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1. You are giving a lecture to a college physiology class.

They are fascinated with the genetics and

development of hermaphrodites. You explain that true hermaphrodites have which of the following?
(A) ovaries and testicular remnants
(B) the absence of any Müllerian tissue due to Müllerian-inhibiting factor (MIF)
(C) 46, XY karyotype
(D) ambiguous genitalia
(E) external genitalia that are responsive to both adrenal and testicular androgens

2. On ultrasound, a large isolated cyst is seen in the fetal pelvis. At birth a cloaca is seen in a female
fetus. You explain to the parents that urorectal septum did not form thus resulting in which of the
(A) The single-chambered cloaca did not divide into the urogenital sinus and anorectal canal.
(B) The junction of the cloacal membrane and urorectal septum become the labia.
(C) The cloacal membrane differentiated into the urogenital membrane and the anal membrane.
(D) The urogenital sinus did not form the vagina and the lower bladder wall to the ureterovesical
(E) The urorectal septum did not form a rectum and lower third of the sigmoid colon.

3. 37. Patients with a 45,XO karyotype are invariably of short stature because the locus responsible
for short stature is located where?
(A) long arm of X (B) short arm of X
(C) centromere of the O chromosome
(D) long arm of chromosome 45
(E) short arm of chromosome 45

4. 38. Your patient’s previous child died at 8 weeks of age. Her family called it crib death, but the
autopsy suggested a metabolic disease. Which of the following most commonly describes inborn
errors of metabolism that are diagnosable in utero?
(A) not genetic diseases
(B) autosomal dominants
(C) autosomal recessives
(D) sex linked
(E) polygenic in origin

5. A woman with blood type O gave birth to an AB infant. She and her partner are quite concerned that there
may be a mix-up in the nursery. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Lyon hypothesis
(B) chimerism
(C) Bombay phenotype
(D) laboratory error
(E) a maternal blocking antibody

6. A 32-year-old G3P2002 woman presents for routine prenatal care at 37 weeks. Her pregnancy
is complicated by Rh-negative status, depression, and a history of LSIL Pap smear with normal
colposcopy in the first trimester. Today she reports good fetal movement and denies leaking
fluid or contractions. During your examination you measure the fundal height at an appropriate
37 cm, and find fetal heart tones located in the upper aspect of the uterus. A bedside ultrasound
reveals frank breech presentation.

7. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
a. Schedule a cesarean delivery for 39 weeks
b. Return visit in 1 week to reassess fetal position
c. Schedule an external cephalic version
d. Offer a trial of vaginal breech delivery

8. Which of these structures does NOT produce progesterone?

a. Placenta
b. Endometrium
c. Corpus luteum
d. Follicle
e. Adrenal cortex
9. A baby presents with ambiguous genitalia. A full chromosome count is sent and will return in 72
hours. Your laboratory can perform a test for Barr body so you can provide a preliminary answer
sooner. What is the Barr body?
(A) the condensed, nonfunctioning X chromosome
(B) the darkest, widest band found on chromosomes
(C) an extra lobe on the female polymorphonuclear leukocytes
(D) found only in the female
(E) the largest chromosome in the female genotype

10. Since the workup of an elevated PRL level can be expensive, it is recommended that PRL levels
are drawn when the lowest values are to be expected. Which of the following is true about PRL
(A) decrease after exercise
(B) decrease during surgery
(C) decrease shortly after sleep
(D) decrease after a breast examination
(E) increase during stress

11. In the 1950s to 1960s physicians commonly used various compounds in an attempt to hormonally
support a pregnancy and avoid a miscarriage. A popular preparation was found to cause vaginal
adenosis in female offspring often 20 to 30 years later. Which of the following compounds that were
used to prevent miscarriages had this unfortunate complication?
(A) dehydroepiandrosterone
(B) diethylstilbestrol (DES)
(C) estradiol
(D) estrone
(E) testosterone

12. A 22-year-old G3P2002 who had a hematocrit of 36% at her initial obstetrical examination at 12 weeks
is found to have a hematocrit of 30% at 28 weeks when checked along with her 1 hour glucola. Based
on the indices of the red blood cells on the CBC, you diagnose iron deficiency. She asks why that
occurred since she has been taking her prenatal vitamins. As part of the explanation, you note that.
which of the following maternal measurements or findings is first decreased by the iron requirements
of pregnancy?
(A) bone marrow iron
(B) hemoglobin
(C) jejunal absorption of iron
(D) red cell size
(E) serum iron-binding capacity

13. During pregnancy the blood volume increases by 40%. The increase in blood volume in normal
pregnancy is made up of which of the following?
(A) erythrocytes
(B) more erythrocytes than plasma
(C) more plasma than erythrocytes
(D) neither plasma nor erythrocytes
(E) plasma only

14. In response to the increased vascular volume, the maternal cardiovascular system undergoes great change
during pregnancy. During prenatal care, which of the following findings is part of the cardiovascular
response to this increase in preload?
(A) apical systolic murmurs are heard in approximately half of pregnant patients
(B) arrhythmias are common
(C) cardiac output is decreased by lying in the lateral position
(D) the heart enlarges greatly, as can be demonstrated by standard chest X-rays
(E) the stroke volume decreases

