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct options : (20×1=20)
1) The total number of guided modes for a step index fiber is approximately given by
expression, where V is normalized frequency as
a) M = V2/2 b) M = V2/3
c) M = V/2 d) None of the above
2) The cutoff wavelength is the wavelength above which a particular fiber becomes
a) Multimoded b) Single moded c) Not usable d) Both a) and b)
3) The refractive index profile of the fiber core as a variation of allows representation

of the step index profile when

a) b)
c)

d)

4) Laser is __________ optical source.

a) Non-coherent b) Coherent c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
5) Multimode graded index fibers exhibit for less intermodal dispersion than
multimode step index fibers due to their
a) Structure b) Acceptance angle
c) Refractive index profile d) Multipath reflection
6) Meridial ray which passes through ________ of fiber core.
a) All angles b) Structure c) Axis d) Cross section
7) When angle of refraction is and the refracted ray emerges parallel to interface
'

between dielectrics the angle of incidence must be less than . This limiting
'

case is known as
a) Critical angle b) Acceptance angle
c) Numerical aperture d) Skew ray
P.T.O.

8) To achieve optical amplification the condition N2 > N1 (density of atoms in energy
levels E1 and E2) known as
a) Amplification b) Polarization
c) Population inversion d) Attenuation
9) The LED can operate at ________ than the injection laser.
a) Higher current density b) Lower current density
c) Higher power d) None of these
10) For drive current of 40 mA. Quantum efficiency of 0.625, the power internally
generated within the device when the peak emission wavelength of is 0 . 8 7 m
a) 34.5 mW b) 53.6 mW c) 35.6 mW d) 24.7 mW

11) The absence of optical amplification through stimulated emission in LED tends to
limit the __________ device.
a) Internal Quantum Efficiency b) External Quantum Efficiency
c) Power Efficiency d) None of these
12) SLDs offers significant benefits over both SLEDs and ELEDs
a) A high output power b) A directional output beam
c) A narrow spectral linewidth d) All of these
13) OTDM stands for
a) Orthogonal Time Duplex Multiplexing b) Optical Time Duplex Multiplexing
c) Orthogonal Time Division Multiplexing d) Optical Time Division Multiplexing
14) The internal quantum efficiency of LED decreases exponentially with
a) Increase in pressure b) Decrease in temperature
c) Increase in temperature d) Decrease in pressure
15) The most common method for time domain dispersion measurement of pulse
dispersion is in
a) Graded Index Optical Fiber b) Single Mode Optical Fiber
c) Multimode Optical Fiber d) None of these
16) The quantum efficiency is defined as

a) b) c) d)
F

H H
H
H
H
17) Semiconductor photodiodes without internal gain generate ______ per

F F A
F
A
absorbed photon.
a) Two electron-hole pairs b) Three electron-hole pairs
c) One electron-hole pairs d) Four electron-hole pairs
18) Which method is employed for interferometric measurment ?
a) Transmitted Light Interferometer b) Reflected Light Interferometer
c) Refracted Light Interferometer d) Both a) and b)
19) The cutback method is used for the measurment of
a) Dispersion b) Numerical Aperture
c) Total Attenuation d) R.I. Profile
20) One of the factor which limit the speed of response of a photodiode is
a) Diffusion time of carriers through the depletion region
b) Drift time of carriers through the depletion region
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these Set A
______________

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II)

Examination, 2015
OPTICAL COMMUNICATION (Old)
Day and Date : Marks : 80
Time :
SECTION I
2. A) Slove any three : 12
i) With block diagram, explain optical fiber communication system briefly.
ii) Using simple ray theory, describe the mechanism for the transmission of light
within an optical fiber.
iii) What are different couplers ? Briefly write about the function of each couplers.
iv) A multimode step index fiber with a core diameter of 80 micro-meter and a
relative index difference of 1.5% is operating at a wavelength of 0.85 micro-
meter. If the core refractive index is 1.48 estimate (a) the normalized frequency
for the fiber, (b) the number of guided modes.
B) The velocity of light in the core of step index fiber is 2.01 × 108 ms1 and critical
angle at core cladding interface is 80 degree. Determine the numerical aperture and
acceptance angle for the fiber in air, assuming it has core diameter suitable for
consideration by ray analysis. The velocity of light in a vacuum is 2.998 × 108 ms1.
8
3. A) Solve any two : 12
i) Write and explain various advantages of fiber optics.
ii) Explain material absorption losses in silica glass fiber.
iii) A single mode step index fiber with a core refractive index of 1.49 has a critical
bending radius of 10.4 mm when illuminated with a light at a wavelength of 1.3
micro-meter. If the cutoff wavelength for the fiber is 1.15 micro-meter. Calculate
its relative refractive index difference.
B) Compare the approximate radiative minority carrier lifetime in GaAs and Silicon when
the minority carriers are electrons injected into the P-type region which has hole
concentration of 1018 cm3. The injected electron density is small compared with the
minority carrier density (Given Recombination coefficient Br for GaAs is 7.21 × 1010
and for Si is 1.79 × 1015). 8
Set A

SECTION II
4. a) Solve any three questions : 12
i) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of LED.
ii) Briefly write about the working of p-i-n photodiode.
iii) Write a short note on Receiver Noise.
iv) Explain FDDI in brief.
b) The quantum efficiency of a particular silicon RAPD is 80% for the detection of
radiation at a wavelength of 0
. When the incident optical power is
. 9 m
, the 0 . 5 W
output current from the device (after avalanche gain) is

. Determine the
)
multiplication factor of the photodiode under these conditions. 8

5. a) Solve any two questions : 12
i) Define and explain the absorption coefficient, responsively and quantum
efficiency of optical detectors.
ii) Briefly explain how numerical aperture is measured in optical fiber.
iii) Explain in detail working of phototransistor.
b) The radiative and nonradiative recombination lifetimes of the minority carriers in the
active region of a double heterojunction LED are 60 ns and 100 ns respectively.
Determine the total carrier recombination lifetime and the power internally generated
within the device when the peak emission wavelength is 0
at a drive current
. 8 7 m
of 40 mA. 8
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC187* SLR-PC –187
Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (E&TC) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONICS SYSTEM DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.


1) What is the maximum display count in 3 and half digit display ?
a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 1999 d) 999
2) Time period measurement is preferred for measuring
a) Low frequency b) High frequency
3) In PLL, input signal frequency is compared with which one of the following ?
a) VCO output b) Phase comparator output
c) Either a or b d) None of the above
4) The number of IC 74926 required to count frequency of 1 MHz with 0.1 Hz
resolution is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 7 d) 8
5) An electronic instrument is protected against electronic shock by providing
a) Shielding b) PCB c) Earthing d) All of these
6) Which of the following PLL has very low power consumption ?
a) 565 b) 4046 c) Both a and b d) None of these
7) In CD 4046, phase comparator II is used in __________ application.
a) low frequency b) high frequency
c) mid frequency d) all frequency
P.T.O.

SLR-PC –187 -2- *SLRPC187*
8) For input voltage range of 0-4 V, t2 = 4000, required size of DVM is
9) IC XR2240 consist of
a) 8 bit counter b) 8 digit counter
c) 4 bit counter d) 6 digit counter
10) The time period of IC 2240 is given as
a) T = RC b) T = 0.67 RC
c) T = 0.7 RC d) None of the above
11) Which of the following chart leads directly to hardware realisation ?
a) Flow chart b) ASM chart c) Smith chart d) All of above
12) Long distance transmission of control signal is done in
a) Voltage form b) Current form c) Either a or b d) None of these
13) Which of following cycle of washing machine requires more time ?
a) Spin b) Drain c) Rinse d) Wash
14) Each row in ladder diagram is called
a) event b) rung c) input d) output
15) Which of following controller is easy for design modifications ?
a) relay logic controller b) programmable logic controller
c) analog controller d) none of above
16) The net open circuit voltage of a thermocouple is a function of
a) junction temperatures b) composition of two metals
c) both a and b d) none of above
17) Cycling in ON-OFF controller decreases as
a) decrease in deadband b) increase in deadband
c) increase in setpoint d) decrease in set point
18) Traffic light controller is a
a) analog circuit b) combinational circuit
c) sequential circuit d) none of these
19) Zero and span circuit is used as
a) V to V converter b) I to V converter
c) V to I converter d) All of above
20) Error voltage is given as
a) Ve = Vpv – Vsp b) Ve = Vsp – Vpv
c) Ve = Vsp d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC187* -3- SLR-PC – 187
Seat
No.
T.E. (E&TC) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015

ELECTRONICS SYSTEM DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any three : 15

a) Draw internal block diagram of IC 565. Explain its working. How PLL is suitable
for frequency synthesis.
b) Design a timer to generate a 250 sec delay using XR 2240.
c) Explain different steps involved in product design.
d) Explain FSK demodulator using LM 565 with neat circuit diagram.
3. Answer any one : 10

a) Design a frequency synthesizer to generate a frequency signal of 1 KHz to
999 KHz using PLL LM 565.
b) Design a frequency measurement system to measure a frequency up to 10 KHz
with 0.1 Hz resolution. Use IC 74C926.
4. Design a 3½ digit DVM for the measurement of ± 2 V signal. 15
SECTION – II

1) Compare PLC with relay logic.
2) Design current to voltage converter to convert 4 to 20 mA into 0 to 5V.
3) Explain microstrip antenna.
4) Design zero span circuit to convert input voltage of –2.5 V to 2.5 V into 0 to
10 V.
Set A

SLR-PC –187 -4- *SLRPC187*
6. Design an analog proportional controller for the temperature range of 0 to 100° C.

Use PT 100 as temperature sensor with set point between 50° C to 70° C and
proportional band of 30%. Controller output required is 0 to 5 V with zero error
output of 25% of full scale output. 15
7. Attempt any one : 10

1) Draw the ladder diagram for an elevator control system. Explain it.
2) Design ON-OFF controller with dead band to control temperature in the range
of 0 to 100°C. Set point is 50°C. Dead band is 5°C.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) (New)

Examination, 2015
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct answer : (20×1=20)

1) Which of the following parameter is negligible in transmission line ?
a) R b) L c) C d) G
2) A transmission line has a phase constant of 29.8 rad/m. at 1000 MHz the wavelength is
a) 29.8 m b) 2.98 m c) 2.1 m d) 0.21 m
3) If a line having Zo = 300 < 0°
is open circuited at far end, VSWR is
a) 0 b) 1 c) infinity d) 2
4) A transmission line has Zo = 300 and ZL = 300-j300

. The transmission coefficient is

a) 1.265 < 18.43° b) 1.01 < 10° c) 1.14 < 66.68° d) 1.09 < 66.68°
5) Consider the following application
1) switch 2) attenuator 3) phase shifter 4) oscillator
In which of above can a PIN diode be used ?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only
6) Consider the following statements
1) Gunn diode can be used in combinational logic circuit
2) Gunn diode can be used in sequential logic circuit
3) Both Gunn and GaAs MESFET can be used in logic circuit
Which of the above statement is correct ?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
7) The expression Hz = C cos(Bx) cos(Ay) yz is for
a) TE wave b) TM wave c) Both d) None of these
8) In a rectangular waveguide there is one half variation of electric field across the narrow
dimension and two half wave variation across wider dimension, then the mode is
a) TE 12 b) TE13 c) TE21 d) TM23
P.T.O.

9) In E plane tee, when input is given to auxiliary arm, the output at two arms are
a) Inphase b) 180 out of phase
c) 270 out of phase d) 90 out of phase
10) A three port circulator is in the given fig. its scattering matrix is

a)
b)
c)
d)

11) O/P power in reflex klystron is

a) 1 mw to 2.5 mw b) 1 kw to 2.5 kw
c) 1 Mw to 2.5 Mw d) None of these
12) Which among them is not a application of microwave ?
a) Telecommunication b) Radar
c) Electronic warfare d) None of these
13) Power loss due to the absorption of the signal in the transmission line giving by
a) Return loss b) Attenuation loss
c) Insertion loss d) Reflection loss
14) Which of the following is correct regarding TWT ?
a) RF field is stationary
b) RF field is non-stationary
c) RF field propagates with velocity equal to velocity of light
d) None of these
15) PIN diode can be used as a
a) Switch b) Amplitude modulator
c) Phase shifter d) All of above
16) The optimum transit time in case of Reflex Klystron is
a) T = n + 3/2 b) T = 3n + 1/2 c) T = n + 3/4 d) T = 3n + 1/4
17) The drift space converts ____________ modulation into ___________ modulation.
a) Low level, High level b) Current, Velocity
c) Velocity, Current d) High level, Low level
18) The location of target includes ______, _______ and _________ parameter.
a) Range, angle and velocity b) Range, temperature and velocity
c) Temperature, angle and velocity d) Range, angle and temperature
19) Duplexer present in improved Radar is used for
a) isolation of transmitter and receiver
b) to protect receiver from high power transmitter
c) to help use a single transmitter/receiver antenna
d) all of these
20) The blind speed of an MTI radar can be avoided by changing the
a) carrier frequency b) pulse repetition frequency
c) antenna rotation rate d) transmitted power
______________
Set A

*SLRPC188* -3-
www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC 188
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2015
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four from following : (4×5=20)
a) What are standing waves ? Draw standing wave pattern for short circuit load, open circuit load and complex
load with mathematical expression.
b) Show that the TM01 and TM10 modes in a rectangular waveguide do not exist.
c) Explain in detail isolator and circulator.
d) Explain IMPATT diode with negative resistance characteristics.
e) A typical N type GaAs Gunn diode has the following parameters :
Threshold field Eth = 2800 V/cm, applied voltage E = 3200 V, device length L = 10 m, doping concentration

No = 2 × 1014/cm3, operating frequency f = 10 GHz calculate

1) Electron drift velocity 2) Current density 3) The electron mobility
3. Attempt any two from following : (2×10=20)
a) An air filled rectangular waveguide has dimensions of a = 8 cm, b = 4 cm. The signal frequency is 3 GHz.
Compute following for dominant mode.
1) Cut off frequency
2) Wavelength in the waveguide
3) Phase velocity and group velocity in the waveguide
4) Wave impedance in waveguide.
b) 1) What are the parameters that can be determined using Smith chart ? Explain one of parameter
determination step.
2) A transmission line has characteristic impedance Zo = 50 is terminated at a load impedance of

ZL = 25 + j100 . Then compute

1) Reflection coefficient 2)Standing wave ratio using Smith chart.

c) A 50 lossless line is connected a signal of 300 KHz to a load of 100
. If the load power is 50 mw, then

determine
1) VSWR 2) Vmax and Vmin 3) Impedance at Vmin and Vmax
SECTION II
a) Reflex Klystron operated at peak of n = 1 or !
"
mode. DC input is 40 mW. The ratio of V1/V0 is 0.278.
Calculate efficiency and Pout in mW.
b) With a neat diagram explain construction of cylindrical magnetron.
c) What is strapping in Magnetron ? How is the same effect obtained without strapping ?
d) Explain the method for phase shift measurement.
e) What is RADAR ? Draw and explain pulse radar system.
a) X-band cylindrical magnetron has following parameters
Anode radius 0.45 m, Cathode radius = 0.15 m, Magnetic flux density = 1.2 m Wb/m2.
Find :
i) Cyclotron angular frequency
ii) Hulls cut-off voltage,
iii) Cut-off magnetic flux density for 6000 volts.
b) Draw and explain any two techniques for measurement of VSWR.
c) What are types of Radars ? Explain each in short.
Set A

SLR-PC 188 www.downloadmela.com
-4- *SLRPC188*
The Complete Smith Chart

Black Magic Design
SW
RT R
N, L dBS
RF OS
RF L. C S [dB
L, C OE ]
OE FF
FF ,P
,E
or
I
ORIGIN
______________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : • Figures to the right indicate full marks.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Draw neat diagrams whenever required.
• Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
• Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.

1. Choose the correct option :

1) On power-up, 8051 uses RAM location ______________ as the first location of
the stack.
a) 7 H b) 8 H c) 1 FH d) None of these
2) Instruction JNB P2.5, HERE assumes that bit P2.5 is an _____________
a) Output b) Input c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
3) Instruction MOV A, 40 H uses _____________ addressing mode.
a) Immediate b) Direct
c) Register indirect d) None of these
4) Bit addresses 80-FFH belong to_____________
a) Special function registers b) Scratch Pad RAM
c) Bit addressable RAM d) None of these
5) Which registers are allowed to be used for register indirect addressing mode if
the data is in on chip RAM ?
a) R1 & R3 b) R1 & R2
c) R0 & R1 d) None of these
6) Serial port interrupt is generated, if _____________ bits are set.
a) IE b) RI, IE c) IP, TI d) RI, TI
7) Out of following registers which register is byte addressable ?
a) TCON b) PSW c) PCON d) SCON
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 189 -2- *SLRPC189*
8) Find the content of A after execution of following code :
CLR A
SETB C
RRC A
SETB C
RRC A
a) C0H b) C2H c) CFH d) None of these
9) ACALL instruction allows specifying _________ address in the instruction and
calling subroutine within ________ program memory block.
a) 2 byte, 3 KB b) 11 bit, 2 KB
c) 9 bit, 2 KB d) None of these
10) Interfacing LCD with 8051 _______ data lines are used along with the _____ signals.
a) 6, RS, RW b) 5, RW, EN
c) 9, RS, EN, RW d) 8, RS, EN, RW
11) Which of the following PIC microcontrollers have memory size 14 bit and 8 bit
wide ?
a) 16F877 b) 16F876 c) 16F873 d) All of the above
12) PIC instruction set is
a) Mutually dependent b) Mututally independent
c) Same as 8051 d) None of these
13) Registers required for using MSSP module are ___________
a) SSPSTAT b) SSPCON c) SSPCON2 d) All of above
14) USART is also known as ___________
a) PCI b) SCI c) ASC d) None of these
15) For 16F877 I2C bus ___________ bit slave addressing is possible.
a) 7 & 10 b) 8 & 12 c) 6 & 4 d) 4 & 8
16) To initiate SPI mode following register is not needed.
a) SSPCON b) SSPSTAT c) PIRI d) SSPIF
17) TRISA is __________ register.
a) I/O b) Data driven c) Data direction d) None of these
18) 16F877 has ___________ interrupt sources.
19) Interrupt vector for 16F877 is addressed at
a) 0006 H b) 0004 H c) 0008 H d) 0FFF H
20) Which bit in INTCON register allows to either enable or disable all interrupts ?
a) ADIE b) INTE c) GIE d) RBIE
______________
Set A

*SLRPC189* -3- SLR-PC – 189
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : • Figures to the right indicate full marks.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Draw neat diagrams whenever required.
SECTION – I
a) Explain data memory and program memory organization of 8051.
b) With example explain addressing modes of 8051.
c) Write an ALP to transfer the contents of register A, R0 and R1 respectively of bank
0 to the registers B, R0 and R1 of bank 1 using stack operation.
d) Explain various SFRs related with timer/counter.
e) Write an ALP to take data in through Port 0, Port 1 and Port 2 one after another and
transfer this data serially at baud rate 9600 continuously.
3. Solve the following :

a) Describe IE register. Write an ALP to generate two square waves one of 25 KHz
frequency at P1.5 and another of 5 KHz frequency at P2.5.
Assume XTAL = 22MHz. Use timer interrupts. 10
b) Interface 16K×8 data ROM and 16K×8 program ROM to 8051. If starting address
is 0000H, find the address space of the data ROM and program ROM. Write an
ALP to access a byte of data which is in data ROM, divide it by 2 and save
quotient in data ROM. 10
OR
b) Draw hardware circuit to interface DAC 0808.
A switch SW is connected to pin P0.0. Write an ALP to do the following :
1) When SW = 0, the DAC output gives a square wave form.
2) When SW = 1, the DAC output gives triangular waveform which is above
origin. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 189 -4- *SLRPC189*
SECTION – II

a) How to find the mechanism by which PIC reset has occurred ? Which PIC SFR is
associated with this ?
b) Why SPI is faster than I2C ?
c) Explain timer 2 of PIC 16F877 with help of neat diagram.
d) List the important features of PIC 16F877.
e) What is the function of WRT bit in configuration word and explain how configuration
word is written ?
5. Solve the following :

a) Explain in detail USART module in PIC 16F877. 10
b) Explain capture and compare mode in PIC 16F877. 10
OR
b) Explain different addressing modes of PIC. Write a program for subtraction of
two 16 bit numbers. 10
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC19* SLR-PC 19
A
S e a t
N o .
Set
S.E. Civil (Part II) Examination, 2015
BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures on right indicate full marks.
2) Assume suitable data as per requirement and mention it.

1. Objective type questions : (20×1=20)

1) _____________ refers to the effect produced by deriving the maximum benefit from the
minimum dimensions of a room.
a) Prospect b) Roominess c) Grouping d) Flexibility
2) For Store, Stair and Studio aspect it needs at
a) NE-E aspect b) S aspect c) N aspect d) NE-W aspect
3) Maximum permissible built up area for plot of size between 200 m2 to 500 m2
a) 60% b) 50% c) 30% d) 40%
4) _____________ certificate is issued by the Municipal Corporation sanctioning authority
after receipt of the completion certificate from the architect.
a) Occupancy certificate b) Commencement certificate
c) Plinth checking certificate d) Completion certificate
5) Completion certificate is issued
a) From Municipal Corporation to the Architect
b) From Municipal Corporation to the Owner
c) From the Architect to Municipal Corporation
d) From the Architect to Owner
6) The total area of such mezzanine floor, in a building should not exceed 1/3 of the plinth
area of the building.
a) 2/3 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) 1/3
7) For water closet, minimum floor area is
a) 1.0 Sq m b) 2.3 Sqm c) 1.5 Sqm d) 1.1 Sqm
8) Following is not cost control at design stages the part of low cost housing
a) Use of precast units for lintels, cupboard dividers
b) Brick arches, flat or semicircular, instead of RCC lintels
c) Large Window opening
d) Ready mixed concrete for mass housing project
P.T.O.

9) The _____________ are those connected to water closets and through which liquid waste
including human excreta flows.
a) Waste pipe b) Soil pipes
c) Anti syphonage pipe d) Vent pipe
10) The pipe carrying liquid waste from kitchens, bathrooms, wash basins etc. which doesnot
contain human excreta is called
a) Waste pipe b) Soil pipes
c) Anti syphonage pipe d) Vent pipe
11) Minimum sizes of the drain pipes may be adopted for Ventilating and Antisyphonage pipe.
a) 5 cm dia b) 6 cm dia c) 7.5 cm dia d) 10 cm dia
12) Building Bye-laws are laid
a) To prevent hapazard growth of city
b) To avoid air and noise pollution
c) To ensure proper light, ventilation, parking etc.
d) All of the above
13) For _____________ ventilation, the position of outlets should be just opposite to inlets.
a) Lateral b) Diagonal c) Cross d) Indirect
14) In a residential building toilet and WC require minimum _____________ air change per
hour.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
15) System of air conditioning is
a) Central system
b) Self contained system
c) Combined system
d) All of the above
16) The requirements for fitments for drainage and sanitation are given in
a) IS : 1172 : 1971
b) IS : 774 : 1971
c) IS : 456 : 1972
d) IS : 962 : 1989
17) Driers reduces the _____________ of the paint.
a) Thickness b) Elasticity c) Spread d) Workability
18) The drier an oil paint should not be more than
a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%
19) For built up area calculations _____________ is drawn on the building permission drawing.
a) Terrace plan b) Plan
c) Site plan d) Block plan
20) _____________ is a liquid which is mixed in a paint to make the paint thinner or of desired
consistency so that it can be easily applied on the surface.
a) Thinner b) Drier
c) Extender d) Vehicle
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. Civil (Part II) Examination, 2015

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Subjective types questions of 80 marks.

2) All questions are compulsory in Section I.
3) Answer any five questions from Section II.
4) Figures on right indicate full marks.
5) Use full size drawing sheet for Section I and use of both sides of
drawing sheet permitted.
6) Use answer book for Section iI.
7) Assume suitable data as per requirement and mention it.
SECTION I
2. Design and draw to scale of 1 : 50 a bungalow for an LIC consultant.

Provide for the following areas/rooms.
1) A living room
2) A kitchen
3) One bed room
4) Toilet block
5) Consulting room
6) Staircase.
Draw typical plan, 1 : 50 and show all details. 25
Draw sectional elevation for above mentioned plan, scale 1 : 50 and show all
details. 15
SECTION II
3. Write any five of the following : (5×8=40)

a) Explain orientation, factor affecting, criteria under Indian conditions.
b) Write a note on building permission and Completion certificate.
c) Write Low cost Housing materials and methods.
d) Draw neat schematic diagram for two pipe system for waste water discharge from different
floors to ground for three story building.
e) What is thermal insulation ? Explain anyone method of thermal insulation.
f) Write a note on Tiles cladding, skirting, dado work.
g) With sketch explain significance of sun diagram, wind diagram.
h) Write step by step procedure for applying oil paint to a plastered wall surface.
_____________________ Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (E&TC) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONICS APPLICATIONS AND SYSTEM DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
1) In SCR angle of conduction can be varied by changing
a) Anode voltage b) Anode current
c) Forward current rating c) Gate current
2) Thyristor can be termed as ______ switch and TRIAC can be termed as _______
switch.
a) AC, DC b) DC, AC c) AC, AC d) DC,DC
3) PIV rating of TRIAC is
a) Same as thyristor
b) Not very significant due to nature of its application
c) Greater than thyristor
d) Inferior and very much less than thyristor
4) Which of the following PNPN devices are bidirectional ?
a) TRIAC b) DIAC c) Thyristor d) Both a and b
5) In 1 phase fully controlled converter with inductive load, RMS value of output
voltage is
Vm
a) b) Same as RMS value of input
2
c) 0.707 Vm d) All above
6) In commutation circuit, employed to turn off an SCR, satisfactory turn off him is
obtained when
a) Circuit turn off time is less than device turn off time
b) Circuit turn off time is greater than device turn off time
c) Circuit time constant is greater than device turn off time
d) Circuit time constant is less than device turn off time
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 190 -2- *SLRPC190*
7) A single phase fully controlled bridge converter supplies an inductive load. If
α = 60°, supply voltage is 230V, 50Hz then PIV os
a) 163.6 b) 325.23 c) 230 d) 650.53
8) If addition of α 1 and α 2 reaches unity then anode current will reach (w.r.t. two
transistor analogy of SCR)
a) zero b) infinity c) negative d) none
9) ID 1596 is a
a) frequency counter b) digital voltmeter
c) low signal amplifier d) balanced modulator-demodulator
10) In a PLL frequency synthesizer, a value of divide-by-N network varies from 5 to
999 in a single steps increment with fin = 1 KHz. What is the value of synthesizer
output ?
a) 0.1 KHz to 999 KHz in 0.1 KHz increments
b) 1 KHz to 999 KHz in 1 KHz increments
c) 5 KHz to 999 KHz in 1 KHz increments
d) 5 KHz to 999 KHz in 1 Hz increments
11) In logic controllers, each rung of adder diagram is evaluated
a) sequentially b) randomly
c) from top to bottom d) from bottom to top
12) In which the of following controller noise is less ?
a) ON-OFF b) Proportional
c) ON-OFF with dead band d) All of these
13) A single IC 2240 generates maximum delay upto
a) Seconds b) Hours c) Days d) Years
14) Which of the following is self powered temperature sensor ?
a) Thermocouple b) RTD c) Thermistor d) None of these
15) ID 74926 can be used in measurement of
a) frequency b) time c) event d) all of these
16) The sensitivity of LM 35 is
a) 10 mV/°C b) 50 mV/°C c) 1 mV/°C d) 100 mV/°C
17) Which of following characteristics are required for selection of instrumentation
amplifier ?
a) High input impedance b) High CMRR
18) Resistance of PT 100 at 50°C is
a) 118 Ω b) 136 Ω c) 150 Ω d) 100 Ω
19) In frequency ratio measurement
a) low frequency signal cycles are counted for one cycle of high frequency signal
b) low frequency signal cycles are counted for 1 second
c) high frequency signal cycles are counted for one cycle of low frequency signal
d) high frequency signal cycles are counted for 1 second
20) Zero and span circuit is used as
a) V to I convertor b) I to V convertor
c) V to V convertor d) None of these
______________ Set A

*SLRPC190* -3- SLR-PC – 190
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS APPLICATIONS AND SYSTEM DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks
SECTION – I
II. Answer any four : 20
i) Sketch V – I characteristics of DIAC and explain its principle of working.
ii) What is gate triggering ? What are the different signals which can be used for
turning ON and SCR by gate control ?
iii) With the help of circuit diagram and waveform explain single phase full wave
center tapped controlled rectifier with resistive load.
iv) Explain FSK demodulator using PLL 565.
v) Explain the basic principle of working of balance modulator with circuit diagram
and waveform.
III. A) Answer any one. 10
i) Design a frequency synthesizer to generate a frequency signal of 1 Hz to 999.9 Hz
using PLL LM 565.
ii) Which are two main turn off methods of SCR ? Explain Class C method of
forced commutation in detail.
B) Design a frequency synthesizer to generate a frequency of 1 KHz to 999 KHz using
IC CD 4046. Use 4.43 MHz crystal. 10
SECTION – II
IV. Attempt any three : 15
1) Draw and explain internal diagram of IC 2240.
2) Design V to I convertor to convert 0 – 10 V into 4 to 20 mA.
3) Compare ON-OFF and proportional controller.
4) Design a timer to generate 100 sec delay using IC 2240.
Set A

SLR-PC – 190 -4- *SLRPC190*
V. A) Attempt any two : 15

1) Design ON-OFF controller for temperature range of 0°C to 200°C with hysteresis
of ± 2%. Use J type thermocouple and cold junction compensation.
2) Draw the ladder diagram for bottle filling plant. Explain it.
3) Design proportional controller which has 67% proportional band, 25% zero
error controller output, error max = ± 3V, full scale output = 12 V.
B) Design time period measurement set up to measure low frequency of 50 Hz with
0.1 Hz resolution. 10
OR
1
Design 3 digit DVM for measurement of AC mains voltage. 10
2
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (E & TC) Engg. (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.


1) Index grading may be achieved through the ____________ of mobile ions
across the core cladding interface within molten glass.
a) Diffusion b) Doping c) Separation d) Combination
2) Modulation means____________
a) Transferring information b) Receiving information
3) Stimulated Brillouin scattering may be regarded as the ____________of light
through thermal molecular vibrations within the fiber.
a) Modulation b) Amplification
c) Dispersion d) Refraction
4) Snell’s law is related to light refraction.
a) True b) False c) Partially true d) None of these
5) For an acceptance angle of 300, NA should be____________
a) 0.5 b) 0.866 c) 1/3 d) 4.6
6) Numerical aperture is useful measure of
a) Light scattering ability b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion d) Light gathering capability
7) The ray tracing helical path through fiber gives change in direction of 2 r at
each reflection called
a) Meridional ray b) Skew ray c) Axial ray d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 191 -2- *SLRPC191*
8) LASER works on ____________principle.
a) Absorption b) Stimulated emission
c) Spontaneous emission d) Both b) and c)
9) Attenuation is expression in ____________
a) Decibel b) Ampere c) Watt d) None of these
10) The graded index profile which produce the best results for multimode optical
propagation have
a) Parabolic refractive index profile b) Rectangular
c) Triangular d) Circular
11) LED is____________optical source.
a) Coherent b) Incoherent
12) If recombination is ____________energy is released in the form of heat.
a) Radiative b) Non radiative
c) Sensitive d) None of the above
13) Edge emitting LED has _________temperature dependence then surface
emitting LED.
a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above
14) Impact ionization phenomenon occur in ____________
a) PN diode b) Avalanche photodiode
c) PIN photodiode d) None of the above
15) In ___________ coding when ‘1’ is to be transmitted, signal occupies logic
high level and when ‘0’ is to be transmitted signal occupies logic low level.
a) NRZ b) RZ c) AMI d) Manchester
16) If photodiode is having responsivity of 0.8 A / W and optical power of 25 μ W,
then photo current generated is___________
a) 20 μ A b) 25 μ A c) 18 μ A d) None of above
17) In case of photodiode, PIN structure is preferred than PN junction structure
because of ___________
a) Temperature dependence b) Low crosstalk
c) Fast response d) Less noise
18) ___________ technique operates in optical domain.
a) TDM b) FDM c) WDM d) Both a) and b)
19) Insertion loss technique is to measure___________
a) Diameter b) Dispersion c) Field d) Attenuation
20) The numerical aperture is useful measure of ___________
a) Light gathering capacity b) Light scattering capacity
c) Attenuation d) Dispersion
______________ Set A

*SLRPC191* -3- SLR-PC – 191
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & TC) Engg. (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015

OPTICAL COMMUNICATION

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2. A) Attempt the following (any three) : 12

i) Explain the advantages of optical communication.
ii) Compare intrinsic and extrinsic absorption mechanism in fiber option.
iii) Explain vapour phase deposition technique for preparing fiber optics.
iv) List the characteristics of injection laser.
B) A typical single-mode fiber has a zero-dispersion wavelength of 1.31 μ m with
a dispersion slope of 0.09 ps nm–2 km–1. Compare the total first -order
dispersion for the fiber at the wavelengths of 1.28 μ m and 1.55 μ m. When
the material dispersion and profile dispersion at the latter wavelength are
13.5 ps nm–1 km–1 and 0.4 ps nm–1 km–1 respectively, determine the
waveguide dispersion at this wavelength. 8
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 12
i) Explain the different types of optical fibers.
ii) Explain the different types of dispersion.
iii) Briefly write about joint losses in optical fiber.
B) Two step index fibers exhibit the following parameters :
a) A multimode fiber with a core refractive index of 1.500, a relative refractive
index difference of 3% and an operating wavelength of 0.82 μ m.
b) An 8 μ m core diameter single-mode fiber with a core refractive index the

same as (a), a relative refractive index difference of 0.3 % and an operating
wavelength of 1.55 μ m.
Estimate the critical radius of curvature at which large bending losses
occur in both cases. 8
Set A

SLR-PC – 191 -4- *SLRPC191*
4. A) Answer any three question : 12

1) Explain the concept of double heterojunction LED
2) Explain following terms :
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Responsibility
3) Explain the concept of PIN photodiode.
4) Explain the concept of link design.
B) A planar LED is fabricated from gallium arsenide which has a refractive index
of 3.6.
a) Calculate the optical power emitted into air as a percentage of the internal
optical power for the device when the transmission factor at the crystal-
air interface is 0.68.
b) When the optical power generated internally is 50% of the electric power
supplied, determine the external power efficiency. 8
5. A) Solve any two question : 12
1) Briefly explain the WDM
2) Write a short note on time division multiplexing design
3) Explain any one method for fiber dispersion measurement.
B) A silicon p-i-n photodiode has an intrinsic region with a width of 20 μ m and a
diameter of 500 μ m in which the drift velocity of electrons is 105ms–1. When
the permittivity of the device material is 10.5×10–13 F cm–1, Calculate :
a) The drift time of the carriers across the depletion region.
b) The junction capacitance of the photodiode. 8
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

Examination, 2015
MOBILE COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) The average duration of typical call denoted as
a) Holding time b) Set up time
c) Blocked time d) Release time
2) The scheme in which each cell is allocated a predetermined set of voice channels
is called as
a) Dynamic channel b) Fixed channel
c) Demand channel d) Forward channel
3) ________ is used for initiating mobile call from mobile to base station.
a) RVC b) RCC c) FCC d) FVC
4) A single transmitted pulse will be spread in time when it reaches the receiver.
This effect which spread out the signal is called
a) Delay spread b) Doppler spread
c) Measured delay d) Path loss
5) _________ occurs when symbol period of the transmitted signal is much larger
than the Delay Spread of the channel.
a) Slow Fading b) Flat Fading
c) Fast Fading d) Frequency selective fading
6) If hopping rate is greater in FHMA system than it is called as
a) Slow frequency hopping
b) Fast frequency hopping
c) Frequency selective hopping
d) None of above
P.T.O.

7) Spot beam antennas is used in which of the following multiple access technique.
a) TDMA b) FDMA c) Both a) and b) d) SDMA
8) _________ uses signals that have transmission bandwidth that is several orders
of magnitued larger than minimum required RF bandwidth.
a) TDMA b) SDMA
c) FDMA d) SSMA
9) Large umbrella cell is related to which concept ?
a) Capacity of cell b) Interference
c) Handoff Process d) Channel Assignment
10) The model which is reasonably accurate for predicting large scale signal strength
over several kilometer is
a) Reflection b) Diffraction
c) Ground reflection model d) Log distance path loss model
11) In GSM the interface between MS and BTS is called
a) A bis Interface b) Um Interface
c) A Interface d) O Interface
12) In GSM the downlink frequency band is
a) 890 915 MHz b) 890 935 MHz
c) 935 960 MHz d) 925 960 MHz
13) The widely accepted shape of cell in cellular network is
a) Hexagonal b) Circular
c) Triangular d) None of the above
14) What is the data rate of TCH/FS speech channel ?
a) 22.8 kbps b) 11.4 kbps c) 6.5 kbps d) 13.8 kbps
15) In GSM the frequency spectrum is partitioned into _________ Carriers.
a) 122 b) 124 c) 126 d) 120
16) GSM frame consist of __________ time slots.
a) 18 b) 10 c) 8 d) 577
17) The multiple access scheme chosen by GSM is
a) TDMA b) FDMA c) CDMA d) Both a) and b)
18) Reverse CDMA link 1.25 MHz in the ______ bands.
a) 849 874 MHz b) 824 849 MHz
c) 869 894 MHz d) 825 860 MHz
19) Frame length used in CDMA 2000 is
a) 5 ms, 10 ms, 20 ms b) 40 ms, 80 ms
20) Frame length used in W-CDMA is
a) 10 ms with 15 slots b) 4.16 ms with 8 slots
c) 20 ms with 8 slots d) 40 ms with 8 slots
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2015
MOBILE COMMUNICATION

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Slove any four : (4×4=16)
1) Explain the process of Handoff in cellular system.
2) What is co-channel interference and system capacity ?
3) Explain Time dispersion parameter in multipath progagation.
4) What is FHMA technique ? Explain in detail.
5) Describe Knife edge diffraction mode.
1) What are different methods to improve capacity of cellular system ? Explain in

detail.
2) Explain practical link budget design using path loss model in detail.
3) What is spread spectrum multiple access technique ? What are its type ? Explain
any one type in detail.
4) Explain flat fading and frequency selective fading in detail.
Set A

SECTION II

1) Short note on GSM frame structure.
2) Explain forward channels in W-CDMA.
3) Draw and explain GPRS transmission plane protocol.
4) Explain multiple access, duplexing techniques and modulation in GSM.
5) Describe types of handoff in GSM.

1) Brief explanation on reverse link structure in IS-95 CDMA system.
2) Describe handoff and power control in 3G system.
3) Explain in GSM bearer services, tele services and supplementary services.
4) Draw and explain GSM architecture.
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC193A* SLR-PC – 193A
Seat
No.
Set A
(Self Learning)
COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
15 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
of Page.


1) ISR related to which of the following unit ?
a) Timer
b) USART
c) Interrupt
d) Serial communication
2) Which of the architecture having less number of instructions ?
a) CISC b) RISC
3) Directly multiplication instruction available in
a) CISC b) RISC
4) To store temporary data in computer ________ memory is used.
a) RAM b) ROM
c) EAROM d) EPROM
5) In CD-ROM for readout which technique is used ?
a) Optical record
b) Magnetic record
c) Electric record
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 193A -2- *SLRPC193A*
6) Which memory is positioned logically used between the CPU registers and
main memory ?
a) Cache memory b) Secondary memory
7) Smallest addressable memory item binary _________ coded decimal digit
pair.
a) Bit b) Byte c) Half word d) Word
8) Assembly language instructions in processors are nothing but ________
a) opcode b) operand
c) register d) none of these
9) Data used with assembly language instruction in processors are nothing but
__________
a) opcode b) operand
c) register d) none of these
10) In Processor DMA stand for __________
a) Direct Memory Access
b) Division Memory Access
c) Direct Mapping Access
d) All of the above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC193A* -3- SLR-PC – 193A
Seat
No.

(Self Learning)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2. Attempt any 4 (each 10 mark) :
1) Write note on CPU.
2) Explain instruction set of microprocessor in detail.
3) Explain CISC and RISC Architecture in detail.
4) What is DMA ? Explain in detail.
5) Explain multi level memory in details; explain virtual memory and cache
memory.
6) Explain concepts related to interrupts structure.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
OPERATING SYSTEM (HSS – Self Learning)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
3) Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.
4) Each question carries 10 marks.

1. Select correct option : 10

1) Allocate the largest hole.
a) Worst fit b) First fit
c) Best fit d) Must fit
2) One solution to the problem of external fragmentation is _________
a) Completion b) Fragmentation
c) Defragmentation d) Compaction
3) The page number is used as an index into a ___________
a) Page Table b) Frame Table
c) Team Table d) Steam Table
4) The SJF algorithm is a special case of the general __________ scheduling
algorithm.
a) Priority b) RR
c) FCFS d) SJF
5) ____________ anomaly reflects the fact that, for some page-replacement
algorithms, the page-fault rate may increase as the number of allocated
frames increases.
a) D’lady’s b) Balcony’s
c) Bakery’s d) Belady’s
P.T.O.

6) As a process executes, it changes _________
a) Time b) State
c) Estate d) Test
7) _________ real-time systems are required to complete a critical task within
a guaranteed amount of time.
a) Soft b) Hard
c) Semi Hard d) Short
8) An address generated by the CPU is commonly referred to as a ________
address.
a) Physical b) Logical
c) Critical d) Radical
9) A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low-priority processes is
_________
a) Aging b) Raging
c) Paging d) Waiting
10) The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion
is the ___________
a) Response time b) Goround time
c) Turnaround time d) Waiting time
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.
2. What is operating system ? Explain time sharing system and parallel system.
3. Write note on :
a) Process state
b) Threads
c) Context switch
d) CPU I/O burst cycle.
4. Explain FCFS and priority scheduling algorithms with example.
5. Explain in detail deadlock prevention and recovery from deadlock.
6. Explain FIFO and LRU Page replacement policies with example.
7. What is resource allocation graph ? Explain Banker’s Algorithm.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

*SLRPC193C* SLR-PC – 193C
Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (E & TC) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
ROBOTICS (HSS – Self Learning)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 15 minutes

1) Which of the following is not a use for a robot ?

a) Maintenance and repair b) Assembly line
c) Mental calculation d) Exploration
2) The number of moveable joints in the base, the arm, and the end effectors
of the robot determines __________
a) degrees of freedom b) playload capacity
c) operational limits d) flexibility
3) Which of the following terms IS NOT one of the four basic parts of a robot ?
a) peripheral tools b) sensor
c) controller d) drive
4) Which of the following is a sensor that measures the movement of an object ?

a) Pressure sensor b) Motion sensor
c) Action sensor d) Touch sensor
5) Which of the following is a device that receives information from an input

device and changes the output if required ?
a) Microprocessor b) Actuator
c) Sensing device d) Controller
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 193C -2- *SLRPC193C*
6) Robots used in automobile plants would be classified as
a) perception system robots b) industrial robots
c) mobile robots d) knowledge robots
7) Which of the following is an automated machine that works on an assembly

line ?
a) Industrial robot b) Assembly robot
c) Domestic robot d) Android
8) Which of the following is the person who wrote the three laws of robotics ?
a) Karel Capek
b) Issac Asimov
c) Joseph-Marie Jacquard
d) Richard Hohn
9) Which of the following is the most common type of actuator ?

a) Electric motor b) Stepper motor
c) Solenoid d) Hydraulic pump
10) The common robotic arm has _________ degrees of freedom.

a) six b) five c) four d) three
______________
Set A

*SLRPC193C* -3- SLR-PC – 193C
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & TC) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015

ROBOTICS (HSS – Self Learning)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Note : Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.
2. Explain the following terms related to robotics : 10

i) Accuracy
ii) Precision
iii) Work volume of an industrial robot
iv) Repeatability
v) Degree of freedom.
3. Write short note on the following : 10

i) Point to point robots
ii) Continuous Path robots.
4. List the internal and external sensors. Write note on any two internal sensor with
examples. 10
5. Draw and explain components of machine vision system. 10
6. What are different functions of robot vision system ? Explain low level and high
level machine vision systems. 10
7. Explain fabrication technology for Micro robotics. 10
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Select correct option : 10

1) Allocate the largest hole.
a) Worst fit b) First fit
c) Best fit d) Must fit
2) One solution to the problem of external fragmentation is _________
a) Completion b) Fragmentation
c) Defragmentation d) Compaction
3) The page number is used as an index into a ___________
a) Page Table b) Frame Table
c) Team Table d) Steam Table
4) The SJF algorithm is a special case of the general __________ scheduling
algorithm.
a) Priority b) RR
c) FCFS d) SJF
5) ____________ anomaly reflects the fact that, for some page-replacement
algorithms, the page-fault rate may increase as the number of allocated
frames increases.
a) D’lady’s b) Balcony’s
c) Bakery’s d) Belady’s
P.T.O.

6) As a process executes, it changes _________
a) Time b) State
c) Estate d) Test
7) _________ real-time systems are required to complete a critical task within
a guaranteed amount of time.
a) Soft b) Hard
c) Semi Hard d) Short
8) An address generated by the CPU is commonly referred to as a ________
address.
a) Physical b) Logical
c) Critical d) Radical
_________
a) Aging b) Raging
c) Paging d) Waiting
10) The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion
is the ___________
a) Response time b) Goround time
c) Turnaround time d) Waiting time
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.
2. What is operating system ? Explain time sharing system and parallel system.
3. Write note on :
a) Process state
b) Threads
c) Context switch
d) CPU I/O burst cycle.
4. Explain FCFS and priority scheduling algorithms with example.
5. Explain in detail deadlock prevention and recovery from deadlock.
6. Explain FIFO and LRU Page replacement policies with example.
7. What is resource allocation graph ? Explain Banker’s Algorithm.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (E and TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER COMMUNICATION NETWORK
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instruction : 1) All questions are Compulsory.
2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
carries one mark.
of Page.
1. Choose the correct answers : (1×20=20)

1) 100 Base-T2 means
a) 100 Kbps, over twisted-pair cables
b) 100 Mbps, baseband, over two twisted-pair cables
c) 100 Gbps, broadband, over two twisted-pair cables
d) None of these
2) Which of the following standards used for CSMA/CD LAN ?
a) IEEE 802.3 b) IEEE 802.2
c) IEEE 802.5 d) IEEE 802.4
3) Ethernet uses _________ encoding.
a) RZ b) NRZ
c) Bi-phase Manchester d) None of these
4) In CRC _________ arithmetic is used to carry out the division.
a) module 1 b) module 2 c) module 3 d) None of these
5) RIP and OSPF are __________ Gateway Protocol.
a) Interior b) Exterior c) Border d) none of these
6) Which of the following transmission media is most resistant to interference ?
c) Optical fiber d) None of these
7) ____________ is abbreviated as CSMA/CD.
a) Carrier Sensed Multiple Access
b) Carrier Sensed collision Detection
c) Carrier Sensed Multiple Access with Collision Detection
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 194 -2- *SLRPC194*
8) Computers in a Metro City have been connected by MAN which uses ______
bus technology.
a) Distributed Queue b) Distributed Bus
c) Dual Bus d) Distributed Queue Dual Bus
9) ___________ routers do not advertise.
a) Active b) Passive c) Default d) None of these
10) What is Internet ?
a) Network of all computers in a company not connected to web
b) Network of home Computers
c) Global network of Computers
d) None of these
11) Which of the following transmission media is used for cable TV Network ?
c) Optical fiber d) None of these
12) Which of the following is not a solution to Slow Convergence Problem ?
a) Hold-downs b) Split horizons c) Poison reverse d) Split verticals
13) Terminators are used in ________ topology.
a) Bus b) Star c) Ring d) None of these
14) In ________ topology, secondary Hubs are used.
a) Bus b) Star c) Tree d) None of these
15) Stub network isolates the organization from
a) Bastion host b) Firewall
c) Incoming datagram traffic d) None of these
16) In ____________ switching, each packet of a message need not follow the
same path from sender to receiver.
a) Circuit switching b) Datagram packet
c) Virtual circuit d) None of these
17) Encryption transforms a message into a form, called as _________ not
accessible to an unauthorized person.
a) Plain Text b) Ciphertext c) Cipher d) None of these
18) DHCP is used to assign _________ address to host.
a) Ethernet b) IP c) Physical d) None of these
19) IPv6 uses _________ address size.
a) 32 bit b) 64 bit c) 128 bit d) None of these
20) Which of the following is reliable end to end transport protocol ?
a) UDP b) TCP c) TCP/IP d) None of these
________________
Set A

*SLRPC194* -3- SLR-PC – 194
Seat
No.
B.E. (E and TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER COMMUNICATION NETWORK

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any four. (4×5=20)
a) Draw detail block diagram of Modem and explain the blocks. 5
b) Explain Hamming code method of error detection. 5
c) What is “Go Back N” technique used in sliding window protocol ? 5
d) Explain datagram fragmentation used in IP protocol. 5
e) Explain concept of subnetting with suitable example. 5
3. Answer any two. (2×10=20)
a) Draw and explain ISO-OSI model used in networking. 10
b) Explain various HDLC frame formats. 10
c) Explain distance vector routing along with count to infinity problem. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 194 -4- *SLRPC194*
SECTION – II
4. Write notes on any four. (4×5=20)
a) Mobile IP 5
b) ICMP-Ping 5
c) SMTP 5
d) IGMP 5
e) IPv6 5
5. Answer any two. (2×10=20)
a) Explain ARP along with cache refinements. 10
b) Explain with figure DHCP state transition. 10
c) Define firewall and explain how it can solve the problem of authentication and
privacy of data. 10
______________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
of Page.

1. Choose the correct answer for following MCQs. 20

1) CLK<=not CLK after 10ns; generates clock of _________ frequency.
a) 100 MHz b) 200 MHz c) 300 MHz d) 50 MHz
2) In VHDL code, statements that are placed inside __________ are executed
sequentially.
a) Entity b) Procedure c) Process d) Function
3) For FLEX 10K CPLD, LAB stands for
a) Logic array block b) Logic access block
c) Legal array block d) None of above
4) A ripple counter is __________ sequential circuit.
a) Reset b) Synchronous c) Asynchronous d) Logic
5) A per IEEE 1164 standard x represents
a) Forcing unknown b) High impedance
c) Weak unknown d) Weak 1
6) A is bit vector equal to 10010101 then A sla 3 results
a) 01010111 b) 01011111
c) 10101111 d) 10111101
P.T.O.

7) A one dimensional array of bit signals is referred to as
a) Bit b) Boolean vector
c) bit_vector d) None of above
8) In Mealy circuit, the outputs depend on
a) Present state b) Present state and present inputs
c) Inputs d) None of above
9) Binary multiplication requires
a) Shifting b) BCD addition
c) Shifting and adding d) None of above
10) Which is default delay in VHDL ?
a) Delta delay b) Inertial delay
c) Transport delay d) None of above
11) For CMOS inverter, the best value of Bn/Bp ratio is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of above
12) Dynamic power dissipation of CMOS inverter __________ with increase in
operating frequency.
c) Remains constant d) None of above
13) CMOS circuit consists of
a) Pull up network b) Pull down network
14) The output pattern that is stored in the ROM is called as
a) Word b) Bit c) Byte d) None of above
15) PLA consist of programmable __________ array.
a) AND b) OR
c) Both AND and OR d) None of above
16) In FPGA, the programmable connections between different points achieved by
a) Antifuse b) Fuse c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
17) Which of the following TAP pin is optional for JTAG support ?
a) TDI b) TMS c) TRST d) TCK
18) Optimizing synthesis for speed results in _________ chip area.
a) Reduction in b) Increase in c) Optimum d) None of above
19) Which of the following VHDL statement is incorrect ?
a) Wait until A = B; b) Wait for 0 ns;
c) Wait for 5 ns; d) None of above
20) PAL contains __________ array programmable and _________ array fixed.
a) NAND, OR b) AND, OR c) OR, AND d) AND, NOR
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015

VLSI DESIGN

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I
a) Write VHDL code for half adder.
b) Write VHDL code for 4 bit comparator.
c) Explain the syntax of Generate statement.
d) Explain IEEE 1164 standard.
e) Write VHDL code for D Flip-flop with asynchronous clear.
f) Explain sequential and concurrent statements in VHDL.
a) Design four bit binary adder using VHDL.
b) Explain in detail VHDL data types.
c) Explain in detail VHDL delays.
d) Write VHDL code for static RAM with 16 words of 8 bits each.
Set A

SECTION II
a) Draw two input OR gate using CMOS logic.
b) Explain dynamic power dissipation in CMOS logic circuits.
c) Explain boundary scan testing.
d) Explain testing of sequential logic circuits.
e) What are different types of SPLDS.
a) Explain CMOS inverter in detail including circuit and transfer

characteristics.
b) Explain the architecture of FPGA.
c) Explain in detail synthesis of VHDL code.
d) Implement Fo =
m (0, 1, 2, 6) and F1 =
m (2, 3, 5, 6, 7) using PLA.
_____________________
Set A

S
N
e
o
a
.
t
5 A J
)
A
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2015
MOBILE AND SATELLITE COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Wireless adhoc networks are
a) Infrastructure based b) Wired and infrastructure less
c) Infrastructure less and wireless d) None of these
2) In GSM the uplink frequency band is
a) 890-915 MHz b) 890-935 MHz c) 935-960 MHz d) None of these
3) How many walsh code used in forward CDMA channel modulation process ?
4) The speech encoder exploits pauses and gaps in speech and reduces its
output at
a) 1200 bps b) 4800 bps c) 9600 bps d) None of these
5) After convolution coding and repetition symbols are sent to _______ block
inter leaver.
a) 4.16 ms b) 577 s

c) 20 ms d) None of these
6) The wireless medium
a) Is quite reliable for voice and data communication
b) Is not quite reliable for voice and data communication
c) Offer very large bandwidth
d) None of these
7) The IEEE 802.11 standard designed to operate in ________ band.
a) 4.2 GHz b) 2.4 GHz c) 4.8 GHz d) None of these
P.T.O.

8) The Access Point (AP) is the wireless equivalent of a wired LAN
a) Switch b) Repeater c) Hub d) None of these
9) In GSM the interface between MS and BTS is called
a) Abis interface b) Um interface c) A interface d) None of these
10) What is the data rate of TCH/FS speech channel ?
a) 22.8 kbps b) 11.4 kbps c) 6.5 kbps d) None of these
11) One of the following battery types is completely free from gas when charging
a) Nickel cadmium battery b) Nickel metal hydride battery
c) Nickel hydrogen battery d) None of these
12) _________ is based on a principle called trilateration.
a) GPS b) Teledesic c) Iridium d) None of these
13) Most VSAT systems operate in _________ band.
a) C b) Ka c) Ku d) None of these
14) The satellite in elliptical orbit has
a) Highest velocity at its apogee point
b) Highest velocity at its perigee point
c) Lowest velocity at its apogee point
d) None of these
15) The expression for the orbital period is
a) T2 = (4 a2)/ b) T2 = (4

a3)/ c) T = (4

a2)/
d) None of these
16) The line joining form the center of the earth to the satellite, passes through
the sub satellite point is called
a) Nadir direction b) Zenith direction
c) Azimuth direction d) None of these
17) Orbital height of iridium satellite is
a) 780 b) 1,469 c) 10,255 d) None of these
18) For Geostationary satellites, eclipses occur during ________ days before
equinoxe.
19) _________ forces acting on an orbiting satellite that tend to change its attitude
and orbit.
a) Gravitational fields of sun and moon
b) Solar pressure
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
20) What is the bandwidth of communication satellite
a) 500 MHz b) 4-6 GHz c) 250 MHz d) None of these
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .

MOBILE AND SATELLITE COMMUNICATION

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
1) Write a short note on multiple access techniques for cellular system.
2) Explain the frequency reuse technique.
3) Explain GSM frame structure.
4) Explain the format of an IEEE 802.11 PHY frame using frequency hopping
spread spectrum.
5) Explain advantages of WLAN.
1) Explain forward link and reverse link structure in IS-95 CDMA system.
2) Explain infrared Vs radio transmission.
3) What is bluetooth piconet ? Explain how they are formed.
4) Explain different types of handover in GSM.
Set A

SECTION II
1) Explain Keplers laws of planetary motion.
2) Explain the procedure for location the satellite in the orbit.
3) Short note on elevation angle calculation.
4) Explain in detail teledesic.
5) Explain in detail Molniya orbit.
1) Explain Attitude and Orbit Control System (AOCS).
2) Explain telemetry, monitoring, tracking and command system.
3) Explain space qualification.
4) With suitable diagram explain forces on satellite and relationship between

axes of a satellite.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (E&TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
RANDOM SIGNAL THEORY AND CODING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve five full questions including MCQ.


