Compiled by: Deejae B.

Quilala, RN, MAN (ue)

Licensed teacher
Biology Major

STUDY OF LIFE
Unit A — Introduction

1. The fact that no two members of the same species 6. Which levels of biological organization includes all
are absolutely identical is an example of the others listed?

A. diversity A. Biome.
B. homeostasis. B. Ecosystem.
C. change through time. C. Population.
D. structural adaptations. D. Community.

2. Which of the following is the BEST example of the 7. What is a group of tissues with a unifying function
biological principle of structural adaptations? called?

A. Pigs have litters. A. Cell.

B. Snakes eat frogs. B. Organ.
C. There are many breeds of dogs. C. Organism.
D. Cacti needles are modified branches. D. Organ system.

3. The fact that some flowers close up at night and 8. Biology is the study of
open up during the day is an example of
A. life.
A. continuity.
B. plants.
B. interactions. C. animals.
C. homeostasis. D. organisms.
D. structural adaptations.
9. Which of the following levels of study in biology is
4. A litter of puppies being born to a dog is an
MORE GENERAL than “community”?
example of
A. Species.
A. continuity.
B. Ecosystem.
B. interactions.
C. Population.
C. changes through time.
D. Organ system.
D. structural adaptations.
10. Which of the following sequences correctly
5. The relationship between a carnivore (wolf) and a
specifies the study of insects?
herbivore (rabbit) is an example of

A. unity. A. Biology – botany – entomology.

B. interactions. B. Zoology – biology – insectology.
C. changes through time. C. Biology – zoology – entomology.
D. structural adaptations. D. Biology – zoology – microbiology.

Unit B — Diversity and Classification

1. Linnaeus based his classification of plants on 6. The use of two-word names like this is called
A. taxonomy.
A. usefulness to man. B. dichotomy.
B. evolutionary changes. C. dinomial taxomony.
C. environmental factors. D. binomial nomenclature.
D. structural characteristics.
7. Biologists who classify organisms are called
The next five questions refer to the following name
for a vine maple tree:Acer circinatum A. organists.
B. taxonomists.
2. The name as it is written is C. taxidermists.
D. taxorganists.
A. correct.
B. incorrect because it should be underlined. 8. All taxa larger than "species" are
C. incorrect because both words should be
capitalized. A. arbitrary.

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D. incorrect because neither word should be B. written in italics.
capitalized. C. biologically useless.
D. artificial, defined by man.
3. The biological name for a vine maple tree is
9. Horses and zebras are not considered to be
A. Acer. members of the same species because they
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum. A. do not interbreed.
D. none of the above. B. eat different foods.
C. are of different sizes.
4. The genus name for a vine maple tree is D. have different markings.

A. Acer. 10. Members of the same species

B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum. A. are in the same genus.
D. none of the above. B. live in the same location.
C. interact sexually with each other.
5. The species name for a vine maple tree is D. are all the same color and shape.

A. Acer.
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum.
D. none of the above.

11. The most important factor in deciding whether or 16. Which sequence of taxa is in proper order?
not two populations of birds living on two different
islands belong to the same species is their A. Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum,
kingdom.
A. physical similarity. B. Genus, class, order, kingdom, phylum, species,
B. embryological similarity. family.
C. environmental requirement. C. Class, genus, family, species, order, phylum,
D. mutual reproductive capability. kingdom.
D. Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum,
12. The taxon most clearly defined by natural kingdom.
biological barriers is the
17. Unlike a plant, a plant-like protist
A. class.
B. genus. A. is unicellular.
C. phylum. B. has a nucleus.
D. species. C. uses mitochondria.
D. contains chloroplasts.
13. Which kingdom includes bacteria?
18. A unicellular organism with membrane-bound
A. Fungi. organelles is generally considered to be a
B. Monera.
C. Plantae. A. plant-like protist.
D. Protista. B. animal-like protist.
C. fungus-like protist.
14. The third smallest taxon is the D. protist of some kind.

A. order. 19. How many kingdoms of organisms will be studied

B. class. in Biology 11?
C. family. A. Three.
D. phylum. B. Four.
C. Five.
15. The taxon that includes the others listed is the D. Six.

20. Organisms are classified into kingdoms primarily

A. class.
by their
B. order.
C. genus.
D. phylum. A. habitat.
B. structures.
C. size and coloration.
D. reproductive behavior.

Unit C — Adaptation and Evolution

1. Meiosis results in the production of 6. The evolution of a species could be MOST

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A. two diploid daughter cells. ACCURATELY documented by the
B. four diploid daughter cells.
C. two haploid daughter cells. A. observation of a set of mutations.
D. four haploid daughter cells. B. change in the size of a physical feature.
C. change in the frequency of alleles in the gene
2. Which pair of bases does NOT represent a pool.
complementary base pair? D. occurrence of genotype that doesn’t change,
though the corresponding phenotype may.
A. thymine — adenine.
B. adenine — guanine. 7. Which of the following is TRUE of homologous
C. guanine — cytosine. structures?
D. cytosine — guanine.
A. They have the same types of tissues and the
3. The process of replication ensures that daughter same functions.
cells will have exact copies of B. They have different types of tissues and may have
different functions.
A. chromosomes without any mutations. C. They have different types of tissues but may have
B. all the genetic information for the organism. the same functions.
C. suitable segments of DNA required for cell D. They have the same types of tissues, but may
survival. have different functions.
D. the genetic information to be used by
those particular cells. 8. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to form a
fossil?
4. When during the cell cycle does replication occur?
A. Skin.
A. Just before prophase. B. Teeth.
B. S period of interphase. C. Shells.
C. G1 period of interphase. D. Bones.
D. G2 period of interphase.
9. The fact that embryos of different animals appear
5. The theory of natural selection was developed by similar during various stages of their development
suggests that they are
A. Darwin.
B. Mendel. A. evolving.
C. Lamarck. B. mutating.
D. Linnaeus. C. genetically related.
D. analogous to one another.

10. Industrial melanism is an example of

A. artificial selection.
B. disruptive selection.
C. stabilizing selection.
D. accidental selection.

11. Which is NOT an example of artificial selection? 16. Evolution due to genetic drift is MOST LIKELY to
occur in a
A. Bird watching.
B. Breeding race horses. A. large population due to selective pressures.
C. Raising purebred dogs. B. small population due to selective pressures.
D. Protecting endangered species. C. large population without the influence of selective
pressures.
12. The phenomenon of the accumulation of toxins in D. small population without the influence of selective
the tissues of organisms is known as pressures.

