Caav Question Bank - Atr 72

CAAV QUESTION BANK – ATR 72
ATA 06
1. 500 is major zone for: (A,B1,B2)

a. Power plant and nacelles.
b. Left wing. ! (JIC 06-20-00)
c. Right wing
2. The zoning system is based on: (A,B1,B2)

a. One group.
b. Two group.
c. Three group. ! (JIC 06-20-00)
3. How many frames are there on ATR-72? (B1)

a. 48. ! (JIC 06-21-00)
b. 50.
c. 52.
4. The cargo door is between which frames? (B1)

a. 14-16. ! (JIC 06-21-10)
b. 12-14.
c. 10-12
5. The sequence of zone numbering run: (A,B1,B2)

a. After to forward.
b. From inboard to outboard in the wing. ! (JIC 06-20-00)
c. Rear to front in the wing.
ATA 07
6. When jacking of aircraft is performed: (B1,B2)

a. Fuel in both tanks must be the same. ! (JIC 07-11-00)
b. Fuel in the left tank is more than in the right tank.
c. Fuel in the right tank is more than in the left tank.
7. When jacking of aircraft is performed outside of the hangar, maximum

allowwable wind speed is: (A,B1,B2)
a. 40 km/h.
b. 45 km/h. ! (JIC 07-11-00)
c. 50 km/h.
8. Aircraft must be in the following configuration for jacking: (A,B1,B2)

a. Main gear wheel brakes engaged, wheel chocks removed.
b. Main gear wheel brakes released, wheel chocks installed.
c. Main gear wheel brakes released, wheel chocks removed. ! (JIC 07-11-00)
9. For checking horizontal position of aircraft, the level must be located in: (B1)
a. On the rail at cargo compartment door. ! (JIC 07-11-00)
b. On the floor at forward cargo compartment.
c. On the floor at after cargo compartment.
1 1st Issue – July 2005

10. For fuselage shoring we need to perform: (B1)

a. Jacking of aircraft and precise leveling. ! (JIC 07-20-00)
b. Jacking of aircraft.
c. Precise leveling.
ATA 08
11. Aircraft can be weighed: (B1)

a. On jack only.
b. On wheel only.
c. On jack or on wheel. ! (JIC 08-12-00)
12. Before weghing: (B1)

a. Hydraulic system is topped up. ! (JIC 08-12-00)
b. Hydraulic system is drained.
c. Hydraulic system remains as before.
13. How to adjust longitudinal levelling during quick levelling? (B1)

a. By acting on jacks located at front of fuselage. ! (JIC 08-12-00)
b. By acting on jacks located at left wing.
c. By acting on jacks located at right wing.
14. During quick levelling precision rule and clinometer are positioned: (A,B1,B2)
a. At level of forward cargo compartment.
b. At level of cargo compartment door. ! (JIC 08-21-00)
c. At level of after cargo compartment.
15. During precise levelling the aircraft must be parked: (B1)

a. Away from wind. ! (JIC 08-22-00)
b. Against wind.
c. Across the wind.
ATA 09
16. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear can not be performed when: (A,B1,B2)
a. Aircraft in hangar.
b. Aircraft in run way.
c. Aircraft in soft sand or mud. ! (JIC 09-11-00)
17. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear can not be performed when: (A,B1,B2)
a. Nose gear has two flat tyres. ! (JIC 09-11-00)
b. Nose gear has one flat tyre.
c. Main gear has one flat tyre.
18. Aircraft can be towed with speed: (A,B1,B2)

a. Same as slow walk.
b. Less than slow walk. ! (JIC 09-11-00)
c. Faster than slow walk.
19. Before towing the aircraft the N/W steering swich is in which position? (A,B1,B2)

a. OFF. ! (JIC 09-11-00)

b. ON.
c. Neutral.
20. Towing operation must have permision from: (A,B1,B2)

a. Director.
b. Maintenance manager.
c. Control tower. ! (JIC 09-11-00)
ATA 10
21. Aircraft must be parked: (A,B1,B2)

a. Head into wind. ! (JIC 10-10-00)
b. Tail into wind.
c. Crosswind.
22. When check full travel of the rudder TLU selector swich is in which position?
(B1,B2)
a. HI SPD.
b. LO SPD.
c. AUTO. ! (JIC 10-10-00)
23. For parking for longer than one week: (B1,B2)

a. Install the two air inlet covers.
b. Install the two engine nacelle covers. ! (JIC 10-10-00)
c. Remove MLG safety pins.
24. For parking for less than one week: (B1,B2)

a. Install the two air inlet covers. ! (JIC 10-10-00)
b. Install the two engine nacelle covers.
c. Remove MLG safety pins.
25. Mooring is needed when: (A,B1,B2)

a. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed exceeding limit. ! (JIC 10-10-
00)
b. Aircraft on its wheels and parked in hangar wind speed exceeding limit.
c. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed less than the limit.
ATA 11
26. For installation of decals applied across lap joints: (B1,B2)

a. Decal is wrapped smoothly and continiously around the edge of the lap joint. ! (JIC
11-00-00)
b. Decal is cut and wrapped around the edge.
c. Decal is cut and wrapped over the edge.
27. For label on heat resistant ducting installation: (B1)

a. Primer must be left to dry for 10 minutes prior to affixing label.
b. Primer must be left to dry for 20 minutes prior to affixing label.
c. Primer must be left to dry for 30 minutes prior to affixing label. ! (JIC 11-00-00)

28. For identification of metallic plates installation: (B1)

a. Apply sealant and attach with adhesive tape.
b. Apply sealant and attach with blind rivets. ! (JIC 11-00-00)
c. Apply sealant and attach with adhesive compound.
29. To mark feathering position on propeller blade and spinner we must: (B1)
a. Remove the blade.
b. Remove the propeller.
c. Remove the spinner. ! (JIC 11-21-61)
30. If propeller is not in feather position for marking feather position on propeller
blade and spinner: (B1)
a. Perform manual feathering. ! (JIC 11-21-61)
b. Perform feathering by feathering pump.
c. Perform feathering by running up and shut down engine.
ATA 12
31. On the aircraft, a black point strip shows: (A, B1, B2)
a. The NO STEP areas. ü(D/O 12-00)
b. The NO SMOKING areas.
c. The DANGEROUS areas.
32. What are the kinds of drainage points on the aircraft? (B1, B2)
a. Draining points with piston valves and direct draining points.
b. Draining points with piston valves; direct draining points and draining points with
pipes. ü(D/O 12-00)
c. Draining points with piston valves and draining points with pipes.
33. When aircraft is on ground, the pressurization system is off: (B1)

a. The piston valve of draining points is maintained open position by its spring. ü(D/O
12-00)
b. The piston valve of draining points is maintained close position by its spring.
c. The piston valve of draining points close.
34. When aircraft is in flight: (B1)

a. All draining points with piston valves and direct draining points open.
b. Draining points with piston valves open; direct draining points close.
c. Draining points with piston valves close; direct draining points open. ü(D/O 12-00)
35. Only use explosion proof inspection lights when: (A, B1, B2)
a. Carry out refueling or defueling.ü(D/O 12-00)
b. Refill hydraulic fluids.
c. Refill engine oils.
36. When do you check engine oil level: (A, B1)

a. 5 – 10 minutes after engine shutdown.
b. 10 – 20 minutes after engine shutdown. ü(EMM 72-00-00)
c. 40 minutes after engine shutdown.

37. What is the purpose of the engine running for a minimum 20 seconds with the
propeller in feather during engine shut-down? (B1)
a. To ensure that the maximum amount of oil from the PCU via the RGB return to the oil
tank. ü(EMM 72-00-00)
b. To ensure that the maximum amount of oil from the HMU via the RGB return to the oil
tank.
c. To ensure that the maximum amount of oil from the RGB via the PCU return to the oil
tank.
38. How do you know the kind of engine oil when you do engine oil servicing? (B1)
a. See EMM for approved oils. ü(EMM 72-00-00) (or Aircraft Flight Manual)
b. See IPC for approved oils.
c. See MMEL for approved oils.
39. What is the purpose of installation of the caps or other suitable protectors when
electrical connectors are disconnected? (B2)
a. To prevent entry of hydraulic fluid, moisture and foreign objects. ü(D/O 12-00)
b. To prevent entry of foreign objects.
c. To prevent entry of hydraulic fluid, moisture.
40. During MLG wheel/Tire assy. removal and installation, what do you do to prevent
inadvertent retraction of landing gear on ground? (A, B1, B2)
a. Check that the landing gear ground locking pins are in place.
b. Display a warning notice prohibiting landing gear operation on panel 404VU.
c. Both (a) & (b). ü(JIC 12-37-32)
41. During NLG wheel/Tire assy removal and installation, the old cotter pin is: (A,
B1, B2)
a. Discarded. ü(JIC 12-37-32)
b. Re-used.
c. Inspected before re-using.
42. What material do you apply to wheel axe during wheel/tire assy. removal and
installation? (A, B1)
a. Rubber compound.
b. Corrosion inhibiting compound -JC5A.
c. Grease 04-004B (MIL-G-81322). ü(JIC 12-37-32)
43. You can check fuel level by using manual indicators when fuel quantity of each
tank is: (A, B1, B2)
a. Greater than 300 litres.
b. Greater than 150 litres.
c. Greater than 200 litres. ü(JIC 12-11-28)
44. During check of fuel level by using manual indicators, the accuracy of the manual
indicators is: (A, B1, B2)
a. + or - 200 litres. ü(JIC 12-11-28)
b. + or - 50 litres.
c. + or - 100 litres.

45. During check of fuel level by using manual indicators, you calculate fuel quantity
by using inclinometer indicating when: (A, B1, B2)
a. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 30cm.
b. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 20cm.ü(JIC 12-11-28)
c. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 20cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 20cm.
46. During checking of the propeller oil level, the number #1 blade is positioned at:
(B1)
a. The 12 O’clock position.ü(JIC 12-13-61)
b. The 09 O’clock position.
c. The 06 O’clock position.
47. After performing of nitrogen charging of hydraulic system accumulators, the

aircraft accumulator pressure gauge shows: (B1)
a. 1600 PSI at 20°C.
b. 1500 PSI at 20°C.ü(JIC 12-14-29)
c. 1800 PSI at 20°C.
48. After performing of free fall assister nitrogen charging, the red marker of the
pressure loss indicator on free fall assister is: (B1)
a. Not visible.ü(JIC 12-14-32)
b. Visible.
c. Visible or not visible depend on the kind of free fall assister.
49. How do you know the water tank is full during potable water filling? (A, B1, B2)
a. Observe water quantity indicator on potable water service panel.
b. Check that water flows through overflow port. ü(JIC 12-15-38)
c. Observe water quantity indicator on service vehicle.
50. During hydraulic reservoir replenishing, you can: (A, B1)

a. Pour fluid from original container directly into the airplane system or into the system
used for transferring fluid (potable test stand). ü(JIC 12-12-29)
b. Pour fluid original container into any other container and then pour into the airplane
system.
c. Re-use the fluid drained to fill the hydraulic system.
ATA 20
51. Screws are referred marked by the: (B1)

a. ASN only.
b. NSA only.
c. ASN or NAS. ! (JIC 20-21-11)
52. How to determine that bolt damage resulting from over torquing and thread
wear? (B1)
a. By means of a thread form-gage. ! (JIC 20-21-13)
b. By visual check.

c. By feeler gage.
53. Safetying principle for using lockwire: (A,B1,B2)

a. Applied tension must come with loosening.
b. Applied tension must oppose loosening. ! (JIC 20-21-18)
c. Applied tension can either come with loosening or oppose loosening.
54. What is P.L.I washer? (B1)

a. Preload Indicating washers. ! (JIC 20-21-19)
b. Pressure load Indicating washers.
c. Power load Indicating washers.
55. How many types of bolts for HI LOCK fasteners? (B1)

a. 2.
b. 3. ! (JIC 20-21-22)
c. 4.
56. What is interfraying? (A,B1,B2)

a. Applying a sealant with high viscosity on the edge of a structural assembly.
b. Applying a very thin layer of sealant on the edge of a structural assembly.
c. Applying a very thin layer of sealant between the surfaces of the two materials to be
assembled. ! (JIC 20-22-12)
57. Fuel leaks are defined in categories: (A, B1,B2)

a. Seapage only.
b. Running leaks only.
c. Seapage and running leak. ! (JIC 20-22-13)
58. What is slight seapage (oozing)? (A, B1,B2)

a. A measurement not exceeding 50 mm in any direction. ! (JIC 20-21-13)
b. A measurement not exceeding 60 mm in any direction
c. A measurement not exceeding 70 mm in any direction
59. What is heavy seapage (dripping)? (A,B1,B2)

a. A measurement greater than 50 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction. !
(JIC 20-22-13)
b. A measurement greater than 60 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.
c. A measurement greater than 70 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.
60. What is running leak? (A,B1,B2)

a. A leak less than seapage.
b. A leak greater than seapage. ! (JIC 20-22-13)
c. A leak as same as seapage.
61. If there is a fuel leak with 0 to 10 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection for ensure that the leak is not worsening. ! (JIC 20-22-13)
c. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
62. If there is fuel leak with 10 to 20 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection for ensure that the leak is not worsening.
c. Repair to be carried out at next A check. ! (JIC 20-22-13)
63. If there is fuel leak with 20 to 30 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

a. Repair to be carried out within 100 flights. Daily inspection. ! (JIC 20-22-13)
b. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
c. Repair to be carried out at next Ccheck.
64. If there is a fuel leak over 30 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

a. Immediate repair action before next flight. ! (JIC 20-22-13)
b. Repair at next A check.
c. Repair at next C check.
65. How many fuel leak location can be defined on aircraft? (A,B1,B2)
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5. ! (JIC 20-22-13)
66. Sharp-bottom surface defects on hydraulic tubes are permitted if: (B1)
a. Maximum 5% of the thickness of the tube wall. ! (JIC 20-23-13)
b. Maximum 6% of the thickness of the tube wall.
c. Maximum 7% of the thickness of the tube wall.
67. When performing stripping of composite: (B1)

a. Chemical stripping is allowed.
b. Chemical stripping is forbidden. ! (JIC 20-24-01)
c. Chemical sanding is not allowed.
68. Before applying first coat of painting (primer) on aluminium and its alloy, it must
have subjected to treatment: (B1)
a. Chrome plating.
b. Dry or wet sand blasting.
c. Chromating by Alodine 1200. ! (JIC 20-24-08)
69. How to examine the control cable for damage? (B1)

a. By passing a cloth along the length of the cable. ! (JIC 20-29-12)
b. By passing a bare hand along the length of the cable.
c. By passing a towel along the length of the cable.
70. Internal cable wear normally occurs: (B1)

a. Along the working length of the cable eirther over a contact area at one side of the
cable or around the cable periphery.
b. In the section of cable which pass over pulleys and quadrants. ! (JIC 20-29-12)
c. In a section not in contact with wear producing airframe components.
ATA 21
71. In air conditioning system, the air flow and pressure are controlled by: (B1, B2)
a. Two pack valves.ü(D/O 21-10)

b. Two ACMs (air cycle machine).

