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Paper Code
(0999DMD310318004)

*0999DMD310318004*

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME


(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE


TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2019
Test Type : Unit Test

Test # 04
TEST DATE : 19 - 08 - 2018

Test Pattern : NEET-UG

Important Instructions / 


Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so



1.

A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should
ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the
students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.





2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max.
Marks are 720.

3
180
720


Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the
examination hall.



Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the
invigilators or the centre incharge.



Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that
no question is missing.




7.

Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong
answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
1



Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen Only to completely darken the appropriate circle.

8.

If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as
shown below, otherwise leave blank.

9.





Correct Method (
)
Wrong Method ()
Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.



10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.



11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.


12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited


Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the
candidate himself/ herself.

OMR 

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019


Corporate Office :  CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota
(Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575

dlp@allen.ac.in

www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
TOPIC : Work, Energy & Power, Circular Motion, Magnetic effect of current and
Magnetism.
1.

In one dimensional case, the relationship between


force and position is shown in the figure. The
work done by the force in displacing a body from
x = 1 cm to x = 5 cm is :-

1.


 
x = 1  
x = 5 
:-

2.

 

FORCE (IN DYNE)

20
10

20
10
0

10

4 5

(1) 20 ergs
(2) 60 ergs
(3) 70 ergs
(4) 700 ergs
A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass
M by a distance d with constant downward
acceleration

3.
4.

5.

4 5


X (
)

20

(1) 20 
(3) 70 
2.

d
4

(2) 3Mg

d
4

0999DMD310318004

g
M 

4

:

d
4

(1) Mg

d
4

(3) –3Mg

(4) Mgd

When work is done on a body by an external


force, its :(1) Only kinetic energy increases
(2) Only potential energy increases
(3) Both kinetic and potential energies may increase
(4) Sum of kinetic and potential energies remains
constant
The same retarding force is applied to stop a train.
The train stops after 80 m. If the speed is doubled,
then the stopping distance will be :(1) The same
(2) Doubled
(3) Halved
(4) Four times
A bomb of 12 kg explodes into two pieces of
masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of 8 kg mass
is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of the other mass
is :(1) 48 J
(2) 32 J
(3) 24 J
(4) 288 J

(2) 60 
(4) 700 

d 

g
. Work done by the cord on the
4

block is :-

(3) –3Mg

X (in cm)

20

(1) Mg

10

3.

4.

5.

(2) 3Mg

d
4

d
4

(4) Mgd


:
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 

80 

:
(2) 
(1) 
(3)  (4) 
12 
4 
8 

8 
6 
:(1) 48 
(2) 32 
(3) 24 
(4) 288 
LTS-1/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
6.

7.

How much work does a pulling force of 40 N do


on the 20 kg box in pulling it 8 m across the
smooth floor at a constant speed. The pulling
force is directed at 60° above the horizontal :(1) 160 J

(2) 277 J

(3) 784 J

(4) None of the above

A body of mass 2 kg slides down a curved track


which is quadrant of a circle of radius 1 meter as
shown in figure. All the surfaces are frictionless.
If the body starts from rest, its speed at the bottom
of the track is :-

6.

7.

20 kg 
40 N

8 m
60° 
:
(1) 160 

(2) 277 

(3) 784 

(4) 

 2 kg 1 m 


:
1m

1m
1m
1m

8.

(1) 4.43 m/sec

(2) 2 m/sec

(3) 0.5 m/sec

(4) 19.6 m/sec


A light and a heavy body have equal kinetic
energy. Which one has a greater momentum :-

8.

(1) The light body

(4) 19.6 m/sec



:-

(3) 

(4) It is not possible to say anything without


additional information
A motor boat is travelling with a speed of 3.0 m/sec.
If the force on it due to water flow is 500 N,
the power of the boat is :-

(4) 
9.

3.0 m/s 



500 N 


:-

(1) 150 kW

(2) 15 kW

(1) 150 kW

(2) 15 kW

(3) 1.5 kW

(4) 150 W

(3) 1.5 kW

(4) 150 W

An electric motor exerts a force of 40 N on a cable


and pulls it by a distance of 30 m in one minute.
The power supplied by the motor is :(1) 20 W

11.

(3) 0.5 m/sec

(2) 

(3) Both have equal momentum


10.

(2) 2 m/sec

(1) 

(2) The heavy body

9.

(1) 4.43 m/sec

(2) 200 W (3) 2 W

(1) Lorry will come to rest in a shorter distance


(2) Car will come to rest in a shorter distance
(3) Both come to rest in a same distance

LTS-2/36


40 N 

30 m 

:(1) 20 W

(4) 10 W

A lorry and a car moving with the same K.E. are


brought to rest by applying the same retarding
force, then :-

(4) None of the above

10.

11.

(2) 200 W (3) 2 W

(4) 10 W



:
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
12.

At a curved path of the road, the road bed is raised


a little on the side away from the centre of the
curved path. If maximum safe speed is v and
radius of curvature of the path is r, then the slope
of the road is given by :(1) tan  =

v2 g
r

r
(3) tan  = gv 2
13.

(2) tan  =

rg
v2

13.

14.

15.

(3)

mv 2
r2

(4)

r2
(1) r
1

(2)

 r1 
(3)  
 r2 
16.


:-

g

0999DMD310318004

(4)

14.

(1)
mv 2
 r
r

(2) 

(3)

mv 2
r2

(4)

(1) 1 : 1
15.

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 4 : 1


r1 r2 


:

2g

r 2
mv 2

 P, a 
v

C 
AB 

B 
P  A C 

:-

(1)

A sphere is suspended by a thread of length .


What minimum horizontal velocity has to be
imparted to the sphere for it to reach the height
of the suspension :(2) 2g
(1) g
(3)

m 
r 
v


r2
r1

 r2 
(4)  
 r1 

v2
(4) tan  =
rg

         

r 2
mv 2

A particle P is moving in a circle of radius 'a' with


a uniform speed v. C is the centre of the circle
and AB is a diameter. When passing through B
the angular velocity of P about A and C are in the
ratio :(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
Two particles of equal masses are revolving in
circular paths of radii r1 and r2 respectively with
the same speed. The ratio of their centripetal
forces is :-

rg
v2

mv 2
r

(2) Zero

(2) tan  =




is the work done by this force in moving the body


over half the circumference of the circle :mv
 r
r

v2g
r

r
(3) tan  = gv 2

mv 2
and is directed towards the centre. What
r

(1)

 
        

v    
r 
        
:(1) tan  =

v2
(4) tan  =
rg

A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius


r with a constant speed v. The force on the body
is

12.

r2
r1

(2)

 r1 
(3)  
 r2 
16.

r2
r1

 r2 
(4)  
 r1 

 




:(1) g
(3)

g

(2) 2g
(4)

2g
LTS-3/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
17.

A block of mass m at the end of a string is whirled


round in a vertical circle of radius R. The critical
speed of the block at the top of its swing below
which the string would slacken before the block
reaches the top is :(1) Rg

18.

(2) (Rg)2

(3) R/g

(1)

3
r
2

(2)

(1) Rg
18.

(2) (Rg)2

2
r
3

(3)

1 2
gt
2

(4)

(1)
19.

3
r
2

(2)

2
r
3

(3)

1 2
gt
2

(4)

v2
2g


µ :

mv 2
  mg
(4)
r

20.

(1)

mv 2
  mg
r

(2)

mv 2
  mg
r

(3)

v
 g
r

(4)

mv 2
  mg
r

v
 r 


P  Q 

(POQ = 40°) :P

 = 40°
Rg

:

v2
2g

A particle is moving on a circular path of radius


r with uniform speed v. The magnitude of change
in velocity when the particle moves from P to Q
is :(POQ = 40°)

(4)



For a body moving in a circular path, a condition


for no skidding if µ is the coefficient of friction,
is :mv 2
mv 2


mg
  mg
(1)
(2)
r
r

(3) R/g

m 
r 



v
(3)   g
r
20.

m 
R 





:-

Rg

A small body of mass m slides down from the top


of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of block
and hemisphere are frictionless. The height at
which the body lose contact with the surface of
the sphere is :-

19.

