MK0004

Elkindia, Specialized MBA Projects, www.elkindia.
com
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Marketing Research –MK0004
PART A
Q1.What is the main criteria to choose the best of the given alternatives for good research
study?
(a) long run sales
(b) brand-name recognition
(c) trail purchase by users of competing brands
(d) all of the above
Q2.What is the key points to be considered while doing research design in case of
descriptive and diagnostic research studies?
(a) formulating the objective of study
(b) selecting the sample
(c) collecting the data
Q3.What is the main types of research designs?

(a) experimental, historical and inferential designs
(b) historical method, and case and clinical studies
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
Q4.What is the benefits of telephone interviewing?

(a) quality of response is good
(b) less costly
(c) both a and b
Q5.What is the limitations of secondary data?

(a) may not meet the specific needs
(b) may not be as accurate as desired
(c) non up-to-date
Q6.Which of the following is included in demographic and socio-economic

characteristics?
(a) race
(b) intention
(c) resources
(d) cities
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Q7.What is the key stages of marketing research?
(a) situation analysis
(b) strategy development
(c) implementation
Q8.What is the questions to be considered in strategy development?

(a) What business should we be in?
(b) What will we compete?
(c) What are the objectives for the business?
Q9. What is the right of any respondent who participates in a research project?
(a) the right to privacy
(b) the right to safety
(c) the right to the research results
Q10. Which of this is included in the advertising and promotion decisions?

(a) what customer types have the most potential?
(b) what sales should be offered during the year?
(c) what appeals should be used in the advertising?
(d) how can brand loyalty be increased?
Q11.Which of this is included in the segmentation decisions?

(a) how should the price be positioned?
(b) what should be the mark up policy?
(c) which segment should be the target?
Q12.What is the feature of research report?

(a) narrative and authoritative document
(b) simple
(c) readable
Q13. Which of this is included in the price decisions?

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Q14.How many parties are involved in a marketing project?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 6
Q15. What are the key features of secondary data?

(a) they are ready made
(b) they consist of data over which a researcher has no original control, over collection
(c) both a and b
Q16.what is the important concept relating to research design?

(a) dependent and independent variables
(b) extraneous variable
(c) control
Q17.It provides protection, when we conduct an experiment, against the effect of

extraneous factored by randomization.
(a) the principle of replication
(b) the principle of randomization
(c) principle of local control
Q18. Which of the fooling is included in the territorial data?

(a) race
(b) intention
(c) resources
(d) cities
Q19. What are the main sources of data?

(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) both a and b
Q20.What is the basic need of research design?

(a) for research inquiry
(b) for research projects
(c) both a and b
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Q21.What is the components of measurement accuracy?
(a) validity
(b) reliability
(c) sensitivity
Q22.What all is included in the measurement accuracy and measurement development?

(a) questionnaire designing
(b) plan what to measure
(c) both a and b
Q23.What is the key features of good research design?

(a) it is a series of guide posts to keep one going in the right direction
(b) it reduces wastage of time and cost
(c) it encourages coordination and effective organization
Q24.This does not involve control over extrinsic and intrinsic variables.
(a) direct observation
(b) uncontrolled observation
(c) participant observation
(d) uncontrolled observation
Q25.What is the basic guidelines for sequencing a questionnaire ?

(a) open the interview with an easy and non threatening question
(b) for most topics it is better to proceed from broad, general questions to the more
specific
(c) both a and b
Q26.This may take the form of a dairy or cards.

(a) mechanical devices
(b) field observation log
(c) both a and b
Q27.It means selecting sample units in a juts “hit and miss” fashion.
(a) accidental sampling
(b) purposive sampling
(c) quota sampling
(d) snow-ball sampling
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Q28.Which of the following is included in the organizational data?
(a) race
(b) intention
(c) resources
(d) cities
Q29.What is the main types of data?

(a) data pertaining to human beings
(b) data relating to organization
(c) data pertaining to territorial areas
Q30.What is the benefits of group interview?

(a) the client can watch the interview unobserved
(b) respondent comment freely
(c) both a and b
Q31.What is the advantages of proportionate stratified sampling?

(a) easiest methods
(b) enhances the representative ness to each sample
(c) less time consuming
Q32.What is the disadvantages of simple random sampling?