c. Two turbo fan shutoff valves.
72. What’s type of heat exchanger is used in the air conditioning system? (B1)
a. Fuel to air type.
b. Oil to air type.
c. Air to air type.ü(D/O 21-51)
73. Heat exchanger consists of: (B1)

a. The primary heat exchanger removes the heat of compression of the air cycle machine
(ACM) and the secondary heat exchanger cools the engine bleed air.
b. The primary heat exchanger cools the engine bleed air and the secondary heat
exchanger removes the heat of compression of the air cycle machine (ACM). ü(D/O
21-51)
c. The primary heat exchanger and secondary heat exchanger cool the engine bleed air.
74. In ground cooling system, Turbo fan runs when: (B1)

a. Air conditioning system operates on ground.
b. Air conditioning system operates, IAS (indicated air speed) is greater than 130Kts.
c. Air conditioning system operates on ground or in flight with Landing Gear down &
locked, IAS(indicated air speed) is smaller than 130Kts. .ü(D/O 21-51)
75. Turbo fan runs in flight when: (B1)

a. Pack valve push-button is ON, all landing gears down and locked, IAS < 130 Kts.
ü(D/O 21-51)
b. There is a high demand of air conditioning system.
c. Push-button pack valve ON, all landing gears up, IAS > 130 Kts.
76. Pack valve is: (B1)

a. Butterfly type, pneumatically controlled, electrically operated, spring loaded to close.
b. Butterfly type, electrically controlled, pneumatically operated, spring loaded to open.
c. Butterfly type, electrically controlled, pneumatically operated, spring loaded to close.
.ü(D/O 21-10)
77. The function of temperature control valve is to: (B1)

a. Regulate hot air flow added to cold air to obtain the chosen temperature and prevent ice
at the conditioning pack turbine inlet.
b. Regulate hot air flow added to cold air to obtain the chosen temperature and prevent ice
at the conditioning pack turbine outlet. .ü(D/O 21-61)
c. Regulate hot air flow added to cold air to obtain the chosen temperature.
78. In air conditioning system, when pack overheat: (B1)

a. Pack valve operates at “HIGH” level.
b. Pack valve operates at “NORMAL” level.
c. The Solenoid S1 is de-energized, pack valve closes. .ü(D/O 21-10)
79. Choose correct answer: (B1)

a. When pack valve operates in “NORMAL” level, the valve regulates at 17PSI. In
“HIGH” level, the valve regulates at 30 PSI. .ü(D/O 21-10)

b. When pack valve operates in “NORMAL” level, the valve regulates at 17PSI. In
“HIGH” level, the valve regulates at 20 PSI.
c. When pack valve operates in “NORMAL” level, the valve regulates at 30PSI. In
“HIGH” level, the valve regulates at 20 PSI.
80. Pack valve operates in “HIGH” level when: (B1)

a. “HIGH” level selected, pack valve is in “ON” position and relevant air bleed valve
opens, no pack overheat, no low pressure detected by the pressure switch of turbo fan.
.ü(D/O 21-10)
b. Both bleed air valves open.
c. “HIGH” level selected, pack valve is in “ON” position and relevant air bleed valve
opens, pack overheat, no low pressure detected by the pressure switch of turbo fan.
81. Air conditioning system is operating, “FAULT” light on pack valve pushbutton
switch comes on when: (B1)
a. Air temperature at down stream of ACM-Air Cycle Machine) is greater than 204 C
degree.
b. Low pressure detected by the pressure switch of turbo fan.
c. Both (a) & (b). .ü(D/O 21-10)
82. Choose wrong answer: (B1)

a. The left pack supplies the cabin only, the right pack supplies the cockpit only. .ü(D/O
21-51)
b. The right pack supplies the cabin only.
c. The left pack supplies the cabin (35%) and cockpit(65%).
83. Air cycle machine consists of: (A, B1)

a. Turbine wheel.
b. Compressor wheel.
c. Turbine wheel and Compressor wheel mounted on common shaft which is supported
by air bearings.ü(D/O 21-51)
84. In AUTO-mode , Temperature in Cockpit and Cabin can be adjusted: (B1)

a. from 16ºC to 32 ºC in each zone.ü(D/O 21-61)
b. from 20ºC to 32 ºC in each zone.
c. from 18ºC to 36 ºC in each zone.
85. Cockpit/cabin Temperature Controller controls: (B1)

a. Torque motor of temperature control valve and the recirculation fan speed. ü(D/O 21-
61)
b. Torque motor of temperature control valve.
c. The recirculation fan speed.
86. In AUTO-mode, Cockpit/cabin Temperature Controller receives signals from:

(B1)
a. Zone temperature sensors.
b. Duct temperature sensors.
c. Zone temperature, Duct temperature and Skin temperature sensors.ü(D/O 21-61)

87. The OVHT light comes on (on TEMP SEL pushbutton switch of Compartment
temperature control panel) means: (B1)
a. Duct temperature > 88 ºC.
b. Duct temperature < 92 ºC.
c. Duct temperature ≥ 92 ºC. ü(D/O 21-61)
88. In Manual mode: (B1)

a. Zone temperature is manually controlled by appropriate manual selector.ü(D/O 21-61)
b. Zone temperature is automatically controlled by cockpit/cabin temperature controller.
c. Zone temperature can not control and it is set at pre-selected value.
89. When foot level temperature drops below 13ºC, the recirculation fans: (B1)
a. Run at low speed.
b. Run at high speed until foot level temperature reaches 18ºC. ü(D/O 21-22)
c. Run at high speed all the time.
90. Aircraft is on ground and powered by Ground Power Unit, and if both engines
are stopped: (B1)
a. OVBD valve closes.
b. OVBD valve fully opens. ü(D/O 21-23)
c. OVDB valve opens in intermediate position.
91. Aircraft on ground, engine 1 stopped, electrical power ON, T>52ºC : (B1)
a. The extract fan runs at high speed, under floor vent valve closes, overboard valve
opens. ü(D/O 21-23)
b. The extract fan runs at normal speed, under floor vent valve opens, overboard valve
closes.
c. The extract fan stops, under floor vent valve closes, overboard valve opens in
intermediate position.
92. FAULT light on EXHAUST MODE pushbutton switch comes on, means: (B1)
a. Extract fan failure.
b. Extract fan Overheat occurs.
c. Extract fan failure or Extract fan Overheat occurs.ü(D/O 21-23)
93. A DUMP function is used: (A, B1, B2)

a. In case of emergency depressurization (full open signal).ü(D/O 21-35)
b. In case of ditching.
c. In both cases (a) and (b).
94. A DITCH function is used: (A, B1, B2)

a. In case of emergency depressurization.
b. In case of ditching. ü(D/O 21-31)
c. In both cases (a) and (b).
95. To avoid a bump at landing the automatic mode controls the cabin altitude to
have a value: (A, B1, B2)
a. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 530 ft.
b. Equal to selected landing altitude plus 300 ft.
c. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 300 ft. ü(D/O 21-31)
96. Overpressure relief allows the valve to open when: (A, B1, B2)
a. ∆P reaches 6.35 PSI. ü(D/O 21-31)
b. ∆P reaches 6.50 PSI.
c. ∆P reaches 0.50 PSI
97. Cabin pressure and rate of change are obtained through: (B1, B2)
a. A manual pneumatic controller (in Manual mode) only.
b. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) or a manual pneumatic controller (in
Manual mode). ü(D/O 21-31)
c. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) only.
98. The automatic digital pressure controller receives several parameters, such as:
(B1, B2)
a. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure(from ADC), TAT(Total
air temperature)
b. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure (from ADC), cabin
pressure. ü(D/O 21-31)
c. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure(from ADC), cabin
pressure, TAT(Total air temperature)
99. During automatic digital pressure controller test, the following items are checked:
(B1, B2)
a. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; digital controller
electrical circuitries.
b. Pneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and pack
valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries.
c. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and
pack valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries. ü(D/O 21-31)
100. The test of automatic digital pressure controller is performed by depressing the
test pushbutton. The test is OK if: (B1, B2)
a. No light comes on.
b. The digits displayed on the front face of the controller switch ON to indicate
alternatively: 18800 and -8800.ü(D/O 21-31)
c. The digits displayed on the front face of the controller switch ON to indicate
alternatively: 18000 and -8800.
ATA 22
111. The yaw actuator is located (B2)

a. In the wing center box.
b. In the rear unpressuried compartment (MTM 22 P.122)
c. Inside the rudder.
112. The yaw actuator controls the rudder when: (B2)
a. The AP is engaged
b. YD is engaged only
c. Both of a & b are correct (DO 22-10-00 P.1)
113. Manual disengagement of the AP is achieved by: (B2)

a. Using STBY & NORMAL PITCH TRIM (MTM 22 P5)

b. Using AIL.TRIM
c. Using RUDDER TRIM.
114. Manual disengagement of the YD is achieved by: (B2)

a. Using the AP quick disconnect SW.
b. Pressing the GA pushbutton on the power lever.
c. Applying a force greater than 30daN on rudder pedals. (TM 22 P11)
115. The purpose of the STBY pushbutton SW on the AFCS control panel is: (B2)
a. To control the bank angle (HI or LO)
b. To engage FD mode.
c. To disengage FD mode. (MTM 22 P13)
116. The DH Audio warning is generated by the: (B2)

a. MFC.
b. AFCS system.
c. GPWS system. (MTM22 P29)
117. AP is automatically disengaged in the: (B2)

a. Icing condition.
b. Stall condition. (MTM 22 P27. DO 22-10-00 P7)
c. Bad weather.
118. YD is automatically disengaged: (B2)

a. In stall condition.
b. In icing or bad weather.
c. At touch down during landing. (DO 22-10-00 P16)
119. The AFCS computer is located in: (B2)

a. Racks 90VU
b. Racks 80VU (DO 22-10-00 P2)
c. Forward electronic rack.
120. The GA pushbutton SW is located on: (B2)

a. Power lever. (MTM 22 P.73)
b. Condition lever.
c. Captain instrument panel.
121. GUIDANCE light is illuminated in case of: (B2)

a. Cat 2 in valid
b. EXCESS DEV warning.
c. Both of a & b are correct. (MTM22 P34)
122. In the heading select mode, if the ADU indicates "HDG SEL LO" the bank angle
limit is: (B2)
a. 15o (MTM 22 P26)
b. 27o
c. 30o

123. GA mode can be disengaged by action on the: (B2)

a. Quick release p.b.
b. TCS p.b. (MTM 22 P.73)
c. GA p.b.
124. The pitch, roll & rudder actuator are: (B2)

a. Interchangeable. (MTM22 P125)
b. Not identical
c. Both of a & b are correct.
125. Action on CPL p.b. on AFCS control panel, you can: (B2)
a. Change the coupled side. (MTM 22 P. 19)
b. Engage the AP.
c. Both of a & b are correct
126. The AFCS computer interfaces with SGU, AHRS, ADU & ADC through: (B2)
a. ARINC 429
b. ARINC 629
c. ASCB (Avionic Standard Communication Bus) (MTM22 P.2)
127. Which is the correct statement: (B2)

a. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), AFCS computer provides information
through FD bars on EADI which allow an automatic guidance of the aircraft.
b. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), AFCS computer provides information
through FD bars on EADI which allow a manual guidance of the aircraft. (MTM22 P.8)
c. There are not information on EADI. In this mode, the AFCS computer is not powered.
128. FD mode (lateral or vertical) can be disengaged: (B2)

a. By a second action on the corresponding p.b. HDG, NAV, APP, BC – IAS – VS – ALT.
b. By action on STBY p.b.
c. Both of a& b are correct. (MTM22 P.10)
129. With AP not engaged, YD automatic disengagement results in: (B2)

a. "YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
b. "AP/YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
c. "YD DISENGAGED" flashing on ADU. (MTM22 P.12)
130. In AP mode, the TCS function declutches the: (B2)

a. Roll & pitch servo actuators. (MTM22 P.15)
b. Roll, pitch & yaw servo actuators.
c. Roll servo actuator only.
131. GA mode can be engaged by: (B2)

a. Action on both GA p.b.
b. Action on only one GA p.b.
c. Both a &b are correct. (MTM22, P.120)
132. The Roll actuator is located in the: (B2)

a. Left wing side.
b. Center part of the wing (MTM22 P.125)

c. Right wing side.
133. The function of the BANK p.b. on ACP: (B2)

a. to clear the upper mode if it is engaged before.
b. To change bank angle limit value. (MTM22 P.26)
c. To engage FD function.
134. Which bank angle limit value is automatically selected upon energization: (B2)
a. Hi (MTM22 P.26)
b. Low
c. The value stored in AFCS computer memory.
135. GA mode selection disengages: (B2)
a. AP (MTM22 P.72)
b. YD
c. AP/YD
ATA-23
136. The frequency of VHF: (B2)

a. 118.0MHz. – 136,975MHz. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page: 7.)
b. 118,0 MHz – 130,975MHz.
c. 2,00 MHz – 20, 0 MHz.
137. Power Supply for VHF#1 (B2)

a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2.
c. DC Emergency Bus. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 6.)
138. When TX annunciator in VHF control panel illuminates: (B2)

a. Receiver is receiving.
b. VHF is transmitting. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 8.)
c. VHF is remotely tuned.
139. Which statement is NOT correct: (B2)

a. Six preset frequencies can be stored in preset display window of VHF.
b. The function of SQ OFF in selector of VHF control panel is disable the receiver squelch
circuit.
c. ACT button in VHF control panel is controlled for brightness. (MTM Volume 1, ATA
23 page 9)
140. When performing the test in VHF, if display in control panel showed DIAG
message and code 03: (B2)
a. No fault detected.
b. Fault detected. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page: 15)
c. None of above.
141. The priority for Passenger Address announcement between Cockpit and
Attendant: (B2)
a. Cockpit announcement is first priority. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 20)
b. Attendant announcement is first priority.

c. Both of them are the same priority.
142. To make Passenger Address announcement by Attendant: (B2)

a. Lift off the hand set in Attendant panel, press PA switch, and press PTT switch in
Attendant handset. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 22)
b. Lift off the hand set in Attendant panel, press PA switch in Audio Control Panel, press
PTT switch in Attendant handset.
c. Lift off the handset in Attendant panel, press INT switch, press PTT switch in Attendant
handset.
143. Which statement is correct: (B2)

a. The audio level of Passenger Address is increased by 6 db as soon as an engine is
running, via the contacts of the corresponding engine low oil pressure relay. (MTM
Volume 1, ATA 23 page 23)
b. Cockpit announcements are given priority over cabin attendant announcements via pulse
generator.
c. There are three loudspeakers are in cockpit ceiling.
144. To make a call from Cockpit to Mechanic: (B2)

a. The horn is sound. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 37)
b. The doorbell is sound.
c. The single chime is sound.
145. The condition to erase in information recorded in Cockpit Voice Recorder: (B2)
a. In all flight phases.
b. A/C on ground, Press Erase switch.
c. A/C on ground, Parking Brake set, Press ERASE switch. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23
page 51.)
ATA 24
146. The Main Battery is charged by (B1,B2)

a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2 (MTM24 p73)
c. DC Emer Bus
147. AC on ground, no engine running, no EXT. power, the DC GRND HDL Bus is
supplied from (B1,B2)
a. The HOT EMER BAT Bus
b. The HOT MAIN BAT Bus (MTM24 p11)
c. The DC SVCE Bus
148. The 45% NH signal (starter cut out) is sent to the GCU from the (B1,B2)
a. Speed sensor incorporated in S/G (MTM24 p16)
b. BPCU
c. HES
149. Rated nominal voltage of the Starter/Generator is (B1,B2)

a. 28V
b. 30V (MTM24 p17)

c. 24V
150. GFR (Generator Field Relay) is incorporated in (B2)

a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU (MTM24 p33)
151. The Generator Under speed protection is the one of the functions of (B2)
a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU (MTM24 p24)
152. The BTC (Bus Tie Contactor) is controlled by (B1,B2)

a. BPCU (MTM24 p44)
b. GCU
c. MFC
153. The SC (Starter Contactor) is controlled by: (B1,B2)

a. BPCU
b. GCU (MTM24 p15)
c. MFC
154. Nominal capacity of Main Battery is: (B1,B2)

