COMMUNICATIONS:

1. A mammography service examined 327 patients during the third calendar quarter of 1996. 719 films
were exposed during this period, eight of which were repeats. What is the repeat rate? ANS. 1.1%

2. A type of luminescence where the visible light is emitted only during the stimulation of the phosphor.
ANS. Fluorescence

3. If a heart measures 12.5 cm from side to side at its widest point, and its image on chest radiograph
measures 14.7 cm, what is the magnification factor? ANS. 1.18

4. Radiation doses in the range of approximately200 to 1000 rad produce the? ANS. Hematologic
syndrome

5. Ratio of incident to transmitted radiation through a grid ratio of patient dose with and without grid.
ANS. Bucky factor

6. A radiographic single-phase unit installed in a private office has a maximum capacity of 100
milliseconds of 120kVp and 500mA. What is the power rating? ANS. 42 Kw

7. Who completes the development of first computed tomographic (CT) scanner (EMI, Ltd.) in 1973? ANS.
Hounsfield

8. It is the study of the response of an image receptor to x-rays. ANS. Sensitometry

9. Ratio of radiographic contrast with a grid to that without a grid. ANS. contrast improvement factor

10. Analysis of persons irradiated therapeutically with superficial x-rays has shown that the skin erythema
dose required to affect 50% of persons so irradiated is about. ANS. 600 rad

11. ECG recording requires a bandwidth of 0.05 to ____ Hz. ANS. 100

12. Find the potential generated if blood flowing in a vessel with radius 0.9 cm cuts a magnetic field of 250
G. Assume a volume flow rate of 175 cubic cm per second. ANS. 309 Uv

13. Period during which heart contracts. ANS. Systole

14. Apparatus for measuring blood pressure. ANS. Sphygmomanometer

15. Given the energy level of 6.624x10^-18 J imparted to an electron stream by an X-ray device, calculate
the frequency in MHz. ANS. 10^10 MHz

16. It was first noted by Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and won Albert Einstein the Nobel Prize in 1905. It refers
to the emission of electrons from a clean metallic surface (phototube) when electromagnetic radiation
(light waves or X-rays) falls onto that surface. ANS. Photoelectric effect

17. Unit of radiation exposure or amount of X-ray radiation that will produce 2.08x10^9 ion pairs per cubic
centimeter of air at standard temperature and pressure (STP). ANS. Roentgen
18. An optical electronic device that measures the color concentration of a substance in solution. ANS.
Colorimeter

19. Recording of heart sounds. ANS. Phonocardiography

20. Recorder for measuring galvanic skin resistance. ANS. Electrodermograph

21. It consists of 36 unique codes representing the 10 digits and 26 uppercase letters. ANS. code 39

22. The first fixed- length character code developed for machines rather than for people. ANS. Baudot Code

23. The early pioneer in the development of error-detection and correction procedures. ANS. Richard W.
Hamming

24. The most reliable convolutional coding scheme for error detection. ANS. CRC

25. For the given parameters, determine the energy per bit-to noise power density ratio: C = 10e-12 W, fb
= 60 kbps, N = 1.2 x 10e-14`W, B = 120 kHz. ANS. 22.2 dB

26. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its voltage one-half the maximum value.
What proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced? ANS. 0.876 Vmax

27. Inaccuracies caused by the representation of a continuously varying quantity as one of a number of
discrete values. ANS. quantizing errors

28. Circuit for digitizing voice at a low data rate by using knowledge of the way in which voice sounds are
produced. ANS. Vocoder

29. A coding scheme that records the change in signal level since the precious sample. ANS. delta
modulation

30. Distortion created by using too low a sampling rate when coding an analog signal for digital
transmission. ANS. aliasing or foldover distortion

31. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12000 frames per minute with each
frame carrying an average of 10000 bits. What is the throughput of this network? ANS. 2 Mbps

32. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNRdB above 40. What is the minimum number of bits? ANS.
6.35
33. The thick coaxial cable implementation of standard Ethernet. ANS. 10 Base 5
34. A bit pattern or a character added to the beginning and the end of a frame to separate the frames. ANS.
Flag
35. An IPv4 has an address space of how many? ANS. 4294967296
36. What is the bit rate of STS – 1? ANS. 51.84 Mbps
37. A block coding technique in which four bits are encoded into a five-bit code. ANS. 4B/5B Encoding
38. A national standards organization that defines standards in the United States. ANS. ANSI
39. In asynchronous transmission, one or more bits to indicate the end of transmission. ANS. stop bit
40. What is the overhead (number of extra bits) in the DS-3 service? ANS. 1.368 Mbps
41. The minimum sampling rate according to Nyquist Theorem. ANS. twice the highest frequency of a
signal
42. It is used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without
interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder. ANS.
spread spectrum
43. An error detection method which uses one’s complement arithmetic. ANS. Checksum
44. It is a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models. ANS. gateway
45. It is an undesired shift or width change in digital bits of data due to circuitry action which causes bits
to arrive at different times. ANS. jitter
46. In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum input voltage level to the smallest voltage level that can
be quantized. ANS. Dynamic range
47. A multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a time slot of 2 bits, determine the frame
duration. ANS. 20 us
48. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 10101, 11001 ). ANS. two
49. An address space is the total number of addresses used by the protocol, such as IPv4 and IPv6. What is
the address space of IPv6? ANS. 2^128
50. It is a standard designed by ITU to allow telephones in the public telephone network to talk to
computers/terminals connected to the internet. ANS. H.323
51. A computer monitor has a resolution of 1200 by 1000 pixels. If each pixel uses 1024 colors, how many
bits are needed to send the complete contents of a screen? ANS. 12 Megabits
52. Combination of compression at the transmitter and expansion at the receiver of communications
system. ANS. Companding
53. A device launches or receives a wave in a transmission line or waveguide in one direction only. ANS.
directional coupler
54. A type of linear-beam microwave tube that uses velocity modulation of the electron beam. ANS.
klystron
55. A series of pulses in which the amplitude of each pulse represents the amplitude of the information
signal at a given time. ANS. PAM
56. _______________ is used to position samples of the different message signals in non-overlapping time slots.
ANS. TDM
57. A ___________ is similar to a phasor diagram except that the entire phasor is not drawn. ANS. constellation
diagram
58. It involves transmitting each character twice. ANS. Redundancy
59. The __________ provides the mathematical justification for using a Gaussian Process as a model for a large
number of different physical phenomena in which the random variable, at a particular instant of time, is
the result of a large number of individual random events. ANS. Central Limit Theorem
60. A set of communication facilities allowing direct access to 64kpbs data streams (or multiples of) for
drop and insert. A form of cell relay, supports B-ISDN. ANS. Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM).
61. A series of pulses, in which the timing of each pulse represents the amplitude of the information signal
at a given time. ANS. d. Pulse Position Modulation
62. A line of sight radio link operating at a frequency of 6GHz has a separation of 40km between antennas.
An obstacle in the path is located 10km from the transmitting antenna. By how much must the beam
clear the obstacle? ANS. 11.6 m
63. Variation in received field strength over time due to changes in propagation conditions. ANS. Fading
64. The atomic weight of an element is approximately determined by. ANS. he number of protons and
neutrons
65. The volt is the standard unit of. ANS. electromotive force
66. Which of the following antenna types is not designed for transmitting at 10 GHz. ANS. Zepp antenna
67. The type of radio wave responsible for long distance communications by multiple skips is the: ANS.
Direct Wave
68. Line of sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range? ANS. HF
69. It refers to the rate of change of a signal on the transmission medium after encoding and modulation
have occurred. ANS. Baud
70. A receiver-transmitter station used to increase the communications range of VHF, UHF and microwave
signals is called a(n): ANS. Repeater
71. It represents the simplest whole number ratio of the various types of atoms in a compound. ANS.
empirical formula
 72. It is a term that is often misunderstood and commonly confused with bit rate (bps). ANS. Baud
73. Defined as the optimum level of a test tone on a channel at same point in a communication system. ANS.
transmission level point
74. Duplicating each data unit for the purpose of detecting errors is a form of error detection called
___________. ANS. redundancy
75. Determine the wavelength of a 4 GHz signal. ANS. 0.075m
76. What is the device that converts energy from one form to another? ANS. transducer
77. It may be defined as any undesired voltages or currents that ultimately end up appearing in the
receiver output. ANS. Electrical noise
78. The channel capacity of a 5 kHz bandwidth binary system is ____ bits/s. Assuming no noise. ANS. 10,000
79. Microwaves are frequencies above _____ GHz. ANS. 1
80. The government agencies that regulates radio communications in the US is the ________. ANS. FCC
(Federal Communications Commission)
81. A wave guide acts a/an _______ filter. ANS. High-pass
82. Coax is not used beyond frequencies of about ______ GHz. ANS. 6
83. Data Communications refers to the transmission of ________. ANS. voice, video, computer data
84. Determine the peak frequency deviation for a binary FSK signal with a mark frequency of 49 kHz, space
frequency of 51kHz and an input bit rate of 2kbps. ANS. 1 kHz
85. It is often used to compare the performance of one digital modulation technique to another. ANS.
bandwidth efficiency
86. It is the process of converting an infinite number of possibilities to a finite number of conditions. ANS.
quantization
87. For a PCM system with a maximum analog frequency of 4kHz, determine the minimum sample rate.
ANS. 8 kHz
88. It is another relatively simple form of redundancy error checking where each character has a numerical
value assigned to it. ANS. Checksum
89. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the signal and its sidebands over a very
wide bandwidth. ANS. Spread spectrum
90. The computers that hold shared files, programs and the network operating system. They also provide
access to network resources to all the users of the network. ANS. Servers
91. It is defined by the ITU-T as a service that provides transmission channels capable of supporting
transmission rates greater than the primary data rate. ANS. Broadband ISDN
92. It is the only error-correction scheme that actually detects and corrects transmission errors when they
are received without requiring a transmission. ANS. Forward Error Correction
93. This OSI Layer is responsible for network availability, data storage and processor capacity. It also
determines the type of dialogue available. ANS. Session layer
94. It is often defined as the loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight line
through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energyfrom nearby objects. ANS. free space path
loss
95. What do you call the accumulation of additional sounds such as wind, street noise, other voices that
contribute to what the listener hear? ANS. ambience
96. It is a single transmission path from transmitter to receiver with line of sight range. ANS. hop
97. It is defined by the average rate at which energy is carried out per unit area. ANS. Intensity
98. What happens to the frequency of the wave and to its wavelength when a sound wave produced in one
medium enters another medium with a different speed?
a. the frequency of the wave and wavelength changes
b. the frequency of the wave changes while the wavelength stays the same
c. the frequency of the wave stays the same while the wavelength changes
d. the frequency of the wave and wavelength remains the same
ANS. C
99. The process of combining multiple audio signals into one track is called? ANS. audio mixing
100. The speed of sequence of musical notes is called? ANS. tempo
101. If the frequency of a sound is increased, what will happen to its pitch? ANS. increases
102. A type of microwave protection system where each working channel has a dedicated back up or spare
channel. ANS. Hot Standby
103. A method of nonspontaneous lysing (splitting) of a substance by the input of electrical energy, and is
often used to decompose a compound into its elements. ANS. electrolysis
104. Also known as Pin 21 of the RS-232 interface on D connector, this connection allows signals to be
transmitted from the DCE to the attached DTE whenever there is a high probability of an error in the
received data due to the quality of the circuit falling below a predefined level. ANS. signal quality
detector
105. ______ which means that 2 or more bits in the data unit have changed.? ANS. burst error
106. It is a four-wire Gigabit Ethernet implementation. ANS. 1000 Base-T
107. It is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link. ANS. TDM
108. IEEE 802.11 is defined in which MAC sublayer? ANS. PCF and DCF
109. It is the oldest microwave tube design which is commonly used in radar transmitters where they can
generate peak power levels in the megawatt range. ANS. Magnetron
110. A modulation process wherein both frequency and phase remains constant while the amplitude
changes. ANS. ASK
111. It is the most powerful redundancy checking technique which is based on binary division. ANS. cyclic
redundancy check
112. In pulse-code modulation, it translates the quantized samples into digital code words. ANS. encoder
113. It is an error detection technique in which a redundant bit is appended to every data unit so that the
total number of 1s in the unit (including the parity bit) becomes even. ANS. vertical redundancy check
114. A local area network topology in which the individual terminal, microcomputers or workstations are
connected directly to a central computer. ANS. Star
115. The only way to achieve high data rates with a narrowband channel is to increase the number of bits
per symbol, the most reliable way to do this is to use a combination of amplitude and phase modulation
known as _________. ANS. quadrature amplitude modulation
116. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit quantizing. ANS. 98.08 Db
117. Compute the baud rate for a 72000 bps 64-QAM signal. ANS. 12000 baud
118. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination. Calculate the via net loss required for an
acceptable amount of echo. ANS. 0.8 Db
119. Telephone switch that connects only to other switches, and not to individual customers. ANS. tandem
office
120. It is a form of digital modulation similar to PSK except the digital information is contained in both
amplitude and the phase of the transmitted carrier. ANS. QAM
121. The most common circuit used for demodulating binary FSK signals. ANS. PLL
122. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 4KHz.What is the bandwidth needed if we modulate the
signal using AM? Ignore FCC regulations for now. ANS. 8 KHz
123. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 4 MHz. what is the bandwidth if we modulate the signal
using FM? Ignore FCC regulations. ANS. 40 MHz
124. For PCM system with the following parameters determine the minimum number of bits used.:
Maximum analog frequency= 4 Khz, Maximum decoded voltage=±2.55,Minimum dynamic range=
199.5. ANS. 8
125. A network topology in which data circulates from one computer to the next in sequence. ANS. ring
126. Find the maximum dynamic range for linear PCM system using 8-bit quantizing. ANS. 49.92 dB
127. What frequencies would be generated by a telephone using DTMF signaling, when the number 8 is
pressed? ANS. 852 Hz and 1336 Hz
128. It is a means of transmitting data by shifting the phase angle of the transmitted signal. ANS. PSK
129. The name given for a set of standards for communicating among computers in which the primary
purpose is to serve as a structural guideline for exchanging information between computers,
workstations and networks. ANS. OSI
130. Any transmission system which conveys more than one signal simultaneously can experience this type
of interference due to the reception of portions of a signal from one channel in another channel. ANS.
Crosstalk
131. What type of digital modulation scheme uses two or more different output frequencies? ANS. FSK
132. It is an error-correcting code used for correcting transmission errors in synchronous data streams.
ANS. Hamming Code
133. A suite of protocols that allows a wide variety of computers to share the same network. ANS. TCP/IP
134. Noise that is primarily caused by lightning. Often called as Static Noise. ANS. atmospheric noise
135. A modulation technique in which the frequency of the modulated signal varies with the amplitude of
the modulating signal. ANS. AMFM
136. Is a form of constant –amplitude angle modulation similar to standard frequency modulation except the
modulating signal is a binary signal that varies between two discrete voltage levels rather than a
continuously changing analog waveform. ANS. FSK
137. The highest layer in the hierarchy and is analogous to the general manager of the network by providing
access to the OSI environment. ANS. Application layer
138. What is the equation for Hartley’s Law? ANS. I=ktB
139. Network topology wherein individual terminals, microcomputers and workstations are connected
directly to a central computer. ANS. Star
140. The loss of data that occurs when two stations transmit at the same time on a network. ANS. collision