A. extinction 17. A rare allele may become common in a small

B. natural selection. population in a relatively short period of time due to
C. disruptive selection.
D. biological magnification. A. genetic drift.
B. adaptive radiation.
13. Variations of a specific gene are known as C. divergent evolution.
D. convergent evolution.
A. alleles.
B. mutations. 18. Individuals without the specializations required to
C. genotypes. survive in a changing environment
D. phenotypes.
A. die.
14. A bimodal distribution of phenotypes in any given B. adapt.
C. evolve.

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population could naturally appear through D. mutate.

A. artificial selection. 19. The idea that fossils are direct evidence of
B. disruptive selection. previously living organisms is consistent with
C. stabilizing selection.
D. directional selection. A. Darwin’s theory of evolution.
B. Lamarck’s theory of evolution.
15. Which of the following is NOT a necessary C. Both of these theories of evolution.
component of the process of natural selection? D. Neither of these theories of evolution.

A. extinction. 20. The ability of an organism to pass on its genes to

B. selective pressure. its offspring is part of the definition of
C. phenotypic variation.
D. reproductive success. A. fitness.
B. radiation.
C. evolution.
D. adaptation.

Unit D — Viruses

1. If a person previously had cow pox and was
infected with small pox, then the
A. effect would be severe.
B. person would most certainly die.
C. effect would be minimal if any even occurred.
D. person could become sick with any kind of pox,
including chicken pox.
2. During the vaccination against small pox, what did
Jenner inject into people?
A. Fluid from a cowpox blister.
B. Blood from an infected cow.
C. Pus from an infected person.
D. Antibiotics he developed against small pox.
3. Which of the following scientists was the first to C. chromosomes made of DNA surrounding a core of
see the tobacco mosaic virus?
A. Miller.
B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski.
6. Which of the following scientists conducted
experiments that led to his belief that the cause of
tobacco mosaic disease was either a very small
bacterium or a toxin produced by the bacteria?
A. Miller.
B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski.
7. The structure of Bacteriophage T4 is BEST
described as an arrangement of
A. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of
DNA.
B. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of
RNA.
proteins.
D. chromosomes made of RNA surrounding a core of
proteins.
8. Viral specificity, the fact that a given type of virus
can only affect one kind of host cell, is

4. Which of the following scientists concluded that A. because of toxins produced by non-host cells.
tobacco mosaic disease was caused by organisms B. a result of the matching of chemical structures.
capable of reproduction? C. an indication of their relative strength or
weakness.
D. nature’s way of ensuring a wide distribution of
A. Miller.
B. Meyer. viruses.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski. 9. A “phage” (short for bacteriophage) is a type of

5. Which of the following scientists demonstrated that A. bacterial cell.

tobacco mosaic disease could be transferred from an B. virus that invades bacteria cells.
infected plant to a healthy plant in the juice extracted C. cell that is prone to bacterial infections.
from the infected plant? D. bacteria that is prone to viral infections.

A. Miller. 10. E. coli lives in

B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick. A. water.
D. Iwanowski. B. bacteria.
C. blood cells.
D. intestines of mammals.

11. Which of the following sequences BEST 16. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following
describes the lytic cycle? EXCEPT one. Which one?

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A. Infection — replication — self-assembly — lysis.
B. Replication — infection — self-assembly — lysis.
C. Lysis — replication — self-assembly — infection.
D. Lysis — self-assembly — infection — replication.
12. A lysogenic cycle differs from a lytic cycle in
several ways. Which of these is NOT one of them?
A. The cycle includes a period of “dormancy.”
B. The host cell doesn’t burst open, it just eventually
dies.
C. The viral chromosome joins the host cell’s genetic
material.
D. The genetic material of the virus is produced by
the host cell.
13. A prophage is BEST described as
A. active viral genetic material.
B. dormant viral genetic material.
C. active bacterial genetic material.
D. dormant bacterial genetic material.
14. The genetic material of a retrovirus will organize
the synthesis of
A. DNA from its RNA structure.
B. DNA from its DNA structure.
C. RNA from its RNA structure.
D. RNA from its DNA structure.
15. Retroviruses are significant in studies of human
diseases because they inject
A. cancer-causing genes.
B. cancer-preventing genes.
C. genetic material that produces cancer-causing
genes.
D. genetic material that produces cancer-preventing
genes.
Unit E — Monerans
1. Which of the following structures would NOT be
found in a bacterial cell?
A. Ribosome.
B. Lysosome.
C. Chromosome.
D. Cell membrane.
2. What is the function of the surface chemicals on
bacterial cells called pili?
A. Sensory.
B. Defense.
C. Movement.
D. Attachment.
3. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of
eubacteria?
A. Anaerobic.
B. Common and abundant.
C. Live in harsh environments.
A. RNA contains uracil, where DNA doesn’t contain
uracil.
B. RNA is single stranded, where DNA is double
stranded.
C. RNA contains ribose, where DNA contains
deoxyribose.
D. RNA is not normally found in human cells, where
DNA is.
17. A pathogen is BEST described as a
A. toxic chemical.
B. virus or bacterium.
C. carrier of a disease.
D. disease-causing microbe.
18. Certain types of white blood cells release
proteins that clump together foreign cells. What are
these proteins called?
A. Antibiotics.
B. Antibodies.
C. Pathogens.
D. Interferons.
19. Interleukins, proteins released by certain white
blood cells, function to
A. absorb pathogens in the blood stream.
B. activate other white blood cells during an infection.
C. deactivate the immune system after an infection
has passed.
D. warn body cells that there are pathogens in the
blood stream.
20. Which of the following is typical of passive
immunity?
A. It is relatively short-lived.
B. A person makes their own antibodies.
C. It comes and goes depending on a person’s
health.
D. It can be induced by injecting a weakened
pathogen.
6. Which of the following is a correct match?
A. Aerobic — plant cells — alcohol.
B. Aerobic — animal cells — alcohol.
C. Anaerobic — plant cells — lactic acid.
D. Anaerobic — animal cells — lactic acid.
7. A bacterium that makes its food using energy from
chemicals found in its environment is termed a
A. photosynthetic autotroph.
B. chemosynthetic autotroph.
C. photosynthetic heterotroph.
D. chemosynthetic heterotroph.
8. During binary fission, bacteria will
A. divide by mitosis and double their number.
B. produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote.
C. divide by meiosis and quadruple their number.
D. combine, exchange genetic material, and then
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D. Uncommon with simple characteristics. divide.