a. 45 Ah
b. 15 Ah
c. 43 Ah (MTM24 p73)
155. In the AC CF system the BTR (Bus Tie Relay) is controlled by (B1,B2)
a. BPCU
b. MFC (MTM24 p108)
c. GCU
156. In flight, with the 2 SG’s failed, or on the ground with the Batt. ON only (no
EXT power, no eng running), the INV2 is supplied by: (B1,B2)
a. DC Bus 2
b. HOT MAIN BAT Bus
c. None of a & b are correct (MTM24 p.115)
157. ACW GEN’s are driven by (B1,B2)

a. Eng. AGB
b. Propeller RGB (MTM24 p.119)
c. Both a & b are correct
158. How many BTC’s (Bus Tie Contactor) are there in the ACW electrical system
(B1,B2)
a. 1
b. 2 (MTM 24 p)
c. 3
159. The GCU confidence check can be performed (B1,B2)
a. On ground only with the main buses not energized (battery only) (MTM24 p15)

b. In flight, after take off

c. Anytime
160. An ACW SVCE Bus can be supplied from (B1,B2)

a. The EXT power
b. The ACW Bus 1, if the EXT. Power is not available and if the 2 ACW generators are
operational
c. Both a & b are correct (MTM24 p5)
161. What is the meaning of the BCC (B1,B2)

a. Battery Charging Contactor (MTM24 p8)
b. Bus Contactor Controller
c. Bus Cut-off Contactor
162. The GC (Generator Contactor) is controlled by the: (B1, B2)

a. BPCU
b. GCU (MTM24 p15)
c. MFC
163. The DC GEN is driven by: (B1, B2)

a. Engine AGB (MTM24 p7)
b. Propeller RGB
164. The EPC (external power contactor) is controlled by (B1,B2)

a. GCU
b. BPCU (MTM24 p45)
c. MFC
165. What is the purpose of the DC Electrical generating power feeder system (B1,B2)
a. To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is on ground (MTM24
p64)
b. To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is in flight
c. It can provide warning at any time when the DC Gen is in generation mode
166. Normal capacity of the Emer Batt. (B1,B2)

a. 13 Ah
b. 15 Ah (MTM24 p73)
c. 43 Ah
167. What is an internal Battery over temperature (B1, B2)

a. >1000C
b. >810C
c. >710C (MTM24 p76)
168. In normal condition, AC STBY Bus is supplied from (B1,B2)

a. Static inverter 1 (MTM24 p102)
b. Static inverter 2
c. Both a & b are correct

169. What is the inverter’s nominal power in continuous operation (B2)

a. 500 W
b. 500VA (MTM24 p106)
c. 750VA
170. What is the ACW GEN normal frequency range (B1, B2)
a. 400Hz ± 10%
b. 400Hz ± 10Hz
c. From 341 to 488 Hz (MTM24 p119)
171. Open phase protection is one of the functions of (B2)

a. GCU ACW (MTM24 p120)
b. BPCU ACW
c. MFC
172. ACW SVCE Bus is controlled by (B2)

a. BPCU DC
b. BPCU ACW (MTM24 p133)
c. GCU ACW
173. The HES (Hall Effect Sensor) is used in ACW system for the purpose (B1, B2)
a. Over load, Open phases and differential current protection
b. Over/under voltage protection and current measuring
c. Both a & b are not correct (ACW Sys used CT (current transformer). Not HES)
174. AC in flight, if one ACW GEN faulty: (B1, B2)

a. Both ACW Bus 1 & ACW Bus 2 are supplied from operating ACW GEN via BTCs
closing
b. ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW Bus 1, ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW
Bus 2
c. ACW SVCE Bus is shed off (MTM24 p139)
175. You can perform the ACW system confidence check (B1, B2)
a. Only on ground (MTM24 p151)
b. Only in flight
c. At any time
ATA 25
176. The ATR flight compartment is equipped with: (A, B1, B2)
a. A Captain seat and a First Officer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto the
floor structure. Observer folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack. ü(D/O 25-10)
b. An Observer seat and a First Officer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto
the floor structure. Captain folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
c. A Captain seat and an Observer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto the
floor structure. First Officer folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
177. Emergency evacuation of the crew is made via: (A, B1, B2)
a. Emergency exit doors located in the forward passenger compartment.
b. An emergency hatch located in the flight compartment ceiling. ü(D/O 25-10)
c. Cargo door located on forward cargo compartment.

178. An evacuation rope is located: (A, B1, B2)

a. In the upper part of electrics rack. ü(D/O 25-10)
b. Under Captain seat.
c. Under Observer seat.
179. The Pax double seat unit consists of: (A, B1, B2)
a. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage
retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a seat belt; a folding table
attached to seat back.
b. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage
retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest stowage; a seat
belt.
c. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage
retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest stowage; a seat
belt; a folding table attached to seat back; a bumper strip on aisle side. ü(D/O 25-21)
180. The ATR aircraft consists of: (A, B1, B2)

a. Two cargo compartments, there’re 03 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets in
AFT cargo compartment.
b. Two cargo compartments, there’re 02 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets in
AFT cargo compartment.
c. Two cargo compartments, there’re 03 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 01 net in
AFT cargo compartment. ü(D/O 25-50)
181. The heat and sound insulation blankets are made of: (B1)
a. Synthetic rubber.
b. Soft cloth.
c. Glass wool flakes. ü(D/O 25-22)
182. How many cabin attendant seats in passenger compartment? (A, B1, B2)
a. Only one cabin attendant seat is provided in AFT section.
b. Two cabin attendant seats are provided: one in FWD section the other in the AFT
section. ü(D/O 25-21)
c. Three cabin attendant seats are provided: one in FWD section, one in the MID section
and the other in the AFT section.
183. AFT section cabin attendant seat is: (A, B1, B2)
a. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to floor
rail. ü(D/O 25-21)
b. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for
utilization.
c. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition and attached to floor rail.
184. FWD section cabin attendant seat is: (A, B1, B2)
a. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition and attached to floor rail.
b. Located in the housing, behind FWD partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for
utilization.
c. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to floor
rail. ü(D/O 25-21)

185. The cabin seat number may change by: (B1)

a. Varying seat pitch and furnishing present in cabin aft area (galley, coat-room or
partition).
b. Varying seat pitch, location of forward partition and furnishing present in cabin aft area
(galley, coat-room or partition). ü(D/O 25-21)
c. Varying seat pitch only.
186. How many kind of ceiling panel in the cabin? (A, B1)
a. There‘re two kinds of ceiling panel: passenger compartment ceiling panels and
entrance area ceiling panels. ü(D/O 25-23)
b. Only one kind of ceiling panel: passenger compartment ceiling panels.
c. Only one kind of ceiling panel: passenger compartment ceiling panels and entrance
area ceiling panels are the same.
187. Each overhead stowage compartment has:

a. Three attachment points: two attachments points at the upper part, attachment is
ensured by means of pip pins, pinned to bracket secured to the upper hand rail; other
point at the lower part, attachment is ensured by means of pin fixed on bracket secured
to the lower hand-rail.
b. Four attachment points: two attachment points at the upper part, attachment is ensured
by means of pip pins, pinned to bracket secured to the upper hand rail; two attachment
points at the lower part, attachment is ensured by means of pins fixed on brackets
secured to the lower hand-rail. ü(D/O 25-24)
c. Six attachment points: three attachment points at the upper part, attachment is ensured
by means of pip pins, pinned to bracket secured to the upper hand rail; three attachment
points at the lower part, attachment is ensured by means of pins fixed on brackets
secured to the lower hand-rail.
188. Each basic PSU( Passenger Service Unit) includes: (B1, B2)
a. Two attendant call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 2 or 4 air outlets. ü(D/O 25-25)
b. One attendant call pushbutton; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 2 or 4 air outlets.
c. Two attendant call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 01 air outlet.
189. The Passenger Service Units are located: (A, B1, B2)
a. On LH armrest of the double seat.
b. Under the overhead stowage compartments above the passengers. ü(D/O 25-25)
c. On RH armrest of the double seat.
191. The purpose of the attendant call pushbutton is: (A, B1, B2)
a. To call Captain when the passenger need his help.
b. To call attendant when the passenger need their help. ü(D/O 25-25)
c. To call attendant in emergency case only.
192. The passenger can use PSU (Passenger Service Units) to: (A, B1, B2)
a. Call attendant; adjust air outlets and volume of loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the
reading light.

b. Call attendant; adjust volume of loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the reading light.
c. Call attendant; adjust air outlets; turn on or turn off the reading light. ü(D/O 25-25)
193. The emergency items of equipment in the flight compartment are: (A, B1, B2)
a. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests.
b. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests.
c. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves and torches. ü(D/O 25-60)
194. The emergency items of equipment in the passenger compartment are: (A, B1,
B2)
a. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches and a rope.
b. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches. ü(D/O 25-60)
c. A megaphone; first aid kits; life vests; torches and a rope.
195. Emergency locator system consists of: (B1, B2)

a. A transmitter; a remote control and an antenna. ü(D/O 25-60)
b. A transmitter and a remote control.
c. A transmitter and an antenna.
196. Several galleys exist: (A, B1, B2)

a. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the service door. One secondary galley located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, forward of entry door. ü(D/O 25-30)
b. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the service door. One secondary galley located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, aft of entry door.
c. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the entry door. One secondary galley located in the passenger compartment
aft section, on the left side, forward of the service door.
ATA 26
197. NAC OVHT system is ready to operate when: (B1, B2)

a. Aircraft is on ground.
b. Aircraft is in flight.
c. Aircraft is on ground, 30 seconds after landing. ü(D/O 26-16)
198. NAC OVHT system monitors temperature in: (B1, B2)

a. Right nacelle. ü(D/O 26-16)
b. Left nacelle.
c. Left and right nacelle.
199. NAC OVHT located on Crew Alert Panel light comes on when the right nacelle
temperature reaches: (B1, B2)
ْ
a. 170 ◌C. ü(D/O 26-16)
ْ
b. 177 ◌C.
c. 177 ◌C. ْ
200. In engine fire detection, “FAULT” light comes on when: (B1, B2)
a. “Short circuit” occurred in engine fire detection circuit.ü(D/O 26-12)

b. The cartridge of engine fire extinguisher bottle failed.

c. The sensing element was double broken.
201. When the sensing element of engine fire detection was single broken: (B1, B2)
a. “FAULT” light comes on.
b. “FAULT” light doesn’t come on.ü(D/O 26-12)
c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.
202. In engine fire detection, when a fire is detected: (B1, B2)

a. Resistance of fire sensing element reduces and capacitance of fire sensing element
increases. ü(D/O 26-12)
b. Resistance of fire sensing element increases and capacitance of fire sensing element
reduces.
c. Both resistance and capacitance of fire sensing element increase.
203. In case of single or double break of the engine fire sensing element: (B1, B2)
a. The fault is always indicated to the crew.
b. The fault is not indicated to the crew any time.
c. The fault is indicated to the crew during the pre-flight test only. ü(D/O 26-12)
204. In engine fire detection, the fault signal activates when: (B1, B2)
a. There is a variation in resistance of the sensing element not accompanied by a variation
in capacitance. ü(D/O 26-12)
b. There is a variation in resistance of the sensing element.
c. There is a variation in capacitance of the sensing element.
205. What’s the kind of smoke detector located in Avionic Compartment? (B1, B2)
a. Ambient detector.
b. Duct detector.ü(D/O 26-10)
c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.
206. Lavatory fire extinguisher is activated automatically when temperature of heat

source reaches: (B1, B2)
ْ
a. 77 ◌C.ü(D/O 26-25)
b. 70 ◌C.ْ
c. 100 ◌C. ْ
207. The whole engine fire detection system is supplied from: (B1, B2)
a. DC EMER BUS. ü(D/O 26-10)
b. DC STBY BUS.
c. DC ESS BUS.
208. In flight, FWD cargo, lavatory and aft cargo smoke detection circuit can be
tested by: (B1, B2)
a. Action on “SMK TEST” pushbutton switch located on ceiling panel of the cockpit.
ü(D/O 26-10)
b. Action on selector switch located on left maintenance of the cockpit.
c. Both (a) & (b).
209. What’s the kind of smoke detector located in Lavatories Compartment? (B1, B2)

a. Photoelectric cell detector.ü(D/O 26-10)

b. Duct detector.
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
210. Where are two fixed fire extinguisher bottles installed? (B1, B2)
a. In engine.
b. After the fire-wall into the fairing between the engine nacelle and the wing.
c. In the wing-to-fuselage junction fillet. .ü(D/O 26-20)
211. When engine fire handle is pulled: (B1, B2)

a. All LP fuel shutoff valve, air bleed valve, pressure regulating and shut off valve, de-
icing shut off valve close; AC & DC generators de-energize; SQUIB legend comes
on.ü(D/O 26-21)
b. SQUIB legend comes on.
c. LP fuel shutoff valve closes and SQUIB legend comes on.
212. What do you check during engine fire extinguisher bottle removal? (B1)
a. The pressure gage pointer must be in the green range.
b. Its weight corresponds to the weight noted on the placard.
c. Both (a) & (b). ü(D/O 26-21)
213. What action do you carry out in case of engine fire detection? (B1)
a. Place the condition lever in OFF position and squib the first bottle by pressing AGENT
1 pushbutton switch.
b. Place the power lever in idle position, place the condition lever in OFF position, pull
engine fire handle, squib the first bottle by pressing AGENT 1 pushbutton switch.
ü(D/O 26-21)
c. Squib the first bottle by pressing AGENT 1 pushbutton switch.
214. When engine #2 fires, press AGENT 1 pushbutton switch then: (B1)
a. Fire extinguisher bottle corresponding to engine # 1 discharges.
b. Fire extinguisher bottle corresponding to engine # 2 discharges. ü(D/O 26-21)
c. Both fire extinguisher bottles discharge.
215. The DISCH warning light comes on when: (B1)

a. The pressure inside corresponding fire extinguisher bottle drops below 325psi.
b. The pressure inside corresponding fire extinguisher bottle drops below 215psi. ü(D/O
26-21)
c. The pressure inside corresponding fire extinguisher bottle drops below 225psi.
216. What is the function of SQUIB TEST switch? (B1, B2)

a. Discharge fire extinguisher bottle.
b. Check of the enabling electrical continuity of the percussion resistances. ü(D/O 26-21)
c. Check of pressure inside fire extinguisher bottle.
ATA27
217. Aileron trim actuator located: (B1)

a. Left aileron. (MTM Volume 1, ATA27, page 9.)
b. Right aileron.

c. Both aileron.
218. The control of aileron is done: (A, B1, B2)

a. By control wheel. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page 9.)
b. By control column.
c. By pedal.
219. The purposes of TLU: (B1, B2)

a. To limit rudder travel at high speed. (MTM Volume 1, ATA27, page 23.)
b. To limit rudder travel at low speed.
c. To limit damper function for rudder.
230. The TLU switch in overhead panel includes: (B1,B2)

a. Two position: AUTO- MANUAL.
b. Three position: HIGH SPEED-AUTO-LOW SPEED. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page
31.)
c. Two position: ON–AUTO-OFF.
231. The signal of aileron position transmitter sends to: (B1,B2)

a. The indicator in flight Deck.
b. The FDAU. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page 15.)
c. Both of above.
232. In all trim actuators of flight control system, there are two electric motor, one
electric motor is not used if installing in: (B1,B2)
a. Rudder trim and Elevator trim.
b. Aileron trim and Elevator trim.
c. Aileron trim and Rudder trim. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page 17.)
233. Which of the following cases are given warning alert: (B1,B2)
a. Flaps asymmetry.
b. Pitch asymmetry.
c. Pitch disconnected. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page 48, 67, 83.)
234. The flaps system includes: (B1,B2)

a. 02 flap valve block, 04 actuators.
b. 01 flap valve block, 02 actuators.
c. 01 flap valve block, 04 actuators. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page82.)
235. The hydraulic system supply for flaps is came from: (A,B1,B2)
a. Green system.
b. Blue system. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page 78)
c. Both hydraulic system
236. When flaps asymmetry occurs: (B1,B2)

a. The flaps are returned to up position.
b. The flaps can be controlled by alternate method.
c. The flaps remain in reached position. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page 80.)