141. A term used to describe a telephone instrument whose handset is on its cradle, ready to receive a ring
signal. ANS. On hook
142. The most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS. PCM
143. Simple form of redundancy error checking where each character has a numerical value assigned to it.
The characters within a message are combined together to produce an error checking character. ANS.
Checksum
144. Is an eight-bit fixed length character set developed in 1962 by the International Business Machines
Corporation. ANS. EBCDIC code
145. An attempt is made to transmit base band frequency of 30khz using a digital audio system with a
sampling rate of 44.1khz. What audible frequency would result? ANS. 14.1 KHz
146. Calculate the capacity of a telephone channel that has a S/N of 1023? ANS. 30,000 b/s
147. Designed to send characters of the message with the specified bit rate but without any fixed timing
relationship from one character to the next. ANS. asynchronous
148. Token Ring Standard. ANS. 802.5
149. Who coined the term “Fiber Optics” in 1956? ANS. N.S. Kapany of England
150. Science of measuring only light waves that are visible to the human eye. ANS. photometry
151. For a single-mode optical cable with 0.25dB/km loss, determine the optical power 100km from a
0.1mW light source. ANS. -35 dBm
152. For a transmit antenna with a power gain At=10 and input power Pin=100W, what is the EIRP in dBW?
ANS. 30
153. What pin number in RS-232 generate signal serve as handshake from the DCE to the DTE in responds to
an active condition on RTS? ANS. Pin # 5 (clear to send)
154. The sensitivity of a radio receiver is given in terms of dBm. If the receiver is receiving 200 mW, what is
the corresponding dBm of this signal? ANS. 23 dBm
155. An antenna with a noise temperature of 75 Kelvin is connected to a receiver inputwith a noise
temperature of 300 K. Given the reference temperature T0 = 290 K,find the noise figure of the system.
ANS. 3.6 dB
156. The modulation index of an AM radio station is 0.75. If the carrierpower is 500W, what is the total
transmitted power? ANS. 641 W
157. An FM transmitter system is using a 1MHz crystal oscillator to generate a very stable 108MHz final
carrier frequency. The output of the crystal oscillator is fed to a x36 multiplier circuit then mixed with a
34.5 MHz signal. The sum output of the mixer is filtered out, while the difference is fed to another
multiplier in order to generate the final carrier frequency. What is the multiplier value? ANS. 72
158. A/an _______ is a range of frequency in which the upper frequency is double the lower frequency. ANS.
octave
159. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a narrowband FM receiver with deviation maximum of 10
kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3 kHz. The S/N input is 3:1. ANS. 10
160. A small variable capacitance in parallel with each section of ganged capacitor is called _______. ANS.
trimmer
161. How many wavelengths long are required for a pair of conductors to be considered as a transmission
line? ANS. 1/10λ
162. Determine the time taken for a signal to travel down a 10 m transmission line, if its velocity factor is
0.7. ANS. 47.6 ns
163. The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U foam coaxial cable is 52 V and its minimum voltage
is 17 V. How many percent of the incident power is the reflected power? ANS. 26%
164. At exactly one-quarter wavelength, the short-circuited transmission line behaves as a(an) ___________
circuit. ANS. parallel-resonant
165. Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns delay of a 4 MHz signal to a 75-ft cable with a
dielectric constant of 2.3. ANS. 108 degrees
166. Which of the following is a flat conductor separated by an insulating dielectric from a large ground
plane that is usually one-quarter or one-half wavelength long? ANS. microstrip
167. One complete revolution around a Smith Chart represents _________ wavelengths. ANS. ½ λ
168. A mismatched transmission line is also referred to as a ___________ line. ANS. resonant
169. It is the ratio of the speed of propagation on a line to that of light in free-space. ANS. velocity factor
170. Which of the following is the most widely used UTP cable that can carry baseband data at rates up to
100 Mbps at a range up to 100m? ANS. CAT 5
171. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85V. What is the
modulation index? ANS. 0.47
172. The total transmitted power of an AM broadcast transmitter with a carrier power of 50kW when
modulated 80 percent is: ANS. 66 kW
173. One of the advantages of DSB is the savings of great deal of power. Which of the following is the reason
why it is not widely used?
a. the signal occupies a narrow bandwidth
b. the signal has a low S/N
c. the signal is weak at high frequencies
d. the signal is difficult to demodulate ANS. D
174. If the input in a transmitter is collector-modulated, the system is called a _______________________.ANS.
high-level modulator
175. The input to an FM receiver has a S/N of 2.8. What is the frequency deviation caused by the noise if the
modulating frequency is 1.5KHz and the permitted deviation is 4KHz? ANS. 547.8 Hz
176. What circuit is used to return the frequency response of a signal to its normal, “flat” level? ANS. de-
emphasis
177. It is the most common means of overcoming the problems of quantizing error and noise. ANS.
companding
178. ________________ means that the characteristics and performance of an antenna are the same whether the
antenna is radiating or intercepting an electromagnetic signal. ANS. antenna reciprocity
179. Which of the following methods is used to lower the resonant frequency of a shortened vertical
antenna? ANS. top hat loading
180. Calculate the gain (relative to an isotropic) of a parabolic antenna that has a diameter of 3 m, an
efficiency of 60% and operates at a frequency of 4 GHz. ANS. 39.8 dBi
181. It is a phenomenon caused by any support insulators used at the ends of the wire antenna. ANS. end
effect
182. Which of the following is not a reason why most half-wave antennas are mounted horizontally at low
frequencies?
a. physical construction is easier
b. more cost-effective
c. mounting is easier
d. support is easier ANS. B
183. The shape of the electromagnetic energy radiated from or received by an antenna is called the. ANS.
radiation pattern
184. Antennas that transmit an equal amount of energy in the horizontal direction are called. ANS.
omnidirectional
185. The ability of an antenna to send or receive signals over a narrow horizontal directional range is
referred to as. ANS. directivity
186. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one or more additional conductors that are not
connected to the transmission line form a. ANS. parasitic array
187. An antenna made up of a driven element and one or more parasitic elements is generally referred to as
a. ANS. Yagi antenna
188. Which antennas usually consist of two or more half-wave dipoles mounted end to end? ANS. collinear
189. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave dipoles spaced from one another by one-half
wavelengths is the. ANS. broadside array
190. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the output impedance of the
transmitter and the impedance of the antenna itself, ANS. maximum power transfer will take place
191. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line of a specific impedance connected
between a load and a source in order to match impedances is. ANS. a Q section
192. By how much should two antennas be separated for space diversity in the11 GHz band? ANS. 5.5 m
193. What is the phase velocity of a rectangular waveguide with a wall separation of 3 cm and a desired
frequency of operation of 6 GHz? ANS. 5.43 x 10^8 m/s
194. A transmitter and a receiver are 45 km apart. Suppose that there is an obstaclemidway between the
transmitter and receiver. By how much must the path between the towers clear the obstacle in order to
avoid diffraction at afrequency of 11 GHz? ANS. 10.51 m
195. How far from the transmitter could a signal be received if the transmitting and receiving antennas
where 40 m and 20 m, respectively, above level terrain? ANS. 44.5 km
196. A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change between two further
walls, and no component of the electric field in the direction of propagation. The mode is. ANS. TE20
197. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss of 26 dB. A sourceprovides 1 W to the isolator,
and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. Howmuch power is dissipated in the load? ANS. 638 Mw
198. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss of 26 dB. A source
provides 1 W to the isolator, and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How
much power returns to the source? ANS. 535 uW
199. It is a microwave device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss, but
absorbs RF power in the opposite direction. ANS. isolator
200. A metal wrapped around the parabolic antenna aperture to eliminate sidelobes interfering nearby
stations is called. ANS. shroud
201. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide _________.
a. is greater than in free space
b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free space wavelength
c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d. is directly proportional to the group velocity ANS. A