(a) impractical
(b) does not ensure proportionate representation
(c) both a and b
Q33.This method deliberate selection of sample units that conform to some pre-
determined criteria.
(c) quota sampling
Q34.This is a form of convenient sampling involving selection of quota groups of

accessible sampling units by traits such as age, social class etc.
(c) quota sampling
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Q35.What is the advantages of cluster sampling?
(a) easier
(b) more convenient
(c) does not require more time
Q36.What is the key features of table of random numbers?

(a) less cumbersome
(b) equally valid procedure
(c) both a and b
Q37.What is the key features of good hypotheses?

(a) objectivity
(b) simplicity
(c) consistency
Q38.What is the considerations for the choice of null hypotheses?

(a) usually the in which wishes to prove and the null hypotheses is one that wishes to
disapprove
(b) if the rejection of a certain hypotheses when it is actually term involves great risk
(c) both a and b
Q39.Which of the following is the important parametric test of hypotheses?

(a) z-test
(b) t-test
(c) f-test
Q40.What is the points to be considered for effective report writing?

(a) use the present tense as mush as possible to communicate information
(b) us informative headings
(c) us variations to communicate respondent’s comments
Q41.What is the main guidelines for successful presentations?

(a) communicate to a specific audience
(b) be specific and visual
(c) address validity and reliability issues
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Q42.What is the considerations for preparing oral presentations?
(a) don’t read
(b) use visual aids
(c) involve the audience
Q43.What is the various categories of brand equity?

(a) brand equality
(b) name awareness
(c) perceived quality
Q44.What is the features of Ethical Issues –Code of Conduct, Data –Protection Act?
(a) the code of professional ethics and practices
(b) to maintain high standards of competence and integrity in marketing and survey
research
(c) both a and b
Q45. What is the right of any respondent who participates in a research project?
(a) the right to privacy
(b) the right to safety
(c) the right to the research results
Q46. Thinking of the phases through which a group passes, which ONE of the following
steps comes after the others?
(a) Forming
(b) Norming
(c) Performing
(d) Storming
Q47.What is the common ethical issues for the research supplier?

(a) violating lined confidentially
(b) improper execution of research
(c) both a and b
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Q48.What is the features of the Code of professional Ethics and practices instituted by
the Marketing Research Association?
(a) to maintain high standards of competence and integrity in marketing and survey
research
(b) to exercise all reasonable is and to observe the best standards of objectivity and
accuracy in the development, collection, processing and reporting of maintaining and
survey research information
(c) both a and b
Q49. A systematic search for a supplier includes various steps. Which ONE of the
following steps should come before the others?
(a) Rejecting or accepting a proposal

(b) Shortlisting of agencies
(c) Creating a brief
(d) Receiving proposals
Q50. Why might we have a qualitative stage at the end of a project?
(a) To generate a sampling frame

(b) To investigate issues found in the field
(c) To help in naire development
(d) To fine-tune the objectives
Q51. Who produces the research brief?
(a) An informant
(b) A research agency
(c) A client
(d) A respondent
Q52. The brief does NOT contain:

(a) background.
(b) objectives.
(c) reporting details.
(d) fees.
Q53. Which ONE of these services is NOT a search engine?
(a) Archie
(b) Google
(c) Dewey
(d) Yahoo
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Q54. The Freedom of Information Act 2000 concerns:
(a) data privacy.

(b) personal data.
(c) public authorities.
(d) something other than the options given.
Q55. Which ONE of these is the best description of secondary data?
(a) Ordinary data

(b) Existing data
(c) Omnibus data
(d) Ordinal data
Q56. Which ONE of these is a good example of tertiary data?
(a) An article
(b) A book index
(c) A complaint letter
(d) A research report
Q57. Secondary data is LEAST helpful in:
(a) developing naires.