237.The function of the cable tension regulator is to maintain cable tension between:
(B1)
a. 20-25 daN. ! (DO 27-11)
b. 30-35 daN.
c. 40-45 daN
238. When turning the control wheel to the right: (B1)

a. The left Trim tab goes up. ! (DO 27-11)
b. The left Trim tab goes down.
c. The left Trim tab does not go up or down, it goes with aileron because it is controlled
by electrical motor.
239. When pressing on one of two Roll trim swiches: (B1,B2)

a. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting the left tab.
b. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting the right tab.
c. Trim actuator will not supplied. ! (DO 27-12)
240. Control wheel travel is limited by: (B1)

a. Left stop only.
b. Right stop only
c. Left and right stop. ! (DO 27-12)
241. The aileron trim actuator is identical to those used for: (B1)
a. Rudder trim. ! (DO 27-12)
b. AP actuator.
c. TLU actuator.
242. The descicant cartridge in the aileron trim actuator is used to: (B1,B2)
a. Absorb ambient humidity. ! (DO 27-12)
b. Check actuator temperature.
c. Check actuator external condition.
243. When pushing on the captain right pedal on ground: (B1)

a. Rudder tab goes to the right. ! (DO 27-21)
b. Rudder goes to the right and Rudder tab goes to the left.
c. Rudder tab does not move because it is spring tab.
244. Releasable Centering Unit (RCU) is automatically centered when: (B1,B2)

a. Trim command is applied. ! (DO 27-21)
b. Yaw damper is active.
c. Pedals are free.
245. Rudder trim is performed by: (B1)

a. Varying the position of the rudder.
b. Varying the neutral position setting of the rudder tab with respect to the rudder. ! (DO
27-21)
c. Varying the position of the rudder damper.
246. The tab installed on the rudder is: (B1)

a. Balance tab.

b. Servo tab.
c. Spring tab. ! (DO 27-22)
247. When aircraft speed is more than 185 Knots , rudder deflection is limited:
(B1,B2)
a. Automatically by TLU and RCU.
b. By TLU switching to HI SPD position. ! (DO 27-23)
c. By TLU switching to LO SPD position.
248. In case both ADC fail the FAULT light is on: (B1,B2)
a. To indicate that TLU system is inoperative.
b. To inform pilots that both ADC and TLU are operative.
c. The rudder deflection can still be limited when aircraft speed is more than 185 Knots.
! (DO 27-23)
249. Rudder damper is inspected for: (B1)

a. Cleanliness.
b. Oil level in the damper. ! (DO 27-70)
c. Air pressure in the damper.
250. When pushing on the Elevator trim switches on the first officer control wheel:
(B1,B2)
a. The left trim actuator is suplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved through
flexible shaft.
b. Both left and right trim actuators are supplied. ! (DO 27-32)
c. The left trim actuator is suplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved through
Pitch Uncoupling Mechanism.
251. The elevator trim value is supplied by: (B1, B2)

a. Position transmitter installed on control surfaces.
b. Right trim actuator position transmitter. ! (DO 27-35)
c. Left trim actuator position transmitter.
252. The shift between the left and right trim actuator is performed by: (B1,B2)
a. FDAU.
b. DFDR.
c. MFC. ! (DO 27-32)
253. There is green sector on elevator trim indicator: (B1,B2)

a. The pointer must not be out of this sector when take off. ! (DO 27-32)
b. The pointer must not be out of this sector when landing.
c. The pointer must not be out of this sector when cruzing.
254. When the left AOA sensor is failed: (B1,B2)

a. The stall warning system is failed. ! (DO 27-36)
b. The right stick shaker is still opeartive.
c. The right stick shaker and the stick pusher are still operative to prevent aircraft from
stalling.
255. When stick pusher is operating it: (B1,B2)

a. Pushes elevator control linkage in nose-down direction. ! (DO 27-36)

b. Pushes elevator control linkage in nose-up direction.
c. Causes vibrattion to the control columns.
256. The angle-of- attack limit value depends on: (B1,B2)

a. Aircraft speed.
b. Aircraft configuration and flight conditions. ! (DO 27-36)
c. Engine power.
257. The flap when extended is kept by: (B1)

a. Mechanical pins between inboard and outboard flap and by the shaft between two
inboard flaps.
b. MFCs cutting supply to extension solenoid to connect blue pressure to the return.
c. Hydraulical lock. ! (DO 27-54)
258. When flap is desired to set to 20 degres position: (B1)

a. Set flap lever to 30 degrees position, when flap reaches 20 degrees set flap lever to 15
degrees position.
b. Flap can not be set to 20 degrees position. ! (DO 27-51)
c. Set flap lever to 30 degrees position, when flap reaches 20 degrees switch off hydraulic
pumps to cut the pressure for flap control.
259. Flap position indicator is indicated by: (B1,B2)

a. Left position transmitter. ! (DO 27-55)
b. Right position transmitter.
c. Both left and right position transmitter.
260. Inboard and outboard flaps on each wing are connected by: (B1)
a. Torque shaft.
b. Flexible shaft.
c. Push-pull rod. ! (DO 27-54)
261. How many hydraulic actuators for flap actuation? (B1)

a. 2.
b. 4. ! (DO 27-54)
c. 6.
262. Flap operating speed is limited by: (B1)

a. Restriction unit in Flap Valve Block. ! (DO 27-54)
b. Restriction unit in extension actuator.
c. Restriction unit in retraction actuator.
263. An EXT electromagnetic flag on the flap position indicator indicates: (B1,B2)
a. Energization of extension solenoid valve. ! (DO 27-51)
b. Energization of retraction solenoid valve.
c. Indicator failure.
264. Spoilers are controlled by: (B1,B2)

a. Control wheel. ! (DO 27-61)
b. Control column.

c. Pedals.
265. When turning the control wheel to the right end: (B1,B2)
a. The left spoiler moves up.
b. Both left and right spoiler move up.
c. The right spoiler moves up. ! (DO 27-65)
266. Spoiler extension is initiated for aileron deflection of: (B1,B2)

a. 4.5 degrees.
b. 3.5 degrees.
c. 2.5 degrees. ! (DO 27-61)
ATA 28
267. Where are the fuel tanks located on the wing of the aircraft? (A, B1, B2)
a. Between RIB#3 and RIB#24.
b. Between RIB#4 and RIB#23.√ (D/O 28-00)
c. Between RIB#4 and RIB#24.
268. How many kilograms is the fuel maximum capacity? (A, B1, B2)
a. 5500.
b. 4800.
c. 5000.√ (D/O 28-11)
269. Where is the feeder tank located on the wing of the aircraft? (B1, B2)
a. Between RIB#4 and RIB#5. √ (D/O 28-21)
b. Between RIB#0 and RIB#4.
c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24.
270. How many liters is the capacity of feeder tank? (B1, B2)
a. 200. √ (D/O 28-21)
b. 220.
c. 150.
271. Where is the vent surge tank located on the wing of the aircraft? (A, B1, B2)
a. Between RIB#24 and RIB#25.
b. Between RIB#22 and RIB#23.
c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24. √ (D/O 28-21)
272. What is the purpose of the tank venting system? (A, B1, B2)
a. To ensure tank venting in all operating phases in flight and on the ground.
b. To recover fuel entering the vent line and evacuated outwards in case of skidding.
c. Both (a) & (b).√ (D/O 28-12)
273. Where is the NACA intake located? (A, B1, B2)

a. On the lower surface of the vent surge tank. √ (D/O 28-12)
b. On the upper surface of the vent surge tank.
c. On the lower surface of the feeder tank.

274. What is the purpose of the NACA intake? (B1, B2)

a. To keep constant pressure in the fuel tank.
b. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20mb(0.3psi) to be maintain in the
fuel tank.
c. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20mb(0.3psi) to be maintain in the
fuel tank and limit overpressure in the tank. √ (D/O 28-12)
275. Each feeder tank is equipped with: (B1, B2)

a. One electric pump and two jet pumps. √ (D/O 28-12)
b. Two electric pumps and one jet pump.
c. One electric pump and one jet pump.
276. When both engines are running, both the corresponding electric pumps will run
if: (B1, B2)
a. The crossfeed valve is opened.
b. The fuel quantity in each tank is at low level.
c. Both (a) & (b). √ (D/O 28-12)
277. What is the purpose of the feeder jet pump? (B1)

a. To supply fuel to the corresponding engine during all flight phases.
b. To maintain the feeder tank full in all flight configurations. √ (D/O 28-12)
c. Both (a) & (b).
278. LO LVL light comes on when: (B1, B2)

a. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 160KG. √ (D/O 28-42)
b. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 260KG.
c. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 150KG.
279. Fuel mass is measured by: (B1, B2)

a. Six capacitance probes installed in each feeder tank.
b. Six capacitance probes installed in each tank. √ (D/O 28-42)
c. Five capacitance probes installed in each tank.
280. In order to close fuel LP valve, what do you do? (B1, B2)
a. Pull the corresponding engine fire handle. √ (D/O 28-24)
b. Place the corresponding condition lever at FUEL SO position.
c. Both (a) & (b).
281. Each tank is equipped with; (A, B1, B2)

a. Two manual magnetic indicators. √ (D/O 28-43)
b. Four manual magnetic indicators.
c. Three manual magnetic indicators.
282. When the two REFUEL VALVES switches are in NORM position, the
refuel/defuel valves are opened by: (A, B1, B2)
a. Placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in REFUEL position. √ (D/O 28-43)
b. Placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in DEFUEL position.
c. Both (a) & (b).
283. How do you know the refuel/defuel valves were opened? (A, B1, B2)

a. By two indicator lights identified VALVE/LH/OPEN and VALVE/RH/OPEN located

on the REFUELING panel come on. √ (D/O 28-43)
b. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in REFUEL position.
c. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in DEFUEL position.
284. What is the function of crossfeed system? (A, B1, B2)

a. To allow both engine to be fed by one tank.
b. To allow one engine to be fed by both tanks
c. Both (a) & (b). √ (D/O 28-23)
285. After starting engine, the electric pump is de-energized when: (B1)
a. Pressure supplied by engine feed jet pump reaches 8.7 psi. √ (D/O 28-21)
b. Pressure supplied by feeder jet pump reaches 8.7 psi.
c. Pressure supplied by electric pump reaches 8.7 psi.
286. Low pressure in the engine feed system is detected by: (B1, B2)
a. The electric pump auto control pressure switch installed on the engine feed jet pump
outlet duct.
b. The fuel feed low pressure switch installed downstream of the LP valve. √ (D/O 28-
21).
c. Both (a) & (b).
ATA 29
287. The aircraft is provided with: (A, B1, B2)

a. Two independent hydraulic systems. √ (DO 29-00)
b. Three independent hydraulic systems.
c. Four independent hydraulic systems.
288. During all normal conditions, both hydraulic systems operate: (A, B1, B2)
a. Alternatively providing 3000psi supply pressure.
b. Simultaneously providing 3000psi supply pressure. √ (DO 29-00)
c. Simultaneously providing 1500psi supply pressure.
289. The blue hydraulic system supplies: (B1)

a. Nose wheel steering, flaps.
b. Spoilers, propeller brake for right engine.
c. Nose wheel steering, flaps, Spoilers, propeller brake for right engine, emergency and
parking brakes. √ (DO 29-12)
290. The blue hydraulic system uses: (B1, B2)

a. One 115V ACW pump.
b. One 28 DC pump.
c. One 115V ACW pump, one 28V DC pump. √ (DO 29-00)
291. The green hydraulic system supplies: (B1)

a. Landing gear extension/retraction, normal braking. √ (DO 29-11)
b. Emergency and parking brakes.
c. Flaps extension/retraction.

292. The green hydraulic system is pressurized by: (B1, B2)

a. Its own electric pump normally.
b. The blue electric pump, through the cross-feed valve (It need to be reconfirmed), in
case of failure of its electric pump.
c. Both (a) & (b).√ (DO 29-11)
293. The green pressure module internal pressure line is equipped with: (B1)
a. A check valve; a relief valve.
b. A check valve; a pressure filter; a relief valve. √ (DO 29-11)
c. A check valve; a bypassing filter; a relief valve.
294. The green pressure module internal case drain line is equipped with: (B1)
a. A check valve; a relief valve.
b. A check valve; a bypassing filter. √ (DO 29-11)
c. A check valve; a bypassing filter; a relief valve.
295. Each pressure module external casing is equipped with: (B1, B2)
a. A low pressure switch; an overheat sensor.
b. A thermal switch; a pressure transmitter.
c. A low pressure switch; an overheat sensor; a pressure transmitter. √ (DO 29-11)
296. The LO LVL light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU)
comes on when: (B1, B2)
a. Fluid quantity below 8.5 L
b. Fluid quantity below 2.5 L √ (DO 29-31)
c. Fluid quantity below 4.0 L
297. The OVHT light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU) comes
on when: (B1, B2)
a. Temperature in case drain line reaches 121ºC. √ (DO 29-33)
b. Temperature in return line reaches 121ºC.
c. Temperature in supply line reaches 121ºC.
298. Pressure relief valve, that provides pressure relief in case of pump regulating
system failure, will: (B1)
a. Open if pressure reaches threshold 3553 PSI. √ (DO 29-11)
b. Open if pressure reaches threshold 3133 PSI.
c. Open if pressure reaches threshold 3000 PSI.
299. The cross feed valve is: (B1)

a. A spring-loaded opened, electrically actuated.
b. A spring-loaded closed, electrically actuated. √ (DO 29-21)
c. A spring-loaded closed, pneumatically actuated.
300. What is the reason of closing the cross feed valve in case of a fluid low level in
one of two reservoir sections? (B1)
a. To prevent the failure of hydraulic pumps.
b. To prevent the total loss of both systems fluid. √ (DO 29-21)
c. Both (a) & (b).
301. Cross feed valve (X FEED valve) opens when: (B1)

a. X FEED pushbutton is in ON position.

b. LO LVL detection, X FEED pushbutton is in ON position.
c. X FEED pushbutton is in ON position, no LO LVL detection. √ (DO 29-21)
302. The auxiliary electric pump can be controlled by: (B1, B2)
a. Pushbutton switch located on overhead panel.
b. Momentary switch located on pedestal.
c. Both (a) & (b). √ (DO 29-20)
303. The auxiliary electric pump is supplied by: (B1, B2)

a. 28V DC. √ (DO 29-20)
b. 115V AC.
c. 115V ACW
304. AUX PUMP runs in AUTO mode when: (B1, B2)

a. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, at least one engine running.
b. Propeller brake disengaged, landing gear lever in “ DOWN” position, pressure on blue
system < 1500 PSI.
c. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, at least one engine running, propeller brake
disengaged, landing gear lever in “ DOWN ” position, pressure on blue system < 1500
PSI.√ (DO 29-20)
305. How can you release propeller brake with both engines not running and no
ground power unit? (B1, B2)
a. Press pushbutton switch of auxiliary electric pump located on overhead panel.
b. Press pushbutton switch of blue electric pump located on overhead panel.
c. Press momentary switch located on pedestal. .√ (DO 29-20)
306. During hydraulic pump running, the corresponding LO PR light comes on when:
(B1, B2)
a. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1500 +/- 100 psi. √ (DO 29-32)
b. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 3000 +/- 100 psi.
c. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1800 +/- 100 psi.
ATA 30
307. Pneumatic used in de-icing system is supplied by: (A, B1)

a. Engine HP compressor. √ (D/O 30-11)
b. Engine LP compressor.
c. Engine LP or HP compressor depend on power lever position.
308. The isolation valves are used to: (B1)

a. Isolate the engine or airfoil de-icing system in case of engine fire.
b. Isolate the engine or airfoil de-icing system in case of leak or rupture in the airfoil or
engine system air duct.
c. Both (a) & (b). √ (D/O 30-11)
309. The pressure regulator and shutoff valves are used to: (A, B1)
a. Regulate the temperature of the air bled from engines.