202. A dipole antenna has a radiation resistance of 67 ohms and a loss resistance of 5 ohms, measured at the
feedpoint. Calculate the efficiency. ANS. 93%
203. Two antennas have gains of 5.3 dBi and 4.5 dBd, respectively. Which has a greater gain? ANS. The
second antenna has a higher gain.
204. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: ANS. Hertz antenna
205. An antenna's beamwidth is measured. ANS. between half-power points
206. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by. ANS. radio signals
reflecting off the ground
207. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using. ANS. a shorted stub, an LC network, a loading coil
208. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased. ANS. the number of lobes increases.
209. LPDA stands for. ANS. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
210. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with. ANS. a field-strength meter
211. A receiving antenna with a built-in preamplifier. ANS. active antenna
212. As per Philippine standard, frequency allocation of AM Radio Broadcasting is from…ANS. 526.5 to 1705
kHz
213. Part of broadcasting in a day that refers to that period of time between 1000 UTC to 2200 UTC. UTC
stands for Universal Time Coordinates. ANS. nighttime period
214. An AM broadcast service area in which groundwave field of 1mV/m (60dBu) is not subject to
objectionable interference or objectionable fading. ANS. primary service area
215. In antenna mast or tower construction, the required obstruction painting and/or lighting must be
imposed on mast or tower more than … from the ground level. ANS. 150 ft
216. Regarding the design of AM antenna, what should be the polarization of the radiator? ANS. vertical
217. As per Philippines standard, what is the minimum frequency separation in any service area for adjacent
AM radio stations? ANS. 36 kHz
218. What is the maximum power allowable for remote pick-up stations used as broadcast auxiliary services
for AM and FM broadcast stations? ANS. 35 W
219. What is the classification of an FM station having an ERP not exceeding 30kW? ANS. Class B
220. What is the modulation used for the stereophonic subcarrier of FM composite baseband signal? ANS.
AM DSB SC
221. What is the pilot subcarrier frequency used in FM stereophonic transmission? ANS. 19 kHz
222. The output power of an FM transmitter is 5 kW. If the power loss in transmission line is around 10 W
and the antenna has a power gain of 6 dB, what is the ERP of the station in kW? ANS. 19.96 kW
223. Frequency allocation of FM broadcast in the Philippines…ANS. 88 – 108 MHz
224. What is the color TV system adopted by the Philippines? ANS. NTSC
225. Exact value of color subcarrier frequency (MHz) is …ANS. 3.579545
226. Determine the visual carrier frequency of TV channel 9. ANS. 187.25 MHz
227. What is the maximum allowable ERPs for channels 7 – 13 in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu? ANS. 1 MW
228. At NTSC standard, the number of lines per frame = ________ lines/frame. ANS. 525
229. At NTSC standard, line frequency = 15734.264 Hz. What is the equivalent line period? ANS. 63.556 usec
230. Nominal RF bandwidth of NTSC TV channel…ANS. 6 MHz
231. A land mobile station used for the transmission of TV program materials and related communications
from the scenes of events occurring at remote points from TV broadcast station studios to TV broadcast
station. ANS. TV Pick-up station
232. For a total capacity of 36 Mbps and 64-QAM of digital modulation, what is the ideal RF bandwidth? ANS.
6 MHz
233. What is the mode of radio wave propagation that utilized ionosphere as a medium of transmission and
/ or reception of radio signals? ANS. sky wave

234. What is the wavelength of a radio signal travelling at a frequency of 220 MHz in a coaxial line having
Teflon foam as its dielectric, εr = 2? ANS. 0.96 m
235. What is the angle of refraction in a Teflon (εr2 = 2) medium of a radio wave from air (εr1 = 1.0) if its
angle of incidence is 45°? ANS. 30°
236. An ionosphere layer also termed as “absorption layer” because it absorbs most of the frequencies above
100 kHz is known as the … layer. ANS. D
237. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications, what is the classification of Super
High Frequency? ANS. centimetric
238. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) separate antennas and receivers for each single
transmitter? ANS. space diversity
239. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) different frequencies in a simplex path? ANS. frequency
diversity
240. What is the critical frequency of a layer if the maximum value of electron density is 2 x 10^6 per cm^3?
ANS. 13 MHz
241. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere. The maximum virtual height of the
layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the optimum working frequency? Use flat
terrain analysis. ANS. 8.4 MHz
242. The power density is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. This law is
known as… ANS. Inverse Square law
243. The lowest portion of the ionosphere that is useful for long-distance communication by amateurs;
about 100 to 115 km above the earth is known as the… layer. This is often termed as the Kennely-
Heavyside layer. ANS. E
244. A graph which shows the radiation in actual field strength of electromagnetic fields at all points which
are at equal distance from the antenna is known as… ANS. Radiation Pattern
245. The efficiency of an antenna is 82 %. Its radiation resistance is 30 Ω. What is the value of its loss
resistance? ANS. 6.58 Ω
246. A phenomenon on the surface of the sun with appearance and disappearance of dark irregularly shaped
areas. ANS. 11-year sunspot
247. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at frequencies higher than HF bands? ANS.
increase antenna height
248. Which of the following factors must be considered in the transmission of a surface wave to reduce
attenuation? ANS. electrical properties of the terrain, frequency, antenna polarization
249. A radio station operates at 11 meter wavelength. What is the designated band of station’s frequency?
ANS. HF
250. What is the total radio horizon distance between an 80 ft transmitting station and a 20 ft receiving
station? ANS. 18.97 mi
251. A power density of 1.57 x 10-4 W/m2 is measured 50 meters from a test antenna whose directive gain
is 2.15 dB. How much power was fed into the test antenna? ANS. 3 W
252. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of a country are distinguished by their ___. ANS. area
codes
253. Telephone traffic is measured ____. ANS. in erlangs
254. In a cellular telephone system, each cell site contains a ____. ANS. repeater
255. When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what action occurs? ANS. the
unit is “handed off” to a closer cell
256. In a cellular telephone system, group of cells is called ___. ANS. cluster
257. In Cellular Telephone Systems, these are transmissions from base stations to mobile units (Downlink).
ANS. forward links
258. A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from the base as -100 dBm. What should the mobile
transmitter power be set to as a first approximation, considering - 76 dB at mobile power control? ANS.
250 mW
259. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination. Calculate the via net loss required for an
acceptable amount of echo. ANS. 0.8 dB
260. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: ANS. 48 volts DC
261. Central offices are connected by: ANS. trunk lines
262. In telephony, call blocking is: ANS. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
263. The cable used for local loops in telephone system is mainly: ANS. twisted-pair copper wire
264. In DTMF, the four vertical frequencies are ____. ANS. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz
265. In DTMF, the Horizontal frequencies are. ANS. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz
266. In Cellular Telephone Systems, these are transmissions from mobile units to base stations (Uplink).
ANS. reverse links
267. In DTMF, the horizontal frequencies is also known as. ANS. high group frequencies
268. In DTMF, the Vertical frequencies is also known as. ANS. low group frequencies
269. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: ANS. allow signals
to be multiplexed
270. This is the highest-ranking office in the DDD network in telephony in terms of the size of the
geographical area served and the trunking options available. ANS. regional center
271. In Cellular Radio, AMPS stand for: ANS. Advanced Mobile Phone Service
272. In Cellular Radio, BSC stands for: ANS. Base Station Controller
273. In Cellular Radio, MSC stands for: ANS. Mobile Switching Center
274. In GSM, voice channels are called: ANS. traffic channels
275. In Mobile Communications, GSM uses: ANS. frequency hopping
276. In Mobile Communications, IMSI stands for: ANS. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
277. The angular separation between the two half-power points on the power density radiation pattern.
ANS. Beamwidth
278. Refers to the direction in space of electric vector of the electromagnetic wave radiated from an antenna
and is parallel to the antenna itself. ANS. Polarization
279. Placing a metallic array on the antenna effects to increase the current at the base of the antenna, and
also to make the current distribution more uniform. What is this called? ANS. Top loading
 280. What principle that states that the properties of an antenna are independent of whether it is used for
transmission or reception. ANS. Principle of reciprocity
281. Calculate the beam width between nulls of a 2-m paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz. Note: such
reflectors are often used at that frequency as antennas outside broadcast television microwave links.
ANS. 3.5°
282. This is often used to cure the problem of great thickness required of lenses used at lower microwave
frequencies or for strong curved wavefronts. ANS. Zoning
283. A structure-generally metallic and sometimes very complex-designed to provide an efficient coupling
between space and the output of a transmitter or input to a receiver. ANS. antenna
284. The ratio comparing the power density generated by a practical antenna in some direction, with that
due to an isotopic antenna radiating the same total power. ANS. Directive gain
285. Any array that is directional at right angles to the plane of the array is said, by inference, to have
__________. ANS. Broadside action
286. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter is called __________ of the parabola, just as in camera
lenses. ANS. aperture
287. Corresponds to a resonant transmission line, and the dipole antennas describe so far have been
resonant. ANS. Resonant antenna
288. Informations transmitted to the mobile phone, either subscribed or unsolicited messages, without a
user request and are initiated by the server of the content provider.ANS: Push messages
289. It is a wireless networking scheme that competes with both 802.11 and bluetooth schemes. It uses
frequency hopping ang spread spectrum communication at 2.4GHz and is intended for small home
networks.ANS: Home RF
290. It is a wireless technology that enables a variety of contactless and proximity-based applications, such
as payments, information retrieval, mobile marketing and device pairing. It has an operating range of
10 cm or less using the 13.56MHz frequency band. There are currently three user modes defined for its
operation: 1) Card emulation, 2) Tag reading, and 3) Peer-to-peer (P2P). These modes are based on
several ISO/IEC standards, including ISO14443 A/B, ISO15693 and ISO18092.ANS: NFC (Near Field
Communication)
291. Assume we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per minute. What is the required
bit rate of the channel?ANS: 1.636 Mbps.
292. Determine the fade margin for the following conditions: distance between sites, d = 50 km; frequency, f
= 1.8GHz; very dry mountainous terrain and a reliability of 99.9999%.ANS: 36. 25 Db
293. Term pertains the position of a satellite. ANS: Ephemeris
294. FCC assigned channel bandwidth for FM Broadcast. ANS: 200-kHz
295. If the amplitude of a system moving in simple motion as doubled, which of thefollowing quantities does
not change?
a. Period
b. Total energy
c. Maximum speed
d. Maximum acceleration
ANS: period*
296. In an optical fiber, the geometrical path which pass through the axis ofsymmetry and obey the self-
interference condition is known as________.ANS. Meridional ray
297. What is the gain or loss in dB when a V2 of 15-mV across 75Ω drops to 3-mVforV1 across 300Ω?ANS: -
20 dB or 20 dB loss
298. Calculate the total transmitted power of an AM transmitter with a 10kW carrieswhich transmits
11.2kW when modulated at 50% with another sine wave.ANS: 12.45kW
299. The first byte in a machine level instruction is called______.Ans: Operation code