15. A 33-year-old G0P0 woman comes to your office for her initial prenatal visit. She tested
positive with two home pregnancy tests and has been experiencing breast tenderness and mild
nausea for a few weeks. She has a history of regular menstrual periods occurring every 28 to 30
days. This was a planned pregnancy and is the first child for her and for her partner. As her
pregnancy continues, you would expect her cardiac output to increase by which of the following
a. First an increase in stroke volume, then an increase in heart rate
b. A decrease in systemic vascular resistance
c. Cardiac output would not change significantly until the third trimester
d. An increase in systemic vascular resistance facilitated by elevated progesterone levels
e. Increased heart rate alone

16 During pregnancy, the hormonal system of a woman is markedly altered since the fetus and placenta add
their production to the maternal hormone production. This impacts maternal physiology and some of the
findings of pregnancy. Estrogen is such a hormone that increases markedly. Most of this estrogen is produced
by which of the following?
(A) adrenals
(B) fetus
(C) ovaries
(D) placenta
(E) uterus

17. An ovary is removed for frozen section pathologic examination. The ovary is enlarged, with small
surface excrescences. Pathologic examination reveals numerous cysts lined by serous epithelium with six
to eight cell layers piled on top of one another to form the cyst walls. The cells show marked cytologic
atypia, and nests of similar cells are present in the ovarian stroma. Round laminated calcium bodies are
also seen. What diagnosis does this histologic description indicate?
(A) normal proliferative phase follicle
(B) corpus luteum cyst
(C) ovarian endometriosis
(D) borderline ovarian carcinoma
(E) cystadenocarcinoma

18. A chronic hypertensive patient presents with complaints of decreased fetal movement. Her prenatal care
has been sporadic but it appears that she is at 37 weeks’ gestation with an estimated fetal weight
of 2,200 g. Concerns are raised regarding placental reserves for oxygenating the fetus. This can be most
directly assessed by which of the following?
(A) biophysical profile
(B) a fetal ultrasound growth curve
(C) lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
(D) maternal alpha-fetoprotein
(E) maternal estriol production

19. A patient develops a neurologic disease that destroys components of S2, S3, S4 bilaterally. What clinical
manifestation would you expect the patient to have as a result?
(A) inability to abduct her thigh
(B) rectal incontinence
(C) painless menses
(D) labor without pain
(E) inability to extend her knees

20. All of the following are risk factors for uterine fibroids except:
a. African American heritage
b. multiparity
c. early menarche
d. perimenopause
e. hypertension

Questions 21 through 23 apply to the following patient

A G3P2002 woman at 35 weeks is seen in your office for her prenatal visit. She is concerned
because she has not felt her b aby moving as much as she used to. Her pregnancy has been
uncomplicated and her past two pregnancies ended in full term, normal spontaneous vaginal

21A biophysical profile (BPP) i s done to assess which of the following?

a. Diastolic flow in the umbilical artery

b. Lung maturity

c. Blood flow in the middle c erebral artery

d. Fetal well-being

e. Genetic abnormalities

22An indication for early deliv ery is identified, but first a test for fetal lung maturity is done. Which of
the following is true?

a. Type I pneumocytes secrete surfactant

b. A lecithin to sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio greater than 2 is ideal if an early delivery is


c. A low L/S ratio is associated with fewer cases of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

d. Typically, lecithin decrea ses as the lung matures

e. Sphingomyelin decrease s beyond 24 weeks

23When formal antenatal testing is done, which of the following is most reass uring?

a. Late decelerations on fet al monitoring

b. A contraction stress test (CST) with variable fetal heartrate (FHR) decelerations with
contractions, but moderatte variability

c. A nonstress test (NST) w ith two accelerations of the FHR in 20 min utes that are at least
15 beats above baseline and last for at least 15 seconds

d. An increase in the systolic to diastolic ratio in the umbilical artery blood flow

e. A score of 6 on a BPP

Questions 22 through 26 apply too the following patient

You are providing prenatal care to a 22-year-old G1P0 woman at 16 weeks GA by LMP. She has
had a relatively smooth pregnancy without complications thus far. At 5’5” an d 215 lb she has an
obese BMI, otherwise without medical or surgical history. She presented to prenatal care at 14½
weeks, and so missed first-trim ester screening. She undergoes the quad screen and has an elevated
level of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP).

24 Given the elevation in MSAF P, her pregnancy is at increased risk for which of the

f. Gestational diabetes

g. Gastroschisis

h. Down syndrome

i. Klinefelter syndrome

j. All of the above

25. You discuss the potential meaning of the elevated MSAFP. After a lo ng conversation, the
patient decides to undergo her s econd trimester ultrasound. Which of the folllowing
findings seen on ultrasound would NOT be an explanation for the elevated MSAFP?
a. Double bubble-duodena l atresia

b. A membrane-covered m ass protruding through the abdominal wall

c. Fetal bowel floating aro und in the amniotic fluid

d. Lack of a fetal skull

e. A small membrane-cove red out pouching in the lower back/spine

26. The ultrasound reveals a myelomeningocele. Which of the following is true and may be
used in counseling?
i. This is generally a lethal anomaly

ii. Delivery must be by cesarean to protect the baby

iii. Fetal surgery includes l aser therapy

iv. Fetal surgery has been shown to improve some outcomes

v. Fetal surgery is experim ental and has no known benefits

27. The increased incidence of t his finding is associated with which of the f ollowing
medications when used in pregnancy?