(4)

17.

 = 40°

v
Q

21.

(1) 2v cos 40°


(2) 2v sin 40°
(3) 2v sin 20°
(4) 2v cos 20°
A road is 10 m wide. Its radius of curvature is
50 m. The outer edge is above the lower edge by
a distance of 1.5 m. this road is most suited for
the velocity :(1) 2.5 m/s
(2) 4.5 m/s
(3) 6.5 m/s
(4) 8.5 m/s

LTS-4/36

21.

(1) 2v cos 40°

(2) 2v sin 40°

(3) 2v sin 20°

(4) 2v cos 20°

10 m 
50 m 
1.5 m 


:(1) 2.5 m/s
(2) 4.5 m/s

(3) 6.5 m/s

(4) 8.5 m/s

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
22.

The figure shows three long straight wires P, Q


and R carrying currents normal to the plane of
the paper. All three currents have the same
magnitude. which arrow best shows the direction
of the resultant force on the wire P :-

22.


P,
Q  R 


P 
:-

23.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Two circular coils X and Y, having equal number
of turns, carry equal currents in the same sense
and subtend same solid angle at point O. If the
smaller coil X is midway between O and Y, and
if we represent the magnetic induction due to
bigger coil Y at O as BY and that due to smaller
coil X at O as BX, then :Y

(1) A
23.

(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

X Y 


O 


X, 
Y 
O 

O 
Y 
BY X 

BX :Y

2r

2r

d/2

d/2

24.

BY
(1) B  1
X

BY
(2) B  2
X

BY
(1) B  1
X

BY
(2) B  2
X

BY 1
(3) B  2
X

BY 1
(4) B  4
X

BY 1
(3) B  2
X

BY 1
(4) B  4
X

A cylindrical conductor of radius 'R' carries a


current 'i'. The value of magnetic field at a point
which is R/4 distance inside from the surface is
10T. Find the value of magnetic field at point
which is 4R distance outside from the surface :(1)

25.

4
T
3

(2)

8
T
3

(3)

40
T
3

(4)

80
T
3

Due to a small magnet, intensity at a distance x


in the end on position is 9 gauss. What will be
the intensity at a distance
position :(1) 9 gauss
(3) 36 gauss
0999DMD310318004

x
on broad side on
2

(2) 4 gauss
(4) 4.5 gauss

24.

'i'
 'R' 
R/4 


10 
4R 
:(1)

25.

4
T
3

(2)

8
T
3

(3)

40
T
3

(4)

80
T
3

x 


x
2


9 


:(1) 9 

(2) 4 
(3) 36 

(4) 4.5 

LTS-5/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
26.

A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into an


arc of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at the
centre; then the new magnetic moment is :-

26.


M 

60° 
:

60°

27.

 2M 
(1) 

  

M
(2)  
 

 2M 
(1) 

  

M
(2)  
 

3 3M 
(3)   

 3M 
(4) 

  

3 3M 
(3)   

 3M 
(4) 

  

The ratio of magnetic moments of two bar


magnets is 13 : 5. These magnets held together
in a vibration magnetometer oscillate with 15
oscillations per minute in earth's magnetic field
with like poles together. what will be the
frequency of oscillation of system if unlike poles
are together :(1) 10 oscillations/min (2) 15 oscillations/min
(3) 12 oscillations/min (4)

28.

(3) 12 
28.

(4) 0.65 G

(4)
O

29.

(3)

The angle of dip at a certain place on earth is 60°


and the magnitude of earth's horizontal
component of magnetic field is 0.26 G. The
magnetic field at the place on earth is :(1) 0.13 G
(2) 0.26 G
(3) 0.52 G

(4)
O

(2)
O

M
(3)

75

13


:-

(1)
O

(4)

(2)
O

13 : 5



15 



:(1) 10  (2) 15 

(1)

LTS-6/36

27.

75
oscillations/min
13

A curve between magnetic moment and


temperature of magnet is :M

29.

60°

60°  


 
0.26 G 


:(1) 0.13 G

(2) 0.26 G

(3) 0.52 G

(4) 0.65 G

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
30.

31.

A and B are two conductors carrying a current


i in the same direction. x and y are two electron
beams moving in the same direction :-

A 
B 
i 

x y 
:

B
x
y

B
x
y

(1) There will be repulsion between A and B


attraction between x and y

(1) A 
B 
x 
y  

(2) There will be attraction between A and B,


repulsion between x and y

(2) A B  


x y  

(3) There will be repulsion between A and B and


also x and y

(3) A 
B 
x 
y 

(4) There will be attraction between A and B and


also x and y

(4) A 
B 
x 
y 

An electron enters the space between the plates


of a charged capacitor as shown. The charge
density on the plate is . Electric intensity in the
space between the plates is E. A uniform magnetic
field B also exists in that space perpendicular to
the direction of E. The electron moves


perpendicular to both E and B without any
change in direction. The time taken by the
electron to travel a distance  is the space is :-

+


(1)  B
0
32.

30.

×
×

B
(2)  
0

+

×
×








31.




E 

E 
B


 

:
+

+

(3)

0 B

(4)


(1)  B
0

0
B

What is the net force on the rectangular coil :-

32.

1A

×
×

B
(2)  
0

+

×
×

+

(3)

0 B

(4)

10 cm
15 cm

2cm

2A
1A

15 cm

2cm

(1) 25 × 10–7 N towards wire

(1) 25 × 10–7 N, 

(2) 25 × 10–7 N away from wire

(2) 25 × 10–7 N, 

(3) 35 × 10–7 N towards wire

(3) 35 × 10–7 N, 

(4) 35 × 10–7 N away from wire

(4) 35 × 10–7 N, 

0999DMD310318004

 0
B


:-

10 cm
2A

E B 


LTS-7/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

A particle of mass 'm' and carrying a charge 'q'


enters with a velocity 'v' perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field. The time period of
rotation of the particle :(1) Decreases with increase of velocity v
(2) Increases with increase of radius of the orbit
(3) Depends only on magnetic field
(4) Depends on magnetic field and (q/m) of the
particle
A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J/T lies
aligned with the direction of a uniform magnetic
field of 0.22 T. What is the amount of work
requried by an external torque to turn the magnet
so as to align its magnetic moment to
perpendicular the field direction :(1) 0.66 J
(2) 0.44 J
(3) 0.33 J
(4) None of these
In a permanent magnet at room temperature :(1) Magnetic moment of each molecule is
zero
(2) The individual molecules have non-zero
magnetic moment which are all perfectly aligned
(3) Domains are partially aligned
(4) Domains are all perfectly aligned
At a certain location in Africa, a compass points
12° West of the geographic North. The North tip
of the magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the
plane of magnetic meridian points 60° above the
horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth's
field is measured to be 0.16 G. The magnitude of
the earth's field at the location will be :(2) 0.18 × 10–4 T
(1) 0.23 × 10–4 T
(3) 0.32 × 10–4 T
(4) 0.81 × 10–4 T
Consider the two idealised systems (i) a parallel
plate capacitor with large plates and small separation
and (ii) a long solenoid of length L >> R, radius
of cross-section. In (i) E ideally treated as a
constant between plates and zero outside. In (ii)
magnetic field is constant inside the solenoid and
zero outside. These idealised assumptions,
however, contradict fundamental laws as below :(1) Case (i) contradicts Gauss' law
for
electrostatic fields
(2) Case (ii) contradicts Gauss' law for magnetic
fields
(3) Case (i) agrees with
(4) Case (ii) contradicts
LTS-8/36

 E . dl
 H . dl

33.


'm' 
'q' 

'v' 
:
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(q/m) 

34.