b. Isolate the system when the fire handle or the AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton switch is
operated.
c. Regulate the pressure of the air bled from engines and isolate the system when the fire
handles or the AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton switch are operated. √ (D/O 30-11)
310. Where is the pressure regulator and shutoff valve located? (B1)
a. In between wing and fuselage.
b. In leading edge of inner and outer wing.
c. In the engine nacelles. √ (D/O 30-11)
311. How many dual distributor valve is the airfoil pneumatic de-icing system
equipped with? (A, B1)
a. 3.
b. 5. √ (D/O 30-21)
c. 7.
312. What is the function of the dual distributor valve: (A, B1)
a. To supply simultaneously pneumatic de-icer boots A and B according to the normal or
long cycle generated by the multifunction computers.
b. To supply alternately pneumatic de-icer boots A and B according to the normal or long
cycle generated by the multifunction computers. √ (D/O 30-11)
c. To supply alternately pneumatic de-icer boots A and B according to the normal cycle
generated by the multifunction computers
313. How many overheat thermal switch is the pneumatic de-icing system equipped
with? (A, B1, B2)
a. 2. √ (D/O 30-11)
b. 4.
c. 6.
314. Where is the overheat thermal switch located? (B1, B2)

a. Upstream of pressure regulator and shutoff valves. √ (D/O 30-11)
b. Downstream of pressure regulator and shutoff valves.
c. Upstream of isolation valves.
315. When de-icing system are working, if LH engine fire handle is pulled then: (B1,
B2)
a. All pressure regulator and shutoff valves and Isolation valves close.
b. Only pressure regulator and shutoff valve and isolation valve associated with LH
engine fire handle close. √ (D/O 30-11)
c. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves close and both isolation valves open.
316. During flight in no icing condition, only AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton switch is
pressed (ON position) then: (B1, B2)
a. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves open, both isolation valves close.
b. All pressure regulator and shutoff valves and isolation valves open. √ (D/O 30-21)
c. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves close, both isolation valves open.
317. During flight, when AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton switch is released (OFF
position) and only ENG #1 DE-ICING pushbutton is pressed (ON position): (B1, B2)

a. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves open, both isolation valves close.
b. The pressure regulator and shutoff valve associated with ENG #1 opens, both isolation
valves close. √ (D/O 30-21)
c. Only pressure regulator and shutoff valve and isolation valve associated with ENG #1
open.
318. When SAT< -20◌C,ْ de-icing system operates at: (B1, B2)
a. Normal 90s cycle.
b. Slow 180s cycle. √ (D/O 30-21)
c. Slow 120s cycle.
319. The engine ice protection system is composed of: (A, B1, B2)
a. Air intake leading edge de-icers; cooler upper duct de-icers; upper throat de-icers.
b. Air intake leading edge de-icers; cooler upper duct de-icers; air intake throat de-icers;
upper throat de-icers. √ (D/O 30-21)
c. Air intake leading edge de-icers; air intake throat de-icers; upper throat de-icers.
320. The isolation valve is: (A, B1, B2)

a. Maintained close by spring and opened by exciting control solenoid.
b. Maintained open by spring and closed by exciting control solenoid. √ (D/O 30-11)
c. Both (a) & (b) are not correct.
321. The excessive bleed air temperature is detected by overheat thermal switch when
air temperature reaches: (B1, B2)
ْ +/- 11. √ (D/O 30-11)
a. 230◌C
b. 250◌Cْ +/- 11.
c. 270◌C ْ +/- 11.
322. The AIRFRAME / AIR BLEED FAULT light illuminates when: (B1,B2)
a. Air pressure inside the supply manifold < 14 PSI during more than 10 second
b. Air temperature upstream the pressure regulator S/O valve > 230 oC
c. Both of a & b are correct (MTM 30 P.4)
323. The wing & horizontal stabilizer pneumatic de-icing system is controlled and
monitored by: (B1,B2)
a. MFC 1
b. MFC 2
c. MFC 1 & MFC 2 (MTM 30 P.19)
324. The location of the horns anti icing controller: (B1,B2)

a. Rack 80VU
b. Rack 90VU (MTM 30 P.27)
c. Forward Avionics compartment
325. The engine air intake de-icing is used: (B1,B2)

a. 115V ACW current
b. 28V DC current
c. Air bled from the engine (MTM 30 P.30)
326. The engine air intake de-icing system is controlled and monitored by: (B1,B2)

a. MFC 1
b. MFC 2
c. Both of MFC 1 and MFC 2 (MTM 30 P.39)
327. Propeller blade heating elements are supplied with: (B1,B2)

a. 115V ACW (MTM 30 P.48)
b. 115V AC – CF
c. 28V DC
328. The static ports heating elements are supplied with: (B1,B2)
a. 28V DC (MTM 30 P.52)
b. 115V ACW
c. 115V AC-CF
329. The AOA sensor heating elements are supplied with: (B1,B2)
a. 28V DC
b. 115V AC – CF
c. 115V ACW (MTM 30 P.52)
330. The probes heating system is controlled & monitored by: (B1,B2)
a. MFC 1
b. MFC 1 & MFC 2
Both of a & b are not correct (MTM 30 P.53 & 54)
331. The ice detector operation can be checked through a test p.b. switch: (B1,B2)
a. On ground only
b. In flight only
c. Either on ground or in flight. (MTM 30 P.71)
ATA 31
332. The Capt. Clock is supplied by: (B1,B2)

a. 28 VDC EMER Bus (DO 312100 p1)
b. 28 VDC Bus1
c. 28 VDC Bus2
333. The Engine Objective Torque on the Torque Indicator is computed by: (B1,B2)
a. FDAU (DO 313000 p14)
b. DFDR
c. FDEP
334. The location of DFDR: (B1,B2)

a. Electronic rack 90VU
b. Electronic rack 80VU
c. Zone 311 (under pressurized tail cone) frame 42 (DO 313000)
335. Where is located ULB (under water locating beacon) (B1,B2)

a. On the front face of DFDR (DO 313000 p8)
b. On the front face of FDAU
c. On the front face of FDEP

336. The three axis accelerometer is locating (B2)

a. At the Aircraft center of gravity (DO 313000 p7)
b. In the electronic rack 90VU
c. In the cockpit behind the center pedestal
337. The Accelerometer is supplied power from (B2)

a. DC EMER Bus
b. MFC’s
c. FDAU (DO 313000 fig 001)
338. FDEP is located in (B2)

a. Elec. Center pedestal (DO 313000 p3)
b. Electronic rack 90 VU
c. Electronic rack 80 VU
339. The master warning light flashing red is associated with (B1,B2)
a. Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) and an amber caution light on CAP
b. Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) and a red warning light on CAP (DO 313000 fig1)
c. Single chime (SC) and an amber caution light on CAP
340. The alerts are classified in (B1,B2)

a. 3 levels (from 2 to 0)
b. 4 levels (from 3 to 0) (DO 315000 p5)
c. 5 levels (from 4 to 0)
341. The CCAS is controlled by (B2)

a. MFC 1(module 1A & 1B)
b. MFC 2(module 2A & 2B)
c. MFC 1(module 1B) & MFC 2 (module 2B) (DO 314800 p5)
342. What is the purpose of an Emergency audio cancel switch (B1,B2)

a. It enables the crew to cancel the spurious audio alert (DO 315000 p1)
b. It causes CAP amber caution lights (level 2) to go off
c. It enable the crew to cancel audio alert in flight only
343. The F/O Clock is power supplied by (B1,B2)

a. 28 VDC Emer Bus
b. 28 VDC Bus 2 Sect 1 (DO 312100 p1)
c. 28 VDC Stby Bus
344. The Recorder System collects, formats, records the various parameters and
stores: (B1,B2)
a. The last 25Hr of recording (DO 313000 p1)
b. The last 25 flights recording
c. The last 30Hr of recording
345. The FDAU receives an Event marker signal from (B2)

a. FDEP (DO 313000 p1)
b. DFDR

c. CVR
346. The Accelerometer sends three axis acceleration information to (B2)

a. DFDR
b. FDAU (DO 313000 p8)
c. FDEP
347. On crew alerting panel (CAP), "MAINT PNL" caution light illuminates if
(B1,B2)
a. The rotary switch on MFC MAINT PNL is positioned on "MFC" position
b. The MFC power supply is lost
c. The rotary switch on MFC MAINT PNL is not in "NORM. FLT" position. (DO 314800
p8)
348. The 2 MFCs are located in (B2)

a. The avionics rack 90 VU (MFC1 in 91VU shelf, MFC2 in 92 VU shelf) (DO 314800 p1)
b. The avionics rack 80 VU (MFC1 in 81VU shelf, MFC2 in 82 VU shelf)
c. MFC1 located in rack 90VU, MFC2 located in rack 80VU
349. Pressing TO/INHI push button switch located on CAP when AC on ground:
(B1,B2)
a. Enables to inhibit alerts which must not be processed during TO
b. Enables to extinguish an amber caution lights which are on the CAP
c. Both of a & b are correct (DO 315300 fig004)
350. The TO/INHI function is cancelled: (B1,B2)

a. Automatically as soon as the main LDG starts retracting
b. Manually by action on the RCL push button switch
c. Both of a & b are correct (DO 315300 fig004)
351. During TO CONFIG test, we will have an amber ENG caution light on CAP if
(B1,B2)
a. PWR MGT selector switch is not in the TO position (DO 315300 fig005)
b. One of the engine torques is not sufficient for TO
352. During the test of MFC crosstalk function, the rotary switch on MFC MAINT
PNL must be placed on (B2)
a. MFC position
b. ERS (erase) position (DO 314800 p7)
c. Any position
353. During TO config test, the amber FLT caution light will be illuminated on CAP
if (B1,B2)
a. Pitch trim out side green range
b. Flaps are not in TO configuration
c. Both of a & b are correct. (DO 315300 fig005)
ATA 32

354. Forward nose landing gear doors open: (A, B1, B2)
a. During nose landing gear motion. √ (D/O 32-22)
b. When Nose landing gear is extended and down locked.
c. When Nose landing gear is retracted and up locked.
355. The solenoid in landing gear lever switching box is energized if: (B1)
a. Aircraft is on ground and 03 shock absorbers are compressed (logic 0).
b. Aircraft is in flight and 03 shock absorbers are not compressed (logic 1). √ (D/O 32-31)
c. Aircraft is in flight and 03 shock absorbers are compressed (logic 0).
356. Landing gear selector valve is located: (A, B1, B2)

a. At the rear area of the right main landing gear.
b. At wheel well area of the nose landing gear.
c. At the rear area of the left main landing gear. √ (D/O 32-31)
357. Landing gear control system uses: (A. B1,B2)

a. Hydraulic pressure from Blue system.
b. Hydraulic pressure from Green system. √ (D/O 32-00)
c. Hydraulic pressure from accumulators.
358. Main landing gear and nose landing gear actuators are: (B1)
a. Two way hydraulic actuators. √ (D/O 32-31)
b. One way hydraulic actuators.
c. Not hydraulic actuators.
359. Landing gear selector valve has: (B1, B2)

a. 01 solenoid UP.
b. 01 solenoid DWN.
c. 01 solenoid UP, 01 solenoid DWN. √ (D/O 32-31)
360. Aircraft on ground, if any of uplock box hooks is in uplock position : (B1)
a. It is possible to use emergency handle to release the hook. √ (D/O 32-33)
b. It is impossible to use emergency handle to release the hook.
c. The hook can be released only when the aircraft is in the air.
361. Main landing gear free fall assister is: (A, B1, B2)
a. A spring.
b. A pneumatic spring. √ (D/O 32-33)
c. A hydraulic spring.
362. Antiskid control boxes located at: (B1, B2)

a. Left electronic rack 80VU.
b. Right electronic rack 91VU. √ (D/O 32-42)
c. Rear area of left main landing gear.
363. Hydraulic fluid used for dual master cylinders is supplied from: (B1)
a. Blue hydraulic system.
b. Green hydraulic system.
c. Unpressurized reservoir located at forward NLG well. This reservoir does not belong to
Blue hydraulic system or Green hydraulic system. √ (D/O 32-42)

364. Antiskid control box consists of: (B1)

a. 01 module: touch down protection.
b. 02 modules: locked wheel crossover protection, low speed protection.
c. 03 modules: touch down protection, locked wheel crossover protection, low speed
protection. √ (D/O 32-42)
365. FFFF (What does it stand for???) antiskid indication light (fault light) on Center
Instrument Panel comes on, means: (B1, B2)
a. Transducer failure or failure of servo valve coil or loss of power input. √ (D/O 32-42)
b. Failure of antiskid control box.
c. Failure of selector valve.
366. Total of Brake Speed transducers are: (B1, B2)

a. 02.
b. 03.
c. 04. √ (D/O 32-42)
367. Total of Brake Temperature transducers are: (B1, B2)

a. 02.
b. 03.
c. 04. √ (D/O 32-42)
368. The master cylinders generate pressure between: (B1)

a. 0-508 psi.√ (D/O 32-42)
b. 0-1500 psi.
c. 0-3000 psi.
369. Which hydraulic system is applied to brake main wheels during landing gears
retraction? (B1)
a. Blue system.
b. Green system. √ (D/O 32-45)
c. No hydraulic system.
370. When the blue system is switched off, the nose wheels can be towed of: (A, B1,
B2)
a. ± 91 ºper side. √ (D/O 32-50)
b. ± 60 ºper side.
c. ± 90 ºper side.
371. Landing gears light indication system has: (B1, B2)

a. 01 system.
b. 02 systems : primary and secondary light indicating system.√ (D/O 32-61)
c. 03 systems.
372. Do the Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module control braking action during
emergency brake? (B1, B2)
a. Emergency brake is not controlled by Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module. √
(D/O 32-45)
b. Emergency brake is controlled by Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module.

c. Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module control braking sequence all the time.
373. At touchdown, the braking action is inhibited for: (B1, B2)

a. 10 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.
b. 15 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.
c. 5 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt. √ (D/O 32-42)
ATA-33
374. Which statement is corrected for the color of navigation lights? (A,B1,B2)
a. Left: Green, right: red, tail: white.
b. Left: red, right: green, tail: white. (MTM Volume 2 page:35)
c. The same color in above three positions.
375. The taxi and take –off lights come on when: (B1,B2)
a. The taxi and take off light switch turns on.
b. The lights automatically come on when the landing gear lever is in down position.
c. The lights come on when landing gear lever is in down position and the light switch is
turned on. (MTM Volume page 40)
376. When the emergency light switch is in arm position and no power supply for
aircraft: (A,B1,B2)
a. The out-side emergency lights come on.
b. The internal emergency light come on.
c. Both of above are correct. (MTM Volume 2 page 7)
377. When the emergency light switch in Attendance Panel is in on position:

(A,B1,B2)
a. The emergency lights only come on if the ON-ARM-DISARM switch in Cockpit is in
ON position.
b. The emergency lights only come on if the ON-ARM-DISARM switch in Cockpit is in
ARM position.
c. The emergency lights are on. (MTM Volume 2 page 23.)
378. The light in the Refuel/ Defuel panel is come on: (A,B1,B2)
a. When the light switch in the refuel/ defuel panel turns to on position.
b. When the light switch in the power receptacle turns in on position.
c. When refuel/defuel panel door opens. (MTM Volume 2 page 5)
379. If the aircraft power is only supplied by battery: (B1,B2)

a. Only Captain side dome light illuminates.
b. Only First Officer dome light illuminates. (MTM Volume 2 page 8.)
c. Both of above.
380. Which statement is NOT correct: (B1,B2)

a. Action on entrance door push button enables AFT and FWD entrances and EXT signs
lighting illuminates during 2 minutes even if main battery switch is in OFF position.
b. There are two entrance door pushbuttons equipped in ATR aircraft.
c. The entrance door and exit sign lighting are supplied by 28VDC Bus 1. (MTM Volume
2 pages: 12,15)
381. The Landing lights are supplied by: (B1,B2)

a. 28VDC.
b. 115V ACW. (MTM Volume 2 page 38.)
c. 115 V 400Hz.
ATA-34
382. Heading comparison function of SGU is for: (B2)

a. Attitude, Heading.
b. Attitude, Heading, ILS. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 168, 169.)
c. Attitude, Heading, ILS, RA.
383. During flight, if A/C systems are only supplied by Battery: (B2)
a. Captain EFIS are operative.
b. EADIs are operative.
c. Captain EADI is only operative. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 209)
384. Overheat condition of EADI and EHSI can be determined by: (B2)
a. BITE loaded magnetic indicator.
b. Turn rotary switch of MFC to NAV position.
c. All of above. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 180.)
385. When SGU #1 failed, transfer to SGU#2 occurs : (B2)

a. automatically.
b. by pressing captain SGU switch. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 174)
c. by pressing F/O SGU switch.
386. Composite Mode of EFIS is operative: (B2)

a. One display unit failed (EADI or EHSI), the other display unit is automatically
transferred to composite mode.
b. One display unit failed; turn off the failed display unit. The other display unit is
transferred to composite mode. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 208)
c. All of above.
387. The flight environment data included: (B2)

a. Three pitot probes, three static probes.
b. Three pitot probes, six static probes. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 2.)
c. One pitot probe, two static probes.
388. When dash appeared in TAS/TAT-SAT indicator: (B2)

a. The system failed.
b. Invalid data received from ADC.
389. If ADC#1 failed: (B2)

a. AHRS #1 receives true air speed from ADC#2 via ASCB bus. (MTM Volume 2, ATA
34 page 24)
b. Press ATT/HDG switch in captain switching panel
c. The AHRS returnes to basic mode.

390. Heading signal from AHRS#1 is supplied for: (B2)

a. Captain RMI.
b. F/O RMI. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 23)
c. All of above.
391. The distance of DME station is display at: (B2)

a. RMI.
b. EADI.
c. EHSI. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 48)
392. The DME system consist of: (B2)

a. Two antennas. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 51)
b. Three antennas.
c. Four antennas.
393. The frequency of ATC is: (B2)

a. 1030 MHz and 1090MHz.
b. 1030MHz for interrogation, and 1090 MHz for reply. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page
55)
c. 1030 MHz for reply and 1090 MHz for interrogation.
394. When transponder is replied the interrogation signal of ground station: (B2)
a. The ACT light in control panel comes on.
b. The ID light in control panel comes on.
c. The TX light in control panel comes on. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 60)
395. When doing the test mode of ATC, the message DIAG and code 02 appeared in
control panel: (B2)
a. ATC system OK.
b. ATC system showed failure. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 60)
c. All of above.
396. The bearing of ADF system is: (B2)

a. Magnetic Bearing.
b. Relative Bearing. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 65)
c. None of above.
397. The indication of ADF showed at: (B2)

a. RMI.
b. EHSI.
c. All of above. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 66)
398. The magnetic bearing of VOR send to RMI: (B2)

a. Via Symbol Generator Unit.
b. RMI received from VOR receiver directly. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 83.)
c. Via EHSI.
399. The returned target of weather radar is indicated at: (B2)

a. EADI.

b. EHSI in full mode.

c. EHSI in arc mode. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 103)
400. During selection of test mode in weather radar: (B2)

a. The transceiver transmits, range is 100 nm and test display showed. (MTM Volume 2,
ATA 34 page 111.)
b. The transceiver is not transmitted, range is 100nm and test display showed.
c. All of above.
401. Reset of GPWS Mode 2a occurs: (B2)

a. The A/C altitude above terrain 300feet (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 123.)
b. The A/C altitude below terrain 300 feet.
c. The A/C altitude above terrain 500 feet.
402. Mode 6 of GPWS occurs: (B2)

a. RA between 1000 ft and 50 ft, Landing Gear down, A/C altitude equal DH. (MTM
Volume 2, ATA 34 page 130)
b. RA between 1000 ft and 50 ft, A/C altitude equal DH.
c. RA below 1000 ft, A/C altitude equal DH.
403. Which statement is NOT correct: (B2)

a. On ground or above 1000 ft with gear up, pressing the GPWS-GS switch will perform
the system test.
b. The most important in put signal for GPWS computer is RA.
c. There are three GPWS-GS switches. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 132.)
404. The location of RA antennas: (B2)

a. In the top of fuselage.
b. In the bottom of fuselage. MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 115.
c. In the tail section.
405. The indication of ILS system is shown on: (B2)

a. EADI.
b. EHSI.
406. When test of ILS receiver, in the display of control panel showed four dashes
with code 00: (B2)
a. Fault detected during test.
b. No fault detected during test. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 149.)
c. Invalid signal detected.
407. Location of Glide Slope antenna: (B2)

a. In the vertical stabilizer.
b. In the bottom of fuselage.
c. Inside radome. MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 143.
408. GPWS receives altitude and airspeed input signal from: (B2)
a. ADC #1. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 131.)
b. ADC #2.

c. Both ADCs.
409. The Glide Slope deviation signal sent to GPWS is from: (B2)
a. ILS receiver # 1.
b. ILS receiver # 2. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 140.)
c. Both ILS receivers.
410. The function of Marker Beacon is integrated in: (B2)

a. VOR/ILS Receiver # 1. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 153.)
b. VOR/ILS Receiver # 2.
c. Both VOR/ILS Receivers.
411. The frequency range of ADF system is: (B2)

a. 150KHz – 1500 KHz.
b. 190 KHz – 1750 KHz. (MTM Volume 2, ATA 34 page 65.)
c. 300 KHz – 3000 KHz.
ATA 35
412. In order to test Crew Oxygen mask by blinker indication: (B1, B2)
a. Press “PAX SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only.
b. Press “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only. √ ( D/O 35-12)
c. Press both “PAX SUPPLY” and “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switches.
413. LP (low pressure) pressure switch is located in: (B1, B2)

a. Supply manifold. √ ( D/O 35-12)
b. Crew feed stop valve.
c. HP (high pressure) regulator transmitter.
414. The pressure of oxygen cylinder in cockpit is determined by: (A, B1, B2)
a. Gauge attached on oxygen cylinder and indicator on overhead panel.√ ( D/O 35-)
b. Indicator on overhead panel.
c. Indicator on overhead panel and overboard discharge indicator.
415. The crew fixed oxygen system is used by the flight crew member in the following
conditions: (A, B1, B2)
a. Brutal depressurization; smoke.
b. Brutal depressurization.
c. Brutal depressurization; smoke or noxious gas emission. √ ( D/O-35-10)
416. What is connected to a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the
aircraft? (A, B1, B2)
a. HP overpressure safety system.
b. LP overpressure safety system.
c. Both (a) & (b). √ (D/O-35-10)
417. When a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the aircraft has yellow
color, means: (A, B1, B2)
a. Normal.
b. Pressure exceeding occurred. √ (D/O-35-11)

c. Low pressure occurred.
418. How do you check the oxygen cylinder pressure when BAT switch is in OFF
position? (A, B1, B2)
a. Look at a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the aircraft.
b. Look at a direct reading pressure gauge installed on cylinder. √ (D/O-35-11)
c. Look at an indicator located on overhead panel.
419. The oxygen distributor manifold is connected with: (B1, B2)

a. The supply system; the crew distribution system; one pneumatic test connector.
b. The supply system; the passenger distribution system; one LP pressure switch.
c. The supply system; the crew and passenger distribution system; one LP pressure
switch; one pneumatic test connector. √ ( D/O 35-12)
420. What is the purpose of test port assy installed on distributor manifold? (B1, B2)
a. A strength and leakage test of the oxygen systems; cleaning of the oxygen systems.
b. A functional test of the oxygen systems and equipment.
c. Both (a) & (b). √ ( D/O 35-12)
421. How do you supply oxygen to passenger distribution system? (B1, B2)
a. Press “PAX SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only.
b. Press “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only.
c. Press both “PAX SUPPLY” and “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switches. √ ( D/O 35-
12)
ATA 36
422. Compressed air is bled from: (A, B1)

a. Engine compressors at LP (low pressure) or HP (high pressure) stages depend on
Power lever position. √ (DO 36-10)
b. LP engine compressor.
c. HP engine compressor.
423. Air bleed valve is automatically closed when: (B1)

a. Air temperature is too high and “OVHT” light comes on.
b. Air leaks and “LEAK” light comes on.
c. Both (a) and (b). √ (DO 36-20)
424. When air leaks is detected, “LEAK” light comes on then: (B1)
a. Crossfeed valve opens, air bleed valve closes.
b. Crossfeed valve closes, air bleed valve closes. √ (DO 36-20)
c. Crossfeed valve closes, air bleed valve opens.
425. Crossfeed valve will opens when: (B1)

a. Aircraft is in flight.
b. Aircraft is in “Hotel Mode”. √ (DO 36-11)
c. Both engines are running and both air bleed valves open.
426. “FAULT” light on air bleed valve pushbutton switch comes on when: (B1, B2)
a. Engine is not running and relevant air bleed valve push button is in “ON” position.

b. Air pressure at upstream of air bleed valve is greater than 80 PSI.

c. Both (a) and (b). √ (DO 36-20)
427. On control panel of pneumatic system, “X VALVE OPEN” light comes on when:
(B1, B2)
a. Crossfeed valve failed.
b. Crossfeed valve opens. √ (DO 36-20)
c. Both air bleed valve open.
428. Pneumatic system supplies compressed air to: (A, B1)

a. Air conditioning and starting systems.
b. Air conditioning and ice protection systems.
c. Ice protection and starting systems. √ (DO 36-10)
429. What is the function of low pressure bleed air check valve? (B1)
a. To prevent reverse airflow into engine LP compressor when HP bleed is operating. √
(DO 36-11)
b. To prevent reverse airflow into engine HP compressor when LP bleed is operating.
c. Both (a) & (b).
430. The bleed air overtemperature switches give a signal to OVHT legend on the
caution light when air temperature reaches: (B1, B2)
ْ
a. 254◌C.
b. 264◌C.ْ
c. 274◌C. ْ √ (DO 36-11)
431. Where is the bleed air shutoff valve located? (A, B1)
a. In the bleed air duct immediately after the fire wall in the fairing between the engine
nacelle and the wing. √ (DO 36-11)
b. In the engine nacelle.
c. In the air conditioning bay.
ATA 38
432. The potable water service panel consists of: (A. B1)
a. A filling coupling with a cap; a filling & draining valve control handle; Over flow port;
pressure indicator of waste tank.
b. A filling coupling with a cap; a filling & draining valve control handle; Over flow port;
pressure indicator of water tank.
c. A filling coupling with a cap; a filling & draining valve control handle; Over flow port.
ü(D/O 38-10)
433. The toilet service panel consists of: (A, B1)

a. A standard coupling enabling the toilet tank to be drained; a standard coupling closed
by a plug, used for flushing and filling the toilet tank; a waste drain valve control
handle and an anti-corrosion tank leakage drain outlet. ü(D/O 38-30)
b. A standard coupling enabling the toilet tank to be drained; a standard coupling closed
by a plug, used for flushing and filling the toilet tank; a waste drain valve control
handle; an anti-corrosion tank leakage drain outlet and pressure indicator of waste tank

c. A standard coupling enabling the toilet tank to be drained; a waste drain valve control
handle and an anti-corrosion tank leakage drain outlet.
434. How many litre can the water tank contains? (A, B1)
a. 17.
b. 13.
c. 15. ü(D/O 38-10)
435. How many litre can the toilet tank contains? (A, B1)
a. 70. ü(D/O 38-30)
b. 77.
c. 87.
436. Waste water from the toilet and galley wash basin drains: (A, B1)
a. Outside through a drain. ü(D/O 38-30)
b. To the toilet tank.
c. To the waste tank.
ATA 52
437. The FWD cargo door is: (A, B1, B2)

a. Hinged on upper side and opens outwards and upward with a nominal travel of 77 º.
b.Hinged on lower side and opens outwards and downward with a nominal travel of 87 º.
c. Hinged on upper side and opens outwards and up ward with a nominal travel of 87 º. √
(DO 52-31)
438. During opening FWD cargo door: (A, B1, B2)

a. First, pull down Latchlock handle and then pull down Latch handle .Vent door is
opened by Latch handle.
b. First, pull down Latchlock handle and then pull down Latch handle .Vent door is open
by Latchlock handle. √ (DO 52-31)
c. First, pull down Latchlock handle and then pull down Latch handle .Vent door is
automatically opened by electrical power.
439. Why is the pressure seal of the FWD cargo door vented by cabin pressure
through the holes in the seal itself at the sides and top of the door? (B1)
a. To prevent fluid access to the lower side of the seal. √ (DO 52-31)
b. To reduce noise from engine.
c. To reduce the loss of cabin pressure.
440. During operating FWD cargo door, the latching action is performed by: (B1)
a. Two hooks installed on lower side of the door that engage the latch spool fitting
installed on relative jamb.
b. Three hooks installed on lower side of the door that engage the latch spool fitting
installed on relative jamb. √ (DO 52-31)
c. Four hooks installed on lower side of the door that engage the latch spool fitting
installed on relative jamb.
441. What is the purpose of the view ports located on lower side of FWD cargo door
outer skin? (A, B1, B2)

a. To inspect from inside all three latchlock pins.