vi. Valproic acid

vii. Lithium

viii. Fluoxetine

ix. Prednisone

x. Acetaminophen

28. In a subsequent pregnancy, p revention of recurrence would include:

b. low-dose aspirin

c. low molecular weight heparin

d. prenatal vitamins taken t wice per day

e. 4 mg folic acid

f. increased dietary calcium

Questions 27 through 30 apply to the following patient

A 24-year-old G1P0 woman pr esents for prenatal care at 8 weeks by LM P. She has regular
menses every 28 to 30 days and you confirm her gestational age with an ultrasound today in the
office. She has no past medical or surgical history. She and her husband of 6 months planned the
pregnancy and they have both been reading about pregnancy and prenatal care. You discuss the
prenatal tests for the first visit as well as the plan throughout the rest of the prregnancy.

29. As part of this discussion, yo u offer her which of the following prenatal
screening/diagnostic tests?

g. CVS

h. Amniocentesis

i. First-trimester screening
j. Quad screening

k. All of the above

30. The patient opts to undergo first-trimester screening, which returns w ith a risk for Down
syndrome of 1 in 1,214 and risk of trisomy18 of 1 in 987. At 18 weeks, she gets a quad
screen, and her estriol, β-hCG, and α-fetoprotein (AFP) were all low. She has a n
ultrasound, which shows a fetus consistent with 16 weeks’ size, increased amniotic fluid,
club foot, omphalocele, choroid plexus cyst, and possib le heart defect. On the basis of the
patie nt’s history and data provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Trisomy 21

b. Trisomy 18

c. Trisomy 13

d. Turner syndrome

e. Klinefelter syndrome

31. The patient and her husband wish to have a definitive diagnosis. Which of the following
tests do you offer her?

a. Amniocentesis

b. CVS

c. Array CGH

d. Quad screen

e. Non invasive prenatal diagnosis

32. Because of their anxiety about the diagnosis, the patient and her husban d wonder if there
is a faster test one could do to obtaiin a diagnosis more quickly. Which of the f ollowing
do you offer them?

a. Array CGH

b. Fetal MRI


d. MCA Doppler
e. Quad screen

Questions 31 through 33 apply to the following patient

A 24-year-old G2P1001 woman at 39 weeks and 3 days is seen in clinic. She has been
experiencing more frequent con tractions and thinks she might be in labor. Her last pregnancy
ended with a cesarean delivery after a stage 1 arrest. There was no evidence of cephalopelvic
disproportion. Earlier in the course of her current pregnancy she had desire d a scheduled repeat
cesarean, but now that she might be in labor she would like to try and delivery vaginally.

33. What would be a contra indication to a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)?

a. Prior classical hysterotomy

b. Prior Kerr hysterotomy

c. Small for gestational age f etus

d. Oligohydramnios

e. GBS + mother

34. After counseling and consent, the patient agrees to a trial of labor and after dilating to 10
cm, she begins to push. After 1 hour of pushing, the fetal heart tracing has ab sent variability
and a baseline that has risen to the 180 beats per minute. The baby’s station is low enough
to consider using either forceps or vacuum. Which of the following is not required for
forceps delivery?
a. Adequate anesthesia

b. Evidence of cephalopelvic disproportion

c. Full dilation of the cervix

d. At least 2 station and enga ged head

e. Knowledge of fetal positio n

35. You decide to attempt vac uum extraction. Which of the following is the most common
complication of vacuum extraction?
a. Fetal facial nerve palsy

b. Maternal perineal laceratio n

c. Cephalohematoma

d. Fetal skull fracture

e. Prolonged stage 3

36. Ms. Smith is a 37-year old multigravida who presents to your office at 32 weeks'gestation
as calculated by her last menstrual period. Her hematocrit is 29 volume percent, and she
has sicklecdl trait. During sonographic evaluation, the fetus has biometric values that
correlate with a 28-week fetus. During the next week, umbilical artery Doppler
velocimetry indicates reversed end-diastolic flow (REDF), and the amnionic fluid index
(AFI) is 4 cm. What is appropriate at this time?
A. Deliver the fetus
B. Plan delivery at 38 weeks after amniocentesis for pulmonary maturity
C. Continue serial umbilical artery Doppler studies and AFI assessment
D. All are reasonable

37. Post operatively maintenance intravenous administered fluids are:

A. Ringer solution or a similar crystalloid solution with 5-percent dextrose
B. 10% dextrose
C. Colloid solution
D. Crystalloid solution with 40-percent dextrose
E. Amino acid based fluid

38. Which of the following is not associated with increased risk for breech presentation?
A. Fetal anencephaly
B. Uterine anomalies
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Chorioamnionitis
E. Hydrocephaly
39. What is the most common complication that might happen to the baby that might happen
when you performing vaginal breech delivery?
A. After coming head
B. Bleeding
C. Femoral fracture
D. Erb’s Palsy
E. Brachial Palsy

40. A 21 years old G4P2 at 17 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal care visit. She
has a history of prostitution, but she denies engaging in such activities for the past month.
During examination, a painless lesion is noted on the right labia. The most likely diagnosis
is which of the following?
A. Chancroid
B. Primary syphilis
C. Bartholin gland duct abcess
D. Herpes simplex virus infection
E. Condiloma acuminate