–1
1.5 


0.22 


:

(1) 0.66 J

(2) 0.44 J

(4) 

:(1) 
(2) 

(3) 0.33 J
35.

36.


(3) 
(4) 
     

12° 


60° 
     
0.16 
:

(1) 0.23 × 10–4 T


(3) 0.32 × 10–4 T
(2) 0.18 × 10–4 T
(4) 0.81 × 10–4 T

= 0.


(i) 

(ii)   
L >> R
(i) 
E   


(ii) 


:(1) (i) 

(2) (ii) 

(3) (i)  E . dl = 0 

= Ien

(4) (ii)

37.

 H . dl

= Ien 

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
38.

39.

A uniform magnetic field parallel to the plane of


paper, existed in space initially direction from left
to right. When a bar of soft iron is placed in the
field parallel to it, the lines of force passing
through it will be represented by figure :-

38.







:-

(1)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

The variation of magnetic susceptibility () with


absolute temperature T for a ferromagnetic is
given in figure by :+ve

39.



:+ve

+ve

(1)

(2)
(0,0)

(0,0)
(0,0)

+ve

(3)

(4)
T

(0,0)

(0,0)

+ve

(3)

(4)
(0,0)

–ve

Two moving coil meters M1 and M2 having the


following particulars :R1 = 10, N1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 × 10–3 m2, B1 = 0.25 T
R2 = 14, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 m2, B2 = 0.50 T
(The spring constants are identical for the two
meters). Determine the ratio of voltage sensitivity
of M2 and M1.
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 1
A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm
carrying a current of 6.0 A is suspended vertically
in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of
magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines make an angle
of 60° with the normal of the coil. Calculate the
magnitude of the counter torque that must be
applied to prevent the coil from turning :(1) 4 Nm
(2) 6 Nm
(3) 3.1 Nm
(4) 2.8 Nm

0999DMD310318004


(0,0)

(2)

+ve

+ve

41.

(1)

40.

+ve

40.

41.

(0,0)

–ve

M1 M2 

:
R1 = 10, N1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 × 10–3 2, B1 = 0.25 T
R2 = 14, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 2, B2 = 0.50 

M2 M1 

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 1
30     
8.0 
6.0 
1.0 

60°




 :(2) 6 
(1) 4 
(3) 3.1 
(4) 2.8 
LTS-9/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
42.

43.

44.

Biot-Savart, law indicates that the moving


electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic field
B such that :
(1) B  v
 
(2) B || v
(3) It obeys inverse cube law
(4) It is along the line joining the electron and
point of observation
In a cyclotron, a charged particle :(1) Undergoesd acceleration all the time
(2) Speeds up between the dees because of the
magnetic field
(3) Speeds up in a dee
(4) Slows down within a dee and speeds up
between dees
Which of the following figures correctly
depicts the direction of magnetic field of a
current-carrying coil ?

42.


(v)

B 
:
(1) B  v
 
(2) B || v

(3) 

(4) 
43.

44.


:
(1) 
(2) 
(dees) 

(3) (dees) 
(4) (dees) 




(1)
(1)

45.

(3)

(4)

magnetic field B = B0 kk .
(1) They have equal z-components of momenta
(2) They must have equal charges
(3) They necessarily represent a particle, antiparticle pair
(4) The chrge to mass ratio satisfy
e e
    0
 m 1  m 2

Two charged particles traverse identical helical


paths in a completely opposite sense in a uniform

LTS-10/36

(2)

(2)

I
(3)

45.

(4)

B = B0 kk 



(1) 
z-
(2)  
(3) 

(4) 
e e
    0
 m 1  m 2
0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
TOPIC : Chemical Kinetics, Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium.
46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

N2 + 3H2  2NH3

46.

N2 + 3H2  2NH3

Concentration of NH3 changes from 0.01 M to


0.04 M in 20 seconds then rate of reaction will be:

NH3 
20 
0.01 M 0.04 M 
?


(1) 1.5 × 10–3 M sec–1

(1) 1.5 × 10–3 M sec–1

(2) 0.75 × 10–3 M sec–1

(2) 0.75 × 10–3 M sec–1

(3) 2 × 10–3 M sec–1

(3) 2 × 10–3 M sec–1

(4) 3 × 10–3 M sec–1

(4) 3 × 10–3 M sec–1

The rate constant for zero order reaction is


3 × 10 –2 mol L –1 s –1. After 25 seconds if the
concentration of Reactant is 0.5M, then the
Initial concentration of the Reactant is :(1) 1.0 M

(2) 1.25 M

(3) 0.5 M

(4) 0.75 M

Which of the following is true for zero order reaction:-


47.

48.

–1


3 × 10 –2 mol L –1 s–1 
25  
0.5M


(1) 1.0 M

(2) 1.25 M

(3) 0.5 M

(4) 0.75 M

:

(1) t0.5  a

(2) t0.5  a

(1) t0.5  a

(2) t0.5  a–1

(3) t0.5  a–2

(4) none of these

(3) t0.5  a–2

(4) 

The mechanism of the reaction A + 2B  D is :

49.

A + 2B  D 
:


k
2B 
 B2 [Slow]

k
]
2B 
 B2 [

B2  A 
 D [Fast]
]
B2  A 
 D [

The rate law expression, order with respect to A,


order with respect to 'B' and overall order of
reaction are respectively :-


A 
'B'
:

(1) K[B]2, 0, 2, 2

(2) K[A]' [B]2, 1, 2, 3

(1) K[B]2, 0, 2, 2

(2) K[A]' [B]2, 1, 2, 3

(3) K[A]2, 0, 2, 2

(4) K[A]2[B]1, 1, 2, 3

(3) K[A]2, 0, 2, 2

(4) K[A]2[B]1, 1, 2, 3

The ratio of t0.75 and t0.5 for first order reaction is :-

50.


t0.75  t0.5 
:-

(1) 4 : 3

(2) 3 : 2

(1) 4 : 3

(2) 3 : 2

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 2

For the First order reaction, the half life is


5 minutes when [A] = 0.1M. If the concentration
of [A] becomes twice then half life becomes :(1) half

(2) double
(3) remains same

(4) 10 minutes

How fast the reaction is at 25°C as compared to


0°C. If the activation energy is 65 KJ :(1) 2 times

(2) 5 times

(3) 11 times

(4) 16 times

0999DMD310318004

51.

52.

 
[A] = 0.1M  5 
A 

:(1)  (2) 
(3) 
(4) 10 
0°C 
25°C 
65 KJ 
:
(1) 2 
(2) 5 
(3) 11 
(4) 16 
LTS-11/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
53.

When temperature is increased from 27°C to 127°C,


rate of reaction becomes doubled then Ea will be ?
(1) 1.66 KCal.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

(3)

1
3

27°C  127°C 


Ea 
?

(1) 1.66 KCal.

54.

55.

= K[A]p [B]q


:

56.

(1) (a+b)

(2) (p+q)

(3) (a–b)

(4) (p–q)



1
a

t

(2)

(2) 3.32 KCal.

(3) 5.33 KCal.


(4) 6.64 KCal.

2P + Q  R  R   
P 
Q 
 0.5 
: 
(1) 
(2) 0.5 
(3) 1 
0.5 
(4) 1.5 

aA + bB  P 

n 1

then the order of reaction is :(1) n–1


(2) n + 1
(3) n
(4) n – 2
If in a certain reaction, two different reactants take
part then:(1) the reaction cannot be of second order
(2) the reaction cannot be of first order
(3) the molecularity of the reaction cannot be one
(4) the molecularity of the reaction cannot be two
The rate of the reaction becomes twice when the
concentration of reactant becomes 8 times then the
order of the reaction is:(1) 3

59.

(2) 3.32 KCal.

(3) 5.33 KCal.