4. What shape is a bacillus bacterium? 9. In one hour, given ideal growing conditions, a
small colony of 10 cells could grow to include
A. Spiral.
B. Elongate. A. 13 cells.
C. Spherical. B. 40 cells.
D. Polyhedral. C. 80 cells.
D. Hundreds of cells.
5. Organisms that generally use oxygen, but can
survive without it are called 10. The following steps occur during conjugation.
What is the correct sequence of these steps?
A. obligate aerobes.
B. facultative aerobes. 1. DNA replication
C. obligate anaerobes. 2. genetic recombination
D. facultative anaerobes. 3. genetic transfer between cells

A. 1, 3, 2.
B. 2, 3, 1.
C. 3, 1, 2.
D. 1, 2, 3.

11. Which of the following most accurately applies to 16. An antiseptic is most correctly used to kill
endospore production? bacteria that

A. Sexual; during poor growing conditions. A. are in food.

B. Sexual; during good growing conditions. B. may be found in a cut.
C. Asexual; during poor growing conditions. C. can be found internally.
D. Asexual; during good growing conditions. D. are on non-living surfaces.

12. Agar, a common laboratory food source for 17. Bacterial activity can result in all of the following
bacteria, is prepared from EXCEPT ONE. Which one?

A. fruit. A. Oil metabolism.

B. seaweed. B. Food production.
C. grain crops. C. Protein digestion.
D. animal tissues. D. Oxygen production.

13. Macroscopically, bacteria colonies can be 18. Significant use of biotechnology does NOT
distinguished from each other by all of the following currently include the production of
EXCEPT ONE. Which one?
A. pathogens.
A. Color. B. disinfectants.
B. Sheen. C. protein hormones.
C. Cell shape. D. genetically altered food.
D. Surface texture.
19. Which combination is MOST correct?
14. Bacterial cells are called gram positive if their cell
walls containing A. Parasite — E. coli — intestines.
B. Symbiont — E. coli — stomach.
A. lipids absorb safranine. C. Pathogen — H. pylori — stomach.
B. lipids absorb crystal violet. D. Decomposer — H. pylori — intestines.
C. carbohydrates absorb safranine.
D. carbohydrates absorb crystal violet. 20. Nitrifying bacteria convert

15. Which procedure is LEAST likely to be included A. N2 into NH3.

in a list of sterile techniques? B. N2 into NO3-1.
C. NO3-1 into N2.
A. Using disinfectants. D. NH3 into NO3-1.
B. Avoiding direct contact.
C. Maintaining a biological control.
D. Heating equipment to sterilize it.

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 Unit F — Protists
1. Most unicellular organisms that have a nucleus
would be
A. eukaryotic and have cilia.
B. prokaryotic and have ribosomes.
C. prokaryotic and have chlorophyll.
D. eukaryotic and have mitochondria.
2. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Digestive — protist-like.
B. Ingestive — animal-like.
C. Absorptive — fungus-like.
D. Photosynthetic — plant-like.
3. Which is the BEST description of plankton?
A. Floating plants.
B. Microscopic aquatic organisms.
C. Marine photosynthetic organisms without roots.
D. Floating organisms that are at the mercy of the
currents.
4. What feature of a paramecium is used to classify it 9. Conjugation is considered to be
into its phylum?
A. Cilia.
B. Oral groove.
C. Food vacuole.
D. Contractile vacuole.
5. Which of the following is the BEST description of D. asexual because organisms can conduct
the movement of a paramecium?
A. Gliding.
B. Floating.
C. Spiraling.
D. Crawling.
11. During the Plasmodium life cycle, where do the
sporozoans mature?
A. Liver cells.
B. Red blood cells.
C. Human blood stream.
D. Mosquito salivary glands.
12. Which phylum of protists is LEAST likely to have
flagella?
A. Phylum Sarcodina.
B. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
C. Phylum Zoomastigina.
D. Phylum Euglenophyta.
13. When light shines on water containing Euglena,
the Euglena will most likely swim
A. towards it using their flagella.
B. away from it using their flagella.
6. What happens to a food vacuole once it is
formed?
A. It leaves via the gullet.
B. It fuses with a lysosome.
C. It becomes a contractile vacuole.
D. It becomes attached to the oral groove.
7. What phylum does an ameba belong to?
A. Phylum Ciliphora.
B. Phylum Sarcodina.
C. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
D. Phylum Zoomastigina.
8. Which of the following BEST describes the
functions of pseudopodia?
A. Ingestion and digestion.
B. Movement and ingestion.
C. Reproduction and ingestion.
D. Movement and reproduction.
A. sexual because new genetic combinations are
produced.
B. asexual because no new genetic combinations
are produced.
C. sexual because it requires a male and female of
the same species.
conjugation independently.
10. Which of the following is a correct description of
reproduction by ameba?
A. sexually when conditions are poor.
B. sexually when conditions are good.
C. asexually when conditions are poor.
D. by forming cysts when conditions are good.
16. Into which phylum are diatoms classified?
A. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
B. Phylum Chrysophyta.
C. Phylum Euglenophyta.
D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.
17. Which phylum of protists is NOT polymorphic?
A. Phylum Sporozoa.
B. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
C. Phylum Myxomycota.
D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.
18. What causes acrasiomycotes to develop into
spore-producing structures?
A. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in poor
feeding conditions.
B. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in good
feeding conditions.
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C. towards it by eugleoid movement. C. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in poor
D. away from it by euglenoid movement. feeding conditions.
D. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in good
14. Rapid reproduction by photosynthetic protists feeding conditions.
producing “blooms” may also cause significant
19. Which pathogen and disease is mismatched?
A. depletion of both CO2 and O2.
B. production of both CO2 and O2. A. Gonyaulax — red tide.
C. depletion of CO2 and production of O2. B. Entameba — dysentry.
D. depletion of O2 and production of CO2. C. Giardia — beaver fever.
D. Trypanosome — malaria.
15. Red tide is poisonous because the
20. Which vector (carrier) and pathogen are
A. water contains toxins produced by protists. mismatched?
B. shellfish accumulate toxins produced by the
protists. A. Mosquito — malaria.
C. protists are dying at a high rate polluting the B. Fly — Chagas disease.
ocean shores. C. Fly — sleeping sickness.
D. shellfish are dying at a high rate polluting the D. Mosquito — amebic dystentry.
ocean shores.