41. 9 A 30-year-old multigravida presents with ruptured membranes atterm but without labor.
Following induction with misoprostol, her labor progresses rapidly, and she spontaneously
delivers alive born 3300-g neonate. Immediately after delivery, she complains of dyspnea.
She becomes apneic. Her autopsy reveal fetal squames within pulmonary vasculature. How
would her death be classified?
A. Perinatal death
B. Non maternal death
C. Direct maternal death
D. Indirect maternal death
E. Occasional maternal death

42. A 28 yo woman comes to outpatient clinic as she feels that the fetal movements was
decreased. She states that this is the first pregnancy and she was forgotten about her last
menstrual period because she had irregular menstruation. During this pregnancy, she has
already performed USG in the first trimester and second trimester. To confirm the
gestational age, which of the following tools that can be used
A. Last menstrual period
B. Quickening
C. Fundal height
D. USG in the first trimester
E. Fetal weight

43. A 28 yo woman comes to outpatient clinic as she feels that the fetal movements was
decreased. She states that this is the first pregnancy and she was forgotten about her last
menstrual period because she had irregular menstruation. During this pregnancy, she has
already performed USG in the first trimester and second trimester. Related to USG result
in the first trimester, now she has 42 weeks and 3 days of gestational age. Because she feels
that fetal movement was decreased, which the first step should be performed?
C. Amniocentesis
D. Referred to the delivery room
E. Admitted to the hospital

44. A couple is concerned about the safety of antenatal ultrasound. What should you counsel them regarding the

(A) Ultrasound has been in use for almost 40 years with no noted side effects.
(B) The reason it is called ultrasound is that it is safe, as verified by the Food and Drug
Administration (FDA).
(C) Ultrasound is done only by trained sonographers to ensure safe practice.
(D) Ultrasound may be associated with cataracts and hearing loss in animals, if used continually, and
thus it is used only when indicated.
(E) Antenatal ultrasound may be associated with heating in tissue and thus is used only when
45. The inguinal canal in an adult female was opened surgically. Which of the following structures would
normally be found?
(A) a cyst of the canal of Nuck
(B) Gartner’s duct cyst
(C) Cooper’s ligament
(D) the round ligament and the ilioinguinal nerve
(E) the pyramidalis muscle

46. The human pelvis is a complex structure that permits upright posture and being capable with childbirth
despite the relatively large fetal head. Which option includes all of the bones that make up the pelivs?
(A) trochanter, hip socket, ischium, sacrum, and pubis
(B) ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum, and coccyx
(C) ilium, ischium, and pubis
(D) sacrum, ischium, ilium, and pubis
(E) trochanter, sacrum, coccyx, ilium, and pubis

47. . During a physical examination myrtiform caruncles may be noted. What are they?
(A) circumferential nodules in the areola of the breast
(B) healing Bartholin’s cysts
(C) remnants of the Wolffian duct
(D) remnants of the hymen
(E) remnants of the Müllerian duct

48. The clitoris is a major sensory sexual organ. Where does it get its major nerve supply from?
(A) lumbar spinal nerve
(B) pudendal nerve
(C) femoral nerve
(D) ilioinguinal nerve
(E) anterior gluteal nerve
49. Which artery provides the main blood supply to the vulva?
(A) pudendal
(B) inferior hemorrhoidal
(C) ilioinguinal
(D) femoral
(E) inferior hypogastric

50.. The fetus can produce immune antibodies during development. Also there is some transport of immune
antibodies across the placenta. In the fetal blood at birth (compared to maternal blood), there is/are
generally which of the following?
(A) more immunoglobulin G (IgG) (B) similar IgG levels
(C) more immunoglobulin M (IgM) (D) more immunoglobulin A (IgA) (E) similar IgM levels

51 During delivery, which of the following muscles is most likely to be obviously torn?
(A) ischiocavernosus muscle
(B) bulbocavernosus muscle
(C) superficial transverse perineal muscle
(D) levator ani muscle
(E) coccygeus

52. A 56-year-old woman comes to your office for a yearly examination. During physical examination, you
notice that her left breast has a 2-cm area of retraction in the upper-outer quadrant that can be seen by simple
inspection. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Mondor’s disease
(B) benign fibroadenoma
(C) fibrocystic change
(D) breast cancer
(E) intraductal polyp
53. At an annual examination of a 33-year-old woman, a 3 x 4 mm mass is noted on the lateral aspect of her
vagina approximately 3 cm internally from the introitus and at the 3 o’clock position. Which of the following
biopsy findings would be most abnormal?
(A) bacteria
(B) a small (3-mm) cyst lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
(C) a thin keratin layer
(D) a 3-mm-thick epithelial layer
(E) a thin fibromuscular coat beneath the epithelium

54. During routine examination, an asymptomatic multiparous patient is found to have a raised 1-cm cyst on
her cervix. The area is biopsied and clear mucus is extruded. Histologic examination of the specimen shows
a lining of flattened columnar or cuboidal-type cells. With what would this clinical picture be most
(A) herpes cervicitis
(B) varicella infection
(C) cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
(D) nabothian cyst
(E) cervical adenosis