(b) interpreting tables.
(c) formulating hypotheses.
(d) evaluating new products.
Q58. Which ONE is the most damaging problem for the researcher with secondary data?
(a) It may not be accurate

(b) It may be biased
(c) It may not address the aims
(d) It may only provide part of the answer
Q59. Which ONE of these types of secondary data sources is internal? (Consider them
from the viewpoint of a computer games software seller.)
(a) Magazine reviews of games

(b) Past sales to specialist stores
(c) Competitor price lists on the web
(d) Published market reports
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Q60. Which ONE of these types of secondary data is external? (Consider them from the
viewpoint of a computer games software seller.)
(a) Magazine reviews of games

(b) Past sales to specialist stores
(c) Employee feedback
(d) Own production figures
Q61. Which ONE of these will best help us to assess the reliability of information found
in desk research?
(a) The source

(b) The search engine used
(c) The price we pay
(d) The time it takes to obtain
Q62. Desk research plans should start with:
(a) primary data.

(b) external secondary data.
(c) tertiary data.
(d) internal secondary data.
Q63. Which ONE of the following decades marks when group discussions were fully
accepted in marketing research?
(a) 1920s
(b) 1930s
(c) 1950s
(d) 1970s
Q64. At what point does the analysis of qualitative data begin?
(a) Before data collection

(b) During data collection
(c) After data collection
(d) None of the options given
Q65. Which ONE of the following is NOT the purpose of qualitative research?
(a) To discover the existence of opinions

(b) To measure the 'amount' of opinion
(c) To indicate different viewpoints
(d) To gather unexpected data
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Q66. The face-to-face focus group is the best tool to:
(a) probe intimate situations.

(b) trigger unexpected views.
(c) interview geographically dispersed respondents.
(d) administer a naire.
Q67. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE of non-verbal communications?
(a) Awareness of body language does not help inquiry in any way
(b) Single signs have specific single meanings
(c) We must consider a cluster of individual signs
(d) It is what is said that matters, not how it is said
PART B
Q1._____________ is done to test different decision alternatives such as new product

concept testing, advertising coy testing, pre-test marketing and test marketing.
(a) selective research
(b) programmatic research
(c) evaluative research
Q2.____________ is performed to develop marketing options through market

segmentation, market opportunity analysis or consumer attitude and product usage
studies.
Q3._______________is carried out to evaluate performance of programs, including

tracking advertising recall, corporate and brand image studies, and measuring customer
satisfaction with the quality of the product and service.
Q4.___________ is an improvement over the CR design.

(a) randomized block design
(b) Latin square design
(c) factorial design
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Q5.____________ happens to be the most simple and fruitful method of formulating
precisely the research problem or developing hypotheses.
(a) the survey of concerning literature
(b) experience survey
(c) besides, the bibliographical survey of studies
Q6.___________ is the difference between a measure obtained from a sample

representing the population and the true measure that can be obtained only from the entire
population.
(a) Design error
(b) sampling error
(c) selection error
(d) non-sampling error
Q7. __________ is based on the normal probability distribution and is used for judging
the significance of several statistics measures, particularly the mean.
(a) z-test
(b) t-test
(c) f-test
Q8.__________ is measured as a percentage of total industry sales over a specified

period.
(a) Market share
(b) Recall share
(c) Advertising share
(d) R & D share
Q9. _________ is based on chi-square distribution and as a paramedic test is used for
comparing a sample variance to a theoretical population variance is unknown
(a) z-test
(b) t-test
(c) f-test
Q10.____________ is based on t-distribution and is considered an appropriate test for

judging the significance of sample mean or for judging significance of difference
between the two means of the two samples
(a) z-test
(b) t-test
(c) f-test
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Q11.___________ is already made in one’s is of interest may as well as made by the
researcher for precisely formulating the problem.
Q12.___________ may be defined as a method of collecting primary data in which

number of individual with a common interest interact with each other.
(a) personal interview
(b) telephone interview
(c) mail survey
(d) group interview
Q13._________ describes as fully as possible the kind of information the decision maker
needs.
(a) exploratory research
(b) clear research objectives
(c) both a and b
Q14.In __________ method, sampling is carried out in two or more stages.

(a) Probability or random sampling
(b) systematic random sampling
(c) multi-stage and sub-sampling
(d) proportionate stratified sampling
Q15.In a _________objects is assigned to mutually exclusive, labeled categories ,but

there are no necessary relationships among the categories.
(a) nominal scale
(b) ordinal scale
(c) interval scale
(d) ratio scale
Q16.____________ is suitable in is as where there is little experience to serve as a guide.