(4) 6.64 KCal.
For the reaction 2P + Q  R. If the rate of
appearance of R is 0.5 mol/L-hour then the rate
of disappearance of P and Q are :(1) equal
(2) 0.5 mol/L-hour
(3) 1 mol/L-hour and 0.5 mol/L-hour
(4) 1.5 mol/L-hour
The rate law expression for the reaction
aA + bB  P is
rate = K [A]p [B]q
The order of the reaction is :(1) (a+b)
(2) (p+q)
(3) (a–b)
(4) (p–q)
For a certain reaction the expression for half life is

t

53.

1
a

n 1

:
(1) n–1
(3) n
57.

58.

1
2



:(1) 
(2) 
(3)  
(4)  
8     
   


:(1) 3

(3)

(4) 1

(2) n + 1
(4) n – 2

1
3

(2)

1
2

(4) 1

rate constant of reaction will be:-

   


20 
0.4 M  0.1 M 
:

(1) 0.693 min–1

(2) 6.93 min–1

(1) 0.693 min–1

(2) 6.93 min–1

(3) 0.0693 min–1

(4) 69.3 min–1

(3) 0.0693 min–1


(4) 69.3 min–1

In a first order reaction concentration of reactant


decreased from 0.4 M to 0.1 M in 20 minutes then

LTS-12/36

59.

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
60.

then the value of rate constant will be :-


30 
0.1 M 

:

(1) 0.666 M–1 min–1

(2) 0.333 M–1 min–1

(1) 0.666 M–1 min–1

(2) 0.333 M–1 min–1

(3) 0.444 M–1 min–1

(4) 0.555 M–1 min–1

(3) 0.444 M–1 min–1

(4) 0.555 M–1 min–1

The half life for second order reaction is

60.

30 minutes. If the initial concentration is 0.1 M

61.

Which of the following reaction will have

61.

fractional order for A2 or B2 ?


(1) A2  A + A (fast)
A + B2  AB + B (slow)
A + B  AB (fast)
(2) A2  C (slow)
C + B2  D (fast)
D + A2  Products
(3) B2  B + B (fast)
A2 + B  AB + A (slow)
AB  Products
(4) Both (1) and (3)
62.

The

rate

constant

of
the

reaction

2H2O2(aq)  2H2O(aq) + O2(g) is 3 × 10 min .

3 × 10–3 min–1
H2O2 


At what concentration of H 2 O 2, the rate of


2 × 10–4 M s–1 

–3

–4

reaction will be 2 × 10 M s

63.

62.

–1

–1

(1) 6.67 × 10–3 M

(2) 2 M

(3) 4 M

(4) 0.05 M

(1) 6.67 × 10–3 M

(2) 2 M

(3) 4 M

(4) 0.05 M

reaction towards the product :-


 

I2(g)  2I(g)

I2(g)  2I(g)

Which of the following change will shift the


63.

Hr°(298 K) = +150 kJ

Hr°(298 K) = +150 kJ

(1) increase in concn. of I

(1) I  

(2) decrease in concn. of I2

(2) I2  


(3) 

(3) increase in temperature


64.

A2 B2

?

)
(1) A2  A + A (
A + B2  AB + B (
)
A + B  AB (
)
)
(2) A2  C (
)
C + B2  D (
D + A2  
(3) B2  B + B (
)
A2 + B  AB + A (
)
AB  
(4) (1) 
(3)
2H2O2(aq)  2H2O(aq) + O2(g) 


(4) increase in total pressure


Two reactions of the same order have equal
Pre-exponential factors but their activation
energies differ by 24.9 kJ/mol. Calculate the ratio

 K2 
between the rate constants  K  of these
 1

(4) 
64.


24.9 kJ/mol


 K2 



27°C 

K 

(1) 3 × 104

1
(3)
× 104
3

0999DMD310318004

–4

(4) 3 × 10

:-

reactions at 27°C :-

1
(2)
× 10–4
3

(1) 3 × 104
(3)

1
× 104
3

(2)

1
× 10–4
3

(4) 3 × 10–4

LTS-13/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
65.

Then the units of rate constant is:-

10% 
1 

20% 
2 

30% 
3 

:-

(1) hour–1

(2) mol L–1 sec–1

–1
(1) 

(2) –1 –1

(3) L mol–1 sec–1

(4) mol L sec–1

–1 –1
(3) 


–1
(4) 

For a certain reaction, 10% of the reactant

65.

dissociates in 1 hour, 20% of the reactant dissociate


in 2 hour, 30% of the reactant dissociates in 3 hour.

66.

67.

The reaction A  P follows first order kinetics.

66.

The percentage of A left after 3 half lives is


A 
-

(1) 6.25
(1) 6.25

(2) 12.5

(3) 50

(4) 75

The degree of dissociation of first order reaction

67.

is :

68.

(3) 50

(1) e–kt

(2) a0e–kt

(3) 1 – e+kt

(4) 1 – e–kt

(3) 1 – e+kt

(4) 1 – e–kt

Equilibrium constant (Kc) of 2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g)

68.

(4) 75




(2) a0e–kt

2HI (g)  H 2(g) + I 2(g)    

is 5 × 103. What is the equilibrium concentration

Kc = 5 × 103 
HI  

of HI, if equilibrium concentrations of H2(g)

H2(g) 
I2(g) 
2.2 × 10–2 M

and I 2(g) respectively are 2.2 × 10 –2 M and

2.2 × 10–4 M 


(1) 1.11 × 10–5 M
(1) 1.11 × 10–5 M
–5

(2) 2.22 × 10

(2) 2.22 × 10–5 M

M
(3) 3.11 × 10–5 M

(3) 3.11 × 10–5 M

(4) 6.66 × 10–5 M

(4) 6.66 × 10–5 M


In which of the following equilibrium, change in

69.



volume of the system does not alter the number


:-

of moles ?

(1) N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g)

(1) N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g)

(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

70.

(2) 12.5

(1) e–kt

2.2 × 10–4 M ?

69.

A  P 

(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

(4) SO2Cl2(g)  SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

(4) SO2Cl2(g)  SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

The equilibrium constant Kp for the following


reaction at 191°C is 1.24. What is the value of Kc?
70.

191°C 
Kp 1.24 
Kc 



3
B(s) + F2(g)  BF3(g)
2
(1) 6.7

(2) 0.61

(3) 8.3

(4) 7.6

LTS-14/36

B(s) +

3
F  BF3(g)
2 2(g)

(1) 6.7

(2) 0.61

(3) 8.3

(4) 7.6

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
71.

For the reaction H2(g) + CO2(g)  CO(g) + H2O(g).

71.

If the initial concentration of [H2] = [CO2] = 1M


and x mol/L of hydrogen is consumed at equilibrium
then the correct expression of Kp is :-

1  x 

(2)

x2
(4)
1  x2

x2

(3)
72.

73.

74.

1  x 
2
1  x 

2  x 

For the reaction ; 2A(g)+ B(g)  3C(g) + D(g) two


moles each of A and B were taken into one litre
flask. The following must always be true when
the system attains equilibrium:(1) [A] = [B]
(2) [A] < [B]
(3) [B] = [C]
(4) [A] > [B]


AB3(g) is dissociates as AB3(g)  AB2(g)+ B2(g)
2

(1) 1  x 2
 

(3)
72.

2  x 

2
(4)

x2
1  x2


2A(g)+ B(g)  3C(g) + D(g); 
A 
B




:(1) [A] = [B]
(3) [B] = [C]

73.

(2) [A] < [B]


(4) [A] > [B]


AB3(g)  AB2(g)+ B2(g)
AB3(g) 
2

when the initial pressure of AB3 is 800 torr and


the total pressure at equilibrium is 900 torr.
What fraction of AB3(g) is dissociated:-


AB3 
800 

900 
AB3(g) 
 
:-

(1) 10%
(3) 25%

(1) 10%
(3) 25%

(2) 20%
(4) 30%

For the reaction; 3X(g)+ Y(g)  X 3Y(g), the


amount of X3Y at equilibrium is affected by:-

74.