55 Your patient has diabetes mellitus and hypertension but she prefer to use “pills” for
contraception. She is considering progestin-only pill and combination oral contraception (COC).
You give counseling to her about the advantage and disadvantage of progestin-only pill compare
with COCs
A. More appropriate for diabetic and hypertention patient
B. Lower failure rate
C. Low rate of irregular bleeding
D. Low relative ectopic pregnancy rate
E. Relative more nausea and vomiting
56. A 44-year-old G5P5005 patient who is currently using oral contraceptive pills to control menorrhagia
had a hysterectomy for uterine enlargement. You suspect adenomyosis by history. Which histological
description supports the diagnosis of adenomyosis?
(A) the metaplastic change of glandular epithelium to muscle fibers in the uterus
(B) the same pattern and location as endometriosis
(C) the presence of endometrial glands and stroma deep within uterine muscle
(D) a premalignant change of the endometrium
(E) a premalignant change of the uterine muscle

57. A 38-year-old African American woman presents with heavy menses and an enlarged uterus. After an
examination the clinical diagnosis is leiomyoma of the uterus. Which of the following best describes this
(A) a soft, interdigitating mass of the uterine wall
(B) a premalignant papule of the uterine wall
(C) a rapidly dividing necrotic malignancy
(D) a rounded, smooth, firm, well-circumscribed mass
(E) erythematous, tender, and hereditary

58 Histologically, the presence of which of the following would determine that an ovarian teratoma is
(A) squamous cells
(B) all three germ cell lines
(C) immature fetal-like cells
(D) neural ectoderm
(E) an ovarian capsule

59 Histologic examination of the normal breast from a postmenopausal woman as compared to the breast
from a premenopausal woman would show which of the following?
(A) a decrease in the number and size of acinar glands and ductal elements, with decreased density of the
breast parenchyma
(B) an increase in breast size and turgidity because of an increase in the density of the parenchyma
(C) increase in number and size of acinar cells and a widening of the ductal lumens
(D) significant atrophy of the adipose tissue of the breast with little change in the actual breast
(E) no significant change in histology

60. A patient has a screening mammograph that shows a lesion that is high risk for carcinoma. While waiting
for her biopsy to be scheduled she has done some reading on the web regarding breast cancer. She is
confused by the number of different types of breast cancer and asks which is the most common pathologic
type of breast cancer?
(A) ductal (B) lobular (C) Paget’s
(D) inflammatory
(E) adenoid cystic

61 A couple of Southeast Asian ancestry are both thalassemia carriers. In counseling them you explain that
the main form of hemoglobin in the normal fetus is which of the following?
(A) Gower 1
(B) hemoglobin A (HbA)
(C) Gower 2
(D) hemoglobin F (HbF)
(E) Bart’s hemoglobin

62. A 40-year-old G2P0 woman at 7 weeks GA by LMP presents for her first prenatal visit. She
spontaneously conceived after 18 months of trying. She is excited about the pregnancy, but at the
same time is concerned about potential risks for herself as well as the baby because of her age. Her
husband is 52 years old, healthy, and has fathered two children from a prior marriage. The week
prior to the visit, she experienced spotting that lasted 3 days and then resolved. Currently, she has
no complaints. She has no past medical or surgical history except for a miscarriage 3 years ago.
She has regular periods every 30 days. Because of the lack of certainty, she is considering an
amniocentesis. The risks of amniocentesis include which of the following?
a. Alloimmunization of an Rh-negative woman carrying an Rh positive fetus b
b. Preeclampsia
c. Premature rupture of membranes
d. a, b, and c
e. a and c only

63. A woman has had a previous child with renal agenesis. She is a middle school biology teacher and
wants to understand more about development of the kidneys. Which of the following best describes the
function of pronephros?
(A) They begin the developmental sequence that forms the permanent excretory ducts and kidneys. (B) They
are the primitive kidney and ureter that will mature into the adult urinary tract.
(C) They develop as the primitive kidney and migrate caudally and laterally to form the
(D) They will serve as the fetal kidney until 16 weeks and the development of the metanephros. (E) They
form the primitive kidney and primitive upper genital ducts.

64. An amniocentesis results show a fetus with 45XO. In counseling the parents, how would you explain
that the genetic sex is determined?
(A) at ovulation
(B) at conception
(C) by the presence or absence of testosterone
(D) in the absence of Müllerian-inhibiting factor
(E) psychosocially after birth

65 A women is worried because she has been taking “body-building steroids” through week 10 of her
pregnancy. One of the steroids has a strong proportion of androgens. You explain that androgens can cause
which of the following?
(A) paramesonephros to differentiate into the proximal urinary duct system
(B) Wolffian ducts to develop
(C) Müllerian ducts to regress
(D) the primitive vaginal tube to regress
(E) the gonadal ridge to differentiate into a testis
66. Germ cells arise in which of the following?
(A) germinal epithelium of the gonad
(B) endoderm of the primitive gut
(C) Müllerian duct
(D) mesonephros
(E) ovarian cortex

67 Which of the following is the result of lack of fusion of the Müllerian duct system?
(A) uterine didelphys
(B) transverse vaginal septum
(C) unilateral renal agenesis
(D) imperforate hymen
(E) ovarian remnant syndrome