(d) analysis of ‘insight –stimulating’
Q17.______________ is those that have only one item to measure a construct.

(a) single item scale
(b) itemized scale
(c) comparative scale
(d) rank order scale
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Q18.____________ will suggest further relevant variables and help the researcher absorb
the vocabulary and point of view of the typical respondent.
(a) exploratory research
(b) clear research objectives
(c) both a and b
Q19.___________ means that we should plan the experiment in a manner that we can
perform a two-way analysis of variance.
Q20._______ is obtained by ranking or by arranging them in order with regard to some

common variable.
(a) nominal scale
(b) ordinal scale
(c) interval scale
(d) ratio scale
Q21.___________ involves selection of a certain number of sub-samples rather than one

full sample from a population.
(c) Stratified random sampling
(d) replicated or interpenetrating sampling
Q22.___________ is the difference or variation between the information required for a

marketing research study and the information being sought by the researcher.
(a) surrogate información error
(b) sampling error
(c) selection error
Q23. _________refers to the subsection of the final sample form a pre-selected larger
sample that provided information for improving the final selection.
(c) double sampling and multiphase sampling
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Q24.____________ can occur when data from the questionnaire is coded, edited.
(a) Design error
(b) sampling error
(c) data analysis error
Q25._____________ means the survey of people who have had practical experience with
the problem to be studied.
Q26._________ is one of the prominent methods of data collection .

(c) mail survey
Q27. These may include cameras, tape recorders, videotape.

(a) mechanical devices
(b) field observation log
(c) both a and b
Q28.What is the pre-requisites of effective observation?

(a) observations must be done under conditions which will permit accurate results
(b) observation must cover a sufficient number of representative samples of the cases
(c) recording should be accurate and complete
Q29. What are the benefits of observation?

(a) the main virtue of observation is its directness
(b) data collected by observation may describe the observed phenomena as they occur in
their natural settings
(c) both a and b
Q30.What is the limitations of observation?

(a) no use for studying past events or activities
(b) not suitable for studying and attitudes
(c) both a and b
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Q31.__________ , also called researcher-induced errors.
(a) Design error
(b) sampling error
(c) selection error
Q32.___________ occurs when a sample obtained through a non-probability sampling

method is not representative of population.
(a) Design error
(b) sampling error
(c) selection error
Q33.What is the main understanding between the manager and the researcher for the
research purpose?
(a) users of the research results
(b) problems or opportunities to be studied
(c) decision alternatives being studied
Q34.___________ is directory of population members from which a sample is selected.

(a) Design error
(b) sampling frame error
(c) selection error
Q35.___________ includes all other errors associated with a research project.

(a) Design error
(b) sampling error
(c) selection error
Q36.What is the uses of secondary data?

(a) reference purpose
(b) bench marks against which the findings of research may be tested
(c) sole source of information for a research project studies as securities
Q37. __________ is a non-personal method of data collection.

(c) mail survey
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Q38.In ___________ the respondents is asked to sort the various characteristics or
objects that is being comprised into various groups.
(b) itemized scale
(c) Q-sort scaling
Q39. ____________ require respondents to allocate a fixed number of rating points

among several objects to reflect the relative preference of each object.
(b) itemized scale
(c) constant sum scale
Q40. In the _________, the various categories of the scale are depicted pictorially.
(b) itemized scale
(d) pictorial scale
Q41.____________ is a special kind of interval scale that has a meaningful zero point.
(a) nominal scale
(b) ordinal scale
(c) interval scale
(d) ratio scale
Q42.______________ requires the respondent to arrange a set of objects with regard to a

common criterion.
(b) itemized scale
Q43.___________ requires a respondent to indicate a degree of agreement or

disagreement with a variety of statement related to the attitudes or objects.
(b) Liker scale
Q44.The procedure of ______________ is also known as the method of equal appearing

intervals.
(b) Thurston scale
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Q45.In _______ the numbers used to rank the objects also represent equals increments of
the attribute being measured.
(a) nominal scale
(b) ordinal scale
(c) interval scale
(d) ratio scale
Q46.____________ is used widely to describe the set of beliefs that compromise a

person’s image of an organization or brand.
(a) semantic-differential scale
(b) ordinal scale
(c) interval scale
(d) ratio scale
Q47._____________ can be applied to various populations such as students in a class

,houses in a street etc.
Q48.____________ is based on the theory of probability.