(2) Pressure only


(3) Temperature only
(4) Temperature, pressure and catalyst
For the reaction; PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) +Cl2(g) the
forward reaction at constant temperature is not
75.

favoured by:(1) Introducing chlorine gas at constant volume


(2) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure
(3) Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
(4) Increasing the volume of the container
76.

(2)

x2

(1) Temperature and pressure

75.

1  x 
2
1  x 

x2

x2

(1)

H2(g) + CO2(g)  CO(g) + H2O(g) 




[H2
] = [CO2] = 1M  
x 
/L H2 
Kp 

:-

At 90°C pure water has H3O+ = 10–6 mol litre–1.


The value of Kw at 90°C is :-

76.

(2) 20%
(4) 30%


3X(g)+ Y(g)  X3Y(g) 
 X3Y 
:(1)  
(2) 
(3) 
(4) , 
PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) +Cl2(g)   

       
:
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
PCl5 
(4) 
90°C  H3O+ = 10–6 
90°C  Kw 
:-

(1) 10–6

(2) 10–12

(1) 10–6

(2) 10–12

(3) 10–14

(4) 10–8

(3) 10–14

(4) 10–8

0999DMD310318004

LTS-15/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

Which is the strongest acid (pka value is given)?

77.

(1) HCOOH [3.77]

(1) HCOOH [3.77]

(2) C6H5COOH [4.22]

(2) C6H5COOH [4.22]

(3) CH3COOH [4.7]

(3) CH3COOH [4.7]

(4) CH3CH2COOH [4.88]

(4) CH3CH2COOH [4.88]

–6

If a solution of 10 M HCl is diluted 100 times,


the pH of solution is :-

78.

 10–6 M HCl 


100 

pH :-

(1) 8

(2) 6

(1) 8

(2) 6

(3) 6.96

(4) 7.04

(3) 6.96
(4) 7.04

Which of the following mixture of solution can


function as a buffer solution ?

79.


?

(1) 50 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 ml of 0.1 M


NaOH

(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 mL of 0.1 M


NaOH

(2) 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl + 50 ml of 0.2 M NaOH

(2) 50 mL of 0.2 M HCl + 50 mL of 0.2 M NaOH

(3) 50 ml of 0.2 M NH3 + 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl

(3) 50 mL of 0.2 M NH3 + 50 mL of 0.2 M HCl

(4) 50 ml of 0.2 M NH3 + 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl

(4) 50 mL of 0.2 M NH3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl

The pH of an acidic buffer mixture is :(1) > 7


(2) < 7
(3) = 7
(4) Depends upon Ka of acid

80.

Which of the following sets of concentrations will cause

81.

:pH 
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

>7
<7
=7

the precipitation of ZnCl2 (Ksp = 1.2 × 10–12M3) ?

Ka 
ZnCl2 


(Ksp = 1.2 × 10–12M3)

(1) [Zn2+] = 10–8 M ; [Cl–] = 10–8 M


(1) [Zn2+] = 10–8 M ; [Cl–] = 10–8 M

(2) [Zn2+] = 10–5 M ; [Cl–] = 10–4 M

(2) [Zn2+] = 10–5 M ; [Cl–] = 10–4 M

(3) [Zn2+] = 10–6 M ; [Cl–] = 10–5 M

(3) [Zn2+] = 10–6 M ; [Cl–] = 10–5 M

(4) [Zn2+] = 10–5 M ; [Cl–] = 10–3 M

(4) [Zn2+] = 10–5 M ; [Cl–] = 10–3 M

solution, find the solubility of the salt :-


8 × 10–5 
80% 

:

(1) 1.7 × 10–4 M

(2) 2.3 × 10–6 M

(1) 1.7 × 10–4 M

(2) 2.3 × 10–6 M

(3) 1.8 × 10–4 M

(4) 3.4 × 10–2 M

(3) 1.8 × 10–4 M

(4) 3.4 × 10–2 M

The solubility product of lead bromide is

82.

8 × 10–5. If the salt is 80% dissociated in saturated

83.

(pka 
)?


Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Mn+2, Ni+2, Cu+2


and Hg2+ ions in an acidified aqueous solution
precipitates :(1) CuS and HgS
(2) MnS and CuS
(3) MnS and NiS
(4) NiS and HgS

LTS-16/36
83.

Hg2+ 
 Mn+2, Ni+2, Cu+2 

H2S 

:
(1) CuS 
HgS
(2) MnS 
CuS
(3) MnS 
NiS
(4) NiS 
HgS

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
84.

85.

The degree of hydrolysis of which salt is


independent of the concentration of salt
solution ?
(1) CH3COONa

(2) NH4Cl

(3) CH3COONH4

(4) NaCl

Calculate the percentage hydrolysis of NaOCN in


its 0.003M aqueous solution :-

84.

85.

87.

88.

(3) CH3COONH4

(4) NaCl

0.003M NaOCN
NaOCN 
(HOCN 
Ka = 3.33 × 10–4 M)

(2) 10–4%

(1) 0.01%

(2) 10–4%

(3) 1%

(4) 10–3%

(3) 1%

(4) 10–3%

The correct formula to calculate the hydroxyl ion


concentration of an aqueous solution of NH4NO3 is:-

86.

NH4NO3 

:-
(1)

C  Kw
Kb

(2)

K w  Kb
C

(1)

C  Kw
Kb

(2)

K w  Kb
C

(3)

C  KW
Ka

(4)

Ka  K W
C

(3)

C  KW
Ka

(4)

Ka  K W
C

The volume of the water needed to dissolve 1g


of BaSO4 (Ksp = 1.1×10–10) at 25°C is:-

87.

25°C  1 


BaSO4 

? (Ksp = 1.1×10–10)

(1) 820 litre

(2) 410 litre

(1) 820 

(2) 410 

(3) 205 litre


(4) None of these

(3) 205 

(4) 

50 mL of 2N acetic acid mixed with 10 mL of 1N


sodium acetate solution will have an approximate
pH of (Ka = 10–5):(2) 5

(3) 6

88.

From the following 0.1 M solution of compound,

2N 50 
1N 
10 
pH

–5
(Ka = 10 ):
(1) 4

(4) 7
89.

will be basic in nature :-

90.

(2) NH4Cl

(1) 0.01%

(1) 4
89.

(1) CH3COONa



(Ka for HOCN = 3.33 × 10–4 M)

86.




(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 7

0.1 M 


:-

(1) NH4Cl

(2) CH3COONa

(1) NH4Cl

(2) CH3COONa

(3) Na2SO4

(4) CH3COONH4

(3) Na2SO4

(4) CH3COONH4

150 mL of 0.0008 M ammonium sulphate is mixed

90.

150 0.0008 M 


50 

with 50 mL of 0.04 M calcium nitrate. The ionic

0.04 M 
CaSO4

product of CaSO4 will be:-

:

(KSP= 2.4 × 10–5 for CaSO4)

(CaSO4  KSP= 2.4 × 10–5)

(1) < KSP

(2) > KSP

(1) < KSP

(2) > KSP

(3)  KSP

(4) None of these

(3)  KSP

(4) 

0999DMD310318004

LTS-17/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
TOPIC : Genetics-I : Principles of Inheritance and variation, Biology in Human
Welfare : Microbes in human
welfare, Biotechnology : Biotechnology and Its Applications.
91.

92.

93.