1) The parity check matrix of (n, k) block code is of the order of,
a) n×k b) k×n c) (n – k) × n d) k × (n – k)
2) The standardized normal variables (Z) mean is __________ and variance is
a) zero, one b) one, infinite
c) zero, infinite d) one, zero
3) The practicability of the decoder in cyclic code depends on the complexity of the
combinational logic circuit in the,
a) Syndrome register b) Buffer register
c) Error detector d) Memory
4) Parity check matrix is used for
a) Encoding b) Decoding
c) Standard array d) None of these
5) In a standard array number of single bit error pattern in (5, 2) code are
a) 5 b) 2 c) 3 d) 7
6) If a valid codeword in non systematic cyclic code is 1101. Which of the following is also a
valid codeword.
a) 0000 b) 1011 c) 0110 d) 1001
7) For a generator polynomial g (x) = 1 + x + x3 cyclic code is
a) (7, 4) b) (8, 5) c) (7, 3) d) (6, 3)
8) Check which of the following is Hamming code.
a) (7, 4) b) (7, 3) c) (6, 3) d) (8, 2)
9) Standard deviation is measure of
a) average power b) ac power c) dc power d) rms power
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 197 -2- *SLRPC197*
10) A box contain 10 screws, 3 of which are defective. Two screws are drawn at random with
replacement. The probability that none of two screws is defective will be
a) 100% b) 50% c) 49% d) None of these
11) Which of the following convolution code undergoes catastrophic error propagation, whose
vector is,
a) g1 = 011, g2 = 110 b) g1 = 111, g2 = 011, g3 = 110
c) g1 = 111, g2 = 011 d) g1 = 001, g2 = 111
12) The exponent of L in transfer function gives,
a) Free distance b) no. of decoded zero bit
c) no. of decoded one bit d) length of the path
13) Coset leader in standard array consist of
a) Valid codeword b) Received codeword
c) Error pattern d) None of these
14) To guarantee detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, minimum hamming distance in a
block code must be
15) For a state diagram shown below what are generator sequences g1 and g2 of convolutional
encoder.
a) 11, 10 b) 10, 11 c) 11, 01 d) 01, 00

16) For above state diagram of convolutional encoder, what is the code rate and constraint
length
a) 1/2, 2 b) 1/2, 3 c) 1/3, 4 d) 1/3, 3
17) No. of disjoint cells required to implement decoder for convolutional codes are
a) 2k–1 b) 2k–2 c) 2k d) None of these
18) Viterbi decoding algorithm can be implemented using _______ computation.
a) Add–compare–select b) Add–select–compare
c) compare–add–select d) compare–select–add
19) Free distance of systematic convolutional code is _________ than that of non systematic
convolutional code for same code rate.
a) More b) Less c) Equal d) None of these
20) Recursive systematic convolutional encoder is
a) FIR system b) IIR system c) Both d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC197* -3- SLR-PC – 197
Seat
No.
B.E. (E&TC) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

RANDOM SIGNAL THEORY AND CODING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Solve five full questions including MCQ.
SECTION – I

a) For a cyclic code, generator polynomial is g (x) = 1 + x + x3.
If received vector is r (x)
= 1001011, draw circuit for syndrome calculation and check whether it is valid codeword
or not.
b) For (7, 3) cyclic code, check whether given generator polynomial g (x) = g (x) = 1 + x
+ x2 + x4 generates cyclic code or not.
c) The generator matrix of (6, 3) systematic block code is given by
⎡1 0 0 0 1 1⎤
⎢ ⎥
G = ⎢0 1 0 1 0 1⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣0 0 1 1 1 0⎥
⎦
Draw encoder. Find decoding table.
B) For a (6, 3) systematic linear block code, the three parity check digits are P4, P5 and P6
given by 8
P4 = m1 ⊕ m2 ⊕ m3
P5 = m1 ⊕ m2
P6 = m1 ⊕ m3
i) What is the generator matrix for this code ?
ii) What are the valid codewords ?
iii) What will be the error-correcting capability ?

a) Design a encoder of (7, 4) cyclic code generated by g (x) = 1 + x + x3. State any two
properties of cyclic code.
b) Explain in brief variance and standard deviation.
c) What is standard array ? How it is useful in decoding linear block codes ?
Set A

SLR-PC – 197 -4- *SLRPC197*
B) a) The joint density function of two continuous random variable is 8
f(x, y) = Cxy 0 < x < 2, 1 < y < 3
=0 otherwise
Find :
i) value of C ii) P (0 < X < 1, 1 < Y < 2)
iii) P (X < 1, Y > 2).
b) State and prove Baye’s theorem. 4
SECTION – II
4. A) Attempt any three : 12

a) Draw state diagram and trellis diagram for convolutional encoder whose generator
sequences are
g1 = 11, g2 = 01 and code rate is 1/2.
b) What is interleaver ? Why it is used in Turbo encoder ?
c) Explain procedure of iterative decoding for Turbo codes.
d) Write a note on convolutional code rate trace off.
B) For the given convolutional encoder. 8
i) Draw state diagram, tree diagram and trellis diagram.

ii) Show the encoded data for message 1011 on trellis diagram.

a) Explain MAP algorithm used in turbo code decoding.
b) Explain catastrophic error propagation in convolutional codes. Why systematic code
are never catastrophic ?
c) Explain how impulse response can be used to find encoded sequence of convolutional
encoder.
1
B) For a convolutional encoder rate = , generator sequences are g1 = 111 and g2 = 101. 10
3
i) Draw encoder trellis diagram.
ii) Find the free distance or minimum distance.
iii) Find error correcting capability.
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

IMAGE PROCESSING (Elective I)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.



1) Single sensor, linear sensor strip, circular sensor strip, sensor arrays are used for
a) Image acquisition b) Image sampling
c) Image quantization d) None
2) Digitizing the co-ordinate values of continuous image is called
a) Quantization b) Sensing the image
c) Acquisition of image d) Sampling
3) If no. of storage bits are 1048576 for a 4-bit image then what will be the size of image ?
a) 128 × 128 b) 256 × 256 c) 512 × 512 d) 1024 × 1024
4) The number of bits (b) required to store a digitized image is given by
a) b = M × N × k b) b = M × N c) b = M × N × k2 d) b = 2k
5) Unitary transforms in which basic linear operation is exactly
a) not invertible b) irreversible c) invertible d) none
6) The orthogonal vectors are those vectors whose dot product or inner product is zero
means
a) Two vectors are 90° apart and they do not have common information
b) Two vectors are 90° apart and they have common information
c) Two vectors are 180° apart and they do not have common information
d) Two vectors are 180° apart and they have common information
7) For a 1024 × 1024 image DFT requires
a) 1.1 × 1012 operations b) 0 operations
c) 106 operations d) none
8) To highlight fine detail in an image or to enhance detail that has been blurred, either in
error or as a natural effect of a particular method of image acquisition is
a) smoothing b) sharpening c) contrast stretching d) none
P.T.O.

9) In image enhancement, f= is

f x , y f x , y f x , y

x y x y
a) Gradient operator b) Laplace operator

c) Sobel operator d) Prewitt operator
10) In image enhancement, 2f = or

f x , y f x , y
x y
2f = [f(x + 1, y) + f(x 1, y) + f(x, y + 1) + f(x, y 1) 4f(x, y)] is

a) Gradient operator b) Laplace operator

c) Sobel operator d) Prewitt operator
11) For the combinations of Salt and Pepper and Gaussian Noise, useful filter is
a) alpha-trimmed mean filter b) median filter
c) arithmetic mean filter d) max filter
12) When the Fourier spectrum of noise is constant, the noise usually is called _________
a) White noise b) Gaussian noise c) Gamma noise d) Impulse noise
13) Butterworth Band Reject filter of order n is given by
a) H(u, v) = b) H(u, v) =
1
1
2 n
n

D u , v W
D u , v W
1
1

2 2
2 2
D u , v D o

D u , v D o

c) H(u, v) = d) none
1
2 n

D u , v W
1

2 2

D u , v D o

14) Which of the following is not the principle way of estimating degradation function ?
a) by observation b) by experimentation
c) by mathematical modeling d) by removal of noise
15) In morphology the erosion is denoted as __________
a) A B
b) A B c) A B

d) A
B
16) ________ tends to smooth sections of contours but fuses narrow breaks and long thin
gulfs, eliminates small holes and fills gaps in the contours.
a) opening b) closing c) dilation d) erosion
17) Wavelet coding is
a) Lossy compression b) Lossless compression
c) Both a) and b) d) none
18) Most transform coding systems are based on the _________, which provides a good
compromise between information packing ability and computational complexity.
a) DCT b) DFT c) WHT d) none
19) Edge is __________ concept where as region boundary is ________ idea.
a) global, local b) global, global c) local, local d) local, global
20) Horizontal, + 45°, vertical and 45° masks are used for
a) Point detection b) Line detection c) Edge detection d) None
_____________________ Set A

S e a t
N o .

IMAGE PROCESSING (Elective I)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

a) Write a short note on order statistic filters in spatial domain.
b) What are different steps in filtering images in frequency domain ?
c) Explain how digital image is represented.
d) What is DCT ? Explain with one example.
e) What do you mean by HSI model ?

a) What are the various applications of Image Processing in different fields ?
b) Perform sharpening in spatial domain by using median filtering for 5 5 image given below
using 3 3 mask. Consider zero padding

! " #
% "
! # " $
" !
$ "
c) What is discrete wavelet transform ? Explain pyramid structured and tree structured
wavelet transform.
SECTION II

a) Explain different mean filters in the process of image restoration.
b) What are different types of noises ? Explain any one in detail.
c) Explain opening and closing with suitable example.
Set A

d) Sketch dilation and erosion of A by B for following element :
e) Explain how to detect line from image.

a) Explain the role of first and second order derivatives in relation with edge detection.
OR
a) What is contour following used for boundary extraction ? What is chain code method
used for boundary representation.
b) Six symbols and there probabilities are given. Generate Huffman code and calculate
average length of code word and entropy of source.
a 1 a 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 a 6
0 . 1 0 . 4 0 . 0 6 0 . 1 0 . 0 4 0 . 3
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) The frame mode bearer service is supported by a data link layer LAPF,
which is defined in
A) Q. 922 B) Q.933 C) Q.921 D) Q.924
2) Typically, routing is controlled by entries in a connection table based on
A) LAPD B) LAPB C) LAPF D) DLCI
3) The use of _____ allows multiple logical connections to be multiplexed over
the same channel.
A) Multiplexing B) DLCI C) LAPF D) LAPD
4) Control signalling is done over ______ to control establishment and termination
of calls on D, B and H channels.
A) B channel B) H channel C) D channel D) Any channel
5) Flow control and error control in X.25 are implemented using
A) Sequence numbers B) Random numbers
C) Integer numbers D) Floating numbers
6) ______ is the time it takes for a transmitter to send out a block of data.
A) Node Delay B) Transmission Time
C) Propagation Delay D) Discrete Time
7) A network termination forms a boundary between
A) Network and network B) Network and other switching device
C) NT1 TO NT2 D) Customer and network
P.T.O.

8) __________ series classifies services into lower level bearer services and
higher level services.
A) I-200 B) I-100 C) I-300 D) I-400
9) Which ISDN device is used to facilitate rate adaption, i.e., merging equipment
with data rates lower than the 64 Kbps per B-channel to higher speed stream ?
A) TE1/TE2 B) NT1/NT2 C) U D) TA
10) The length of address field and hence of DLCI is determined by the address
extension bits.
A) EA B) DE C) FCS D) SAPI
11) The President of a company sends a video presentation to employees video-
equipped desktop computers. What kind of BISDN service is employed ?
A) Interactive Service B) Distributive Service
C) Narrowband Service D) Multicasting Service
12) Which of the following is not ISDN interactive service ?
A) Video telephony B) TV program distribution
C) LAN-WAN networking D) Document transfer
13) VPI is ________ bits at the network-network interface.
A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16
14) The initial specifications of AAL type ______ and _________ were very similar
in terms of PDU format and functionality.
A) 1, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 3, 4 D) 4, 5
15) Which traffic type is used by internet access ?
A) Constant Bit Rate (CBR) B) Variable Bit Rate (VBR)
C) Available Bit Rate (ABR) D) Unspecified Bit Rate (UBR)
16) This is not a benefit of ATM
A) High performance via hardware switching
B) Class of service support for multimedia
C) Common LAN/WAN architecture
D) Flexibility at the expense of efficiency
17) AAL Type 1 operation deals with
A) Variable bit rate source B) Increasing bit rate source
C) Decreasing bit rate source D) Constant bit rate source
18) A generic term used to describe unidirectional transport of ATM cells
associated by a common unique identifier value is
A) Virtual channel link B) Virtual path
C) Virtual channel D) Virtual path link
19) In the SYNC state, the _______ is used for error detection and correction.
A) HUNT B) Presync C) HEC D) DLCI
20) The _______ is used for routing to and from the end users.
A) Virtual path identifier B) Payload
C) Virtual channel identifier D) None of these
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I

a) With diagram explain I series recommendations.
b) Differentiate single stage and two stage interworking strategies.
c) Explain packet switching along with datagram and virtual circuit approach.
d) Explain ISDN protocols at the user-network interface.
e) Explain functions of NT1 and NT2 ISDN functional groups.
3. Answer any two : 20

a) i) Explain the characteristics of frame relaying and frame switching frame-
mode bearer services. 6
ii) With suitable diagram explain the effect of packet size on transmission
time. 4
b) i) Explain LAPF control protocol format. 6
ii) Write a note on ISDN address structure. 4
c) i) What are the types of ISDN channel structures ? Explain basic and primary
channel structure. 6
ii) Write a note on communication via circuit switching. 4
Set A

SECTION II

a) Describe the header format of ATM cell.
b) Explain frame format and pointer adjustment for SONET.
c) Explain various interactive broadband services.
d) Explain AAL services and protocols.
e) Explain matrix type switching in ATM.
5. Answer any two : 20

a) i) With block diagram explain B-ISDN user-network interface. 6
ii) Write a note on ATM overview. 4
b) i) With flowchart explain call establishment in ATM using virtual path. 6
ii) With reference to HEC, explain effect of error in cell header. 4
c) i) Write a note on ATM cell processing in a switch. 6
ii) Write a note on ATM switch building blocks. 4
_______________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) Multiple Choice Questions should be solved in first 30 minutes.
3) Q. 1 and Q. 3 are Short Answer Type Questions.
4) Q. 2 and Q. 4 are Long Answer Type Questions.
5) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
7) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention them
clearly.
8) Use of log tables and nonprogrammable single memory
calculator is allowed.

1. If a system is carried through a cycle, the summation of work delivered to surroundings

is proportional to the summation of heat taken from surroundings
a) Kelvin Plank law b) Clausius law
c) Carnot theorem d) First law of thermodynamics
2. The control rods used in nuclear power plant are of material

a) Boron b) Silver c) Copper d) Graphite
3. Joules experiment gives us which law of thermodynamics

a) third b) second c) first d) zeroth
4. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its
volume, when the temperature is constant. This statement is of
a) Charles law b) Boyle’s law
c) Gay Lussacs Law d) All of the above
P.T.O.

5. The draft tube is used
a) to increase pressure energy of water leaving to tailrace
b) to decrease pressure energy of water leaving to tailrace
c) to increase kinetic energy of water striking to turbine
d) none
6. Value of universal gas constant in J/kg-mol k, is
a) 8.314 b) 831.4 c) 83.14 d) 8314
7. The feed water, before supplied to the boiler tube is heated with help of flue gases in
a) Furnace b) Economizer c) Blower d) Condenser
8. When a material is subjected to varying stresses, it fails under stresses considerably
below the ultimate stress, the failure is known as
a) fatigue b) creep
c) stress concentration d) none of the above
9. The process of removing material from face of work piece is called
a) chamfering b) knurling c) turning d) facing
10. The cross section of a V-belt is
a) rectangular b) square c) trapezoidal d) circular
11. In an I.C. engine, the ratio of volume displaced by the piston per stroke to clearance
volume in cylinder, is known as
a) expansion ratio b) compression ratio
c) combustion ratio d) none of the above
12. Material used for coating the electrode in Arc welding is called
a) protective layer b) binder
c) slag d) flux
13. If for a power transmission, a simple gear train consisting of 14 gears is used then
the motion of driver and follower will be in the
a) same direction b) opposite direction
c) both a) and b) d) none of the above
14. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine cylinder during
suction stroke is
a) above the atmospheric pressure b) below the atmospheric pressure
c) at the atmospheric pressure d) none of the above
______________
Set A

Seat
No.

BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
1. Attempt any five of the following. 15
a) Define and explain the thermodynamic equilibrium. 3
b) How PWR can be differentiated from BWR ? 3
c) State and explain the three laws of thermodynamics. 3
d) Explain the working of single acting reciprocating pump. 3
e) Differentiate between reciprocating and centrifugal pump. 3
f) Explain the processes in vapor compression refrigeration system with T.S.
diagram. 3
g) State Boyle’s law and Charles’ law and prove that the characteristic gas
equation is PV = mRT. 3
2. Attempt any three of the following. 13

a) In a non-flow reversible process the pressure and volume are related by
P = (1/4 V2) + 3 (where P is in kPa and V is in m3). During the process
volume changes from 0.1 m3 to 0.8 m3. The heat was noticed to be flowing
out as 50 kJ. Determine the change in internal energy. 4
b) A nozzle is used for increasing the velocity of steam. The enthalpy and
velocity of steam entering the nozzle are 2800 kJ/kg and 60 m/s respectively.
The enthalpy at the exit of nozzle is 2600 kJ/kg. The heat losses from this
horizontal nozzle are negligible. Find :
1) Velocity at exit from the nozzle.
2) If the inlet area is 0.25 m2 and specific volume at inlet is 0.18 m3/kg, find
the mass flow rate.
3) If the specific volume at outlet is 0.498 m3/kg, find the area at the exit of
nozzle.
4) Ratio di/do. 5
Set A

c) A system contains 0.15 m3 of air at 4 bar and 423 K. a reversible adiabatic

expansion takes place till the pressure falls to 1 bar. The air is then heated at
constant pressure till enthalpy increases by 67 kJ. Determine the total work
done. 4
d) With neat sketch explain the working of Francis turbine. 4
e) Explain the working of nuclear power plant with block diagram. 4
SECTION – II
3. Attempt any five of the following. 15
a) With the help of PV diagram explain the Otto cycle for SI engine. 3
b) State the advantages and disadvantages of gear drive in comparison with
belt drive. 3
c) Draw a neat sketch of Pillar Drilling Machine and name each part. 3
d) Explain the following mechanical properties : 3
i) Brittleness ii) Ductility
iii) Resilience iv) Malleability
e) Explain the need of design. 3
f) Which are the different types of gears used in power transmission ? Explain
Spur Gear and Bevel Gear. 3
g) Explain the process of resistance welding in brief. 3
4. Attempt any three of the following. 13

a) A driving shaft which rotates at constant speed of 200 rpm is connected by
belting to a driven shaft which runs at 110 rpm. The distance between two
parallel shafts is 730 mm. The pulley on driving shaft is 50 mm in radius.
Determine the radius of driven pulley; also determine the power that can be
transmitted in kW when they are connected by cross belt drive take the initial
tension in the belt as 1.5 kN. The coefficient of friction is 0.25. 4
b) In an air standard diesel cycle. The pressure and temperature at the beginning of
compression are 110 kPa and 28°C. The heat added per kg of air is 3000 kJ/kg.
Determine maximum pressure, maximum temperature, thermal efficiency
and net work done if the compression ratio is 17. 5
c) Explain in detail the manual metal arc welding. 4
d) Define factor of safety and explain the different modes of failure of mechanical
components. 4
————————
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
FLUID MECHANICS – II
Day and Date : Wednesday 20-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Answer Book Page No. 3.


1) The depth at which specific energy is minimum is called as 1
a) Normal depth b) Critical depth c) Alternate depth d) None
2) Cipolletti weir is a trapezoidal weir having side slope of 1
a) 1 horizontal to 2 vertical b) 4 horizontal to 1 vertical
c) 1 horizontal to 4 vertical d) 1 horizontal to 3 vertical
3) The classification of hydraulic jump is based on 1
a) Froude’s no. b) Reynold’s no.
c) Euler’s no. d) Mach no.
4) In a critical sloped channel _________ 1
a) Yn > Yc b) Yn < Yc c) Yn = Yc d) None
5) An error of 1% in measuring H will produce error in discharge over a rectangular notch or
weir 1
a) 1% b) 1.5% c) 2% d) 2.5%
6) If Froude’s no is less than 1 the flow is called as 1
a) Streaming b) Critical c) Shooting d) None
7) Best side slopes for most economical trapezoidal section is 1
1 1
a) Z = 2 b) Z = 3
1 1
c) Z = 4 d) Z = 5
8) Hydraulic jump is a phenomenon of 1
a) RVF b) GVF c) Rotational flow d) None
9) In a most economical rectangular channel section, discharge and depth of flow are 0.8,
then the velocity and hydraulic radius of section are 2
a) 1.95 m/s and 0.4 m b) 1.8 m/s and 1.6 m
c) 2.2 m/s and 0.8 m d) None
P.T.O.

10) For high head and low discharge the suitable turbine is 1
a) Pelton b) Francis c) Kaplan d) None
11) Unit power ‘Pu’ is given by the expression 1
P P P P
a) b) c) d)
H H3 / 4 H3 / 2 H5 / 4
12) Force exerted by a jet of water on a moving vertical plate in the direction of motion of
plate is given by 1
c) ρa (v − u ) d) ρ a (v − u)
2 3
a) ρav 2 b) ρav 3
13) Efficiency of jet of water having velocity (V), striking a series of vertical plates moving
with velocity (u), is maximum when 1
a) u = 2V b) u = V/2 c) u = 3V/2 d) 4V/3
14) Specific speed of a pump is the speed at which a pump run when 1
a) Head developed is unity and discharge is one cubic meter
b) Discharge developed is unity and shaft horse power is also unity
c) Discharge is one cubic meter and shaft horse power is unity
d) None
15) Specific speed of pump is given by 1
N Q N P N Q N P
a) Ns = 5 b) Ns = 3 c) Ns = 3 d) Ns = 5
Hm 4 Hm 4 Hm 4 Hm 4
16) To produce high head by multistage centrifugal pumps, the impellers are connected 1
a) In parallel b) In series
c) In parallel and series d) None
17) The dimensions of Kinematic viscosity (v) is 1
a) L3T–1 b) LT–2
c) L2T–1 d) None
18) If there are (n) variables and (m) fundamental dimensions then variables are arranged
into __________ dimensionless terms. 1
a) (n– m) b) (m – n)
c) π d) None
19) Dynamic similarity means 1
a) Ratio of linear dimensions in model and prototype are equal
b) Similarity of Motion between model and prototype
c) Similarity of Force between model and prototype
d) None
______________ Set A

Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS – II
Day and Date : Wednesday 20-5-2015 Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 compulsory. Solve any two questions from Q. 3 to Q. 5.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is permitted.
5) Question no. 6 is compulsory.
SECTION – I
2. a) Derive the expression for Hydraulic jump using conjugate depths. 6

b) A trapezoidal channel section has side slopes of 1H = 2V and slope of bed is 1 in 1000.
The area of section is 40 m2. Find the dimensions of section if it is most economical. Also
determine the discharge of economical section if C = 50. 6
c) What are the assumptions used in the derivation of dynamic equation of GVF. 4
3. a) A Rectangular channel 10 m wide carries a discharge of 30 m3/s. It is laid at a slope of

0.0001. If at a section in this channel the depth is 1.6 m, How far upstream or downstream
From this section the depth will be 2 m. Take n = 0.015. Use direct step method. Take two
steps. 8
b) Derive the conditions for most economical rectangular section. 4
4. a) Derive the expression for loss of energy through hydraulic jump. 5

b) A rectangular channel having a supercritical flow has to be provided with a hydraulic jump
as an energy dissipater. If value of Froude’s no. before the jump is 4 and loss of energy
through jump is 2.8 m. Calculate sequent depth and height of jump. 7

a) Differentiate between flow through pipes and open channel flow.
b) Explain Cipolletti notch or weir in detail.
c) Applications or uses of hydraulic jump.
d) Find the slope of free water surface in a rectangular channel of width 20 m and depth of
flow is 5 m. The discharge through channel is 50 m3/s. The bed of channel is having slope
1 in 4000. Take Cd = 60.
Set A

SECTION – II
Note : Question no. 6 is compulsory.

Attempt any two from remaining.
6. a) Draw the layout of hydroelectric power plant and explain Gross head and Net head in
case of Turbine. 5
b) Draw and explain the Velocity triangles at inlet and outlet tips of the vanes fixed to impeller
of centrifugal pump. 5
c) What is distorted and undistorted models ? 4
7. a) A jet of water 50 mm dia. moving with a velocity of 40 m/s strikes a curved fixed symmetrical
plate at the centre. Find the force exerted by the jet of water in the direction of jet if the jet
is deflected through angle of 120° at the outlet of the curved plate. 6
b) A Pelton wheel is to be designed for following data shaft power = 11,772 kw,
Head = 380m, Speed = 750 rpm; overall efficiency = 86%. Jet diameter not to be exceed
one sixth of wheel diameter.
Calculate :
i) The wheel diameter
ii) The number of jets required
iii) Diameter of jet.
Note : Take Kv1 = 0.985 and Ku1 = 0.45. 7
8. a) Explain : 6
i) Manometric Efficiency
ii) Mechanical Efficiency
iii) Overall efficiency
of centrifugal pump.
b) The outer diameter of an impeller of a centrifugal pump is 400 mm and outlet width is 50 mm.
The pump is running at 800 r.p.m. against head 15m. The vanes angle at outlet is 40°
and manometric efficiency is 75%. 7
Determine,
1) Velocity of flow at outlet,
2) Velocity of water leaving the vane and
3) Angle made by the absolute velocity and outlet with the direction of motion at outlet and,
4) Discharge.
9. a) Explain Buckingham (π) Theorem. 6

b) The resistance force (F) is a function of length (L) velocity (V), viscosity (μ ) density (ρ )
Bulk Modulus (K). Express the functional relationship between resistant force variables
using Buckingham method. 7
_____________________
Set A

*SLR-PC-200* SLR-PC 200
S e a t
5 A J
N o . )
B.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015

AUDIO-VIDEO ENGG.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Select the correct option : (20×1=20)

1) Disc recording unit works like a
A) Motor B) Dynamo C) Microphone D) Generator
2) _______ is responsible to move the tape.
A) Capstan B) Guides C) Audio signal D) Spools
3) A picture frame is projected twice on the screen
A) To strengthen the image
B) To have good focussing
C) To eliminate flicker
D) To have good resolution
4) Delta gun colour picture tube was first developed by
A) P.I.L. B) R.C.A. C) R.S.C. D) SONY CO-OP
5) What is meant by video capture ?
A) Converting video for the computer B) Creating video on the desktop
C) Real time video D) All of the above
6) Maximum number of grooves on disc = radius of groove/x Where x =
A) Length of groove B) Area of groove
C) Width of groove D) None of these
7) Frequency range of magnetic cartridge is ______ than that of crystal pick-up.
A) Good and less B) Good and grater
C) Bad and less D) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC 200 -2- *SLR-PC-200*
8) The dynamic range of orchestra is
A) 10 to 1000 dB B) 10 to 100 dB C) 20 to 50 dB D) 20 to 100 dB
9) In the process of sound recording the grooves inclines at ______ degrees
with respect to the horizontal.
A) 35 B) 45 C) 75 D) All of the above
10) The factors needed to increase the duration of playback is
A) Increase the size of disc B) Decrease the speed of rotation
C) Increase the size of Grooves D) All of the above
11) In NTSC colour tv system the I signal is derived as
A) 0.21 R 0.52 G + 0.31 B B) 0.21 R + 0.52 G 0.31 B
C) 0.6 R 0.28 G + 0.32 B D) 0.6 R 0.28 G 0.32 B
12) In _______ colour receivers both tint and saturation controls are not necessary.
A) PAL B) PAL-D C) SECAM D) NTSC
13) ________ tube works on the principle of photo-emissivity.
A) Image Orthicon B) Plumbicon C) Vidicon D) CCD
14) In PAL colour TV system two colour difference signals allowed same
bandwidth of
A) 2 MHz B) 1.5 MHz C) 1.3 MHz D) None of these
15) Pre and post equalizing pulses are added for
A) Proper triggering of horizontal oscillator
B) Proper triggering of horizontal and vertical oscillator
C) Proper triggering of vertical oscillator
D) All of the above
16) The predominant spectral colour of received light is called
A) Saturation B) Hue C) Tint D) None of these
17) Astigmatism and coma are _______ errors caused in PIL picture tube.
A) Convergence B) Purity C) Synchronous D) None of these
18) ________ frequency is same for all channels while _______ frequency is
different for each channel.
A) Colour subcarrier, picture carrier
B) Picture carrier, colour subcarrier
C) Colour carrier, picture subcarrier
D) None of these
19) In NTSC the colour control on front panel of receiver changes _______ of
band pass amplifier.
A) Gain B) Distortion C) Frequency D) None of these
20) Use of FM in SECAM means no _______ distortion.
A) Frequency B) Phase C) Amplitude D) All of the above
Set A

*SLR-PC200* -3- SLR-PC 200
S e a t
N o .

AUDIO-VIDEO ENGG.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I

1) Compare coarse-grooves and micro grooves.
2) Give the relation between gap-width and frequency of audio signal.
3) Why VSB modulation technique is used for TV transmission? What are the
drawbacks of VSB modulation ?
4) What is interlaced scanning ? Show how it reduces flicker and conserves
the bandwidth.
5) What are the minimum audio requirements for multimedia PC specifications ?

a) With suitable sketch draw and explain tape transport mechanism. What are
the advantages and disadvantages of tape recording ? Also explain different
noises in tape reproduction system.
b) Sketch the details of horizontal blanking and sync pulses label on it front
porch, back porch, horizontal sync pulse, active line period. Why front porch
and back porch are provided before and after sync pulse ?
c) Explain in the principle of camera tubes with suitable sketch. Explain the
working of image orthicon in detail. Also explain the term dark current.
Set A

SLR-PC 200 -4- *SLR-PC-200*
SECTION II

1) Explain how phase error correction happens in PAL.
2) Explain working of video detector stage in TV receiver.
3) What is HDTV ? Compare it with normal TV.
4) What is compatibility in TV system ? What are its requirements ?
5) Briefly explain how cable TV works.

a) What is frequency interleaving ? With neat diagram sketch how this method
is helpful for accommodating colour information. Also explain what is colour
sub-carrier frequency.
b) Explain with the help of block diagram PAL coder. Explain principle of PAL-D
colour system. In PAL-D system how colour sub-carrier frequency is calculated
and what is its value ?
c) Explain different elements involved in cable TV. Draw block schematic for
low noise block converter. Compare cable TV with satellite TV.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
B.E. (Electronics & Telecomm.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Total Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct answer. (1×20 =20)
1) Which type of following OS the response time is critical ?
a) Network operating system b) Real time operating system
c) Batch OS d) Unix operating system
2) A process is referenced by its what ?
a) Process Taken PT b) Process Identifier PID
c) Task Identifier TID d) Process Name PN
e) Process Handle PH
3) The bit pattern of user mode in CPSR can be shown as
a) 10000 b) 10111 c) 10001 d) 11011
4) Undefined instruction vector is when
a) The processer decode an instruction
b) The processer fetch an instruction
c) The processer cannot decode an instruction
d) None of above
5) Which of the following VIC having the highest priority ?
a) Vectored interrupt request b) Non-vectored interrupt request
c) Fast interrupt request d) None of the above
6) Total number of available ADC input for LPC 2148 is
a) 06 b) 08 c) 14 d) 10
7) I 2C bus implemented in LPC 2148 supports bitrates upto
a) 100 kbit/s b) 200 kbit/s c) 400 kbit/s d) 800 kbit/s
8) The data transfer between master and slave in case of LPC 2148 I2C bus controller is
a) Unidirectional b) Bidirectional
c) Multiple directional d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 201 -2- *SLRPC201*
9) RTC is designed to provide a set of counters to measure a time when
a) User mode is selected b) Normal mode is selected
c) Protected mode is selected d) Can not say
10) In case of LPC 2148, all PWM output occur at
a) Different repetition rate b) Same repetition rate
c) Depends upon design d) None of the above
11) PLL accepts an input clock frequency in the range of
a) 1MHz to 30 MHz b) 10 MHz to 25 MHz
c) 10 MHz to 60 MHz d) 1 MHz to 60 MHz
12) Special purpose register R15 is the program counter contain
a) Address at the next instruction to be fetched by the processor
b) Address at the current instruction to be fetched by the processer
c) Address at the previous instruction to be fetched by the processer
13) For maximum throughput ideally the pipeline advances by
a) One step on each cycle b) Two step on each cycle
c) One step on two cycle d) None of the above
14) AHB provides higher data throughput than ASB because
a) It is based on bidirectional bus design
b) It is based on a centralized multiplexed bus scheme
c) It is based on unidirectional bus design
15) One of the following instruction is not a arithmetic instruction in ARM7 ?
a) ADD b) SBC c) MUL d) LDR
16) LPC2148 has _______ on chip flash program memory.
a) 32 KB b) 64 KB c) 8 KB d) 16 KB
17) In regard to memory management, which is the basic unit of memory ?
a) Block b) Mega byte c) Page d) Sector
18) A binary semaphore
a) Has values one or zero b) Is essential to binary computers
c) Is used only for synchronization d) Is used only for mutual exclusion
19) The strategy of allowing processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called
a) Preemptive scheduling b) None preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first d) First come first served
20) Supervisor made in ARM is
a) Never used
b) Entered by programs when they enter the processor
c) Required to perform any I/O
d) Only allowed to operating system
———————
Set A

*SLRPC201* -3- SLR-PC – 201
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics & Telecomm.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
4) Draw neat diagram whenever necessary.
SECTION – I
1) Describe operation for following instructions with example.

A) MVN
B) LSL
C) ADD
D) ORR
E) CMN
2) Describe features of LPC2148.
3) Explain with example pipeline concept used in ARM processor.
4) Explain communication protocol SCI.
5) Explain concept of RTC in LPC2148.
3. Attempt any two. (2×10= 20)
1) Draw and explain ARM core data flow model.
2) Draw and explain interfacing of GSM with ARM processor.
3) Interface a stepper motor with LPC2148 for the following specifications.

i) The motor is connected to port pins p0.4, p0.5, p0.6 and p0.7
ii) Rotate motor in clockwise direction
Draw a neat circuit diagram and write an embedded C program.

Set A

SLR-PC – 201 -4- *SLRPC201*
SECTION – II
4. Answer any four questions. (4×5=20)
1) Explain queue, mailbox and pipes.
2) Explain in detail Linux process model.
3) Define RTOs. Explain its function.
4) Draw and explain block diagram of digital camera.
5) Describe concept of semaphore with example.
5. Answer any two questions. (2×10=20)

1) What are the states of tasks ? Draw and explain the characteristics of each task
state. Explain with block diagram task control block.
2) Explain concept of round robin time slicing scheduling for RTOs.
3) Explain concept of multithreading using p threads. Explain syslog and strace debug
technique used in Linux.
————————
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .

PATTERN RECOGNITION (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1) The probability density function for X given that the state of nature is W is denoted as
a) P(X/W) b) P(W/X) c) P(W) d) P(X)
2) Bayes formula is given as
a) Evidence = (Posterior × prior)/likelihood
b) Posterior = (Likelihood × prior)/evidence
c) Likelihood = (Posterior × prior)/evidence
d) Prior = (likelihood × posterior)/evidence
3) Computational complexity of the classifier increases as
a) Decrease in no. of features b) increase in no. of features
c) Independent of no. features d) None of these
4) The co-variance matrix S is always
a) Non symmetric and negative semi definite
b) Symmetric and positive definite
c) Non symmetric and positive definite
d) Symmetric and positive definite
5) Determining transition probability for given hidden and visible state is called
a) Evaluation problem b) Decoding problem
c) Learning Problem d) None of these
6) The function l(ai | Wj) describes the loss incurred for taking action ai when the
state of nature Wj is called
a) Loss function b) Discriminant function
c) Gaussian function d) None of these
P.T.O.

7) The probability density function specified by its mean(m) and co variance matrix
(S) is called
a) Univariate density b) Uniform density
c) Gaussian function d) None of these
8) Co-variance matrix describes ________ along various directions.
a) The amount of data scatters b) The sample comes from mixtures
c) The amount of data collected d) None of these
9) Statistical properties of patterns are generally expressed in
a) Feature vector b) Probability density
10) HMM have found greatest use in
a) Character Recognition b) Speech Recognition
c) Gesture Recognition d) Both b) and c)
11) Symmetry property specified as
a) D(a, b) = 0, if and only if a = b b) D(a, b) > 0
c) D(a, b) = D(b, a) d) None of these
12) Procedure that use unlabeled samples are said to be
a) Unsupervised b) Supervised c) Discriminant d) None of these
13) Two samples belongs to same cluster if the _________ distance between them is
less than some threshold.
a) Hamming b) Euclidean c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
14) A cell labelled by the same category of the training point is called
a) Voronoi tessellation b) Reflexivity
c) Symmetry d) None of these
15) A well formed cluster has
a) Compact cloud b) Dispersed cloud c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
16) Which of the following criterion function to solve linear inequality is based on
misclassified samples ?
a) Preceptor b) Relaxation
c) Minimum-squared error d) All of these
17) K-means clustering K indicates
a) No. of samples b) No. of cluster centres
18) If the overlapping between component densities of normal mixture is small them
the conversance is
a) Slow b) Fast c) Moderate d) Unchanged
19) The total scatter matrix is given as _________ if within-cluster matrix (SW) and
between cluster matrix (SB) are given
a) SW×SB b) SW SB c) SW + SB d) None of these
20) Which of the following algorithm reduces the complexity of nearest neighbour search ?
a) Newton Descent b) Gradient Descent
c) Editing d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC202*
-3-
SLR-PC 202
S e a t
N o .

PATTERN RECOGNITION (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
a) Compare univariate and multivariate densities.
b) What is the significance of covariance matrix of a normal density ?
c) Explain pattern recognition systems.
d) What is general principle of maximum likelihood estimation ?
e) Explain joint distribution and densities.

a) Write and explain HMM decoding algorithm.
b) State and explain issues in design of feature extractor.
c) Derive an expression for discriminant function when each feature has same variance.
4. Explain an example of two category classifier. 8
SECTION II
a) State different distance metrics.
b) What is support vector machine ?
c) Explain basic Gradient descent algorithm.
d) Explain non-parametric procedure for density estimation.
e) Explain generalized linear discriminant functions.
a) Compare supervised and unsupervised learning.
b) Explain perception criterion function for solving inequalities.
c) Explain scatter criteria for clustering.
7. How linear classifiers are trained using relaxation procedures ? 8
Set A

Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Electronics and Telecom. Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

FUZZY LOGIC (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.

1. Select correct options : (20×1=20)

1) An universe comprised of three elements, x = {a, b, c}, so cardinality is
a) 3 b) 8 c) 6 d) 4
2) All operations on classical sets also hold for the fuzzy set except.
a) Union b) Intersection
c) Excluded middle law d) None
3) Cartesian product between fuzzy set A & B can be expressed as
a) R = A B b) 4
~
)
~
*
~
c) 4
~
)
~
*
~
d) None
4) R is an equivalence relation if it has property
a) symmetry b) reflectivity c) transitivity d) all of above
5) R = AOB represents ________ composition.
a) max product b) max-max c) min-max d) max-min
6) Interval arithmetic doesnot follow _________ property.
a) commutativity b) distributivity c) both a and b d) none
7) The law of absorption for given fuzzy sets )
~
*
~
is defined by
a) max[(A(x), min [A(x), B(x)]] b) min[A(x), min(A(x), B(x)]]
c) max [A(x), max [A(x), B(x)]] d) none
8) The vertex method is functional mapping with
a) Points in intervals b) end points of interval
c) both a) and b) d) none
P.T.O.

9) HCM is used to classify data in ___________ sense.
a) crisp b) fuzzy c) both a and b d) none
10) Shortcoming of crisp methods in image processing are
a) poor correlation with human visual system
b) poor information
c) vague variability
d) imprecise sharpening of image
11) Rank ordering ambiguity demonstrated for both fuzzy and ________ variable
in fuzzy.
a) static b) constant c) random d) a and c both
12) Unanimous agreement by all those in group concerning their choice is called
as
a) fuzzy ordering b) consensus c) preference d) both b and c
13) In multiobjective decision making, if there is numerical tie between two or
more alternatives, we use _______________ operator/method.
a) max b) min c) min-max d) max-min
14) System state vector contain quantities like
a) system position b) velocity c) acceleration d) all of above
15) The basic type of statistical process control problem involves
a) measurement data b) attribute data
16) Conversion of fuzzy variable to precise quantities done through
a) max. membership function b) centroid method
c) a or b d) none
17) Concept variables are represented in cognitive map
a) causal relation b) nodes
c) diagraphs d) anticausal relation
18) In fuzzy regression the spread of fuzzy numbers may become large and
prototypical values
a) relatively stable b) relatively large
c) relative small d) zero
19) Inference engine is build up with ________ logic.
a) proportional b) predictive c) both a and b d) none
20) In fuzzy expert system the knowledge is represented by a set of
a) fuzzy production rules b) fuzzy numbers
c) fuzzy membership d) none
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Electronics and Telecom. Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

FUZZY LOGIC (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
1) Explain classical sets and fuzzy sets with reference.
2) Prove 4
~
5
.

4
~

5
3) Write a short note on fuzzy equivalence relationship.

~
4) Explain in brief any five techniques of membership value assignment.

5) Explain syntactic recognition in brief.
3. a) Explain c-mean clustering with HCM and FCM. (1×10=10)

b) Explain different approximate methods of extension. (1×10=10)
OR
b) Explain application of fuzzy set in pattern recognition and image processing.
SECTION II
a) Explain fuzzy process control.
b) Write a short note on type 1 and type 2 fuzzy logic.
c) Write a short note on fuzzy and medicine.
d) Write a short note on fuzzy ranking.
e) Explain fuzzy linear programming.
5. a) What are different fuzzy decision making techniques ? Explain each in brief.(1×10=10)
b) Explain fuzzy-neuro and neuro-fuzzy concept. (1×10=10)
OR
c) Explain fuzzy regression in detail
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
DSP PROCESSORS AND APPLICATION (Elective – II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
MCQ/Objective Type Question Paper


1) DSP processors can be used to implement ____________ application.
a) Image processing b) Video processing
c) Signal processing d) All above
2) The result of operation performed in central ALU are stored into ____________
a) ACC b) ACCB c) TREGD d) PREG
3) The no. of registers which can be used for accessing data using indirect addressing
mode is _______________
a) 16, 16 b) 16, 8 c) 8, 8 d) 8, 16
4) C6X has _____________ multipliers.
a) 2 b) 6 c) 4 d) 1
5) The register used for which holds the address of the current data memory page
is _____________
a) DP b) ARP c) ARB d) None
6) The C6X pipeline requires ______________ phases in fetch stage.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
7) In TMS320C6X internal memory is organized as ______________
a) Separate program and data b) Not separate program and data
c) Only program d) Only data
8) ADSP-21061 is _______________
a) Harvard architecture b) Advanced Harvard architecture
c) Super Harward architecture d) Both b) and c)
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 204 -2- *SLRPC204*
9) To use a fixed point DSP device efficiently, one must consider representing filter
coefficients and signal samples using ______________
a) Fixed-point 2’s complement representation
b) Fixed-point 1’s complement representation
c) Fixed-point 2’s and 1’s complement representation
d) None
10) The L2 cache of _____________ K word is shared by both program and data
memory space.
a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 64
11) The TMS320C6X fixed point processors execute up to _________ , _________
bit per instruction cycle.
a) 8,32 b) 32, 8 c) 16, 16 d) 16, 8
12) The C6X pipeline requires _____________ phases in decode stage.
a) 2 b) 24 c) 5 d) 6
13) _____________ independent buses for dual data fetch, instruction fetch, and
noninstrusive I/O.
a) 4 b) 8 c) 6 d) 16
14) The AR ALU (ARAU) performs ____________ arithmetic on ___________
numbers.
a) Unsigned, 16 b) Signed, 16 c) Signed, 32 d) Unsigned, 32
15) The TMS320C6X is ____________ processor.
a) Floating point b) Fixed point
c) Floating/fixed point d) All above
16) The multipliers multiply _____________ X ____________ numbers.
a) 16, 16 b) 17, 17 c) 24, 24 d) 32, 32
17) The ARAU stands for
a) Ancillary register ALU b) Auxiliary register ALU
c) Anchor register ALU d) None
18) SRAM and integrated input output peripherals in ADSP-21061 are _________
a) Single ported b) Dual ported
c) Single/dual ported d) Both a) and c)
19) The TMS 320C6X generation of DSPs is based on ____________ architecture.
a) VelociTI b) Velocity c) Velocit d) None
20) Only data ADSP-21061 is ______________ bit processor.
a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 d) 64
______________
Set A

*SLRPC204* -3- SLR-PC – 204
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

DSP PROCESSORS AND APPLICATION (Elective – II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

1) Mention few applications of TI DSPs.
2) Explain the various register used with the ARAU.
3) What is the use of floating point DSPs ?
4) List the functional units in CALU of 5X and explain.
5) Explain multiprocessing in ADSP 21061.

1) Explain bus structure of 5X series DSP in detail.
2) What are the various interrupts supported by 54X DSPs and explain in detail ?
3) Draw the architecture of ADSP-21061 and explain in detail.
SECTION – II

1) Explain addressing modes in 6X DSPs.
2) Explain internal memory organization in 6X DSPs.
3) Explain IIR implementation using TMS 320C5X DSP processor.
4) List the functional units in C6X and explain.
5) What is the use of HPI in C6X ?

1) Draw and explain TMS320C6X with peripherals.
2) Explain internal architecture of TMS320C6X processor.
3) Discuss the implementation of FFT algorithms using TMS 320C54X DSP
processor.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (CSE) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
APPLIED MATHEMATICS – I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Tick the correct alternative : 20
1
1) X = ___________
D+a
− ax
a) ∫ X.e dx b) eax ∫ e− ax .X dx c) e − ax ∫ e ax .X dx d) None of these
2) The particular integral of (D2 –16)y = cos 2x is
x x x x
a) sin 2 x b) cos 2 x c) − cos 2x d) − sin 2 x
32 32 32 32
1 ⎡1 − x ⎤
D + 1 ⎢⎣ x 2 ⎥⎦
3) = _____________
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) − d) −
x x2 x x2
4) L{ 2t } = ____________
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
s−2 s + log 2 2 + log s s − log 2
5) L–1 { φ′ (s)} = ___________

1 −1
a) − L { φ(s)} b) − t L−1{φ(s)} c) t L−1{φ(s)} d) None of these
t
6) Z-transform of 1 i.e. z{1} for k ≥ 0 is
1 z 1 z
a) b) c) d)
z −1 z −1 z +1 z +1
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 205 -2- *SLR-PC-205*
7) If xk = 3k, k ≥ 0 then z -transform is
1 z
a) b) z(z – 3) c) d) None of these
z−3 z−3
π
8) If f(x) is an even function then ∫ f(x ) dx = ______________

−π
π 0
a) 2 ∫ f( x) dx b) ∫ f( x) dx c) 0 d) None of these
0 −π
9) If x = π is a point of discontinuity then the Fourier series of f(x) at x = π gives

f( π) 1⎡ ⎤
a) f(x) = b) f( π) = lim f( x ) + lim f ( x )⎥
2 2 ⎢⎣ x → π + x→ π − ⎦
c) f( π) = lim f( x) + lim f(x ) d) None of these
x → π+ x → π−
10) Fourier expansion of an odd function has only
a) sine terms b) cosine terms c) both sine and cosine terms d) none of these
11) If v = 5xyi +2y2j + 3yz2k. The divergence of this vector at (1, 1, 1) is
a) 9 b) 10 c) 14 d) 15
12) A unit normal to the surface z = 2xy at the point (2, 1, 4) is
1 1
a) 2i + 4j – k b) 2i + 4j + k c) (2i + 4j – k) d) ( 4i + 2j – k)
21 21
13) The directional derivative of the function φ = x + y at the point p(1, 1, 0) along the
direction (i + j) is ____________
1
a) b) 2 c) 2 d) − 2
2
14) Correlation analysis helps us to ____________ our activities for future.
a) control b) plan c) predict d) all the above
15) If coefficient of correlation r = ± 1 then the regression lines are ___________
π
a) Coincident b) perpendicular c) parallel d) inclined at an angle of 3
16) For binomial distribution mean = 12 and variance is 4, then the values of n, p, q are
respectively.
a) 9, 13, 2 3 b) 4, 12 , 12 c) 18, 2 3 , 13 d) 9, 2 3 , 13
17) Between 2 and 4 pm the average number of phone calls coming to a switchboard of a
company is 2.5. The probability that during a minute there will be exactly 3 calls is ________
a) 0.2138 b) 0.3128 c) 0.2183 d) 0.3821
18) When there are two or more parallel queues and customer moves from one queue to
another queue is known as ___________
a) Balking b) Reneging c) Selection d) Jockeying
19) A service store employs one cashier at its counter, 8 customers arrive on an average
every 5 minutes while the cashier can serve 10 customers in 5 minutes. Under usual
assumptions of arrival and service pattern, the average number of customers in the system
(LS) = ___________
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
20) ___________ is a queueing discipline.
a) First in first out b) First come first served
c) Last in first out d) All the above a), b) and c)
______________ Set A

*SLR-PC-205* -3- SLR-PC – 205
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. a) Solve (D3 + D) y = cos x. 4
d2 y
b) Solve 2
+ y = 2x . 4
dx
c) Solve (D3 – 7D + 6) y = x2. 5
3. a) Find L {∫
0
t
}
u−1 . 2u sin u du . 5
⎧ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎫
b) Find L–1 ⎨log ⎜ 1 + 2 ⎟⎬ . 4
⎩ ⎝ s ⎠⎭
∞
cos 4 t − cos 3t
c) Evaluate ∫ t
dt using Laplace transform. 5
0
OR
1
c) Find inverse Laplace transform of by using convolution theorem. 5
s(s − a 2 )
2
4. a) Prove that the z-transform of xk = sin α k, k ≥ 0 where α is real is given by

z sin α
if | z | > 1. 7
z − 2z cos α + 1
2
1
b) Find the inverse z -transform of F(z) = if ROC is 2 < | z | < 3. 6
(z − 3)(z − 2)
5. a) Find a Fourier series to represent f(x) = x2 in (0, 2 π ). 7
⎧ 1 0 < x < a2
b) Obtain half range cosine series for f(x) = ⎨− 1 a < x < a . 6
⎩ 2
Set A

SLR-PC – 205 -4- *SLR-PC-205*
SECTION – II
6. a) Find the unit tangent vector at any point on the curve given by x = t2 + 2, y = 4t – 5 and
z = 2t2 – 6t where t is any variable. Also determine unit tangent vector at t = 2. 5
b) Find the directional derivative of φ = e cos yz at (0, 0, 0) in the direction of tangent to the
2x
curve x = a sin t, y = a cos t, z = at when t = π /4. 5
c) Prove ∇ ⋅ ⎛⎜ r ∇
1⎞ 3
⎟= . 4
⎝ r ⎠ r4
3
OR
⎛ 4⎞
c) ∇ 4 (er ) = ⎜ 1 + ⎟ er . 4
⎝ r⎠
7. a) Find the coefficient of correlation between x and y 6
x: 23 27 28 29 30 31 33 35 36
y: 18 20 22 21 29 27 29 38 39
b) The following statistical coefficients were calculated to study the relationship between
yield of wheat and the amount of rainfall :
Yield in Rainfall in inches
kg/Acre (x) (y)
Mean : 985.0 12.8
Standard deviation : 70.1 1.6
and r = 0.52
Find a) The two regression equations. b) The most likely yield of wheat when the amount
of rainfall is 9.2 inches. c) The most probable rainfall for 1400 kgs/acre yield of wheat. 7
8. a) Assuming that 20% of the population is literate so that the chance of an individual being
⎛ 1⎞
literate is ⎜ ⎟ and assuming that 100 investigators can take a sample of 10 individuals to
⎝5⎠
see whether they are literate, how many investigators would you expect to report that
3 people or less were literate. 5
b) If the probability that an individual suffers a bad reaction from a certain injection is 0.001,
determine the probability that out of 2000 individuals exactly 3 will suffer a bad reaction. 4
c) The income distribution of workers in a certain factory was found to be normal with mean
of Rs. 500 and standard deviation equal to Rs. 50 there were 228 persons above Rs. 600.
How many persons were there in all ? (Given area under S.N.V. Z from z = 0 to z = 2 is
0.4772). 4
9 a) Auto vehicles arrive at a petrol pump having one petrol unit in Poisson fashion with an
average of 10 units per hour. The service is distributed exponentially with a mean of
3 minutes find a) Average no. of units in the system (Ls) b) Average waiting time for
customer (wq) c) Probability that a customer arriving at the booth will have to wait
d) Probability that the number of customers in the system is 2 (take (M/M/1):( ∞ 1FcFs)model). 7
b) Assume that the good trains are coming in the yard at the rate of 30 trains/day i.e.
24 hours suppose that the inter arrival times follow an exponential distribution. The service
time for each train is assumed to be exponential with an average of 36 minutes. If the yard
can admit N = 9 trains at a time (there being 10 lines, one of which is reserved for shunting
purposes) . Calculate the probability that the yard is empty and find the average
queue-length considering (M/M/1) : (N/FcFs) model. 6
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct options : 20
1) The symbolic form of “Ram is rich and happy” is ____________
a) P ∨ Q b) P → Q c) Q → P d) P ∧ Q
2) The set A contains 4 elements. How many elements will be there in power set of A ?
a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 d) 64
3) If A and B are two sets, then A ∩ (A ∪ B) equals __________
a) B b) A c) A ∪ B d) φ
4) Which of the following suffix notation is valid ?
a) ab*+ b) ab + d /– c) ab + cd – * d) abc +
5) Which of the following is functionally complete set of connectives ?
a) {~, ∧ , ∨ } b) {~, V} c) { ↑ } d) Both b) and c)
6) The following K-map has a function _____________
a) xyzw b) x ′y ′ zw c) x′ yzw d) x y′ zw
7) If X = {a, b c}, then how many permutations can be defined on set X ?
a) 6 b) 3 c) 9 d) 27
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 206 -2- *SLRPC206*
8) Hasse diagrams are drawn for __________
a) Boolean Algebra b) POSETs c) Lattices d) All of these
9) Let A, B, C are three sets, which of the following is wrong ?
a) A ∪ (B ∩ C) = (A ∪ B) ∩ (A ∪ C)
b) (A – B) – C = (A – C) – (B – C)
c) (A×B)×C = A× (B×C)
d) A×(B ∪ C) = (A×B) ∪ (A×C)
10) Let R = { < a, a > , < b, b>, < c, c>, < a,c>, <c, a> } in set A = {a, b, c}, then the relation
R is ___________
a) Partial-order relation b) Equivalence relation
11) In the lattice given below how many complements does the element ‘d’ have ?
a) 0 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
12) Let f(x) = x + 5 and g (x) = 2x + 3, what is the value of (gof) (7) ?
a) 16 b) 28 c) 20 d) 27
13) The Boolean expression a ⊕ (a′ * b) is equal to ____________
a) a b) a*b c) a ⊕ b d) a ⊕ a′ b
*
14) Let < z, o > be an algebraic system, where z is a set of integers and the operation
is defined as mon=maximum (m, n). Then < z, o > is called as _________.
a) Group b) Monoid c) Abelian group d) None of these
15) The law (P → Q) ⇔ (~P) ∨ Q is ____________
a) Symmetric b) Antisymmetric
c) Law of double negative d) Law of implication
16) An onto function is also known as ___________
a) Injective function b) Surjective function
c) Bijective function d) None of these
17) If a = 5, b = 4, c = 2 and d = 2, what is the value of the polish expression abc/d*+ ?
a) 9 b) 7 c) 15 d) 20
18) Which of the following is a partial order relation ?
a) > b) ⊂ c) ⊆ d) =
19) Every chain (linearly ordered set) is ____________
a) Bounded lattice b) Sublattice
c) Distributive lattice d) Complemented lattice
20) In the algebraic system < A, * > , the mapping f : A → A which is one-to-one onto is
called as _____________
a) Automorphism b) Isomorphism c) Endomorphism d) Epimorphism
______________
Set A

*SLRPC206* -3- SLR-PC – 206
Seat
No.

DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
A) Show the following implication :
( ( P ∨ ~P) → Q) → ( ( P ∨ ~P) → R) ⇒ (Q → R)
B) Express P → (~P → Q) in terms of ↑ only.
C) If A = { 2, 3, 4}, B = {1, 2} and C = {4, 5, 6}.
Find : i) A + B ii) B + C iii) (A + B) + (B + C).
D) Show that R → S can be derived from the premises P → (Q → S), ~R ∨ P and Q.
E) Explain with example portion and covering of a set.
F) Given S = {1, 2, 3, 4} and a relation R on S defined by
R = {< 1, 2 >, <4, 3>, < 2, 2 >, < 2, 1>, < 3,1>}
Show that R is not transitive. Find a relation R1 ⊇ R such that R1 is transitive.