(b) Simple random sampling
Q49.The probability of ________ is usually determined in advance and is understood as

the level of significance of testing the hypotheses.
(a) Null hypothesis
(b) The level if significance
(c) Decision rule of hypotheses
(d) Type I errors
Q50. What are the factors that affect the level of significance?
(a) the size of the sample
(b) the variability of measurements within samples
(c) the magnitude of the difference between samples
Q51._________ is designed for publication in professional journal.

(a) Popular reports
(b) Technical reports
(c) Research article
(d) Summary reports
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Q52.In ___________ the reader is less interested in the methodological details, but more
interested in the findings of the study.
(a) Popular reports
(d) Summary reports
Q53.___________ narrates what has been done so as and what was its outcome.
(a) Interim reports
(d) Summary reports
Q54.____________ is magnet for lay audience i.e. the general public .

(a) Popular reports
(d) Summary reports
Q55._________ is a short summary of technical report .

(a) Popular reports
(c) Research abstract
(d) Summary reports
Q56. In _____________, comprehensive full report of the research process and its
outcome.
(a) Popular reports
(d) Summary reports
Q57.__________ is a company’s research and development expenditure as a percentage

of total industry R & D expenditures.
(a) Market share
(b) Recall share
(d) R & D share
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Q58.__________ is the percentage of media space or time a brand has of the total media
share of that industry, often, measured simply as dollars the total media share for that
industry.
(a) Market share
(b) Recall share
(d) R & D share
Q59.__________ is the percentage of customers who name the brand when they is asked
to name the first brand that comes to mind when they consider buying a particular type pf
product.
(a) Market share
(b) Recall share
(d) R & D share
Q60. What is the difference between the terms market research and marketing research?
(a) Market research concerns strategic decisions, marketing research does not
(b) Market research concerns operational decisions, marketing research does not
(c) Marketing research looks at academic matters, market research does not
(d) None of the above
Q61. Which one of these is NOT an element of the MKIS?
(a) Internal Records

(b) Marketing Insight System
(c) Marketing Research System
(d) Analysis System
Q62. Which one of these has less to do with marketing research than the others?
(a) FIS
(b) CAPI
(c) MKIS
(d) MDSS
Q63. Most qualitative research money goes into...
(a) Depths
(b) Group Discussions
(c) Delphi
(d) Ethnography
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Q64. Which of these quantitative methods is favoured in Europe?
(a) Telephone
(b) Postal
(c) Face to Face
(d) Online
Q65. Which is the odd one out?
(a) IPSOS
(b) MRS
(c) GFK
(d) TNS
Q66. Which is the odd one out?
(a) CIM
(b) ESOMAR
(c) MRS
(d) NRS
Q67. Semiotics refers to:
(a) the analysis of signs.

(b) body language.
(c) a projective technique.
(d) syndicated.
Q68. Semiotic analysis is criticised for being:
(a) objective.
(b) old-fashioned.
(c) subjective.
(d) too simple.
PART C
Q1.Which of this is included in the personal selling decisions?

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Q2.What is the benefits of secondary data?
(a) can be secured quickly and cheaply
(b) longer reference
(c) both a and b
Q3. Which of this is included in the product decisions?

Q4. Which of this is included in the branding decisions?

Q5. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) marketing is the processes of planning and executing the conception, pricing,
promotion, and distribution of ideas, goods, and services to crate exchanges that satisfy
individual and organizational objectives
(b) the marketing concept requires that customer satisfaction rather than profit
maximization, be the global of an organization.
(c) both a and b
Q6. Which of this is included in the distribution decisions?

Q7. It is uses in agricultural research.

Q8.It is used in experiments where the effects of varying more than one factor are to be
determined.
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Q9. Arrange the fooling in the order as they are required in the research studies:
(i) what research should be done? (ii) how should the research be designed to achieve the
research objectives (iii) why should we do research? (iv) is it worth doing research?
(a) ii,iii,iv,i
(b) i,iii,ii,iv
(c) iii,i, iv, ii
(d) iv,ii,i,iii
Q10.Which of the following is included in the behavioral variables?