GEAS:
1. Date of approval of RA 9292. ANS. April 17, 2004
2. There are __Articles and __sections in the RA 9292. ANS. 8, 43
3. Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and
the Code of Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section _________. ANS. 35
4. This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill No. 2683. ANS. RA 9292
5. The chairperson of the PRC shall include in the Commission’s program the implementation of RA 9292,
the funding of w/c shall be included in the Annual General Appropriation Act. ANS. Sec 40
6. According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect __________ following its full publication in the __________
or any newspaper of general circulation. ANS. 15 days, Official Gazette
7. Who was the signatories of the 9292? ANS. Franklin Drilon, Jose De Venecia Jr., Oscar G. Yabes
8. Section 40 of RA 9292. ANS. Appropriations
9. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members of Electronics Engineering?
ANS. Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs. prior to his appointment
10. All records of the Board, including applications for the examination, administrative cases involving
PECE, ECE and ECTs shall be kept by. ANS. PRC
11. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of __________ from date of appointment or until
their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another
term. ANS. 3 years
12. Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to: Adopt an official __________ of the Board.
ANS. seal
13. The compensation and allowances of the Board is comparable to that being received by the Chairman
and members of existing regulatory boards under the Commission as provided for in the __________. ANS.
Gen Appropriations Act
14. Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to the assumption of office. ANS. proper oath
15. How much or what fine is required for any person who shall violate any provision or any rules,
regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice promulgated under RA
9292? ANS. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less than 6
months nor more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of the court
16. The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers. ANS. Commission
17. According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall therefore develop and nurture competent,
virtuous, productive, and __________ PECE, ECE, and ECTs. ANS. well-rounded
18. A candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician who obtains a passing rating in the
majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s below _________ percent but not lower
than __________ percent, shall be allowed to take one removal examinations on the subject/s where
he/she failed to obtain the passing rating. ANS. 70, 60
19. Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall issue Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Cards without examination to all applicants for registration as
Electronics Technicians who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20. ANS. 5 (five)
20. All submittals/documents shall be accompanied by a certification from __________ registered PECEs
vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the applicant. ANS. at least 3
21. It explains combustion as a result of loss of a substance. ANS. Phlogiston
22. The volume of a definite quantity of dry gas is inversely proportional to the pressure provided the
temperature remains constant. ANS. Boyle’s Law
23. It refers to matter that do not have definite form or structure. ANS. Amorphous
24. Three grams of sulphur dissolved in 200 g of naphthalene 𝐶10 𝐻8, was found decreasing the freezing
point of the solvent to 0.72 ⁰C. Find the molecular weight of the solute. (𝐾𝑓𝐶10𝐻8 = 6.9 ⁰C/molar).
ANS. 135.61 g/mole
25. Substance having a pH level less than 7. ANS. base
26. It is the enthalpy change associated with the condensation of gaseous positive and negative ion into a
crystal. ANS. Lattice Energy
27. It is a product of the weathering of complex silicates, particularly of feldspars which are abundant
minerals. ANS. clay
28. Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a given subshell singly before pairing begins. These unpaired
electrons have parallel spins. This is known as: ANS. Hund’s rule
29. This law states that at constant temperature the volume of a sample of gas varies inversely with the
pressure. ANS. Boyle’s Law
30. It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles. ANS. Tyndall Effect
31. Consider𝐻3 𝐴𝑠𝑂3, Arsenic acid (H=1.01, As=74.9, O=16.0). How many mole is 1kg of 𝐻3 𝐴𝑠𝑂3? ANS.
7.94 moles
32. It is customary to indicate accuracy by using a certain numbers of figures or digits. ANS. significant
figures
33. It is required for organic compounds. ANS. carbon
34. Term used to denote the technology of treating a mined ore to obtain a product higher on concentration
of a wanted mineral from the unwanted rock mass in which it occurs. ANS. ore dressing
35. It states that, "If a stress is placed on a system on equilibrium whereby the equilibrium is altered, that
change will take place which tends to relieve or neutralize the effect of the added stress". ANS. Le
Chatelier's Principle
36. The energy possessed by a substance that allows it to be changed into a new substance. ANS. Chemical
energy
37. If heat is absorbed by the system during a chemical change, it is called as: ANS. endothermic
38. Who determined the quantitative relationship between the amount of electricity used in electrolysis
and the amount of chemical reaction that occurs? ANS. Michael Faraday
39. It is considered as derivatives of ammonia in which one or more of the hydrogens have been replaced
by the alkyl or aryl group. It is characterized by unpleasant odors. ANS. Amines
40. Calculate the molar concentration of a solution that contains 15g of potassium hydroxide in 225ml of
solution. ANS. 1.2 M
41. Calculate the ratio of the rate of diffusion of hydrogen to the rate of diffusion of oxygen. How fast does
hydrogen diffuse than oxygen? Given: Density of oxygen is 0.0899 g/L and the density of oxygen is 1.43
g/L. ANS. 4
42. What is the volume of 1 moles of a gas at 2 atm and 273 K? ANS. 11.2 L
43. It is a borosilicate glass with a very low coefficient of thermal expansion, hence, it's wide for cooking
and serving utensils. ANS. Pyrex
44. What is the mass in kilograms of 10.5 gal (39.7 L) of gasoline with a specific gravity of 0.82. ANS. 33 kg
45. It is a colorless solid capable of being cut into brilliant crystals is the hardest, must abrasive mineral
known. ANS. Diamond
46. It is the calculation of both energy balances and material balances in a chemical system. ANS.
Stoichiometry
47. _________ involves the replacement of one of the atoms or groups of atoms attached to the carbon
“Backbone” of the organic molecule. ANS. Substitution Reaction
48. Calculate the volume (in Litres) occupied by 7.40g of 𝑁𝐻3 at STP (Standard Temperature, and
Pressure). ANS. 9.73 L
49. It is the Energy change accompanying a mole of electrons being added to a mole of a gaseous atoms or
ions. ANS. Electronic Affinity
50. A 466g sample of Water is Heated from 8.50°C to 74.60°C. Calculate the amount of Heat Absorbed (in
Kilo Joules) by the Water. ANS. 129 KJ
51. A silicon chip used in an integrated circuit of a microcomputer has a mass of 5.68mg. How many silicon
(Si) atoms are present in this chip? ANS. 1.22𝑥1020atoms
52. This Law states that if a process can be written as the sum of several stepwise processes, the enthalpy
change the total process equals the sum of the Enthalpy changes of the Various Steps. ANS. Hess Law
53. This process separates the components of a mixture on the basis of differences in particle size. It is used
most often to separate a liquid from a solid. ANS. Filtration
54. Sulfur Hexafluoride (𝑆𝐹6 ) is a colorless, odorless, very unreactive gas. Calculate the pressure (in atm)
exerted by 1.82 moles of gas in a steel vessel of volume 5.43L at 45°C. ANS. 8.75 atm
55. It is defined as the pressure exerted by a force of one newton acting on an area of one square meter.
ANS. Pascal
56. A bottle of certain ceramic tile cleanser, which essentially a solution of hydrogen chloride, contains
130g of HCl and 750g of water. What is the percent by mass of HCl in this cleanser? ANS. 14.8 %
57. A covalent bond between two atoms with different electronegativities, so that the electron density is
unsymmetrically distributed. ANS. Polar bond
58. Which element has the highest ionization potential of its atom? ANS. Helium
59. It is the minimum amount of radioactive material needed to sustain a nuclear chain reaction. ANS.