68. During early embryonic development the germ cells must migrate. If germ cells fail to enter the
developing genital ridge, which of the following is most likely to occur?
(A) ovarian teratomas
(B) ectopic pregnancy
(C) ovarian choriocarcinoma
(D) gonadal agenesis
(E) testicular feminization

69. In the examination of the newborn infant with ambiguous genitalia, which of the following is true? (A)
gonads that are palpable in the lower inguinal canal are always testes
(B) the presence of descended gonads rules out high testosterone virilization in an otherwise normal female
(C) pelvic ultrasound is usually not helpful as a method of assessing a newborn with ambiguous
(D) the presence of a normal uterus rules out the possibility of dysgenetic testes
(E) if the urethra is superior to the phallus, the infant is a male
A 32-year-old G3P2002 woman presents for routine prenatal care at37 weeks. Her pregnancy is
complicated by Rh-negative status, depression, and a history of LSIL Pap smear with normal
colposcopy in the first trimester. Today she reports good fetal movement an d denies leaking fluid
or contractions. During your exa mination you measure the fundal height at an appropriate 37 cm,
and find fetal heart tones locate d in the upper aspect of the uterus. A bedsid e ultrasound reveals
frank breech presentation.

70 Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?

a. Schedule a cesarean delivery for 39 weeks

b. Return visit in 1 week to reassess fetal position

c. Schedule an external cep halic version

d. Offer a trial of vaginal breech delivery

71 Prior to discharging the patient from labor and delivery triage after her successful external
cephalic version, which of the following should you do first?

e. Schedule induction for 39 weeks

f. Place abdominal binder t o help hold fetus in cephalic presentation

g. Prescribe tocolytic

h. Give RhoGAM

i. Check fetal position with ultrasound

72 Which of the following findings would deter you from offering this patient a trial of
breech delivery?

j. Frank breech presentation

k. Fetal weight of 3,200 g

l. Complete breech presentation

m. Fetal weight of 4,100 g

73Which of the following is not associated with increased risk for breech pre sentation?

n. Fetal anencephaly

o. Uterine anomalies

p. Polyhydramnios
d. Chorioamnionitis

Questions 72 through 74 apply to the following patient

A 33-year-old G8P5116 woman with fundal height of 39 cm presents for i nitial prenatal visit in
your clinic. She is currently an i nmate at a local jail. She is imprisoned on c harges of marijuana
possession. She has had no pre natal care. She is unsure of her last period but reports that she
started feeling the baby move ap proximately 5 months ago. She denies vaginal bleeding, leaking
fluid, or contractions during the pregnancy. She reports using marijuana nearly daily throughout
the pregnancy. She has not been taking any medications in pregnancy an d has had no other
exposures. The father of the baby is not involved. She does not have c ustody of her other children
and has an open DHS case. She hopes to regain custody and is interested in drug rehabilitation.
Ultrasound perfor med in your clinic shows gestational age to be approximately 40 weeks 3 days.

74. What is the most common ca use of a diagnosis of postterm pregnancy?

a. Inaccurate dating

b. Fetal anomaly

c. Delayed presentation to prenatal care

d. Advanced maternal age

e. Multiparity

75 In a routine pregnancy, NST should be started during which week of pre gnancy to monitor for fetal

i. 38

ii. 39

iii. 40
iv. 41

v. 42

76Postterm pregnancy is associated with all the following except

a. Transient tachypnea of th e newborn

b. Oligohydramnios

c. Macrosomia

d. Meconium aspiration

e. Intrauterine fetal demise

77 You receive a call from the infirmary nurse at the jail at 4:30 pm. Your patient reports decreased fetal
movement for the past 2 days. She is now 41 weeks 2 days. She had monitoring 3 days ago and fetal
testing w as reassuring. The nurse reports that the patient denies any contractions, leaking fluid, or vag
inal bleeding. She last felt the baby move o nce this morning and only felt the baby move twice ye sterday.
What do you recommend to the nurs e?

a. Perform kick counts and phone back if less than 10 movements in 2 hours

b. Schedule NST with BPP for first thing tomorrow morning

c. Schedule induction of labor tomorrow morning

d. Evaluation on labor and d elivery triage as soon as possible

e. Schedule patient for eval uation in clinic first thing tomorrow morning

Questions 76 through 79 apply to the following patient

A 26-year-old G1P0 woman pres ents for a prenatal visit at 34 weeks’ gestati on. She complains
of some mild nausea and vomiting over the past 3 days. She has no head ache and no visual
changes. Her BP is 142/83 mmHg. On examination, she has 21 lower extremity pitting edema, and
31 reflexes bilaterally with four beats of clonus. A urinalysis dip has +1 p rotein.

78. Which of the following questions would be helpful?

f. Do you have double vision?

g. Do you have pain radiatin g down your legs?

h. Are you constipated?

i. Do you have pain in your right upper abdomen?

j. Do you have ringing in yo ur ears?