(a) race
(b) intention
(c) resources
(d) cities
Q11.This is an important form of cluster sampling.

(a) area sampling
Q12.What is the circumstances for hypotheses construction?

(a) it should be specific and precise
(b) it should be empirically testable, where it is right or wrong
(c) the statements in the hypothesis should not be contradictory
Q13.What is the ways of avoiding distraction while presentation?

(a) take everything’s out of your packet and make sure there is nothing on the lectern
(b) try to avoid the extremes of either obvious pacing or hiding behind a lectern
(c) both a and b
Q14.Which of the following is false?

(a) research report is a means for communicating research experience to others
(b) the purpose of the research report is to communicate to interested persons the
methodology
(c) research report is a narrative and authoritative document on the outcome of a research
effort
Q15.What is the key features of proportionate stratified sampling?

(a) provides a known non-zero chance of selection for each population element
(b) easiest methods
(c) involves drawing a sample from each stratum in proportion to the latter’s share in the
total population
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Q16. This sampling technique gives each element an equal and independent chance of
being selected.
Q17.Thus sampling involves drawing a sample from each stratum in proportion to the
latter’s share in the total population.
Q18.This type of sampling is suited for a small homogenous population.

Q19.What is the benefits of disproportionate stratified random sampling?

(a) easiest methods
(b) enhances the representative ness to each sample
(c) less time consuming
Q20.This is an improved type of random or probability sampling .

(a) proportionate stratified sampling
Q21.This does not involve the physical presence of the observer, and the recording is
done by mechanical; , photographic or electronic devices.
(a) indirect observation
(b) controlled observation
Q22.This method is used when the population contains some small but important
subgroups, when groups are quite heterogeneous.
(d) disproportionate stratified random sampling
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Q23.What is the considerations for framing the questions?

(a) do any words have a vague or ambiguous meaning
(b) is the question applicable to all respondents
(c) is any questions double-barreled
Q24.This method dies not give proportionate representation to the strata?

(c) disproportionate stratified random sampling
Q25.What is the major principles of experimental designs?

Q26.What is the main ways of collecting the data?

(c) mail survey
Q27.What is the benefits of personal interview?

(a) depth and detail of the information can be secured
(b) interviewer can do more to improve the percentage of reposes
(c) both a and b
Q28.This is the colorful name for a technique of building up a list or a sample of a special
population by using an initial set of its member as informants.
(c) quota sampling
Q29.This is the simplest and most familiar procedure of random sampling.

(c) lottery method
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Q30.Arrange the following steps in the order as they are required to develop a good
questionnaire:
(i) plan what to measure (ii) formulate questions to obtain the needed answers (iii) correct
the problems and pre-test again
(a) i,ii,iii
(b) iii,i,ii
(c) ii,iii,i
(d) iii,ii,i
Q31.In this observation the observer is a part of the phenomena or group which is
observed and he acts as both an observer and a participant.
Q32. This means observation of an event personally by the observer when it takes place.
Q33.In this method, the observer stand apart and does not participate in the phenomenon
observed.
(c) non-participant observation
Q34.This involves standardization techniques and experiences of maximum control over

extrinsic and intrinsic variables by adopting experimental design .
Q35.What is the benefits of simple random sampling?

(a) one of the easiest methods
(b) can easily be computed
(c) both a and b
_____________________________________________________________________ 26
________________________________________________________________________
Q36.This method is sampling is an alternative to random selection.
Q37.What is the key features of probability or random sampling?

(b) easiest methods
total population
Q38.What is the factors considered in making the decision of census or sampling?

(a) the size of population
(b) amount of funds budgeted for the study
(c) facilities
Q39.What is the key features of simple random sampling

(b) easiest methods
total population
Q40.What is the criteria of sampling procedure?

(a) purpose of the survey
(b) measurability
(c) degree of precision
Q41.It means random selection of sampling units consisting of population elements.

(a) cluster sampling
Q42.This is very important concept in the context of hypotheses testing.