Critical mass
60. In the atmosphere, nitrogen dioxide reacts with water to produce nitric acid, which contributes to
pollution by acid rain: 3𝑁𝑂2(𝑔) + 𝐻2 𝑂(𝐼) ----->2𝐻𝑁𝑂3(𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑂(𝑔) .How many grams of 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 are
produced for every 1.0mol of 𝑁𝑂2 that reacts? The molecular weight of 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 is 63.0amu. ANS. 42 g
𝐻𝑁𝑂3
61. ______ states that a constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to
the number of moles present. ANS. Avogadro’s Law
62. ______ states that in the addition of polar reagents to alkenes, the positive portion of the reagents adds to
the carbon atom in the double bond that already has the most hydrogen atoms. ANS. Markovnikou’s
rule
63. _______ are atoms that have completely filled ns and np subshells, giving them great stability. ANS. Noble
Gases
64. _______ states that the partial pressure of a solvent over a solution is given by the vapor pressure of the
pure solvent times the mole fraction of the solvent in the solution. ANS. Raoult’s Law
65. Substances that have the same molecular formula but different structural formula are called. ANS.
Isomers
66. When two or more metals are heated above their melting temperatures and them allowed to cool, the
solid that is obtained is called an. ANS. Alloy
67. What is the relative density of 𝐻2 𝑂 at 4°C? ANS. 1.000
68. What is the rotational inertia about an axis through the center of a 25 kg solid sphere whose diameter is
0.30? ANS. 0.22 kg m²
69. Light from a sodium lamp when passed through a 60°00’ prism has a minimum angle of deviation of
51°20’. What is the index of refraction of the glass? ANS. 1.652
70. The position x of an experimental rocket moving along a long rail is measured to be x(t) = (4m/s)t +
(7m/s^2)t^2 + (5m/s^3)t^3 – (0.35m/s^4)t^4 over the first 10s of its motion, where t is in seconds
and x is in meters. Find the velocity of the rocket for the first 10 seconds. ANS. 244m/s
71. Early in the nineteenth century, James Watt invented the steam engine. In orderto convince people,
who relied heavily on horses for mechanical work, hedemonstrated how useful his steam engine was by
utilizing a horse that liftedwater from a well over a certain period of time and called the corresponding
powerexpended “one horsepower”. Assume that water has a mass density of 1.0 x 10^3kg/m^3, that
the well was 20m deep, and that the horse worked for 8 hours. Howmany liters of water did the horse
raise from the well? Use the following constants:1 hp = 746 Watts, g = 9.8 m/s^2. ANS. 1.1 x 10^5 L
72. As provided in ACT 3846, the construction of a radio station shall begin only when. ANS. The NTC has
already issued a Permit to construct.
73. As provided in RA7925, a VAS provider needs to secure a franchise if. ANS. it puts up its own network.
74. According to the code of ethics, if you are employed in a company and you wish to engage in a business
which may compete with your company, the most ethical thing to do is to. ANS. inform your employer
about it
75. An investor has an option to purchase a tract of land that will be worth P20,000 in seven years. If the
value of the land increases at 9% each year, how much should the investor be willing to pay now for
this property? ANS. P10,941
76. Suppose that you make 12 equal annual deposits of P2,000 each into a bank account paying 8% interest
per year. The first deposit will be made one year from today. How much money can be withdrawn from
this bank account immediately after the 12th deposit? ANS. 37,954
77. What is the effective rate of interest if P1000 is invested at a nominal rate of 15% compounded
quarterly? ANS. 15.86%
78. A man purchased a house for P425,000. In the first month that he owned the house, he spent P75,000
on repairs and remodeling. Immediately after the house was remodeled, he was offered P545,000 to
sell the house. After some consideration, he decided to keep the house and have it rented for P4,500 per
month starting two months after the purchase. He collected rent for 15 months and then sold the house
for P600,000. if the interest rate was 1.5% per month, how much extra money did he make or lose by
not selling the house immediately after it was remodeled? ANS. P5,000
79. On the day his grandson was born, a man deposited to a trust company a sufficient amount of money so
that the boy could receive five annual payments of P20,000 each for his college tuition fees, starting
 with his 18th birthday. Interest at the rate of 12$ per annum was to be paid on all amounts on deposit.
There was also a provision that the grandson could elect to withdraw no annual payments and receive
a single lump amount on his 25th birthday. The grandson chose this option. How much did the
grandfather deposit? ANS. P10,500
80. A man bought an equipment costing P30,000 payable in 12 quarterly payments, each installment
payable at the beginning of each period. The rate of interest is 24% compounded quarterly. What is the
amount of each payment. ANS. P3,700
81. A telecommunication company purchased an equipment for P53,000 and paid P1,500 for freight and
delivery charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal life of 10 years with a trade-in value of
P5,000 against the purchase of a new equipment at the end of the life. Determine the annual
depreciation cost by the sinking fund method. Assume interest at 6.5% compounded annually. ANS.
P3,668
82. A plant bought a machine for P200,000 and used it for 10 years, the life span of the equipment. What is
the book value of the machine after 5 years of use? Assume a scrap value of P20,000. Use double
declining balance method. ANS. P65,536
83. It occurs when a cutting action is applied as you would see with scissors, tin snips, or punches. ANS.
Direct shear
84. It occurs when a member carries a load perpendicular to its long axis while being supported in a stable
manner. ANS. Bending stress
85. It is the internal resistance offered by a unit area of the material from which a member from which a
member is made to an externally applied load. ANS. stress
86. A certain support stand design to carry downward loads. Compute the stress in the square shaft at the
upper part of the stand for a load of 27,000 lb. The line of action of the applied of the applied load is
centered on the axis on the shaft, and the load is applied through a thick plate that distributes the force
to the entire cross section of the stand. ANS. 12,000psi
87. The proportional limit is the value of stress on the stress-strain diagram curve at which the curve first
deviates from a straight line. ANS. Proportional limit
88. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which the material has deformed plastically; that is,
it will no longer return to its original size and shape after removing the load. ANS. Elastic limit
89. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which there is a significant increase in strain with
little or no increase in stress. ANS. Yield point
90. It is the highest value of apparent stress on the stress-strain curve. ANS. Tensile point
91. It is a measure of the stiffness of a material determined by the slope of the straight-line portion of the
stress-strain curve. ANS. Modulus of elasticity
92. A ductile material is one that can be stretched, formed, or drawn to a significant degree before fracture.
A metal that exhibits a percent elongation greater than ____ % is considered to be ductile. ANS. 5
93. A brittle material is one that fails suddenly under load with little or no plastic deformation. A metal that
exhibits a percent elongation ____ 5.0% is considered to be brittle. ANS. Less than
94. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain is called: ANS. Modulus of rigidity
95. It is the ability of a material to absorbed applied energy without failure. ANS. Toughness
96. It is the indication of the resistance of a material to indentation by a penetrator. ANS. Hardness
97. It is a measure of pulling and pushing force. ANS. Axial force
98. It is the measure of the total resistance to sliding. ANS. Shear force
99. It is the measure of the resistance to twisting. ANS. Torque
100. A common bar suspended from certain support has axial loadof 10kN. If the bar has a cross section of
20mm2, find thestress experience by the bar. ANS. 500MPa
101. Assume that a 25-mm diameter rivet joins the plates that are each 125 mm wide.The allowable stresses
are 130 MPa for bearing in the plate material and65 MPafor shearing of the rivet. Determine the
minimum thickness of each plate. ANS. 40MPa