79. Which of the following laboratory tests would NOT be helpful at this point ?

q. Platelets

r. WBC

s. LFTs

t. LDH

u. Obstetric ultrasound

80.The laboratory test results c ome back with elevated LFTs, low platelets, a normal
hematocrit (Hct), and an elevated LDH. Wh at is her diagnosis?

v. Preeclampsia

w. Eclampsia

x. Chronic hypertension

y. HELLP syndrome

z. GH

81. The next step in her management is:

a. betamethasone

b. expectant management u ntil severe preeclampsia

c. IV hydralazine

d. induction of labor

e. immediate cesarean deliv ery

Questions 80 through 82 apply to the following patient

A 28-year- old G1P0 woman pres ents to the diabetes clinic at 28 weeks with a recent diagnosis
of GDM. On the 3-hour test, she had two elevated values. Her pregnancy has otherwise been
uncomplicated. She undergoes counseling with a nutritionist who discusses carbohydrate counting
and the need for betwe en-meal snacks. She is also given a gluco meter to check some blood
glucose values.

82. As part of her routine coun seling, you mention that she is at increased risk of all of the
following except:
a. preeclampsia

b. fetal macrosomia

c. her baby having jaundice

d. her baby having a shoulder dystocia

e. her baby having a cardia c defect

83. She returns in 1 week with blood glucose values ranging from 75 to 85 mg/dL fasting
(threshold goal, 90 mg/dL), post breakfast values ranging from 120 to 142 m g/dL
(threshold goal values, 140 mg/dL), post lunch values ranging from 128 to 148 mg/dL
(thres hold goal values, 140 mg/dL), and post dinner value s ranging from 124 to 152 mg/dL
(threshold goal values,140 mg/dL). Your next step in management is to:

a. continue checking blood glucose values

b. discuss exercise plan, inc luding walking after each meal

c. begin insulin

d. begin glyburide

e. begin metformin

84. By 37 weeks’ gestation, she has been started on medical treatment wit h insulin before each
meal. The insulin dosing has inc reased until 36 weeks when her glycemic control was
excellent with all values below threshold. You schedule her for induction of labor at:
a. 37 weeks
b. 38 weeks

c. 39 weeks

d. 40 weeks

e. 41 weeks

Questions 83 through 86 apply to the following patient

A 28-year-old G2P1001 woman at 39 and 4/7 weeks’ GA presents to labor and delivery. Her
contractions started 10 hours ago and now have increased in frequency to e very 5 minutes. She
reports a spontaneous gush of fluid, which was clear, just before the contr actions started. She has
continued to leak clear fluid and denies any vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are significant for
maternal heart rate of 110 bpm. You put her on the monitor and note t he fetal heart rate to bein
the 170s and reactive. You perform a sterile speculum examination an d confirm ROM and note
the fluid is cloudy with a foul odor. An abdominal examination confirms cephalic presentation but
is notable for mild uterine tenderness.

85. What additional information would help you confirm the diagnosis?

a. Maternal fever greater th an 38°C

b. Decreased maternal WB C

c. Decreased amniotic fluid

d. Blood cultures

e. Urine culture

86. You diagnose her with chorioamnionitis and admit her for IV antibiotics and
augmentation of her labor. What is the most com mon causative organism(s)?

a. Listeria monocytogenes

b. Gardnerellavaginosis

c. Polymicrobial infection of rectovaginal organisms

d. Group B Streptococcus ( GBS)

e. Enterococcus
87. Which of the following is one of the recommended antibiotic regimens?

a. IV penicillin

b. IV vancomycin

c. IV ceftriaxone

d. IV ampicillin and gentamicin

e. IV clindamycin

88. Which of the following is not a complication of chorioamnionitis?

a. Endomyometritis

b. Maternal sepsis

c. Postpartum hemorrhage

d. Neonatal pneumonia

e. Pyelonephritis

Questions 87 through 90 apply to the following patient

A 27-year-old G2P0010 woman at 8 weeks’ GA comes to your clinicfor an i nitial prenatal visit.
A medical history reveals a diagnosis of lupus 2 years ago. She was initially well-controlled with
aspirin and cyclophosphamide. When she started trying to conceive, the cy clophosphamide was
discontinued and she has continued the daily aspirin. She has had no lupus flares for over a year.
The remainder ofher medical history is normal. A physical examination is normal. Her BP today
in clinic is 110/60 mm Hg and sh e has trace proteinuria. You draw her basi c prenatal laboratory
tests and perform a Pap smear and GC/CT test. You also order a complete metabolic panel,
baseline preeclampsia laboratory tests, complement levels, and anti double stranded DNA

89. What additional test shou ld you order to determine appropriate management during
pregnancy? (Hal 156)
a. Anti-Ro (SSA) and anti-L a (SSB)

b. Chest X-ray

c. 1-hour GTT

d. Thrombophilia testing (fa ctor V Leiden, prothrombin, etc.)

e. Coagulation panel

90. You recommend she continue the daily aspirin and prenatal vitamin. You counsel her
regarding healthy diet and exercise in pregnancy, normal weight gain, and when to call the
clinic. You also counsel her regarding the increased risk of complications during t his
pregnancy due to lupus. Which of the following is not a maternal complication of this
condition during pregnancy?
a. Recurrent miscarriage

b. Intrauterine growth restric tion (IUGR)

c. Preeclampsia

d. Stillbirth

e. Placental abruption

91. Her laboratory test results are notable for an initial creatinine of 1.0, a 24-hour urine protein total
of 190 mg, positive anti-R o (SSA), and negative anti-La (SSB) anti bodies. Complement levels
were normal. She does well through the first and second trimester. She had a normal ultrasound
and fetal echocardiogram. At 32 weeks you started twice weekly NSTs, which have been reactive.
At 36 weeks, yo u see her in the office and she has +2 proteinuria and a BP of 165/88 mm Hg.
You admit her to labor and delivery triage unit for further evaluation. What finding can help you
diagnose her with p reeclampsia and not a lupus flare?