(a) Null hypothesis
(b) The level of significance
(c) Decision rule of hypotheses
(d) Type I and Type II errors
_____________________________________________________________________ 27
________________________________________________________________________
Q43.This step consist in making a formal statement of the null hypothesis.
(a) Making a formal statement
(b) Selecting a significant level
(c) Deciding the distribution to use
(d) Calculation of the probability
Q44.In this step, one has to calculate the probability that then sample result would
diverge as widely as it has from expectations.
(a) Making a formal statement
(b) Selecting a significant level
(c) Deciding the distribution to use
(d) Calculation of the probability
Q45.What is the feature of hypotheses?

(a) an assumption about relations between variables
(b) a tentative explanation of the research problems or a guess about the research
outcome
(c) both a and b
Q46. What are the functions of hypotheses?

(a) determines the data needs
(b) gives a definite point to the investigation
(c) determines the most appropriate technique of theory
Q47. What is the nature of hypothesis?

(a) must consider the experience of other researches
(b) must accurate reflect the relevant sociological fact
(c) both and b
Q48.Which of the following is included in prefatory items?

(a) introduction
(b) table of content
(c) models if any
Q49.Arrange the following in the order as they is in successful presentations ?

(i) create audience interest (ii) communicate to a specific audience (iii) structure the
presentation (iv) be specific and visual
(a) ii,iii, i, iv
(b) iv,ii,iii,i
(c) ii,i.,iii,iv,i
(d) iv, i,iii,ii
_____________________________________________________________________ 28
________________________________________________________________________
Q50.Which of the following is included in the body of the report?
(a) list of tables
(b) certificates
(c) methodology
(d) title page
Q51.What is the purpose of research work?

(a) to communicate to interested persons the methodology and the results of the study
(b) to convince what was done
(c) both a and b
Q52. Which of the following is included in reference material?

(a) appendix
(b) bibliography
(c) compiles tables
Q53.Match the following :

1.Comprehnsive full report of the research process a. research abstract
and its outcome
2.Short summary of technical report b. technical reports
3. meant for lay audience c. summary reports
4. the research is less interested in the methodical details d. popular reports
(a) 1-d,2-a, 3-c, 4-b
(b) 1-b,2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(c) 1-b,2-c, 3-a, 4-d
(d) 1-b,2-a, 3-d, 4-c
Q54.What is the key functions of research report?

(a) it is a means for judging the quality of research project
(b) it is a meant for evaluating researcher’s competency
(c) both a and b
Q55.What all is included in the process-based assessment?

(a) marketing skill audio
(b) comparison of relative to cost
(c) brand equity
_____________________________________________________________________ 29
________________________________________________________________________
Q56.Match the following:
1.the percentage of customers who name the brand
when they is asked to name the first brand that
comes to mind when they consider buying a
particular type pf product. a. Recall share
2. measured as a percentage of total industry sales
over a specified period. b. Market Share
3. the percentage of media space or time a brand
has of the total media share of that industry,
often, measured simply as dollars the total media
share for that industry. c. Advertising share
4. company’s research and development expenditure
as a percentage of total industry R & D expenditures. d. R & D share
(a) 1-b,2-a,3-c,4-d
(b) 1-a,2-b,3-c,4-d
(c) 1-a,2-c,3-b,4-d
(d) 1-a,2-b,3-d,4-c
Q57.Which of the following is true?

(a) Market shares are measured as a percentage of total industry sales over a specified
time period.
(b) recall share is the percentage of customers who name the brand when they is asked to
name the first brand that comes to mind when they consider buying a particular type of
product
(c) both a and b
Q58. What is data "which relates to a living individual who can be identified from the
data, or from the data and other information in the possession of, or likely to come into
the possession of, the data controller"?
(a) Impersonal data

(b) Personal data
(c) Behavioural data
(d) Something else
Q59. How many principles are contained in the UK Data Protection Act 1998?
(a) Eight
(b) Ten
(c) Twelve
(d) Fourteen
_____________________________________________________________________ 30
________________________________________________________________________
Q60. Which Job matches this description? "Responsible for specific parts of projects,
may be part of a team. Will write naires and analyse results. May prepare reports and
presentations."
(a) Spec Writer