102. A cylinder pressure vessel is fabricated from plates whichhave a thickness of 20mm. The diameter of
the pressurevessel is 450 mm and its length is 3.5m. Determine themaximum internal pressure which
can be applied if the stressin the steel is limited to 150MPa. ANS. 16.67MPa
103. The wall thickness of a 3ft-diameter spherical tank is 4/17 in. Calculate the allowable internal pressure
if the stress is limited to 9000 psi. ANS. 176.47psi
104. A steel bar 40mm in diameter and 3m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 6mm thick. Compute
the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.95 mm in the length of 2m. For steel
E=300GPa, and for cast iron, E=150GPa. ANS. 161kN
105. A steel rod 3.5m long is secured between two walls. If the load on therod is zero at 30°C, compute the
stress when the temperature drops to-30°C. Thecross-sectional area of the rod is 1200mm2,
α=11.7um/(m°C), and E=200GPa. ANS. 140MPa
106. A steel shaft 3ft long that has a diameter of 5in is subjected toa torque of 14kip-ft. Determine the
maximum shearing stress. G=12x10^6 psi. ANS. 0.47°
107. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twistthrough more than 4° in a 6m
length when subjected to a torque of13kN-m? What max shearing stress is developed? G=85 GPa. ANS.
107.6mm
108. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a
mean radius of 90 mm when thespring is supporting a load of 2.5kN. Use G=83 GPa. ANS. 175mm
109. How many zeroes in the measurement 0.00020040 are significant? ANS. 3
110. A homogenous mixture can be separated by all of the following methods. ANS. Chromatography,
Crystallization, Distillation
111. A laboratory experiment was performed to determine the percent by mass of water in a hydrate. The
accepted value is 36.0% water whose observed value has an error of 5.00%. Find the percent by mass
of water. ANS. 37.8% water
112. Which of the following phase changes represent sublimation? ANS. Solid to gas
113. The amount of energy needed to change a given mass of ice to water at constant temperature is called
the heat of. ANS. Fusion
114. What is the charge of a hydrogen atom? ANS. 0
115. The impossibility of knowing both the precise location and velocity of subatomic particle at the same
time is known as the. ANS. Uncertainty principle
116. An atom which has the greatest ability to attract electron is. ANS. Oxygen
117. From the reaction,2𝑁𝑂 + 𝑂2 → 2𝑁𝑂2 How many molecules of can be formed using 2 molecules of NO?
ANS. 2
118. If the volume of the mole of gas molecules remains constant, lowering the temperature will make the
pressure. ANS. Increase
119. Whenever you have equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure, the volume must.
ANS. Contain equal number of particles
120. What pressure must be applied to 225mL of gas at 1atm to reduce its volume to 100mL? ANS. 2.25atm
121. How many moles of 𝑂2 are present in 44.8L of 𝑂2 at STP? ANS. 2.0moles
122. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car from rest to v, neglecting friction. How much
added energy would be required to increase the speed from v to 2v? ANS. 3Q
123. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential energy in a volume of 1.00 m3 in vacuum. What is
the magnitude of the required electric field? ANS. 0.475 MV/m
124. Material a is a water and material b is a glass with index of refraction 1.52. If the incident ray makes an
angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the reflected ray. ANS. 60°
125. The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon sensor is 633 nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous
humor inside our eyeballs. Calculate the speed of light in this substance. ANS. 2.25 x 10^8 m/s
126. A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of 0.900c fires a robot space probe in the same
direction as its motion, with speed of 0.700c relative to the spaceship. What is the probe’s velocity
relative to the Earth? ANS. 0.982c
127. In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image produced on a concave mirror due to the
convergence of rays far from the mirror to other points on the principal axis. What do you call this
effect? ANS. spherical aberration
128. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a fluid decreases as the speed of the fluid increases.
In addition, the pressure of a fluid decreases as the elevation increases. ANS. Bernoulli’s equation
129. In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average speed of the charge carriers? ANS. drift speed
130. In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to waves, commonly generated by electronic devices,
whose wavelengths ranges from approximately 0.3m to 10-4 m. Due to their short wavelengths these
are often used in radar systems and for studying the atomic and molecular properties of matter. ANS.
Microwaves
131. The property of a substance which remains constant if no heat enters or leaves the system, while it
does work or alters its volume, but which increases or diminishes should a small amount of heat enter
or leave. ANS. entropy
132. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of unit mass through one degree. ANS. Specific
Heat
133. “If the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the gas varies inversely
with the absolute pressure during a change of state”. ANS. Boyle’s Law
134. An internally reversible process of a substance during which the pressure remains constant. ANS.
isobaric
135. The energy stored in a substance by virtue of the activity and configuration of its molecules and of the
vibration of the atoms within the molecules. ANS. Internal Energy
136. “When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, the
two are in thermal equilibrium with each other” is a statement of. ANS. Zeroth Law
137. “Not all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cycle can be converted into mechanical work, some
are also rejected” is a statement of. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
138. The combined mass of car and passengers travelling at 72 km/hr is 1500kg. Find the kinetic energy of
this combined mass. ANS. 300kJ
139. A mass of 5kg is 100m above a given datum where local g=9.75 m/sec2. Find the gravitational force in
newton’s and the potential energy of the mass w/ respect to the datum. ANS. 48.75 N,4875 J
140. A pressure gage register 50 psig in a region where the barometer is 14.25 psia. Find the absolute
pressure in Pa. ANS. 443 kPa
141. During an isentropic process of 1.36 kg/sec of air, the temperature increases from 4.44° C to 115.6°C. if
Cp=1.0062kNm/kgK for a non-flow process, what is ΔH? ANS. 152.2 kJ/s
142. This Law States that “The quantity of the substance entering the system is equal to the substance
leaving the system”. ANS. Law of Conservation of Mass
143. “If the pressure of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the gas varies directly with the
absolute temperature”. ANS. Charles’ Law
144. “The Acceleration of a particular body is directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it and
inversely proportional to its mass” is a statement of. ANS. Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion
145. “Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but is converted from one form to another”. ANS. 1st Law of
Thermodynamics
146. These materials are hard and brittle, insulative to electricity and heat, and very resistant to high
temperatures and harsh environments. ANS. ceramics
147. These materials have a large number of non-localized electrons, as an effect are very good conductors
of electricity and heat. They are strong yet deformable, and extensively used in structural applications.
ANS. metals
148. Materials composed of more than one material type and are designed to display a combination of the
best characteristics of each component material. ANS. composites
149. A material whose atomic arrangement occurs as periodic, repeating structures over large distances.
ANS. crystalline
150. An elemental solid having a different crystal structure, usually due to the prevailing temperature and
pressure. ANS. allotrope
151. This metal is alloyed with steel to give it corrosion resistance properties, resulting in “stainless steel.”
ANS. chromium
152. This element is used in modern, super strong permanent magnets because of their high coercivities.
ANS. neodymium
153. The deterioration of an engineered material due to interaction with diverse environments which lead
to the degradation of its material properties. ANS. corrosion
154. The force of 600 N is the resultant of the forces F1 and 240 N acting as shown in the figure. Which of the
following gives the value of F1.
ANS. 698.9223 N, 56.310 with respect to the horizontal