Unit G — Fungi

1. When a fungal spore germinates and continues to 6. Which phylum does Rhizopus stolonifer belong to?
grow, it grows from a
A. Phylum Oomycetes.
A. tip and forms a strand called a hypha. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
B. base and forms a strand called a hypha. C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
C. tip and forms a strand called a mycelium. D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.
D. base and forms a strand called a mycelium.
7. Which phylum produces an N + N secondary
2. Which of the following is the BEST description of mycelium?
the role of a substrate in relation to a fungus?
A. Phylum Oomycetes.
A. Defense. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
B. Camouflage. C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
C. Reproduction. D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.
D. Source of nutrients.
8. Which of the following MOST ACCURATELY
3. Hyphae that exhibit positive chemotaxis will grow describes the production of basidiospores?

A. towards each other for reproductive purposes. A. Singulary.

B. towards each other to share a rich food source. B. In clusters of four.
C. away from each other to ensure distribution of C. In clusters of eight.
spores. D. Hundreds at a time.
D. away from each other to avoid the rapid depletion
of nutrients in one area. 9. Which of the following types of spores is produced
asexually?
4. A hyphal strand that is termed coenocytic usually
A. Ascospores.
A. has nuclei and cross walls. B. Zygospores.
B. lacks nuclei and crosswalls. C. Basidiospores.
C. lacks nuclei, but has cross walls. D. Conidiospores.
D. has nuclei, but lacks cross walls.
10. A specialized hyphal strand that runs horizontal
5. Which phylum does a puffball belong to? to the substrate is called a

A. Phylum Oomycetes. A. stolon.

B. Phylum Ascomycetes. B. rhizoid.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes. C. mycelium.
D. Phylum Basidiomycetes. D. sporangiophore.

11. Fungal rhizoids have the dual purposes of 16. Lichen could NOT be symbiotic relationships
between fungi and
A. anchoring and absorbing nutrients.
B. asexual reproduction and anchoring. A. plants.
C. spreading out the fungus and absorbing nutrients. B. protists.
D. asexual reproduction and spreading out the C. animals.

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fungus. D. monerans.

12. Which phylum of fungi has cellulose cell walls? 17. Why are lichens considered a pioneer organism?

A. Phylum Oomycetes. A. They can be found almost everywhere.

B. Phylum Ascomycetes. B. They were one of the first known organisms.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes. C. They conduct life processes in very simple ways.
D. Phylum Basiodiomycetes. D. They are one of the first organisms to grow in
disturbed areas.
13. The hyphae of egg fungi are
18. Which of the following is NOT a type of lichen?
A. N and coenocytic.
B. 2N and coenocytic. A. Foliose — leafy, often found in trees.
C. N and acoenocytic. B. Fruticose — has upright fruiting bodies.
D. 2N and acoenocytic. C. Crustose — crust-like, grows flat on surfaces.
D. Branchiose — branching, forms a network of
14. Ringworm and athlete’s foot are fungal diseases strands.
caused by members of which phylum?
19. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between a
A. Phylum Oomycetes. fungus and what else?
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes. A. Lichen.
D. Phylum Deuteromycetes. B. Roots of plants.
C. Another fungus.
15. What is the major characteristic that unifies D. Photosynthetic parts of plants.
Phylum Deuteromycetes?
20. Which phylum provided the original source of
A. A lack of known sexual reproductive structures. penicillin?
B. A lack of known asexual reproductive structures.
C. Coenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each cell. A. Phylum Oomycetes.
D. Acoenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each cell. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Deuteromycetes.

Unit H — Plants That Don't Produce Seeds

1. Which part of an alga is NOT correctly matched 6. Which of the following ideas does NOT support
with its function? the notion that Volvox is a multicellular colony?

A. Float — buoyancy. A. It has simple tissues and organs.

B. Holdfast — anchorage. B. Most of the component cells are all very similar to
C. Stipe — conduct water. each other.
D. Blade — photsynthesis. C. If broken apart, it can reassemble or replace the
missing parts.
2. Pigment molecules other than chlorophyll-a D. There is some communication and coordination
capture light energy and between the component cells.

A. make products other than glucose. 7. The holdfasts of Spirogyra are an advantage and
B. store it to make glucose at another time. a disadvantage because they
C. pass it along to chlorophyll-a for making glucose.
D. make glucose, but less efficiently than chlorophyll-
A. anchor the plant and absorb chemicals from the
a. soil.
B. anchor the plant and make it an easier target for
3. The seaweeds along the shores of the coast of BC herbivores.
are members of C. enable it to absorb chemicals from the soil, which
may to toxic to its growth.
D. enable it to grow taller increasing the possibility of
A. Phyla Chlorophyta and Phaeophyta.
breaking the filamentous structure.
B. Phyla Phaeophyta and Rhodophyta.
C. Phyla Chlorophyta and Rhodophyta.
D. Phyla Phaeophyta, Chlorophyta, and Rhodophyta. 8. Which of the following is TRUE about alternation
of generations?
4. Green algae is considered to be the most related
to land plants because it A. sporophytes produce spores that grow into
gametophytes, which produce gametes.
A. has vascular tissue, which other algae lack. B. sporophytes produce gametes that grow into
B. is equipped with guard cells and stomata to control gametophytes, which produce spores.
C. sporophytes produce spores that grow into other
gas exchange.
sporophytes, which produce gametes.
C. is predominantly a sporophyte, where other algae
D. gametophytes produce gametes that grow into
are gametophytes.

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D. stores glucose as starch, rather than oils or other other gametophytes, which produce spores.
complex carbohydrates.
9. Ulva is biologically significant because
5. Which of the following is LEAST useful when
distinguishing A. it is eaten as dulce.
betweenChlamydomonas and Euglena? B. it can grow on land and in the water.
C. it is harvested for its agar-producing abilities.
A. Flagella. D. it displays the same kind of life cycle as moss.
B. Eyespots.
C. Pyrenoid body. 10. Which of the following is LEAST problematic for
D. Contractile proteins. moss growing on land?