3. Solve any one : 10
A) Let A be the set of factors of a particular positive integer m and let ≤ be the relation
‘Divides’ i.e.
≤ = { < x, y > | x ∈ A ∧ y∈ A ∧ (x divides y)}
Draw Hasse diagrams for :
i) m = 6 ii) m = 30 and iii) m = 45
B) Given the relation matrices MR and MS , find MRoS, M~ , M~ , MR~oS and show that
R S
MR~oS = MS~oR~
.
⎡1 0 1⎤ ⎡ 1 0 0 1 0⎤
⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
MR = ⎢1 1 0 ⎥ , MS = ⎢ 1 0 1 0 1⎥
⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
⎣⎢1 1 1⎥⎦ ⎣⎢0 1 0 1 0 ⎥⎦ Set A

SLR-PC – 206 -4- *SLRPC206*
4. Obtain the PCNF and PDNF of the following statement formula : 10

i) (~ P ∨ ~ Q ) → (P →
← ~ Q) ii) (P ∧ Q) ∨ (~ P ∧ Q ∧ R)
SECTION – II
A) Let the functions f : R → R and g : R → R where R is the set of real numbers.
Find fog and gof, where f(x) = x2 – 2 and g(x) = x + 4.
B) Explain with example semigroup and monoid.
C) Convert the following expressions into prefix and postfix form.
i) a – b* c + d/e * h ii) (a + b) ↑ (c + d/e) * f
D) Show that the following lattice in Fig. 1 is not distributive.
Fig. 1
E) Describe the use of group codes in error correction and detection.
F) Let S be a nonempty set and P(S) be its power set. Show that the algebra
< P(S), ∪ > is monoid, where ‘ ∪ ’ is an union operation.
A) Let X = { 1, 2, 3, 4} and f : X → X be given by
F= F1 = {<1, 2 >, < 2, 3 >, < 3, 4>, < 4,1>}.
2 3 2
Find f = fof, f = f of, where o is a composition operation. Construct a composition
0 1 2 3 0
table for < F, o >, where the set F {f , f , f , f } and f = {< 1, 1>, < 2, 2>, < 3, 3 >, < 4, 4>}
is an identity function. Show that < F, o> is an abelian group.
B) Define the following terms :
i) Subsemigroup ii) Submonoid
iii) Semigroup homomorphism iv) Monoid homomorphism
v) Inverse function.
7. Give the following representation for the Boolean function : 10
F =(x + y + z)⋅(x + y + z) ⋅(x + y + z)
1) Circuit diagram 2) Truth table
3) K-map 4) Cube.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (C.S.E.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
ADVANCED C CONCEPTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
4) Draw neat diagrams.

1. Tick mark the correct answer : (20×1= 20)
1) In a 32-bit compiler, we need to store address of integer variable to integer pointer, what will be the
size of integer pointer ?
a) 2 bytes b) 4 bytes c) 8 bytes d) 12 bytes
2) Which of the following library function gives current system time as integer ?
a) f time b) clock c) time d) t-time
3) What will be output of following code ?
static int i = 10 ;
main ( )
{
static int i ;
printf (“%d”, i) ;
}
a) 10 b) 0 c) compile error d) garbage value
4) If a pointer P points to first element in an array, which of following expression causes P to point to
third element of array ?
a) p = p + 1 b) p++ c) p = p + 2 d) p = p + 3
5) int fact (int n)
{
????
else
return (n * fact (n – 1)) ;
}
What do you replace ???? to make the function ‘fact’ return correct answer ?
a) if (n = = 0) return 0 ; b) if (n = = 0) return 1 ;
c) if (n = = 1) return 0 ; d) if (n = = 2) return 1 ;
6) What will be output of following code ?
Main ( )
{
char str [10] = “welcome”;
char *ptr = str;
*ptr = ‘H’ ;
printf (“y.s”, str);
}
a) H b) Welcome c) Helcome d) H Welcome
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 207 -2- *SLRPC207*
7) Which of the following storage class have default initial value as zero ?
a) static b) automatic c) register d) none of above
8) Due to the nature of recursive definition, the implementation of a recursive method involves
a) A WHILE loop b) A FOR loop c) A static variable d) An if statement
9) Which of the following gives memory address of integer variable a ?
a) * a b) a c) & a d) address of (a)
10) Which of the following are incorrect declarations ?
a) extern int i ; b) auto int i ; c) static int i ; d) global int i ;
11) If a file contains a line “I am a boy | r | n” then on reading this line in to the array str [ ] using f gets ( ) what
would str [ ] contain ?
a) I am a boy | r | n | o b) I am a boy | r | o c) I am a boy | n | o d) I am a boy
12) If we define main ( ) function without parameters
a) We can send arguments at command line
b) We can not send arguments at command line
c) We can send only few parameters
d) None of above
13) If a file is opened in “a+” mode, operations possible are
a) read, write, no modification b) read, append, no modification
c) only read d) only write
14) The time complexity of bubble sort is
a) O (n logn2 ) b) O (n) c) O (n2) d) O (n3)
15) Quick sort is also known as
a) fast sort b) diminishing increment sort
c) partition exchange sort d) none of above
16) Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm ?
a) The list must be sorted
b) There should be direct access to the middle element in any sublist
c) There must be mechanism to delete and/or insert elements in the list
d) All the above
17) Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are
a) Processor and memory b) Complexity and capacity
c) Data and space d) None of these
18) Which of the following is not a hashing function
a) Folding method b) Division method
c) Mid square method d) Quadratic probing
19) The disadvantage of separate chaining is
a) Memory allocation will slow down the process
b) Difficult to understand
c) Space required is less
d) None of above
20) To avoid secondary clustering the probe sequence need to be
a) function of the original key value b) function of hash (K)
c) function of table size d) all the above
______________
Set A

*SLRPC207* -3- SLR-PC – 207
Seat
No.
S.E. (C.S.E.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Give advantages and disadvantages of Recursion.
b) Write short note on ‘Dynamic Memory Allocation’.
c) Define string. Give different ways to declare and initialize string. Show how strings are stored in
memory.
d) Trace the output of following code (write details of every statement)
main ( )
{
int n [ ] = {10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60} ;
int i ;
for (i = 0 ; i < = 5 ; i + +)
{
printf (“In address = % u”, & n [i]) ;
printf (“data = % d % d”,
n [i], *(n + i)) ;
printf (“ %d %d”, * (i + n), i [n]) ;
}
}
(Assume address of first element of array = 65510)
e) Explain static storage class with the help of example.

a) Explain at least 5 string library functions with example.
b) Give at least 4 functions for each of the following with their usage
1) Arithmetic functions
2) Data conversion functions
3) Character classification functions
4) Time related functions.
c) What is pointer ? How it is declared and initialized ? Explain pointer to array and pointer to structure
with small C code.
Set A

SLR-PC – 207 -4- *SLRPC207*
SECTION – II

a) Compare text file and binary file.
b) Explain time complexity and space complexity of an algorithm.
c) Write ‘C’ function to merge two sorted array.
d) What is linear probing ? Insert numbers 37, 38, 72, 48, 98, 11, 56 in the table of size 7 using linear
probing (hash (k) = k mod.7.
e) Sort following numbers using bubble sort 77, 42, 35, 12, 101, 5, 10.
5. Solve any two : (2×10=20)

a) Write ‘C’ program to implement quick sort using recursive technique. Give sample output.
b) Discuss criterias used for choosing hash function. What is collision ? Explain chaining method to
resolve collision.
c) What is algorithm analysis ? Explain all cases of algorithm analysis with example.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (Part – I) (Computer Science & Engg.) Examination, 2015
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes

ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.

1) The number of cells in 6 variable k map is
a) 6 b) 12 c) 36 d) 64
2) Each term in the standard sop form is called a
a) minterm b) maxterm c) don’t care d) literal
3) How many inputs and outputs does a full adder have ?
a) two inputs, two outputs b) two inputs, one output
c) three inputs, two outputs d) three inputs, one output
4) The race around condition occurs in a J-K flip-flop when
a) both inputs are 0
b) both inputs are 1
c) the inputs are complementary
d) any one of the above input combinations is present
5) A J-K flip-flop is in toggle condition when
a) J = 1, K = 0 b) J = 1, K = 1
c) J = 0, K = 0 d) J = 0, K = 1
6) Asynchronous counter is also known as
a) Ripple counter b) Multiple choice counters
c) Decade counters d) Modulus counter
7) A 3 bit binary number has a maximum MOD number of
a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 16
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 208 -2- *SLRPC208*
8) A four variable K-map has
a) 8 minterms b) 16 minterms c) 32 minterms d) none of these
9) POS expression of F (A, B, C) = ∑ m (1, 3, 7) is
a) ∑ m (0, 2, 4, 5, 6) b) π m (1, 3, 7)
c) π M (0, 2, 4, 5, 6) d) None of these
10) According to Boolean Algebra (A + AB) equals
a) A b) B c) AB d) A + B
11) A PAL is comprised of programmable ________ gates.
a) NAND b) AND c) NOR d) NOT
12) A ________ is a logic circuit that accept one data input and distributes over
several outputs.
a) Demultiplexer b) Multiplexer
c) Data comparator d) None of the above
13) A memory whose data need to be refreshed periodically is called
a) Static memory b) Dynamic memory
c) Content addressable memory d) RAM
14) IC 74152 is a multiplexer having
a) 1 : 8 lines b) 1 : 32 lines c) 8 : 1 lines d) 16 : 1 lines
15) For register level the information units are
a) Bits b) Words c) Vectors d) Both b and c
16) The maximum number of bytes which can be stored in a memory of size
1024 × 8 is
a) 512 b) 1024 c) 2048 d) 4096
17) Following IC is used for BCD to 7-segment decoder
a) 74148 b) 74157 c) 7447 d) 7485
18) A PLA has
a) Programmable AND array and fixed OR array
b) Fixed AND and fixed OR array
c) Programmable NAND and fixed NOR array
d) Fixed AND array and programmable OR array
19) In data flow modeling statements are executed
a) Sequentially b) Concurrently c) Both a and b d) None
20) Conditional signal assignment is _______ inside PROCESS in VHDL.
a) Allowed b) Not-allowed
c) Conditionally allowed d) Defined
______________
Set A

*SLRPC208* -3- SLR-PC – 208
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part – I) (Computer Science & Engg.) Examination, 2015

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.

a) Simplify the following function using K-map.
f (A, B, C, D) = ∑ m (1, 3, 7, 11, 15) + d (0, 2, 5)
b) Design full adder using K-map.
c) Explain digital comparator in detail with suitable block diagram and truth
table.
d) Explain with neat diagram carry look ahead adder in detail.
e) Write a short note on synchronous counter.
a) Minimize the four variable logic function using K-map and realize using logic
gates
f ( A , B, C, D ) = AB CD + ABCD + A B C + A B D + A C + A BC + B
b) With neat diagram and waveform, explain 4 bit ripple counter.

c) Explain the general model for conversion of flip-flop. Convert SR flip flop to
JK flip-flop. Give the characteristic equation and excitation table of JK flip-flop.
a) Implement the logic-circuit using 8 : 1 multiplexer for
Y = F (A, B, C, D) = ∑ m (0, 3, 5, 6, 13, 14) Set A

SLR-PC – 208 -4- *SLRPC208*
b) Explain types of memories.
c) Write a VHDL code for full-adder and show output waveform.

d) Write short note on 74154.
e) Explain ‘word capacity’ and ‘word size’.

f) Describe entity and architecture in VHDL.
a) Explain decoder tree with an example.

b) Design and explain driver for 7-segment display.
c) Realize 32 : 1 multiplexer using 16 : 1 multiplexers and 2 : 1 multiplexer.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Objective question carries 20 marks with duration of
30 minutes.

1. Choose the correct answers : 20
1) The assembly of cathode, control grid, focussing anode and accelerating electrode
is called as an
a) Electron beam b) Electric field
c) Electron gun d) None of the above
2) The process of returning to the left of the screen after refreshing each scanline is
called as
a) Vertical retrace b) Horizontal retrace
c) Interlacing d) None of the above
3) DVST stands for
a) Direct View Storage Tube b) Direct View Small Tube
c) Direct View Simple Tube d) None of the above
4) Region filling is the process of
a) Selection b) Removal c) Coloring in d) None
5) To determine the points inside the polygon, which of the following test is used ?
a) Side by side test b) Inside-outside test
c) Over test d) Both a) and b)

6) The three dimensional matrix for reflection of a point with respect to

a) xy-plane b) yz-plane
c) zx-plane d) none of the above
P.T.O.

7) The lower right 1 × 1 submatrix of general 4 × 4 3D transformation matrix produces
a) Local scaling b) Rotation c) Reflection d) Overall scaling
8) ______ transformation results in distortion of the shape of the object.
a) Scaling b) Shearing c) Reflection d) Rotation
9) The shift in the position of object _______ transformation.
a) Translation b) Scaling c) Shearing d) Rotation
10) In Bresenhams algorithm error term is initialized to
a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) 0.5
11) The transformation which convert the picture from world co-ordinate system to
screen co-ordinate system is called as
a) Viewing b) Windowing c) Transforming d) None of these
12) End point code method is developed by Sutherland and
a) Cohen b) Sproull c) Ivan d) None of these
13) In Warnock algorithm subdivision process yields a tree structure for the
subwindows is called as
a) Quad structure b) Linear structure
c) Quad tree data structure d) None of these
14) ________ is a technique for using a minimum number of intensity levels to obtain
increased visual resolution.
a) Antialiasing b) Halftoning c) Shading d) All
15) Difficulty and expenses of implementing antialiasing is a drawback of
a) Mid point subdivision algorithm b) Warnock algorithm
c) Z-buffer algorithm d) None of these
16) In Bezier curve, the degree of the ______ defining the curve segment is one less
than the number of defining polygon points.
a) Parameters b) Functions c) Variables d) Polynomial
17) Curve is represented as a collection of
a) Points b) Edges c) Vertices d) None of these
18) In image capture, colour images are characterized by the ______ of three primary
colours and grey.
a) Intensity b) Density c) Texture d) None of these
19) The process of converting raster data into vector data is known as
a) Resterization b) Approximation c) Vectorisation d) Interpolation
20) The number of bytes needed to represent an _______ image is very large.
a) Compressed b) Uncompressed
c) Both d) None of these
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Each Section carries 40 marks.

2) Attempt all questions in each Section.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four (Each carries 5 marks) : 20

A) Explain in detail color CRT monitor with diagram.
B) Consider a line from (0, 0) to (5, 5) using simple DDA algorithm, rasterize the line.
C) Explain in detail seed fill algorithm.
D) Explain any one color model in detail.
E) Explain edge flag fill algorithm with an example.
F) Reflection through an arbitrary line in 2D. Explain.
3. Write Bresenhams circle generation algorithm. Illustrate the circle generation algorithm
by considering the origin-centered circle of radius 5. 10
OR
Write the matrices and draw the diagrams for translation, reflection of an 3D object.
4. Consider the triangle with co-ordinate A(2, 2) B(4, 2) C(4, 4) perform the following
combined transformation. 10
a) Scale the object with scaling factor 2 and 2Sx and Sy)
b) Perform rotation 90° about origin.
c) Reflection through the line y= x.
Set A

SECTION II

1) What are the different properties of Bezier curve ?
2) Explain Sutherland-Cohen line clipping algorithm.
3) Explain segmented display file structure in detail.
4) Explain parametric curve in detail.
5) Explain Z-buffer algorithm in detail.
6) Write note on image and applications.
6. What is multimedia ? Why do we need multimedia ? Explain all the elements of a

multimedia system. 10
7. Explain antialiasing and halftoning techniques in detail. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (CIVIL) Part – II Examination 2015
WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING – I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) A stream that provides water to the water table is termed as
a) affluent b) influent c) ephemeral d) effluent
2) A hydrograph is a relation between time in hours and
a) Rainfall in mm b) Percolation in mm
c) Surface runoff in cumec d) Evaporation in mm
3) A one day rainfall of 18 hours found to have a return period of 50 year. The probability that
a one day rainfall of this or large magnitude will not occur at station C during next 50 years
is
a) 0.636 b) 0.020 c) 0.364 d) 0.371
4) An isohyet is a line joining points having
a) Equal evaporation value b) Equal barometric pressure
c) Equal height above the MSL d) Equal rainfall depth in a given duration
5) Which of the following formations neither contains water nor transmits it ?
a) Aquiclude b) Aquifer c) Aquifuge d) Aquitard
6) The upper limit of area of a basin for the application of unit hydrograph is
a) 1000 km2 b) 1500 km2 c) 5000 km2 d) 10,000 km2
7) Orographic precipitation occurs due to lifting of air mass because of
a) Presence of mountain barriers b) Extra tropical cyclones
c) Density difference of air mass d) Difference of air temperature
8) A flood with a return period of 100 years is the flood that occurs
a) After every 100 years b) Once in 100 years
c) Only after 100 years in the future d) None of these
P.T.O.

9) The tern base flow denotes
a) Delayed groundwater flow reaching a stream
b) Delayed groundwater and snowmelt reaching a stream
c) Delayed groundwater and interflow
d) The annual minimum flow in a stream
10) Pan Coefficient is always
a) More than 1 b) Equal to 1 c) Less than 1 d) Less than 0.5
11) In field under furrow irrigation, ‘furrows’ are referred to represent
a) Ridges on which crops are grown.
b) Narrow ditches which carry irrigation water
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
12) Irrigation is basically required in
a) Humid regions b) Arid regions c) Semi Arid regions d) All the above
13) The efficiency of water application does not depend up on
a) Climatic condition b) Type of soil
c) Method of application d) Geometry of conveyance system
14) The gross irrigated area cannot exceed the cultivable commanded area
a) Correct b) Incorrect
15) For a crop, consumptive use of water is equal to the depth of water
a) Transpired by the crop
b) Evaporated by the crop
c) Used in transpiration, evaporation and quantity of water evaporated from adjacent
soil
d) Transpired and evaporated by the crop
16) Which of the following is the costlier system ?
a) Gravity irrigation b) Lift irrigation
c) Drip irrigation d) Combined a) and b) above
17) The most economical method of soil conservation is
a) Construct a check dam b) Construct a contour bund
c) Drain the soil d) Afforestation
18) Given that the base period is 100 days and the duty of canal is 1000 hector/cumec, the
depth of water will be
a) 0.864 cm b) 8.64 cm c) 86.40 cm d) 864.00 cm
19) Field enclosed by dikes where rice is grown are known as
a) paddis b) furrows c) basins d) all of these
20) For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for
a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
a) rabi or kharif
b) rabi and kharif or sugarcane
c) rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
d) rabi or kharif or sugarcane
______________ Set A

Seat
No.
S.E. (CIVIL) Part – II Examination 2015

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING – I

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Make suitable assumptions only if necessary. But state them clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Define infiltration, list the factors that affect the infiltration. Also explain the working of Ring
infiltrometer with sketch. 6
b) In a catchments area covering 100 km2, the average annual precipitation observed at 5
rain gauge stations is as follows. 8
Station 1 2 3 4 5
Precipitation (mm) 750 1000 900 650 500
Find the number of additional rain gauge stations and also the rain gauge. Density, if the
permissible error is 10%.
3. a) Briefly discuss the factors affecting the evaporation. What are the methods used to control
evaporation from reservoirs ? 6
b) The storm over a catchment 50 km2 was having the following intensity -
40 mm/hr for 1 hr,
70 mm/hr for 2 hr,
30 mm/hr for 1 hr.
The infiltration rate of the catchment area is as follows.
20% area φ = 10 mm/hr
60% area φ = 15 mm/hr
Remaining area is impervious. Find the runoff due to storm. 7

Set A

4. a) Explain the dilution technique of stream flow gauging. 5

b) Estimate the stream flow for the measurement data as given below.
Distance
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
(m)
Depth
0 0.5 1.2 1.8 2.4 2.6 2.0 1.8 1.6 1 0
(m)
Velocity at
0 0.3 0.4 0.6 0.9 1.2 0.9 0.7 0.5 0.3 0 8
0.2 d (m/s)
Velocity at
0 0.2 0.3 0.35 0.4 0.45 0.4 0.5 0.4 0.2 0
0.8 d (m/s)
5. a) What is a unit hydrograph ? List the assumptions in the unit hydrograph theory. 5
b) Design a tube well for following data : 8
i) Yield required = 0.2 cumec
ii) Thickness of confined aquifer = 40 m
iii) Radius of circle of influence = 300 m
iv) Permeability coefficient = 80 m/ day
Drawdown = 6 m
SECTION – II
6. a) Write a short note on following (any three).
I) Ill effects of irrigation
II) Mixed cropping
III) Sub surface irrigation
IV) Lift irrigation. 6
b) Discuss general layout of a lift irrigation scheme. Also discuss its different components. 8
7. a) What is meant by ‘Duty’ and ‘Delta’ of canal water ? Derive the relationship between Duty
and Delta. 6
b) The CCA for a watercourse is 1200 hectares. Intensities of sugarcane and wheat crops
are 20% and 40% respectively. The duties for the crops at the head of the watercourse
are 730 ha/cumec and 1800 ha/cumec, respectively. Find
a) The discharge required at the head of the watercourse.
b) Determine the design discharge at the outlet, assuming a time factor equal to 0.8. 7
8. a) Write the advantages and disadvantages of Drip irrigation system. 6
b) Write a detailed note on river linking projects of India, proposed by NWDA. 7
9. a) State the importance of soil in agriculture and write a note on Indian soils. 6
b) What are the different structures constructed in watershed to retain soil and conserve
water ? Discuss briefly. 7
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015

APPLIED MATHEMATICS II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct answer (one mark each) : (20×1=20)
1) The Newton-Raphson method fails when

a) B

N
is negative b) B

N
is too large c) B

N
is near to zero d) Never fails
2) Solution of simultaneous non-linear equations can be obtained using

a) N R method b) Mullers method
c) False position method d) Bisection method
3) Which of the following statements applies to Bisection method used for finding roots of function ?
a) Converges within few iterations
b) Is faster than Newton-Raphson method
c) Requires that there will be no error in determining the sign of functions
d) Guaranteed to work for all continuous function
4) As soon as a new value of a variable is found by iteration, it is used immediately in the following equations,
this method is called
a) Gauss-Jordan b) Gauss-Seidal c) Jacobis d) Factorization
5) Identify the method of solving simultaneous linear equations in which the coefficient matrix is expressed
as the product of a lower and upper triangular matrix
a) Factorization b) Jacobis c) Jordan d) Seidal
# "

6) First approximation to Eigen vector for the matrix with x0 = is

0 . 2 # 1

a) b) c) d)
1 0 . 2

7) Which of the following is false ?

H @
a) Error in Trapezoidal rule is of order h2 b) Error in Simpsons rule is of order h

J D
c) Error in Weddles rule is of order h7 d) Error in Simpsons rule is of order h5

!
&
8) Rombergs method is based on successive application of

a) Simpsons rule b) Weddles rule
J D
c) Simpsons rule d) Trapezoidal rule

!
&
P.T.O.

9) For which method to solve the integration the number of sub intervals are taken as multiple of 3 ?
J D
a) Simpsons rule b) Trapezoidal rule c) Booles rule d) Weddles rule

!
&
>
10) To convert the integration 1

B N @ N
to the form 1

C J @ J
, while evaluating I by using Gaussian-

Quadrature formula the transformation formula is

=
a) b)
= > J = > > = K = >
N N
c) d) None
> = J = >
N
11) When height of fuzzy set is less than 1, then it is called

a) Normal fuzzy set b) Subnormal fuzzy set
c) Crisp set d) Level cut of a fuzzy set
12) The division of closed intervals [1, 3]/[2, 5] =
a) [2, 15] b) c) d)

3 5 3
1 1
, 2 , ,

2 5 3 5 2

x 1 / 2 f o r 1 x 1

13) Given fuzzy number A x

3 x / 2 f o r 1 x 3
0 o t h e r w i s e
The -cut of A(x) is

a) [2 1, 3 2 ]
b) [1 2
,2
3] c) [1 + 2
,32
] d) [1 + 2
,3+2
]
14) For the fuzzy set A(x) = , scalar cardinality of is approx.

N
x 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5
) N
N
a) 1.8752 b) 1.8257 c) 2.1857 d) 2.3875

15) If A(x) = x for N
; A(x) = 0 otherwise ( 0 , 1 ]
,
-cut of A(x) is
a) (
, 1] b) [
, 1] c) X d) Empty set
16) Consider the fuzzy proposition P : V is F representing India is a prosperous country is

a) Unconditional and qualified b) Unconditional and unqualified
c) Conditional and qualified d) None of the above
17) The crisp rule F G

and 7q, therefore 7p is called
a) Modus follens b) Modus ponens
c) Hypothetical syllogism d) Contrapositive
18) For any fuzzy set B, defined on universal set X, 0 - cut of A is

a) X b)
c) 0 d) (
, 0]
19) Consider (i) and (ii)

m i n 1 , x f o r x 0

S i n x 0 x / 4

B x

A x
0 f o r x 0
0 o t h e r w i s e
Then the fuzzy numbers are

a) Both (i) and (ii) b) Only (i) c) Only (ii) d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
20) Let A : R
[0, 1] be a fuzzy set defined on set of real numbers. Then to qualify as a fuzzy number
a) A must be a normal set b)
-cut of A must be closed interval for

(0, 1]
c) The 0+ A must be bounded (i.e. strong zero cut) d) All the above
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Find a positive root of the equation x log10 x = 1.2 by Regula-Falsi method correct to 4 decimal places. 4
b) Using Mullers method find an approximate root of the equation x3 2x 5 = 0 (perform two iterations) 6
c) Solve the set of linear equations by Gauss-Elimination method
2x1 + 4x2 + x3 = 3
3x1 + 2x2 2x3 = 2
x1 x2 + x3 = 6 4
OR
c) Solve the equations using Gauss Jacobis method correct to 3 decimal places
15x + y z = 14
x + 20y + z = 23
2x 3y + 18z = 37 4
3. a) Solve the following set of equations by LU decomposition method

2x + 3y + z = 9
x + 2y + 3z = 6
3x + y + 2z = 8 7
b) Perform two iterations of the Newtons-Raphson method to solve non-linear equations x2 + xy 6 = 0,
x2 y2 3 = 0 starting with initial conditions x0 = y0 = 1. 6
4. a) Evaluate
e
N
. c o s x d x using Gaussian quadrature 3 point formula. 4

b) Evaluate the integral dx using Rombergs method, take h = 0.5, 0.25, 0.125. 6

N

c) Find a double root of the equation x3 5x2 + 8x 4 = 0 which is near to 1.8. 3
H @
@ N
5. a) Evaluate using Simpsons , Weddles rule, take n = 6. 4+1=5

N

H @
@ N @ O
b) Using Simpsons rule evalute , h = k = 0.5. 4

N O

c) Find the positive real root of the equation x tan x + 1 = 0 correct to three decimal places by using Bisection
method. (perform 6 iterations). 4
Set A

SECTION II
6. a) Let A and B be fuzzy sets defined on the universal set of integers whose membership functions are given by
0 . 4 0 . 5 0 . 3 0 . 2 0 . 2 0 . 7 0 . 1 0 . 3 0 . 5
A x B x
3 2 0 1 1 2 3 4 5
Let a function f : X
x
X be defined for all x1, x2
X by f(x1, x2) = x1, x2. Find f(A, B). 6
b) If A and B are two fuzzy sets defined by the membership functions , and x {0, 1, 2, 3, 4,5}
N N
) N * N
N # #
find ) N
, * N
, ) * N
, ) * N
. Verify that ) * ) * ) *
. 7
7. a) Find the fuzzy number A.B (x) where

x 2 / 4 f o r 2 x 4 x 2 / 4 f o r 4 x 6

8
A x 6 x / 4 f o r 4 x 6 B x 1 0 x / 4 f o r 6 x 1 0

0 o t h e r w i s e 0 o t h e r w i s e

b) Determine which of the following fuzzy sets qualify as fuzzy numbers with justification
1 f o r 0 x 1 0

B x
0 o t h e r w i s e
t a n x i f 0 x / 4 1 f o r x 5

D

x

, C

x

6

8. a) Solve the fuzzy equation A + X = B for X where A and B are fuzzy numbers such that
0 . 2 0 . 6 0 . 8 0 . 9 1 0 . 5 0 . 1
A
[ 0 , 1 ) [ 1 , 2 ) [ 2 , 3 ) [ 3 , 4 ) 4 ( 4 , 5 ] ( 5 , 6 ]
6
0 . 1 0 . 2 0 . 6 0 . 7 0 . 8 0 . 9 1 0 . 5 0 . 4 0 . 2 0 . 1
B
[ 0 , 1 ) [ 1 , 2 ) [ 2 , 3 ) [ 3 , 4 ) [ 4 , 5 ) [ 5 , 6 ) 6 ( 6 , 7 ] ( 7 , 8 ] [ 8 , 9 ) ( 9 , 1 0 ]
b) Let A and B be two fuzzy numbers whose membership functions are given by
x 2 / 2 f o r 2 x 0 x 2 / 2 f o r 2 x 4

A x 2 x / 2 f o r 0 x 2 B x 6 x / 2 4 x 6


Calculate fuzzy numbers (i) A + B ii) MAX (A, B) (as in lattice of fuzzy numbers) 7
9. a) Let X = {1, 2, 3...,10}. The Cartesian product X Y contains 100 members (1,1), (1,2), (1,3),...(10,10). Let
R(X, X) = {(x, y)/x and y have the same remainder when divided by 3. Show that this is an equivalence relation.
Find the equivalence classes defined by this relation. 6
b) Define convex fuzzy set. Which of the following fuzzy sets are convex fuzzy sets ? i) A(x) = 2x ii)
N
* N
N
iii) 7
1
C x x 1 , 2 , 3 , . . . , 1 0
1 1 0 x 1
OR
Let sets of values of X and Y be X = {x1, x2, x3} and Y = {y1, y2} respectively. Assume that the proposition if X
1 0 . 4
is A then Y is B is given. and you are given a fact expressed by proposition

0 . 5 1 0 . 6
B
A
x x x
y y
!
x is where . Use generalized modus ponens to derive a conclusion Y is

. 6 . 9 . 7

) *
A
x x
Use Lukasiewicz implication J (a, b) = min (1, 1 a + b) B

y

s u p m i n

A

x

, R

x , y

, R

x , y

J

A

x

, B

y

N :
modus ponens : If X is A then Y is B and : )

; E I *
7
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II)

Examination, 2015
THEORY OF COMPUTATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct answer to the following questions : (1×20=20)
1) The grammar for the given FA is (Consider q0 as S, q1 as A and q2 as B)
a) S->aS|bA, A->aB|^, B->bA b) S->aS|bA, A->aB, B->bA

c) S->bA, A->aB, B->bA d) S->aS|bA, A->^, B->bA
2) The language for the given Finite Automata is
a) The language of all strings starting with ab b) The language of all strings containing ab
c) The language of all strings ending with ab d) None
3) The language of all string containing the baa over alphabet = {a, b} is represented by the regular expression

a) abb (a + b)* b) (a + b)*abb c) (ab)*baa(a + b)* d) (a + b)*baa (a + b)*

4) Which of the following production is unit production ?
a) A->B b) A->b c) A-> AB d) A->aB
5) Arrange the following steps to convert CFG to CNF
i) Eliminating null production ii) Eliminating unit production
iii) Eliminating useless variable iv) Convert each production in the form S->AB, S->a
a) i, ii, iii and iv b) ii, i, iii and iv c) i, iii, ii and iv d) iv, ii, iii and i
6) The CFG S aS|bS| a is equivalent to regular expression

a) (a + b)* b) (a + b) (a + b)* c) (a + b) (a + b) d) (a + b)*a

7) If R1 and R2 are regular expressions then which of these are regular expression ?
i) R1 + R2 ii) R*R2 iii) R1.R2 iv) R1*
a) i, ii, iii b) i, ii, iv c) i, iii, iv d) ii, iii, iv
8) Suppose M1 = (Q1, , q1, A1, 1) and M2 = (Q2, , q2, A2, 2) accept the language L1 and L2 respectively.

Let M = (Q, , q, A, ). Which of the following languages will be accepted by M ?

i) L1 L2 ii) L1 + L2 iii) L1 L2 iv) L1 L2

a) i, ii, iii b) i, iii, iv c) i, ii, iv d) ii, iii, iv
9) Which of the following grammar is not ambiguous grammar ?
a) E
E + E | E E | (E) | id
b) E E+T|T

T
T*F|F
F
(E) | id
c) S iEtS | iEtSeS | b


P.T.O.

10) Consider the grammar
S-> ASB | ^, A->aAS|a, B->SbS|A|bb
After eliminating ^-productions from above grammar, the resultant grammar will be
a) S->ASB | AB, A->aAS|aA|a, B->SbS|Sb|bS|b|A|bb
b) S->ASB|AB, A->aAS|aA|a, B->SbS|A|bb
c) S->ASB|AB|^, A->aAS|aA|a, B->SbS|Sb|bS|b|A|bb
d) None
11) is accepted by a pda

n n

a b | n 1

a) By null stack and also by final state b) By null stack but not by final state
c) By final state but not by null stack d) By none of these
12) is accepted by
n 2 n

a b | n 1

a) A finite automaton b) A nondeterministic finite automaton

c) A pda d) None of these
13) The intersection of a context-free language and a regular language is
a) Context-free b) Regular but not context-free
c) Neither context-free nor regular d) Both regular and context-free
14) For the standard TM :
a) b)
c)
d)

15) In a standard TM, (q, a), q Q,a is

a) Defined for all (q, a) Q X

b) Defined for some, not necessarily for all (q, a)
QX
c) Defined for no element (q, a) of Q X
d) A set of triples with more than one element

16) If (q, x1) = (p, y, L), then

a) qx1x2 . . . xn pbyx2 . . . xn b) qx1x2 . . . xn ypx2 . . . xn

c) qx1x2 . . . xn pbx1 . . . xn d) qx1 x2 . . . xn pbx2 . . . xn
17) If (q, xn) = (p, y, R), then

a) X1 . . . xn 1 qxn pyx 2x3 . . . xn b) X1 . . . xn 1qxn *pyx2x3 . . .xn

c) X1 . . . xn 1qxn x1x2 . . . xn 1ypb d) X1 . . . xn 1qxn * x1x2 . . . xn 1ypb
18) For the TM given in the following table :
T a p e S y m b o l s
P r e s e n t s t a t e
0 1 x y b
q 1 ( q 2 , x , R ) ( q 5 , b , R )
q 2 ( q 2 , 0 , R ) ( q 3 , y , L ) ( q 2 , y , R )
q 3 ( q 4 , 0 , L ) ( q 5 , x , R ) ( q 3 , y , L )
q 4 ( q 4 , 0 , L ) ( q 1 , x , R )
q 5 ( q 5 , y , R ) ( q 6 , b , R )
* q 6
(* indicates final state)

a) 011 is accepted by M b) 001 is accepted by M
c) 00 is accepted by M d) 0011 is accepted by M
19) For the TM given following table.
P r e s e n t s t a t e 1
* q 1 ( q 2 , b , R )
q 2 ( q 1 , b , R )
(* indicates final state)

a) 1 is accepted by M b) 11 is accepted by M
c) 111 is accepted by M d) 11111 is accepted by M
20) In a standard TM (Q,
, , ,q0, b, F) the blank symbol b is
a) In

b) In c)

d) None of these
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II)

Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
a) Prove that for any NFA M = (Q,
, q0, A, ) accepting a language L which is the subset of

*, then there
is an finite automata M1 = (Q1, , q1, A1, 1) that also accept L.

b) Write regular expression for the following language over = {a, b}
i) String containing exactly two as

ii) String starting with a and ending with b
iii) String starting with aab
iv) String containing aa or bb
v) String ending with bba
c) Write Context Free Grammar generating the language L = {aibjck|i = j + k}
d) Define NFA^. Give recursive definition of * for NFA^ with example.

e) For the following grammar, show that the grammar is ambiguous and find an equivalent unambiguous
grammar
E-> E + E | E * E | id
f) In each case, what is the language generated by the Context Free Language ?
i) S->aSa | bSb |^
ii) S-> aSa | bSb|a|b
3. Convert the following Context Free Grammar to Chomsky Normal Form

S-> ASB |^, A->aAS|a, B->SbS|A|bb 10
OR
Construct finite automata equivalent to the following regular sets using Kleens Thm
(Use stepwise procedure)
i) ba + (a + bb) a*b ii) (b + ba + bba)*a 10
4. Using subset construction algorithm, draw an finite automata accepting the same language. 10
a)
Set A

b)
SECTION II
a) State and explain pumping lemma for regular languages.

b) Construct a PDA M that accepting the set of all strings over {a, b} with equal number of
as & bs.
c) What is PDA ? Explain with an example.
d) Draw the transition diagram (graph) of the Turing Machine given in following table :
T a p e S y m b o l s
P r e s e n t S t a t e
b 0 1
q 1 ( q 2 , 1 , L ) ( q 1 , 0 , R )
q 2 ( q 3 , b , R ) ( q 2 , 0 , L ) ( q 2 , 1 , L )
q 3 ( q 4 , b , R ) ( q 5 , b , R )
q 4 ( q 5 , 0 , R ) ( q 4 , 0 , R ) ( q 4 , 1 , R )
q 5 ( q 2 , 0 L )
Also draw the computation sequence of the input string 00.

e) Explain basic Turing Machine model.
f) Design a Turing Machine to recognize all strings consisting of an even number of 1s

.
6. Explain different variations of Turing Machine. 10

OR
What is non-deterministic Turing Machine ? Construct a Turing Machine to accept

L = {anbn|n 0}.
7. Describe instantaneous description of PDA. Construct a PDA accepting all palindromes over
{a, b}. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSOR
Day and Date : Monday, 18-5-2015 Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
forget to mention, Q. P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.


1) Which microprocessor pins are used to request and acknowledge a DMA transfer ?
a) Reset and ready b) Ready and wait
c) HOLD and HLDA d) None of these
2) What is the addressing mode used in instruction LDA 1050H ?
3) The _______________ input/output ports provide communication with the outside world
of peripheral devices.
a) 256 b) 16 c) 64 d) 128
4) Which of the following statement is true ?
a) The group of machine cycle is called a state
b) A machine cycle consists of one or more instruction cycle
c) An instruction cycle is made up of machine cycles and a machine cycle is made up of
number of states
5) The no. of address lines required to address a memory of size 32 K is
a) 15 lines b) 16 lines c) 18 lines d) 14 lines
6) How many buses are connected as part of the 8085A microprocessor ?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 8
7) How many bits are used in the data bus ?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 16
8) When was the first 8-bit microprocessor introduced ?
a) 1964 b) 1969 c) 1974 d) 1979
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 212 -2- *SLRPC212*
9) Because microprocessor CPUs do not understand mnemonics as they are, they have to
be converted to __________
a) hexadecimal machine code b) binary machine code
c) assembly language d) all of the above
10) What kind of computer program is used to convert mnemonic code to machine code ?
a) Debugger b) Compiler c) Assembler d) Interpreter
11) In 8086 the overflow flag is set when ....
a) The sum is more than 16 bit
b) Signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation
c) Carry and sign flags are set
d) During subtraction
12) In 8086 microprocessor one of the following statements is not true.
a) Coprocessor in interfaced in MAX mode
b) Coprocessor is interfaced in MIN mode
c) I/O can be interfaced in MAX/MIN mode
d) Supports pipelining
13) In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all the interrupts
a) NMI b) DIV 0 c) Type 255 d) Overflow
14) BHE of the 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the
a) Even bank memory b) Odd bank memory
c) I/O d) DMA
15) In 8086 the external interrupts is caused by a signal sent to CPU through one of its pins
they are ____________ and _________
a) NMI, IRET b) INTR, RET c) NMI, INTR d) RET, IRET
16) A 32 bit address bus allows access to a memory of capacity
a) 64 MB b) 16 MB c) 1 GB d) 4 GB
17) The first processor to include virtual memory in the intel microprocessor family was
a) 80286 b) 80386 c) 80486 d) 88086
18) In a microprocessor, the service routine for certain interrupt starts from a fixed location of
memory which cannot be externally set, but the interrupt can be delayed or rejected,
such an interrupts is ___________
a) non-maskable and non-vectored b) maskable and non-vectored
c) non-maskable and vectored d) maskable and vectored
19) When the RET instruction at the end of subroutine is executed ?
a) The information where the stack is initialized is transfer to the stack pointer
b) The memory address of RET instruction is transferred to the program counter
c) Two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the
program counter
d) Two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the
stack pointer.
20) The non maskable interrupt is
a) RST 7.5 b) INTR c) TRAP d) RST 6.5
______________
Set A

*SLRPC212* -3- SLR-PC – 212
Seat
No.
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

MICROPROCESSOR
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

SECTION – I

a) Write a program to subtract 2 numbers stored at memory address 4000 H and 4001 H.
The result should be stored at 4002 H.
b) Explain the following instruction of 8085 :
1) PUSH B
2) SPHL.
c) Explain the following terms :
1) Machine cycle
2) Timing diagram
d) Draw and explain the programming model of 8085 Microprocessor.
e) Write a program to generate the Fibonacci series.
3. Attempt any three: (8×3=24)

a) Explain following of 8085 :
1) X1 and X2
2) RESET OUT
3) Temporary register
4) SID and SOD.
b) Explain single step and single cycle execution.
c) With block diagram, explain I/O interfacing in memory mapped I/O.
e) Draw internal architecture of 8085 and explain the features of 8085.
Set A

SLR-PC – 212 -4- *SLRPC212*
SECTION – II
a) Draw and explain SIM instruction bit format.
b) Draw and explain flag register of 8086.
c) State the features of 80286.
d) Write a short note on use of HOLD and HLDA for DMA transfer.
e) Write a short note on USART.
a) With neat block diagram explain 8259 programmable interrupt controller.
b) Draw and explain the block diagram of 8255 PPI and comment on mode 0.
c) Draw internal architecture of 8086 and explain in brief.
d) Compare asynchronous and synchronous formats of serial data communication.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Comp. Sci. and Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
DATA STRUCTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1. Objective :
1) For traversing list ___________ pointer is needed.
a) Null b) Walking c) Beginning d) Insertion
a) List b) Queue c) Tree d) Stack
3) A directed graph is known as ___________
a) Bigraph b) Diagraph c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
4) The queue is also called as
a) LIFO b) FILO c) LILO d) FIFO
5) Nodes with same parent is known as
a) Brother nodes b) Siblings c) Children d) None of above
6) A graph which contains a cycle is known as ___________
a) Cyclic graph b) Acyclic graph c) DAG d) All of above
7) Null pointer is used to tell
a) End of Linked List b) Empty pointer field of structure
c) The Linked List is empty d) All of above
8) The following sequence of operation is performed on a stack Push (1), Push (2), Pop,
Push (1), Push (2), Pop, Pop, Pop, Push (2), Pop. The sequence of popped out values
are
a) 2, 2, 1, 1, 2 b) 2, 2, 1, 2, 2 c) 2, 1, 2, 2, 1 d) 2, 1, 2, 2, 2
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 213 -2- *SLRPC213*
9) In following graph the degree of a node B = ___________
a) 3 b) 4 c) 1 d) 2
10) In circularly linked list organization, insertion of record involves the modification of
a) No pointer b) 1 pointer c) 2 pointers d) 3 pointers
11) Tree is a ___________
a) Linear data structure b) Non-Linear data structure
c) LIFO d) FILO
12) The length of the longest path from root to any node is known as ___________
a) Length of Tree b) Width of Tree c) Depth of Tree d) None of above
13) The linear list of element in which delete can be done from one end and insertion can
takes place only at the other end is known as ___________
14) The process to visit all the vertices in a graph called as
a) Visiting b) Searching c) Sorting d) Traversing
15) A balance factor is associated with every node in ___________
a) B–Tree b) B+ Tree c) AVL Tree d) None
16) In AVL tree the ___________ of node is the height of its left subtree minus the height of
its right subtree.
a) Ordering b) Balanced factor
c) Cardinality d) Multiplicity
17) In ___________ all leaves are at same level.
a) B+ tree b) B tree
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) and b)
18) ___________ tree is used to provide indexed sequential file organization.
a) B– Tree b) B+ Tree c) Multiway tree d) None
19) In a B+ tree, in contrast to a B– tree,
S1 : All record are stored at the leaf level of the tree
S2 : Only keys are stored in interior nodes
a) Only S1 is true b) Both are true c) Only S2 is true d) Both are false
20) For an AVL tree, if balance factor of any node is 3 then corresponding AVL tree will be
called as
a) Three way tree b) Unbalanced AVL tree
c) 2-3 tree d) Tree-way balanced tree
______________
Set A

*SLRPC213* -3- SLR-PC – 213
Seat
No.
S.E. (Comp. Sci. and Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

DATA STRUCTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
1) Explain queue as an ADT.
2) Explain Stack with operations.
3) Explain Circular Queue with example.
4) Explain Infix to Prefix algorithm with example.
5) Construct a binary search tree from the given list of letters inserted in order an empty
binary search tree J, R, D, G, T, E, M, H, P, A, F, Q.
6) Explain singly linked list insertion cases.
1) Explain how to insert and delete nodes in Doubly Linked List ?
OR
1) Enlist the types of binary tree and give their meanings. With help of example
describe the process of various traversal of binary tree.
4. Write a program to multiply the polynomials. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 213 -4- *SLRPC213*
SECTION – II
1) Explain B Tree with example.

2) Explain topological sort with example.
3) Why there is a need of multiway tree ? Explain.

4) Apply Delete (h), Delete (r), Delete (p), Delete (d) for following tree and show status of
B– Tree after each deletion (order of B Tree is 5) :
5) Explain the following terms related to graph :

a) Graph
b) Weighted Graph
c) Self loop
d) Complete graph
e) Pendant Vertex.
6. Answer any one of the following : 10

1) Define an AVL tree. Explain different rotations in AVL tree. Show stepwise
how an AVL tree is created following keys :
50, 40, 35, 58, 48, 42, 60, 30, 33, 25.
2) Explain B+ trees. Show the growth of B+ tree of order 5 by inserting following keys :
10, 5, 3, 7, 6, 4, 37, 11, 13, 15, 67, 53, 12, 16, 2.
Show the status of B+ tree after every insertion. Also show the status after delete 11.
7. Write C functions for DFS and BFS traversal of graph. 10

_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (CSE) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
DATA COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.


1) DQDB stands for
a) Dual Queue Distributed bus b) Distributed Queue Dual Bus
2) _________ is least expensive guided transmission media.
a) Optical fiber b) Twisted pair c) Co-axial cable d) None
3) _________ cable is used for along distance transmission.
a) Fiber optics b) Twisted pair c) Co-axial d) None
4) DNS and SMTP is function of _________ layer.
a) application b) presentation c) session d) none
5) CRC method used for
a) Error correction b) Error detection and correction
c) Error detection d) None
6) SAR is function of _________ layer.
a) ATM layer b) AAL layer c) Both a and b d) None
7) If generator bit is five _________ zeros can be appended in message bit.
a) five b) six c) four d) three
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 214 -2- *SLRPC214*
8) Hamming code method can only correct _________ errors.
a) two bit b) one bit c) three bit d) four bit
9) Framing is task of _________ layer.
a) DLL b) Transport c) Application d) None
10) _________ is Shannon capacity formula.
a) c = 2Blog2M b) c = Blog2M
c) c = Blog2(1 + SMR) d) None
11) MAC is sublayer of
a) Application b) DLL c) Physical d) None
12) _________ device is used to increase strength of signal.
a) Modem b) CODEC c) Both a and b d) Repeater
13) In connectionless network Packets are called as
a) Datagram b) Frames
c) Segment d) Data
14) LANs can be connected by device called
a) bridge b) modem c) both a and b d) none
15) Which of the following is non-adaptive routing algorithm ?
a) distance vector b) link state c) shortest path d) none
16) Which of the following is collision free protocol ?
a) bit map b) binary countdown
17) Identify the class of following IP address 229.1.2.3.
a) class A b) class D c) class E d) none
18) Which of the following is true of the IP address 241.1.2.3
a) net id is R41 b) the class E c) cost id is 1.2.3 d) none
19) Identify the class of following IP address 128.5.3.2.
a) class A b) class C c) class B d) none
20) The first _________ is a transparent or spanning tree bridge.
a) 802 b) 803 c) 804 d) none
______________
Set A

*SLRPC214* -3- SLR-PC – 214
Seat
No.
S.E. (CSE) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

DATA COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Right figures indicate full marks.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) : 20
a) What is guided transmission media ? Explain optical fiber in detail.
b) What is noise ? Explain its types.
c) Explain difference between OSI and TCP/IP model.
d) Explain TCP/IP model.
e) Using Hamming code method, find out transmitted data for a message of
1101111.
f) Explain unrestricted simplex protocol.
3. Explain different types of transmission impairments. 10

OR
Describe ATM reference model.
4. Explain CRC and Hamming code method with example. 10
SECTION – II

a) Explain non-adaptive routing with shortest path routing algorithm.
b) Explain different class of IP address. Set A

SLR-PC – 214 -4- *SLRPC214*
c) Write note on CSMA.

d) Explain Hierarchical routing algorithm.
e) Explain transparent bridge.
f) Explain ALOHA protocol.
6. Explain IEEE std. 802 for LANs and MANs. 10

OR
What is adaptive routing algorithm ? Explain link state routing in detail. 10
7. Explain elementary DLL protocol. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Part – I) (Computer Science and Engg.) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER NETWORKS – II (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Question No. 1 is Multiple Choice Question / Objective Type
Question, of 20 marks.

1) TCP, unlike UDP is a ____________ protocol.
A) Byte oriented B) Bit oriented
C) Stream oriented D) Both A and C
2) Connection establishment in TCP is called
A) Two way handshaking B) Three way handshaking
C) Both A and B D) None of these
3) The ports ranging from 1024 to 49,151 are called ___________ ports.
A) Well-known B) Registered C) Dynamic D) None of these
4) Which of the following functions does UDP perform ?
A) Process-to-process communication
B) Host-to-host communication
C) End-to-end reliable data delivery
D) None of these
5) In the _______ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases
exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
A) Congestion avoidance B) Congestion detection
C) Slow start D) None of these
6) NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _______ and one for _____
A) Sending; Receiving B) Request; Reply
C) Data; Control D) None of these
7) If DHCP client and server are on different networks, there is a need for an
intermediary called a ___________
A) Second client B) Primary server C) Relay agent D) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR – PC – 215 -2- *SLRPC215*
8) After sending the DHCPDISCOVER message, the client goes to the
____________ state.
A) selecting B) init C) requesting D) none of these
9) In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.
A) A linear list B) An inverted tree
C) A graph D) None of these
10) TELNET stands for ______________
A) TELephone NETwork B) TELemart NETwork
C) TErminaL NETwork D) TELex NETwork
11) ___________ is more powerful and complex than ___________
A) POP3; IMAP4 B) IMAP4; POP3 C) SMTP; POP3 D) None of these
12) When sender is connected to Mail Server Via a LAN or WAN we need only _____
A) Two MTA B) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
C) Two UAs and a pair of MTAs D) None of these
13) A special segment called a probe is sent by a sending TCP when the
_____________ timer goes off.
A) Transmission B) Persistence C) Keep alive D) None of these
14) Information is a computer is stored in __________ byte order.
A) host B) network C) server D) none of these
15) An interface is a set of ________ designed to facilitate interaction between two
entities.
A) Programs B) Instructions C) Rules D) None of these
16) In TFTP if ACK message for a packet is not lost but delayed, then every succeeding
block is sent twice and every acknowledgement is received twice. This is called
A) Bed bug B) Sorcerer’s apprentice bug
C) Interactive bug D) All of these
17) The beginning tag has an important attribute __________ which defines the
address (URL) of the linked document.
A) SRC B) ALIGN C) HREF D) None of these
18) A ___________ consists of a controller, client programs, and interpreters.
A) Server B) Applet C) Browser D) All of these
19) MIME stands for
A) Multiprogram International Mail Extensions
B) Multitasking International Mail Extensions
C) Multiprogramming Internet Magical Extensions
D) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
20) In TFTP, the RRQ message consists the following fields
A) Op-Code, File name, Mode
B) Op-Code, Source Address, Unicast bit
C) Preamble, source address, Destination Address
D) All of these
Set A
______________

*SLRPC215* -3- SLR-PC – 215
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part – I) (Computer Science and Engg.) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER NETWORKS – II (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

A) What is UDP ? Explain UDP operations and specify the use of UDP.
B) Explain the concept of connectionless interactive server.
C) Explain DHCP packet format.
D) Differentiate BOOTP and DHCP.
E) Explain static address allocation and dynamic address allocation in host
configuration.
3. With a neat diagram of TCP segment format, explain each field in detail. 10
OR
Explain connection-oriented concurrent server in detail. 10
4. What is congestion window ? Explain all congestion control policies used by TCP.
SECTION – II
A) Explain concept of Domain Name Space with diagram.
B) Explain out of Band signalling and Escape characters concept of TELNET.
C) List out and explain the three steps of FTP.
D) Compare FAT 16, FAT 32 and NTFS.
E) List and explain different Network Operating Systems.

A) Describe Windows networking architecture with diagram.
B) What is FTP ? Explain two FTP connections with suitable diagram.
7. Explain the architecture of WWW with neat diagram in detail. 10
Set A
_____________________

Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (CSE) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER ORGANISATION
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
3) Assume suitable data.

1. Choose the correct answer. 20
1) System/360 by IBM is the example of
a) First generation b) Second generation
c) Third generation d) Fourth generation
2) Which of the following is developed in second generation ?
a) HLL b) Compiler c) Magnetic core d) All
3) Introduction of microprogramming is done in
a) First generation b) Second generation
c) Third generation d) Fourth generation
4) ADD X, X, T is the
a) Zero address instruction b) One address instruction
c) Two address instruction d) Three address instruction
5) Intel i860 is of which architecture ?
a) RISC b) CISC
c) Both RISC and CISC d) None
6) Width of fraction bit in case of double precision format is
7) Instruction length in Motorola 680 x 0 varies from
a) 5 to 10 bytes b) 1 to 5 bytes c) 2 to 10 bytes d) 3 to 8 bytes
8) Which of the following is the hardware control unit design method ?
a) State table method b) Delay element
c) Sequence counter d) All of the above
P.T.O.

9) The average time tA for the CPU to access a word in the two level memory is
given by
a) tA = tAi + (1 H) tB b) tA = HtAi + 1 + (1 H) tB
c) tA = HtAi + (H 1) tB d) tA = tAi + 1 + ( H 1) tAi + 1
10) Main-secondary memory is implemented by
a) Hardware b) Software
11) A page is fixed length with ______ existence.
a) physical b) virtual c) logical d) no
12) A segment is variable length with ______ existence.
a) virtual b) logical c) imaginary d) no
13) Simplest way to associate main memory blocks with cache block is called
a) Block mapping b) Indirect mapping
c) Direct mapping d) None of these
14) The performance of LRU algorithm can be improved by adding a small amount of
a) buffer b) randomness c) decoder d) none of these
15) If all processors execute same program but operate on different data is
called
a) SIMD b) SISM c) MIMD d) MISD
16) If the delay between a memory and processor is the same for all accesses to
memory then machine is called
a) COMA b) NUMA c) TUMA d) UMA
17) Which of the following is correct where A is effective address, B is base
address and D is displacement.
a) A = B + D b) A = B . D c) A = B * D d) Both A and B
18) A condition in which the source or the destination operands of an instruction
are not available at the time expected in the pipeline is called
a) control hazard b) data hazard
c) compound hazard d) processor hazard
19) Converting the virtual memory address to physical memory address is carried
out by
a) Paging b) Interrupts
c) Translation look aside buffer d) None of these
20) The situation in which all cached copies of shared data have the same value
at all times is called
a) Cache stacking b) Cache latency
c) Cache modularity d) Cache coherence
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .

COMPUTER ORGANISATION

Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
1) Write a note on first generation of computers.
2) Define the following terms.
Dirty block, clean block, demand swapping and replacement policy.
3) With neat diagram, differentiate RISC and CISC.
4) What are the advantages of segmentation ?
5) Write a note on delay element method.
6) Write the instructions to execute the statement X = A × B + C × C in a stack

based zero address processor.
3. A) Design 8 bit adder and subtractor using two 4 bit adders. 10
B) Write the algorithm for non restoring division and perform 29/3 using non
restoring division algorithm. 10
OR
B) Explain how real address is calculated by two stage address translation with
segments and pages. 10
Set A

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four from the following : (4×5=20)

a) Write a note on high speed memories.
b) Explain how virtual memory address can be translated to physical memory
using Translation Look Aside Buffer (TLB).
c) Explain the architecture of pipeline processor.
d) Differentiate uniprocessor and multi-processor parallelism.
e) With example explain LRU page replacement policy.
f) Explain five advantages of pipelining and parallelism.
5. Consider a paging system in which M has a capacity of three pages. The execution
of a program requires references to five distinct pages Pi where i = 1, 2 . . 5 and
i is the page address. The page address stream formed by executing program is 10
2 3 2 1 5 2 4 5 3 2 5 2
Explain LRU, FIFO replacement policies.
6. Explain types of control and data hazards with examples. 10
OR
Explain in detail architecture of tightly coupled multiprocessor.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o . )

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct option. (20×1=20)
1) Program execution activity is responsible for bridging the execution gap by translating a
source program into
a) Target program
b) In machine language program or assembly language program
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
2) Language is independent of specific application domain
a) Procedure Oriented Language b) Problem Oriented Language
c) Object Oriented Language d) None of these
3) Which directive sets the LC with the address specified by address specification ?
a) START b) END c) ORIGIN d) Both a) and c)
4) The front end performs
a) Lexical analysis b) Syntax analysis
c) Semantic analysis d) All the above
5) Lex and Yac perform
a) Lexical analysis and Syntax analysis respectively
b) Syntax analysis and Semantic analysis respectively
c) Both a) and b)
6) _________ are known as linear grammars.
a) Type 0 b) Type 1 c) Type 2 d) Type 3
7) __________ are generated as output of parsing.
a) Tokens b) Parse tree
c) Sequence of action d) a) and c) both
8) To implement memory allocation, a data-structure called ________ is used in analysis
phase of assembly language.
a) Instruction counter b) Location counter
c) Length d) Mnemonic table
P.T.O.