155. Given the set of parallel forces shown, which of the following gives the resultant force.
ANS. 90 KN down, 3.33m from A
156.
157. The coefficient of friction between the rope and fixed post is 0.30. The rope is wrapped only once
around the post. Which of the following gives the minimum tension in the rope at point A.

ANS. 138.6873 N

158. The resultant of the concurrent forces has a magnitude of 1200 N and acts through the origin and
points x = 3m, y = 4m, z = 5m. Which of the following gives the x component of the resultant force.
ANS. 509.1146 N
159. From the speed of 100 kph, a car decelerates at the rate of 15 m/min/sec along a straight road. Which
of the following gives the distance travelled at the end of 40 sec. ANS. 911.112 m
160. The velocity of a particle moving along the x axis is defined by v = x4 + 2x3 – 3x2where v is in m/s and
x is in m. Which of the following gives the velocity when x = 2m. ANS. 20 m/s
161. The block shown reaches a velocity of 10 m/s in 25 m starting from rest. Which of the following gives
the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the ground.
ANS. 0.2626
162. The normal acceleration of a particle on the rim of a pulley 10 ft in diameter is constant at 1200 fps^2.

Which of the following gives the speed of the pulley in rpm. ANS. 147.9371
163. A 350 N block is resting on a plane inclined at 300 with the horizontal is subjected to a constant force of
400 N acting parallel to the inclined plane. After the block has moved 3 m from rest, the 400 N force
was removed. Coefficient of friction is 0.2. Which of the following gives the distance that the block will
move further along the inclined plane until it stop.

ANS. 2.714
164. The force system consist of a clockwise couple of 600 N-m plus a 300 N force directed to the right

through the origin of x & y axes at θx = 30°.

ANS. 4 m left and 2.3094 below the origin

165. An interest rate of 10% compounded continuously is desired of an investment of P15,000. How many
years will be required to recover the capital with the desired interest if P2,500 is received each year?
ANS. 9.375 years
166. What is the pH level of toilet soap? ANS. 10
167. It is the electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions. ANS.ionic bonding
168. What is the process in which the system adapts to the incoming audio level to keep the signal large
enough to fill the systems dynamic range? ANS.
169. What do you call the element with electrical properties between those of an insulator and a conductor?
ANS. Semiconductor
170. It is the term applied to any method of extinguishing a debt, principal and interest, by a series of
payments, usually at equal intervals. ANS. amortization
171. On the basis of magnetic response, superconducting materials while in the superconducting state, are
completely diamagnetic; that is, all of an applied magnetic field will be excluded from the body of
material, a phenomenon known as the ___________. ANS. Meissner effect
172. In environmental engineering, this refers to the SI measure of source strength or total radioactivity, and
is defined as one disintegration per second. ANS. Becquerel
173. In physics, this refers to a situation in which a very small change in one place can amplify into a large
change somewhere else. ANS. Butterfly effect
174. A thin metal can is rolls down an inclined plane and reach the bottom with the speed of 4.43 m/s.
Determine the speed at the bottom when the can is full. ANS. 5.12 m/s
175. The bob of a pendulum has its rest point 1.00 m below the support. The bob is pulled aside until the
string makes an angle of 15 degrees with the vertical. Upon release, with what speed does the bob
swing past its rest point? ANS. 0.82 m/s
176. It states that at any point P the magnitude of the magnetic field intensity produced by the differential
element is proportional to the product of the current, the magnitude of the differential length, and the
sine of the angle lying between the filament and a line connecting the filament to the point P where the
field is desired. ANS. Law of Biot-Savart
177. When controlling the action of a relay, one of the cheapest but most effective ways to protect the
switching system is to place a capacitor across the terminals of the coil. This capacitor is commonly
called _____? ANS. Snubber
178. A 1500-turn solenoid produces 600,000 Maxwell when excited by a current of 2.5 amp. Calculate the
inductance. ANS. 3.6 Henrys
 179. Aseries of specb-aP lines obtained by the scattering of electrons when an electron beam is directed
against a crystalline solid. The pattern may be interpreted to yield information on the structure of the
crystal and its mechanical perfection.ANS: Kikuchi Lines
180. Simplify the Boolean expression to a minimum number of literals: xy’ + y’z’ +x’z’ANS: xy’ + x’z’
181. Suppose that $1,000 is to be received after 5yrs. At an annual interest rate of12%.What is the present
worth of this amount?ANS: $567.43*
182. 20 cm3 of a monoatomic gas at 12°C and 100kPa is suddenly and adiabiatically compressed to 0.5 cm3
the new pressures is____? ANS: 46.78MPa
183. The ability of material that permits it to be permanent bent or twisted intovarious shapes without
breaking.ANS: Ductility

MATHEMATICS:
1. In general, an algebraic expression with two or more terms is called. ANS. multinomial
2. Find f’(x) for the function: f(x) = x²+(1/x) , x ≠ 0 ANS. 2x-(1/x²)
3. A body moves in a straight line according to the law of motion, s=t^3-4t^2-3t. Find the acceleration at
an instant when the velocity is zero. ANS. 10 @ t=3
4. The sum of the present ages of two children is18. Six years from now the age of the older child will be
twice the age of the younger child. Find their present ages. ANS. younger=4, older=14
5. If the first three terms of an arithmetic sequence are 18,22,26. Find the 38th term. ANS. 166
6. The geometric mean of several positive numbers is smaller than the arithmetic mean of these
numbers.ANS: Cauchy’s Mean Theorem
7. A line segment joining the vertex of a triangle to any given point on the opposite side is called?ANS:
Cevian
8. It states that if L{F1(t)} = L{F2(t)}, then F1(t) – F2(t) = N(t), where N(t) is a null function. That is, an
inverse Laplace transform is unique for the addition of an arbitrary null function.ANS: Lerch’s Theorem
9. Find the shortest distance from the point to the plane 2x+2y+z=5 ANS: 4/3 units
10. A lumber mill cuts rectangular beams from circular logs. If the diameter of the log is 16 inches and the
cross-sectional area of the beam is 120 square inches, find the dimensions of the cross section of the
beam. Give the exact values. ANS. 2+2√31 inches and -2+2√31 inches
11. Perpendicular distance from the center of a regular polygons. ANS: Apothem
12. If A(1, 3 ,5) & B(2,4,6) Find the intersection of A & B. ANS: {null} or 0
13. Who is the British Mathematician who discovered matrices in the year 1858? ANS: Arthur Cayley
14. The function (1 + sec θ) (1 – cos θ) is equal to ________ in its simplest form. ANS: tanθsinθ
15. Find the eccentricity if (x2/25) + (y2/16) = 1. ANS: 3/5 or 0.6
16. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-2,-4), (1,6) & (5,2).ANS: 26 sq. units*

ELECTRONICS:
1. A coil of L=5.00 uH and a capacitor of C=200pF are in series. The frequency is f=4.00 MHz. What is the
net reactance vector jx? ANS. 0-j73
2. The effect that describes the ability of a mechanically stressed ferromagnetic wire to recognize rapid
switching of magnetization when subjected to a DC magnetic field. ANS. Wiegand effect
3. An RL circuit works at frequency of 1.0 MHz. It has a resistance of 10 ohms and an inductance of 90 uH.
What is the phase angle? ANS. 89 degrees
4. Suppose there are 3 inductors, with no mutual inductance and their values are 20.0 mH, 55.0 uH and
400 nH. What is the total inductance of these components if they are connected in series. ANS. 20,055.4
uH
5. Is the measure of how well the substance will “memorize” the magnetism, and thereby become a
permanent magnet. ANS. retentivity/remanence
6. Average value of a half-wave rectified voltage of 200-V Vp. ANS: 63.662-V
7. Ideal DC out voltage of a capacitor input filter or equal to. ANS: Peak value of the rectified voltage
8. Minimum energy of valence electron must gain in order to break the covalentbond. ANS: Bandgap
Energy or Energy gap
9. An energy source forces a constant current of 2A for 10 seconds to flowthrough a light bulb. If 2.3kJ is
given off, in the form of light and heat energycalculate the voltage drop across the bulb.ANS: 115-V*