A. Drying out in the sun.

B. Getting soaked in the rain.
C. Obtaining water through its roots.
D. Obtaining enough light for photosynthesis.

11. To which phylum does moss belong?
A. Phylum Bryophyta.
B. Phylum Phaeophyta.
C. Phylum Chlorophyta.
D. Phylum Tracheophyta.
12. Which of the following most correctly identifies
the role of guard cells?
A. Open to let CO2 in and O2 and H2O out.
B. Open to let O2 in and CO2 and H2O out.
C. Open to let CO2 and H2O in and O2 out.
D. Open to let O2 and H2O in and CO2 out.
13. Select the TRUE statement from among the
following statements about moss.
16. Which of the following most correctly identifies
the roles of vascular tissues?
A. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to
the leaves, where phloem transports the products of
photosynthesis down a stem.
B. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up
to the leaves, where xylem transports the products of
photosynthesis down a stem.
C. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to
the leaves, where phloem transports the products of
photosynthesis away from the leaves.
D. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up
to the leaves, where xylem transports the products of
photosynthesis away from the leaves.
17. A fiddlehead is an immature

A. sporophyte frond.
A. The sporophyte is photosynthetic, but the
B. gametophyte frond.
gametophyte is not.
B. The gametophyte is photosynthetic, but the C. sporophyte prothallium.
D. gametophyts prothallium.
sporophyte is not.
C. Both the gametophyte and the sporophyte are
photosynthetic. 18. Sori are a specialization found on
D. Neither the sporophyte not the gametophyte is
photosynthetic. A. fronds for the production of spores.
B. fronds for the production of gametes.
14. At what stage in the moss life cycle does meiosis C. gametophytes for the production of spores.
occur? D. gametophytes for the production of spores.

A. In the spore capsule.
B. In spores before they germinate.
C. In the gametophytes for the production of
gametes.
D. In the top of a female gametophyte, resulting in
the growth of the sporophyte.
15. Which of the following is present in ferns but not
present in moss?
19. Which is the most logical sequence of plants
during succession on land?
A. Moss — grass — shrubs — trees.
B. Ferns — grass — shrubs — trees.
C. Algae — moss — grass — shrubs.
D. Lichen — trees — logs — decomposers.
20. Of which phylum is agar a derivative?

A. Vascular tissue. A. Phylum Bryophyta.

B. Guard cells and stomata. B. Phylum Phaeophyta.
C. Specialized structures to produce spores. C. Phylum Rhodophyta.
D. Specialized structures to produce gametes. D. Phylum Chlorophyta.

Unit I — Plants That Produce Seeds

1. Which of these is the MOST ACCURATE 6. In which growing conditions would you find
difference between gymnosperms and angiosperms? xerophytes, hydrophytes, and halophytes
(respectively)?
A. Angiosperms can have broad, flat leaves;
gymnosperms never do. A. Mineral-rich, aquatic, dry.
10
B. Gymnosperms produce cones for reproduction;
angiosperms don’t.
C. Angiosperms produce flowers for reproduction;
gymnosperms don’t.
D. Gymnosperms have leaves that are reduced in
size, forming needles; angiosperms don’t.
B. Aquatic, dry, mineral-rich.
C. Dry, aquatic, mineral-rich.
D. Dry, mineral-rich, aquatic.
7. A boring tool is used to drill a hole into a tree.
Which sequence of tissues would it encounter?

2. Which of the following plants produces a seed with A. Phloem — xylem — vascular cambium.
only one cotyledon? B. Phloem — vascular cambium — xylem.
C. Xylem — vascular cambium — phloem.
A. Pea. D. Xylem — phloem — vascular cambium.
B. Corn.
C. Peanut. 8. What accounts for the movement of water into a
D. Sunflower. root hair and on to the xylem?

3. Which of the following is the BEST description of a A. The pressure exerted on the roots by the
tissue? surrounding soil.
B. Diffusion due to the difference in concentration of
A. Part of an organ. minerals.
B. A set of cells that function together. C. Osmosis due to the osmotic pressure created by
C. A cluster of cells all in the same place. the surrounding ground.
D. A set of identical cells that have a unified function. D. The active transport of minerals into the root
tissues creating osmotic pressure.
4. The tissue type in a plant that is capable of cell
division is called 9. Which of the following is the BEST description of
the structure and function of the Casparian strip?
A. parenchyma.
B. collenchyma. A. A set of cells that allows water into the xylem from
C. meristematic. the root hairs.
D. sclerenchyma. B. A waxy layer around the xylem that prevents water
from leaving once it is there.
5. Where on a plant would one look to find an apex? C. A protein-rich layer that enzymatically controls
water movement in a vascular bundle.
D. A specialized tissue that conducts water in the
A. In a flower.
xylem of roots to the xylem above the ground.
B. Along the stem.
C. Under the leaves.
D. At the tip of a branch. 10. Under which conditions would the chance of
transpiration be the greatest?

A. Hot and dry.

B. Cold and dry.
C. Hot and humid.
D. Cold and humid.

11. The dark lines forming the annular rings of a tree 16. Which of the following statements about flower
are made out of dense parts is CORRECT?

A. xylem cells that formed in poor growing A. Sepals are photosynthetic.

conditions. B. The female parts surround the central male part.
B. xylem cells that formed in good growing C. Pistils are male parts, while stamens are female
conditions. parts.
C. phloem cells that formed in poor growing D. The style is the source of energy and fragrance for
conditions. the flower.
D. phloem cells that formed in good growing
conditions. 17. What features would you expect to find
associated with both a maple and an oak leaf?
12. The cones of a gymnosperm that are involved in
reproduction during a spring season are a A. Parallel vein pattern and a petiole.
B. Parallel vein pattern, but no petiole.
A. one-year male cone and a one-year female cone. C. Branching vein pattern and a petiole.
B. one-year male cone and a three-year female D. Branching vein pattern, but no petiole.
cone.
C. three-year male cone and a one-year female 18. What causes leaves to change color and fall from
cone. trees?
D. three-year male cone and a three-year female
cone.
A. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a build-up
of cells in the petiole.
13. Which of the following is the BEST description of B. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a build-up
pollen? of cells in the petiole.
C. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a

11
A. Multicellular male reproductive structure. deterioration of the cells in the petiole.
B. Multicellular female reproductive structure. D. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a
C. Multinucleated male reproductive structure. deterioration of the cells in the petiole.
D. Multinucleated female reproductive structure.
19. What is the function of a cotyledon?
14. Select the FALSE statement regarding the
fertilization process in angiosperms. A. Store water absorbed by root hairs to use later,
when water is less available.
A. A pollen nucleus fertilizes the ovum to produce the B. Facilitate gas exchange for both photosynthesis
embryo. and respiration until stomata develop.
B. A pollen nucleus causes the ovule to develop and C. Promote the growth of roots in a downward
produce fruit. direction and the growth of shoots upwards.
C. A pollen nucleus fertilizes a polar body to produce D. Provide nutrients to a plant embryo until it can
the endosperm. conduct enough photosynthesis to make its own.
D. A pollen nucleus causes the growth and
elongation of the pollen tube. 20. Which of the following describes a
monocotyledon?
15. What are the location and function of
endosperm? A. Six petals per flower with parallel veins in leaves.
B. Six petals per flower with branching veins in
A. In a flower to attract pollen. leaves.
B. In fruit to protect the embryo. C. Twelve petals per flower with parallel veins in
C. In a seed to feed the embryo. leaves.
D. Part of pollen required for fertilization. D. Twelve petals per flower with branching veins in
leaves.