9) The statement used to perform auxiliary functions is
a) Model statement b) Conditional statement
c) Preprocessor statement d) Prototype statement
10) A model statement is a statement from which an _________ language
statement may be generated during macro expansion.
a) Machine b) Assembly c) Target d) None
11) Generation of type specific code achieve two important things
a) It implements value of type through legal operation of type
b) Ensures execution efficiency
c) Need explicit handling in the execution domain
d) a) and b)
e) b) and c)
12) In parsing action <id>a
F1, the superscript of an NT shows
a) Register descriptor b) Operand descriptor
13) The register descriptor has the fields
a) Name
b) Address of CPU register or memory word
c) Addressability
d) b) and c) both
e) None of the above
14) Which is not optimizing transformation ?
a) Compile time evaluation b) Frequency reduction
c) IC generation d) None of above
15) File with .exe extension contains
a) Non relocated object program b) Relocated program
c) Linked program d) None of above
16) Overlays are used to
a) Reduce execution time b) Reduce code
c) Reduce memory requirement d) Reduce linking requirement
17) Information concerning the public definitions and external references in program is available at
a) RELOCTAB b) SYMTAB c) LINKTAB d) None of above
18) In loaders track, each segments assigned address is maintained by
a) PLA b) Initial PLA
c) External symbol table d) None of above
19) In absolute loading scheme relocation done by
a) Programmer b) Linker c) Loader d) Assembler
20) The portion of the loader that actually capture the calls and loads the necessary procedure
is called
a) Core image builder b) Binder c) Module loader d) Flipper
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
a) Explain following terms regarding to language specification.

I) Derivation
II) Reduction
III) Parse trees.
b) Define Pass. Draw and explain schematic of data structures and files used in two pass
assembler.
c) Define binding. List and explain different binding times.
d) Explain START, END, ORIGIN, EQU and LTORG with example.
e) Describe default specifications of parameters and macros with mixed parameter lists with
example.
f) Draw and explain structure of mnemonics table (MOT), symbol table, segment register
table array and forward reference table.
g) Define macro. Explain nested macro calls with example.
3. Give architecture of 8088. Explain how problem of forward references is resolved. 10

OR
Write pass-I algorithm and explain the intermediate code forms generated by pass-I.
4. Explain Language processor development tool with schematic. Design Lex specifications for
the tokens-keywords, identifiers, numbers, operators and white spaces. 10
Set A

SECTION II
a) Give aspects of compilation and explain role of data types and data structures for bridging
semantic gap between a PL domain and execution domain.
b) Explain operand descriptors and registers descriptors.
c) Explain program relocation and performing relocation with example.
d) How external references are resolved in linker ? Explain with example.
e) Explain dynamic loading with example.
f) What is the order of ID number on the ESD cards ? Why is it not needed for normal
symbols ?
6. Write code generation routine for expression evaluation. Show and explain code
generation actions for the expression a*b+c*d. 10
OR
Explain binary program. Write program linking algorithm and explain with example.
7. Write and explain pass-I algorithm for direct linking loader with example. Draw
flowchart for same. 10
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

OPERATING SYSTEM I (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
of Page.
1. Choose correct alternatives. 20

1) A ___________ system is used when there are rigid time requirements on
the operation of processor or the flow of data.
A) Parallel B) Time-sharing C) Real-time D) None of above
2) The ability to continue providing service proportional to the level of surviving
hardware is called ___________
A) Scalability B) Graceful degradation
C) Speed up D) None of above
3) A program is __________ entity whereas a process is _________ entity.
A) Active, passive B) Passive, active
C) Active, active or passive D) None of above
4) In which state, a process is waiting to be assigned to a processor.
A) Waiting B) Ready C) Running D) None of above
5) ___________ provides the mechanism to allow processes to communicate
and to synchronize their actions.
A) IPC B) Scheduler
C) Memory management D) I/O
6) _________ time is a pure overhead, because system does not do any useful
work.
A) Scheduling B) Context Switch
C) Process Running D) All above
7) In ___________ scheduling, once the CPU has been allocated to the process,
the process keeps the CPU until it releases.
A) Non-preemptive B) Preemptive C) Round robin D) None of above
P.T.O.

8) One measure of work is the number of processes that are completed per
time unit is
A) Response time B) CPU utilization
C) Throughput D) None of above
9) ___________ scheduling algorithm is provably optimal, as it gives the
minimum average waiting time for a set of processes.
A) FCFS B) SJF C) Priority D) None of above
10) In RR scheduling, if time quantum is too large then it regenerates __________
scheduling.
A) SJF B) Preemptive C) FCFS D) None of above
11) ___________ is the segment of code in which the process is changing common
variables or data.
A) Critical section B) Remainder section
C) Real-time code D) None of above
12) A solution to the critical section problem must satisfy which of the following
condition ?
A) Progress B) Circular wait C) Speed up D) None of above
13) Which method of process synchronization uses test and set instruction.
A) Semaphore B) Hardware synchronization
C) Monitor D) None of above
14) A semaphore is _________, when its integer value ranges over an unrestricted
domain.
A) Binary B) Counting C) Running D) None of above
15) In Resource Allocation Graph, a directed edge from Pi
Rj is called
_________
A) Assignment Edge B) Request Edge
C) Both A) and B) D) None of above
16) _________ is a set of methods for ensuring that at least one of the necessary
condition does not hold.
A) Deadlock Avoidance B) Deadlock Recovery
C) Deadlock Detection D) Deadlock Prevention
17) Addresses generated by CPU are commonly referred as _________
addresses.
A) Physical B) Logical C) Permanent D) None of above
18) In memory allocation, allocate the largest hole among all the holes is
_________
A) Best fit B) Worst fit C) First fit D) None of above
19) Virtual memory is implemented using __________
A) Demand Paging B) Demand Segmentation
C) Both A) and B) D) Overlays
20) A process is thrashing if it is spending less time in paging than executing.
A) True B) False C) Cant say D) None of above
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

OPERATING SYSTEM I (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instruction : All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I

A) Describe parallel systems in detail.
B) Describe multiprogrammed batch system.
C) What is PCB ? Explain.
D) Write a note on Threads.
E) Explain multi-level queue scheduling.
F) Describe synchronization hardware.
3. What is the function of scheduler ? Explain different types of scheduler in detail. 10

OR
Describe dinning - philosophers problem and give its solution using semaphore. 10
4. Consider the following set of processes, with the length of CPU-burst in

milliseconds. 10
Process Burst time Priority
P1 08 3
P2 02 3
P3 04 1
P4 02 1
P5 05 2
All processes have arrived at same time in order P1 to P5. Draw Gantt chart and
find average waiting time for FCFS, SJF, nonpreemptive priority (small value
indicate higher priority) and RR (quantum = 2 ms).
Set A

SECTION II
A) What is deadlock ? Describe necessary conditions for deadlock.
B) Describe recovery from deadlock.
C) Explain dynamic loading and dynamic linking.
D) Write a note on Swapping.
E) Write a note on Thrashing.
6. Explain Bankers Algorithm with the help of suitable example. 10
OR
Describe I/O hardware with the help of PC bus structure diagram. 10
7. Draw a diagram and explain steps in handling a page fault. 10
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct alternative/s : 20

1) The quicksort partition step is
A) 0 (1) B) 0 (logn) C) 0 (n) D) 0 (n2) E) 0 (2n)
2) The approach to algorithm design that uses, decrease by a constant factor is
A) Divide and conquer B) Greedy Alg.
C) Dynamic programming D) Boute-Force
3) Greedy Algorithm chiefly solve __________ problem.
A) Constraint B) Vector C) Sorting D) Interactable
E) Optimization
4) All problems with greedy algorithm solution have
A) Recursive structure
B) Many local optima
C) The optimal substructure property
D) The data structure
E) Constraint satisfaction as goal
5) Building a spanning tree by finding at each step the minimal edge adjacent to partial
subtree is an instance of __________ algorithm.
A) Brute force B) Divide and conquer
C) Greedy Algorithm D) Dynamic Programming
6) The Dijkstra Algorithm find
A) Minimal spanning tree B) Single source shortest path
C) A traversal D) Maximal path
7) The approach to algorithm design that reuses part of the solution search by sorting values
in a memory is a
A) Divide and conquer B) Brute Force
C) Dynamic Programming D) Greedy Algorithm
P.T.O.

8) We employ dynamic programming approach when
A) It gives optimal solution
B) The solution has optimal substructure
C) It is faster than greedy technique
D) The given problem can be reduced to 3 - SAT problem.
9) Algorithm have __________ input.
A) Zero B) One C) None D) Zero or more
10) __________ is the process of executing a correct program on data set and measuring
the time and space it takes to compute the result.
A) Profiling B) Debugging C) Analysis D) Testing
11) In flow shop scheduling, for any job i the processing of task Tji, can not be started until the
task __________ has been completed.
A) Tji-1 B) Tj-1i C) Tij D) Ti-1j
12) Vertices of a multistage graph partitioned into _________ disjoint sets Vi, 1 i k
A) k > 2 B) k < 2 C) D) k 2 k 2
13) Ak(i, j) = min { A j), (i, k) + k1(i, Ak1 Ak1(k,

j)} is not true for the graphs with
A) Negative weight B) Positive weight
C) Cycles of negative weight D) Cycles of positive weight
14) In dynamic 0/1 Knapsack if Si+1 contains two pairs (Pj, Wj) and (Pk, Wk) then pair (Pj, Wj)
can be discarded, iff
A) P
j
P
k
a n d W
j
W
k
B) P
j
P
k
a n d W
j
W
C) P
j
W
j
a n d P
k
W
k
D) P
j
W
j
a n d P
k
W
15) If stage i contains mi copies of devices Di, probability that all mi have a malfunction is
A)
H
i

m
B) H
i
m
C)

H
i

m
D) H
i
m
16) In __________, node is fully explored before exploration of any other node begins.
A) DFS B) BFS
C) Traversals D) Search
17) In 8 Queen problem if X [i] = i + 1 then two queens are said to be in same.
A) Column B) Diagonal C) Row D) All of the above
18) Graphs for computer algorithm can be represented as
A) Adjacency matrix B) Adjacency linked lists
C) Both a) and b) D) None of these
19) A graph is said to be __________ if for every pair of its vertices U and V there is a path
from u to V.
A) Connected component B) Connected
C) Biconnected component D) Biconnected
20) Two queens are placed at position (i, j) and (k, l) then they are at same diagonal
A) i j = k l B) i + j = k + l C) j l = i k D) All of the above
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I

1) Define space and time complexity with example.
2) Plot behavioural graph of function logn, n, n log n, n2 and 2n.
3) State and prove time complexity of merge sort.
4) Explain working of quick sort with suitable example.
5) Explain Job sequencing with deadline.
3. Find optional solution to knapsack problem 10

m = 60, n = 5
(W1, W2, W3, W4, W5) = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40)
(P1, P2, P3, P4, P5) = (30,20, 100, 90, 160)
OR
Explain- single source shortest path with example. 10
4. Find optimal binary merge pattern for 10 files and draw binary merge tree 10
25, 3, 7, 8, 9, 15, 16, 18, 20, 23
SECTION II

a) Find all pair of shortest path for the following graph.
Set A

b) Explain reliability design problem.

c) Explain biconnected component and find out number of biconnected components in the
following graph.
d) Differentiate between dynamic programming and greedy method.

e) State and explain sum of subsets problem.
f) Write iterative and recursive algorithm for general backtracking method.
6. a) Write an algorithm for N queen problem and explain with N = 4. Draw its
portion of permutation tree. 10
OR
b) Design a three stage system with device types D1, D2 and D3. The costs are $30, $15
and $20 respectively. The cost of the system is to be no more than $105. The reliability
of each device type is 0.9, 0.8 and 0.5 respectively. 10
7. For identifier set (a1, a2, a3, a4) = (Count, flot, if, while) with p(1) = 1/20, p (2) = 1/5, p(3) = 1/10,
p(4) = 1/20, q(0) = 1/5, q(1) = 1/10, q(2) = 1/5, q(3) = 1/20, and q(4) = 1/20. Using r(i, j)s
construct optimal binary search tree. 10
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC22* SLR-PC 22
Set A
S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) cosax is equal to

, =
a) b) c) d)
x x x x
c o s a x c o s a x s i n a x s i n a x
2 a 2 a 2 a 2 a
2) The P.I. of (D + 1)3y = ex is

! N ! !
a) b) c) d)
N A N N
N N N
A A A
! & $ &
3) The general solution of diff. equation (D4 2D3 + D2)y = 0 is

a) y = (C1 + C2x)ex + (C3 + C4x)ex b) y = (C1 + C2x) + (C3 + C4x)ex
c) y = C1 + (C2 + C3x)e x d) y = (C1 + C2x) + (C3 + C4x)ex
4) The P.I. of (x2D2 + 2xD)y = is

a) b) c) C1 + C2x2 d) None of these

# N N
5) The general solution of (x + 3)2 is

@ O @ O
N ! " O
@ N @ N
a) y = (C1 + C2x)e2x b) y = C1(x + 3)1 + C2(x + 3)4

c) y = C1(x + 3) + C2(x + 3)4 d) y = C1ex + C2e4x
6) If L{f(t)} =
(s) then L{eatf(t)} =
a)
(s + a) b) eas (s a)
c)
(s a) d) eas
(s)

7) If L{f(t)} = then L{f(3t)} is

! I ! !
a) b) c) d)
!
I ! I I
A A A A
! I I I
P.T.O.

8) L1 =

I I

a) t + 1 b) t2 + 1 c) t + t2 d) t +
J
9) The solution of q = ep is

a) z = a(x + y) + c b) z = ax + by + c c) z = ax + yb + c d) z = ax + eay + c
10) The solution of 2p + 3q = 1 is

a)
(3x + 2y, y + 3z) = 0 b)
(3x 2y, y 3z) = 0
c)
(2x + 3y, 3y z) = 0 d) None of these
11) div(grad ) =
a)
b) 1 c) 1 d) 0
12) I) For binomial distribution mean = 15 and standard deviation = 5

II) For poisson distribution mean = 4 and standard deviation = 2, then
a) I is true b) II is true c) Both are true d) None of these
13) Out of 800 families with 5 children each the number of families expected to have all girls are
a) 35 b) 40 c) 25 d) 20
14) The graph of odd function is symmetric about

a) y-axis b) x-axis c) origin d) all of these
15) At the point of discontinuity x = c of function f(x), the Fourier series at x = c is arithmetic mean of
a) Left and right hand limits of f(x) at x = c
b) Limits of f(x) at x = c and x = c
c) Limits of f(x) at x = c and x = 0
d) None of these
16) The regression coefficients are 0.2 and 0.2 then value of coefficient of correlation r
a) 0.2 b) 0.2 c) 0.04 d) Does not exists
17) If f(x) = then value of bn =

N N

N N

18) If f(x, y, z) = 4e2x y+z then

f at (1, 1, 1) is
a) 4(2i + j + k) b) 4(2i j + k) c) 4(2i j k) d) 4(2i + j k)
19) Equation of line of regression of x on y is given by

a) y O
= bxy(x N
) b) y O
= byx(x N
) c) x N
= byx(y O
) d) x N
= bxy(y O
)
20) The Fourier series expansion of f(x) = x2 in the interval (l, l) has
a) Only cosine terms
b) Only sine terms
c) Both sine and cosine terms
d) None of these
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve the following any two : 8

i) (D2 2D + 3)y = cosx + x2
ii) (D2 7D + 10)y = e2xsinx
iii) (D2 + 2D + 1)y = 4exlogx
!
b) Solve . 5
d y d y d y
x 3 x x l o g N
d x d x d x
3. a) Solve (D3 + D2 D 1)y = excos2x. 5
b) Solve Where a, R, P and l are constants. 4

d y a R
a y ( l x )
d x p
c) Solve . 4
@ O @ O
N = " N = $ O N
@ N
@ N

4. a) Find . 4

" J
L e u s i n 3 u d u

b) i) Find . 3
3 s 7

s 2 s 3

ii) Find L1

by convolution theorem. 3
I I "

c) Use Laplace transfom to solve , where y(0) = 0, . 4

@ O @ O
" & O
O
@ J
@ J
5. a) Solve p(1 + q2) = q(z a). 4
b) Solve y2p xyq = x(z 2y). 4
c) Using method of separation of variables solve where u(x, 0) = 6e3x. 5

K K
K
N J
Set A

SECTION II
6. a) The following data give the heights in inches (x) and weight in lbs(y) of random sample of 10 students from
a large group of students of age 17 years. 6
x: 61 68 68 64 65 70 63 62 64 77
y : 112 123 130 115 110 125 100 113 116 126
Find two lines of regression and estimate the weights of student of height 59 inches.
b) Find directional derivative of
= x2yz + 4xz2 at (1, 2, 1) in the direction of 2i j 2k. 4
c) Find magnitude of velocity and acceleration at any time t of a particle whose position at time t is given by
x = et cost y = et sint. 4
7. a) Obtain Fourier series of f(x) = in interval (0, 2 ). Hence deduce that . 6

N 1 1 1
1 . . . .
4 3 5 7
b) If = is a constant vector then show that 3
i) div = =0 ii) curl = =0
c) With usual notations prove that . 4

r 2
. r

8. a) Find Fourier series of f(x) = . 5

k x 0

k 0 N
b) Seven coins are tossed 128 times and number of heads obtained are noted below. 4
x(no. of heads) : 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
f (frequency) : 7 6 19 35 30 23 7 1
Fit a binomial distribution if coins are unbiased.
c) Find the probability that almost 4 defective bulbs will be found in a box of 400 bulbs, if it is known that 1% of
bulbs are defective. 4
9. a) In an examination given by 500 candidates the average and standard deviation of marks obtained are
40 and 10 respectively. Assuming distribution of marks to be normal find approximately. 5
i) How many will pass if 50 is fixed as minimum ?
ii) What should be minimum if 350 candidates are to pass ?
[area under normal curve from z = 0 to z = 1 is 0.3413 and that from z = 0 to z = 0.525 is 0.2]
OR
!
a) Find the value of k if f(x) = is probability density function, also find p(1 x 3). 5

k ( x 1 ) 1 x 3
0 o t h e r w i s e
b) Fit a straight line for following data. 4

x: 0 1 2 3 4 5
y: 1 2 3 4.5 6 7.5
c) Find the coefficient of correlation between x and y from following data. 4
n = 25,
x = 100,
x2 = 950,
y = 110,
y2=850,
xy = 800
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. – C.S.E. (New) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER NETWORKS

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) First question is objective type.
one mark.
of Page.
1) Which protocol ensures reliable delivery ?
a) TCP b) UDP c) Both a and b d) None of these
2) TCP/IP is mainly used for
a) File transfer b) Email c) Remote Login d) All of these
3) TCP/IP is
a) Network hardware b) Network software
c) Protocol d) None of these
4) Which is the lowest layer of the TCP/IP model ?
a) Host to Host layer b) Network Access layer
c) Internet layer d) Application layer
5) In a TCP header source and destination header contains
a) 8 bits b) 16 bits c) 32 bits d) 128 bits
6) Which of the following is not a networking device ?
a) gateways b) linux c) routers d) bridges
7) Which of the following can be a software ?
a) routers b) modems c) gateways d) firewalls
8) What is the use of the ping command ?
a) To test whether a device on the network is reachable
b) To test a hard disk fault
c) To test a bug in application
d) To test a print/printer quality
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 220 -2- *SLRPC220*
9) Each IP packet must contain
a) Source Address b) Destination Address
c) Source and destination address d) None of these
10) What is the benefit of networking ?
a) File sharing b) Easier access to resources
c) Easier backup d) All of the above
11) To make control characters effective in special situation, TELNET uses
a) out of band signaling b) synchronous signaling
c) in band signaling d) all above
12) In __________ mode of telnet, each character typed is sent by client to server.
a) character mode b) line mode c) default mode d) none of above
13) FTP uses two well-known TCP ports _____________ is used for the control
connection, and __________ is used for the data connection.
a) Port 21, port 20 b) Port 20, Port 21
c) Port 23, Port 25 d) Ports 23, Port 21
14) __________provides a method for general public to access files on remote
sites.
a) TELNET b) Anonymous FTP
c) TFTP d) SSH
15) ____________ does not require connection establishment and connection
termination.
a) TFTP b) FTP c) POP3 d) SMTP
16) In Electronic mail system, if sender and receivers of emails are on the same
system, only _____________ user agent is needed.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) None of these
17) In SMTP _____________ command is used by client to identify itself.
a) HELO b) HELLO c) WHO d) WHO AM I ?
18) A __________ is routine linked with user program, which forwards queries to
name server for processing.
a) full resolver b) stub resolver c) both a and b d) None of above
19) __________ protocol is similar to POP3, but it has more features.
a) SMTP b) SNMP c) MIME d) IMAP
20) _________ method in HTTP is used to send input to server.
a) SEND b) PUT c) GET d) POST
______________
Set A

*SLRPC220* -3- SLR-PC – 220
Seat
No.
T.E. – C.S.E. (New) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER NETWORKS

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four of the following. (4×5=20)
a) Explain the concept of connection oriented concurrent server.
b) Explain the three way handshaking in TCP connection.
c) Explain the layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite
d) Explain the scenarios “denying a connection” and “aborting a connection”.
e) Explain the various fields of a data chunk with regards to SCTP.
f) Explain the different UDP operations.
3. Attempt any one of the following. (1×1=10)

a) What is congestion window ? Explain all congestion control policies used by
TCP.
b) Show how UDP handles the sending and receiving of UDP packets by taking
a simple version of UDP package.
4. Attempt any one of the following. (1×10=10)
a) Explain SCTP services and features in detail.
b) Describe and explain the TCP segment format with a neat diagram.
Set A

SLR-PC – 220 -4- *SLRPC220*
SECTION – II
5. Attempt the following (any four). 20
A) Describe role of user agent in electronic mail.

B) Write a note on HTTP.
C) Describe active web documents.
D) Explain port forwarding concept of SSH.

E) Describe different types of records used in DNS.
F) Explain role of relay agent in DHCP.
6. What is FTP ? Explain two FTP connections with suitable diagram. 10
OR
Describe the need and working of DHCP. Explain and draw DHCP packet format.
7. Explain the following terms 10
i) Cookies
ii) Proxy server

iii) URL
iv) Browser
v) Persistent and non persistent connection.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (CSE) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Objective questions. Each question carry one mark.
1) The 80 × 86, 680 × 0 & older computers series have been called as
a) RISC b) ARM c) CISC d) Intel
2) The earliest computers had their instructions written in Binary code known as
a) Assembly language b) Operational language
c) Operational codes d) Machine language
3) ___________ machine is considered to be first general purpose programmable
computer.
a) Difference Engine b) IAS computer
c) Analytical Engine d) All of the above
4) When the result of an arithmetic operation exceeds the standard word size n
____________, occurs.
a) Underflow b) Overflow c) Truncation d) Rounding
5) Addressing Mode is
a) Specification of opcode b) Specification of operand
c) Specification of function d) All of the above
6) Once the unit is constructed the only way to implement changes in control unit
behavior is by redesigning the entire unit such a circuit is therefore is said to be
a) Micro programmed control unit b) GCD processors
c) Finite state machines d) Hardwired control unit
7) In division algorithms, when divisor is equal to zero the quotient Q treated as
undefined or infinity and a ___________ error is said to be occur.
a) Divide-by-quotient occurs b) Divide-by-zero occurs
c) Divide-by-infinity occurs d) None of these
8) In __________ addressing mode it is useful to change the location of X without
changing the address fields of any instructions that refer to X.
a) Direct b) Register c) Immediate d) Indirect
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 221 -2- *SLRPC221*
9) When a single instruction is required by the CPU, it is efficient to transfer a block
of consecutive words. This is called
a) Segment b) Virtual address space
c) Page d) Page frame
10) Retaining the n most significant bits of the result without modification is called as
a) Rounding b) Truncation c) Round off error d) All of the above
11) Access time is less for
a) Static RAM b) Dynamic RAM c) Magnetic tape d) Magnetic disks
12) Vector operation and result are retrived from main memory in case of
a) Register to memory architecture b) Memory to register architecture
c) Memory to memory architecture d) Register to register architecture
13) The hazards arises when an instruction depends on results of a previous
instruction is called
a) Control hazard b) Data hazard
c) Structural hazard d) None of above
14) Speed of factor of k stages pipeline over an equivalent nonpipelined processor is
defined as
nk nk k + (n − 1) k − (n + 1)
a) b) c) d)
k + (n − 1) k − (n − 1) nk nk
15) Write through technique is used in which memory for updating the data
a) Virtual memory b) Main memory
c) Auxiliary memory d) Cache memory
16) Memory unit accessed by content is called
a) Read Only Memory b) Programmable Memory
c) Virtual Memory d) Associative Memory
17) War is type of
a) Control hazard b) Data hazard
c) Structural hazard d) None of above
18) Each I/O devices is assigned a unique set of
a) Address b) Data c) Memory d) None
19) When I/O devices and the memory share the same address space, the arrangement
is called
a) Memory mapped I/O b) I/O mapped I/O
c) I/O interface d) I/O devices
20) The routine executed in response to an interrupt request is called the
a) Interrupt service routine b) Interrupt request
c) Interrupt acknowledge d) None
______________
Set A

*SLRPC221* -3- SLR-PC – 221
Seat
No.
T.E. (CSE) (Part – I) (New) Examination, 2015

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any 4: (4×5=20)

1) Write a short note on Third generation of computers.
2) Represents (42.625)10 in single precision floating point format.
3) Differentiate RISC and CISC.
4) Write a short note on sequence counter method of Hardwired control unit.
5) Perform division of 1100 ÷ 11 using non-restoring algorithm.
6) Explain five functional units of computer.
3. A) Represent (1259.125)10 in single and double precision formats. 10
a+b
B) Write a program to evaluate the operation x = using zero, one, two and
2
three address machine instruction. 10
OR
C) Write a short note on fast multiplication technique with example. 10
SECTION – II
4. Attempt any 4 : (4×5=20)

1) Describe associative memory.
2) Explain vector processing.
3) What is cache memory ? Discuss look-aside cache organization.
Set A

SLR-PC – 221 -4- *SLRPC221*
4) With neat diagram explain MISD and MIMD.
5) Write a note on interrupts in I/O.
6) With neat diagram explain loosely coupled multiprocessor.
5. Attempt : 10
1) Explain in detail I/O channel architecture.
6. Attempt any 1 : 10
1) Explain linear and non-linear pipelining.
2) Explain difference between pipelining and vector processors.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Select correct alternative : (20×1=20)

1) The specification language of execution domain is
a) PL itself b) Machine language
c) Assembly language d) None of above
2) Specification gap is bridge by
a) Software development team
b) Designer of program language processor
c) Programmer
d) All above
3) Procedure oriented language have
a) Large specification gap
b) Small specification gap
c) Large execution gap
d) None of above
4) Consider the following assembly code
START 100
MOVER AREG, = 5
ADD AREG, B
MOVEM AREG, C
STOP
B DC 8
C DS 1
END
The content of symbol table for above code will be
L i t e r a l _ T a b l e _ P o i n t e r L i t e r a l A d d r e s s
a) 1 = ' 5 ' 1 0 6
b) 1 = ' 5 ' 1 0 5
c) 1 = ' 5 ' 1 0 4
d) None of above
P.T.O.

5) Consider the following assembly code
START 100
MOVER AREG, A
ADD AREG, B
MOVEM AREG, C
STOP
A DC 5
B DC 8
C DS 1
END
What will be the variant-II intermediate code for above code ?
a) (AD, 01) (C, 100) b) (AD, 01) (C, 100) c) (AD, 01) (C, 100) d) (AD, 01) (C, 100)
(IS, 04) AREG, A (IS, 04) AREG, A (IS, 04) AREG, A (IS, 04) AREG, A
(IS, 01) AREG, B (IS, 01) AREG, B (IS, 01) AREG, B (IS, 01) AREG, B
(IS, 05) AREG, C (IS, 05) AREG, C (IS, 05) AREG, C (IS, 05) AREG, C
(IS, 00) (IS, 00) (IS, 00) (IS, 00)
(DL, 01) (C, 5) (DL, 02) (C, 5) (DL, 01) (C, 5) (DL, 02) (C, 5)
(DL, 01) (C, 8) (DL, 03) (C, 8) (DL, 01) (C, 8) (DL, 02) (C, 8)
(DL, 02) (C, 1) (DL, 02) (C, 1) (DL, 03) (C, 1) (DL, 01) (C, 1)
6) The problem of forward references is tackled using a process called ______ in single phase assembler.
a) Backtracking b) Synchronization c) Aging d) Back patching
7) For efficiency reason, which table should remain in main memory ?
a) SYMTAB b) LITTAB c) OPTAB d) POOLTAB
8) Facilities for alteration of flow of control during expansion include
a) Expansion time sequencing symbol b) Expansion time statements AIF, AGO and ANOP
9) A macro definition consist of
a) A macro prototype statement b) One or more model statement
c) Macro-pre-processor statement d) All of above
10) A pre-processor statement is used
a) To generate assembly language statement during macro expansion
b) To perform auxiliary function during macro expansion
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
11) The compiler implements scope rules through
a) Name Rules b) Memory Allocation c) Symbol Table d) None
12) Resolution of externally defined symbol is performed by
a) Linker b) Loader c) Compiler d) Assembler
13) Address assigned by the loader to symbol is called
a) Load origin b) Load time address c) Linked origin d) Link time address
14) ________ are commonly used optimizing transformations.
a) Dataflow Analysis b) Dead code elimination
c) Control flow graph d) None
15) An ENTRY statement in a program unit lists
a) Public definition of the program unit b) The symbols to which external references are made
c) Undefined symbols d) None
16) The _______ is a system program that actually loads a program in specific area of memory and readies it
for execution.
a) Loader b) Linker c) Object module d) Binary program
17) Which statement is valid about interpreters ?
a) It translates one instruction at a time b) Object code is saved for future use
c) Repeated interpretation is not necessary d) All
18) In direct linking loader values of external symbols are defined in
a) Pass-I b) Pass-II c) Both a and b d) None
19) Compilers can diagnose
a) Grammatical errors only b) Logical errors only
c) Grammatical as well as logical errors d) Neither grammatical nor logical errors
20) LINKTAB entry contains
a) Symbol b) Type c) Translated address d) All
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
a) Explain program generation activity of language processor.
b) List and explain advanced assembler directives with example.
c) Write the macro to increment the value of variable V1 by V2 using positional parameters. Explain default
parameters used by MACRO.
d) Explain variant I with example.
e) Give schematic of LEX and explain with example.

a) Given the following source program
START 100
A DS 3
L1 MOVER AREG, B
ADD AREG, C
MOVEM AREG, D
D EQU A+1
L2 PRINT D
ORIGIN A-1
C DC 5
ORIGIN L2 + 1
STOP
B DC 19
END L1
i) Show the content of symbol table at the end of pass-I.
ii) Explain the significance of EQU and ORIGIN statements in program. Explain how they are processed
by assembler.
iii) Show the intermediate code generated for the program (Variant-II).
iv) Show the target program generated for the program.
b) List and explain tables used in designing of macro preprocessor with example.
4. Explain front end and back end of toy compiler in detail. 10
Set A

SECTION II
a) Define interpreter. Explain components in design of interpreter.
b) Explain data flow analysis.
c) Describe memory allocation strategies.
d) Explain following terminologies with example.
i) Translated time address and translated origin
ii) Load time address and load origin
iii) Link time address and link origin
e) Explain compile and go loader. Give advantages and disadvantages.
6. Write steps followed in designing a direct linking loader. Explain problem specification in detail and database
formats in detail. 10
OR
Define local optimization and explain using value numbers. 10
7. List and explain pass-I algorithm for direct linking loader with example. Draw flowchart for same. 10
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Choose the correct alternatives : 20

1) A _________ system is often used as a control device in a dedicated application and has a well
defined and fixed time constraints.
A) soft real-time B) hard real-time C) distributed D) time-sharing
2) A thread in a process executes sequentially and each thread has its own
A) stack B) program counter
C) both A) and B) D) address space
3) A multi-processor system in which each processor runs an identical copy of the operating system
is known as __________ model.
A) Asymmetric multiprocessing B) Symmetric multiprocessing
C) Distributed D) None of above
4) Send (A, message) where A indicate a mailbox is a primitive of
A) Direct communication B) Indirect communication
C) Receive D) None of above
5) A high level synchronized construct, characterized by a set of programmer defined operators is
known as
A) Semaphore B) Hardware synchronization
C) Monitor D) None of above
6) The process is swapped out or swapped in by _________ scheduler.
A) short-term B) long-term C) medium-term D) none of above
7) _________ scheduling algorithm is provably optimal, but its implementation is difficulty.
A) FCFS B) SJF C) Priority D) None of above
8) Which is not the required condition for a solution to the critical section problem ?
A) Progress B) Circular wait
C) Mutual exclusion D) Bounded waiting
9) Multilevel feedback queue scheduling leaves I/O bound or interactive processes in the higher priority
queues.
A) True B) False C) Cant Say D) None of above
10) The return code for the fork is zero for the _________ process.
A) Child B) Parent C) Both A) and B) D) None of above
P.T.O.

11) Which of the following is deadlock prevention mechanism ?
A) Bankers algorithm B) Avoiding hold and wait
C) No preemption of resource D) All
12) Following condition cannot be avoided in deadlock prevention mechanism
A) no preemption B) hold and wait C) circular wait D) mutual exclusion
13)
What is true in above RAG ?

A) There is deadlock in system
B) There is no deadlock in system
C) Cant say
D) Indefinite postponement of some resource allocation
14) Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by
A) Memory management unit B) CPU
C) PCI D) None of the mentioned
15) Technique in which partitions are moved in order to make contiguous space to generate larger
partition is called
A) Compaction B) Coalescing C) Defragmentation D) Swapping
16) Operating system maintains the page table for
A) each process B) each thread C) each instruction D) each address
17) Working set model for page replacement is based on the assumption of
A) Modularity B) Locality C) Globalization D) Random access
18) Higher page rate always indicates
A) Thrashing B) Deadlock C) Both A) and B) D) Cant say
19) LRU can be implemented by
A) Stack B) Counter C) Both A) and B) D) None
20) An I/O port typically consists of four registers status, control, __________ and _________ registers.
A) system in, system out B) data in, data out
C) flow in, flow out D) input, output
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I

A) Describe the parallel systems in detail.
B) What is process state ? List and explain different states of process.
C) Write a note on Threads.
D) Explain the concept of synchronization hardware.
E) Write a note on Multi level feedback queue scheduling.
3. Describe the Bounded Buffer Producer Consumer problem. Provide its solution using the semaphore. 10
OR
Describe Round-Robin scheduling and priority scheduling (pre-emptive and non-preemptive) with suitable
example. State merit and demerits on RR and priority scheduling. 10
4. What is scheduler ? Describe in detail the concept of long-term scheduler, short-term scheduler and
medium-term scheduler. 10
SECTION II

A) Explain how hold and wait condition can be prevented to prevent occurrence of deadlock.
B) Explain address translation in fixed partitioning.
C) Write a note on Baladys anomaly.
D) Explain internal and external fragmentation.
E) Write a note on Swapping.
F) Write a note on working of controller.
Set A

6. What is Contiguous Allocation mechanism in detail. Explain Best fit, First fit and Worst fit strategies
used for allocation. 10
OR
Explain page replacement algorithm FIFO, LRU and Optimal algorithm with respect to following reference
string as an example, consider number of page frames as 4. 10
7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0, 1, 7, 0, 1
7. Discuss the concept of paging with help of paging hardware and example. What is need of multilevel
paging ? Explain with diagram. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (CSE) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book
1) Sorting is not possible by using which of the following methods ?
a) Insertion b) Selection c) Exchange d) Deletion
2) What is the equivalent Prefix and Postfix notation of the expression ((A + B)* C – (D – E) ^ (F + G)) ?
a) Prefix Notation : ^ – * + ABC – DE + FG b) Prefix Notation : ^ – – * + ABCDE + FG
Postfix Notation : AB + C * DE – – FG + ^ Postfix Notation: AB + C * DE – FG + ^ –
c) Prefix Notation: – ^* + ABC – DE + FG d) Prefix Notation : –* +ABC – ^ DE + FG
Postfix Notation : AB + C * DE – – FG^ + Postfix Notation: AB + C * DE^ – – FG +
3) A binary tree with 20 nodes has______________ null branches.
a) 2^20 b) 20 c) 21 d) None of the above
4) How many different trees are possible with 10 nodes ?
5) In tree construction which is the suitable efficient data structure ?
a) Array b) Linked list c) Stack d) Queue e) None
6) There are 8, 15, 13, 14 nodes were there in 4 different trees. Which of them could have formed a full binary tree ?
a) 8 b) 15 c) 13 d) 14
7) The running time of merge sort can be recursively represented by
a) T(n) = 2T (n/2) + n b) T(n) = 3T (n/2) + n c) T(n) = 4T (n/2) + n d) T(n) = 2T (n/4) + n
8) The running time of quick sort largely depends on
a) Number of inputs b) Selection of pivot element c) Size of element d) Arrangement of elements
9) One of the reason why quick sort is better compared to other sorts is
a) Its space complexity is theta (log n) b) Its running time is O(n^2)
c) Its space complexity is theta(n) d) Its running time is O(n)
10) Which statement is true ?
a) If a dynamic-programming problem satisfies the optimal-substructure property, then a locally
optimal solution is globally optimal
b) If a greedy choice property satisfies the optimal-substructure property, then a locally optimal
solution is globally optimal
c) Both of above d) None of the above
11) What will be the order in which the vertices will be traversed if BFS is applied on the graph,
starting from the vertex ‘b’ ?

a) b a c h e d f g b) b a h c e f d g c) b c h e a d f g d) b c a h e d f g
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 224 -2- *SLRPC224*
12) Which of the following statements are right about DFS ?

a) It is a recursive algorithm implicitly recording a “backtracking” path from the root to the node
currently under consideration
b) A stack can be used to perform DFS on a graph
a) Only a) b) Only b) c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)
13) Refer to the graph of distance (in km) between cities. The shortest route from City A to City F is
a) A → B → D → E → F b) A → C → D → E → F c) A → C → E → F d) A → B → D → F
14) Which of the following algorithms CANNOT be said to employ elements of dynamic programming ?
a) Bellman-Ford Algorithm b) Dijkstra’s Shortest Path
c) Floyd Warshall Algorithm d) Bubble Sort Algorithm
15) Which of the following functions has the largest growth rate ?
a) n^(1/2) b) n^100 c) 2^(n/2) d) 2^(n!)
16) What is generally true of Adjacency list and Adjacency Matrix representative of graphs ?
a) Lists require less space than matrices but take longer to find the weight of an edge (v1, v2)
b) Lists require less space than matrices and they are faster to find the weight of an edge (v1, v2)
c) Lists require more space than matrices and they take longer to find the weight of an edge (v1, v2)
d) Lists require more space than matrices but are faster to find the weight of an edge (v1, v2)
17) A spanning tree is
a) Undirected tree consisting of only those edges necessary to connect all nodes in original graph
b) Trees containing more than 2 leaves at every node
c) Tree of depth more than n + 1
d) All of the above
18) On a complete graph with ‘n’ vertices, how many spanning trees can be formed ?
a) n b) n^2 c) n^n d) n^(n – 2)
Questions 19-20 are based on the graph below :
19) What will be the sum of the weight of the edges of the spanning tree formed using Kruskal’s
algorithm on the graph above ?
a) 23 b) 29 c) 38 d) 41
20) If Prim’s algorithm were to be applied on the graph above, which will be the 5th edge to be added
onto the spanning tree being formed. Start from the vertex ‘c’ ?
a) Edge between d and e b) Edge between a and c
c) Edge between d and g d) Edge between b and c
______________
Set A

*SLRPC224* -3- SLR-PC – 224
Seat
No.
T.E. (CSE) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS (New)
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
a) What do you mean by Amortized Analysis ?
b) What are algorithm design techniques ?

2. Analyze the time complexity of the following segment :
for (i=0 ; i < N;i++)
for (j = N/2;j>0;j--)
sum + + ;
a) Write an algorithm for straightforward maximum and minimum ?
b) Write an algorithm for iterative binary search.

4. Obtain the shortest distance and shortest path from node 5 to node 1 in the following graph.
a) Write the control abstraction for greedy method.
b) What are the constraints of knapsack problem ?

6. Find an optimal placement for 3 tapes T0, T1, T2 where the programs are of lengths.
12, 5, 8, 32, 7, 5, 18, 26, 4, 3, 11, 10 and 6.
Set A

SLR-PC – 224 -4- *SLRPC224*

a) Explain the greedy approach to solve job sequencing with deadline problem.
b) Find an optimal binary merge pattern for 10 files whose lengths are 28, 32, 12, 5, 84, 53, 91, 35, 3
and 11.
OR
a) Obtain a set of optimal Huffman codes for message (m1, m2, m3,...., m7) with relative frequencies
(a1, a2, a3, .... , a7) = (4, 5, 7, 8, 10,12, 20). Draw the decode tree for this set of codes.
b) Find an optimal binary merge pattern for 10 files whose lengths are 28, 32, 12, 5, 84, 53, 91, 35, 3
and 11.
4. Solve the recurrence relation : 10
T(n) = T( n ) + 1
SECTION – II
⎡2 0⎤
⎢3 3
⎥
1. Two jobs have to be scheduled on 3 processors. Task times are given by matrix ⎢ ⎥ . Find finish
⎢⎣5 3⎥
⎦
time and mean flow time [MFT] for the preemptive and non-preemptive schedules.
2. Find the explicit constraints and implicit constraints for 8–queen problem.
3. Given n = 4, (w1, w2, w3, w4) = ( 7, 11, 13, 24). Find all possible subset whose sums are m = 31
using sum of subset algorithm.
4. Write a recursive algorithm for backtracking and explain it.
5. Define and explain following terms with examples :
a) Chromatic number b) Planar graph.
6. State and explain Cook’s theorem.
6. What are P, NP, NP - complete, and NP-hard ? 10
OR
6. Explain backtracking solution to 0/1 knapsack problem. 10
7. State and explain sum of subset problem. Write an algorithm for sum of subset problem. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (CSE) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015
DATABASE ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) Figure to right indicates marks.


1) Relational calculus is a
a) Procedural language b) Non-Procedural language
c) Data definition language d) High level language
2) In E-R diagram generalization is represented by
a) Ellipse b) Dashed ellipse c) Rectangle d) Triangle
3) To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is
a) UPDATE b) DROP c) ALTER d) DELETE
4) The natural join is equal to
a) Cartesian product
b) Combination of Union and Cartesian product
c) Combination of selection and Cartesian product
d) Combination of projection and Cartesian product
5) Using Relational Algebra the query that finds customers, who have a balance of over
1000 is
a) PCustomer_name(s balance > 1000(Deposit))
b) s Customer_name(Pbalance > 1000(Deposit))
c) PCustomer_name(s balance > 1000(Borrow))
d) s Customer_name(Pbalance > 1000(Borrow))
6) A data dictionary is a special file that contains
a) The name of all fields in all files b) The width of all fields in all files
c) The data type of all fields in all files d) All of the above
7) Key to represent relationship between tables is called
a) Primary key b) Secondary key
c) Foreign key d) None of these
8) Relational Algebra is
a) Data Definition Language b) Meta Language
c) Procedural Query Language d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 226 -2- *SLRPC226*
9) A relation is said to be in 3 NF if
i) it is in 2 NF
ii) non-key attributes are independent of one another
iii) key attribute is not dependent on part of a composite key
iv) has no multi-valued dependency
a) i and iii b) i and iv c) i and ii d) ii and iv
10) A data dictionary is a special file that contains
a) The name of all fields in all files b) The width of all fields in all files
c) The data type of all fields in all files d) All
11) Checkpoints are a part of
a) Recovery measures b) Security measures
c) Concurrency measures d) Authorization measures
12) Precedence graphs help to find a
a) Serializable schedule b) Recoverable schedule
c) Deadlock free schedule d) Cascadeless schedule
13) Immediate database modification technique uses
a) Both undo and redo b) Undo but no redo
c) Redo but no undo d) Neither undo nor redo
14) Shadow paging has
a) no redo b) no undo
c) redo but no undo d) neither redo nor undo
15) Indices whose search key specifies an order different from the sequential order of the
files are called
a) Nonclustering indices b) Clustering indices
c) Hash indices d) None
16) A transaction is in ____________ state after the final statement has been executed.
a) partially committed b) active
c) committed d) none of the above
17) Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared
lock on R.
a) It will result in a deadlock situation
b) It will immediately be rejected
c) It will immediately be granted
d) It will be granted as soon as it is released by A
18) Cascading rollback is avoided in all protocol except
a) Strict two-phase locking protocol b) Tree locking protocol
c) Two-phase locking protocol d) Validation based protocol
19) Which of the following is not a recovery technique ?
a) Deferred update b) Immediate update
c) Two-phase commit d) Shadow paging
20) Isolation of the transactions is ensured by
a) Transaction management b) Application programmer
c) Concurrency control d) Recovery management
______________
Set A

*SLRPC226* -3- SLR-PC – 226
Seat
No.

DATABASE ENGINEERING

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Figure to right indicates marks.
SECTION – I

a) What is data independence ? Explain different forms of it.
b) Explain tuple relational calculus.
c) Discuss good features of relational design.
d) With the help of example explain Cartesian product operation.
e) Explain 1NF with suitable example.

a) What is E-R schema and relational schema ? Explain in brief reduction of E-R schema to
relational schema.
b) Explain lossless decomposition and dependency preservation with suitable example.
4. What is DDL and DML ? Illustrate with example. 10
SECTION – II

a) Explain the concept of shadow paging.
b) Write a note on view serializability.
c) Describe in brief secondary index.
d) What do you mean by transaction ? Write a short note on transaction state.
e) Explain B+ tree file organization.
f) Write a short note on locks.

a) What do you mean by concurrency control ? Explain two phase locking protocol.
b) List and explain different types of storage. Explain stable storage implementation.
7. List the ACID properties and explain each property in detail with a suitable example. 10
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (CSE) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
COMPILER CONSTRUCTION (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Select correct alternative.
1) “Comments may appear in a special font” is an example of
a) Structure Editor b) Pretty printers c) Static checker d) Interpreter
2) Output of Assembler is
a) Source program b) Relocatable machine code
c) Target assembly program d) Absolute machine code
3) Which algorithm is used to convert a DFA from an NFA ?
a) DDA b) Subset construction
c) Prim’s algorithm d) None of above
4) If w is a string of terminal and A, B are two non terminals then which of the
following are right linear grammar
a) A → Bw b) A → Bw|w c) A → wB|w d) None
5) YACC builds up
a) SLR parsing table b) Canonical LR parsing table
c) LALR parsing table d) None
6) To construct the predictive parser from a grammar.
a) Eliminate left recursion b) Left factor the grammar
c) Compute FIRST and FOLLOW d) All of above
7) Syntax for mknode is
a) mknode (op, left) b) mknode (id, left, right)
c) mknode (op, right) d) mknode (op, left, right)
8) A translator for an s-attributed definition can be implemented with
a) SLR parser b) LR parser c) SALR parser d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC-227 -2- *SLRPC227*
9) Consider the grammar
S → Aa|bAc|Bc A → d| ε B → d
FIRST (S) is
a) {a,b, ε } b) {a,b,d} c) {a,b,d, ε } d) None of the above
10) Which of the following is not intermediate code form ?
a) Postfix notation b) Syntax trees
c) Three address codes d) None of the above
11) Which of the following is/are drawback of static allocation strategy ?
a) size of the data objects must be known at compile time
b) data structures cannot be created dynamically
c) recursive procedure are restricted
d) all of the above
12) Which is not a part of run time memory subdivision ?
a) stack b) heap c) static data d) access link
13) Dotted lines used in activation trees indicates
a) Execution of procedure is completed
b) Execution of procedure is not yet completed
c) Procedure is in execution
14) Which of the following primary structure preserving transformation on basic
blocks are ?
a) Common sub expression elimination b) Dead-code elimination
c) Renaming of temporary variables d) All of the above
15) Which of the following is not 3-address code statement ?
a) x : = op y b) x : = y c) x [i] : = y d) None of these
16) Graph Coloring is used for
a) Register assignment b) Register allocation
17) Sequence of consecutive statements in which flow of control enters and exits
without halt is called
a) Flow-graph b) Basic-block c) Loop d) Program
18) Which of the following is not basic block transformation ?
a) Common sub-expression elimination b) Dead-code elimination
c) Renaming of temporary variables d) None of these
19) Which type of three address code is memory efficient ?
a) Indirect triple b) Triple c) Quadruple d) None of above
20) A code generation algorithm uses
a) Register descriptor b) Address descriptor
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC227* -3- SLR-PC – 227
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
a) Distinguish the following terms and illustrate with suitable examples.
1) Lexemes 2) Sentinels
b) What is an operator precedence grammar ? Explain operator precedence parsing

with example.
c) Consider the context free grammar
s->ss+|ss*|a
i) Show how the string aa+a*a+ can be generated by this grammar
ii) Construct the parse tree for the above string
iii) Is the grammar ambiguous ? Justify.
d) Why we use subset construction algorithm ? Write and explain in detail the
same.
e) Parse the following string using shift-reduce parser id + id*id for the grammer
and explain
E->E+E|E*E|(E)|id
3. Attempt any one. 10
a) Explain synthesized attributes and inherited attributes. Explain S-attributed tree with
example 3*5+4n
b) Explain the design of the lexical analyzer generator. Also explain pattern matching based
on NFA with example.
Set A

SLR-PC – 227 -4- *SLRPC227*
4. Explain goto and closure operation. Write the canonical collection of sets of LR
(O) for the grammar. 10
E’–>E
E–>E+T|T
T–>T*F|F
F–>(E)|id
5. Attempt any four questions. (5×4)
a) Explain the different parameter passing techniques
b) Discuss issues in design of code generator
c) Explain types of intermediate representations.
d) Define basic block. Write algorithm to partition a program into basic block with example.
e) Explain flow graph with example.
a) Write and explain code generation algorithm with example.
b) Explain transformations on basic blocks
7. Explain function preserving transformations. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
OPERATING SYSTEM – II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Choose the correct answer :
1. Attempt the following multiple choice questions : 20

1) The Unix file system is characterized by
i) a hierarchical structure ii) treating peripheral device as file
iii) dynamic growth of file iv) protection of file data
A) All are true B) Only i, ii, iv is true
C) Only ii, iii, iv is true D) Only i, iv is true
2) A shell in Unix is most correctly described as
A) a command utility B) an application programmers interface
C) a command interpreter D) a log-in utility
3) Consider the following statements in relation with Unix OS philosophy
S1. Exception happens in the middle of an instruction execution
S2. Interrupt occurs between execution of two instructions
A) Both are correct B) only S1 is correct
C) Only S2 is correct D) Both are incorrect
4) Which of the following instruction is used by library calls to enter into the kernel mode
from the user mode ?
A) shell command B) pipe C) trap D) grep
5) Consider the following statements about structure of a buffer pool
S1 : A buffer is always on a hash queue
S2 : A buffer may or many not be on the free list
A) only S1 is correct B) only S2 is correct
C) both are incorrect D) both are correct
6) Getblk algorithm searches for a block by its
A) device number B) device and block number combination
C) inode number D) region number
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 228 -2- *SLRPC228*
7) iget algorithm is used for
A) allocation of disk inodes B) allocation of in-core inode
C) allocation of free buffer D) allocation of file number
8) The OPEN system call for file system in Unix takes following arguments
A) pathname, inodenumber B) pathname, user, mode
C) pathname, flags, mode D) pathname, handle, mode
9) Which of the following system call is used for creating special files ?
A) create B) pipe C) grep D) mknod
10) dup system call in Unix is used for
A) duplication of the file descriptor B) duplication of the inode
C) duplication of the file name D) duplication of the mounted file system
11) System call dealing with Synchronization is
A) Wait B) Fork C) Exec D) None
12) _________________ systems free processes from size limitations otherwise imposed
by the amount of physical memory available on a machine.
A) Paging B) Frames
C) Demand Paging D) Page table
13) The kernel first assigns the page tables and disk block descriptors for the executable
file, marking the page table entries “ _________________” or “demand zero”.
A) read B) demand fill C) demand write D) null
14) The _____________________ bit used in the fork system call indicates that the kernel
must create a new copy of the page when the disk block descriptor contains the logical
process modifies its contents.
A) zero B) flag C) copy of write D) copy on read
15) Processes usually invoke exec after ____________ call.
A) Fork B) Exec C) Exit D) Setup
16) Each occurrence of a clock interrupt is called as _____________
A) cycle B) clock tick C) frequency D) none of these
17) Which is not the function of clock interrupt handler ?
A) restart the clock B) keep track of time
C) control process scheduling D) set a global kernel variable
18) _______________ gives a measure of how much time the system is executing in user
mode versus kernel mode.
A) Profiling B) Accounting and Statistics
C) Time system call D) All
19) The _________ is a kernel process that swaps out memory pages that are no longer part
of the working set of a process.
A) table entry B) page swapper C) page stealer D) B and C both
20) A process may increase or decrease the size of its data region by using the
________________ system call.
A) Call B) Iseek C) Brk D) Fork
______________
Set A

*SLRPC228* -3- SLR-PC – 228
Seat
No.

OPERATING SYSTEM – II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions.
2) Assume data if necessary.
SECTION – I
2. Explain following terms in the light of System architecture of Unix OS : 10
A) User stack B) Kernel stack C) Context of a process
D) Context Switch E) Process State
3. Explain the structure of Buffer header and Buffer pool. What are the advantages
of Buffer Cache ? 10
OR
3. Explain the structure of a Regular file and describe with example how conversion of byte
offset to block number takes place.
4. Write a short note on (any four) : (5×4=20)

A) User Perspective of the Unix System.
B) Iseek system call.
C) System Structure of Unix OS.
D) Creation of named pipe.
E) File System Abstractions.
F) Amount system call.
SECTION – II
5. In which cases kernel swaps a process out from memory ? Explain with example the mapping
of in-core image of a process onto swap device. 10
6. A) Describe the major data structures supported by kernel for demand paging. 10
OR
B) What is region ? List fields in region table entry. List operations along with algorithm
name which are used to manipulate region. Explain any one operation in detail. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 228 -4- *SLRPC228*
A) Describe System Level Context of a Process.
B) Explain dupreg algorithm in detail.
C) Explain the algorithm used by kernel to determine if a process received a signal.
D) How kernel controls priority of process ?
E) Write and explain ioctl system call.
F) Write a short note on clists.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
Set A
T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1. Choose the correct alternatives : (1×20=20)

1) SDLC stands for
a) Software Database Life Cycle b) Software Development Life Cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle d) None of above
2) The simplest process model is
a) Waterfall model b) Prototype model
c) Spiral model d) None of these
3) The basic property of an object is
a) Encapsulation b) Inheritance c) Data d) None of these
4) The ________ model combines elements of waterfall model applied in an
iterative fashion.
a) Waterfall b) Incremental
c) RAD d) Prototype
5) The __________ model in which rapid development is achieved by using
component based construction approach.
a) RAD b) Incremental
c) Prototype d) All of the above
6) SRS stands for
a) Software Reconstruction System
b) Software Review System
c) Software Requirement Specification
d) All of the above P.T.O.