b. To inspect from outside all three hooks.
c. To inspect from outside all three latchlock pins. √ (DO 52-31)
442. During operating FWD cargo door, the locking action is performed by: (A, B1,
B2)
a. Two locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in closed position, thus
prevent the hooks unlatching rotation.
b. Three locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in closed position, thus
prevent the hooks unlatching rotation. √ (DO 52-31)
c. Four locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in closed position , thus
prevent the hooks unlatching rotation
443. FWD cargo door is installed: (B1, B2) – Question is unclear that on the FWD
door….or the FWD door is installed by…..
a. 07 Proximity switches: 06 of these are used for Locking system and one of these is
used for Latching system.
b. 07 Proximity switches: 05 of these are used for Locking system and 02 of these are
used for Latching system.
c. 07 Proximity switches: 06 of these are used for Latching system and one of these is
used for Locking system. √ (DO 52-31)
444. Choose a wrong answer: (B1)

a. Pax door is installed (by) 6 shoot bolts and 1 microswitch.
b. Pax door is installed (by) 6 shoot bolts and 1 microswitch. There ‘re 03 microswitches
installed on fuselage correspondence of three shoot bolts.
c. Pax door is installed (by) 8 shoot bolts and 01 microswitch. There ‘re 03 microswitches
installed on fuselage correspondence of three shoot bolts. √ (DO 52-11)
445. The Pax door is: (A, B1, B2)

a. Hinged on upper side and opens outwards and upwards.
b. Hinged on lower side and opens outwards and downwards. √ (DO 52-11)
c. Hinged on lower side and opens inwards and downwards.
446. The Pax door can be: (A, B1, B2)

a. Closed or opened by electrical power or manual from outside only.
b. Closed or opened by manual from aircraft inside or outside. √ (DO 52-11)
c. Only closed by manual from aircraft inside and only opened by manual from aircraft
outside.
447. The locking mechanism of Pax door consists of:(B1)

a. Two latchlock pins which lock the shoot bolts in the fuselage when the door is closed
and release the shoots bolts to open the door.
b. Three latchlock pins which lock the shoot bolts in the fuselage when the door is closed
and release the shoots bolts to open the door. √ (DO 52-11)
c. Four shoot bolts which lock the latchlock pins in the fuselage when the door is closed
and release the latchlock pins to open the door.
448. The latching mechanism of Pax door consists of: (B1)

a. Four latchlock pins which lock the door into the fuselage when the door is closed and
are retracted in the door structure during opening door.
b. Six shoot bolts which lock the door into the fuselage when the door is closed and are
retracted in the door structure during opening door. √ (DO 52-11)
c. Eight shoot bolts which lock the door into the fuselage when the door is closed and are
retracted in the door structure during opening door.
449. What is the purpose of the drive shaft of the Pax door? (B1)
a. To operate the latching mechanism from the movement of the handles.
b. To operate the latching mechanism from the movement of the handles.
c. To operate the latching and locking mechanism from the movement of the handles. √
(DO 52-11)
450. How do you know the Pax door is completely closed when you close this door
from outside? (A, B1, B2)
a. Look through the view port located on lower forward area of door skin to make sure
that the word ”LOCKED” disappears.
b. Look through the view port located on lower forward area of door skin to make sure
that the word ”LOCKED” appears. √ (DO 52-11)
c. Look through the view port located on stair step of the door to make sure that the word
”LOCKED” appears.
451. Which doors are installed vent door: (On which of the following doors the vent
door is installed ?) (A, B1, B2)
a. Cargo door; Landing gear door; Emergency Hatch door.
b. Service door; Forward Avionic Compartment door; Cargo door; Pax door.
c. Pax door; Cargo door; Service door. √ (DO 52-11)
452. Service door is installed: (B1)

a. Total 05 shoot bolts: 01 proximity switch located in inside this door and 02
microswitches located in fuselage correspondence of two shoot bolts. √ (DO 52-42)
b. Total 03 shoot bolts: 01 microswitch located in inside this door and 02 microswitches
located in fuselage correspondence of two shoot bolts.
c. Total 05 shoot bolts: 02 microswitches located in inside this door and 01 microswitches
located in fuselage correspondence of one shoot bolt.
453. The service door can be: (A, B1, B2)

a. Closed or opened by manual from inside or outside. √ (DO 52-42)
b. Opened from inside or out side and only closed from inside by manual.
c. Closed from inside or out side and only opened from inside by manual.
454. Which door send “UNLK” signal to overhead panel in the cockpit? (B1, B2)
(Which of the following doors send…..)
a. Cargo door; Emergency Hatch door; Service door ; Emergency Exits door ; Nose
Landing Gear door ; Pax door.
b. Service door; Document door; Forward Avionic Compartment door; Cargo door;
Emergency Hatch door; Pax door.
c. Pax door; Forward Avionic Compartment door; Cargo door; Emergency Hatch door;
Service door. √ (DO 52-71)

455. Emergency Hatch can be: (B1, B2)

a. Opened from aircraft inside or outside and closed from aircraft inside only. √(DO 52-
22)
b. Opened and closed from aircraft inside or outside.
c. Opened and closed from aircraft inside.
456. The passenger compartment emergency exit doors can be: (B1, B2)
a. Closed or opened by manual from inside or outside.
b. Opened from inside or out side and only closed from inside by manual. √ (DO 52-21)
c. Closed from inside or out side and only opened from inside by manual.
ATA 60
457. The location of the torque motor (synchrophasing system): (B1)

a. In the PCU engine 1
b. In the PCU engine 2 (MTM 60 P.44)
c. There are two torque motors. One in PCU 1 and the other one in PCU 2.
458. What is the PWR.MGT selector’s position for synchrophasing operation: (B1)
a. On TO position
b. On CRZ position
c. On any position except TO (MTM 60 P.46 )
459. What is the position of the Np indicator pointer in case of power supply loss:
(B1,B2)
a. At 0
b. The pointer is stuck at 21%
c. Below 0 to a low stop (MTM 60 P.91)
460. Np indicator is supplied by the: (B1,B2)

a. 28V DC ESS BUS (MTM 60 P.93)
b. 28V DC BUS 1 & BUS 2
c. 26V DC STBY BUS
461. During the Np indicator test (Pressing the test p.b. on the indicator front face),
the Np pointer reaches: (B1)
a. A blue dot corresponding to 115% (MTM 60 P.93)
b. Max value 120%
c. Stay at 0
462. The hydraulic supply for prop. brake is provided by the: (B1,B2)
a. Blue hydraulic system (MTM 60 P.96)
b. Green hydraulic system
c. Both of a & b are not correct
463. Propeller Brake operation is controlled and monitored by: (B1,B2)

a. MFC (MTM 60 P.100)
b. PCU
c. AFU

464. The purpose of synchrophasing system is to: (B1)

a. Maintain the desired phase relationship and the same speed between the two propellers
(MTM 60 P.42)
b. Maintain the same torques between two engine and the same speed between the two
propellers
c. Maintain the same speed and β angle between the two propellers
465. An automatic "Max RPM" setting function is activated when: (B1)

a. "Go-Around" conditions are met (DO 61-21-00 P.15)
b. PWR.MGT selector is in TO and power levers in Max PWR position
c. PL in TO and CL in Min RPM
466. The location of the ATPCS selector switch: (B1,B2)

a. Electrical center pedestal ENG TEST panel (DO 612000 p3)
b. RH console (702VU)
c. Center instrument panel (9VU)
ATA 61
467.The propeller is turned by: (B1)

a. Free turbine through AGB.
b. HP turbine through RGB.
c. Free turbine through RGB. ! (DO 61-00)
468. What is direction of propeller rotation if seen rearwards: (B1)

a. Clockwise. ! (DO 61-00)
b. Counterclockwise.
c. Clockwise and counterclockwise.
469. Propeller’s RPM is: (B1)

a. 1200 RPM. ! (DO 61-00)
b. 1400 RPM.
c. 1600 RPM.
470. The propeller system is supplied with oil from: (B1)

a. Engine oil tank.
b. Auxiliary tank integral in RGB. ! (DO 61-12)
c. Separate auxiliary oil tank on left side of the engine.
471. The oil from auxiliary tank supplies: (B1)

a. The HP pump only.
b. The feathering pump only.
c. The HP pump and feathering pump. ! (DO 61-12)
472. Propeller regulation modes are controlled by: (B1)

a. PCU on RGB. ! (DO 61-12)
b. PCU on AGB.
c. Pitch change mechanism in the hub.
473. In normal mode oil pressure to PCU is suplied from: (B1)

a. Oil pressure pump on AGB.

b. Oil pressure pump on RGB. ! (DO 61-21)
c. Feather pump.
474. PCU speed governing mode means: (B1)

a. Propeller speed is kept as commanded by Condition lever. ! (DO 61-21)
b. Propeller speed is kept as commanded by Power lever.
c. Propeller speed is kept as commanded by Synchrophaser.
475. The Beta valve in PCU is activated by: (B1)

a. PWR MGT selector.
b. Condition lever.
c. Power lever. ! (DO 61-21)
476. During flight the propeller speed is dependant on: (B1)

a. PL position.
b. CL position. ! (DO 61-21)
c. Propeller synchrophaser.
477. During cruize if the propeller speed is below the set value: (B1)
a. The blade angle is increased.
b. The blade angle is reduced. ! (DO 61-21)
c. The blade angle is unchanged.
478. One of CL function is to set the propeller speed. If CL is set at MAX RPM
(100%) when engine is running at GI the NP is: (B1)
a. 100%.
b. 71%. ! (DO 61-21)
c. 14,5%.
479. Propeller synchrophaser is only operating when: (B1,B2)

a. SYNCH switch is pressed in when take off.
b. SYNCH switch is pressed in when landing.
c. SYNCH switch is pressed in when cruizing. ! (DO 61-21))
480. When synchrophasing is operating: (B1,B2)

a. Torque motor on PCU number 2 acts on blade angle of propeller number 1.
b. Torque motor on PCU number 1 acts on blade angle of propeller number 2.
c. Torque motor on PCU number 2 acts on blade angle of propeller number 2. ! (DO 61-
21)
481. The propeller synchrophaser is located in: (B1,B2)

a. Electronic rack shelf 94VU. ! (DO 61-21)
b. Electronic rack shelf 90VU.
c. Electronic rack shelf 80VU.
482. Engine is running, advance PL from GI to FI position: (B1)

a. The blabe angle is increased. ! (DO 61-21)
b. The blabe angle is reduced.
c. The blabe angle is unchanged.

483. Engine is running, retard PL to REV position: (B1)

a. PL acts on HMU to reduce blade angle.
b. PL acts on HMU to increase blade angle.
c. PL acts on PCU to reduce blade angle. ! (DO 61-21)
484. After engine has been started up, to unfeather the CL must be moved from: (B1)
a. FTR to MIN RPM.
b. FTR to MAX RPM.
c. Both a and b are correct. ! (DO 61-21)
485. "LO PITCH" light is on thanks to: (B1,B2)

a. Microswitch in the pitch change mechanism.
b. Microswitch in the Overspeed governor.
c. Microswitch in the PCU. ! (DO 61-21)
486. During flight if high supply pressure in PCU is lost: (B1)

a. Propeller will be feathered.
b. Propeller will operate in fixed blade angle 1 degree lower than being operated. ! (DO
61-21)
c. Propeller is operating normally.
487. The propeller can be feathered by: (B1)

a. Power lever.
b. Condition lever. ! (DO 61-22)
c. PWR MGT selector.
488. The feathering pump operation is limited to 30s by: (B1)

a. EEC.
b. HMU.
c. MFC. ! (DO 61-22)
489. When the propeller can be feathered automatically? (B1,B2)

a. During take off. ! (DO 61-22)
b. During climb.
c. During cruize.
490. Automatic feathering system is operational if it is armed: (B1,B2)

a. During climb.
b. Prior to take off. ! (DO 61-22)
c. During cruize.
491. What happens to overspeed governor in case of HP pump rupture? (B1)

a. It is not driven.
b. It is still driven by RGB. ! (DO 61-23)
c. It is still driven electrically.
492. When propeller speed reaches 103% Overspeed governor shall: (B1)
a. Drain meter pressure in PCU. ! (DO 61-23)
b. Increase meter pressure in PCU.
c. Kepp meter pressure in PCU unchanged.

493. When propeller speed reaches 109% Overspeed governor shall: (B1)
a. Reduce fuel to engine. ! (DO 61-23)
b. Increase the blade angle.
c. Drain metered pressure.
494. The solenoid in the overspeed governor is for: (B1,B2)

a. Controlling the governor.
b. Cut the oil to governor.
c. The ground test. ! (DO 61-23)
495. "LO PITCH" light is on when engine is running at ground idle (GI): (B1)
a. CCAS is active, Master Warning light is on.
b. CCAS is active, Master Caution light is on.
c. CCAS is not active. ! (DO 61-45)
496. When reverse mode is selected "LO PITCH" light is: (B1)
a. On. ! (DO 61-45)
b. Off.
c. Flashing.
497. If "LO PITCH" light is on during flight: (B1, B2)

a. Nothing happens.
b. Feather solenoid in PCU is energized. ! (DO 61-45)
c. Feathering mechanical valve in PCU opens.
498. When propeller brake is engaged: (B1)

a. The low pressure turbine is immobilised.
b. The high pressure turbine is immobilised.
c. The free turbine is immobilised. ! (DO 61-50)
499. The green READY light must be on before engage or release the propeller brake.
Conditions for READY light to be on are: (B1,B2)
a. Aircraft on ground, Gust lock ON, propeller in feather position, Blue pressure is
3000psi. ! (DO 61-50)
b. Aircraft on ground, Gust lock ON, CL at FTR position, Blue pressure is 3000psi.
c. Aircraft on ground, Gust lock OFF, propeller in feather position, Blue pressure is
3000psi.
500. Propeller brake is engaged by Blue hydralic pressure. If after propeller has been
engaged this pressure is lost: (B1)
a. Brake remains engaged. ! (DO 61-50)
b. Crossfeed valve must be open to take pressure from Green system.
c. Brake is realeased.
501. Propeller brake is considered engaged if: (B1,B2)

a. Only "PROP PRK" light on Memo panel is on.
b. Only "PROP PRK" light on Propeller brake panel is on.
c. Both a and b are correct. ! (DO 61-50)

ATA 71
502. Engine PW124B has maximum power of: (A,B1,B2)

a. 2200 SHP.
b. 2300 SHP.
c. 2400 SHP. ! (DO 71-20)
503. How many types of shock mount are installed on engine? (B1)
a. 2.
b. 3. ! (DO 71-20)
c. 4.
504. If debonding or tearing of forward upper shockmount elastomeric blocks greater
or equal 1 inch: (B1)
a. Repair them.
b. Replace them. ! (JIC 71-20-00)
c. No action.
505. A torque compensation system is used on engine to: (B1)

a. Limit angular rotation. ! (DO 71-20)
b. Limit vibration.
c. Prevent over torque.
506. Where is fire wall installed? (B1)

a. Above exhaust nozzle.
b. Above combustion chamber. ! (DO 71-30)
c. Above compressor case.
507. At engine shut down the fuel from nozzle manifolds is drained towards:
(A,B1,B2)
a. Drain mast.
b. Drain manifold.
c. Ecological tank. ! (DO 71-30)
508. Oil leak through ACW carbon seal is drained towards: (A,B1,B2)
a. Drain mast.
b. Drain manifold. ! (DO 71-30)
c. Ecological tank.
ATA 72
509. PW124B installed on ATR-72 is engine of: (A,B1,B2)

a. Three shafts with free turbine driving the propeller through RGB. ! (PW Manual
DO)
b. Two shafts with HP shaft driving the propeller through RGB.
c. Three shafts with HP shaft driving the propeller.
510. PW124B is a engine having: (A,B1,B2)

a. One centrigual compressor.
b. Two centrigual compressor. ! (PW Manual DO)
c. Three centrigual compressor.