12
 Unit J — Simple Invertebrates

1. Which of the following combinations of organisms 6. Sessile aquatic animals are more likely to be
contains only radially symmetrical animals?
A. radially symmetrical, have separate sexes and
A. Jellyfish, sponges, and roundworms. reproduce by mating.
B. Roundworms, hydra, and sea anemones. B. radially symmetrical, hermaphroditic and
C. Sponges, jellyfish, and Portuguese men-o-war. reproduce by broadcasting.
D. Portuguese men-o-war, roundworms, and flukes. C. bilaterally symmetrical, have separate sexes and
reproduce by mating.
2. Cephalization MOST ACCURATELY refers to the D. bilaterally symmetrical, hermaphroditic and
development of reproduce by broadcasting.

A. a brain. 7. Which of the following correctly describes the

B. a head. water flow through a sponge?
C. a scolex.
D. an anterior end. A. In and out through the osculum.
B. In and out through the porocytes.
3. Which pattern of digestive system allows for the C. In through porocytes and out the osculum.
greatest organ development? D. In through the osculum and out through the
porocytes.
A. Sac-like pattern.
B. Tube-like system. 8. Which of the following is the most complete list of
C. Gastrovascular cavity. functions that occur by diffusion in a jellyfish?
D. Intracellular digestion by lysosome activity.
A. Excretion and circulation.
4. Which of the following combinations of organisms B. Respiration and excretion.
contains only sessile animals? C. Respiration and circulation.
D. Respiration, excretion, circulation.
A. Flukes and tapeworms.
B. Sponges, hydras, and sea anemones. 9. Which of the following is true about stinging cells
C. Jellyfishes, planaria worms, and tapeworms. and collar cells?
D. Flukes, tapeworms, and planaria worms.
A. They are homologous structures associated with
5. Animals are diploid (2N) and produce gametes the digestive system.
that are haploid (N). This statement is B. Stinging cells are specializations of the ectoderm;
collar cells are specializations of endoderm.
C. Collar cells are specializations of the ectoderm;
A. never true.
stinging cells are specializations of endoderm.
B. usually true.
C. always true. D. Collar cells are members of colonies of cells;
stinging cells are specializations of the ectoderm.
D. occasionally true.

10. What are the functions of a gastrovascular

cavity?

A. Digestion and excretion only.

B. Excretion and circulation only.
C. Digestion and circulation only.
D. Digestion, excretion and, circulation.

11. Which of the following animals has a nerve net? 16. A parasitic worm that has a dormant stage in a
mammal can usually be found in a
A. Sponge.
B. Jellyfish. A. cyst.
C. Planaria. B. snail.
D. Tapeworm. C. scolex.
D. proglottid.
12. Which of the following animals is a member of
Class Scyphozoa? 17. A human with a tapeworm most likely got it by
consuming
A. Hydra.
B. Jellyfish. A. raw snails.
C. Planaria. B. unsanitary water.
D. Sea anemone. C. poorly cooked meat.

13
13. Which of the following correctly describes the
tissue layers in the animals indicated?
A. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm —3 layers; round
worm — 3 layers.
B. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; round
worm — 4 layers.
C. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 2 layers; round
worm — 3 layers.
D. Jellyfish — 3 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; round
worm — 4 layers.
14. What system do flame cells and nephridiopores
belong to?
A. Excretory system of planaria.
B. Circulatory system of planaria.
C. Excretory system of roundworms.
D. Circulatory system of roundworms.
15. What is the advantage to a parasitic worm of
having multiple hosts during its life cycle?
A. Finding a mate.
B. Distributing their young.
C. Infecting a wider range of animals.
D. Sampling a wider range of nutrient sources.
it K — Higher Invertebrates
1. The reproductive structures of an earthworm are
located
A. under the clitellum.
B. mid-way along the length of the worm.
C. closer to the anterior end of the worm.
D. closer to the posterior end of the worm.
2. The setae of the earthworm function BEST for
A. traction.
B. feeling.
C. excretion.
D. subdividing the coelom.
3. In order to elongate, an earthworm would have to
A. contract its circular muscles, while relaxing its
longitudinal muscles.
B. relax its circular muscles, while contracting its
longitudinal muscles.
C. contract both its circular and longitudinal muscles.
D. relax both its circular and longitudinal muscles.
4. Of the following, which is the BEST description of
detritus?
A. Fungus.
B. Fertilizer.
C. Soil debris.
D. Undigested wastes.
5. The aortic arches of an earthworm are located
around the
A. pharynx.
D. unwashed leafy vegetables.
18. If a pin were poked into a nematode from the
outside into the intestine, what would it pass
through?
A. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom, then
endoderm.
B. Ectoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm, then
endoderm.
C. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm,
then endoderm.
D. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm, pseudocoelom,
mesoderm, then endoderm.
19. Which of the following best describes the
movement of a nematode?
A. Crawling.
B. Swimming.
C. Ciliated gliding.
D. Whipping back and forth.
20. The development of a coelom is coupled with the
earliest specialization of a/an
A. nervous system.
B. excretory system.
C. circulatory system.
D. respiratory system.
6. Which of the following pairs in mismatched?
A. Gastropod — mantle cavity.
B. Bivalvia — water vascular system.
C. Oligochaete — segments.
D. Hirudinea — suckers.
7. Which pair most correctly matches structures with
their functions?
A. Crop — storage; gizzard — grinding.
B. Crop — grinding; gizzard — storage.
C. Crop — chemical digestion; gizzard — physical
digestion.
D. Crop — physical digestion; gizzard — chemical
digestion.
8. Earthworms are MOST correctly described as
A. free-living.
B. parasitic.
C. carnivores.
D. herbivores.
9. The annelid feature that “relates” best to mollusks
is the
A. degree of specialization of the nervous system.
B. lack of development of an excretory system.
C. development of ciliated larvae.
D. extent to which their bodies are segmented.
10. The correct sequence of the parts of an
earthworm’s digestive system is
A. pharynx, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus.
14
B. intestine. B. pharynx, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
C. esophagus. C. esophagus, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
D. ventral nerve cord. D. esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine.