Man of blood group 'A' marries with a woman of


blood group 'B', and have sufficiently large number
of children, these children could be classified as
A, B, AB and O blood group in ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.
The presence of AB blood group individual is due
to :-

91.

vkjS r ls gks tkrh g]S vkjS muds i;kZIr la[;k esa cPps gksrs
ga]S vkSj bu cPpksa dks ,sls oxhZd`r fd;k tk ldrk gS A,
B, AB rFkk O jDr lewgksa dk vuqikr 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 gAS
AB jDr lewg O;f"V;ks dh mifLFkfr dk dkj.k gS :-

(1) Incomplete dominance

(1) viw.kZ izHkkfork

(2) Codominance

(2) lg izHkkfork

(3) Complete dominance

(3) iw.kZ izHkkfork

(4) Partial dominance

(4) vkaf'kd izHkkfork

Which of the following is not an example of


nuclear inheritance :-

92.

fuEu esa ls dkuS &lk y{k.k daæs dh; oa'kkxkfr dk mnkgj.k ugha
gS :-

(1) Male sterility in maize plant

(1) eDdk ds ikS/ks esa uj ca/;rk

(2) Eye colour in Drosophila

(2) MªkslksfQyk esa vka[kksa dk jax

(3) Sickle cell Anaemia in human

(3) ekuo esa nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk


(4) Flower colour in pea plant

(4) eVj ds ikS/ks esa iq"iksa dk jax

The klinefelter's syndrome in human being is due


to :-

93.

izfrfyfi gksus ls
(2) eknk ds 23 osa Øksekslkse ij ,d vfrfjDr X-Øksekslkse

(2) The presence of an addition copy of


X-chromosome at 23rd chromosome number
of female.
(3) The absence of the X-chromosome at 23
chromosome number of female

dh izfrfyfi gksus ls
(3) eknk ds 23 osa Øksekslkse ij ,d X-Øksekslkse ds vuqifLFkr

rd

gksus ls
(4) uj ds 23 osa Øksekslkse ij ,d X-Øksekslkse ds vuqifLFkr

(4) The absence of the X-chromosome at 23 rd


chromosome number of male
When a tall plant with round seed (TTRR) is
crossed with a dwarf plant with wrinkled seed
(ttrr), F 1 generation consist of tall plant with
rounded seed. How many plants are dwarf in F2
generation :-

ekuoksa esa DykbuQsYVj flaMªkse gksus dk dkj.k gS :(1) uj ds 23 osa Øksekslkse


ij ,d vfrfjDr X-Øksekslkse dh

(1) The presence of an additional copy of


X-chromosome at 23rd chromosome number
of male

94.

'A' jDr lewg okys vkneh dh 'kknh 'B' jDr lewg okyh

gksus ls
94.

tc ,d yEcs o xksy cht (TTRR) okys ik/S ks dk ØkWl ckuS s


o >qjhZnkj cht (ttrr) okys ik/S ks ls djk;k tkrk gS rks F1 ih<+h
esa yEcs o xksy cht okys ik/S ks curs gS rks F2 ih<+h esa ckuS s ik/S ks
fdrus gksaxs :-

(1) 12

(1) 12

(2) 4
(2) 4

(3) 6

(3) 6

(4) 1

(4) 1

LTS-18/36

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
95.

Which of the following characteristic represent


'Inheritance' of blood group in humans:-

95.

(a) ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene


I.

(a) ABO :f/kj oxksZa dk fu;a=.k thu I djrh gS


(b) yky :f/kj dksf'kdkvksa dh IykTek f>Yyh esa lrg ls

(b) Plasma membrane of the red blood cells has


amino polymers that protrude from its surface.

ckgj fudyrs gq, vehuks vEyksa ds cgqyd gksrs gS


(c) thu I ds rhu vFkkZr~ IA, IB vkjS i gksrs g]S izR;sd f}xqf.kr

(c) The gene I has three alleles i.e. IA, IB and i.


Each diploid person possesses all three alleles
of gene I.

O;fDr esa I thu ds lHkh rhu izdkj ds vyhy gksrs gaS


(d) thu I ds rhu vyhyksa dk vkB fofHkUu izdkj ds la;ksx

(d) There are eight different possible combinations


of three alleles of gene I.

laHko gS
(e) AB jDr lewg okys i=
S dksa dh 'O' jDr lewg okyh lUrku

(e) 'O' blood group is not possible in the progeny


of 'AB' blood group parents.

96.

97.

fuEu esa ls dkuS lk vfHkyk{kf.kd xq.k euq";ksa esa jDr lewg


ds oa'kkxfr dks iznf'kZr djrk gS :-

laHko ugha gAS

(1) only a and e

(1) dsoy a vkjS e

(2) only b, c and d

(2) dsoy b, c vkjS d

(3) only b and d

(3) dsoy b vkjS d

(4) only a , c and e


(4) dsoy a , c vkjS e

Study the pedigree chart given below :-

96.

uhps fn;s tk jgs oa'kkoyh pkVZ dk v/;;u dhft, :-

What does it show :

;g pkVZ D;k n'kkZrk gS :

(1) Inheritance of phenylketonuria

(1) fQukby dhVksuwfj;k dh oa'kkxfr

(2) Inheritance of colourblindness

(2) o.kkZaZ/krk dh oa'kkxfr

(3) Inheritance of myotonic dystrophy

(3) ek;ksVksfud nq"iks"k.k dh oa'kkxfr

(4) Inheritance of hypertrichosis

(4) gkbijVªkbdksfll dh oa'kkxfr

Choose the correct statement about colour


blindness :(1) It is Y linked recessive disorder. It is due to
mutation in certain genes present in the
Y-chromosome
(2) Defect occurs in either red or green cone of
eye resulting in failure to discriminate between
red and green colour
(3) Normally son will be colourblind if father is
colourblind
(4) All sons of a normal woman are colourblind
if she marries with colourblind man

0999DMD310318004

97.

o.kk±/krk ds ckjs esa lgh dFku dks pqfu, :(1) ;g ,d Y lgyXu vizHkkoh fodkj gS ;g Y-
Øksekslkse

ds Åij mifLFkr dqN thuksa esa mRifjorZu ls gksrh gS


(2) ;g fodkj yky vFkok gjs o.kZ laosnh 'kadq ds =qfViw.kZ

gksus ds dkj.k gksrk gS


(3) lkekU;r% iq= o.kk±/k tc gksxk firk o.kk±/k gks
(4) lkekU; vkjS r ds lHkh iq= o.kk±/k gksaxs ;fn og o.kk±/k iq:"k

ls 'kknh djrh gS
LTS-19/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
98.

Match the coloumn I with column II :-

Column-I

98.

Column-II

dkWye I dks dkWye II ls feyku dfj;s :-

dkW y e-I

dkW y e-II

Monohybrid
a
test cross

Rr ® Both allele
expressed themselves
fully

Dihybrid test
cross

1 :1

c viw.kZ izHkkfork

Rr ® e/;orhZ y{k.k

Rr ® Produce
intermediate phenotype
1 :1 :1 :1

d lgizHkkfork

1 :1 :1 :1

Incomplete
c
dominance

d Codominance s
a
b
c
d
(1) q
r
s
p
(2) q
s
r
p
(3) s
r
p
q
(4) p
q
s
r
99. Which enzyme lacks in an individual affected by
phenylketonuria :(1) Tyrosinase
(2) Adenosine deaminase
(3) Phenylalanine oxidase
(4) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
100. Which of the following statement is correct about
the diagram given below :-

(1) This disorder was first described by marshall


Nirenberg.
(2) This genetic disorder is due to the presence
of an additional copy of X-chromosome
(3) This genetic disorder is due to the presence
of an additional copy of the chromosome
number 21
(4) The affected individual is long statured with
large rounded head.

LTS-20/36

,dy ladj ijh{kkFkZ


ØkWl

b f}ladj ijh{kkFkZ ØkWl q

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

a
q
q
s
p

b
r
s
r
q

Rr ® nksuksa vyhy

iw.kZ:i ls O;Dr gksrs gS

1 :1

izk:i vkrk gS

c
s
r
p
s

d
p
p
q
r

QhukbydhVksuwfj;k jksx okys O;fDr esa dkuS ls batkbe dh


deh gks tkrh gS :(1) Vkbjkslhust
(2) ,fMuksflu Mh,ehust
(3) fQukby ,syfs uu vkWDlhMst
(4) fQukby ,syfs uu gkbMªkDs lhyst
100. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk uhps fn;s x;s] fp= ds ckjs esa lgh dFku
gS :99.