(b) Research Executive
(c) Personal Interviewer
(d) Moderator
Q61. Which ONE of these is NOT one of the four Ps of the original marketing mix
proposed by McCarthy in the late 1950s?
(a) Product
(b) Price
(c) Publication
(d) Place
Q62. Which ONE of these is a technique useful in project planning?
(a) SERT
(b) SPERT
(c) PERT
(d) REPT
Q63. Which ONE is the odd one out?
(a) Aim
(b) Goal
(c) Objective
(d) Subjective
Q64. Which ONE of these is one of the four Ps of the marketing research mix (MR Mix)
proposed by Bradley in the early 2000s?
(a) Probability
(b) Purpose
(c) Parameter
(d) Promotion
Q65. Which ONE of these needs to be decided before considering whether to take a
census or sample?
(a) The method

(b) The objectives
(c) The reporting style
(d) The Gantt chart
_____________________________________________________________________ 31
________________________________________________________________________
Q66. Which ONE of these should be used as a starting point for any research project?
(a) Primary data

(b) Secondary data
(c) Omnibus data
(d) Continuous data
Q67. The depth interview is the same as a:
(a) Delphi interview.

(b) quantitative interview.
(c) focused interview.
(d) semiotic study.
Q68. Which ONE of the following is generally considered to be a forecasting method?
(a) Accompanied shopping

(b) Delphi interview
(c) Depth interview
(d) Focus group
_____________________________________________________________________ 32
________________________________________________________________________
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Q3.What is the main types of research designs?

Q4.What is the benefits of telephone interviewing?

Q5.What is the limitations of secondary data?

Q6.Which of the following is included in demographic and socio-economic

Q8.What is the questions to be considered in strategy development?

Q10. Which of this is included in the advertising and promotion decisions?

Q11.Which of this is included in the segmentation decisions?

Q12.What is the feature of research report?

Q13. Which of this is included in the price decisions?

Q15. What are the key features of secondary data?

Q16.what is the important concept relating to research design?

Q17.It provides protection, when we conduct an experiment, against the effect of

Q18. Which of the fooling is included in the territorial data?

Q19. What are the main sources of data?

Q20.What is the basic need of research design?

Q22.What all is included in the measurement accuracy and measurement development?

Q23.What is the key features of good research design?

Q25.What is the basic guidelines for sequencing a questionnaire ?

Q26.This may take the form of a dairy or cards.

Q29.What is the main types of data?

Q30.What is the benefits of group interview?

Q31.What is the advantages of proportionate stratified sampling?

Q32.What is the disadvantages of simple random sampling?

Q34.This is a form of convenient sampling involving selection of quota groups of

Q36.What is the key features of table of random numbers?

Q37.What is the key features of good hypotheses?

Q38.What is the considerations for the choice of null hypotheses?

Q39.Which of the following is the important parametric test of hypotheses?

Q40.What is the points to be considered for effective report writing?

Q41.What is the main guidelines for successful presentations?

Q43.What is the various categories of brand equity?

Q47.What is the common ethical issues for the research supplier?

(a) Rejecting or accepting a proposal

Q50. Why might we have a qualitative stage at the end of a project?

(a) To generate a sampling frame

Q51. Who produces the research brief?

Q52. The brief does NOT contain:

Q53. Which ONE of these services is NOT a search engine?

(a) data privacy.

Q55. Which ONE of these is the best description of secondary data?

(a) Ordinary data

Q56. Which ONE of these is a good example of tertiary data?

Q57. Secondary data is LEAST helpful in:

(a) developing naires.

(a) It may not be accurate

(a) Magazine reviews of games

(a) Magazine reviews of games

(a) The source

Q62. Desk research plans should start with:

(a) primary data.

Q64. At what point does the analysis of qualitative data begin?

(a) Before data collection

(a) To discover the existence of opinions

(a) probe intimate situations.

Q67. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE of non-verbal communications?

Q1._____________ is done to test different decision alternatives such as new product

Q2.____________ is performed to develop marketing options through market

Q3._______________is carried out to evaluate performance of programs, including

Q4.___________ is an improvement over the CR design.

Q6.___________ is the difference between a measure obtained from a sample

Q8.__________ is measured as a percentage of total industry sales over a specified

Q10.____________ is based on t-distribution and is considered an appropriate test for