a. Elevated uric acid

b. BP greater than 140/90 m m Hg

c. Thrombocytopenia

d. Increasing urine protein

e. Normal C3 and C4 levels

92. You diagnose her with severe preeclampsia based on persistently elevated BPs in the severe
range and normal complement leevels. You start her on IV magnesium for seizure
prophylaxis and misoprostol for cervical ripening. Her labor is uncomplicated and she has
a successful SVD of a vigorous male infant. Mother an d baby do well and are transferred
to the postpartum ward. What is the most significant neonatal complication of maternal

a. Congenital abnormalities

b. Neonatal heart block

c. Neonatal thrombosis

d. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

e. Feeding difficulties

Questions 91 through 93 apply to the following patient

A 22-year-old G3P1021 woman recently delivered and is now attempting to breastfeed her baby.
Her pregnancy and delivery wer e uncomplicated. She denies any medical hi story or social history
significant for drug use. She is frustrated by her lack of volume, worried that her son will not gain
weight, and is now requesting a bottle and prepared formula.

93. Which of the following statem ents about the benefits of breastfeeding is f alse?

a. Breast-fed children are m ore resistant to disease and infection early in life than
formula-fed children

b. Breastfeeding women have a lower risk of breast, uterine, and ovarian cancer if
they have breastfed for at least 2 ye ars cumulatively

c. Children who are breast-fed are significantly less likely to become obeese later in

d. Oxytocin released durin g breastfeeding causes the uterus tore turn to its normal
size more quickly

e. None. All of the above ar e true statements

94. Your patient is convinced of the benefits of breastfeeding and continues to try, successfully
breastfeeding by the end of postpartum day 1. The following morning, how ever, she
develops a low-grade fever of 38.0°C, for which your nurse alerts you. She complains about
the pain associated with the engorgement of her breasts bilaterally and very sharp, re
current pelvic pains. Her vital signs are otherwise nor mal. What is the most likely
explanation for t hese findings?

a. Lactation fever

b. Mastitis

c. Breast abscess

d. Endometritis

e. Chorioamnionitis

95. Which of the following woul d be an appropriate form of contraception for this
breastfeeding patient?
a. Progesterone-eluting IUD

b. Combined oral contraceptive pills

c. Contraceptive vaginal rin gs

d. Contraceptive patch

e. None of the above

96. Your patient is admitted to th e hospital 2 weeks later with rigors and chills and complaint
of a swollen and reddened right breast. She has been breastfeeding throughout the last 2
weeks. Her vitals are significant for a fever up to 38.4°C and tachycardia with pulse o f
112; all other vital signs are normal. Her physicall examination is significant for cracked
ni pples and engorged breasts bilaterally; her right br east is particularly tense, notable for
eryth ema and increased temperature compared to the left breast without masses. What is
the appro priate therapy for the above condition?

a. Dicloxacillin 10 to 14 day s

b. Dicloxacillin until afebrile for 48 hours

c. Reassurance, ice, breast support, and breast pumping

d. Protective nipple shields and soothing ointments

e. Ultrasound-guided localization of abscess and aspiration

Questions 95 through 97 apply to the following patient

Your next patient is a 13-year-old adolescent girl who presents with cyclic pelvic pain. She has
never had a menstrual cycle. Sh e denies any history of intercourse. She is afebrile and her vital
signs are stable. On physical examination, she has age-appropriate br east and pubic hair
development and normal externaal genitalia. However, you are unable to locate a vaginal introitus.
Instead, there is a tense bulge where the introitus would be expec ted. You obtain a transabdominal
ultrasound,which reveals a hematocolpos and hematometra.

97. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Transverse vaginal septum

b. Longitudinal vaginal sept um

c. Imperforate hymen

d. Vaginal atresia (MRKH)

e. Bicornuate uterus

98. Symptoms that support this i nclude:

a. absent vaginal lumen

b. tense bulging hymen

c. cyclic pelvic pain

d. increasing abdominal girth

e. all of the above

99. Appropriate treatment option is:

a. I&D

b. high-dose steroid application

c. topical estrogen applicati on
d. excision of the extra tissue and evacuation of accumulated material

e. creation of a neovagina w hen ready for intercourse

Questions 98 through 99 apply to the following patient

A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter in to see you because she is expe riencing cyclic lower
abdominal pain every month tha t lasts for about 4 days. She is also concerned that the patient has
not started her period like most of her classmates, and wants to kno w if you think this is normal.
Physical examination re veals Tanner stage 4 breast and pubic hair d evelopment. Vaginal
examination shows an intact hym en and a small, nulliparous cervix without lesions.

100. All of the following are forme d by the paramesonephric ducts except:

a. superior vagina

b. cervix

c. ovaries

d. uterus

e. Fallopian tubes

101. In addition to a detailed evaluation of her uterus, you perform an additi onal workup
knowing that all of the following are comm only associated with uterine anomalies exce

i. Unilateral renal agen esis

ii. Pelvic or horseshoe kidney

iii. Inguinal hernia

iv. Imperforate anus

v. Ureteral duplication