7) Which phase is not available ?
a) Coding b) Testing c) Maintenance d) Abstraction
8) KPA stands for
a) Key Process Area b) Key Product Area
c) Key Principal Area d) None of these
9) Concept of Software Engineering are applicable to
a) Pascal b) Fortran c) C d) All of above
10) The major verification and validation activation for software development are
a) Inspection b) Testing c) Reviews d) All of the above
11) PDL stands for
a) Process Develop Language b) Process Design Language
c) Process Database Language d) None of these
12) CMM stands for
a) Capacity Measuring Model b) Capacity Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Model d) None of these
13) An _______ as an entity in the problem domain that had defined boundaries
and behaviour.
a) Object b) Class c) Encapsulation d) Identity
14) Reviewers use ________ to record all defects or issues found during their
independent reviews.
a) Self-preparation log b) Group meeting log
c) Normal log d) Identity log
15) ________ are the most effective and commonly used method for identifying
defects.
a) Reviews b) Identity c) Polymorphism d) Development
16) SEPG stands for
a) Software Engineering Process Group
b) Software Engineering Product Group
c) Software Engineering Public Group
d) None of these
17) A _________ defines a possible set of objects.
a) Class b) Object c) Template d) Variable
18) _________ occurs due to methods of a class invoking methods of other
class.
a) Interaction coupling b) Component coupling
c) Inheritance coupling d) None of these
19) _________ and __________ are the basic building blocks of an Object Oriented
Design (OOD).
a) Identity and state b) Classes and objects
c) State and behaviour d) Classes and data
20) UML stands for
a) Unified Modeling Language b) Union Monitoring Language
c) Union Milestone Language d) Union Modeling Language
______________ Set A

*SLRPC229* -3-
SLR-PC 229
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Old)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instruction : Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

a) Explain in detail abstraction. 5
b) Explain in detail waterfall model. 5
c) Explain software configuration management process. 5
d) Explain quality concepts and discuss procedural approach to quality
management. 5
e) Explain validation for SRS. 5
f) What is meant by process database and explain contents of PDB. 5
3. Attempt any one :

a) Explain Structural Design Methodology (SDM) with suitable example. 10
OR
b) Discuss different effort estimation techniques used in Software Engineering. 10
4. Write short notes on (any two) : (2×5=10)

1) COCOMO model. 5
2) Association. 5
3) The process capability baseline. 5
Set A

SECTION II

a) Write a note on training for project managers. 5
b) What is cause-effect graphing technique ? Explain it with suitable example. 5
c) Differentiate between group review and one person review. 5
d) Explain milestone analysis in project monitoring and control. 5
e) Explain in detail project tracking. 5
f) Explain coupling and cohesion for design concepts. 5
6. Attempt any one :

a) Explain white-box testing in detail. 10
OR
b) Explain the review process in detail for project execution and closure. 10
7. Write short note on (any 2) : (2×5=10)

a) SEPG 5
b) Data Collection 5
c) Process monitoring and audit. 5
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC23* SLR-PC 23
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015

DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) The allowable direct tensile stress in rolled steel section is 1
a) 120 MPa b) 150 Ma c) 180 MPa d) 200 MPa
2) When the fillet weld is applied to the toe of angle, the max specified size of the
weld should be 2
a) 1/4 of thickness of angle b) 1/2 of thickness of angle
c) 3/4 of thickness of angle d) None of the above
3) When the members of different thickness are spliced, if the packing is 10 mm
thick, how much percentage of additional number of bolts need to be provided
for the packing 2
a) 2.5% of total number of bolts required for connection
b) 5% of total number of bolts required for connection
c) 7.5% of total number of bolts required for connection
d) 10% of total number of bolts required for connection
4) The slenderness ratio of a steel member is 1
a) Effective length/radius of gyration
b) Effective length/least radius of gyration
c) Effective length/max radius of gyration
d) Least length/radius of gyration
5) Web crippling and web buckling in beams occur due to 2
a) Uniformly distributed load b) Concentrated loads
c) Weather conditions d) None of the above
P.T.O.

6) While checking combined (vertical and horizontal) bending stresses, the

allowable compressive stress in Gantry girder is increased by 2
a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%
7) In Roof truss, which member is designed as beam subjected to bending moment
about two axes 1
a) Principal rafter b) Purlins
c) Top chord member d) Bottom chord member
8) In Lacing and Battening, the different components of built-up sections are
placed in such a way that 2
a) Built-up section has same radius of gyration about both the axes
b) Built-up section has different radius of gyration about both the axes
c) Built-up section has no consideration with radius of gyration
9) In single angle discontinuous struts, if two or more bolts are provided at each
end, then the effective length is 2
a) 0.85 L b) L c) 1.2 L d) None of the above
10) Where the critical section for moment is taken for the Gusseted base 1
a) At the foot of the gusset plate
b) At the foot of the gusset angle
c) At the centroidal line of the column
11) For single lacing effective length of the lacing bar taken, to calculate the
slenderness ratio is 1
a) 1.0 times length between inner end bolts
b) 0.7 times length between inner end bolts
c) 0.5 times length between inner end bolts
d) 1.2 length between inner end bolts
12) The ratio of allowable stress in bending compression to that of bending tension
in laterally supported steel beam is 1
a) Less than one b) Less than or equal to one
c) Equal to one d) More than one
13) Maximum pitch between the centre of two adjacent bolts, including tacking bolts 1
a) 32 t b) 300 mm
c) min of (a) and (b) d) max of (a) and (b)
14) The attachment of lug angle to the main angle should be capable of developing,
how much percent of excess of the force 1
a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60%
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Old)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and any three
questions from Section II.
2) Assume necessary data if required and mention it clearly.
4) USe of IS 800 : 1984 and IS 875 III codes, steel table is
permitted.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain advantages and disadvantages of steel structures. 4

b) Below is the arrangement of the weld to support to bracket plate is shown in
fig. 1. The load applied to the bracket plate is 100 kN. Find the size of the
weld required. 10
Fig. 1
3. a) A member is subjected to an axial tensile load of 75 kN. Design the section

using bolted connections. 9
b) Give short note on Net effective area of angle. 4
Set A

4. a) Explain about effective length in compression members. 4
b) Find the load carrying capacity of 2ISA 75 × 75 × 6 in axial compression when
they are placed back to back and on both sides of the gusset plate. Assume
the member is properly tacked along its length. Assume welded connection.
Take the length of the member is 1.5 m. 9
5. a) Explain the ways to support the beam laterally. 4

b) An ISMB 300 @44.2 kg/m is placed over a simply supported span of 4 m. Find
the safe uniformly distributed load that the beam can carry from the following
criteria. 9
i) Flexural stresses ii) Shear stresses iii) Deflection
SECTION II
6. Find the design forces for which the gantry girder is to be designed. 14
Crane capacity 300 kN
Wt of crane excluding trolley 190 kN
Wt of trolley 100 kN
Max approach of crane hook 1.2 m
Distance between the centres of crane wheel 3.5 m
Distance between centres of gantry girder 18 m
Span of gantry girder 6 m
Wt of rail section 300 N/m
Ht of rail section 75 mm
7. The trusses for a factory building are spaced at 4.5 m center to center and the
purlins are spaced at 1.8 m centre to centre. The pitch of truss is and the

"
span of the roof is 10 m. The vertical loads from roof sheets, etc., are equal to
180 N/m2 while the wind load on the roof surface normal to the roof is equal to
1200 N/m2. = 165 N/mm2.

> J
Design : (a) I section purlins (b) Angle purlins. 13
8. Design the built-up column composed of two channel sections placed back to
back, carrying an axial load of 1345 kN. Effective length of column is 5.95 m.
Take fy = 250 N/mm2. 13
9. a) Design a slab base for a column section ISHB 350@710.2 N/m subjected to
an axial load of 800 kN. The base rest on M-15 concrete pedestal. 9
b) Explain the theorems in plastic analysis. 4
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Robot control is ___________ task domain of artificial intelligence.
a) Expert b) Formal c) Mundane d) All of above
2) It is possible to apply AI technique to the solution of non-AI problems.
a) True b) False
3) _____________ program test psychological theories of human performance.
a) EPAM b) PARRY c) GPS d) MYCIN
4) The ____________ requirement of a good control strategy is that it be systematic.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth
5) One of the best description of the importance of heuristics in solving interesting
problems is
a) How to search it b) How to travel it
c) How to get it d) How to solve it
6) Class of problem in which solution steps can be undone
a) Ignorable b) Recoverable c) Irrecoverable d) None of above
7) A state that is better than all its neighbors but is not better than some other state
further away is called as
a) Plateau b) Local maxima c) Ridge d) None of above
8) The first AI program that exploit means-ends analysis
a) EPAM b) PARRY c) GPS d) MYCIN
9) The ability to represent all of the kinds of knowledge that are needed in that
domain is
a) Representational adequacy properties
b) Inferential adequacy properties
c) Inferential efficiency properties
d) Acquisitional efficiency properties
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 230 -2- *SLRPC230*
10) Property inheritance inference form is used in
a) Simple relational knowledge b) Inheritable knowledge
c) Inferential knowledge d) Procedural knowledge
11) ___________ theory allows us to represent set memberships as a possibility
distribution.
a) Fuzzy b) Class c) Logic d) All
12) ____________ is a theory of how to represent the kind of knowledge about events
that is usually contained in natural language sentences.
a) CYC b) Conceptual dependency
c) Slot structures d) None of these
13) System that provides a basis for default reasoning is called __________ logic.
a) Monotonic b) Nonmonotonic c) Both d) None of these
14) ____________ programs has been used successfully to help to locate deposits
of several minerals, including copper and uranium.
a) PROLOG b) MYCIN c) DENDRAL d) PROSPECTOR
15) In forward reasoning, begin from the ____________ states.
a) Goal b) Start c) Intermediate d) None of these
16) A simple kind of ______________ reasoning is suggested by the Closed World
Assumption.
a) Default b) Minimalist c) Nonmonotonic d) All of these
17) ___________ in which we preserve the formalism and rely instead on the
modularity of the world we are trying to model.
a) Baye’s Network b) Dempster-Shafer Network
c) Bayesian Network d) None of these
18) MYCIN represents most of its diagnostic __________ as a set of rules.
a) Facts b) Knowledge c) Information d) Predicates
19) A _____________ is a structure that describes a stereotyped sequence of events
in a particular context.
a) Conceptual dependency b) Nonmonotonic logic
c) Scripts d) All of these
20) The first expert system to be completed was DENDRAL, developed at Stanford
University in late ____________
a) 1960 b) 1980 c) 1990 d) 1947
______________
Set A

*SLRPC230* -3- SLR-PC – 230
Seat
No.

ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
1) Write short note on criteria for success of AI model.
2) What are the properties of knowledge ? Also explain how it is represented.
3) Explain Steepest – Ascent hill climbing algorithm.
4) Explain heuristic function with example.
5) Explain how relationship among attributes is an issue in knowledge representation.
6) Explain AND-OR graph with example.
3. List and explain AI techniques. Also with example, discuss how they are used in
example. 10
OR
Explain the production system characteristics in detail.
4. Explain AO* Algorithm. 10
OR
Explain in detail representation and mapping at facts in knowledge representation.
Set A

SLR-PC – 230 -4- *SLRPC230*
SECTION – II
1) Write a note on monotonic reasoning.
2) Explain probability and Baye’s theorem along with examples.
3) What is expert system ? List out its applications.
4) Explain what is conceptual dependency in detail.
5) Explain Dempster-Shafer Theory.
6. Attempt the following : (10×2=20)
1) Define and describe frames in slot and filler structures in detail with suitable
examples.
2) Write short notes on :

a) Fuzzy logic
b) Nonmonotonic reasoning.
OR
2) Explain forward and backward reasoning in details.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
DATABASE ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) DBMS is a collection of _______________ that enables user to create and
maintain a database.
a) Keys b) Translators c) Program d) Language activity
2) In a relational schema each tuples is divided into fields called
a) relations b) domains c) queries d) all of these
3) ____________ is a full form of SQL.
a) Standard Query Language b) Sequential Query Language
c) Structured Query Language d) Server side Query Language
4) _____________ keyword is used to find the number of values in a column.
a) Total b) COUNT c) ADD d) Sum
5) Key to represent relationship between tables is called __________
a) Primary key b) Secondary key
c) Foreign key d) None of these
6) Grant and revoke are _______________ statements.
a) DDL b) TCL c) DCL d) DML
7) ______________ command can be used to modify a column in a table.
a) Alter b) Update c) Set d) Create
8) _____________ is the process of organizing data into related tables.
a) Normalization b) Generalization c) Specialization d) None of these
9) Which of the following are the properties of entities ?
a) Groups b) Table c) Attributes d) Switchboards
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 231 -2- *SLRPC231*
10) Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for
accessing file records ?
a) File blocks b) File operators
c) File headers d) None of these
11) _____________ is a table have more than one set of attributes that could
be choosen as the key.
a) Foreign key b) Integrity key c) Relationship d) Candidate key
12) _____________ is a unit of program execution that accesses and possibly
updates various data items.
a) Transaction b) Database c) Recovery d) All of these
13) A serializability order of the transactions can be obtained by finding a linear
order consistent with partial order of the precedence graph called ________
a) ascending b) descending
c) topological sorting d) all of these
14) A transaction may obtain locks but may not release any lock called ________
phase.
a) shrinking phase b) growing phase
15) Which database level is closest to the users ?
a) external b) internal c) physical d) conceptual
16) A ____________ is used to define over all design of the database.
a) Schema b) Application program
c) Data definition language d) Code
17) Symbol used for weak entity is ____________
a) square b) oval
c) double rectangle d) circle
18) In transaction failure the two errors that may cause transaction to fail are
___________ and _____________
a) Physical and system error b) Logical and system error
c) Physical and logical error d) None of these
19) Deadlocks can be described precisely in terms of a directed graph called
_____________
a) wait-for-graph b) wait-die
c) wound-wait d) cyclic
20) A transaction that completes its execution successfully is called ________
a) aborted b) committed c) partially d) start
______________
Set A

*SLRPC231* -3- SLR-PC – 231
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
a) Define database and give the difference between DBMS and file processing ?
b) Explain different types of keys with example.
c) Explain with example Group by and Having clause.
d) Explain functional dependency theory with example.
e) Write a note on Tuple relational calculus.
f) Give an example for aggregate functions.
3. a) Draw E-R diagram for University Enterprise. 10

OR
b) Explain Algorithms for decomposition.
4. Consider the given schema and write an expression in SQL for following queries.10
Schema : Department (dept_name,building,budget)
Course(course-id,title,dep_name,credits)
Instructor(Id,name,dept_name,salary)
1) Find the names of instructors with salary amount between 80000 and 90000.
2) Retrieve the names of all instructors along with their department names and
department building name.
Set A

SLR-PC – 231 -4- *SLRPC231*
SECTION – II
a) Briefly explain Dynamic hashing.
b) With diagram explain transaction atomicity and durability.
c) Explain 2PL Protocol.
d) Explain implementation of locking.
e) Explain buffer management.
6. a) Explain Timestamp-Based Protocol. 10
OR
b) Explain B+ - Tree Index Files ?
7. Explain Recovery Algorithm. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (CSE) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct answer : (1×20= 20)
1) Which of the following is/are the compiler construction tools ?
a) Scanner generator b) Parser generator
c) Automatic code generator d) All of the above
2) Output of Assembler is
a) Source program b) Relocatable machine code
c) Target assembly program d) Absolute machine code
3) What is the reason behind the division of compiling into lexical analysis and parsing ?
a) Simple Design b) Efficiency
c) Portability d) All of above
4) Possible error recovery actions are
a) Deleting extraneous character
b) Inserting a missing character
c) Transposing two adjacent character
d) All of above
5) Which of the following are parameter passing method ?
a) Call by value b) Call by reference
c) Call by restore d) All
6) Which of the following is context free grammar ?
a) L = {an bm cndm | n, m ≥ 1} b) L = {wcw | w is in {a, b} *}
{ }
c) L = an bn cm dm | n, m ≥ 1 {
d) L = anbncn | n, m ≥ 1 }
7) If there is production A → αBβ then everything in _________ is placed in FOLLOW
(B).
a) FIRST (β ) b) FIRST (β ) except
c) FIRST (α) d) FIRST (α) except
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 232 -2- *SLRPC232*
8) The most powerful parser is
a) SLR b) LALR
c) Canonical LR d) Operator precedence
9) A syntax directed definition is said to be ___________ if dependency graph
contains cycle.
a) DAG b) Circular c) Noncircular d) None of the above
10) An SDD without side effects is called
a) Context free grammar b) Operator grammar
c) Attribute grammar d) Both a and c
11) Maximum number of temporary variables required to evaluate expression
X := a * b + c * d − e * f
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
12) An intermediate code form is
a) Postfix notation b) Syntax trees
c) Three address code d) All of these
13) Implicit allocation stands for
a) Allocation does by programmer
b) Allocation does by run time support package
c) Allocation does by user
d) None of above
14) Which is not part of Runtime memory subdivision ?
a) Heap b) Stack c) Static data d) Access link
15) Which filed is not present in activation record ?
a) Saved machine status b) Optional control link
c) Procedure name d) Temporaries
16) DAG is used for
a) Strength reduction b) Frequency reduction
c) Dead code elimination d) Common sub-expression elimination
17) Which among following is not valid type of 3-address code ?
a) param X1 b) if X relop Y goto L
c) X : = y d) *X : = Y
18) Which among the following method not use for keeping track of scope information
for procedures ?
a) mktable (previous) b) addwidth (table, width)
c) newtemp () d) enterproc (table, name, newtable)
19) Backpatching occurs due to
a) Procedure calls b) Assignment statement
c) Jump statement d) None of above
20) Which language necessarily need heap allocation in the runtime environment ?
a) Those that support recursion
b) Those that uses dynamic scoping
c) Those that allow dynamic data structures
d) All of the above
______________ Set A

*SLRPC232* -3- SLR-PC – 232
Seat
No.
T.E. (CSE) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015

COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
a) Explain language processing system with schematic.
b) Explain the following terms with example

Prefix
Suffix
Substring
Proper prefix, suffix, substring and
Subsequence
c) Write the FIRST and FOLLOW set for following example
S → AaAb|BbBa
A→∈
B →∈
d) Explain predictive parsing with example.
e) What are synthesized and inherited attributes ? Explain with example.
3. Explain non-recursive predictive parsing with example. 10

OR
Explain and write the algorithm for buffer pairs and sentinels.
4. List and describe the phases of compiler with example. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 232 -4- *SLRPC232*
SECTION – II
a) Explain the types of three-address statements.
b) Write a short on triples and quadruples.
c) Explain different issues of design of code geneator.
d) What is basic block ? Represent the basic block using DAG with suitable example.
e) Explain any two code-improving transformations.
a) Explain ‘case statement’. Also write two translation types of a case statement.
b) Explain the storage organization with the help of subdivision of runtime memory
and activation record.
7. What is optimiztion ? Explain peephole optimization techniques in detail. 10
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) File Table is a ___________ data structure.
a) User Mode b) Kernel Mode
c) Both d) H/W level
2) Shell interprets the first word of command line as a
a) As a parameter b) Command name
c) Library call d) System call
3) Memory, directory, character block, pipes are treated as _______ by UNIX.
a) Files b) User c) Buffer d) Devices
4) ________ algorithm is used for converting file byte offset into physical disk block.
a) iget b) bread c) namei d) bmap
5) Buffer cache is placed in between
a) File system and character device b) File system and device drivers
c) File system and hardware control d) File system and block device
6) The link syscall has the following sysntax
a) link(source filename, target filename)
b) link(filename)
c) link(pathname)
d) link(destination file, source file)
7) __________ and _________ extends the file system tree visible to users.
a) Chown and chroot b) Link and unlink
c) Stat and fstat d) Mount and unmount
8) Change in the contents of file, implicitly make changes in
a) File path b) Filename c) Inode d) Buffer size
P.T.O.

9) _________ has the access right to all files in the system.
a) User b) Super-user c) User process d) Group owner
10) For redirecting the output to file instead of screen we use _______ symbol.
a) > b) >> c) | d) 2>
11) The state _________ is logically treated same as ready to run in memory by
scheduler.
a) Zombie b) Preempted
c) Ready to run d) Sleeping
12) Consider the following statements :
S1 : Process in Kernel mode only can access u-area
S2 : Process in user mode can access u-area
a) Both are true b) Only S2 is true
c) Only S1 is true d) Both are false
13) The Kernel calculates the decay of the CPU usage by _______ formula.
a) CPU/2 b) CPU/2 + base priority
c) CPU/2 + nice value d) CPU and mod 2
14) A process can synchronize its execution with termination of the child process by
using _________ syscall.
a) Fork b) Wait c) Exec d) Exit
15) profil system call has following sysntax.
a) profil(buff, bufsize, offset, scale) b) profil(fileptr, buf, offset, mode)
c) profil(inode, buf, bufsize, scale d) profil(buf, scale, baseptr)
16) _______ is the only process that swaps processes in memory from swap device.
a) Process 0 b) Process 1 c) Fork d) Root process
17) The _________ sequence is normally used to take system from inactive to running
state.
a) Init b) Sleep c) Bootstrap d) Wakeup
18) ________ algorithm is used to process/handle the signals.
a) Issig b) Sigcatch c) Exit d) Psig
19) After witch system call process enters into zombie state.
a) Wait b) Exit c) Sleep d) Signal
20) _________ is used to transmit data between buffer cache and a device by kernel.
a) Terminal interface b) Strategy interface
c) Character interface d) User interface
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
1) List the features of UNIX operating system.
2) Describe fie system layout.
3) Give the formula for computation of block number, also find out the disk block
number for inode number 8 if block 2 is the beginning of the inode list and there
are 8 inodes per block.
4) Explain lseek system call.
5) Explain bread system call algorithm in detail.
6) What are processor execution level and how the influence the interrupt handling ?
1) Explain the algorithm for inode assignment to a newly created file.
2) Give the classification of system calls based on different category.
3) Explain with example the race for free buffer and race for locked buffer in getblk
algorithm.
SECTION II
1) Describe allocreg algorithm.
2) Explain the scenario where kernel removes the entries for streaky-bit text regions.
3) List the functions of clock interrupt handler.
4) Explain Vfork in detail.
5) Explain terminal polling.
6) Explain accounting and statistics of process scheduling.
1) Explain malloc algorithm in details.
2) What is signal ? Explain their classification. Explain how and when kernel
checks the receipt of the signal.
3) Explain process state transition diagram in details.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
)
N o .
T.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
1. Choose the correct answer from the following : (20×1=20)
1) The goal of the _________ phase is to translate the design of the system into
code in a given programming language.
a) Coding b) Designing c) Testing d) Maintenance
2) The simplest process model is
a) Water fall model b) Prototype model
c) Spiral Model d) None of these
3) Classes and objects are building blocks of an
a) OOM b) OOD c) OOA d) None of these
4) MAO stands for
a) Most abstract output b) Most abstract output data element
c) Most abstract origin d) None of these
5) The goal of the requirement activity is to document the _________ in
software requirement specification document.
a) Requirement b) Design
c) Rules d) All
6) Requirement elicitation means
a) Gathering of requirement b) Capturing of requirement
c) Understanding of requirement d) All of above
7) _______ is an attempt to minimize the chances of failure caused by unplanned
events.
a) Effort estimation
b) Testing
c) Requirement analysis and specification
d) None of these
P.T.O.

8) A _________ can plan the project.
a) Project manager b) Analyst
c) Software engineer d) Librarian
9) The state and services of a object together define its
a) Action b) Behaviour c) Properties d) None of these
10) The basic property of an object is
a) Data b) Encapsulation
c) Inheritance d) None of these
11) Unit testing is another approach for verifying the
a) Code b) Program c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
12) Risk management aims to ________ and then take action to minimize their
effect on the project.
a) Identify cost and estimation b) Identify risks
c) Identify plan d) None of these
13) CMM is technique to
a) Test the software b) Develop the software
c) Improve software process d) All of the above
14) The objective of planning phase is to prepare
a) Inspection b) Requirement c) Specification d) None of these
15) LOC stands for
a) Line of compiler b) Line of code
c) Line to composite d) None of these
16) _______ is a condition that causes system to fail.
a) Error b) Fault c) Code d) None of these
17) Function testing is known as
a) Structural testing b) Behaviour testing
c) Regressing testing d) None of these
18) In CMM mode, level-2 is __________ level.
a) Initial b) Managed c) Repeatable d) Optimizing
19) The first level of testing is called as
a) Unit testing b) System testing
c) Integration testing d) All
20) Agile development method describes _________ ways.
a) Iterative b) Incremental
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I

a) Explain software development process.
b) Draw a design notation for OOD.
c) What is mean by SRS verification ?
d) Explain feature of good SRS.
e) Explain in detail spiral model.

a) Explain design principles used in function oriented design.
b) Which is different effort estimation techniques used in software engineering ?
4. Write a short note on (any two) : (2×5=10)

a) Software Requirement Specification (SRS).
b) Structural Design Methodology (SDM).
c) Software configuration management.
SECTION II

a) Explain in detail unit testing.
b) What is Pareto analysis ?
c) Explain agile project management.
d) Explain project tracking in project monitoring and control.
e) Explain review process.
Set A


a) Explain CMM project management process.
OR
b) What is Risk ? Explain Risk management.
7. Write a short note on (any two) : (2×5=10)

a) White box testing.
b) Milestone analysis.
c) Test plan.
d) Fish-bone diagram.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
MOBILE COMPUTING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.

1) _____________ are typically used for radio transmission around the world.
a) Long waves b) Radio waves
c) Short waves d) Very short waves
2) A theoretical reference antenna is _____________ a point in space radiating equal
power in all directions.
a) Isotrophic radiator b) Omni radiator
c) Hemispheric radiator d) Dipole radiator
3) Sky waves are
a) 2 – 30 MHz b) 4 – 40 MHz c) 1 – 10 MHz d) 2 – 20 MHz
4) _____________ depends on Doppler spread and varies inversely with
maximum Doppler spread.
a) Doppler time b) Coherence time
c) Doppler bandwidth d) Coherence bandwidth
5) _____________ systems take a user bit stream and perform an XOR with
chipping sequence.
a) DSSS b) FHSS c) CSSS d) FSSS
6) “Every terminal has its own frequency, uninterrupted”, is true for
a) SDMA b) TDMA c) FDMA d) CDMA
7) _____________ is used in many 3G systems.
a) SDMA b) TDMA c) FDMA d) CDMA
8) GSM consists of _____________
a) RSS b) NSS c) OSS d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 235 -2- *SLRPC235*
9) _____________ allows the MS to correct the local oscillator to avoid
interference with neighbouring channels.
a) Frequency correction burst b) Data correction burst
c) Amplitude correction burst d) Access correction burst
10) _____________ is popularly known as Wi-Fi.
a) IEEE 802.11a b) IEEE 802.11b c) IEEE 802.11g d) IEEE 802.11n
11) In MANET information packets are transmitted in _____________ manner.
a) Store and forward b) Save and forward
c) Take and forward d) Get and forward
12) A TCP connection is identified by tuple
a) source IP address, destination IP address
b) source port, destination port
c) a) and b)
d) None
13) _____________ provides several services for the MN and is located in the
home network.
a) FA b) HA c) COA d) CA
14) Foreign agents and home agents advertise their presence periodically using
special _____________ messages.
a) Agent advertisement b) Foreign agent advertisement
c) Home agent advertisement d) Periodic agent advertisement
15) DHCP stands for
a) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
b) Dynamic Host Control Protocol
c) Dynamic Hub Control Protocol
d) Dynamic Host Centric Protocol
16) _____________ retransmits only lost data.
a) Snooping TCP b) Transaction oriented TCP
c) Selective retransmission d) MTCP
17) The main pieces required to get Android working on embedded system
_____________
a) android compatible Linux kernel b) android platform
c) a) and b) d) Ubuntu and Fedora
18) Android applications are made up of _____________
a) Loosely tied components b) Tightly tied components
c) Coupled components d) None of above
19) Android defines its own RPC/IPC mechanism _____________
a) Glinder b) Blinder c) Binder d) Ginder
20) IEEE 802.11a operates on
a) 5 MHz b) 5 GHz c) 5 NHz d) 5 KHz
______________
Set A

*SLRPC235* -3- SLR-PC – 235
Seat
No.

MOBILE COMPUTING (New)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any 4 : (4×5=20)

a) Describe the term modulation and demodulation with suitable examples.
b) Explain in brief ‘antennas’.
c) Compare SDMA, TDMA, FDMA, CDMA.
d) Discuss ASK, FSK, PSK modulation schemes.
e) Explain MANET with suitable diagram and differentiate between ad-hoc and sensor
network.
3. Explain IEEE 802.15.4. Give MAC frame format and packet structure and discuss
them in detail. 10
OR
What is spread spectrum ? List various spread spectrum types. Explain them with
suitable diagram.
4. Explain MTC and MOC with suitable example and diagram. Discuss how message
flow occurs for MTC and MOC ? 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 235 -4- *SLRPC235*
SECTION – II
5. Attempt any 4 : (4×5=20)
a) Discuss how packet delivery takes place to and from mobile node with suitable
diagram.
b) Write a short note on snooping TCP.
c) Give DHCP configuration. Discuss in detail how client gets initialized via DHCP.
d) Give and discuss architecture of HMIPv6.

e) Discuss in brief registration process in mobile IP.
6. How Android system is useful ? Give and discuss its architecture. 10

OR
What is meant by NFC ? Draw architecture and explain in detail.
7. What is meant by IP micro mobility ? List various solutions to resolve this

problem. Explain any two in detail. 10
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC236A* SLR-PC 236A
S e a t
5 A J
A
N o .
T.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) (New)

Examination, 2015
(Self Learning)
NETWORK SETUP AND MANAGEMENT TOOLS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
of Page.

1. Solve the following : 10
1) Fault Management includes
a) Fault identification and isolation
b) Event Correlation
c) Both a) and b)
2) Function of modem is
a) to perform modulation demodulation
b) to convert analog to Digital signature
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
3) The type of network in which information is sent in the form of chunks is
a) Circuit switched network b) Cell switched network
c) Packet switched network d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC 236A -2- *SLRPC236A*
4) The full form of MAN is

a) Metropolian Area Network b) Metric Area Network
c) Malicious Area Network d) None
5) Default port used by HTTP is
a) 80 b) 50 c) 60 d) 70
6) Which of the following is not network connection device ?
a) Hubs b) Switch c) Router d) Adapter
7) Which of the following is NOT Cryptographic Algorithm ?
a) RSA b) Diffie-Hellman
c) Clefia d) None of the above
8) The engine of any database management system lies at
a) front end b) back end c) middleware d) none of above
9) Which of the following is used to create robust web site through java platform ?
a) servlet b) strut c) JSP d) All the above
10) Which of the following filters the unwanted information ?
a) Firewell b) Trojen-Horse
c) Logic Bomb d) All the above
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC236A* -3- SLR-PC 236A
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2015
(Self Learning)
NETWORK SETUP AND MANAGEMENT TOOLS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2. Solve any four from following : (10×4=40)
1) Explain with neat diagram, network management architecture.
2) Explain the working of hub.
3) What is Authentication ? How it is achieved with respect to Host and User ?
4) Write a short note on :

i) auto discovery
ii) application of network management.
5) Discuss the functions of NIC with its selection procedure.
6) Explain in detail, event correlation techniques.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING (Technical)
Computer Modeling and Simulation

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1. Solve the following questions : 10

1) __________ is considered to be numerical computation technique used in
conjunction with dynamic mathematical model.
a) Analysis b) System simulation
c) Dynamic computation d) None of the above
2) Which model/system applies computational procedures to solve equation ?
a) Dynamic model b) Static model
c) Analytical model d) Numerical model
3) In discrete system changes are
a) Predominantly continuous
b) Predominantly discrete
c) Depend on the system
4) Which of the following is not simulation language ?
a) GPSS b) Simscript
c) Simula d) All of the above
P.T.O.

5) When simulation is not appropriate ?
a) When the problem can be solved by common sense
b) If cost exceeds savings
c) If resource or time are not available
d) All above
6) Which of the following way is correct to declare and initialize the variable in
OTcl ?
a) Set a 1 b) Set a = 1;
c) set a : 1 d) Set a <- 1;
7) Principle / Principles used in modeling
a) Block building b) Relevance
c) Aggregation d) All of the above
8) To run an OTcl script, type
a) ns ex-tcl.tcl b) tcl ex-tcl.tcl
c) both a) and b) d) ex-tcl.tcl
9) NS (version 2) simulator is written in
a) C++ b) OTcl
c) JAVA d) Both C++ and OTcl
10) In NS, which node used as default node
a) Unicast node b) Multicast node
c) Both a) and b) d) Single node
______________
Set A

Seat
No.
T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2015

SELF LEARNING (Technical)
Computer Modeling and Simulation

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2. Attempt any four (each 10 marks) :

a) How to develop a simulation model ? Explain in detail.
b) Write short note on NS2.
c) What is model of system ? Write the types of model. Explain any two.
d) Write scenario for TCP and UDP with example.
e) Advantages and disadvantages of simulation.
f) What is queue monitor ? Types of queue monitor with example.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

*SLRPC236C* SLR-PC 236 C
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING (Technical) I
Software Licensing and Practices
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to right side indicate maximum marks.

2) Use suitable data if required.
3) Following questions include Section I and II.
SECTION I

a) Explain the basic principles of Copyright Law.
b) Briefly discuss issues pertaining to Copyrights and Patents.
c) Write a short note on the MIT License.
d) What are Creative Commons Licenses ? Explain them in brief.
e) Briefly explain Non-Open Source Licenses with at least two examples.
SECTION II

a) Describe with examples the negative effects of Open Source and Free Software
Licensing.
b) State and explain differences between Copyright and Patent.
c) Assume that you have developed a software product which you intend to sell
to the customers.
Comment on how you will realize the following requirements and which software
licenses can be used in the context ?
1) Your software should not be distributed free cost.
2) Customer should be prohibited from creating any derivative works.
3) Customers cannot resell your software.
d) Explain pros and cons associated with Open-Source Licenses and Non-Open
Source Licenses.
_____________________

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (CSE) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) Answers to Section – I and II should be written in the same
answer book.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3. only. Don’t
1. Choose the right answer from the following :

1) __________ dependence occurs when two instructions use the same register or memory
location, but there is no flow of data between the instructions associated.
a) Name dependences b) Data dependences
c) Control dependences d) True data dependences
2) Which of the following is a name dependence ?
a) Antidependence b) output dependence c) Both a) and b) d) RAW
3) Consider two instructions i and j, with i preceding j in program order. j tries to read a
source before i writes it, so j incorrectly gets the old value. Then the type of data hazard is
a) RAW b) WAW c) WAR d) RAR
4) The major limitations of simple pipelining technique is that they
a) Use in-order instruction issue and execution
b) May lead to a hazard and stall will result
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
5) Basic structure of a Tomasulo-based processor, includes
a) Floating point unit b) Load store unit c) Both a) and b) d) None
6) Multiple issue processors come into which of the following flavors ?
a) Statically scheduled superscalar processors
b) VLIW processors
c) Dynamically scheduled superscalar processors
d) All of the above
7) Detection of hazard in case of VLIW is done by
a) Hardware b) Primarily software
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 237 -2- *SLRPC237*
8) Vector instructions can be classified into __________ primitive types.
a) 4 b) 8 c) 6 d) 5
9) Which of the following approaches will enhance the vector processing capability ?
a) Enrich the vector instruction set b) Combine scalar instructions
c) Choose suitable algorithms d) All of the above
10) Which of the following stage have been recognized in the development of parallelism in
advanced programming ?
a) Parallel algorithm
b) High level language
c) Efficient objective code and target machine code
d) All of the above
11) Which of the following is an example of loosely coupled multiprocessors ?
a) Cyber 170 b) Honeywell 60/66 c) PDP - 10 d) Cm*
12) In which of the following system, every central processor and every I/O multiplexer is
connected to every system controller (SC) ?
a) Honey well 60/66 architecture b) Cyber 170
c) Cm* d) PDP - 10
13) Which of the following bus connects two different slocal switch ?
a) Map bus b) Intercluster bus c) Local bus d) All of the above
14) Which of the following is an interface to other computer modules in case of a non
hierarchical loosely coupled multiprocessor system ?
a) Processor b) I/O
c) Local memory d) Channel and arbiter switch
15) The data flow project led by Dennis at MIT is under going ______ stages of development.
a) 4 b) 6 c) 3 d) 8
16) Which of the following is a property of data flow language ?
a) Freedom from side effects based on functional programming
b) Locality of effect without far-reaching data dependencies
c) Equivalence of instruction-sequencing constraints with data dependencies
d) All of the above
17) Numerical data link transmit
a) Integer number b) Real number c) Complex number d) All of the above
18) Control tokens bearing boolean values control the flow of data token by means of
a) T gates b) F gates c) Merge operators d) All of these
19) Cedar system is an example of __________ model.
a) UMA b) NUMA c) COMA d) None of these
20) Node of a distributed memory multicomputer consists of
a) Processor b) Local memory
c) Attached disks or I/O peripherals d) All of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC237* -3- SLR-PC – 237
Seat
No.

ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHTECTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N. B. : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

2) Answers to Section – I and II should be written in the same
answer book.
SECTION – I
1) Write a note on control dependence.
2) What is branch target buffer ? Explain its functioning.
3) Explain the following terms vector length and vector stride.
4) Explain the basic concept of loop level parallelism.
5) Explain possible data hazards.
1) Discuss Tomasulo’s algorithm.
2) Draw and explain basic vector architecture.
4. Explain a hardware based method of speculation with Poisson bits used to increase ILP. 10
SECTION – II
1) Write a note on token rings and local pipeling.
2) Write a note on computer module.

Set A

SLR-PC – 237 -4- *SLRPC237*
3) Mention any five important technical problems that remain to be solved in case of data
flow computer.
4) Draw and briefly explain distributed memory architecture.
5) Write a short note about different components of the Kmap in Cm*.

1) Draw and explain tightly coupled multiprocessor configuration with private cache.
2) Draw and explain static data flow computer architecture.
7. Write a note on : 10
a) A network of clusters
b) A cluster of computer modules.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
NETWORK SECURITY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct alternatives. (20)

1) In CIA triad security requirement C stands for Confidentiality, I stands for Integrity whereas
A stands for
a) Authentication b) Availability c) Atomicity d) All above
2) Any action that compromises the security of information owned by an organization is
known as Security
a) Mechanism b) Attack c) Service d) None of above
3) The attack which prevents or inhibits the normal use or management of communication
facilities is known as
a) Replay b) Masquerade
c) Denial of Service d) Modification of message
4) A _____________ attack exploits the fact that an encryption or decryption algorithm often
takes slightly different amount of time on different inputs.
a) brute-force b) stegnoanalysis
c) timing d) all above
5) In RSA algorithm, if p = 5 and q = 13 which of the following is the correct value of e ?
a) 10 b) 13 c) 39 d) 17
6) If both sender and receiver use the same key, then cryptography is known as
a) Secret Key b) Symmetric
c) Single key or One key d) All above
7) In block cipher, the advantage of larger block size is
a) Greater Security
b) Increase encryption/decryption speed
c) Hardware implementation is easy
d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 238 -2- *SLRPC238*
8) In _____________ mode of operation, the input to the encryption is the XOR of current
plaintext block and the preceding cipher text block.
a) Cipher Block Chaining b) Cipher feedback Mode
c) Electronic Codebook d) None of above
9) _____________ provides a one-time session key for the connection.
a) Sender b) Receiver
c) Intruder d) Key Distribution Centre
10) A function of the message and a secret key that produces a fixed-length value that serves
as the authenticator is
a) Hash value
b) Message encryption
c) Message Authentication Code (MAC)
d) Symmetric encryption of message
11) X.509 is
a) Authentication Service b) Format for public key certificate
c) Encryption Algorithm d) Notarization
12) If the sender encrypts the message with private key, it achieves the purpose of
a) Only Confidentiality b) Confidentiality and Authentication
c) Authentication d) None of these
13) _________ is designed to make use of TCP to provide a reliable end-to end secure
service.
a) SSL b) TLS c) SA d) SHA
14) __________ is an IETF standardization initiative whose goal is to produce an Internet
Standard version of SSL.
a) SSL b) TLS c) SA d) SHA
15) Anderson identified three classes of intruder namely Masquerader, Clandestine user and
___________
a) Suspicious user b) Misfeasor c) Cliff Stoll d) None of above
16) In IDS, ______________ detection involves an attempt to define a set of rules that can be
used to decide that a given behaviour is that of intruder.
a) Rule based b) Statistical anomaly
c) Audit records d) All
17) Password selection strategies uses which of the following technique.
a) User education b) Reactive password checking
c) Proactive password checking d) All above
18) In IPSec, __________ provides confidentiality service, including confidentiality of message
contents and limited traffic flow confidentiality.
a) AH b) ESP c) SPI d) None of above
19) A key concept that appears in both the authentication and confidentiality mechanism for
IP is
a) Security Association b) AH
c) ESP d) None of above
20) PGP is a remarkable phenomenon, largely the effort of a single person
a) Phil Zimmermann b) Rivest
c) Cliff Stoll d) Diffi-Hellman Set A
______________

*SLRPC238* -3- SLR-PC – 238
Seat
No.

NETWORK SECURITY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) Perform encryption and decryption using RSA algorithm for P = 3; q = 11;
e = 7; M = 5.
b) Explain Ceaser Cipher with example. Specify its merit and demerits.
c) List the various types of cryptanalysis attacks and define each.
d) Describe the transposition method with the help of example.
e) Write a note on Message Authentication Functions.

a) What is public key cryptography ? Explain its components with diagrams.
b) Explain Authentication protocols :
i) One way Authentication
ii) Mutual Authentication
4. Explain any two Block Cipher modes of operation with suitable diagram. 10
SECTION – II
5. Attempt any four (Each carries 5 marks) : 20

a) What is Kerberos ? List the requirements of Kerberos.
b) List and explain the functions of S/MIME.
c) Explain transport and tunnel mode of IPSec.
d) Describe privacy consideration in Web Services.
e) Explain Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) with diagram.

A) What is PGP ? How PGP provides authentication and confidentiality ? Explain with the
help of diagram.
B) Explain viruses with their structure, type and nature in detail.
7. Explain on AH and ESP of IP Sec with formats. 10
_____________________ Set A

Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
one mark.
I. Choose the correct answer : (20×1=20)
1) The ability of a system to continue functioning in the event of partial system
failure is called
a) Fault tolerance b) Fault avoidance
c) Fault recovery d) Fault detection
2) The workstation model is a network of personal workstations, each with its
own disk and a local file system.
a) True b) False
3) Bully algorithm is used for
a) Concurrency control b) Deadlock detection
c) Coordinator election d) Clock synchronization
4) ______ ensures that every message sent to a group of receivers will be
delivered to all of them or none of them.
a) Consistency b) Isolation c) Durability d) Automicity
5) A _______ distributed system consists of interconnected sets of dissimilar
hardware or software systems.
a) Heterogeneous b) Homogeneous c) Ecosystem d) None of the above
6) ________ deals with fine grained parallelism for better utilization of the
processing capability of the system.
a) Process b) Threads
c) Process migration d) None of the above
7) The process by which client becomes associated with a server so that RPC
can take place is called
a) Naming b) Binding agent c) Both a) and b) d) Binding
P.T.O.

8) Two commonly used mutual exclusion techniques in a threads package are
a) Critical region and condition variables
b) Condition variables and segment of code
c) Mutex variables and condition variables
9) The system which can cope-up with the increased load is called as
a) Scalable b) Transparent c) Reliable d) Flexible
10) RPC consume much more time ______ than local procedure calls.
a) 10 to 100 times more b) 100 to 1000 times more
c) 1 to 10 times more d) None of the above
11) In which method a test primitive is provided to allow the receiver to check the
buffer status ?
a) Non-polling b) Interrupt c) Blocking d) None of the above
12) In ______ deadlock detection approach, each site of the system shares equal
responsibility for deadlock detection.
a) The hierarchical b) Fully distributed c) Centralized d) WFG-based
13) The _____ register is used to keep track of the oscillations of the quartz
crystal.
a) Constant b) Crystal c) State d) Counter
14) The ______ model is useful for applications based on the producer-consumer
model.
a) Team b) Dispatcher-worker
c) Pipeline d) None of the above
15) Which of the following is needed for the resource sharing mechanism to
provide concurrency transparency ?
a) No starvation b) No deadlock c) Fault tolerance d) Both a) and b)
16) What is the drawback of Transfer on reference address-space transfer
mechanism ?
a) It increases total migration time
b) Redundant pages are transferred
c) It imposes continuous load on processs source node
d) None of these
17) The difference in time values of two clock values is called
a) Clock drift b) Clock skew c) Drift rate d) None of these
18) The advantage of monolithic kernel model is
a) Message passing and context switching are not required
b) It is flexible
c) Support for modular design
d) None of these
19) What are the issues related to the correctness feature of good message
passing systems ?
a) Atomicity b) User mobility c) Survivability d) Both a) and c)
20) The record-level file transfer model is suitable for use with
a) Mutable file b) Immutable file c) Structured file d) Unstructured file
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
II. Write short notes on any 4 : (4×5=20)
a) Processor Pool model.
b) Applications of distributed systems.
c) Desirable features of good message-passing system.
d) RPC server creation semantics.
e) Causal ordering of messages for ordered delivery of multicast messages.
III. Answer any one : (1×10=10)

1) Explain call semantics of RPC.
2) Explain the following with respect to one-to-many communication.
a) Group Management
b) Flexible reliability in multicast communication.
IV. Explain the interprocess communication paradigms in distributed systems. 10
SECTION II
V. Write short notes on any 4 : (4×5=20)
a) Process migration mechanism.
b) Centralized mutual exclusion algorithm.
c) Thread scheduling in MACH.
d) File sharing semantics in distributed file systems.
e) Advantages of process migration.
VI. Answer any one : 10

a) Explain election algorithms used for coordinator selection in distributed
systems.
b) Explain global deadlock detection with the help of example.
VII. Explain implementation of logical clocks using counters and physical clock. 10
_____________________
Set A

Set A

*SLRPC24* SLR-PC 24
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
)

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING I (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly.


1. Give the correct option for following MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carries 1 mark each
and Sr. No. 11 to 15 carries 2 marks each.
1) If % passing 75 is less than 50, then soil is

a) Coarse grained soil b) Gravel

c) Fine grained soil d) Sand
2) The water content of a soil sample can be determined by
a) The oven drying method b) The sand bath method
c) The pycnometer method d) All of these
3) Permeability of sandy soil is to be determined in the laboratory, which
apparatus is to be used ?
a) Falling head permeametre b) Core cutter
c) Cassagrande d) Constant head permeametre
4) Which of the following methods is used for the determination of in situ density
of soils ?
a) Sand replacement method b) Core cutter method
c) Rubber balloon method d) All of these
P.T.O.

5) Darcys law is applicable if a soil is
a) Incompressible b) Homogeneous
c) Isotropic d) All of these
6) A change in void ratio per unit change in pressure is termed as the
a) Coefficient of volume change b) Coefficient of compressibility
c) Coefficient of consolidation d) None of these
7) In the active state, the inclination of the failure plane to the horizontal is
a) 45 +
b) 45
c) 45 + /2
d) 45 /2
8) When retaining wall moves away from the backfill, the pressure exerted on
wall is termed as
a) Passive earth pressure b) Swelling pressure
c) Pore pressure d) Active pressure
9) Slope of e-p curve is called
a) Swelling index b) Compression index
c) Coefficient of compression d) None
10) Negative earth pressure will be developed in case of
a) Sandy soil b) Silty soil c) Clayey soil d) None
11) Time required for consolidating a clayey layer depends on
a) Layer thickness
b) Boundary condition in terms of drainage
c) Void ratio of the soil
d) All above
12) Liquid limit of soil is 42% and its plastic limit is 20%, the soil is classified as
a) CI b) MI c) MH d) CH
13) For sandy soil, the angle of internal friction is 32°. If the major principle stress
is 60 kN/m2 at failure, then corresponding minor principle stress will be
a) 15.4 kN/m2 b) 10.29 kN/m2 c) 18.43 kN/m2 d) None
14) A soil is having frictional angle of 32°. Its coefficient of passive earth pressure
will be
a) 4.25 b) 0.307 c) 3.25 d) 1.25
15) A wall of height 6 m supports granular backfill having = 30°, total active

earth pressure will act at a distance of ________ from top of wall.

a) 1 m b) 2 m c) 3 m d) 4 m
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING I (Old)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I.

2) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two
from remaining questions.
3) Assume suitable data, if required and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. A) Distinguish between :
1) Liquid Limit and Liquidity Index 2) Density and Density Index 5
B) Derive the formula between soil moisture content (w), degree of saturation
(Sr), specific gravity (G) and voids ratio (e).
A saturated clay has a water content of 40% and specific gravity of 2.65.
Determine the voids ratio. 8
3. A) How would you distinguish if a material is GW or GP and SW or SP ? 5

B) Flow net is developed for a concrete weir. Related data is as below : 8
i) Total head causing seepage - 8 m
ii) Length of weir - 80 m
iii) No. of potential drops - 9
iv) No. of flow channels - 4
v) Coefficient of permeability of foundation soil is 6.4 × 105 cm/sec.
Determine the seepage loss in cubic metres per day per meter length of weir.
Also draw flow net for this.
Set A

4. A) Write about Triaxial test and its merits. 5

B) The following data are from direct shear test on an undisturbed soil sample.
Represent the data by Mohr circle and compute the principal stresses and
direction of principal plane.
Normal stress = 16.2 kN/m2, shearing stress = 14.42 kN/m2
Angle of internal friction 24°, C = 7.2 kN/m2 8
5. A) Write short note on any three : 9

a) Strength envelope b) Plastic limit of soil
c) Thixotropy d) Limitations of Box shear test.
B) Write in detail about IS classification based on particle size. 5
SECTION II
6. Write short notes on : 16

a) Proctor needle
b) Preconsolidation pressure
c) Cassagrande method for finding coefficient of consolidation
d) Effect of moisture content of compaction.
7. A) What are the factors affecting compaction of soil ? Explain. 4

B) Discuss giving valid reasons the relative advantage of the following types of
rollers for use with embankment construction with particular reference to the
type of soil for which each is best suited.
i) Smooth wheel rollers ii) Pneumatic tyred roller iii) Sheep foots rollers 8
8. A) Draw e-logp curve, label each portion of the curve. 4

B) Laboratory specimen 24 mm thick (double drainage) reaches 50%
consolidation in 70 minutes. How much time will the field clay layer 3.5 m
thick take to undergo the same degree of consolidation ?
Assume : i) Double drainage and ii) Single drainage in the field. 8
9. A) Derive the expression for the critical depth of excavation. 4

B) A cohesionless backfill with a horizontal surface weighs 1.8 gm/cc and is
retained by wall of height 6.5 m having vertical smooth back surface. The
internal angle of friction for the soil is 32 degree and its top surface is covered
with stacked wood which will exert a pressure of 2.5 kg/sq.cm. Determine the
total active pressure on the wall and position of centre of pressure. 8
_____________________ Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (Elective – I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Don’t forget to mention, Q. P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.


1) Role name indicates ________________
a) One end of association b) Both ends of association
c) Both d) None
2) Aggregation is a ____________ type of relationship.
a) Is a b) Part whole c) Both a) and b) d) None
3) Data store in dfd is used to store __________________
a) Store passive data b) To generate data
c) To represent flow of data d) None
4) Activity that cannot be decomposed into further activities is called as ________
a) Action b) Automatic transition
c) Event d) None
5) ______________ represents computations within system.
a) Class diagram b) State diagram
c) Dfd d) All
6) State of object is _________________
a) Set of values affecting gross behavior of object
b) Interval between two events
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 240 -2- *SLRPC240*
7) Qualifier attribute convert _________________
a) Attribute on many side to one b) Attribute on one side to many
c) Both d) None
8) Link is connection among ____________
a) classes b) object c) packages d) none
9) ____________ is a grouping construct.
a) Module b) Sheet c) Both a) and b) d) None
10) Events are _____________ occurrence in space and time.
a) Synchronous b) Asynchronous
11) ________________ is a realization of interfaces.
a) Class b) Collaboration c) Component d) None
12) ________________ represent functional requirement of system.
a) Use cases b) Dfd c) Components d) Nodes
13) ______________ object initiate control activity.
a) Active b) Passive c) Both a) and b) d) None
14) ______________ is a stereotype applicable to active class.
a) Process b) Thread c) Both a) and b) d) None
15) ______________ represent relationship among classes of system.
a) Association b) Generalization
c) Dependency d) All
16) ___________ is a type of event.
a) Signal b) Timer c) Both a) and b) d) None
17) Making element in package public is called as ______________ mechanism.
a) import b) export c) both d) none
18) _____________ represent structural organization of object along with path
for messages among object.
a) Sequence diagram b) Component diagram
c) Collaboration diagram d) None
19) Graphical items added to basic notation of elements are called ___________
a) Adornment b) Stereotype
c) Note d) None
20) _____________ conditions that must be held true for model to be well formed.
a) Rules b) Guard condition
c) Constraints d) None
______________
Set A

*SLRPC240* -3- SLR-PC – 240
Seat
No.
B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (Elective – I)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instruction : Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION – I

a) Explain theme of object oriented development.
b) Differentiate between aggregation Vs association and aggregation Vs
generalization.
c) Plot and explain state diagram for ATM machine.
d) Explain metadata, constraint and candidate keys.
e) With example explain nested state diagram.
f) Explain dfd and its notation with example.
3. Explain 4 phases in object oriented development in detail. 10

OR
3. Explain class diagram in detail with notations for attribute, operation, multiplicity.
Draw class diagram for any one of the following domain. (Show minimum
7-8 classes, association among them and proper multiplicity, attributes etc.)
a) Hotel
b) School
c) Hospital. 10
4. Explain Aggregation, Generalization and Association in detail with examples. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 240 -4- *SLRPC240*
SECTION – II

a) Explain import and export relationship, visibility property of elements in
packages.
b) What are different types of messages used in sequence diagram ? Explain
elements in sequence diagram with example.
c) Explain different types of events in state diagram. Which type of event is
useful in traffic light controller system and automatic iron ?
d) Explain stereotypes, tagged values and notes in UML.
e) What is architectural modeling ? Explain component diagram with example.
f) Explain deployment diagram in detail.
6. Explain activity diagram with respect to activity, actions, transition, branching,

fork and joining, swimlanes. 10
OR
6. Explain interaction modeling in detail. Draw and explain sequence and collaboration
diagram for ATM system. 10
7. Define use cases, actors, data store and objects. Explain notation for each. Explain
types of relationship between different actors, actors and use cases. Explain
extends, realization and include relationship among use cases with appropriate
example. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
B.E. (Computer Science) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
(Elective – I) : INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Assume data wherever necessary.
2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3.

1. Choose correct alternative(s) :

1) Data retrieval system deals with data that has a well defined
a) Structure b) Semantics
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
2) The retrieval system adopts a full text logical view of the
a) Simple text b) Documents
c) Records d) Logical view information
3) Distinguished types of browsing for models are
a) Flat b) Structure c) Hypertext d) All of the above
4) If user specified query string is appearing in three positions in the text of documents
then we say that documents contain three
a) Nodes b) Regions
c) Structural components d) Match point
5) ____________ format is used to exchange documents between different
application and different computer platforms.
a) TIFF b) GIF c) BMP d) TGA
6) _____________ is a fraction of retrieval documents which is relevant.
a) Recall b) Precision
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 241 -2- *SLRPC241*
7) The most common types of media in multimedia application are
a) text, sound b) image, video
c) both a and b d) none of the above
8) The elements of inverted file structures are
a) Vocabulary b) Occurrences
9) _________ are the programs that traverse web sending new or updated pages
to main server.
a) Crawlers b) Robots
c) Spiders d) All of the above
10) _____________ enhances user-base scalability in Harvest architecture.
a) Gatherer b) Broker
c) Replication manager d) Objects cache
11) Find the most similar stocks to IBM’s stock is ____________ type of query.
a) Whole match b) Subpattern match
c) Nearest neighbor d) All of the above
12) The maximum length of VARCHAR2 data is ____________ bytes.
a) 400 b) 600 c) 800 d) 200
13) ____________ provides indexing mechanism and query interface to the data.
a) Gatherer b) Broker
c) Objects d) Replication manager
14) _____________ clause allows one to express structure predicate in MULTOS
query language.
a) Scope b) Type c) Condition d) With
15) MULTOS is based on the _____________ architecture.
a) client b) server
c) client/server d) none of the above
16) Google uses following ____________ algorithm for ranking.
a) Most cited b) HITs
c) Page mark d) WebQuery
17) Match correctly w.r.t. pattern matching using automation.
1) Horizontal arrow a) Deletion in pattern
2) Solid diagonal arrow b) Matching a character
3) Dashed diagonal c) Insertion into pattern
4) Vertical arrow d) Replacement in the pattern
______________
Set A

*SLRPC241* -3- SLR-PC – 241
Seat
No.
B.E. (Computer Science) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

(Elective – I) : INFORMATION RETRIEVAL

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Assume data wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
1) Explain BM algorithm of sequential searching.
2) Write a short note in single word queries.
3) Define IR model. Give frame work for 3 classic IR model.
4) Explain shift-OR algorithm w.r.t. pattern ‘survey’.
5) Define pattern. Explain most used types of pattern with example.
6) Explain context queries with example.

1) Explain the construction of suffix arrays for large text.
2) Explain three main types of structure found in text database.
4. What is information retrieval ? Explain information retrieval process with

example. 10
SECTION – II

1) Which requirement should ideal query method should satisfy.
2) Explain MULTOS query language.
3) Write a short note on crawler index architecture.
4) Explain architectural issue of digital library.
Set A

SLR-PC – 241 -4- *SLRPC241*
5) Explain Biokleisli system architecture.