11. The lifestyle of a polychaete is best described as 16. A sinus of a clam is MOST correctly described as
a chamber where
A. predator.
B. prey. A. air collects for respiration.
C. producer. B. blood collects to bathe tissues.
D. parasite. C. muscles for movement are located.
D. reproductive gametes are stored.
12. Which of the following systems is likely the
MOST developed in a leech? 17. Which of the following are vestigial structures?

A. Excretory. A. Gills of clams.

B. Reproductive. B. Mantles of slugs.
C. Digestive. C. Eyes of octopi.
D. Circulatory. D. Radulas of snails.

13. The chemical secreted by a leech is medically 18. Which organism is mismatched with a
significant because it prevents characteristic “lifestyle”?

A. bacterial infection. A. Clam — filter feeder.

B. blood clotting. B. Squid — predator.
C. tissue rejection. C. Slug — carnivore.
D. skin deterioration. D. Snail — free-living.

14. Which of the following sets of features most 19. Which part of the water vascular system of a sea
accurately defines Phylum Mollusca? star is connected directly to a tube foot?

A. Marine, soft-bodied, mantle. A. Madreporite.

B. Soft-bodied, mantle, closed circulatory system. B. Lateral canal.
C. Foot, mantle, soft-bodied. C. Ring canal.
D. Marine or terrestrial, foot, open circulatory system. D. Radial canal.

15. Which of the following is LEAST likely a function 20. Which system of echinoderms is LEAST
of the siphon of a clam? specialized?

A. Feeding. A. Digestive system.

B. Excreting. B. Locomotory.
C. Circulating. C. Respiratory.
D. Reproducing. D. Reproductive.

Unit L — Arthropods

1. Which of the following is the key identifying feature 6. Which of the following lists a grasshopper’s
of the arthropods? mouthparts in an anterior to posterior sequence?

A. Body segmentation. A. Labium mandibles maxillae labrum.

B. Metamorphosis. B. Labium maxillae mandibles labrum.
C. Exoskeletons. C. Labrum maxillae mandibles labium.
D. Jointed appendages. D. Labrum mandibles maxillae labium.

2. The circulatory system of a typical arthropod is 7. To which body system do ocelli belong?
best described as
A. Excretory.
A. open with a ventral pumping vessel. B. Respiratory.
B. open with a dorsal pumping vessel. C. Reproductive.
C. closed with a ventral pumping vessel. D. Nervous.
D. closed with a dorsal pumping vessel.
8. Which of the following BEST describes the life
3. Centipedes are members of class cycle of a moth?

A. Chilopoda. A. Egg nymph adult.

B. Diplopoda. B. Egg larva nymph adult.
C. Insecta. C. Egg larva pupa adult.
D. Uniramia. D. Egg pupa adult.

9. Of the following, the BEST description of the role

15
4. Millipedes are known for their
A. single pair of legs per segment and herbivorous
lifestyle.
B. single pair of legs per segment and carnivorous
lifestyle.
C. double pair of legs per segment and herbivorous
lifestyle.
D. double pair of legs per segment and carnivorous
lifestyle.
of Malpighian tubules is to conduct metabolic wastes
from
A. tissues to the intestines.
B. tissues to the kidneys.
C. kidneys to the excretory openings.
D. kidneys to the spiracles.
10. Which of the following will not enable one to
distinguish gender?

5. The major locomotory structures of an insect are A. Presence of an ovipositor on a grasshopper.

attached to its B. Storage sacs on the ends of the pedipalps of a
spider.
A. head. C. The length of swimerettes on a crayfish.
B. thorax. D. The thickness of the carapace of a crab.
C. cephalothorax.
D. abdomen.

11. Which class of arthropods has branching 16. Spiders obtain oxygen through their
appendages?
A. gills.
A. Trilobite. B. cuticles.
B. Uniramia. C. book lungs.
C. Arachnida. D. tracheal tubes.
D. Crustacea.
17. The “fangs” of a spider are more technically
12. A grasshopper’s tracheal tubes are attached to known as
its
A. chelicera.
A. lungs. B. pedipalps.
B. spiracles. C. chelipeds.
C. gills. D. carapaces.
D. book lungs.
18. Insects that transmit diseases are
13. Which system does a green gland of a crayfish A. pathogens.
belong to? B. parasites.
C. vectors.
A. Excretory. D. virulent.
B. Digestive.
C. Reproductive. 19. Which of the following has a nymph stage in its
D. Circulatory. life cycle?

14. How many stages are there in complete A. Grasshopper.

metamorphosis? B. Moth.
C. Mosquito.
A. Two. D. Fly.
B. Three.
C. Four. 20. People who enjoy eating lobster are usually
D. Five. eating the muscles of its

15. What is the function of uropods and a telson? A. cephalothorax and chelipeds.
B. carapace and abdomen.
A. Excretion. C. telsons and uropods.
B. Reproduction. D. cheliped and abdomen.
C. Locomotion.
D. Digestion.

Unit M — Chordates

1. Which of the following correctly expresses the 6. Which of the following animals has a heart with
relative placement of a vertebrate’s nerve cord and clearly only one ventricle?
major blood vessels?
A. Salamanders.
A. Both are dorsal. B. Alligators.
B. Both are ventral. C. Chickens.
C. The nerve cord is ventral and the blood vessels D. Horses.
are dorsal.
D. The nerve cord is dorsal and the blood vessels 7. Which of the following BEST describes the skeletal
16
are ventral. system of the classes of fish?

2. Which of the following is NOT a correct match? A. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney;
Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
A. Scaly legs — frog. B. Agnatha — cartilaginous; Chondrichthyes —
B. Crop and gizzard — chicken. cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.
C. Boneless — shark. C. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney;
D. Free-living — lamprey. Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
D. Agnatha — boney; Chondrichthyes —
cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.
3. Which of these features would NOT be found in a
trout?
8. A cloaca is a common opening for all of the
following systems EXCEPT
A. Operculum.
B. Swim bladder.
C. Spiral valve. A. digestive.
D. Cloaca. B. reproductive.
C. excretory.
D. circulatory.
4. The limbs of a salamander cannot support much
weight because they
9. Fat deposits in vertebrates have two main
A. are more like fins than legs. functions. Besides being a long term food supply,
they
B. are not attached by bone to the spine.
C. stick out sideways from the body.
D. are weak and largely non-functional. A. create the appearance of larger size.
B. help maintain body temperature.
5. Limbs are attached to the vertebral column as C. provide an internal water proofing.
D. remove impurities from the blood.
follows:

10. Which system is NOT present in vertebrates?

A. pelvic are on the left; pectoral are on the right.
B. pelvic are on the right; pectoral are on the left.
C. pelvic are anterior; pectoral are posterior. A. Respiratory.
D. pelvic are posterior; pectoral are anterior. B. Water vascular.
C. Excretory.
D. Endocrine.