(1) bl fodkj dks loZizFke ek'kZy uhjsuoxZ us [kkstk FkkA


(2) bl vkuqokaf'kd fodkj dk dkj.k X-Øksekslkse dh ,d

vfrfjDr izfrfyfi gS
(3) bl vkuqokaf'kd fodkj dk dkj.k 21 osa Øksekslkse dh

,d vfrfjDr izfrfyfi gS
(4) jksxh O;fDr yEcs dn vkSj cM+s xksy flj dk gksrk gS

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
101. Which of the following is not an incorrect
statement about sickle cell anaemia :-

101. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku fldy lsy ,fufe;k ds ckjs esa

(1) It is an autosome linked dominant trait that


can be transmitted from parents to the off
springs

(1) ;g ,d vfyax Øksekslkse yXu izHkkoh y{k.k gS tks tudksa

(2) This disease is controlled by 3 pair of alleles

(2) bl jksx dk fu;a=.k rhu tksM+h vyhy }kjk gksrk gS

(3) Homozygous individuals with genotype


HbAHbA show the disease phenotype

(3) le;qXeth thu izk:i HbAHbA okys O;fDr;ksa dk y{k.k

(4) The defect is caused by the substitution of


glutamic acid by valine at the 6th position of
the b-globin chain of the hemoglobin
molecule disease

vlR; dFku ugha gS :ls larfr esa tkrk gS

izk:i jksx okyk gksrk gSA


(4) bl fodkj dk dkj.k gheksXyksfcu v.kq dh b-Xyksfcu

J`a[kyk dh NBh fLFkfr esa ,d vehuks vEy XywVfS ed


vEy dk ofS yu }kjk izfrLFkkiu gS

102. All of the following statements are excluded from


linkage phenamenon except :(1) The two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated
on the same chromosome, the proportion of
parental gene combinations are much lower
than non-parental combination
(2) The two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated
on the two different chromosomes and the
proportion of parental gene combinations are
much higher than the non-parental
combination.
(3) In case of complete linkage, the ratio of
dihybrid test cross is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.
(4) Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of
recombination between gene pairs on same
chromosome as a measure of the distance
between genes and mapped their position on
the chromosome.

102. fuEu esa ls ,d dks NksM+dj lHkh dFku lgyXurk ?kVuk ls

103. Which one of the following option is correct


match to symbols used in human pedigree analysis:

103. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi ekuo oa'kkoyh fo'ys"k.k esa iz;qDr
(1)

Affected male

(2)

Consanguineous mating

(3)

Monozygotic male twin

(4)

Heterozygous female for autosomal


recessive

104. How many barr bodies are visible in a cells of super


male with 47 chromosome (44 + XYY) :(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

0999DMD310318004

ckgj ds gS ml ,d dFku dks pqfu;s :(1) tc f}ladj ØkWl esa nks thu tksM+h ,d gh
Øksekslkse ij

fLFkfr gksrh gS rks tudh; thu la;kstuksa dk vuqikr


vtudh; izdkj ls dkQh de gksrk gAS
(2) tc f}ladj ØkWl dh nksuksa thu nks fHkUu Øksekslkse ij

fLFkfr gksrh gS rks tudh; thu la;kstuksa dk vuqikr


vtudh; izdkj ls dkQh vf/kd gksrk gS
(3) iw.kZ lagyXurk ds f}ladj ØkWl dk vuqikr 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

gksrk gS
(4) ,YÝsM LVVhZoaVs us ,d gh ØkWekslkse ds thu ;qXeksa dh

iqu;kst
Z u vko`fÙk dks thuksa ds chp dh nwjh dk eki ekudj
Øksekslkse esa budh fLFkfr ds fp= (jhdksEchus'ku eiS )
cuk fn;sA
izrhd ls lgh feyku gS :(1)

jksxh uj

(2)

fj'rsnkjksa ds chp fookg

(3)

,d ;qXeuth tqM+ok uj

(4)
vksVkslksey y{k.k ds fy, eknk fo"ke;qXeth

104. ,d lqijesy (vf/kuj) dh dksf'kdk esa fdrus ckj dk;


(ckj okWMh) dh la[;k gksxh ftlesa xq.klq=ksa dh la[;k 47
(44 + XYY) gS :(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

LTS-21/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
105. Why did T.H. Morgan selected the tiny fruit
flies (Drosophila Melanogaster) in his
experiment :(1) They could be grown on fresh fruit in the
laboratory
(2) They complete their life cycle in about two
years
(3) They have many types of variations that can
be seen with low power microscope
(4) They do not have any linked genes, hence they
show of independent assortment.
106. In which of the following male heterogamety
occurs in :(1) Birds
(2) Human
(3) Moths
(4) Honey bee
107. Which of the following disease is not applicable
for pedigree analysis :(1) Cystic fibrosis
(2) Sickle Cell Anaemia
(3) Thalassemia
(4) AIDS
108. Identify the chromosomal aberration from the
given below diagram :A B C DE

FGHIJ

Mutation

AE

(1) bUgsa iz;ksx'kkyk esa rkts Qyksa ij o`f¼ fd;k tk ldrk FkkA
(2) ;s viuk iwjk thou pØ nks lkyksa esa iwjk djrh Fkh
(3) buesa vkuqokaf'kd fofo/krkvksa ds vusd izdkj Fks tks de

{kerk okys ekbØksLdksi ls ns[ks tk ldrs Fks


(4) buesa fdlh Hkh izdkj dh lgyXu thu ugha gS var% os

Lora= viO;wgu ds fu;e dsk fn[kk ldrs gSA


106. fuEu esa ls fdlesa] uj fo"ke;qXedh gksrk g&
S
(1) fpfM+;ksa esa

(2) euq";ksa esa

(3) ekWFk esa

(4) e/kqefD[k;ksa esa

107. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh chekjh oa'kkoyh fo'ys"k.k ds fy, mi;qDr


ugh gS :(1) flfLVd QkbCkzksfll
(2) nk=&dksf'kdk vjDrrk
(3) Fky
S slsfe;k
(4) ,M~l
108. fups fn;s x;s fp= dks ns[kdj xq.klw=h foiFku dks igpkfu;s :A B C DE

FGHIJ

FGHIJ
(1) Tranclocation
(2) Intercalary deletion
(3) Inversion
(4) Duplication
109. From given statement A to E, which of the
following option is correct ?
(A) C.B. Bridges proposed genic balance theory
of sex determination in honey bees
(B) An unfertilised egg of honey bee develops as
a male (drone) by mean of parthenogenesis
(C) In honey bees the females are diploid having
16 chromosomes and males are haploid having
8 chromosomes
(D) In honey bees a maternal grand father can
have grandsons
(E) Due to false notion the in our society women
are blamed for giving birth to female children
and they have been ostracised and ill-treated
(1) only A,B and E
(2) only B, D and E
(3) only B and D
(4) All A, B, C, D and E