6) Write a short note on metasearchers.

1) Explain difference in traditional DBMS, OODBMS and ORDBMS.
2) What is cross talk problem ? How cross-talk problem is resolved in two
dimensional color images ?
7. Explain one dimensional time series in detail. 10
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

I. Multiple Choice Questions : (20×1=20)

1) Coarse granularity parallelism is
a) Few processors sharing main memory
b) Large number of processors parallelizing single task
c) Single task, single processor
d) All
2) In a distributed database system the database is stored on
a) One computer b) Two computers
c) Several computers d) None
3) Bully algorithm is used for
a) Concurrency control b) Deadlock detection
c) Coordinator election d) Clock synchronization
4) Different queries execute in parallel with one another in
a) Interquery parallelism b) Intraquery parallelism
c) Interoperation parallelism d) Intraoperation parallelism
5) In persistent programming language, data stored is
a) Temporary b) Permanent
c) Virtual d) Static
6) The features of OR-Model are
a) Multiset valued attributes b) The structured types
c) Table inheritance d) All
7) Which of these is a decision-tree classifier algorithm ?
a) Greedy algorithm b) Divide and conquer
c) Polling algorithm d) Bylly algorithm
8) Workflow is an activity in which multiple tasks are executed in a coordinated way by
different
a) Processing clients b) Processing entities
c) Processing servers d) Processing coordinators
P.T.O.

9) The protocol which allows local transaction read access to global data but disallows all
access to local data by global transactions is
a) Global-read protocol b) Local-read protocol
c) Global-read-write protocol d) Local-read-write protocol
10) Choose long duration transaction protocols
a) Graph-based protocols b) Validation protocols
c) Timestamp-based protocols d) All
11) Decision support systems are used in making
a) Transaction decisions b) Query decisions
c) Business decisions d) Table decisions
12) In vertical fragmentation the relation is partitioned
a) Table wise b) Tuple wise c) Attribute wise d) Value wise
13) Choose the TPC benchmark designed for ad-hoc querying.
a) TPC-A b) TPC-D c) TPC-H d) TPC-R
14) Applications can be made faster to run by
a) Query tuning b) Transaction tuning
c) Performance tuning d) Parameter tuning
15) The process of selecting the most efficient plan for query evaluation from many strategies
is called
a) Query processing b) Query transformation
c) Query translation d) Query optimization
16) Transactions that run under multi database system control are called
a) Local transactions b) Global Transactions
c) Client-server transactions d) Server transactions
17) OMG stands for
a) Operational Management Group b) Objective Management Group
c) Object Management Group d) Operational Manipulation Group
18) In query processing the algorithms A8, A9 of selection operation are
a) Basic algorithms b) Using indices
c) Complex selections d) Comparison selections
19) ODMG stands for
a) Objective Database Management Group
b) Operational Database Management Group
c) Object Database Management Group
d) Object Database Manipulation Grade
20) In which deadline if the given task is not completed within given time then the task has
zero value ?
a) Hard deadlines b) Soft deadlines
c) Firm deadlines d) All
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
II. Write short notes on any 4 : (4×5=20)

a) Intraquery parallelism.
b) Type inheritance with example.
c) Five issues of data server.
d) Steps of semi join.
e) Client server systems.
f) Nesting and unnesting with example.
III. Answer any one : (1×10=10)

1) Explain concurrency control algorithms in distributed databases.
2) Draw the architecture of transaction server and list the functions of its various processes.
IV. Explain interquery and intraquery parallelism. 10
SECTION II
V. Write short notes on any 4 : (4×5=20)

a) Decision tree classifier.
b) Tuning of schema and indices.
c) Main memory databases.
d) TP monitors.
e) Equivalence rules.
f) Real time transactions.
VI. Answer any one : (1×10=10)

a) Explain query processing steps with diagram.
b) Write and explain the queries for cube operation, roll up operation, grouping operation
and windowing operation.
VII. Explain the architecture and different schemas used for data ware house. 10
_____________________
Set A

Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015

MOBILE COMPUTING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

one mark.
3) Answers to two Sections should be written in the same
answer book.

1) ___________ are typically used for directed microwave links.
a) Super-High Frequencies (SHF) b) Very-High Frequencies (VHF)
c) Ultra-High Frequencies (UHF) d) Infra-Red (IR)
2) In phase domain representation of a signal the y axis represents a phase of 90° or

which is called as ___________

a) In-phase b) Quadrature c) Out-phase d) M-phase
3) In GSM, data is transmitted in small portions which is called as ___________
a) noise b) guard space c) bursts d) none of above
4) The ___________ basically manages the BTS, which also reserves radio
frequencies and handle the handover between BTS.
a) HR b) BSS c) MSC d) BSC
5) IMEI is stands for ___________
a) International Mobility Equipment Identity
b) International Mobile Equipment Identity
c) International Mobile Equivalence Identity
d) None of above
6) The time spend on a channel with a certain frequency is called as the _________
a) spent time b) dwell time c) chipping time d) guard time
7) In __________ hopping, the transmitter uses one frequency for several bit periods.
a) Fast b) Slow c) Medium d) None of above
P.T.O.

8) The advantages of cellular systems with small cells are ___________
a) higher capacity b) less transmission power
c) local interference only d) all of above
9) DSSS performs which of the following operation on bit stream and chipping sequence.
a) OR b) XNOR c) AND d) XOR
10) Which is an example for an implicit reservation scheme ?
a) PRMA b) DAMA c) Reservation TDMA d) CSMA
11) In ad-hoc networks, the complexity of each node is higher.
a) True b) False
12) The stations and the access points which are within the same radio coverage
form a ___________
a) MSC b) BSC c) ESS d) BSS
13) ___________ bits are used for synchronization field of an IEEE 802.11 PHY frame
format by using FHSS.
a) 128 b) 80 c) 16 d) 8
14) A __________ is a collection of bluetooth devices which are synchronized to the
same hopping sequence.
a) Master b) Slaves c) Scatternet d) Piconet
15) In power management the basic idea of power saving includes two states for a
station i.e. ___________ and ___________
a) Sleep and wait b) Wait and awake
c) Sleep and awake d) None of above
16) The ___________ can provide several services to the MN during its visit to the
foreign n/w.
a) HA b) HLR c) VLR d) None of above
17) ___________ is the mechanism of taking a packet consisting of packet header
and data, putting it into the data part of a new packet.
a) Encapsulation b) Decapsulation
c) Minimal encapsulation d) Generic encapsulation
18) The advantages of indirect TCPs ___________
a) loss of TCP semantics b) higher latency at handover
c) securing problem d) all of above
19) Sightly more complex receiver software and more buffer space needed in
__________ retransmission.
a) Fast b) Selective c) Recovery d) All of above
20) In IEEE 802.11 protocol architecture the physical layer is subdivided into
___________ and __________
a) PCLP and PDM b) PPLC and PDM
c) PLCP and LLC d) PLCP and PMD
_____________________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015

MOBILE COMPUTING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Answers to two Sections should be written in the same
answer book.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four short notes : (4×5=20)
1) Fixed Time Division Multiplexing
2) Frequency spectrum for radio transmission
3) Multipath propagation and intersymbol interference
4) Direct sequence spread spectrum
5) Classical and slotted aloha.
3. Which technique is used to avoid the hidden and exposed terminal problem ?
Explain it with state machines. 10
OR
Explain with neat diagram the protocol architecture of GSM for signaling. 10
4. What are the basic reasons for the handover ? Also explain different possible handover
scenarios in GSM. 10
Set A

SECTION II
1) What is M-TCP ? Explain its advantages and disadvantages.
2) Explain congestion control in traditional TCP.
3) Write a short note on HIPERLAN.
4) Explain infra red VS radio transmission.
5) What is IP in IP encapsulation ?
6. What is WLAN ? State its advantages and disadvantages. Also explain diff. design
goals of WLAN. 10
OR
Explain agent discovery and agent advertisement packet in mobile network layer. 10
7. Explain mobility supporting network side function for location management in wireless
network. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (CSE) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT AND ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) First question is objective types

Duration : 30 Minutes Max. Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct options.
1) ___________ teams are employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from
different work areas who come across together to accomplish a task.
a) self managed b) work related
c) problem solving d) cross functional
2) The quantity demanded of a product rises whenever
a) the product’s price falls
b) income increases
c) population increases
d) the prices of substitute goods rise
e) consumer tastes and preferences change
3) Maslow and Herzberg are 2 examples of ________ theories of motivation.
a) expectancy b) process c) content d) equity
4) An increase in the cost of computer memory chips will _________ the equilibrium price
and __________ the equilibrium quantity of personal computers.
a) increase ; decrease b) increase ; increase
c) decrease ; decrease d) decrease ; increase
5) Organizational chart are useful because they can
a) help to explain the organization to new staff
b) help plan management training and succession
c) indicate apparent weakness in structure
d) all of above
6) When two parallel transverse lines are drawn across the face of the cheque on left side
from one end with the words “A/C” or “&CO” the cheque is said to be
a) ordered check b) bear check c) crossed check d) blank check
7) Maximum number of membership in private limited companies
a) 100 b) unlimited c) 50 d) 10
8) Which of the following would not be a determinant of demand ?
a) the price related goods b) income
c) tastes d) the price of the inputs used to produce the good
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 245 -2- *SLRPC245*
9) Each subordinate should report only and only one superior is called which of the following
a) authority b) unity of command
c) unity of direction d) order
10) The PVR (profit volume ratio) of company is 50%. The sales volume is
Rs. 50,00,000. What will be contribution on total sales
a) 15,00,000 b) 25,00,000 c) 10,00,000 d) 30,00,000
11) Groups created by managerial decision in order to accomplish stated goals of the
organization are called
a) informal groups b) task groups c) interest groups d) formal groups
12) Which of the following is not a determinant of price elasticity of demand ?
a) The availability of substitutes
b) The availability of disposable income
c) The relative importance of the good in the budget
d) The amount of time required to adjust the budget
e) All of the above
13) In the second stage of group development
a) the group demonstrates cohesiveness b) close relationship are developed
c) intergroup conflicts often occurs d) the job task performed
e) groups objectives are clearly formulated.
14) The more substitutes available for a product
a) the larger is its income elasticity of demand
b) the smaller is its income elasticity of demand
c) the smaller is its price elasticity of demand
d) the larger is its price elasticity of demand
15) The definition of communication implies that
a) communication is mostly verbal
b) communication is mostly written
c) most communication is in a vertical direction
d) understanding must occur to have communication
16) If the cross elasticity of demand between good A and good B is negative the goods are
a) substitutes b) complements c) unrelated d) necessities
17) The break-even point in units is represented by the equation
a) (sales revenue-fixed cost)/contribution per unit
b) fixed cost/selling price per unit
c) fixed cost/variable cost
d) fixed cost/contribution per unit.
18) Motivation is important to managers because
a) it is a significant contributor to high performance
b) it does not explain the differences in intensity of behavior
c) it explains the differences in attitude & personality
d) not all employees know how to use it effectively
19) What is the key word in understanding organization structure ?
a) control b) change c) process d) delegation
20) If the demand curve is relatively inelastic and the supply curve is relatively elastic, an
increase in income would lead to a
a) greater increase in the price than in the quantity
b) smaller increase in the price than in the quantity
c) greater increase in the quantity demanded than quantity supplied
d) smaller increase in quantity supplied than in the quantity demanded Set A
e) none of the above
______________

*SLRPC245* -3- SLR-PC – 245
Seat
No.
B.E. (CSE) Part – II Examination, 2015

Principles of Management and Engineering Economics

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. Attempt any 4 of the following : 20
1) What is group ? What are stages of group development explain with diag.
2) Differentiate between line organization and staff organization.
3) What is co-operative society ? What are its advantages over joint stock company ?
4) What is content theories of motivation and explain Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
5) Explain with example various styles of leadership.

1) Short note on Departmentalism.
2) Differentiate between autocratic and the democratic style of leader-ship.
3) What is motivation ? Explain types of motives.
1) What is span of control ? Explain factors affecting span of control.
2) Equity theory of work motivation.
3) Short note on different forms of communication.
Set A

SLR-PC – 245 -4- *SLRPC245*
SECTION – II

1) Elasticity of demand. Explain factors affecting elasticity of demand.
2) What is equilibrium price and price determination ?
3) Functions of Bank.
Price of Y Quantity of Y
4) 25 250
30 350
find the price elasticity of demand and its type.

5) Applications of break even point.
An engine lathe costing Rs. 10,000 can produce components at the rate of 6 pieces per hour
and another automatic lathe costing Rs. 20,000 can produce 20 pieces / hr. The operator on
either of the m/c is to be paid at the rate of Rs. 1.50 per hour. Determine minimum no of pieces
which will change the cost situation in favour of the automatic lathe.
OR
Attempt any two of the following : 10

1) Short note on cross elasticity of demand
2) Factors of production
3) Wealth.
7. Attempt any two of the following : 10

1) Graphical method to find break even point
2) Finance from bank
3) Short note on capital.
___________________
Set A

A
S e a t
N o .
Set
B.E. Computer Science and Engg. (Part II) Examination, 2015
DATA MINING (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.


1) _______________ is not a pattern detection operation in temporal mining.
a) Match b) Update c) Insert d) Delete
2) _______________ is not a approach to handle missing data.
a) Ignore the missing value b) Assume a value for missing data
3) Pages contains links to many relevant pages is called
a) Seed pages b) Authoritative pages
c) Hub pages d) Distiller pages
4) In _______________ groups are not predefined.
a) Clustering b) Classification c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
5) Which among the following is an example of spatial databases ?
a) Stock Price Database b) Daily temperature
c) VLSI database d) Super Market Transaction
6) Harvest system doesnt uses
a) Catching b) Crawling c) Indexing d) Knowledge
7) Daily Stock prices data is a time series database
a) True b) False c) both a) and b) d) None of these
8) Complexity of simple distance based classification algorithm is
a) O(n) b) O(log n) c) O(n2) d) O (n log n)
P.T.O.

9) Which association algorithm uses Any subset of large item set must be
large property of large item set ?
a) Partitioning b) Sampling c) Apriori d) None of above
10) _______________ algorithm of clustering large databases handles outlier
well.
a) DBSCAN b) CURE c) BIRCH d) All of above
11) _______________ is a spatial database primitive.
a) time b) direction
c) transaction item d) none
12) Trend analysis can be done on _______________ data.
a) Spatial b) Transaction item sets
c) Time series d) None of above
13) A tree structure called _______________ is used to represent process of
hierarchical clustering.
a) B-tree b) B+tree c) MST d) Dendrogram
14) In _______________ clustering also the minimum distance dmin (Ci, Cj) is
used to measure the distance between clusters.
a) BIRCH b) DBSCAN
c) Nearest Neighbour d) None of above
15) _______________ is a height balanced tree that stores the clustering features
for a hierarchical clustering
a) HB tree b) B+tree c) NF tree d) CF tree
16) The IF part of a rule is known as
a) Rule Antecedent b) Rule consequent
c) Action d) None of these
17) _______________ is defined by two components a directed acyclic graph
and a set of conditional probability tables.
a) Computer Network b) Bayesian belief network
c) Graph network d) Social network
18) ID3 uses _______________ as its attribute selection measure.
a) Attribute gain b) Selection gain
c) Gini Index d) Information Gain
19) Social Network mining can be done by
a) Graph mining b) Tree mining c) Tree pruning d) None
20) Which of the following is a data mining tool ?
a) Miner b) WebFox c) WEKA d) GRAPH
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
B.E. Computer Science and Engg. (Part II) Examination, 2015

DATA MINING (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I

a) Explain KDD process in detail.
b) Explain concept hierarchy generation with example.
c) Explain data integration and transformation process.
d) What is classification and prediction ?
e) What kind of data can be mined ?
3. Explain Naïve Bayesian classification with example. 10

OR
Explain KNN classification algorithm with suitable example. 10
4. Explain, what are major difficulties (issues) in data mining ? 10
SECTION II

a) Write BIRCH clustering algorithm.
b) Explain K-means clustering algorithm with example.
c) Explain support and confidence with example.
d) Write an algorithm to generate association rules from large itemsets.
e) Write a note on Bond Energy algorithm.
6. Explain web structure mining in detail. 10
7. Write short notes on : 10

a) Applications of Data Mining.
b) Dendrogram.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
B.E. (C.S.E.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (STQA) (Elective – II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) _____________ of a software system involved actual program execution in
order to expose possible program failures.
a) Static analysis b) Traditional static analysis
c) Dynamic analysis d) All
2) PDCA cycle is also called as ____________
a) Shewhart cycle b) Edward cycle
c) Juse cycle d) Software life cycle
3) ___________ is the adjudged cause of an error.
a) Error b) Failure c) Fault d) None of these
4) TQC means ___________
a) Total Quality Control b) Total Quality Certification
c) Total Quantitative Control d) None of these
5) Quality is design’s ____________ attribute.
a) Internal b) External c) Implicit d) All
6) The code in the unit was reused with fewer than 25% modifications is called
as _____________
a) Reused verbatim b) New reused document
c) Extensively modified d) Slightly modified
7) ___________ are entities required by a process activity.
a) Resources b) Facts
c) Products d) Designs
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 247 -2- *SLRPC247*
8) ____________ plots are constructed from three summary statistics the median,
the upper quartile and the lower quartile.
a) Scatter b) Box c) Implicit d) Control
9) _____________ complexity measures the effort required to understand the
software.
a) Problem b) Algorithmic c) Structural d) Cognitive
10) ___________ is the degree of interdependence between the modules.
a) Cohesion b) Coupling c) Binding d) All
11) In control flow graph a ___________ represents a sequential computation.
a) Rectangle b) Circle c) Ellipse d) Diamond
12) A __________ error occurs when a specific input data causes the program to
execute a wrong.
a) Sequential b) Domain c) Control d) None of these
13) A test ____________ also called test data, is an instance of the input to a
program.
a) Suite b) Method c) Vector d) None of these
14) Failure ____________ is a measure of the reliability of a software system
operating in a given environment.
a) Intensity b) Rate c) Density d) None of these
15) An operation is a ____________ concept in the sense that it involves software,
hardware and user actions.
a) Physical b) Symmetrical c) Logical d) All
16) In reliability model potential ___________ covers its use space.
a) Test space b) Design space c) Code space d) None of these
17) A quality criterion is an ___________ of a quality factor that is related to
software development.
a) Axiom b) Attribute c) Element d) None of these
18) A ___________ represents a behavioural characteristics of a system.
a) Reliability factor b) Operational factor
c) Integrity factor d) Quality factor
19) The ________ based view represents a merge of two independent concepts :
excellence and worth.
a) Value b) Product c) User d) All
20) ____________ is McCall’s quality factor which is of product transition quality
category.
a) Correctness b) Testability c) Portability d) Integrity
______________
Set A

*SLRPC247* -3- SLR-PC – 247
Seat
No.
B.E. (C.S.E.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (STQA) (Elective – II)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
1) Explain role of testing in detail.
2) Explain verification and validation in software engineering measurement.
3) Explain software measurement validation.
4) Explain Box plot and Scatter plot simple analysis technique in software
measurement.
5) Explain different object oriented metrics in software engineering measurement.
6) Explain complexity in software engineering measurement.
3. Explain classification of software measures in software measurement. 10
OR
What are the different types of coupling and cohesion used in models of modularity
and information flow in software engineering measurement. 10
4. Explain Quality Revolution in detail along with PDCA cycle and Ishikawa
diagram. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 247 -4- *SLRPC247*
SECTION – II

1) Explain concept of unit testing.
2) Explain five views of software quality in detail.
3) What are the different factors influencing software reliability ?
4) Explain testing for domain errors.
5) Explain the structure of software quality assurance group.
6) Explain all McCall’s quality factors in detail.
6. Explain operational profiles representations of software reliability in detail. 10

OR
Explain system test planning in detail. 10
7. Explain all ISO 9126 quality characteristics and their subcharacteristics in detail.
Also draw ISO 9126 sample quality model refines standard’s features into
subcharacteristics. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
Elective – II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Objective type questions. Choose the correct option. (20×1=20)
1) Android system uses intents to
A) broadcast system intents
B) broadcast custom intents
C) to invoke other applications from your application
D) all of the above
2) Should always first check availability of audio effects by calling the following method on
the corresponding audio effect class.
A) ischeckable () B) isavailable () C) isvaluable () D) isview ()
3) Applications that require filtering based on screen size can use the attributes.
A) <supportmultiple-screens> B) <supports-screens>
C) <supportall-screens D) supportevery-screen
4) What is false with respect to onBind ()
A) is called when another component wants to bind with a service
B) calling startService() results in a call to onBind()
C) if you don’t want to allow binding then return null
D) if you want to allow binding then return Ibinder object
5) An activity can be thought of as corresponding to what ?
A) A Java project B) A Java class
C) A method call D) An object field
6) To create an emulator, you need an AVD. What does it stand for ?| Android
A) Android Virtual Display B) Android Virtual Device
C) Active Virtual Device D) Application Virtual Display
7) The _________ file specifies the layout of your screen. | Android
A) Layout file B) Manifest file C) Strings XML D) R file
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 248 -2- *SLRPC248*
8) What is the driving force behind an Android application and that ultimately gets converted
into a Dalvik executable ? | Android
A) Java source code B) R-file
C) The emulator D) The SDK
9) While developing Android applications, developers can test their apps on
A) Emulator included in Android SDK
B) Physical Android phone
C) Third-party Emulators (Youwave, etc.)
D) All three options will work
10) How can I check if an activity is already running before starting it ?
A) New_TASK_LAUNCH in the startActivity() method call
B) FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK in the startActivity() method call
C) FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP in the startActivity() method call
D) BY
using <category android:name = “android.intent.category.LAUNCHER”/>this
category attribute.
11) The XML file that contains all the text that your application uses
A) stack.xml B) text.xml C) strings.xml D) string.java
12) What runs in the background and doesn’t have any UI components ?
A) Intents B) Content Providers
C) Services D) Applications
13) What is an Activity ?
A) A single screen the user sees on the device at one time
B) A message sent among the major building blocks
C) A component that runs in the background without any interface
D) Context referring to the application environment
14) Intents
A) are messages that are sent among major building blocks
B) trigger activities to being, services to start or stop, or broadcast
C) are asynchronous
D) all of these
15) In an explicit intent, the sender specifies the type of receiver.
A) True B) False
16) When the activity is not in focus, but still visible on the screen it is in ?
A) Running state B) Paused state
C) Stopped state D) Destroyed state
17) Services have any user interface components
A) True B) False
18) Broadcast receivers are Android’s implementation of a system-wide publish/subscribe
mechanism, or more precisely, what design pattern ?
A) Observer B) Facade C) Mediator D) Command
19) What built-in database is Android shipped with ?
A) SQLite B) Apache C) MySQL D) Oracle
20) Creating a UI (User Interface) in Android requires careful use of
A) Java and SQL B) XML and Java C) XML and C++ D) Dreamweaver
______________
Set A

*SLRPC248* -3- SLR-PC – 248
Seat
No.

Elective – II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4 = 20)
a) Draw Android platform architecture. Show the layers in the software stack.
b) Demonstrate activity life-cycle states and methods.
c) What is layout ? Explain types of layout with examples.
d) Draw and explain Service States and Life-Cycle Methods.
e) Define Broadcast Receiver. Explain TelephonyManager API and its usage.
3. a) Define notification mechanism with example. State the advantage of using notification.
Write a java code to create a notification. 10
OR
b) Explain Mobility Landscape and Ecosystem in Mobile Application.
4. Describe the following aspects of intent with respect to activities. 10

1) Navigation between activities
2) Exchanging data.
SECTION – II
5. Attempt any four of the following : (5×4 = 20)
a) Explain the intent object that is used to capture a video using the built-in app mechanism.
b) Define MediaRecorder API. List MediaRecorder object’s life cycle methods and states.
c) Define the types of animations supported by Android.
d) Write a note on RELATIONAL DATA.
e) What is the use of Android JUnit framework ? Draw and explain a test project hierarchy.
6. How to use the MediaRecorder and camera objects to capture a video ? Write java code for
the above. 10
7. Explain the purpose of Motion, Position and Environment sensors with one real-life use case
in each. 10
—————————
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (IT) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Tick the correct alternative : 20
1
1) X = ___________
D+a
− ax
a) ∫ X.e dx b) eax ∫ e− ax .X dx c) e − ax ∫ e ax .X dx d) None of these
2) The particular integral of (D2 –16)y = cos 2x is
x x x x
a) sin 2 x b) cos 2 x c) − cos 2x d) − sin 2 x
32 32 32 32
1 ⎡1 − x ⎤
D + 1 ⎢⎣ x 2 ⎥⎦
3) = _____________
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) − d) −
x x2 x x2
4) L{ 2t } = ____________
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
s−2 s + log 2 2 + log s s − log 2
5) L–1 { φ′ (s)} = ___________

1 −1
a) − L { φ(s)} b) − t L−1{φ(s)} c) t L−1{φ(s)} d) None of these
t
6) Z-transform of 1 i.e. z{1} for k ≥ 0 is
1 z 1 z
a) b) c) d)
z −1 z −1 z +1 z +1
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 249 -2- *SLR-PC-249*
7) If xk = 3k, k ≥ 0 then z -transform is
1 z
a) b) z(z – 3) c) d) None of these
z−3 z−3
π
8) If f(x) is an even function then ∫ f(x ) dx = ______________

−π
π 0
a) 2 ∫ f( x) dx b) ∫ f( x) dx c) 0 d) None of these
0 −π
9) If x = π is a point of discontinuity then the Fourier series of f(x) at x = π gives

f( π) 1⎡ ⎤
a) f(x) = b) f( π) = lim f( x ) + lim f ( x )⎥
2 2 ⎢⎣ x → π + x→ π − ⎦
c) f( π) = lim f( x) + lim f(x ) d) None of these
x → π+ x → π−
10) Fourier expansion of an odd function has only
a) sine terms b) cosine terms c) both sine and cosine terms d) none of these
11) If v = 5xyi +2y2j + 3yz2k. The divergence of this vector at (1, 1, 1) is
a) 9 b) 10 c) 14 d) 15
12) A unit normal to the surface z = 2xy at the point (2, 1, 4) is
1 1
a) 2i + 4j – k b) 2i + 4j + k c) (2i + 4j – k) d) ( 4i + 2j – k)
21 21
13) The directional derivative of the function φ = x + y at the point p(1, 1, 0) along the
direction (i + j) is ____________
1
a) b) 2 c) 2 d) − 2
2
14) Correlation analysis helps us to ____________ our activities for future.
a) control b) plan c) predict d) all the above
15) If coefficient of correlation r = ± 1 then the regression lines are ___________
π
a) Coincident b) perpendicular c) parallel d) inclined at an angle of 3
16) For binomial distribution mean = 12 and variance is 4, then the values of n, p, q are
respectively.
a) 9, 13, 2 3 b) 4, 12 , 12 c) 18, 2 3 , 13 d) 9, 2 3 , 13
17) Between 2 and 4 pm the average number of phone calls coming to a switchboard of a
company is 2.5. The probability that during a minute there will be exactly 3 calls is ________
a) 0.2138 b) 0.3128 c) 0.2183 d) 0.3821
18) When there are two or more parallel queues and customer moves from one queue to
another queue is known as ___________
a) Balking b) Reneging c) Selection d) Jockeying
19) A service store employs one cashier at its counter, 8 customers arrive on an average
every 5 minutes while the cashier can serve 10 customers in 5 minutes. Under usual
assumptions of arrival and service pattern, the average number of customers in the system
(LS) = ___________
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
20) ___________ is a queueing discipline.
a) First in first out b) First come first served
c) Last in first out d) All the above a), b) and c)
______________ Set A

*SLR-PC-249* -3- SLR-PC – 249
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. a) Solve (D3 + D) y = cos x. 4
d2 y
b) Solve 2
+ y = 2x . 4
dx
c) Solve (D3 – 7D + 6) y = x2. 5
3. a) Find L {∫
0
t
}
u−1 . 2u sin u du . 5
⎧ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎫
b) Find L–1 ⎨log ⎜ 1 + 2 ⎟⎬ . 4
⎩ ⎝ s ⎠⎭
∞
cos 4 t − cos 3t
c) Evaluate ∫ t
dt using Laplace transform. 5
0
OR
1
c) Find inverse Laplace transform of by using convolution theorem. 5
s(s − a 2 )
2
4. a) Prove that the z-transform of xk = sin α k, k ≥ 0 where α is real is given by

z sin α
if | z | > 1. 7
z − 2z cos α + 1
2
1
b) Find the inverse z -transform of F(z) = if ROC is 2 < | z | < 3. 6
(z − 3)(z − 2)
5. a) Find a Fourier series to represent f(x) = x2 in (0, 2 π ). 7
⎧ 1 0 < x < a2
b) Obtain half range cosine series for f(x) = ⎨− 1 a < x < a . 6
⎩ 2
Set A

SLR-PC – 249 -4- *SLR-PC-249*
SECTION – II
6. a) Find the unit tangent vector at any point on the curve given by x = t2 + 2, y = 4t – 5 and
z = 2t2 – 6t where t is any variable. Also determine unit tangent vector at t = 2. 5
b) Find the directional derivative of φ = e cos yz at (0, 0, 0) in the direction of tangent to the
2x
curve x = a sin t, y = a cos t, z = at when t = π /4. 5
c) Prove ∇ ⋅ ⎛⎜ r ∇
1⎞ 3
⎟= . 4
⎝ r ⎠ r4
3
OR
⎛ 4⎞
c) ∇ 4 (er ) = ⎜ 1 + ⎟ er . 4
⎝ r⎠
7. a) Find the coefficient of correlation between x and y 6
x: 23 27 28 29 30 31 33 35 36
y: 18 20 22 21 29 27 29 38 39
b) The following statistical coefficients were calculated to study the relationship between
yield of wheat and the amount of rainfall :
Yield in Rainfall in inches
kg/Acre (x) (y)
Mean : 985.0 12.8
Standard deviation : 70.1 1.6
and r = 0.52
Find a) The two regression equations. b) The most likely yield of wheat when the amount
of rainfall is 9.2 inches. c) The most probable rainfall for 1400 kgs/acre yield of wheat. 7
8. a) Assuming that 20% of the population is literate so that the chance of an individual being
⎛ 1⎞
literate is ⎜ ⎟ and assuming that 100 investigators can take a sample of 10 individuals to
⎝5⎠
see whether they are literate, how many investigators would you expect to report that
3 people or less were literate. 5
b) If the probability that an individual suffers a bad reaction from a certain injection is 0.001,
determine the probability that out of 2000 individuals exactly 3 will suffer a bad reaction. 4
c) The income distribution of workers in a certain factory was found to be normal with mean
of Rs. 500 and standard deviation equal to Rs. 50 there were 228 persons above Rs. 600.
How many persons were there in all ? (Given area under S.N.V. Z from z = 0 to z = 2 is
0.4772). 4
9 a) Auto vehicles arrive at a petrol pump having one petrol unit in Poisson fashion with an
average of 10 units per hour. The service is distributed exponentially with a mean of
3 minutes find a) Average no. of units in the system (Ls) b) Average waiting time for
customer (wq) c) Probability that a customer arriving at the booth will have to wait
d) Probability that the number of customers in the system is 2 (take (M/M/1):( ∞ 1FcFs)model). 7
b) Assume that the good trains are coming in the yard at the rate of 30 trains/day i.e.
24 hours suppose that the inter arrival times follow an exponential distribution. The service
time for each train is assumed to be exponential with an average of 36 minutes. If the yard
can admit N = 9 trains at a time (there being 10 lines, one of which is reserved for shunting
purposes) . Calculate the probability that the yard is empty and find the average
queue-length considering (M/M/1) : (N/FcFs) model. 6
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC25* SLR-PC 25
Set A
S e a t
N o .

BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN (Old)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

one mark.

1. State whether following statement is correct or incorrect : 20

1) In AutoCAD, the Arc command creates a line similar to a construction line
except that it extends infinitely in only one direction from the first pick point.
2) Rainwater harvesting is strictly prohibited in green buildings.
3) While drawing AutoCAD drawing, the Ellipse arc command can be used to
draw top view of European style W C pan.
4) Concept of FSI is used only in residential building and not at all in public
buildings.
5) In architecture, pattern is the repetition of all or some of the elements of
design, such as lines, shapes and forms.
6) In case of fire hazard in a public building it is desirable to use staircase
instead of lift.
7) Contrast can be recognized in a building, when two adjacent parts are very
different from one another, different materials, colors and textures.
8) ICU in hospital, means illness cure unit.
9) One point perspective is easier to draw.
P.T.O.

10) Unit of fire load is Kcal/sq.m/hr.

11) As per SP : 7-1970 type I buildings have highest fire resistance.
12) Lime stone is excellent fire resisting material.
13) Number of cycles or vibrations per second is known as pitch or frequency.
14) Dead spots occur because of formation of sound foci.
15) Excessive reverberation occurs because of insufficient absorption.
16) In case of classrooms minimum sound of 78 dB shall be received by pupil in
last row.
17) For indoor patient wards, there should be atleast one WC for every 8 beds or
parts thereof.
18) Area of 15 sq.m. shall be considered per bus while designing bus station.
19) In banks, height of public counters shall be about 0.5 m.
20) Minimum width of corridors in public buildings is 0.9 m.
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
2) Use both sides of full imperial drawing sheet for Section I.
3) Figures on right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
5) Use answer book for Section II.
SECTION I
2. It is proposed to construct a Primary School Building for 400 students. Strength

of each class is 40 students. Area per student can be taken as per NBC standards.
The building also consists of supporting units like headmaster room, teachers
room, office, separate toilet for staff and students of opposite gender respectively.
The building is RCC framed structure with single storey. Assume additional data
if required and mention it clearly.
Draw :
1) Detailed plan of school building. 16
2) Furniture layout of classroom. 12
Note : Use appropriate scale. 28
3. Following sketch shows a plan and elevation of a structure. Draw to scale 1:50
two point perspective of the same. Retain all construction lines. 12
50
50
0
00
0
10 2000
00
10
P 30° P
Plan
1500
6000
500
500
G 500 L
S.P.
Elevation
Fig. not to scale
Take observers eye level at 1.5 m above G.L.
Set A

SECTION II
4. Attempt any five questions : 40

1) Explain the concept of Green building with special application to public
buildings.
2) What do you understand by fire load of the building ? Explain in brief different
types of fire hazards.
3) Explain in detail common acoustical defects.
4) What are the advantages of using AutoCAD for public building ?
5) Write a short note on Landscape and Interior Designing for public buildings.
6) Write a note on : Rain Water Harvesting with a schematic sketch.
7) Explain the terms : Mass, Symmetry, Contrast with suitable diagrams.
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC250* www.downloadmela.com SLR-PC – 250
Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer

1) Consider the statement, “If n is divisible by 30 then n is divisible by 2 and by 3 and by 5.” Which of
the following statements is equivalent to this statement ?
a) If n is not divisible by 30 then n is not divisible by 2 or not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 5
b) If n is divisible by 2 and divisible by 3 and divisible by 5 then n is divisible by 30
c) If n is not divisible by 2 or not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 5 then n is not divisible by 30
2) Consider the statement, “Given that people who are in need of refuge and consolation are apt to do
odd things, it is clear that people who are apt to do odd things are in need of refuge and consolation.”
This statement, of the form (P ⇒ Q) ⇒ (Q ⇒ P), is logically equivalent to
a) People who are in need of refuge and consolation are not apt to do odd things
b) People are apt to do odd things if and only if they are in need of refuge and consolation
c) People who are apt to do odd things are in need of refuge and consolation
d) People who are in need of refuge and consolation are apt to do odd things
3) Insert “ ⊆ ” or “ ⊄ ” in the blank to make the statement true.
{b, d, j, i} ___________________ {b, d, j, i, k}
a) ⊄ b) ⊆ c) ⊃ d) ⊇/
4) Consider the following assertion : “ The two statements
1) ∃× ∈ D, (P(x) ∧ Q(x) ) and
2) (∃× ∈ D, P(x)) ∧ (∃× ∈ D, Q(x))
have the same truth value.” Which of the following is correct ?
a) This assertion is false. A counterexample is D = N, P (x) = “x is divisible by 6,” Q(x) = “x is
divisible by 3”
b) This assertion is true. The proof follows from the distributive law for ∧
c) This assertion is false. A counterexample is D = Z, P (x) = “x < 0,” QW (x) = “x ≥ 0.”
d) This assertion is true. To see why, let D = N, P(x) = “x is divisible by 6,” Q(x) = “x is divisible by 3”.
If x = 6, then x is divisible by both 3 and 6 so both statements in the assertion have the same
truth value for this.
5) Rahim described the set as follows :
• M = {all of the foods he eats|
• D = (his favourite desserts}
• V = (his favourite vegetables}
• F = {his favourite fruits}
Which are the disjoint sets ?
a) M and D b) M and V c) M and F d) V and F
6) ~ (P → Q) is equivalent to ________________
a) P ∧ ~ Q b) ~ P ∧ Q c) ~ P ∨ Q d) P ∨ Q
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 250 -2- *SLRPC250*
7) The lists below show five agricultural crops in Alabama, Arkansas, and Louisiana.
Alabama Arkansas Louisiana
Soybean (s) soybeans (s) soybeans (s)
peanuts (p) rice (r) sugarcane (n)
corn (c) cotton (t) rice (r)
hay (h) hay (h) corn (c)
wheat (w) wheat (w) cotton (t)
Let U be the smallest possible universal set that includes all of the crops listed; and let A, K, and
L be the sets of five crops in Alabama, Arkansas, and Louisiana, respectively. Find the indicated
C
set K ∩ L
a) {r, s, t} b) {h, w} c) (c, n, p) d) (c, n}
8) Let S = {a, b, c} covering sets are
a) { { a, b}, {b, c}} b) {{a}, {a, b}, {a, c}} c) both d) none of the above
9) Implication of R ∨ (P ∨ ⎤P) is
a) true b) false
10) Write suffix A ∧ (B ∨ ⎤C)
a) ABC ∧ ∨ ⎤ b) AB ∧ C ∨ ⎤ c) ABC ⎤ ∨ ∧ d) None
11) The Monoid is called as abelian group if it satisfies
a) Inverse, identity b) Inverse, commutative
c) Identity, commutative d) None of the above
12) In a group < G, * >, with order of group as 1, what is G ?
a) { } b) {1} c) {0} d) {e}
13) Let D100 = {1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20, 25, 50, 100} and let the relation be partial ordering on D100 is ‘/’ .
The all lower bounds of 10 and 20 are
a) 1, 2, 4, 10 b) 1, 2, 5, 10 c) 1, 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 2, 5, 20
14) The function f : N → N define by f (n) = n mod 3 is (N is the set of natural numbers)
a) Surjective b) Injective c) Many to one d) None of the above
15) If there are 4 elements in the set S, then what is the order of permutation group <S4, * >
a) 4 b) 24 c) 16 d) None of above
16) If function f : X → Y and g : Y → X the g is called as inverse of f iff
a) f • g = lx and g • f = ly b) f • g = lx and g • f = lx
c) f • g = ly and g • f = lx d) f • g = ly and g • f = ly
17) For the function f and g defined by f (x) = x3 and g (x) = x2 + 1, for all x ∈ R, then value of (g • f) (x) is
a) x2 + 1 b) x3 + 1 c) x6 + 1 d) x5 + 1
18) Range of the function f : X → Y is
a) Rf always proper subset of X b) Rf always equal to X
c) Rf is subset of X d) None of the above
19) Let < E, + > be given algebraic system, where E be the set of even positive integers and ‘+’ is the
addition operation, then it is
a) Monoid b) Semigroup c) Group d) None of the above
20) Following is the given lattice. How many complements does the ‘e’ have ?
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5
______________ Set A

*SLRPC250* -3- SLR-PC – 250
Seat
No.
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
a) Show the implication
P ∧ (P → Q) ⇒ Q
b) A = { α, β} B = {1, 2, 3} ; A × B, B × A.
For above example show Cartesian product and explain ordered pair.
c) With truth table explain conditional and Bi-conditional.
d) Write below laws
i) Idempotent ii) Association iii) Commutative
iv) Distributive v) Absorption
e) Define power set and find for following:
1) A = {1, 2}
2) B = {a, b, c}.
3. Attempt any two :
a) Let X = {2, 3, 6, 12, 24, 36} and relation ≤ be such that x ≤ y if x devides y. 10
Draw the Hasse diagram of < x, ≤ >.
b) Explain and give examples of properties (types) of relations. 10
c) If A = {2, 3, 4}, B = {1, 2} and C = {4, 5, 6}
Find :
1) A + B 2) B + C 3) (A + B) + (B + C)
Where ‘+’ is boolean sum or symmetric difference.

Set A

SLR-PC – 250 -4- *SLRPC250*
SECTION – II
a) Define Lattice as a algebraic system and explain sublattice.
b) Explain inverse of function with example.
c) Explain subsemigroup and submonoid with example.
d) Explain the different types of the homomorphism.
e) Show that identity element in group is unique.
a) Convert the following infix expressions into reverse polish notation by using stack
1) (a * b) ↑ c ↑ d /(e + h)
2) (a + b*c)/ (h/e ↑ d)
b) What is meant by permutation group ? If S = (a, b, c} draw the composition table for permutation
group on S i.e < S3, > . Also find the degree and order of the given permutation group.
6. What is a function ? Explain different types of the function. Let f : R → R be given by f (x) = x3 – 2.
Find f –1. 10
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1. Attempt following multiple choice questions : 20

1) Default initial value of Automatic Storage Class variable is
a) \0 b) 0 c) Garbage value d) Null
2) Float *p; what sizeof(*p) ; will return ?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
3) Which of the following can handle multi-word strings ?
a) printf b) puts c) a) and b) d) None of these
4) What strcmp(s1, s2) returns when s1 and s2 are equal ?
5) By default all the variables are
a) signed b) unsigned c) long d) double
6) What is the length of char name[] = Humpty Dumpty ?
a) 10 b) 11 c) 15 d) 18
7) Recursion uses what among the following in implementation ?
8) Which storage class variable life is as long as the program execution doesnt come to
end ?
a) External b) Automatic c) Static d) Register
P.T.O.

9) A is character where A is
a) Character b) Alphabet c) String d) Keyword
10) Output of main() {printf(%c,7[SUNDARAM]);}
a) A b) M c) R d) Error
11) What is meant by a in the following operation ?
fp = fopen(Random.txt,a);
a) Attach b) Append c) Apprehend d) Add
12) The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by
a) Counting microseconds
b) Counting the number of key operations
c) Counting the number of statements
d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm
13) The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
14) An amount of memory required for an algorithm to run to completion is called as
a) Time complexity b) Space complexity
15) FILE is of type
a) int type b) char * type
c) struct type d) none of the mentioned
16) A sort which compares adjacent elements in a list and swap if necessary is called
a) Insertion sort b) Heap sort c) Quick sort d) Bubble sort
17) A function which accept the key to find the location of the record is called as
a) Key function b) Hash function
18) Collision in hashing technique can be resolved by using
a) Open addressing and rehashing
b) Open addressing and chaining
c) Open addressing and linear probing
19) The algorithm complexity of O(2n) is called as
a) Linear b) Cubic c) Exponential d) Quadratic
20) The complexity of merge sort is
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
a) Explain automatic and static storage classes with simple code.
b) Write a program of addition of two numbers using pointer to function.
c) Explain advantage and disadvantage of recursive techniques.
d) Explain factorial using recursion with stack values.
e) Explain malloc(), calloc(), free(), realloc() with simple program.
3. Write an algorithm and program of swapping two strings using pointer to functions
concepts. 10
4. Explain the Tower of Hanoi problem and its algorithm with program. 10
SECTION II
a) Write down all the iterations of selection sort on the following data :
12 34 5 62 16 43 25 18 19 13
b) Explain the difference between linear search and binary search.
c) Write a C program to print all contents of file on screen.
d) Use merge sort technique to sort the following :
60 10 21 19 17 22 14 84 2 7 18
e) Write an algorithm for binary search. Explain with example.
a) What is hashing ? Explain different methods of collision resolution technique.
b) Explain fseek() and ftell() in detail.
7. Write a C program to count the following using file operation. 10
i) Number of lines
ii) Number of words
iii) Number of characters.
___________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
one mark.
1. Choose the correct alternative (Each carries one mark) : 20

1) The NAND gate output will be low if the two inputs are
A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11
( )( )
2) The simplification of the Boolean Expression ABC + ABC is
A) 0 B) 1 C) A D) BC
3) The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0, the gate is
either
A) a NAND or an EX-OR B) an OR or an EX-NOR
C) an AND or an EX-OR D) a NOR or an EX-NOR
4) The gates required to build a half adder are
A) EX-OR gate and NOR gate B) EX-OR gate and OR gate
C) EX-OR gate and AND gate D) Four NAND gates
5) DeMorgan’s first theorem shows the equivalence of
A) OR gate and Exclusive OR gate B) NOR gate and Bubbled AND gate
C) NOR gate and NAND gate D) NAND gate and NOT gate
6) A four variable K-map has
A) 8 min terms B) 12 min terms C) 32 min terms D) None of these
7) In a JK flip-flop, toggle means
A) Set Q = 1 and Q = 0
B) Set Q = 0 and Q = 1
C) Change the output to the opposite state
D) No change in output
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 252 -2- *SLRPC252*
8) In a positive logic system, logic state 1 corresponds to
A) Positive voltage B) Higher voltage level
C) Zero voltage level D) Lower voltage level
9) How many NAND gates are required to realize Y = CD + EF+ G
(Using 2-input and 3-input) ?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 3 D) 2
10) The output of SR flipflop when S = 1, R = 0 is
A) 1 B) 0
C) No change D) High impedance
11) How many select lines will a 16-to-1 multiplexer will have
A) 4 B) 3 C) 5 D) 1
12) The commercially available 8-input multiplexer integrated circuit in the TTL
family is
A) 7495 B) 74153 C) 74154 D) 74151
13) A full adder logic circuit will have
A) Two inputs and one output B) Three inputs and three outputs
C) Two inputs and two outputs D) Three inputs and two outputs
14) Which of the following memories stores the most number of bits ?
A) a 5M × 8 memory B) a 1M ×16 memory
C) a 5M × 4 memory D) a 1 M × 12 memory
15) How many address bits are required to represent a 32 K memory ?
A) 10 bits B) 15 bits C) 14 bits D) 16 bits
16) Which of the following requires refreshing ?
A) SRAM B) DRAM C) ROM D) EPROM
17) The count of a 4-bit binary down counter is 0000. When a clock pulse is
applied its count will be
A) 0001 B) 1111 C) 0111 D) 1110
18) Which of the following cannot be accessed randomly ?
A) DRAM B) SRAM
C) ROM D) Magnetic Tape
19) EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to
A) Ultraviolet rays B) Infrared rays
C) Burst of microwaves D) Intense heat radiations
20) An entity can have more than _____________ architecture body.
A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 0
______________ Set A

*SLRPC252* -3- SLR-PC – 252
Seat
No.

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
a) Simplify the following expression into sum of products using Karnaugh map.
F(A, B, C, D) = Σm (1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 12, 13)
b) Minimize the following logic function using K-maps and realize using basic
gates
F(A, B, C, D) = Σm (1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 11, 15) + d (2, 13).
c) What is shift register ? What are its various types ?
d) With relevant diagram explain the working of SR flip flop.
e) Distinguish between synchronous and Asynchronous counters.
3. Solve any two : (2×10=20)
a) Minimize the following logic function using K - maps and realize using NAND
and NOR gate separately.
F(A, B, C, D) = Σm (0, 2, 4, 8, 9, 12,15) + d (1, 14)
b) With relevant diagram explain the working of master-slave JK flip flop.
c) Explain the working of asynchronous counter with suitable diagram and truth
table.
Set A

SLR-PC – 252 -4- *SLRPC252*
SECTION – II

a) Explain the working of decoder/deviator 7 segment display device
(using IC 7447).
b) Using a suitable diagram, explain the working of multiplexer.
c) Explain the classification and characteristics of memories.
d) Differentiate between static and dynamic RAM.
e) Describe any one combinational circuits using VHDL.

1) Explain the organization of the memory with diagram and its memory
operations.
2) Distinguish between combinational logic circuits and sequential logic
circuits. How are the design requirements of combinational circuits
specified ?
3) Explain the entity and the architecture of the VHDL design.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.

1. Choose the correct alternative :

1) The slope of the line joining the points (0, 0) to (6, 6) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
2) Pixel is
a) The smallest addressable point on the screen
b) An input device
c) A memory block
d) A data structure
3) Run length encoding is used for
a) Image smoothening b) Image compression
c) Image coloring d) Image dithening
4) Reflection can also be described as
a) Translation b) Rotation c) Both a & b d) None of above
5) Dragging an object can be described as
a) Translation b) Rotation c) Reflection d) None of above
6) A frame buffer is
a) memory b) display c) both a & b d) none of above
7) Which of the following are transformation ?
a) Translation b) Rotation c) Shearing d) All of above
8) In multiple transformation
a) Order of transformation should be same
b) Order of transformation should be reverse
c) Order is not important
d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 253 -2- *SLRPC253*
9) The resolution of an image is

a) Number of pixels per unit area
b) Number of pixels per unit length in horizontal
c) Number of pixels per unit length in vertical
d) None of these
10) The transformation that enhances or reduces the size of object is called
a) Translation b) Scaling c) Shearing d) Rotation
11) A line with end point code 0000 & 0100 is
a) Partially visible b) Completely visible
c) Invisible d) All above
12) The region against which an object is clipped is called
a) Clip window b) Clip viewport c) Clip area d) None of above
13) Unit of display file is
a) Viewport b) Segment c) Byte d) Window
14) Aliasing effect means
a) Rendering effect b) Shading effect
c) Staircase effect d) Weing effect
15) RGB stands for
a) Resolution – Global – Bright b) Resolution of Green and Blue
c) Red – Green – Blue d) None of above
16) _________ algo. is used for clipping the line.
a) DDA b) Fence
c) Sutherland-Cohen d) Bresenham’s
17) The Bezier curve generally follows the __________ of the defining polygon.
a) Size b) Curvature c) Shape d) None of above
18) The best hidden surface removal algo. is
a) Warnock algo. b) Z-buffer algo.
c) Back-face removal algo. d) None of above
19) The line segment is visible if both end point codes are
a) 0000 b) 1111 c) 0101 d) 1010
20) The Bezier curve is contained within the _________ hull of defining polygon.
a) Concave b) Convex c) Both d) None
______________
Set A

*SLRPC253* -3- SLR-PC – 253
Seat
No.

COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks). 20

A) Explain different applications of computer graphics.
B) With the help of diagram explain the working of CRT.
C) Explain Edge fill algo. with suitable example.
D) Explain DDA line drawing algo.
E) Explain all 2D-transformations in detail.
F) Describe 2D reflection through an arbitrary line.
3. Describe following 3D transformations with example. 10

i) Rotation about axis parallel to co-ordinate axis.
ii) Reflection.
OR
Explain following polygon filling algo.’s

i) Scan converting polygon
ii) Seed fill.
4. Describe Bresenham’s circle generation algo. in detail. 10
SECTION – II
5. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) 20

A) Explain the concept of supersampling used for antialiasing.
B) Explain the structure of segmented display file.
Set A

SLR-PC – 253 -4- *SLRPC253*
C) What is Warnock algo. ? Draw flowchart and quad-tree structure for warnock
algo.
D) Write note on - Compression.
E) Write a note on - Bspline curves.
F) Explain all properties of Bezier curve.
6. What is clipping ? Explain working of Sutherland-Cohen line clipping algo. in
detail. 10
7. Explain Z-buffer algo. with suitable example. State its advantages and
disadvantages. 10
OR
Explain parametric and Non-parametric representation.
________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct answer (one mark each) : (20×1=20)
1) The Newton-Raphson method fails when

a) B

N
is negative b) B

N
is too large c) B

N
is near to zero d) Never fails
2) Solution of simultaneous non-linear equations can be obtained using

a) N R method b) Mullers method
c) False position method d) Bisection method
3) Which of the following statements applies to Bisection method used for finding roots of function ?
a) Converges within few iterations
b) Is faster than Newton-Raphson method
c) Requires that there will be no error in determining the sign of functions
d) Guaranteed to work for all continuous function
4) As soon as a new value of a variable is found by iteration, it is used immediately in the following equations,
this method is called
a) Gauss-Jordan b) Gauss-Seidal c) Jacobis d) Factorization
5) Identify the method of solving simultaneous linear equations in which the coefficient matrix is expressed
as the product of a lower and upper triangular matrix
a) Factorization b) Jacobis c) Jordan d) Seidal
# "

6) First approximation to Eigen vector for the matrix with x0 = is

0 . 2 # 1

a) b) c) d)
1 0 . 2

7) Which of the following is false ?

H @
a) Error in Trapezoidal rule is of order h2 b) Error in Simpsons rule is of order h

J D
c) Error in Weddles rule is of order h7 d) Error in Simpsons rule is of order h5

!
&
8) Rombergs method is based on successive application of

a) Simpsons rule b) Weddles rule
J D
c) Simpsons rule d) Trapezoidal rule

!
&
P.T.O.

9) For which method to solve the integration the number of sub intervals are taken as multiple of 3 ?
J D
a) Simpsons rule b) Trapezoidal rule c) Booles rule d) Weddles rule

!
&
>
10) To convert the integration 1

B N @ N
to the form 1

C J @ J
, while evaluating I by using Gaussian-

Quadrature formula the transformation formula is

=
a) b)
= > J = > > = K = >
N N
c) d) None
> = J = >
N
11) When height of fuzzy set is less than 1, then it is called

a) Normal fuzzy set b) Subnormal fuzzy set
c) Crisp set d) Level cut of a fuzzy set
12) The division of closed intervals [1, 3]/[2, 5] =
a) [2, 15] b) c) d)

3 5 3
1 1
, 2 , ,

2 5 3 5 2

x 1 / 2 f o r 1 x 1

13) Given fuzzy number A x

3 x / 2 f o r 1 x 3
0 o t h e r w i s e
The -cut of A(x) is

a) [2 1, 3 2 ]
b) [1 2
,2
3] c) [1 + 2
,32
] d) [1 + 2
,3+2
]
14) For the fuzzy set A(x) = , scalar cardinality of is approx.