511. PW124B has: (B1)

a. One module.
b. Two modules. ! (PW Manual DO)
c. Three modules.
512. On AGB are: (A,B1,B2)

a. Starter-DC generator, ACW generator, oil pump.
b. Starter-DC generator , PCU, oil pump.
c. Starter-DC generator , HP fuel pump, oil pump. ! (PW Manual DO)
513. Where is station 2.5 in engine? (B1)

a. Before LP compressor.
b. Before HP cpmpressor. ! (PW Manual DO)
c. Before HP turbine.
514. Which turbine is not turning during Hotel mode? (B1,B2)

a. Free turbine. ! (PW Manual DO)
b. LP turbine.
c. HP turbine.
515. On RGB are: (A,B1,B2)

a. ACW generator, PCU, Overspeed governor, feather pump. ! (PW Manual DO)
b. Starter-DC generator , PCU, oil pump.
c. Starter-DC generator , HP fuel pump, oil pump.
ATA 73
516. Fuel from the tank to engine is supplied to: (B1)

a. Fuel heater. !(DO 73-10)
b. HP pump.
c. HMU.
517. Air for fuel regulation is taken from which engine station? (B1,B2)
a. 2.5.
b. 3. !(DO 73-20)
c. 6.
518. The HP fuel pump is located: (B1)

a. In front of HMU.
b. Above HMU.
c. Behind HMU. !(DO 73-20)
519. When “FUEL CLOG” light is on: (B1,B2)

a. HP fuel pump filter is clogged. !(DO 73-30
b. Fuel heater filter is clogged.
c. Both HP fuel pump filter and Fuel heater filter are clogged.
520. During flight fuel regulation is controlled by: (B1,B2)

a. PL controlling HMU.

b. CL controlling HMU.
c. EEC depending on flight conditions and PL positions. !(DO 73-20)
521. During cruizing EEC is failed: (B1,B2)

a. FAULT light in EEC pushbutton is on.
b. FAULT light in EEC pushbutton is off.
c. FAULT light in EEC pushbutton is flashing. !(DO 73-20)
522. For normal engine shut down: (B1)

a. Pull engine fire handle.
b. Set CL to FUEL SO position to shut HP valve. !(DO 73-20)
c. Set CL to FUEL SO position to shut LP valve.
523. At engine start the fuel pressure is deliverd initially by: (B1)
a. Primary nozzles only. !(DO 73-10)
b. Secondary nozzles only.
c. Promary and secondary nozzles.
524. EEC controls HMU through: (B1,B2)

a. Torque motor.
b. Stepper motor. !(DO 73-20)
c. Control motor.
525. Manual operation of fuel control means Py air pressure is regulated by: (B1)
a. Stepper motor.
b. EEC.
c. NH governor in HMU. !(DO 73-20)
526. Overboost capability means: (B1)

a. Power lever can be displaced beyond the take off normal position. !(DO 73-20)
b. Power lever can be displaced at the take off normal position.
c. Power lever can be displaced beyond the FI position.
527. Up trim function can be active during: (B1)

a. Take off. !(DO 73-20)
b. Climb.
c. Cruize.
528. The fuel in Fuel heater is heated by: (B1)

a. Ram air.
b. Hot air from exhaust.
c. Oil. !(DO 73-10)
529. Transfer from EEC mode to manual mode happens when: (B1,B2)
a. Automatically when EEC fails.
b. EEC swich is released. !(DO 73-20)
c. Retard PL to green sector.
530. What is EEC fail fixed mode?

a. The last NH speed remains unchanged whatever power is increased through power
lever.!(DO 73-20)
b. The last NH speed increases when power is increased through power lever.
c. The last NH speed decreases when power is increased through power lever.
531. If one engine fails during take off: (B1,B2)

a. This engine will be feathered while the remaining engine is operating normally.
b. This engine will be shut down by CL and the remaining engine will increase the power
to compensate the failed engien.
c. This engine will be feathered while the remaining engine will increase the power to
100%.!(DO 73-20)
532. After replacing the HP fuel pump filter: (B1)

a. Perform leakage test. !(JIC 73-12-63)
b. Perform HP pump operational test.
c. Perform HMU operational test.
533. Fuel from ecological tank is forwarded to which item for next engine start? (B1)
a. HMU.
b. HP pump. !(DO 73-10)
c. Drain mast.
ATA 74
534. Ignition system includes: (B1)

a. One ignition exciter.
b. Two ignition exciters. !(DO 74-00)
c. Three ignition exciters.
535. Ignition exciters are located: (B1,B2)

a. On the right hand side of engine. !(DO 74-00)
b. On the left hand side of engine.
c. In the electronic rack in cockpit.
536. Ignition exciters control: (B1,B2)

a. Spark plug A or spark plug B depending on the selector switch.
b. Two spark plugs separately through two high tension leads. !(DO 74-00)
c. Two spark plugs alternately through one high tension leads.
537. When CL is not in FUEL SO position, if ignition switch is set to CON RELIGHT
position: (B1)
a. Ignitor A and B will ignite continuously. !(DO 74-30)
b. Only ignitor A ignites continuously.
c. Only ignitor B ignites continuously.
538. In order to perform aural check on ignitor plug A: (B1,B2)

a. Open circuit breaker spark plug A.
b. Open circuit breaker spark plug B. !(JIC 74-00-00)
c. Open circuit breaker spark plug A and B.

ATA 75
539. Engine compartment is divided into: (B1)

a. One zone.
b. Two zones. !(DO 75-00)
c. Three zones.
540. AC generator ventilation is provided by: (B1,B2)

a. Zone 1. !(DO 75-00)
b. Zone 2.
c. Zone 3.
541. DC startor/generator ventilation is provided by: (B1,B2)

a. A scoop located in lateral right opening cowl. !(DO 75-00)
b. A scoop located in lateral left opening cowl.
c. A scoop located in the top of opening cowl.
542. During flight engine bearings are pressurized by air: (B1)

a. P2.5. !(PW Manual DO)
b. P3.
c. P6.
543. Handling Bleed Valve is controlled by: (B1,B2)

a. EEC. !(PW Manual DO)
b. AFU.
c. FDAU.
ATA 76
544. Power lever is connected directly to: (B1)

a. HMU. !(DO 76-11)
b. PCU.
c. HP pump.
545. White mark (notch) on the center pedestal indicates power lever position:
(B1,B2)
a. GI.
b. FI.
c. TO. !(DO 76-11)
546. Power lever is for: (B1)

a. Control of fuel flow. !(DO 76-11)
b. Control of propeller speed.
c. Control of propeller blade angle.
547. Reverse is controlled by: (B1)

a. Condition lever.
b. Power lever. !(DO 76-11)
c. Flap control lever.

548. When Gust lock is on: (B1)

a. PL is locked at GI position.
b. PL is locked at FI position.
c. PL can not reach FI position. !(DO 76-11)
549. Condition lever connected to HMU through PCU for: (B1)

a. Propeller pitch control.
b. Blade angle control.
c. Engine shut down. !(DO 76-11)
550. Power lever connected to PCU through HMU for: (B1)

a. Beta control. !(DO 76-11)
b. Reverse control.
c. Fuel control.
551. The microswiches located in central pedestal microswich unit are for: (B1,B2)
a. Transmitting the power lever angular position only.
b. Transmitting the condition lever angular position only.
c. Transmitting the power lever and condition lever angular position. !(DO 76-11)
552. IDLE GATE is to: (B1)

a. Prevent from setting the PL to position below FI during flight. !(DO 76-13)
b. Prevent from setting the CL to position FTR during flight.
c. Prevent from setting the CL to position Fuel shut off.
553. In case of IDLE GATE system failure: (B1,B2)

a. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator on CAP is on.
b. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator on center pedestal is on. !(DO 76-13)
c. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator Memo panel is on.
554. The IDLE GATE system is failed when there is disagreement between: (B1)
a. The roller position and the configuration of landing gear relays. !(DO 76-13)
b. Power lever and landing gear control lever.
c. The roller position and and power lever.
555. When the IDLE GATE system is failed: (B1)

a. Aircraft must be grounded.
b. Pilot has to use pull knob on center dedestal for manual control. !(DO 76-13)
c. Pilot has to use pull knob on engine panel for manual control.
ATA 78
556. The engine exhaust system is composed of: (B1)

a. Jet pipe only.
b. Exhaust pipe only.
c. Jet pipe and exhaust pipe. !(DO 78-00)
557. Jet pipe is attached to the engine by a: (B1)

a. flange with bolts. !(DO 78-00)

b. flange with rivets.

c. flange with welding bonding.
558. Engine jet pipe is designed to: (B1)

a. Obtain the maximum engine jet thrust. !(DO 78-00)
b. Obtain the maximum pressure.
c. Obtain the minimum temperature.
559. The exhaust nozzle serves for: (B1)

a. Evacuation of the burnt gases only.
b. Evacuation of the engine ventilation air flow only.
c. Evacuation of the burnt gases and the engine ventilation air flow. !(DO 78-00)
560. The exhaust nozzle is heat insulated to limit temperature rise: (B1)
a. Outside the nozzle. !(DO 78-00)
b. Within the nozzle.
c. Within the jet pipe.
ATA 79
561. The oil system supplies oil to: (A,B1,B2)

a. Turbomachinery.
b. Propeller reduction gear box and control system.
c. Both a and b. !(DO 79-00)
562. The oil system keeps: (B1)

a. Only temperature at proper value.
b. Only pressure at proper value.
c. Temperature and pressure at proper value. !(DO 79-00)
563. Oil tank is: (B1)

a. Integral with the air inlet casing. !(DO 79-10)
b. Integral with the compresor casing.
c. Separate tank attached to left side of the engine.
564. Working oil pressure is: (B1)

a. 60 to 65 psi. !(DO 79-20)
b. 40 to 50 psi.
c. 50 to 55 psi.
565. Oil pressure is kept constant by: (B1)

a. Pressure relief valve.
b. Pressure regulating valve. !(DO 79-20)
c. Air switching valve.
566. Bearing chambers are pressurized to: (B1)

a. Prevent oil low pressure.

b. Prevent oil leakage. !(DO 79-20)
c. Prevent air leakage.
567. Oil is cooled by: (B1)

a. FCOC only.
b. ACOC only.
c. ACOC and FCOC.!(DO 79-20)
568. The oil pump pack is comprised of: (B1)

a. One pressure pump and two scavenge pump. !(DO 79-20)
b. One pressure pump and one scavenge pump.
c. Two pressure pump and one scavenge pump.
569. How to know that oil filter is clogged? (A, B1,B2)

a. By indication in the cockpit.
b. By oil low pressure warning.
c. By pop-out indication on filter body. !(JIC 79-22-61 CHK)
570. How many chip detectors are threre on engine? (B1)

a. One in the oil tank, one in RGB. !(DO 79-20)
b. One in the oil tank, one in oil pressure pump.
c. One in the oil tank, one in oil scavenge pump.
571. How many oil filters are threre on engine? (B1,B2)

One pressure filter only.
Two: one pressure and one scavenge. !(DO 79-20)
Three: One pressure and two scavenge.
572. The ACOC flap is controlled by: (B1)

a. Electrical actuator.
b. Thermal actuator. !(DO 79-20)
c. Hydraulic actuator.
573. The ACOC flap can be tested on ground by: (B1)

a. Hand. !(JIC 79-26-65 CHK)
b. Elctrical motor.
c. Hydraulic motor.
574. After Pressure regulating valve replacement: (B1)

a. Perform leakage test and check engine oil parameters. !(JIC 79-21-63 RAI)
b. Perform leakage test.
c. Perform engine oil parameters check.
575. Engine oil low pressure warning system is operating when: (B1,B2)
a. After engine started up 30s but oil pressure is less than 40psi.
b. Engine is stopped, advance the CL to FTR position and let there for more than 30s.
c. Both a and b are correct. !(JIC 79-34-00 OPT)
576. When is proper time for engine oil level check? (A,B1,B2)

a. After engine shut down, propeller stpped.

b. After engine shut down, wait for 15 to 20 min. !(JIC 79-00-00 TUP)
c. 1 hour before depart.
ATA 80
577. Starting of engine is provided by: (B1,B2)

a. DC starter/generator. !(DO 80-00)
b. AC starter/generator.
c. Air starter.
578. During starting when NH reaches 45%: (B1,B2)

a. ON light in start pushbuton is on.
b. ON light in start pushbuton is off. !(DO 80-00)
c. ON light in start pushbuton is flashing.
579. What is cross-start? (B1,B2)

a. Second engine started with power produced by the running engine generator.
b. Second engine started with main and emergency batteries.
c. Second engine started with battery and power produced by the running engine
generator. !(DO 80-00)
580. Cross-start can be used: (B1,B2)

a. On ground only. !(DO 80-00)
b. On flight only.
c. On ground and on flight.
581. During flight: (B1,B2)

a. Ignitor A is operating.
b. Ignitor B is operating.
c. No ignitor is operating. !(DO 80-11)
582. What does mean engine crank? (B1,B2)

a. Stater generator drive HP spool, ignition off.
b. Stater generator drive propeller, ignition off. !(DO 80-10)
c. Stater generator drive HP spool, ignition is on only for 15s.
583. What is dry motoring? (B1,B2)

a. Cranking with CL in FTR position.
b. Cranking with CL in FUEL SO position. !(DO 80-10)
c. Cranking with PL in FI position.
584. What is wet motoring? (B1,B2)

a. Cranking with CL in FTR position. !(DO 80-10)
b. Cranking with CL in FUEL SO position.
c. Cranking with PL in FI position.
585. Dry motoring is used to: (B1,B2)

a. Evaporate the remaining fuel in the combustion chamber. !(DO 80-10)
b. Test HP fuel line.

c. Test LP fuel line.
586. Wet motoring is used to: (B1,B2)

a. Evaporate the remaining fuel in the combustion chamber.
b. Test HP fuel line. !(DO 80-10)
c. Test LP fuel line.

Caav Question Bank - Atr 72

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – ATR 72

1. 500 is major zone for: (A,B1,B2)

2. The zoning system is based on: (A,B1,B2)

3. How many frames are there on ATR-72? (B1)

4. The cargo door is between which frames? (B1)

5. The sequence of zone numbering run: (A,B1,B2)

6. When jacking of aircraft is performed: (B1,B2)

7. When jacking of aircraft is performed outside of the hangar, maximum

8. Aircraft must be in the following configuration for jacking: (A,B1,B2)

1 1st Issue – July 2005

10. For fuselage shoring we need to perform: (B1)

11. Aircraft can be weighed: (B1)

12. Before weghing: (B1)

13. How to adjust longitudinal levelling during quick levelling? (B1)

15. During precise levelling the aircraft must be parked: (B1)

18. Aircraft can be towed with speed: (A,B1,B2)

2 1st Issue – July 2005

a. OFF. ! (JIC 09-11-00)

20. Towing operation must have permision from: (A,B1,B2)

21. Aircraft must be parked: (A,B1,B2)

23. For parking for longer than one week: (B1,B2)

24. For parking for less than one week: (B1,B2)

25. Mooring is needed when: (A,B1,B2)

26. For installation of decals applied across lap joints: (B1,B2)

27. For label on heat resistant ducting installation: (B1)

3 1st Issue – July 2005

28. For identification of metallic plates installation: (B1)

33. When aircraft is on ground, the pressurization system is off: (B1)

34. When aircraft is in flight: (B1)

36. When do you check engine oil level: (A, B1)

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5 1st Issue – July 2005

47. After performing of nitrogen charging of hydraulic system accumulators, the

50. During hydraulic reservoir replenishing, you can: (A, B1)

51. Screws are referred marked by the: (B1)

6 1st Issue – July 2005

53. Safetying principle for using lockwire: (A,B1,B2)

54. What is P.L.I washer? (B1)

55. How many types of bolts for HI LOCK fasteners? (B1)

56. What is interfraying? (A,B1,B2)

57. Fuel leaks are defined in categories: (A, B1,B2)

58. What is slight seapage (oozing)? (A, B1,B2)

59. What is heavy seapage (dripping)? (A,B1,B2)

60. What is running leak? (A,B1,B2)

61. If there is a fuel leak with 0 to 10 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

62. If there is fuel leak with 10 to 20 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

7 1st Issue – July 2005

63. If there is fuel leak with 20 to 30 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

64. If there is a fuel leak over 30 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)

67. When performing stripping of composite: (B1)

69. How to examine the control cable for damage? (B1)

70. Internal cable wear normally occurs: (B1)

8 1st Issue – July 2005

b. Two ACMs (air cycle machine).

73. Heat exchanger consists of: (B1)

74. In ground cooling system, Turbo fan runs when: (B1)

75. Turbo fan runs in flight when: (B1)

76. Pack valve is: (B1)

77. The function of temperature control valve is to: (B1)

78. In air conditioning system, when pack overheat: (B1)

79. Choose correct answer: (B1)

9 1st Issue – July 2005

80. Pack valve operates in “HIGH” level when: (B1)