11. An endothermic animal gets its body temperature 16. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
from the digestive organs through which material pass in a
rat?
A. the environment.
B. other endothermic animals. A. Mouth, trachea, stomach, small intestine, anus.
C. ectothermic animals. B. Mouth, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine.
D. its own metabolic activity. C. Mouth, stomach, rectum, large intestine, anus.
D. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, caecum, large
12. The most efficient respiratory systems are found intestine.
among the
17. How do marsupials differ from other mammals?
A. fish.
B. birds. A. They are the only mammals that have a placenta.
C. reptiles. B. They do not have internal fertilization.
D. mammals. C. Their young are born at a much earlier stage of
development.
13. Which group of chordates typically reproduces D. They do not have mammary glands with nipples.
using internal fertilization?
18. Which of the following membranes most directly
A. Turtles, frogs, birds. surrounds a developing embryo?
B. Bats, salamanders, whales.
C. Snakes, kangaroos, platypuses. A. Allantoic sac.
D. Sharks, alligators, anteaters. B. Amniotic sac.
C. Chorionic sac.
14. The lungs of a mammal are located in its D. Yolk sac.

A. alimentary canal. 19. Birds and reptiles share all of the following
B. abdominal cavity. EXCEPT
C. cranial cavity.
D. thoracic cavity. A. Amniotic egg.
B. Scales.
15. What is the main difference between the uterus C. Lightweight bones.
of a human and the uterus of a rat? D. Beaks and claws.

20. A structure present in a rat yet absent in a frog is

17
A. Shape. a
B. Function.
C. Location in the body. A. lung.
D. Attachment to internal other organs. B. diaphragm.
C. kidney.
D. spleen.

Unit N — Ecology

1. Which of the following is an abiotic feature of an 6. A population of 1000 members is changing at the
environment? following rates: N = 10%, M = 14%, I = 18%, E =
22%. After one year, the population would be
A. Fish.
B. Birds. A. 920.
C. Trees. B. 992.
D. Rivers. C. 1008.
D. 1080.
2. An organism’s (species’) niche is best described
as the set of interactions between the organism and 7. Bacteria grown on agar in a Petri dish is an
the example of

A. positive features of its environment. A. carrying capacity.

B. abiotic parts of its environment. B. closed population.
C. abiotic and biotic parts of its environment. C. open population.
D. positive and negative features of its environment. D. cyclical changes in population size.

3. Which of the following interactions occurs within a 8. When the density of a growing population
single species? surpasses the carrying capacity of its environment,
the organisms will
A. Parasitism.
B. Symbiosis. A. stop reproducing until the population size
C. Competition. degreases significantly.
D. Predation. B. reduce the number of offspring per female in the
population.
4. Which of the following is descriptive of lichen? C. begin to die faster than new ones are produced.
D. go extinct.
A. Parasitism.
B. Symbiosis. 9. Cyclical changes in population density exist in an
C. Competition. environment that is
D. Predation.
A. relatively stable over a long period of time.
5. Which of the following would increase the size of a B. changing rapidly.
population? C. undergoing succession.
D. undergoing severe selective pressures.
A. Increased mortality.
B. Increased emigration. 10. In an energy pyramid, the producers are at the
C. Decreased immigration.
D. Increased natality. A. top and there is more energy at each successive
level.
B. top and there is less energy at each successive
level.
C. bottom and there is more energy at each
successive level.
D. bottom and there is less energy at each
successive level.

11. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true
about herbivores and carnivores in the same
ecosystem?
A. Both are part of the biota of the area.
B. The carnivores could prey on the herbivores.
C. They are both are the same trophic level.
D. The density of both populations undergoes regular and carbon dioxide.
fluctuations.
12. Which of the following is the BEST description of
carrying capacity?
16. During photosynthesis, the products are
A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are
oxygen and sugar.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants
are sugar and water.
C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar
D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon
dioxide and water.
17. During cellular respiration, the products are

18
A. The maximum number of individuals a closed
environment will support.
B. The maximum number of individuals a open
environment will support.
C. The minimum number of individuals a closed
environment will support.
D. The minimum number of individuals a open
environment will support.
A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are
oxygen and sugar.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants
are sugar and water.
C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar
and carbon dioxide.
D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon
dioxide and water.

13. Which sequence is the most likely to occur during 18. Organisms use sugar to make an energy-rich
succession in a cedar forest? molecule called

A. Grasses deciduous trees cedar trees. A. TAP.

B. Cedar trees seedlings cedar trees. B. ATP.
C. Moss grasses deciduous growth. C. PAT.
D. Lichen shrubs and grasses trees. D. PTA.

14. A pioneer species is 19. Every population requires

A. an ancient type of organism. A. a lack of predation.

B. one which has evolved quickly. B. continuous resources.
C. one which has avoided evolution. C. continuous succession.
D. one of the first types to grow in a new area. D. inverted energy pyramids.

15. Which kingdom does NOT contain photosynthetic 20. Extinction of one species in a stable ecosystem
organisms? could do all of the following EXCEPT

A. Plant. A. go unnoticed.
B. Fungus. B. cause the collapse of the ecosystem.
C. Protist. C. increase the interactions between the remaining
D. Monera (Eubacteria). species.
D. decrease the interactions between the remaining
species.

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 Unit Test Answers — Biology 11

Unit #1 #2 #3 #4 #5 #6 #7 #8 #9 #10 #11 #12 #13 #14 #15 #16 #17 #18 #19 #20
A A D C A B A B A B C
B D A C A B D B D A A D D B C D D A D C C
C D B B B A D D A C D A D A B A D A A C A
D C A A B C C A B B D A B B A C D D B B A
E B D B B D D B A C A C B C D C B C A C D
F D A D A C B B B A A A A A C B B B A D D
G A D A D D C D B B D A A B A A C D D B D
H C C D D A A B A D C A A B A A C A A A B
I C B B C D C B D B A A B C B C A C D D A
J C A B B C B C D B C B B A A B A D A D C
K C A A C C B A A C A A B B C C B B C B C
L D B A C B A D C A D D B A C C C A C C D
M A A C C D A B D B B D B C D A D D B C B
N D C C B D A B C A D C B A D B D A B B A

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