N
x 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5
) N
N
a) 1.8752 b) 1.8257 c) 2.1857 d) 2.3875

15) If A(x) = x for N
; A(x) = 0 otherwise ( 0 , 1 ]
,
-cut of A(x) is
a) (
, 1] b) [
, 1] c) X d) Empty set
16) Consider the fuzzy proposition P : V is F representing India is a prosperous country is

a) Unconditional and qualified b) Unconditional and unqualified
c) Conditional and qualified d) None of the above
17) The crisp rule F G

and 7q, therefore 7p is called
a) Modus follens b) Modus ponens
c) Hypothetical syllogism d) Contrapositive
18) For any fuzzy set B, defined on universal set X, 0 - cut of A is

a) X b)
c) 0 d) (
, 0]
19) Consider (i) and (ii)

m i n 1 , x f o r x 0

S i n x 0 x / 4

B x

A x
0 f o r x 0
0 o t h e r w i s e
Then the fuzzy numbers are

a) Both (i) and (ii) b) Only (i) c) Only (ii) d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
20) Let A : R
[0, 1] be a fuzzy set defined on set of real numbers. Then to qualify as a fuzzy number
a) A must be a normal set b)
-cut of A must be closed interval for

(0, 1]
c) The 0+ A must be bounded (i.e. strong zero cut) d) All the above
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Find a positive root of the equation x log10 x = 1.2 by Regula-Falsi method correct to 4 decimal places. 4
b) Using Mullers method find an approximate root of the equation x3 2x 5 = 0 (perform two iterations) 6
c) Solve the set of linear equations by Gauss-Elimination method
2x1 + 4x2 + x3 = 3
3x1 + 2x2 2x3 = 2
x1 x2 + x3 = 6 4
OR
c) Solve the equations using Gauss Jacobis method correct to 3 decimal places
15x + y z = 14
x + 20y + z = 23
2x 3y + 18z = 37 4
3. a) Solve the following set of equations by LU decomposition method

2x + 3y + z = 9
x + 2y + 3z = 6
3x + y + 2z = 8 7
b) Perform two iterations of the Newtons-Raphson method to solve non-linear equations x2 + xy 6 = 0,
x2 y2 3 = 0 starting with initial conditions x0 = y0 = 1. 6
4. a) Evaluate
e
N
. c o s x d x using Gaussian quadrature 3 point formula. 4

b) Evaluate the integral dx using Rombergs method, take h = 0.5, 0.25, 0.125. 6

N

c) Find a double root of the equation x3 5x2 + 8x 4 = 0 which is near to 1.8. 3
H @
@ N
5. a) Evaluate using Simpsons , Weddles rule, take n = 6. 4+1=5

N

H @
@ N @ O
b) Using Simpsons rule evalute , h = k = 0.5. 4

N O

c) Find the positive real root of the equation x tan x + 1 = 0 correct to three decimal places by using Bisection
method. (perform 6 iterations). 4
Set A

SECTION II
6. a) Let A and B be fuzzy sets defined on the universal set of integers whose membership functions are given by
0 . 4 0 . 5 0 . 3 0 . 2 0 . 2 0 . 7 0 . 1 0 . 3 0 . 5
A x B x
3 2 0 1 1 2 3 4 5
Let a function f : X
x
X be defined for all x1, x2
X by f(x1, x2) = x1, x2. Find f(A, B). 6
b) If A and B are two fuzzy sets defined by the membership functions , and x {0, 1, 2, 3, 4,5}
N N
) N * N
N # #
find ) N
, * N
, ) * N
, ) * N
. Verify that ) * ) * ) *
. 7
7. a) Find the fuzzy number A.B (x) where

x 2 / 4 f o r 2 x 4 x 2 / 4 f o r 4 x 6

8
A x 6 x / 4 f o r 4 x 6 B x 1 0 x / 4 f o r 6 x 1 0


b) Determine which of the following fuzzy sets qualify as fuzzy numbers with justification
1 f o r 0 x 1 0

B x
0 o t h e r w i s e
t a n x i f 0 x / 4 1 f o r x 5

D

x

, C

x

6

8. a) Solve the fuzzy equation A + X = B for X where A and B are fuzzy numbers such that
0 . 2 0 . 6 0 . 8 0 . 9 1 0 . 5 0 . 1
A
[ 0 , 1 ) [ 1 , 2 ) [ 2 , 3 ) [ 3 , 4 ) 4 ( 4 , 5 ] ( 5 , 6 ]
6
0 . 1 0 . 2 0 . 6 0 . 7 0 . 8 0 . 9 1 0 . 5 0 . 4 0 . 2 0 . 1
B
[ 0 , 1 ) [ 1 , 2 ) [ 2 , 3 ) [ 3 , 4 ) [ 4 , 5 ) [ 5 , 6 ) 6 ( 6 , 7 ] ( 7 , 8 ] [ 8 , 9 ) ( 9 , 1 0 ]
b) Let A and B be two fuzzy numbers whose membership functions are given by
x 2 / 2 f o r 2 x 4
x 2 / 2 f o r 2 x 0

A x 2 x / 2 f o r 0 x 2
B x 6 x / 2 4 x 6

0 o t h e r w i s e
0 o t h e r w i s e
Calculate fuzzy numbers (i) A + B ii) MAX (A, B) (as in lattice of fuzzy numbers) 7
9. a) Let X = {1, 2, 3...,10}. The Cartesian product X Y contains 100 members (1,1), (1,2), (1,3),...(10,10). Let
R(X, X) = {(x, y)/x and y have the same remainder when divided by 3. Show that this is an equivalence relation.
Find the equivalence classes defined by this relation. 6
b) Define convex fuzzy set. Which of the following fuzzy sets are convex fuzzy sets ? i) A(x) = 2x ii)
N
* N
N
iii) 7
1
C x x 1 , 2 , 3 , . . . , 1 0
1 1 0 x 1
OR
Let sets of values of X and Y be X = {x1, x2, x3} and Y = {y1, y2} respectively. Assume that the proposition if X
1 0 . 4
is A then Y is B is given. and you are given a fact expressed by proposition

0 . 5 1 0 . 6
B
A
x x x
y y
!
x is where . Use generalized modus ponens to derive a conclusion Y is

. 6 . 9 . 7

) *
A
x x
Use Lukasiewicz implication J (a, b) = min (1, 1 a + b) B

y

s u p m i n

A

x

, R

x , y

, R

x , y

J

A

x

, B

y

N :
modus ponens : If X is A then Y is B and : )

; E I *
7
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
)
N o .
S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Select correct alternatives : (20×1=20)
1) The word formal in formal languages means
a) The symbols used have well-defined meaning
b) They are unnecessary, in reality
c) Only form of the string of symbols is significant
d) Both a) and b)
2) Consider the grammar S
aSb | . The language of the grammar is
a) Regular b) Ambiguous
c) Non-deterministic d) Linear
3) If satisfy abw = wab, then (w) is

w ( a , b )
a) Even b) Odd c) Null d) None of these

4) Finite state machine can recognize
a) Any grammar b) Only context-free grammar
c) Both a) and b) d) Only regular grammar
5) The smallest finite automaton that accepts all non-negative binary numbers divisible by
3 has
a) 2 states b) 3 states c) 4 states d) 5 states
6) For which of the following application, regular expressions cannot be used ?
a) Designing computers b) Designing compilers
c) Both a) and b) d) Developing computers
7) A language L is accepted by a finite automaton if and only if it is
a) Context-free b) Context-sensitive c) Recursive d) Right-linear
8) Which of the following regular expressions denotes a language comprising all possible
strings over the alphabet {a, b} ?
a) a* b* b) (a | b)* c) (ab)+ d) (a | b*)
9) Regular expression are
a) Type 0 language b) Type 1 language
c) Type 2 language d) Type 3 language
P.T.O.

10) Which of the following is true ?
a) Every subset of a regular set is regular
b) Every finite subset of non-regular set is regular
c) The union of two non-regular set is not regular
d) Infinite union of finite set is regular
11) A language is regular if and only if
a) Accepted by DFA b) Accepted by PDA
c) Accepted by LBA d) Accepted by turing machine
12) Which of the following conversion is not possible (algorithmically) ?
a) Regular grammar to context-free grammar
b) Non-deterministic FSA to deterministic FSA
c) Non-deterministic PDA to deterministic PDA
d) Non-deterministic TM to deterministic TM
13) Consider the languages
L1 = {wwR | w
{0, 1}*}
L2 = {wcwR | w
{0, 1}*}
L3 = {ww | w
{0, 1}*}
Which one of the following is true ?
a) L1 is deterministic CFL b) L2 is deterministic CFL
c) L3 is a CFL but not a deterministic CFL d) L3 is deterministic CFL
14) Consider the regular language L = (111 + 11111)*. The minimum number of states in any
DFA accepting the language is
a) 3 b) 5 c) 8 d) 9
15) The language L = {0i21i/ i
0} over the alphabet {0, 1, 2} is
a) Not recursive b) Is recursive and is a deterministic CFL
c) Is a regular language d) Is not a deterministic CFL but a CFL
16) If L1 and L2 are CFL and R a regular set, one of the languages below is not necessarily a
CFL. Which one ?
a) L1L2 b) L1 L2 c) L1 L2

d) L1 R
17) Which of the following languages over {a, b, c} is accepted by a deterministic PDA ?
a) {wbwR | w {a, c}*}
b) {wwR | w {a, b, c}*}
c) {anbncn | n 1}
d) {w | w is a palindrome over {a, b, c}}

18) Consider the following language
L = {anbmcpdq | n, m, p, q
1}, L is
a) CFL but not regular b) CSL but not CFL
c) Regular d) Type 0 language but not type 1
19) Universal TM influenced the concept of
a) Stored program computers
b) Interpretative implementation of programming language
c) Computability
d) All of these
20) Number of external states of a UTM should be atleast
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following (any 4) : 20

a) Define regular expression and write a regular expression for the following languages where
L
.
{ 0 , 1 }
*
i) Language accepting strings of even length.

ii) Language of strings that do not end with 01.
b) Construct and represent a finite automaton for accepting a language of strings ending in
1 and not containing 00 substrings. Give 2 example strings for acceptance by the FA.
c) Define NFA and elaborate with example also elaborate acceptance by an NFA.
d) Define context free grammar and construct a grammar for palindrome over {a, b} with the
derivation of two strings as
i) abbabba
ii) abbaaba
e) What are -productions ? Explain the steps for eliminating -productions and eliminate
-productions for a following grammar.

S
ABCBCDA
A
CD
B
Cb
C
a|
D
bD |
f) Prove the theorem that if L1 and L2 are CFL then L1
L2 is also a context free language.
Set A

3. Consider the languages L1 and L2 over an alphabet {0, 1} as 10

L1 = {x | 00 is not a substring of x}
L2 = {x | x ends with 01}
Construct and represent finite automaton for L1 and L2 and also construct FA for L1 L2.
OR
Elaborate Kleenes theorem part I with its proof.
4. What is Chomsky Normal Form (CNF) and convert the following grammar into CNF. 10
S XXYZ

X xXy|

Y xY | x
Z
xZx | yZy |
SECTION II
5. Answer the following (any 4) : 20

a) Define PDA, DPDA and acceptance by PDA.
b) Construct and explain the transition table for a PDA recognizing the following language.
{anx | n
0, x
{a, b}* and |x|

n}
c) Construct a turing machine for a function n mod 2.
d) Explain combining turing machine with example.
e) Prove the theorem with example that there is a CFL L so that L

is not a CFL.
f) Elaborate universal turing machine.
6. Prove that for a grammar G = (V,
, S, P) there exists a PDA M accepting L(G). 10

OR
What is the need of pumping lemma ? Write and prove the pumping lemma theorem for CFL.
Apply pumping lemma to L = {ai bi ci | i 1}.
7. Construct and represent a turing machine for accepting a following language L as

L = {SS | SE {a, b}*} and trace the moves for the strings aba, abab and aaaa
and write acceptance and rejections. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
S.E. (I.T.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSORS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
1) 8085 micro processor is an ______________ device.
a) PMOS b) CMOS c) NMOS d) QMOS
2) ______________ register deals with sequencing the execution of instructions.
a) Stack pointer b) Program counter
c) Accumulator d) Flag
3) 8086 as______________ of segment registers.
a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 2
4) The speed of a microprocessor is usually measured by the
a) Microprocessor’s throughput
b) Speed with which it performs I/P and O/P operations
c) Time required executing a basic instruction
d) Time required processing a small operation
5) Which of the following is an 8085 hardware interrupt ?
a) TRAP b) RST 6.5 c) RST 7.5 d) All the above
6) DAD register pair instruction mean
a) Add the content of specified register pair to HL pair and store the result in HL
b) Add 8 bit data given in instruction to center of one and store the result in
register
c) Add 10 bit data given in inst to contact of HL and stout the result in HL
7) Instruction that sets the carry flag
a) CY set b) STR c) STC d) Set CY
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 256 -2- *SLRPC256*
8) In 8086 microprocessor which of the following is not a register pair register.

a) B-C pair b) F-G pair c) H-L pair d) D-E pair
9) An interrupt initiated by a signal on the NMI pin is called a ______________
a) NON maskable interrupt b) Number maskable interrupt
c) NOT maskable interrupt d) None of the above
10) ______________ and ______________ lines provide the 8085 with a DMA
capability by allowing another processor on the same system bus to request
control of the buses.
a) S0, S1 b) Read and Write c) ALE and READY d) HOLD and HLDA
11) 8086 processor has _____________address pins out of which______________
number of pins are used as data pins.
a) 16, 8 b) 16, 14 c) 20, 16 d) 20, 8
12) ______________ and ______________ instructions are specifically used to
change the status of carry flag.
a) STI, CLI b) STC, CMC c) MOV, LEA d) DAA, XCHG
13) ___________ IC is designed specifically to work with 8085 as
programmable interrupt controller, it contains ___________ number of pins.
a) 8259, 28 b) 8269, 28 c) 8279, 26 d) 8299, 26
14) Which instruction is used for clearing the Program Counter ?
a) TRAP b) RST 6.5 c) RST 0 d) None of these
15) For which number System Auxiliary Carry is used ?
a) BCD b) Binary c) Decimal d) Hexa Decimal
16) Which Pin is used for synchronizing the speed of 8085 with slow peripheral
device ?
a) RESET b) HOLD c) READY d) INTR
17) Which of the following is not an input output interfacing technique ?
a) Memory mapped IO b) IO mapped IO
c) Isolated IO d) None of these
18) Which of the following is programmable IO port is ?
19) Which one of the following instruction may be used for clearing accumulator
content ?
a) XRA A b) SUB A c) MVI A, 00H d) All of these
20) Which of the following instruction may be used to mask the upper 4 bits of
accumulator ?
a) XRI 0FH b) ANI FOH c) XRI FOH d) ANI 0FH
______________
Set A

*SLRPC256* -3- SLR-PC – 256
Seat
No.
S.E. (I.T.) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

MICROPROCESSORS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
a) Explain the clock circuit of 8085 with suitable diagram.
b) Draw and explain flag register.
c) Draw timing diagram for execution MVI A, 33H.
d) Differentiate memory mapped I/O and I/O mapped I/O.
e) Explain conditional JUMP instructions with example.
a) Explain the features of 8085 and also draw and explain internal architecture
of 8085.
b) Write an assembly language program to handle RST 7.5 interrupt.
c) How demultiplexing of address and data bus takes ? Explain different
control signals of timing diagram.
d) Explain WAIT state. Draw and explain single cycle step execution in 8085.
SECTION – II
a) Write a short note on USART.
b) Draw and explain SIM and RIM instruction bit format.
c) Explain mode 1 : Input mode interfacing of 8255 PPI.
d) Explain I/O modes control word format in detail.
e) What is OCW2 of 8259 PIC ?
a) Explain the features and architecture of 80286 in detail.
b) Explain the segmentation of memory used with 8086.
c) Explain interrupts structure of 8085 with neat diagram.
d) Draw and explain block diagram for DMA data transfer.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No. Set A
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
DATA STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct option. (20×1=20)
1) Representation of data structure in memory is known as
a) recursive b) abstract data type
c) storage structure d) file structure
2) What is the postfix form of the following prefix* + ab – cd ?
a) ab + cd – * b) abc +*– c) ab+*cd – d) none of the above
a) Branch b) Queue c) Tree d) Stack
4) Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by doubly linked
list than by singly linked list ?
a) Deleting a node whose location in given
b) Searching of an unsorted list for a given item
c) Inverting a node after the node with given location
d) Traversing a list to process each node
5) A linear collection of data elements where the linear node is given by means
of pointer is called
a) linked list b) node list c) primitive list d) none of these
6) A binary tree of depth “d” is an almost complete binary tree if
a) Each leaf in the tree is either at level “d” or at level “d–1”
b) For any node “n” in the tree with a right descendent at level “d” all the left
descendents of “n” that are leaves, are also at level “d”
c) Both (a) and (b)
7) A queue is a ,
a) FIFO (First In First Out) list b) LIFO (Last In First Out) list
c) Ordered array d) Linear tree
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 257 -2- *SLRPC257*
8) Which of the following ways below is a pre order traversal ?
a) Root-> left sub tree-> right sub tree b) Root-> right sub tree-> left sub tree
c) right sub tree-> left sub tree->Root d) left sub tree-> right sub tree->Root
9) In a priority queue, generally
a) Item with lowest priority is served first
b) Item with highest priority is served first
c) Depends on the order the elements were entered
d) Can be either way a, b or c
10) Which of the following statements hold true for binary trees ?
a) Maximum degree of a node is 2
b) The root node has to be the largest
c) For a parent node, each left child is greater than each right child
d) Binary trees can hold only 0’s and 1’s
11) The balance factor in AVL tree should contain only following values
a) 2, 0, –1 b) +1, 0, –1 c) +2,0,–2 d) –1,0,0
12) Topological sort can be apply to only
a) Acyclic graph b) Cyclic graph
c) All types of graph d) None of above
13) If G is an directed graph with 10 vertices then how many Boolean values will
be needed to represent G using an adjacency matrix ?
a) 10 b) 100 c) 20 d) 200
14) An operation of processing elements is called ___________
a) Traversing b) Inserting c) Deleting d) Searching
15) Minimum number of edges in a connected cyclic graph on ‘n’ vertices is _________
a) n–1 b) n c) n +1 d) none of above
16) Which data structure used in traversing a given graph by BFS ?
a) List b) Set c) Stack d) Queue
17) When a node (other than root ) in B-tree is split the number of levels increased in the tree
is __________
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) none of above
18) Rotations in AVL tree required for
a) Inserting in tree b) Traversing the tree
c) Finding balance of each node d) Balancing the tree
19) B and B + tree are examples of __________
a) Binary search tree b) Complete Binary tree
c) Multiway search tree d) Only Binary tree
20) If we draw an AVL tree using following elements
50, 45, 80, 95, 26, 43, 105, 2
What will be balance of node 43 in finally produced AVL tree ?
a) 0 b) –1 c) +2 d) +1
________________
Set A

*SLRPC257* -3- SLR-PC – 257
Seat
No.
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

DATA STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Wednesday, 20-5-2015 Marks :80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any four of the following. (4×5=20)
1) Define data structures and explain types of data structures with examples.
2) Write a short note on Stack and its operations.
3) Write a short note on Queue and its operations.

4) Compare the array list and linked list.
5) Write algorithm of stack to display the elements in FIFO manner.
3. Answer any two of the following. (2×10=20)

1) Write a program to remove first node of the list and insert it at the end.
2) Explain the deletion of a node in binary search tree with examples.
3) What is threaded binary tree ? Explain the insertion of a node in threaded binary tree.
SECTION – II
4. Answer any four of the following. (4×5=20)
1) List advantages and disadvantages of B + tree compared to B – tree.
2) What is an AVL tree ? Explain double rotation operations in AVL tree with
examples.
3) Define the following terms

i) Graph
ii) Path
iii) Cycle
iv) Loop
v) Weighted graph
Set A

SLR-PC – 257 -4- *SLRPC257*
4) Give difference between depth first search (DFS) and breadth first search
(BFS) of graph .
5) What is Height Balanced Tree ? Explain its benefits with example.
6) What is multiway search tree ? List difference between binary search tree and multiway
search tree.
5. Answer any two of the following. (2×10=20)
1) What are the properties of a B-tree ? Construct the B-tree of order 4 for the
following elements 1,6, 8, 2, 9, 12, 15, 7, 18, 3, 4, 20
2) Explain topological sort. Apply topological sort to following graph and write
final ordering
3) Insert the following key in order to build an AVL tree

a) 5, 16, 22, 45, 2, 10, 18
b) X, C, Y, B, Z, A
_____________________
Set A

Set A
S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Information Technology) Part II Examination, 2015

DATA COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Marks are indicated to the right of question.


1. Multiple Choice Questions : 20
I) Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial
communication link ?
a) Simplex b) Half-duplex c) Full-duplex d) b) and c)
II) Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive
processing applications ?
a) Narrow band channel b) Simplex lines
c) Full duplex lines d) Mixed band channels
III) Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers ?
a) Communications software
b) Protocol
c) Communication hardware
d) All of above inlcuding access to transmission medium
IV) In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
a) Network layer b) Data link layer c) Transport layer d) Session layer
V) Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
a) Router b) Bridge c) Repeater d) Modem
VI) To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use
a) a coaxial cable b) a dedicated line
c) a ground station d) All of the above
VII) With an IP address of 100, you currently have 80 subnets. What subnet
mask should you use to maximize the number of available hosts ?
a) 192 b) 224 c) 240 d) 252
P.T.O.

VIII) The _____________ houses the switches in token ring
a) Transceiver b) Nine-pin connector
c) MAU d) NIC
IX) What device separates a single network into two segments but lets the two
segments appear as one to higher protocols ?
a) Switch b) Bridge c) Gateway d) Router
X) Layer one of the OSI model is
a) Physical layer b) Link layer
c) Transport layer d) Network layer
XI) In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are
responsibility of
a) Session layer b) Network layer
c) Transport layer d) Data link layer
XII) In OSI network architecture, framing is performed by
a) Network layer b) Data link layer c) Transport layer d) Session layer
XIII) Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation ?
a) Fibre optics b) Satellite c) Coaxial cable d) Modem
XIV) The process of converting analogue signals into digital signals so they can
be processed by a receiving computer is referred to as
a) Modulation b) Demodulation c) Synchronizing d) Digitising
XV) Which of the following IP address class is Multicast ?
a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D
XVI) The last address of IP address represents
a) Unicast address b) Network address
c) Broadcast address d) None of the above
XVII) Which layers of the OSI model are host-to-host layers ?
a) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
b) Network, Session, Presentation, Application
c) Session, Presentation, Application, Physical
d) Session, Presentation, Transport, Datalink
XVIII) Which of the following is correct regarding Class B address of IP address ?
a) Network bit-17, Host bit-16 b) Network bit-15, Host bit-17
c) Network bit-13, Host bit-19 d) None of these
XIX) User datagram protocol is called connectionless because
a) All UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) It sends data as a stream of related packets
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the mentioned
XX) Transmission control protocol is
a) Connection oriented protocol
b) Uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) Receives data from applications as a single stream
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
S.E. (Information Technology) Part II Examination, 2015

DATA COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Number to the right side indicater marks.
SECTION I
a) Explain the functions of Network layer and Data Link Layer.
b) Differentiate TCP and UDP
c) Explain different types of transmission impairments.
d) Explain design issues in DLL.
e) What are the key design issues for the layers in Computer networks ?
f) Explain ATM reference model.
3. Explain OSI reference model and functions of each layer. 10
4. Write short note on (any two) : 10
a) Hamming code.
b) One-bit Sliding window protocol.
c) Go-Back N sliding window protocol.
SECTION II
a) Define : i) IP address ii) Subnet Mask iii) Broadcast address iv) Multicast
address
b) Explain different classes of IPV4 address.
c) Write a note on ALOHA.
d) Differentiate Hierarchical routing and linked state routing.
e) Explain shortest path routing algorithm.
f) Compare Private IP address and Public IP address.
6. What is Congestion ? Explain different types of approaches to congestion control. 10
7. Write short note on (any two) : 10
1) OSPF 2) NAT 3) CSMA/CD.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Information Technology) (Old) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER NETWORK – II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.

1. 1) The ports ranging from 1,024 to 49,151 are called ___________ ports.
A) well-known B) registered C) dynamic D) none of these
2) Which of the following functions does UDP perform ?
A) process-to-process communication
B) host-to-host communication
C) end-to-end reliable data delivery
D) none of the choices are correct
3) When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, __________
A) delivery is complete B) a transport layer protocol takes over
C) a header is added D) none of the choices are correct
4) TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented.
A) Packet B) Segment
C) Byte D) None of the choices are correct
5) In TCP, the size of the send window is the ___________ of rwnd and cwnd.
A) Maximum B) Sum of
C) Minimum D) None of the choices are correct
6) Which of the following does UDP guarantee ?
A) Flow control B) Connection-oriented delivery
C) Error control D) None of the choices
7) In the ___________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases
exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
A) Congestion avoidance B) Congestion detection
C) Show start D) None of the choices are correct
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 259 -2- *SLRPC259*
8) A special segment called a probe is sent by a sending TCP when the __________
timer goes off.
A) Transmission B) Persistence C) Keepalive D) None of these
9) Information in a computer is stored in __________ byte order.
A) host B) network C) server D) none of these
10) An interface is a set of ___________ designed to facilitate interaction between
two entities.
A) programs B) instructions C) rules D) none of these
11) If DHCP client and server are on different networks, there is a need for an
intermediary called a __________
A) Second client B) Primary server
C) Relay agent D) None of these
12) NVT uses two sets of characters, one for ___________ and one for __________
A) Sending, receiving B) Request; reply
C) Data; control D) None of these
13) To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control characters
is preceded by a special control character called _________
A) ICA B) IAC C) AIC D) None of these
14) After sending the DHCPDISCOVER message, the client goes to the ________
state.
A) selecting B) init C) requesting D) none of these
15) In the __________ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to the server.
A) Default B) Character C) Line D) None of these
16) In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.
A) A linear list B) An inverted-tree
C) A graph D) None of these
17) For control connection, FTP uses the ___________ character set.
A) Regular ASCII B) EBCDIC C) NVT ASCII D) None of these
18) In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC and image defined an attribute called __________
A) File type B) Data structure
C) Transmission mode D) None of these
19) When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need
only __________
A) Two MTA B) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
C) Two UAs and a pair of MTAs D) None of these
20) ___________ is more powerful and complex than ___________
A) POP3; IMAP4 B) IMAP4; POP3
C) SMTP; POP3 D) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC259* -3- SLR-PC – 259
Seat
No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (Old) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER NETWORK – II

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any four from the following questions each carries 5 marks.
a) Explain what is DHCP and DHCP packet format and operations of DHCP ?
b) Explain the concept of connection oriented concurrent server.
c) Explain three-way handshaking in TCP connection.

d) Describe DNS Query and DNS response message in detail.
e) Describe following system calls :
a) Bind
b) Accept
c) Listen
d) Connect.
3. Answer any one from the following questions carries 10 marks :
a) What is DHCP ? What is need of it ? Explain concept of DHCP with transition

diagram.
b) Draw TCP segment format. Explain each field in detail.
4. Answer the following question carries 10 marks :
What is congestion window ? Explain all congestion control policies used by TCP.
Set A

SLR-PC – 259 -4- *SLRPC259*
SECTION – II
5. Answer any four from the following questions each carries 5 marks :
a) Explain different OPTIONS provided by TELNET.
b) Explain Out Of Band signaling and escape characters concept of TELNET.
c) List out in detail the 3 steps of FTP file transfer.
d) Describe the following :

A) Label
B) Domain name
C) Domain
D) Zone
E) Root server.
e) Write a note on TFTP.
6. Answer any one from the following questions carries 10 marks :
a) Explain the architecture of e-mail along with neat diagrams of all scenarios.
b) Explain all file systems of windows NT or Windows 2000.
7. Answer the following question carries 10 marks :
Describe Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC26* SLR-PC 26
A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Civil) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question No. 2 to
Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II and
solve any two questions from the remaining.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
6) Question number one is MCQ/objective type question and first
30 minutes of total time are reserved for this. After end of 30 minutes
return the objective question paper cum answer sheet supervisor.

1. Choose correct option. 20

1) The permissible limit of MPN for drinking water per 100 ml is _________
a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000
2) The nature of end point in chloride test is _________
a) Yellow to brick red b) White to yellow
c) Red to yellow d) Blue to green
3) As per Is-1172-1957, per capita demand for domestic purpose is ________ lpcd.
a) 150 b) 135 c) 170 d) 130
4) The equation for Kuichlings formula is given by _________
a) Q = 3000 ÖP b) Q = 3182 ÖP c) Q = 3180 ÖP d) Q = 3181 ÖP
5) ___________ test is used for finding out optimum Alum dose.
a) Char b) Ghar c) Jar d) None of these
6) ___________ law is valid for laminar flow.
a) Newtons b) Stokes c) Reynoldss d) Camps
7) In ___________ settling concentration of particles is less.
a) Type IV b) Type III c) Type II d) Type I
8) Unit of weir loading is ___________
a) Lit/m2/d b) Lit/m2/sec2 c) Lit/m/d d) Lit/d
P.T.O.

9) ___________ is not a coagulant.

a) Alum b) Chlorinated coppers
c) Lime d) Sodium Aluminate
10) In case of flocculator G means ___________
a) Power dissipated b) Specific gravity
c) Velocity gradient d) Viscosity
11) __________ is a safest and reliable method when source of supply is at sufficient elevation.
a) Radial system b) Gravity system
c) Grid iron system d) Dead end system
12) ___________ pipes are more suitable to resist external loads and loads due to backfilling.
a) Concrete pipes b) Steel pipes c) PVC pipes d) GI pipes
13) ___________ is an electrochemical process in pipes.
a) expansion b) corrosion
c) hydrostatic pressure d) friction
14) In pressure supply mains, water hammer pressure is reduced by providing
a) sluice valves b) pressure relief valves
c) none of the these d) air valves
15) Water supply includes distribution of water to consumers and ___________
a) collection, transportation and treatment of water
b) provision of hydrants for fire fighting
c) mains, sub-mains and branch lines of water supply
d) all of above
16) The four major water supply distribution systems, are ___________
a) dead end, tree, grid iron and reticulation
b) dead end, tree, grid iron and circular
c) tree, grid iron, ring and radial
d) tree, reticulation, circular and ring
17) Water losses in water supply, is assumed as ___________
a) Working pressure b) Design pressure
c) Test pressure d) Pipe pressure
18) In distribution pipes, air valves are provided at ___________
a) lower points b) junction points c) higher points d) any where
19) Water losses in water supply, is assumed as
a) 5% b) 7.5% c) 10% d) 15%
20) ___________ is defined as hourly water rate demand which is more during morning and
evening and less during other parts of the day.
a) Mass curve method b) Uniform curve method
c) Hydrograph method d) Equalization method
_____________________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Civil) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question no. 2 to
Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and
solve any two questions from the remaining.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Write a note on Fluctuation in water demand. Also explain factors affecting rate of water
demand. 7
b) Draw a general flow sheet of domestic water treatment plant for a town and explain function
of each and every unit in tabular form. 6
3. a) Explain the following terms with formula associated and their unit
i) SOR 2
ii) Velocity gradient 3
b) A city has population of 50,000 with average rate of demand 170 lpcd. Design slow sand
filter to treat the required flow. 8
4. a) Write detailed note on Filter troubles. 5

b) Draw neat diagrams for : 8
i) Rapid sand filter
ii) Cascade aerator.
5. Write short notes on following :

1) Tube settler 5
2) Fire demand formulae 5
3) Chemistry of chlorination 4
Set A

SECTION II
Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining.
6. a) Explain with neat sketch the dead end system of water distribution. 6
b) Explain any four measures for protection of metal pipes against corrosion. 6
7. a) Explain mass curve method for determination of service reservoir capacity. 8

b) A pipe line 0.8 diameter is 3 km long. To augment the discharge another pipe of same
diameter is introduced parallel to the first in the second half of its length. Find the increase
in discharge taking Darcy-Weisbach friction factor as 0.04 and head at inlet as 40 m. 8
8. a) Give the requirements for good distribution system. 8

b) Explain hardy cross method of analysis of pipe network. 8
9. Write short note (any three) : 12

i) Leak detection
ii) Thrust block design
iii) Economic diameter of water main
iv) Air relief valve.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (I.T.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER ORGANIZATION (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Objectives questions. Each question carry one mark. (20×1=20)

1) The basic unit of information in the IAS computer is
a) 30 bit word b) 40 bit word c) 50 bit word d) None of these
2) The load instruction is mostly used to designate a transfer from memory to a
processor register is known as
a) Instruction register b) Program counter
c) Accumulator d) Memory Address register
3) The PROM is more effective than ROM chips in regard to
a) Cost b) Memory management
c) Speed of operation d) Both a) and c)
4) The difference between the EPROM and ROM circuitory is
a) The usage of MOSFET’s over transistor’s
b) The usage of JFET’s over transistor’s
c) The usage of an entra transistor.
5) The algorithm to remove and place new contents in to the cache is called
a) Replacement algorithm b) Renewal algorithm
c) Updation d) None of these
6) While using the direct mapping technique, in a 16 bit system the higher order 5
bits is used for
a) Tag b) Block c) Word d) Id
7) The associative mapping is costlier than direct mapping.
a) True b) False
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 260 -2- *SLRPC260*
8) Byte addresses can be assigned across words according to lower byte addresses
are used for the more significant bytes of the word called as
a) Little-endian b) Big-endian
c) Neither a) nor b) d) Can’t say
9) Process of converting logical address into linear address known as
a) Page translation b) Segment translation
c) Two address translation d) None of these
10) The computer architecture aimed at reducing the time of execution of instructions is
a) CISC b) RISC c) ISA d) ANNA
11) Any condition that causes a processor to stall is called as
a) Hazard b) Page fault
c) System error d) None of the above
12) The stalling of the processor due to the unavailability of the instruction is called as
a) Control hazard b) Structural hazard
c) Input hazard d) None of the above
13) To increase the speed of memory access on pipelining, we make use of
a) Special memory locations b) Special purpose registers
c) Cache d) Buffers
14) The contention for usage of a hardware device as called as
a) Structural hazard b) Stack
c) Dead lock d) None of these
15) The set associative map technique is a combination of the direct and associative
technique.
a) True b) False
16) The number of failed attempts to access memory, stated in the form of fraction is
called as
a) Hit rate b) Miss rate c) Failure rate d) Delay rate
17) Which memory acts as over flow memory when the capacity of main memory is
exceeded ?
a) Cache memory b) Secondary memory
c) Register d) None
18) Vector computers appears as
a) SISD b) SIMD c) MIMD d) MISD
19) Parallel computers are reserved for
a) SISD b) SIMD c) MISD d) MIMD
20) Consider two instructions i and j with i occurring before j if j tries to read a source
before i writes it, then type of hazard is
a) RAW b) WAW c) WAR d) None
______________
Set A

*SLRPC260* -3- SLR-PC – 260
Seat
No.
T.E. (I.T.) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Attempt any 4 : (4×5=20)
a) Explain different types of instruction formats.
b) What is meant by multiplies control unit ? Explain its design method.
c) Multiply the following using Booth’s Algorithm.
Multiplicand = 7 Multiplies = 3
d) Explain evolution of computers across generations.
e) Explain the concept of segmentation and paging with the help of proper diagram.
3. Attempt any 2 : (10×2=20)
a) Explain 4 bit carry look ahead adder with proper diagram. Also design 16 bit
carry look ahead adder built from 4 bit adders.
b) Explain Non-Restoring Division Techniques algorithm with the help of flowchart.
Solve : 13 ÷ 3 using non restoring division algorithm.
c) What is virtual memory ? Explain its organization in memory and also explain
how address translation is done with the help of neat diagrams.
SECTION – II
4. Attempt any 4 : (4×5=20)
a) What is Cache Coherence ? Give different techniques to achieve it.
b) Explain in short memory interleaving.
c) Write a note on data hazards with example.
d) Explain the concept of loosely coupled system.
e) Explain asynchronous and synchronous models of linear pipelining.
5. Attempt any 2 : (2×10=20)
a) Explain non-linear pipelining in detail.
b) Explain tightly coupled systems with example.
c) Explain how to achieve parallelism using uniprocessor ?
_____________________ Set A

Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Old) (Part I) Examination, 2015

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING

Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Gap between application domain and PL domain is
a) Specification gap b) Semantic gap
c) Execution gap d) All
2) Which of the following is a phrase-structure grammar ?
a) A :: = b)
:: =

c) A :: = Bt | t d)
A
:: =

3) Which table is used to process forward references ?

a) CRT b) SRT c) FRT d) All
4) How many types of bindings are used by LP ?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
5) Compilers are
a) Recursive b) Non-reusable c) Re-enterable d) Serially usable
6) Number of digits used for Opcode in m/c instruction format are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None
7) Regular expressions are used as input for
a) Assembler b) Syntax analysis
c) LEX d) YACC
8) Which of the following is not an advanced assembler directive ?
a) START b) ORIGIN c) EQU d) LTORG
P.T.O.

9) To implement memory allocation ______ is used in analysis phase of assembly
language.
a) DS b) Instruction counter
c) DC d) Location counter
10) Back-patching is used in assemblers to handle Forward references in
a) Pass I b) Pass II c) Both a) and b) d) None
11) Which registers are used as base registers in Intel 8088 ?
a) BP and SI b) BP and SP c) BP and BX d) BX and AX
12) A macro prototype statement declares
a) Name of the macro b) Name and kinds of its parameters
13) __________ instructs the assembler to perform certain actions during the
assembly of a program.
a) Statement format b) Symbolic operands
c) Assembler directive d) Data declaration
14) The register descriptor has the fields
a) Name b) Addressability
c) Address of CPU register d) Both b) and c) e) None
15) An ideal compiler should
a) Detect error b) Detect and repair error
c) Detect, Repair and correct error d) None
16) Symbol table can be used for
a) Checking type compatibility
b) Suppressing duplication of error messages
c) Storage allocation
d) All of these
17) Which among the following is not a major issue in code generation from
expressions ?
a) Determining evaluation order
b) Selection of an instruction
c) Use of registers and handling partial results
18) Which of the IC variant performs the operand processing in Pass II ?
a) Variant I b) Varian II c) Both I and II d) None
19) Problems in single pass assembler are resolved using
a) SRT and ST b) FRT c) CRT
d) All of these e) None of these
20) Error listing and Error reporting in assembler can be done in
a) Pass I b) Pass II c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
______________ Set A

*SLRPC261* -3-
SLR-PC 261
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Old) (Part I) Examination, 2015

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Answer any four of the following briefly : (4×5=20)

a) State and briefly explain the language processing activities.
b) Compare between compilers and interpreters.
c) What are assembly directives ? Give examples.
d) What is a Macro ? What are its requirements ?
e) Give the structure of LEX specification file.
3. With neat flowcharts/algorithms explain the passes in a two pass assembler. 10

OR
What is the necessity of having two passes in an assembler ? Explain the two
passes in detail.
4. Explain four of the following terms with suitable illustrations. 10

i) Macro definition
ii) Macro expansion
iii) Nested Macro calls
iv) Macro calls
v) Assembler directives
vi) LPDTs
Set A

SECTION II
5. Answer any four of the following briefly : (4×5=20)

a) What are the basic aspects of compilation ?
b) What is a Compile and go loading scheme ?
c) What are Overlays ? How are they dealt with ?
d) Compare between loaders and linkers
e) Distinguish between local and global optimization.
6. How is compilation of expressions achieved ? Generate the necessary

intermediate code. 10
OR
What are the basic local optimization techniques used in code optimization ?
Illustrate each technique.
7. Explain the relocation and linking algorithms giving the conditions, inputs and
outputs generated after each step in the algorithm. 10
OR
Explain the steps in program execution with appropriate inputs and outputs at
each step.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (I.T.) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015
OPERATING SYSTEM – I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Multiple choice questions : (1×20=20)

1) The systems which allows only one process execution at a time, are called
a) Uniprogramming systems b) Uniprocessing systems
c) Unitasking systems d) None of these
2) The degree of multi-programming is
a) The number of processes executed per unit time
b) The number of processes in the ready queue
c) The number of processes in the I/O queue
d) The number of processes in memory
3) When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the
execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called
a) Dynamic condition b) Race condition
c) Essential condition d) Critical condition
4) A parent process calling ____________ system call will be suspended until children
processes terminate.
a) wait b) fork c) exit d) exec
5) Inter process communication
a) Allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the
same address space
b) Allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the
same address space
c) Allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
d) None of these
6) The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called
a) Job queue b) Ready queue c) Execution queue d) Process queue
7) With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system
a) Using very large time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm
b) Using very small time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm
c) Using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) Using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First Algorithm
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 262 -2- *SLRPC262*
8) The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is
a) It is too good an algorithm b) Knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) It is too complex to understand d) None of these
9) Aging is
a) Keeping track of cache contents
b) Keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) Keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) Increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
10) Concurrent access to shared data may result in
a) Data consistency b) Data insecurity
c) Data inconsistency d) None of these
11) Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible ?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) A process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) No resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
12) To ___________ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about the
states of processes.
a) Abort the process b) Roll back the process
c) Queue the process d) None of these
13) Binding of instructions and data to memory addresses can be done at
a) Compile time b) Load time c) Execution time d) All of these
14) Which of the following is TRUE ?
a) Overlays are used to increase the size of physical memory
b) Overlays are used to increase the logical address space
c) When overlays are used, the size of a process is not limited to the size of the physical
memory
d) Overlays are used whenever the physical address space is smaller than the logical
address space
15) The ____________ time in a swap out of a running process and swap in of a new process
into the memory is very high.
a) Context-switch b) Waiting c) Execution d) All of these
16) Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called _________
a) Frames b) Pages c) Backing store d) None of these
17) When the valid-invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page
a) Is in the TLB
b) Has data in it
c) Is in the process’s logical address space
d) Is the system’s physical address space
18) In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.35. The required to access a page in secondary
memory is equal to 100 ns. The time required to access a page in primary memory is 10 ns.
The average time required to access a page is
a) 3.0 ns b) 68.0 ns c) 68.5 ns d) 78.5 ns
19) If one or more devices use a common set of wires to communicate with the computer
system, the connection is called __________
a) CPU b) Monitor c) Wire full d) Bus
20) The kernel data structures include
a) Process table b) Open file table c) Close file table d) All of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC262* -3- SLR-PC – 262
Seat
No.
T.E. (I.T.) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015

OPERATING SYSTEM – I

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
a) Explain the structure of client-server computing.
b) Define Process. Explain process state and process control block with figure.
c) State and explain the process scheduling criteria for process scheduling.
d) Explain with example the length of the process next CPU burst algorithm.
e) Explain the dining philosopher problem.
3. What are Monitors ? Explain its usage and implementation of monitor using semaphore. 10
OR
What is thread ? Explain it w.r.t. motivation, benefits and multithreading models.
4. Write short note (any two) : (2×5=10)
1) Message passign system
a) Naming
b) Synchronization.
2) Multilevel feedback queue scheduling.
3) Components of computer system.
Set A

SLR-PC – 262 -4- *SLRPC262*
SECTION – II
a) Explain the resource allocation graph.
b) Explain the address binding with multistep processing of a user program.
c) Explain with figure the steps in handling a page faults.
d) Explain with example the second chance and enhanced second chance algorithm.
e) Explain with figure the steps in a DMA transfer.
6. State and explain the entire application I/O interface. 10
OR
Explain with example the algorithm of allocation of frames.
7. Write short note (any two ) : (2×5=10)
1) Dynamic loading, linking and shared libraries.
2) Deadlock detection and prevention.
3) Memory protection and shared pages.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015
DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative(s) : 20

1) Which of the following statement is False ?
a) n! = O(nn) b) 10n2 + 9 = O(n)
c) n2+logn = O(n2) d) n2/log n =O(n2)
2) Best case complexity for successful search in Binary search is
a) θ (1) b) θ (nlogn) c) θ (n) d) O (logn)
3) O (n) means computing time is
a) Linear b) Constant c) Quadratic d) Exponential
4) Dijkstra’s algorithm uses _____________ method.
a) Divide and conquer b) Greedy method
c) Dynamic Programming d) Backtracking
5) In job sequencing with deadlines problem, if n = 3, (p1, p2, p3) = (10, 100, 15) and
(d1, d2, d3) = (1, 1, 1), then maximum profit will be __________ ?
a) 100 b) 110 c) 125 d) 10
6) Which of the following graph with 4 vertices is not spanning tree ?
a) b) c) d)
7) In binary tree, a node at level i at a distance of ______________ from root node.

a) i b) i – 1 c) i + 1 d) i – 2
8) Sequential search requires array in _____________ order.
a) increasing b) decreasing c) random d) any one of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 263 -2- *SLRPC263*
9) Example of O (n2) algorithm is (are)
a) Initializing all elements in 2- dimensional array
b) Printing all elements in 2-dimensional array
c) Sorting array which is in decreasing order using quick sort
d) All of the above
10) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
a) Greedy method uses principle of optimality
b) Greedy method has forward approach
c) Greedy method generates only one sequence of decision
d) Knapsack problem can be solved using greedy method
11) Which of the following technique is used in finding all pairs shortest path ?
a) Dynamic programming b) Backtracking
c) Greedy Technique d) none
12) Which one of the following does not hold principal of optimality ?
a) Knapsack problem b) Shortest path
c) Multistage graphs d) Longest path
13) A ____________ schedule is a schedule in which the processing of a task on any processor
is not terminated untill the task is complete.
a) nonpreemptive schedule b) preemptive
c) both a and b d) flow shop
14) _______________ to use dynamic programming to solve a problem with multiplicative
optimization function.
a) Flow shop b) Optimal binary search trees
c) Reliability design d) Multistage graphs
15) IN BFS of graph, which of the following data structure is used ?
a) stack b) queue c) linked list d) none
16) The root node of a depth first search spanning tree is an articulation point.
a) two b) one c) three d) four
17) Identify the correct statements about DFS traversal.
i) It can be used to determine whether a graph is a cyclic or not
ii) It identify the connected components of an undirected graph
iii) Traverses a single path of the graph until it visits a node with no successor
a) i and iii b) ii and iii c) i and ii d) i, ii and iii
18) The name backtrack was first coined by __________ in the year 1950.
a) L.Baumert b) R.J.Walker c) S.Golomb d) D.H.Lehmer
19) A graph is said to be __________ iff it can be drawn in a place in such way that no two
edges cross each other.
a) Direct b) colored c) planar d) cross
20) Any problem we solve using backtracking satisfy a constraint.
a) implicit b) explicit c) both a and b d) either a or b
______________
Set A

*SLRPC263* -3- SLR-PC – 263
Seat
No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicate marks to a question.
SECTION – I

1) Show that n3 + 106 n2 = θ (n3).
2) Write a short note on recursive algorithms.
3) Draw tree of recursive calls of Maxmin for finding maximum and minimum from given
array.
10, 5, 15, 7, 6, 18, 3, 12, 1
4) Compare binary search and sequential search w.r.t. best, worst and average case
complexity.
5) Obtain minimum cost spanning tree using Prim’s algorithm.
6) Obtain maximum profit in Knapsack problem with m = 100 n = 5 weights = (10, 20, 30, 40, 50)
and profits = (20, 30, 66, 40, 60) using greedy method.

1) Find 3rd smallest element from the given array using selection algorithm. Show stepwise
results.
65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 60, 65, 55, 50, 45.
2) Write pseudocode conventions for writing algorithm. Write a recursive and non-recursive
algorithm to get sum of n numbers.
4. Obtain a set of optimal Huffman codes for the messages M1, ..., M8 with relative
frequencies (q1, ..., q8) = (1, 1, 2, 2, 4, 4, 4, 4). Draw the decode tree. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 263 -4- *SLRPC263*
SECTION – II

a) Write an algorithm for all pair shortest paths.
b) Write a short note on Reliability design.
c) Find BFS spanning tree and DFS spanning tree of following.
d) Explain AND/OR graph with example.

e) Write an algorithm for recursive backtracking for sum of subsets problem.
f) Explain graph coloring with example.
a) Solve below problem by multistage graph method and find minimum cost from
s to t. 10
b) Explain 8-queen problem with example. 10

OR
c) Explain backtracking solution for Knapsack problem.
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
N o .
Set
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015
NETWORK MANAGEMENT (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
4) Figure must be drawn wherever necessary.
1. Solve Multiple Choice Questions : (20×1=20)
1) Which of the following services use TCP ?
1) DHCP 2) SMTP 3) HTTP
4) TFTP 5) FTP
a) 1 and 2 b) 2, 3 and 5 c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4
2) What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model ?
a) Application b) Host-to-Host c) Internet d) Network Access
3) Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message ?
1) It uses FF : FF : FF : FF : FF : FF as a layer 2 broadcast
2) It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol
3) It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol
4) It does not use a layer 2 destination address
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 3 and 4 d) None of the above
4) Which of the following services use UDP ?
1) DHCP 2) SMTP 3) SNMP
4) FTP 5) HTTP 6) TFTP
a) 1, 3 and 6 b) 2 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 4 d) All of the above
5) All telnet operations are sent as
a) 4 bytes b) 8 bytes c) 16 bytes d) 32 bytes
6) In telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole
line is completed in
a) default mode b) character mode
c) server mode d) none of the mentioned
7) The default connection type used by HTTP is
a) Persistent b) Non-persistent
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the mentioned
P.T.O.

8) The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is
called
a) STT b) RTT c) PTT d) None of these
9) FTP uses ____________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
10) Identify the incorrect statement
a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
11) The commands, from client to server and replies, from server to client, are sent across
the control connection in _____________ bit ASCII format.
a) 8 b) 7 c) 3 d) 5
12) DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) provides _____________ to the client.
a) IP address b) MAC address c) url d) None of these
13) The DHCP server
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
14) DHCP uses UDP port _____________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66 b) 67 c) 68 d) 69
15) What is DHCP snooping ?
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of these
16) If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ___________
can access the network.
a) MAC address b) IP address c) Both a) and b) d) none of these
17) Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in
a) Persistent HTTP b) Nonpersistent HTTP
18) HTTP client requests by establishing a ______________ connection to a particular port
on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) broader gateway protocol
d) none of these
19) FTP server listens for connection on port number
a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23
20) In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in
a) stream mode b) block mode
c) compressed mode d) all of these
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015

NETWORK MANAGEMENT (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
4) Figure must be drawn wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any five : (5×4=20)

a) Explain with figure HTTP transmission, messages, request and status line ?
b) What is MIME ? Explain with example MIME header ?
c) Explain the connections in FTP.
d) Explain the option negotiation in TELNET.
e) Explain with example distribution of name space.
f) Explain the stream delivery service of TCP.
3. Explain with example all the categories of web documents. 10

OR
What is TFTP ? Explain the types of messages with example.
4. Write any two : (2×5=10)

a) Out of band signaling and escape character.
b) TCP timers
c) Checksum in UDP.
SECTION II
5. Attempt any five : (5×4=20)

a) What is the role of NMS in managed network LAN network, explain.
b) Draw and explain the SNMP organization model.
c) Explain the administrative model with SNMP community and SNMP community profile.
d) What is lexicographic ordering in NMA explain with example.
e) What is fault management ? Explain all the steps of fault management.
f) Explain with figure basic rule based reasoning paradigm.
Set A

6. What is SMI ? Explain all the data types of its object type. 10
OR
Explain the following w.r.t. configuration management.
a) Network Provisioning
b) Inventory Management
c) Network Topology.

a) Draw and explain SNMP management architecture.
b) Explain with figure encapsulated SNMP message with Get and Set type of PDUs.
c) State and explain all the parameters of IP group.
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (New) (Part I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.

1. Select the correct alternative : (1×20=20)

1) ICs replaced the discrete transistors in which generation ?
A) First generation B) Second generation
C) Third generation D) Fourth generation
2) The computer structure that contain many processors with shared memory
space and peripherals under one operating system is called as
A) Multiprocessor B) Uniprocessor
C) Processor D) Parallel processor
3) If hazard arises from resource conflicts then it is called
A) Control B) Data C) Structural D) None
4) Booth algorithm is a powerful algorithm for
A) Floating point numbers only B) Signed numbers
C) Unsigned numbers D) Fixed point unsigned numbers
5) Which part of cache store memory words ?
A) Tag memory B) Data memory C) Block memory D) None
6) How a item is stored in associative memory ?
A) Data, Key B) Key, Address C) Address, Data D) Key, Data
7) When a single instruction is required by the CPU, it is efficient to transfer a
block of consecutive words ? This is called
A) Segment B) Virtual Address Space
C) Page D) Page Frame
P.T.O.

8) The fundamental conceptual unit in a computer is
A) CPU B) Hard Drive
C) Operating System D) Transistor
9) Twos complement notation is frequently used for internal representation of
A) Fractions B) Integers
C) True and False values D) Floating point numbers
10) Floating point representation is used to store
A) Boolean values B) Whole numbers
C) Real numbers D) Integers
11) Binary numbers can be used to represent
A) Integers only B) Fractions only
C) Both fractions and integers D) None of these
12) The sequence counter method of multiplier control unit uses
A) EX-OR gate B) Modulo K-Counters
C) NOR gate D) NAN
13) Cache memory works on the principle of
A) Locality of data B) Locality of memory
C) Locality of reference D) Locality of reference and memory
14) Structural Hazard can be avoided by
A) Loop Unrolling B) Caesar cipher
C) Duplication of resources D) Sequential Execution
15) Register renaming is a method to resolve
A) RAW B) WAW C) RAR D) None
16) The amount of ILP in a program code depends on
A) Data dependence B) Control dependence
C) Name dependence D) All of the above
17) Tomasulo scheme operates on
A) Renaming B) Reservation stations
C) Common data bus D) All of the above
18) COMA model is a type of
A) Shared main memory B) Shared secondary memory
C) Shared cache D) None of these
19) Data hazard is overcome by
A) Branch Prediction B) Control Hazard
C) Forwarding D) Pipelining
20) Branch Prediction buffer stores
A) Instruction address B) Target address
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None
Set A
______________

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (New) (Part I) Examination, 2015

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I

1) Explain the levels of computer in brief.
2) Describe the 3rd generation of computer.
3) List the concept of upward compatability in detail.

4) Explain carry look ahead adder in brief.
5) What is system bus model ? Explain.
3. Explain Booths Algorithm and multiply 5 (multiplicand) and 4 (multiplier). (1×10=10)

OR
Explain the concept of restoring and non restoring division with example.
4. Write an ARC program to add five integer numbers. (1×10=10)
OR
Explain Hardwired control unit using sequence counter method.
Set A

SECTION II

1) What are the trends in power in integrated circuits ?
2) Explain linear and non linear pipeline in brief.
3) What is structural hazard ? Explain.
4) Explain basic instruction level parallelism concepts.
5) Explain dynamic branch prediction.
6. Explain basic pipeline scheduling and loop unrolling. (1×10=10)

OR
Explain branch prediction and branch prediction buffers.
7. Explain advanced techniques for instruction delivery and speculation. (1×10=10)

OR
Explain basic schemes of enforcing cache coherence.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
SYSTEM SOFTWARE (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

one mark.

1. Write the correct answer from the options given below (objective) : 20
1) _____________ is the first phase of analyzer.
a) Parser b) Lexical analyzer
c) Symbol table d) None
2) Issues in lexical analysis
a) Code optimization b) Compiler portability and efficiency
c) Both d) None
3) “Less than 3” is
a) Literal token b) Num token c) Relation token d) None
4) Deleting extra character and transposing two adjustment characters
actions are
a) buffer pairing b) error recovery
c) sentinels d) none
5) A ___________ derivation in reverse can be obtained by handle pruning.
a) Leftmost b) Rightmost c) Both d) None
6) A ___________ translates a program into the target program.
a) Processor b) Interpreter c) Compiler d) None
7) A specification of source language component.
a) Lexical rules b) Syntax rules
c) Semantics rules d) All above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 266 -2- *SLRPC266*
8) Issues in lexical analysis
a) Simple design b) Compiler portability
c) Compiler efficiency d) All above
9) Two pass Assembler phase two input contains
a) OPTAB AND POOLTAB b) SYMTAB AND LITTAB
c) Both d) Mnemonics
10) Model statement in macro used during
a) Macro expansion b) Definition
c) Call d) None
11) While ____________ a program P a translator is given an origin specification
for P is called the translated origin.
a) Compiling b) Loading c) Linking d) None
12) In assembly program the programmer can specify the origin is a _________
statement.
a) ORIGIN b) START c) Both d) None
13) Loading come in picture at
a) Compile time b) Translation time
c) Execution d) None
14) Allocation, linking and relocation are functions of
a) Linker b) Loader c) Both d) None
15) BSS scheme used in ____________ is
a) General loader b) Absolute loader
c) Relocating loader d) None
16) A symbol ____________ defined in a program unit which may be referenced
in other program units.
a) External reference b) Public definition
c) Both d) None
17) ____________ is the process of transforming a piece of code to make more
efficient (either in terms of time or space) without changing its output or side-
effects.
a) Optimization b) Linking c) Aliasing d) None
18) ____________ must preserve the semantic equivalence of the programs and
the algorithm should not be modified.
19) ____________ is Assignment of the form f:=g are Statements Here, we use f
for g wherever possible.
20) ____________ are portion of the program which will not be executed in any
path of the program.
______________
Set A

*SLRPC266* -3- SLR-PC – 266
Seat
No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

SYSTEM SOFTWARE (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instruction : Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any two of the following : 14
a) What are the language processor tools ?
b) Explain specification and execution gap with proper example.
c) What is back end of toy compiler ?
a) Explain the role of parser.
b) Compare LR, SLR and LALR.
c) Explain the role of finite automata implications.
4. Write short notes : 12
a) Design of two pass assembler.
b) Macro calls and expansion.
Set A

SLR-PC – 266 -4- *SLRPC266*
SECTION – II
a) Discuss what are the issues in design of a code generator.
b) What is concept of peephole optimization and basic block ?
c) Explain symbolic debugging of optimized code.
a) Explain function of loader.
b) Explain absolute loader.
c) Compare general loader and relocating loader.
7. Write short notes : 12
a) Relocation and linking.
b) A linker for MS DOS.
_____________________
Set A

*SLRPC267* SLR- PC – 267
Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Information Technology) Part – I Examination, 2015
PRINCIPLES OF OPERATING SYSTEM (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct answer : (20×1= 20)

1) Spooling introduces the
A) Resource technology B) Memory technology
C) Disk technology D) Job technology
2) Which of the following is the drawback of the one to one model ?
A) increased concurrency provided by this model
B) decreased concurrency provided by this model
C) creating so many threads at once can crash the system
D) creating a user thread requires creating the corresponding kernel thread
3) The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called
A) job queue B) ready queue C) execution queue D) process queue
4) Response time is
A) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
B) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
C) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
D) none of these
A) Starvation B) Wait queue C) Ready queue D) Aging
6) The degree of Multiprogramming is controlled by
A) CPU Scheduler B) Context Switching
C) Long-term Scheduler D) Medium term Scheduler
7) A monitor is a module that encapsulates
A) shared data structures
B) procedures that operate on shared data structure
C) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
D) all of the mentioned
8) Semaphore can be used for solving
A) Wait and signal B) Deadlock C) Synchronization D) Priority
P.T.O.

SLR- PC – 267 -2- SLRPC267*
9) The request and release of resources are

A) command line statements B) interrupts
C) system calls D) special programs
10) Deadlock prevention is a set of methods
A) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
B) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
C) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
D) to recover from a deadlock
11) Given a priori information about the _________________ number of resources of each
type that may be requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that
ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.
A) minimum B) average C) maximum D) approximate
12) A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the ________________, to ensure
that a circular wait condition can never exist.
A) resource allocation state B) system storage state
C) operating system D) resources
13) A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the CPU utilization to
A) increase B) drop C) stay still D) none of these
14) If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph
A) then the system will not be in a safe state
B) then the system will be in a safe state
C) either A or B
D) none of these
15) What hole will allocates in “Worst-Fit” algorithm of memory management ?
A) It allocates the smaller hole than required memory hole
B) It allocates the smallest hole from the available memory holes
C) It allocates the largest hole from the available memory holes
D) It allocates the exact same size memory hole
16) Memory Compaction means
A) Combine multiple equal memory holes into one big hole
B) Combine multiple small memory holes into one big hole
C) Divide big memory hole into small hole
D) Divide memory hole by 2
17) The page table contains
A) base address of each page in physical memory
B) page offset
C) page size
D) none of the mentioned
18) Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by
A) Memory management unit B) CPU
C) PCI D) None of the mentioned
19) The interrupt vector contains
A) the interrupts
B) the memory addresses of specialized interrupt handlers
C) the identifiers of interrupts
D) the device addresses
20) In polling
A) busy– wait cycles wait for I/O from device
B) interrupt handler receives interrupts
C) interrupt-request line is triggered by I/O device
D) all of the these
______________ Set A

SLRPC267* -3- SLR- PC – 267
Seat
No.
T.E. (Information Technology) Part – I Examination, 2015

PRINCIPLES OF OPERATING SYSTEM (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 8-5- 2015 Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any four of the following : (4×5=20)
1) Define the difference between preemptive and nonpreemptive scheduling. State why strict
nonpreemptive scheduling is unlikely to be used in a computer center.
2) Define the following terms : Scheduler, Throughput, Turnaround time, Waiting time,
Response time.
3) Write and explain requirements need to be satisfied by a solution to the critical-section

problem.
4) Write a short note on Time shared operating system.
5) Explain semaphores with example and state its usage.
3. Answer any one of the following : (1×10=10)
1) Describe the differences between symmetric and asymmetric multiprocessing. What are
three advantages and one disadvantage of multiprocessor systems ?
2) Explain any two classical problems of synchronization in detail.
1) Explain different multithreading models with its disadvantages and example in detail.
2) Explain algorithm for mutual exclusion implementation using ‘Test And Test’ instruction.
Set A

SLR- PC – 267 -4- SLRPC267*
SECTION – II
1) What is deadlock ? Explain necessary conditions for deadlock.

2) Explain services provided by the kernel’s I/O subsystem.
3) Explain Optimal Page Replacement algorithm.
4) Explain Swapping of two processes using a disk as a backing store.
5) Explain multistep processing of a user program with diagram.

1) Explain in detail deadlock prevention with examples.
2) What are logical and physical addresses ? Explain swapping in memory management.
7. What is page replacement ? Explain any one page replacement algorithm with example. 10
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
3) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
1. Choose the correct alternative for the following : 20

1) The process which shows that an algorithm computes the correct answer for all possible
legal inputs is
a) program verification b) algorithm verification
c) algorithm validation d) none of the above
2) The time factor when determining the efficiency of an algorithm is measured by
a) counting microseconds
b) counting the number of key operations
c) counting the number of statements
d) counting the kilobytes of algorithms
3) Algorithm must have _________ number of output.
a) zero b) at least one
c) exactly one d) none of the above
4) What is the solution to the recurrence T(n) = T(n/2)+k ?
a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(nlogn) d) O(n2)
5) f(n) = (g(n)) iff
a) f(n) > = c*g(n) b) f(n) = c*g(n) c) f(n) > = n*g(n) d) none of the above
6) Which of the following is incorrect ?
a) O(log n) is better than O(n) b) O(n log n) is better than O(n2)
2
c) O(n ) is better than O(n )3 d) O(2n) is better than O(n3)
7) Partition exchange sort is also called as
a) Bubble sort b) Heap sort
c) Quick sort d) None of the above
8) Using greedy method, an object i is placed into the knapsack, the value of solution vector xi is
a) 0 or 1 b) 0 < = xi < = 1 c) 0 and 1 d) none
P.T.O.

9) Job sequencing with deadline is an example of _______ of greedy method.
a) subset paradigm b) ordering paradigm
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
10) Following is NOT true with spanning tree
a) spanning tree is minimal subgraph
b) it is connected
c) number of edges are n 1, if graph has n vertices
d) it is directed
11) Important feature of the _______ approach is that optimal solution to subproblem.
a) dynamic programming b) greedy method
c) backtracking d) branch and bound
12) Which of the following algorithms CANNOT be said to employ elements of dynamic
programming ?
a) Bellman-Ford Algorithm b) Dijkstras Shortest Path
c) Floyd Warshall Algorithm d) Bubble Sort Algorithm
13) Let T(n) and S(n) respectively represent time and space needed by anyone of the
traversal algorithm. The input tree has n > = 0 nodes. If the time and space need to visit
a nodes are (1), then T(n) and S(n) = ?

a) O(n) b) 0(1) c)
(1) d) Cant say
14) When the search necessarily involves the examination of every vertex in the object being
searched is called
a) searching b) ordering c) traversal d) routing
15) Two bi-connected component can have atmost one vertex common and this vertex is
a) Root b) Child c) Articulation point d) Dead node
16) A is a generated node which is not to be expanded further or all of whose children have
been generated
a) Dead node b) Live node c) E-node d) Child node
17) E-nodes are
a) The extreme nodes
b) The live node whose children are currently being generated
c) Enable node
d) All of above
18) Depth first node generation with bounding function is
a) Dynamic programming b) Branch and bound
c) Backtracking d) Greedy method
19) ________ state is/are those problem state s for which path from which root to s defines
tuple in solution space.
a) Static b) Dynamic c) Answer d) Solution
20) The problem triple 2 coloring (deciding if the vertices of a graph G can be partitioned into
three sets S, T, V, such that the induced subgraphs Gs, GT and Gv are each colorable by
two colors) is
a) NP-Complete b) Solvable in polynomial time
c) NP-Hard d) None of the above
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I

1) What is spanning tree ? What are the applications of spanning tree ?
2) Write and explain a control abstraction for Divide and conquer method.
3) Explain time and space complexity with example.
4) Define algorithm. State different criteria for algorithm.
5) Write an iterative algorithm for binary search.
6) Write a note on optimal storage on tapes.

a) Write and explain Prims algorithm for determining the MST. Show step-by-step procedure
for deriving the MST using algorithm on the below graph.
b) Write an algorithm for quick sort. Show the steps of function partition (a, 1, 10) where
a[1 : 10) = {65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 60, 55, 50, 45,
}
4. Find the optimal solution to the knapsack problem with greedy method for 10
N = 7, m = 15, P = (P1, P2, . . . P7) = (10, 5, 15, 7, 6, 18, 3)
W = (W1, W2, . . . W7) = (2, 3, 5, 7, 1, 4, 1)
Set A

SECTION II

a) Find all pair shortest path using Dynamic programming for the following diagraph.
b) Solve the following knapsack problem using Dynamic programming where

(W1, W2, W3) = (2, 3, 4) (P1, P2, P3) = (1, 2, 4) by generating set Si for m = 6.
c) Explain the following terms with suitable example :
1) DFN 2) Spanning tree 3) E-node
d) Write a short note on Flow shop scheduling.
e) Draw permutation tree organization for 4-queen problem using DFS.
f) Explain Tractable and Intractable problems.
6. Solve the travelling salesperson (*) using reduced matrix. 10
!

# $ "
Given cost matrix =

! # "

' $ & !

$ " % $

OR
Find the minimum cost path from s to t in the following multistage graph.
7. Given a set of identifiers (a1, a2, a3, a4) and (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (1/10, 2/10,3/10,1/10) (q0, q1,
q2, q3, q4) = (0, 1/10, 1/20, 1/20, 1/10). Compute c, r and w. Also construct an optimal binary
tree. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015
ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT – I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1. Choose the correct alternative :

1) Materials in material management consist of
a) Purchased material b) Work in progress materials
c) Finished goods d) All of these
2) The cost of keeping items in inventory is called
a) Setup cost b) Holding cost
c) Finished goods d) None of these
3) If primal is maximize 40X1 + 35X2, subjected to 2X1 + 3X2 ≤ 60 and 4X1 + 3X2 ≤ 96,
X1, X2 ≥ 0 the dual will have objective function as
a) 3y1 + 3y2 (minimize) b) 60y1 + 96y2 (minimize)
c) 3y1 – 3y2 (maximize) d) 60y1 – 96y2 (minimize)
4) Hungerian Trial and error method is suitable for solving
a) Transportation problem b) Games Theory
c) Assignment problem d) Simplex Method
5) EOQ decreases when the cost of item
a) Increases b) Zero c) Decreases d) None of these
6) Store keeper is not responsible for
a) Coding b) Recording c) Accounting d) Security
7) An LPP is said to be ________ if has no solution that satisfies all the constraints.
a) Feasible b) Infeasible c) Bounded d) None of these
8) Transportation problem can be solved if
a) No. of rows = no. of columns b) No. of rows < no. of columns
c) No. of rows – no. of columns d) All of these
P.T.O.

9) EOQ model helps to find
a) Optimum size of order b) Both of these
c) Time interval between order d) None of these
10) Moderate inventory control is sufficient for
a) A class items b) B class items c) C class items d) All of these
11) Motile Carlo simulation method is suitable for
a) Transportation problem b) Queuing problem
c) Assignment problem d) None of these
12) In decision tree problems the event mode is shown by
a) circle b) triangle c) rectangle d) square
13) In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity is
a) Average level of inventory
b) Optimum lot size
c) Capacity of a warehouse
d) Lost size corresponding to break-even analysis
14) Queuing theory is
a) Maximization process b) Minimization process
c) Optimization process d) Descriptive process
15) Most popular barcode reader used in conveyor system is
a) Wand type reader b) Gun type reader
c) Fixed scanners d) None of these
16) Acceptance quality level for inspection in stored normally range between
a) 0.5 – 3% b) 50 – 100% c) 0 – 0.5% d) 20 – 50%
17) Marketing channels means
a) Intermediaries for distribution b) Television channels
c) Customers d) Intermediaries for advertise
18) The process by which firm approaches customers on one to one basis is called
a) Conventional marketing b) Mass marketing
c) Direct marketing d) None of these
19) The biological process of mutation has inspired
a) Artificial Neural Network b) Fuzzy number
c) Genetic algorithm d) Dynamic Programming
20) Maximization problem in LPP will involve
a) Slack variable b) Surplus variable
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of these
______________
Set A

Seat
No.
T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2015

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT – I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any two of Q.3 to Q.5.
2. a) Explain Principles of Scientific approach. 9

b) What are types of organizations ? Explain each in short. 5
3. a) Explain the communication process. 5

b) Explain the process of ABC analysis. 8
4. a) Derive the formula for EOQ. 8

b) What are the methods of sales promotion ? 5
5. a) Explain purchasing principles in store management. 8

b) What is meant by consumer market ? 5
SECTION – II
Q. No. 6 is compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q.7 to Q.9.
6. a) Solve the following LPP using Simplex method. 9
Max Z = 6A + 3B
s.t. 2A + B < 8
3A + 3B ≤ 18
B ≤ 3
A, B ≥ 0
Set A

b) Determine IBFS of the following transportation model using Least cost method. 5
Supply
19 30 50 10 7
70 30 40 60 9
40 08 70 20 18
Demand 5 8 7 14
7. a) Determine the decision under Maximax and Maximin criteria for the following
decision process. 8
State of nature (product demand) Thousand Rs.

Alternative
High Moderate Low Nil
50 25 −25 −45
70 30 40 −80
30 15 01 −10
b) Find the value of the game 5
B's strategy
b1 b2
a1 8 −7
A's strategy
a2 −6 4
8. a) Write short note on :

1) Fuzzy Logic 4
2) Dynamic Programming 4
b) Find the duel of 5

Min Z = 6A + 3B
s.t. C + 6A – 3B ≥ 2
– 4B – C – 3A ≤ – 5
A, B, C ≥ 0
9. a) Explain in short about characteristics of waiting line theory. 8

b) What is assignment model ? Discuss. 5
_____________________
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015

DATA BASE ENGINEERING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Wherever necessary support your answers with neat figures or block
diagrams.
2) Solve any three full questions from Section-I and Section-II.

1. 1) A person who has such central control over the system is called a ____________
A) Database administrator B) Administrator
C) Database user D) None of the above
2) The output of the DDL is placed in the data dictionary which contains ________
A) Data B) Metadata
C) Both A) and B) D) None of these
3) A ___________ is a collection of interrelated data and a set of programs to access those
data.
A) Database B) Database Management System
C) Data Definition Language D) Data Manipulation Language
4) The tuple relational calculus is ____________
A) Procedural Language B) Non-Procedural Language
C) Both A) and B) D) None of these
5) An attribute name is following type of attribute
A) Composite B) Derived C) Multivalued D) Simple
6) Following is not an Abstraction level for data
A) Physical level B) Logical level C) Relation level D) View level
7) In E-R diagrams rectangles represent
A) Relationship sets B) Weak Entity sets
C) Strong entity sets D) Entity sets
8) An attribute of a functional dependency is said to be ___________ if we can remove it
without changing the closure of the set of functional dependencies.
A) Atomic B) Trivial C) Extraneous D) None of these
P.T.O.

9) If the domains of all attributes of R are atomic, then we can say that a relation schema R
is in ____________
A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) Both A) and B)
10) SQL stands for
A) Sequential Query Language B) Structured Queing Language
C) Structured Query Language D) Simple Query Language
11) The non-clustering indices are also called as
A) Secondary indices B) Primary indices
C) Hash indices D) None of these
12) _____________ restores the value of all data items updated by transaction Ti to the old
value.
A) Redo (Ti) B) Undo (Ti)
C) Write (Ti) D) None of the above
13) If a transaction Ti has obtained an exclusive mode lock on item Q, then ___________
A) Ti can write but cannot read Q B) Ti can read but cannot write Q
C) Ti can both read and write Q D) Ti cannot read and write Q
14) A transaction in growing phase ______________
A) May obtain an release locks
B) May release locks, but may not obtain any new locks
C) May obtain locks, but may not release any lock
D) May not obtain and release locks
15) A unit of program execution that accesses and possibly updates various data items is
known as ______________
A) Expression B) Query C) Statement D) Transaction
16) A single transaction failure leads to a series of transaction rollbacks is called ____________
A) Cascading rollback B) Cascadeless rollback
C) Cascading schedule D) Cascadeless schedule
17) Conversion from shared mode to exclusive mode is called as _____________
A) Downgrade B) Upgrade
C) Growing phase D) Shrinking phase
18) A transaction that does not complete its execution successfully is termed as ____________
A) Rolled back B) Aborted C) Committed D) Compensating
19) Atomicity of database system is ensured by ______________
A) Transaction-management component
B) Recovery-management component
C) Concurrency control component
D) None of these
20) Indices based on a sorted ordering of values are known as
A) Ordered indices B) Hash indices
C) Ordered Hash indices D) None of these
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015

DATA BASE ENGINEERING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Wherever necessary support your answers with neat figures or block
diagrams.
2) Solve any three full questions from Section-I and Section-II.
SECTION I

A) Explain the concept of loss less decomposition.
B) List and explain functions of database administrator.
C) Write a short note on : specialization and generalization.
D) Explain concept of keys with type of and examples.
E) Explain levels of data abstraction.
3. Explain fundamental Relational-Algebra operations with examples. 10

OR
Consider the following schema
employee (e-name, street, city)
Works (e-name, company-name, salary)
Company (company-name, city)
Manager (e-name, manager-name)
Write relational algebra expressions for following :
1) Find names and city of all employees who work for small bank corporation.
2) Find names of all managers who do not work for FBC and salary greater than
Rs. 10,000/-
3) Write SQL expression for following :
Give all employees of FBC a 5% raise in salary for salary less than Rs. 1,00,000/-
4) Delete all tuples in manager who live in city Brooklyn and street ABC.
4. Explain in details the reduction of E-R schema to the relational schema. 10

Set A

SECTION II
A) Compare ordered indexing and hasting.
B) What is transaction ? Explain transaction state.
C) Write a short note on dense and sparse indices with example.
D) Discuss ACID properties.
E) Write a short note on : Failure classification.
6. Discuss Validation-based protocol. 10
OR
Discuss Timestamp-based protocol.
7. Explain in detail Log-based recovery. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (IT) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.
1. Choose the correct alternative 20
1) Lexical analyzer generates
a) Tokens b) Patterns
c) Lexeme d) Regular expression
2) Fail() function in the implementation of transition diagram
a) Backtracks to the beginning of the tokens
b) Fails the lexical analysis
c) Stops lexical analysis
d) Undo the stop state
3) Which of the following is the left-recursive grammar ?
a) E – > E + E b) E – > F + E c) E – > F + F d) All
4) Which of the following is not allowed in FIRST & FOLLOW rules ?
a) FIRST ( α ) b) FOLLOW (A) c) FIRST (a) d) FOLLOW (a)
5) Which of the following represent semantic rules ?
a) Syntax directed definition b) Translation scheme
c) Boths d) None
6) In which storage allocation strategy size is required at compile time ?
a) Static b) Dynamic c) Stack d) Heap
7) Which of the following is not used in machine code generation for the target
program ?
a) ACTION b) GOTO c) HALT d) RETURN
8) Which of the following conflicts cannot arise in LR parsing ?
a) Shift-reduce b) Reduce-reduce
c) Shift-shift d) All
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 271 -2- *SLRPC271*
9) An inherited attribute is the
a) Attribute at the parent and/or siblings of that node
b) Attribute at the children nodes only
c) Attributes of the left siblings only
d) Attributes of the right siblings only
10) A pictorial representation of the value computed by each statement in the
basic block is
a) Tree b) Graph c) DAG d) Syntax tree
11) Which of the following is not a loop optimization ?
a) Induction variable elimination b) Loop unrolling
c) Loop jamming d) None
12) Quadruple for the statement t1 = a + b is
a) a, +, b, t1 b) +, a, b, t1 c) t1, +, a, b d) a, b, +, t1
13) Which of the following information is not required in code generation ?
a) Flow graphs b) Next-use info
c) Register descriptor d) Parameter descriptor
14) The Three-Address-Code for the statement p = q + r by IC generator is
a) t1 = q + r and p = t1 b) p = q + r
c) t1 = q + r and t2 = p d) All
15) A dangling reference is a pointer pointing to
a) storage which is freed b) nothing
c) storage which is still in use d) un-initialized storage
16) A variable is live if it cannot used subsequently. (State true /false)
17) Dominators are used in flow graphs. (State true/false)
18) Backpatching is the mechanism of subsequent filling of lables. (State true/
false)
19) In DFA no state has on C-transition. (State true/false)
20) ‘?’ is the notational convention for 0 or more instances in the regular expression.
(State true/false)
______________
Set A

*SLRPC271* -3- SLR-PC – 271
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Write short notes. (Attempt any 4) : 20
a) Back end of a compiler
b) Compiler construction tools
c) Sentinels
d) Conversion of regular expression in to CFG. Convert the regular expression
(a|b)* baa (a|b)* in to CFG with the steps.
e) Synthesized attributes.
Elaborate the steps for FIRST & FOLLOW rules. Explain its requirements and
find the FIRST & FOLLOW for the grammar
E – > T E′
E′ – > + T E′ | ε
T′ – > F T′
T′ – > *F T′ | ε
F – > (E) | id
OR
What is SDD ? Explain SDD for constructing syntax trees using mkleaf () and
mknode () functions. Give example.
4. Elaborate the model of an LR parser with LR parsing algorithm. 10
Set A

SLR-PC – 271 -4- *SLRPC271*
SECTION – II
5. Write short notes. (Attempt any 4) : 20
a) Control stack
b) Static allocation strategy
c) Structure preserving transformation
d) Covert the following in to three address code
if a < b then c = a * d + c
else c = a – d + c
e) Register allocation.
Elaborate the dynamic storage allocation techniques with the diagram.

OR
Brief out register descriptor and address descriptor. Write the code sequence for
the statements
d : = ( a – b) + (a – c) + (a – c)
using register descriptor and address descriptor.
7. What is optimization ? Explain peephole optimization. 10
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
N o .
Set
T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
OPERATING SYSTEM II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.


1) Race condition for free buffer occurs in
a) Second Scenario b) Third Scenario
c) First Scenario d) Fourth Scenario
2) Kernel identifies file internally using
a) Pathname b) Inode c) Filename d) Device no.
3) After which system call process enters in zombie state ?
a) Fork b) Exec c) Exit d) None
4) Process 0 is called
a) Swapper b) Init c) Zombie d) Kernel
5) Processes use which system call to send signal to each other ?
a) Exec b) Brk c) Kill d) Exit
6) Each occurrence of clock interrupt is called as
a) Timer b) Clock c) Clock tick d) None
7) Process Status register specifies
a) address of next instruction b) c. current address of next in kernel
c) h/w status of machine d) none of these
8) FIFO is also called as
a) Unnamed pipe b) Named pipe
c) Pipes d) None of these
P.T.O.

9) Unix schedule processes in
a) Time-shared manner b) SJF manner
c) FCFS manner d) None of above
10) Process may increase or decrease size of its data region by using which
system call ?
a) Brk b) Setgrp c) Growreg d) None of above
11) Pid of init process
a) 0 b) 1
c) 32767 d) None of the above
12) The process which terminates before the parent process exits becomes
a) Zombie b) Orphan
c) Child d) None of the above
13) Fork returns ___________ to parent process on success.
a) 0 b) Child process id
c) Parent process id d) None
14) All system calls return ______ on failure.
a) 1 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2
15) Which of the following signal cannot be handled or ignored ?
a) SIGINT b) SIGCHLD
c) SIGKILL d) SIGALRM
16) Which one of the following is not true ?
a) dynamic allocation of major numbers is not possible
b) major number cannot be shared among drivers
c) both (a) and (b)
17) Which of the following commands will allow the user to search contents of a
file for a particular pattern ?
a) touch b) grep c) find d) is
18) __________ is a directory (which should exist), on which to mount the file
system.
a) Root b) Boot
c) Mount-point d) Partition
19) Which of the following system call transfers an executable binary file into a
process ?
a) Fork b) Exec c) Ioctl d) All of these
20) An attempt to read from a locked file results in
a) Premature termination b) Deadlock
c) An indefinite wait d) None of these
______________ Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015

OPERATING SYSTEM II (Old)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

1) Explain how inode assignment is done to a new file.
2) Explain an algorithm for write system call for the file.
3) Describe second scenario for buffer allocation.
4) Explain structure for buffer pool.
5) Why processes running in kernel mode cannot be preempted by other process ?
Explain.
3. Explain the architecture of UNIX O.S. with block diagram of kernel. 10

OR
Explain the system call pipe with named and unnamed pipe and data structure
after Dup system call.
4. Write short notes on any two : (2×5=10)

1) Read System Call and Write System Call.
2) Super Block.
3) Mount.
Set A

SECTION II

a) Explain the algorithm for system boot and init process.
b) Explain the algorithm for process scheduling with parameters and range of
process priorities.
c) Explain with example fork and expansion swap.
d) Explain the data structure for demand paging.
e) Explain the driver interfaces with driver entry points.
6. Explain all the operations that manipulate region. 10

OR
Explain with algorithm and examples the two page faults.

1) Terminal drivers.
2) Fields in the process table and U area.
3) Setuid and brk.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
1) The agent that performs the transformation of data from one state to another is
called
a) A process (or bubble) b) A program
c) An Entity d) None of these
2) DFDs which are hierarchically organized and helps in progressively partitioning and
analyzing large problems is called
a) A leveled DFD set b) Unlevelled DFD set
c) Normalized DFD set d) Simple DFD set
3) There are two approaches to prototyping
a) Conventional and contemporary b) Throwaway and evolutionary
c) Standard and normal d) None of these
4) One of the characteristics of SRS is
a) Ambiguous b) Consistent c) Desirability d) Avoidability
5) Four most common types of errors are
a) Omission, system fault, system malfunction, low memory
b) Omission, Incomplete data, no scalability, low memory
c) Inconsistency, incorrect fact and ambiguity
d) None of these
6) A system is considered to be __________ if it consists of discreet components which
can be implemented separately and a change to one component has minimal impact on
another component.
a) Singular b) Biased c) Modular d) Conventional
7) Coupling between modules is the measure of __________ among modules.
a) Metrics b) Space
c) Processing speed d) Interdependence
8) ______ is the relation between classes allows for definition and implementation of one
class bases on the definition of existing classes.
a) Polymorphism b) Aggregation c) Binding d) Inheritance
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 273 -2- *SLRPC273*
9) The types of inheritance when a subclass inherits from many super classes is called
a) Multiple inheritance b) Single inheritance
c) Multilevel inheritance d) None of these
10) The code associated with a given procedure call is not known until the moment of the call
is called
a) Static binding b) Memory binding
c) Resource binding d) Dynamic
11) In a class diagram the generalization-specialization relationship is specified by having
_________ coming from the subclass to the super class.
a) Triangle b) Rectangle c) Arrow d) Circle
12) In ________ testing the structure of the program is not considered.
a) Black box testing b) Pair wise testing
c) State based testing d) None of these
13) For some systems when same inputs provide same outputs, then the appropriate
testing used is
a) White box testing b) Black box testing
c) State based testing d) None of these
14) SPC stands for
a) Statistical Process Control b) Status Product Control
c) Single Process Control d) Similar Process Control
15) LOC stands for
a) Line Of Compiler b) Line Of Code
c) Line Of Composite d) None of these
16) UML stands for
a) Unified Modeling Language b) Unified Model Language
c) Unified Markup Language d) None of these
17) OOD stands for
a) Object Oriented Development b) Object Oriented Design
18) _________ values can be used to specify additional properties of the elements to which
they are attached.
a) Tagged values b) Untagged values
c) Random values d) None of these
19) DD stands for
a) Data Directory b) Data Dictionary
c) Data on Demand d) None of these
20) A tool that permits a designer to consider a component at a basic level is
a) Non abstraction b) Composite c) Abstraction d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRPC273* -3- SLR-PC – 273
Seat
No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
a) Explain the concept of DFD with example.
b) Explain the basic concepts and notations used in Object Oriented Design (OOD).
c) Explain any five levels of cohesion briefly.
d) Explain structure chart with suitable program for sorting.
e) Discuss two methods for verification.
3. A) Explain Top-down and Bottom-up estimation approach in detail. 10
OR
List the mechanisms of Configuration Management and explain in detail.
B) Explain the components of a Software Requirements Specifications (SRS).
4. Write short notes on any two : (2×5=10)
a) Water fall Model.
b) COCOMO Model.
c) Explain Top down and Bottom up strategies briefly.
Set A

SLR-PC – 273 -4- *SLRPC273*
SECTION – II
a) Explain activity level analysis.
b) Explain unit testing in detail.
c) Explain black box testing with an example.
d) Explain project tracking.
e) Explain milestone analysis.
6. Explain the white box testing in detail. 10
OR
Explain the Coupling and Cohesion design concepts in detail in object oriented
design. 10
7. Explain training for project managers for managing software projects. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) _________ is used as a variable in Breadth-First search.
a) NODE-LIST b) SUCCESSER-LIST
c) CHILD-LIST d) ALL
2) A ________ is an area of the search space that is higher than surrounding areas
and that itself has a slope.
a) ridge b) plateau c) local maximum d) all
3) ________ Graphs are used in problem reduction.
a) NOT b) AND-NOT c) AND-OR d) INVERSE
4) _______ is the task domain at AI.
a) Formal tasks b) Informal tasks
c) Objective tasks d) None of these
5) ________ rules are applied for water-jug problem.
a) System b) Production c) Symbolic d) All
6) A ________ is a technique that improves the efficiency of a search process.
a) Production system b) Problem system
c) Heuristic d) None of these
7) All the moves from the current state and selected the best one as the next state, is
called as
a) Steepest-ascent hill climbing b) Simple hill climbing
c) Generate and test d) None of these
8) _________ is a search procedure that operate in a space of constraint sets.
a) Constraint validation b) Constriction verification
c) Constraint satisfaction d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 274 -2- *SLRPC274*
9) “ ∀ ” logical symbol means

a) there exists b) or c) note d) for all
10) Artificial intelligences is the study of how to make computers do things which, at
the moment __________ do better.
a) Human b) People c) Machine d) All
11) _________ is one of the Mundane task.
a) Perception b) Games c) Mathematics d) Engineering
12) AI research is that _________ requires knowledge.
a) Talent b) Smartness c) Intelligence d) All
13) The first requirement of a good control strategy is that it causes
a) speed b) motion c) failure d) none of these
14) _____ search requires less memory since only the nodes on the current path are
stored.
a) Breadth-first b) Heuristic c) Depth-first d) None of these
15) ________ is a variant of generate and test in which feedback from the test procedure
is used to help generator to decide which direction to move in the search space.
a) Generate and test b) Hill climbing
c) Best first search d) None of these
16) ________ are the truth in some relevant world.
a) Parts b) Procedures c) Facts d) None of these
17) The _________ level at which facts are described.
a) Knowledge b) Symbol c) Internal d) All
18) _________ adequacy, is one of the approach to knowledge representation.
a) Exterior b) Complex c) Inferential d) All
19) “ ∃ ” logic symbol means

a) for all b) there exists
c) not d) material implication
20) The second requirement of a good control strategy is that it be
a) Systematic b) Prefect c) Sequential d) All
______________
Set A

*SLRPC274* -3- SLR-PC – 274
Seat
No.

ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

a) What is AI ? What makes a problem a candidate to be solved by AI ?
b) What are Heuristics ? How are they used in search ?
c) Give the advantage of using ‘Generate and Test’ method of search.
d) What are the related issues in the designing of search programs ?
e) Compare between breadth first search and best first search algorithms.

a) How is a problem defined as a state space search ? Illustrate with an example.
b) State and explain the A* algorithm.

a) List the properties of a good knowledge representation system. Illustrate each
property with an example.
b) What characteristics are desired in an AI problem ? Give case studies to explain
each.
SECTION – II

a) What is a rule based system ? Give its architecture.
b) Give the semantic network for ‘Postmen dress in Khaki’.
c) What is default reasoning ? Illustrate.
d) Illustrate the terms ‘Measures of belief and disbelief’.
e) State the characteristics that an expert system should pocess.
Set A

SLR-PC – 274 -4- *SLRPC274*

a) What is Resolution ? Illustrate the steps involved.
b) List the slot and filter structures ? Illustrate each with an example.

a) What are the components of an expert system ? Elaborate on each component.
b) What are CYC systems ? How are they constructed ?
————————
Set A

S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting relations and
relating schemas ?
a) DML (Data Manipulation Language) b) DDL (Data Definition Language)
c) Query d) Relational Schema
2) Which one of the following provides the ability to query information from the database and to insert
tuples into, delete tuples from and modify tuples in the database ?
a) DML (Data Manipulation Language) b) DDL (Data Definition Language)
c) Query d) Relational Schema
3) Create table employee (name varchar, id integer) What type of statement is this ?
a) DML b) DDL c) View d) Integrity constraint
4) Select * from employee. What type of statement is this ?
a) DML b) DDL c) View d) Integrity constraint
5) The basic data type char(n) is a ________ length character string and varchar(n) is _______ length
character.
a) Fixed, equal b) Equal, variable c) Fixed, variable d) Variable, equal
6) SQL view is said to be updatable (that is, inserts, updates or deletes can be applied on the view) if
which of the following conditions are satisfied by the query defining the view ?
a) The from clause has only one database relation
b) The query does not have a group by or having clause
c) The select clause contains only attribute names of the relation and does not have any
expressions, aggregates, or distinct specification
7) Which of the following is used at the end of the view to reject the tuples which do not satisfy the
condition in where clause ?
a) With b) Check c) With check d) All of the mentioned
P.T.O.

8) For the view Create view instructor_info as
select ID, name, building
from instructor, department
where instructor. dept name=department.dept name;
If we insert tuple into the view as insert into instructor info values (69987, White, Taylor);
What will be the values of the other attributes in instructor and department relations ?
a) Default value b) Null c) Error statement d) 0
9) Create view faculty as
Select ID, name, dept name
from instructor.
Find the error in this query.
a) Instructor b) Select c) View ... as d) None of the mentioned
10) In the ________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth
11) A table on the many side of a one to many or many to many relationship must
a) Be in Second Normal Form (2NF) b) Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)
c) Have a single attribute key d) Have a composite key
12) Tables in second normal form (2NF)
a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies
b) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
c) Have a composite key
d) Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
13) Which-one of the following statements about normal forms is False ?
a) BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
b) Lossless, dependency-preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
c) Loss less, dependency preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF
14) Functional dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on
a) Key b) Key revisited c) Superset key d) None of these
15) Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the relationship between
attributes ?
a) Functional dependency b) Database modeling
c) Normalization d) Decomposition
16) Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups ?
a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) All of the mentioned
17) How many tables may be included with a join ?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) All of the mentioned
18) Which are the join types in join condition ?
a) Cross join b) Natural join
c) Join with USING clause d) All of the mentioned
19) Empdt1 (empcode, name, street, city, state pincode)
For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also for given street, city and state, there is just
one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a relation in
a) 1 NF only b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
c) 3 NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF
20) Course (course_id, sec_id, semester)
Here the course_id, sec_id and semester are ______ and course is a ____
a) Relations, Attribute b) Attributes, Relation c) Tuple, Relation d) Tuple, Attributes
______________ Set A

*SLRPC275*
-3-
SLR-PC 275
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

a) Explain differences between disjoint and overlapping constraints in Generalization/specialization in
E-R diagram.
b) What are the five built-in aggregate functions in SQL ?

c) What is Functional Dependency ? Differentiate between full functional Dependency and partial
functional dependency.
d) How does SQL implement the entity integrity and referential integrity ? Constraints of the relational
model ? Explain with example.
e) List five key advantages of database systems over file systems.
3. Consider the following relational schema. 10
EMPLOYEE (EmpNo, EmpName, MgrNo, Job, Salary, DeptNo)
DEPARTMENT (DeptNo, DeptName, DeptLoc)
Where MgrNo is one of the EmpNo.
a) Give an SQL DDL definition of this database.
b) Express the following queries in SQL :

i) Find the names of the employees whose salary is greater than the average salary of their
department.
ii) Delete employees who have no departments assigned.
iii) Find the names of employees and the names of their managers.
iv) Find the names of departments whose average salary is greater than the average salary of all
departments.
4. What are different types of joins in SQL ? Explain with example. 10
Set A

SECTION II
a) Discuss recoverable and cascadeless schedules with the help of an example.
b) Discuss Strict Two phase locking protocol and rigorous two phase locking protocol.
c) What is Log ? Discuss update log records with its related fields.
d) What is Storage Structure ? Explain the three Storage Structure types such as volatile, Nonvolatile
and stable.
e) Discuss the different types of transaction failures.
6. Briefly explain the following related to Buffer Management. 10
1) Log-Record Buffering
2) Database Buffering
3) Operating System Role in Buffer Management
4) Fuzzy Checkpointing.
7. What is the role of lock manager ? With an example explain lock table and show the way of the
lock manager processes requests. 10
_____________________
Set A

A
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Assume suitable data where necessary.

1) Generalization is the
a) And relationship b) Or relationship
c) In relationship d) None of the above
2) A nested state diagram is actually of
a) Normalization b) Relationship
c) Aggregation d) Generalization
3) An object in a state in the high level diagram must be exactly
a) One state b) Two state c) Three state d) Stateless
4) The transition of a super state are inherited of its
a) Super states b)
c) States d) All of the above
5) Notes are used for
a) Observations b) Reviews c) Explanations d) All of above
6) A diagram is a graphical presentation of set of elements, most often rendered
as a connected graph of
a) Vertices and arcs b) Vertex and arcs
c) Vertices and links d) Vertex and links
7) ___________ diagrams show the static part of system.
a) Use case b) Sequence c) Collaboration d) None of above
P.T.O.

8) ___________ diagrams show the dynamic part of system.
a) Component b) Deployment c) Class d) None of above
9) A ___________ is semantically closed abstraction of system.
a) Class b) Object c) Model d) Relationship
10) ___________ construct an executable system from models.
a) Reverse Engineering b) Forward Engineering
c) a) and b) both d) None of above
11) ___________ is a collection of subsystems organized to accomplish a purpose
and described by a set of models, possibly from different viewpoints.
a) System b) Model c) Class d) Diagram
12) Views of Architecture are
a) Visualizing b) Specifying
c) Constructing d) All of above
13) Different ways for drawing UML diagrams are
a) Forward and reverse b) Iterative way
c) Incremental way d) All of above
14) Using UML, you can build your models from basic building blocks such as
a) Components b) Dependency
c) Generalization d) All of above
15) A _________ is an abstraction of the attribute with value and links of an
object.
a) State b) Link c) Object d) Association
16) A state specifies the response of the object to ___________ events.
a) Output b) Input c) Intermediately d) None
17) ___________ and ___________ depends on the level of abstraction.
a) Object and state b) Input and event
c) Link and object d) Event and state
18) The state of an object can include the values of its
a) Links b) Association
c) Aggregation d) Generalization
19) A state caused by an event is called
a) Transition b) Event c) State d) Object
20) A state diagram describes a behavior of a __________ class of object.
a) Single b) Double c) Selected d) All
______________
Set A

S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Develop a design for a Self Management System using Object Modelling

Technique. 20
The design should contain
a) Drawing the object model consisting of the Object diagram and Instance
diagram. Drawing the Dynamic model consisting of the state diagram and
drawing the Functional Model consisting of a DFD.
b) Commenting on System Design.
c) Commenting on Object Design.

a) Compare between a Class diagram and Instance diagram. Illustrate difference.
b) What is an Association ? How is it different from an Aggregation and a link ?
c) What are Events and Activities w.r.t. state diagrams ? Illustrate.

a) What is the basic necessity of a Dynamic model ? What are transactions and
states ?
b) What are the components of a Functional Model ? How is this model
represented ?
c) What are the facts to be considered in system design step of OMT ?
Set A

SECTION II
5. Develop a design for a College Admission Management System using UML.The

design should contain 20
a) Things consisting of structural, behavioural, grouping and annotations as
required.
b) Relationships consisting of dependencies, associations, generalizations and
realizations.
c) Diagrams from the nine UML diagrams required for the problem.

a) Considering a department in your college draw an appropriate diagram to
represent the work distribution done by the Head of department among faculty
and staff.
b) Compare between Component diagram and Class diagram of UML.
c) What are interactions and state machines ? Where are they used in UML ?

a) Draw the class diagram for a department store. List the classes involved.
b) Draw the state chart diagram for a Tourism department automation system.
c) Give the basic functions of the different diagrams supported by UML.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (IT) (New) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

one mark.
2) All question are compulsory.
4) Draw diagram wherever necessary.


1) The boot block occupies __________ of the file system.
a) end b) beginning c) middle d) none
2) The Kernel finds the block on its hash queue and its buffer in free is which
scenario
a) first b) second c) third d) fourth
3) Every process has an entry in the Kernel __________ table.
a) process b) file c) inode d) block
4) __________ algorithm is used for writing a disk block.
a) write b) bwrite c) bbwrite d) bwritea
5) Inode Exist in __________ form on disk.
a) dynamic b) static c) block d) none
6) Conversation of byte offset to block number is __________ algorithm.
a) namei b) bmap c) ialloc d) getblk
7) Assignment of inode to a new file is done with __________ algorithm.
a) alloc b) getblk c) ialloc d) none
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 277 -2- *SLRPC277*
8) Creat system call returns __________
a) file descriptor b) pointer c) inode d) none
9) Pipes allows data transfer between processes in a __________ manner.
a) FIFO b) LIFO c) Both a) and b) d) None
10) The Kernel finds the block on hash queue, but its buffer is currently busy is
__________ scenario.
a) first b) second c) third d) fifth
11) When process executed exit system call then it comes to
a) zombie state b) ready state c) sleeping state d) wakeup state
12) Which of the following is not the value of permission field of pregion ?
a) read-only b) read-write c) read-execute d) write-only
13) Which of the following is not the system calls of character special files that
pass through the respective procedures in the character device switch table ?
a) ioctl() b) open() c) close() d) read()
14) __________ check for available Kernel resources, free proc table slot, unique
PID number
a) Exit() b) open() c) Fork() d) read()
15) Fork() system call use
a) dupreg b) attachreg c) both d) none
16) U area Limit fields restrict the size of a process and the size of a file it can
a) execute b) write c) both d) none
17) Which of the following is not present in user-level context of process ?
a) shared data b) process data
c) user stack d) per process region table
18) Following is/are system call dealing with synchronization.
a) exit b) wait c) both d) none
19) Terminal derivers have a function to control the __________ terminals.
20) __________ and __________ types of devices are supported by UNIX.
______________
Set A

*SLRPC277* -3- SLR-PC – 277
Seat
No.

UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

1) Explain the architecture of unix os.
2) Explain the different operating system services.
3) With neat diagram explain the file system layout.
4) Briefly explain the algorithm for releasing a buffer.
5) Explain the open() system call with example.
3. Answer any one : (1×10=10)

Explain the block diagram of system kernel.
OR
Write an algorithm for reading a file (read) and explain.
4. Answer any one : (1×10=10)

Write an algorithm for creation of special file and explain.
OR
Explain the Race condition in assigning inodes with diagram.
Set A

SLR-PC – 277 -4- *SLRPC277*
SECTION – II

1) Explain detail layout of the Kernel.
2) With block diagram explain all components of the context of a process.
3) Explain mapping of logical to physical page numbers.

1) Explain algorithm for process termination.
2) Give Boot and Init process.
3) Explain mapping process of swap in UNIX.
7. Write short notes : (6×2=12)

1) Explain stages at which device configuration can be specified.
2) Explain an algorithm for opening a device.
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) The _________ model states that phases are organized in a linear order.
a) Waterfall model b) Prototype model
c) Iterative model d) None
2) In Time boxing model basic unit of development is
a) white box b) black box c) time box d) none
3) In software development process we focus on activities directly related to
a) Testing b) Executing c) Compiling d) Production
4) Waterfall model begins with
a) Design Analysis b) Requirement Analysis
c) System Feasibility d) None
5) In a DFD data flows are identified by _________ means.
a) Same b) Unique c) both a and b d) none
6) Management of software development is dependent upon
a) People b) Product c) Process d) All of above
7) Spiral Model was developed by
a) Bev Littlewoods b) Berry Bohem
c) Roger Pressman d) Victor Bisili
8) Which is not a software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model b) Waterfall Model
c) Prototyping Model d) Capability maturity Model
9) A good specification should be
a) Unambiguous b) Distinctly Specific
c) Functional d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 278 -2- *SLRPC278*
10) The term module in the design phase refers to

a) Functions b) Procedures c) Sub programs d) All of the above
11) Which of the following principles of project management identifies all stakeholders ?
a) Project Risk Management
b) Project Communication Management
c) Project Human Resource Management
d) Project Time Management
12) Which of the following is a responsibility of the project manager from an external
perspective ?
a) report project status and progress b) assess project risks
c) assess team members to tasks d) develop project schedule
13) Which of the following is true of a team leader ?
a) has high to almost total authority
b) primarily leads big IT projects
c) may have both project management duties and some technical duties
d) works primarily on projects in which the all business functions are
interdependent
14) What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk ?
a) Risk monitoring b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis d) Risk identification
15) Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project
management tasks.
a) True b) False
16) Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development b) Both a and b
c) Linear Development d) Waterfall Model
17) In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’
needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True b) False
18) The objective of testing is
a) debugging b) to uncover errors
c) to gain modularity d) to analyze system
19) Black box testing sometimes called ?
a) DataFlow testing b) Loop testing
c) Behavioral testing d) Graph based testing
20) Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs ?
a) 10 – 20 b) 40 – 50 c) 70 – 80 d) 50 – 50
______________
Set A

*SLRPC278* -3- SLR-PC – 278
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

1) Explain briefly about Waterfall model.
2) What do you mean by SRS and Explain need of SRS ?
3) What is software process ? Define characteristic of Software Process.
4) Explain the concept of DFD in Brief.
5) What is Iterative development model explain ?
3. Attempt any one. (1×10=10)

Explain the Agile process model in detail with advantages over existing models.
OR
Explain with neat Diagram Software Configuration management and development
process.
4. Attempt any one. (1×10=10)

Explain the Structure of Requirement Document in detail.
OR
Explain in detail the Module level concepts of design.
SECTION – II
5. Answer the following questions (any four) : (5×4=20)

1) Explain the term verification and validation in respect of Software testing.
2) Explain the major tasks involved in Software Configuration Management (SCM).
Set A

SLR-PC – 278 -4- *SLRPC278*
3) Compare the following functional testing and give an example for each :
i) Boundary value analysis
ii) Cause effect graph technique.
4) Explain the strengths and characteristics of iterative PMLC model of agile project
management.
5) Explain the process of detailed scheduling.
6. Explain adaptive PMLC model of agile project management in detail. 10
7. Explain Unit, functional and System testing strategies clearly stating their purpose,
differences and dependence. 10
_____________________
Set A

Seat
No. Set A
T.E. (Information Technology) (New) (Part – II) Examination, 2015
MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Choose the correct option :
1) Android is an open source mobile native platform governed by
A) OHA B) AOH C) HOA D) None of these
2) The ___________ is a collection of APIs that are very crucial for Android developer as
the framework forms basis of development of Android apps.
A) Libraries B) Android Runtime
C) Application framework D) None of the choices are correct
3) The __________ layer is the topmost layer that contains all the apps installed on the
device, including those that come bundled with it.
A) Application B) Transport
C) Network D) None of the choices are correct
4) The Eclipse IDE has to be adapted to Android app development with the help of
____________ plug-in.
A) SDT B) AGT
C) ADT D) None of the choices are correct
5) A __________ is typically a software that virtually reproduces the exact behaviour of one
computing machine on another.
A) Virtual Mobile B) Emulator
C) Simulator D) None of the choices are correct
6) A [dot] dex file is an executable file that runs inside the
A) SDK B) JVM
C) DVM D) None of the choices
7) ___________ is an auto generated file containing integer constants for all resources
included in the Android project.
A) Activity_main[dot]xml B) R[dot]java
C) AndroidManifest[dot]xml D) None of the choices are correct
P.T.O.

SLR-PC – 279 -2- *SLRPC279*
8) A component that captures and responds to several announcements is called as

A) Multicast receiver B) Broadcast receiver
C) Unicast receiver D) None of these
9) The __________ facilitates connection and communication with devices and emulators.
A) adb B) DDMS C) DVK D) None of these
10) The __________ tool converts [dot] class files to [dot] dex file.
A) aapt B) dx C) ddms D) None of these
11) Broadcast receivers are Android’s implementation of a system-wide publish/subscribe
mechanism, or more precisely, what design pattern ?
A) Observer B) Facade C) Mediator D) Command
12) What built-in database is Android Shipped with ?
A) SQLite B) Apache C) MySQL D) Oracle
13) Services have any user interface components
A) True B) False
14) Which of the following data types is not supported by the SharedPreferences class ?
A) int B) float C) long D) Datatime
15) Which of the following methods can be used to view the folders in an android applications ?
A) getDir() B) getFiles() C) getFolders() D) getDirs()
16) Which of the following fields indicate that the external storage is available but not mounted ?
A) MEDIA_NOFS. B) MEDIA_SHARED.
C) MEDIA_MOUNTED_READ-ONLY. D) MEDIA_BAD_REMOVAL
17) What are the two approaches to draw graphics with a canvas ?
A) View class and SurfaceView class B) Canvas and Paint class
C) Cavas and View class D) Canvas and SurfaceView class
18) Which of the following argument is not accepted by the create Bitmap() method of the
Bitmap class ?
A) Width B) Heigh C) Bitmap config D) Buffer
19) Which of the following methods is used to draw the final graphics using a canvas ?
A) Canvas.drawPicture() B) SurfaceHolder.lockCanvas()
C) Canvas.DrawRGB() D) SurfaceHolder.getSurfaceFrame()
20) Which of the following ways defines and instantiates the Drawable class ?
A) Using an XML file. B) Using JUnit test case
C) Using a Java class D) Using a text file
______________
Set A

*SLRPC279* -3- SLR-PC – 279
Seat
No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (New) (Part – II) Examination, 2015

MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. Answer any four from the following questions each carries 5 marks. 20
a) Explain the android app development flow.
b) What is the use of DVK in Android Operating System ?
c) Illustrate the use of src folder in Android Project explorer.
d) Define AVD. How to crate and AVD in Android SDK ?
e) Define Broadcast Receivers and explain its use.
3. Answer any one from the following questions. 10
a) Illustrate Activity Life Cycle and respective call back methods.
b) Define the procedures to navigate between activities and exchange data between them.
4. Answer the following question. 10

With a help of neat diagram explain the complete Android Platform Architecture.
SECTION – II
1) How will you test a location based mobile application ? Explain.
2) What is sharedpreferences in android ?
3) What do you understand by versioning, signing and packaging mobile apps ?
4) What are the screen densities in Android ?
5) Why use SQLite in android ?
6. Explain in detail with syntax the methods of Canvas and Paint in Android Graphics. 10
7. What is an Android Animation ? Explain the following with related to Animation. 10
a) Drawable Animation
b) View Animation
c) Property Animation.
__________________
Set A

Set A

Seat
No.
Set A
T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – I (Old)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Assume any missing data suitably.

I. MCQ (Each question carry 1 mark) : (20×1=20)

1) Calculate the S.S.D for design speed of 80 Kmph for a 2-way traffic on one-lane road.
Assuming f = 0.36
a) 130 m b) 102 m c) 126 m d) 111 m
2) Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
a) Width of the all vehicle in India – 2.44 m
b) Maximum S.E provided on plain roads – 7%
c) Third 20 year road development plan is also called as Nagpur road plan
d) The shape of warning sign– Equilateral triangle
3) Bitumen grade 80/100 means
a) Its penetration value is b/w 80 to 100 cm
b) Its penetration value is b/w 8 to 10 cm
c) Its penetration value is b/w 8 to 10 mm
d) Its penetration value is b/w 8 to 10 m
4) The traffic conflicts that may occur in a rotary intersection are
a) Diverging, merging and crossing b) Crossing
c) Merging d) Merging and diverging
5) The shift of the transition curve of radius 270 m and length 56 m is
a) 54.24 m b) 0.48 c) 0.40 d) None
6) The terrain classified as “Polling terrain” if the cross-slope of land is
a) less than 10% b) 10 - 25% c) 25 - 60% d) > 60%
P.T.O.

7) Top most layer of a bituminous pavement is known as
a) Subgrade b) sub-base
c) Base course d) Wearing course
8) From abrasion test _______ property of aggregate can be found out.
a) Hardness b) Soundness c) Strength d) Toughness
9) While calculating extra-widening required for a pavement on a horizontal curve the length
of wheel base of largest vehicle can be assumed as
a) 6.5 –7 m b) 7.0 to 7.1 m c) 6.0 to 6.1 m d) 5.5 – 6 m
10) Twice the S.S.D when O.S.D can’t be provided is known as
a) I.S.D b) Headlight S.D
c) Absolute minimum S.D d) Passing S.D
11) Which one of the following is not a temporary bridge ?
a) Flying b) Steel bridge c) Boat d) None
12) Masonry bridge, steel, R.C.C., Timber bridge all there are types of bridge are classified
based on
a) Function b) Super-structure c) Location d) Material
13) When a small stream crosses a road with its linear water way less than 6m, the cross
drainage structure provided is called as
a) minor bridge b) culvert c) major bridge d) none
14) Scour means
a) vertical cutting of river bed b) horizontal cutting of river bed
15) Selection of bridge site depends on
a) Geological condition b) Grade of alignment
c) Stream characteristic d) All
16) Needle beam method is used for
a) Tunneling in hard rock b) Tunneling in soft-rock
17) Empirical formula commonly applied to obtain thickness of tunnel lining is
a) T= 83 D b) T = 90 D c) T = 82 D d) T = 80 D
18) Vertical tunnels @ wells reaching from ground surface down to tunnel invert are called as
a) Sunk b) Staffs c) Wedges d) Monkey drifts
19) The method for removal of water by drawing through the open drains constructed along
the tunnel on both side @ the invert is called as
a) Dewatering b) Pre-drainage
c) Permanent drainage d) None
20) Ventilation provided at the time of construction only such system is known as ________
v. system.
a) Permanent b) Temporary c) At-site d) None
______________ Set A

Seat
No.
T.E. (Civil) (Part – I) Examination, 2015

TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – I (Old)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instruction :Assume any missing data suitably.

II. Answer any 3 questions.
1) The properties of subgrade soil are given below
* passing 0.079 mm sieve = 55%
* L.L = 50%
* P.L = 41%
Find G.I number and explain procedure of pavement design by this method. 8
2) An ascending gradient of 1 in 100 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 120. A summit
curve is to be designed for a speed of 80 Kmph so as to have an
O.S.D of 470 m. 8
3) Calculate the length of transition curve and the shift using the following data :
* Design speed = 65 Kmph
* Radius of circular curve = 220 m
* Allowable rate of introduction of = 1 in 150
S.E (Pavement rotated about the centre line)
* pavement width including extra = 7.5 m widening. 8
4) Four new road links A, B, C and D are to be constructed during a 5- year plan period.
Suggest the order of priority for phasing the road construction programme based on
maximum utility approach. Assume utility units of 0.5, 1.0, 2 and 4 for four population
ranges and 2, 2 and 5 units for 1000 t of agricultural, raw materials and industrial products
from the following data : 8
Road No. of Village Served with Population Productivity Served

Length
link range (t)
Raw
< 500 501 - 1000 100 - 2000 > 2000 Agricul. Industries
material
A 50 35 12 9 3 9000 2000 3000
B 50 28 10 8 3 5000 1000 1000
C 65 20 6 6 3 4000 2500 3000
D 30 32 5 4 3 3500 7000 1000
Set A

III. Answer any 3 questions :

1) List out the different type of tests conducted n Bitumen and explain any one
test procedure in detail with neat sketch. 6
2) Write step by step procedure for construction of Bituminous concrete layer. 6
3) Write a note on transition curve. 6
4) Write a brief note on “Highway Privatization”. 6
IV. Answer any three questions (First question is compulsory) :
1) While estimating the cast of bridge for various spans the following calculation were made.
Cast of Super-Structure Cost of one pier

Span in M
(Rs.) (Rs.)
10 5,500 17,000
15 8,000 17,000
20 16,000 18,500
25 30,000 25,000
Determine the most Economic span length for the bridge. 7
2) Explain IRC class “A” loading. 6
3) A bridge is proposed across an alluvial stream carrying a discharge of

220 cum/sec. Assuming the value of siltfactor of 1. Determine the depth of
maximum scour when the bridge consists of single arch of span 45 m. 6
4) Write a note on “Maintenance of Bridges”. 6
V. Answer any three questions (First question is compulsory) :

1) Explain tunnel ventilation. List out the object or necessity of tunnel ventilation
and also method of ventilation with neat sketches. 7
2) Write short notes on “Drainage of tunnels”. 6
3) Short notes on “Blasting in tunnels’. 6
4) Discuss the material used for “tunnel lining”. 6
_____________________
Set A

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MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct alternative : 14

( −1)n n ! (−1)n (n + 1) ! (−1)n (n + 1) !

3) The Taylor’s series expansion of y = sinx about x = π 2 is

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5) The modulus and the amplitude of 2 + 2 3 i are

8) Let the characteristic equation of a matrix A be λ2 − 2λ − 1 = 0 then

12) By theory of approximations which of the following is correct for z = f(x, y) ?

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F.E. (Part – I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2015

3. Attempt any three : 9

b) Prove that tanh −1(sin θ) = cosh−1(sec θ) . 3

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6. Attempt the following :

7. Attempt the following :

8. Attempt the following :

9. Attempt the following :

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F.E. (Part  II) Examination, 2015

Day and Date : Wednesday, 29-4-2015 Max. Marks : 25

Instruction for Examiner : Distribute question C1 and C2 to alternate

1. C1) Write a program to find largest number in an array of 10 elements.

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F.E. (Part  II) Examination, 2015

Day and Date : Wednesday, 29-4-2015 Max. Marks : 25

Instruction for Examiner : Distribute question C1 and C2 to alternate

1. C2) Write a program for addition of two matrices of size 3 × 3.

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F.E. (Part – II) Online Programming Test Examination, 2015

Instructions : 1) Candidates are informed to type the program code in C

3. Copy one string to other

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F.E. (Part – II) Online Programming Test Examination, 2015

Instructions : 1) Candidates are informed to type the program code in C

1. Any character is entered through the keyboard, write a program to determine

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F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015

Day and Date : Thursday, 30-4-2015 Max. Marks : 25

Instruction for Examiner :

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F.E. (Part – II) Examination, 2015

Day and Date : Thursday, 30-4-2015 Max. Marks : 25

Instruction for Examiner :

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S.E. (I.T.) (Part  I) Examination, 2015

Day and Date : Thursday, 7-5-2015 Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Attempt following multiple choice questions : 20

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S.E. (I.T.) (Part  I) Examination, 2015

N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

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MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct alternative : (20×1=20)

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T.E. Mechanical (Part  II) (New) Examination, 2015

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F.E. (Part II) Examination, 2015

F.E. (Part II) Examination, 2015

S.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

S.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015

T.E. Mechanical (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015