LTS-22/36

(Mªkl
s ksfQyk esyuksxLS Vj)
dks iz;ksxksa ds v/;;u ds fy, D;ksa pquk Fkk :-

105. Vh-,p- eksjxu us Qy&efD[k;ksa

Mutation

AE

FGHIJ

(1) LFkkukUrj.k
(2) vUrosZ'kh foyksiu
(3) izrhiu
(4) f}xq.ku
109. fn;s x;s A ls E rd ds dFkuksa esa ls] dkSulk fodYi lgh
gS ?
(A) lh-ch- fcztl
s us e/kqefD[k;ksa esa fyax fu/kkZj.k gsrq tfS ud

oy
S sal F;ksjh izLrqr dh
(B) e/kqefD[k;ksa esa ,d vfu"ksfpr vaM] vfu"kspd tuu
(ikFksuZ ksftusftl)}kjk iqea /kqi (uj&Mªksu)esa fodflr gksrs
gS
(C) e/kqefD[k;ksa esa eknk e/kqi f}xqf.kr gksrh gS ftlesa 16
Øksekslkse ls ;qDr gksrs gS rFkk iqea/kqi (uj) vxqf.kr eas
8 Øksekslkse gksrs gAS
(D) e/kqefD[k;ksa es ukuk gksrs gS rFkk muds nksfgrk (grandsons)
Hkh gks ldrs gS
(E) xyr /kkj.kk ds dkj.k gekjk lekt yM+dh inS k djus ds
fy, ekrk dks nks"k nsrk gS vkSj muds lkFk vusd nqO;Zogkj
djrk gS
(1) dsoy A,B and E
(2) dsoy B, D rFkk E
(3) dsoy B and D
(4) lHkh A, B, C, D vkjS E
0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
110. Which of the following statement is not incorrect
about haemophilia :(1) This is a sex-linked recessive disease, which
shows its transmission from unaffected carrier
female to all of the male progeny
(2) The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows
a number of haemophilic descendents because
queen was also haemophilic
(3) In this disease the possibility of a male becoming
a haemophilic is extremely rare.
(4) In this disease, a single protein that is a part
of the cascade of proteins involved in the
clotting of blood is affected
111. Thalassemia differes from sickle-cell anaemia :(1) It is qualitative problem
of synthesising an
incorrectly functioning globin
(2) It is a quantitative problem of synthesising too
few globin molecules
(3) It is a X-linked recessive disease
(4) It is a Y-linked dominant disease
112. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
polygenic inheritance :(1) In human polygenic traits are height and skin
colour
(2) In a polygenic trait the phenotype reflects the
contribution of each allele i.e. the effect of
each allele is additive
(3) A human genotype with all the dominant allels
(AABBCC) will have the lightest skin colour
and that with all the recessive allels (aabbcc)
will have darkest skin
(4) A human genotype with three dominant allele
and three recessive alleles will have an inter
mediate skin colour
113. In potato, genotype aabbccdd produces 50g
potatoes and AABBCCDD produces 90 gm.
potatoes what is the production of potatoes in plant
with genotype AAbbccdD :(1) 35g
(2) 65g
(3) 82.5 g
(4) 75 g
114. Which of the following human syndrome occurs
due to monosomy:(1) Down syndrome
(2) Turner's syndrome
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome
(4) Jacob's syndrome

0999DMD310318004

110. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku gheksQhfy;k ds ckjs esa xyr ugha

gS :(1) ;g ,d fyax lgyXu vçHkkoh jksx gS blesa lkekU; okgd

ukjh ls lHkh uj&larfr;ksa esa jksx dk lapkj gksrk gS


(2) egkjkuh foDVksfj;k dh oa'kkoyh esa vusd gheksQhfy;k
xzLr oa'kt Fks D;ksafd jkuh Hkh gheksfQyh;k ls xzLr Fkh
(3) bl jksx esa] uj esa gheksQhfy;k ls jksx xzLr gksus dh laHkkouk
fojy gksrh gS
(4) bl jksx esa] ,dy izksVhu tks ,d izksVhu J`a[kyk dk va'k
ek= gksrk gS tks :f/kj ds FkDdk cuus ds fy, mi;qDr gksrk
gS
111. Fky
S l
s hfe;k nk= dksf'kdk&vjDrrk ls fHkUu gS :(1) ;g jksx ,d xq.kkRed leL;k g]S ftlesa
Xyksfcu dk
la'ys"k.k fodr` gks tkrk gAS
(2) ;g jksx ,d ek=kRed leL;k gS ftlesa Xyksfcu v.kq
vR;Yi ek=k esa la'ysf"kr gksrk gS
(3) ;g ,d X-lgyXu vizHkkoh jksx gS
(4) ;g ,d y-lgyXu izHkkoh jksx gS
112. cgqthuh oa'kkxfr ds lanHkZ esa vlR; dFku dks pqfu;s :(1) euq"; dh yEckbZ rFkk
Ropk dk jax cgqthuh fo'ks"kd

(VªsV)gS
(2) cgqthuh fo'ks"kd (y{k.k)ds QhuksVkbi esa izR;sd vyhy

dk viuk ;ksxnku gksrk gS vFkkZr~ izR;sd vyhy dk izHkko


;ksxkRed gksrk gS

(3) euq";ksa esa lHkh izHkkoh vyhy (AABBCC) ds thuksVkbi

dh Ropk dk jax lcls gYdk gksxk rFkk lkjs vizHkkoh


vyhy (aabbcc) ds thuksVkbi dh Ropk dk jax lcls
xgjk gksxk
(4) euq"; esa rhu izHkkoh vyhy rFkk rhu vizHkkoh vyhy
okys thuksVkbi dh Ropk dk jax budk e/;orhZ gksxk
113. vkyw esa aabbccdd thu izHkko okyk ik/S kk 50g vkyw dk mRiknu
djrk gS rFkk AABBCCDD thu izk:i okyk iks/kk 90 gm
dk mRiknu djrk gAS thu izk:i AAbbccdD okys ikS/ks esa
vkyw dk mRiknu fdruk gksxk :(1) 35g
(3) 82.5 g

(2) 65g
(4) 75 g

114. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk fodkj eksukslkseh ds dkj.k gksrk gS :(1) Mkmu flaMªkse
(2) VuZj flaMªke
s
(3) DykbuksQsYVj flaMªkse
(4) td
S ksc flaMªkes

LTS-23/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
115. Which of the following pair is wrongly
matched ?
(1) Pleiotropy ® A single gene can exhibit multiple
phenotypic expression
(2) Polygenic trait ® Controlled by two or more
genes
(3) Multiple allele ® Found only when population
studies are made
(4) Codominance ® The phenotype of F1 is in
between both parents
116. A phenomenan which results in alternation of
DNA sequences and consequently results in
change in the genotype and phenotype of an
organism :(1) Mutaion
(2) Evolution
(3) Totipotency
(4) Eutrophication
117. In case of dog flower plant the phenotypes ratio
of monohybrid cross in F2 generation is :(1) 1:2:1
(2) 3:1
(3) 9:3:3:1
(4) 1:1
118. A normal vision woman whose father was
colourblind marries a colour blind man and give
birth to a colour blind daughter. Her husband dies
and she again marries a normal man whose father
was colourblind what is the probability of her son
having abnormality in vision :(1) 0%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 25%
119. Which law of Mendel is followed in given below
statement.
"When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid,
segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters" :(1) Law of Segregation
(2) Law of Dominance
(3) Law of Independent assortment
(4) Law of Codominance
120. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits
are known as :(1) Allele
(2) Factors
(3) Linkage
(4) X-body
121. Which of the following character has same result
in reciprocal cross :(1) Branch colour in Mirabilis
(2) Male sterility in maize
(3) Flower colour in Snapdragon
(4) Eye colour in Drosophila

LTS-24/36

115. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls tksM+s esa xyr feyku gS ?


(1) cgq i z H kkfork ® ,dy thu vus d n`' ; iz k :i

(QhuksVkbi) y{k.kksa dks izdV djrk gS


(2) cgqthuh fo'ks"kd ® nks ;k vf/kd thuksa }kjk fu;af=r
djrs gS
(3) eYVhiy vyhy ® bldh fØ;k'khyrk lef"V ds
v/;;u esa gh fn[k ldrh gS
(4) lgizHkkfork ® F1 dk QhuksVkbi nksuksa tudksa ds e/;orhZ
okyk gksrk gS
116. og fØ;k ftlesa DNA vuqØe esa cnyko yk nsrh gS blds
ifj.kkeLo:i tho ds thuksVkbi vkjS QhuksVkbi esa ifjorZu
gks tkrk gS :(1) mRifjorZu
(2) fodkl
(3) iw.kZ'kDrrk
(4) lqiks"k.k
117. 'oku iq"i ds ik/S ksa esa F2 ih<+h dk ,dladj ØkWl dk y{k.k
izk:i vuqikr D;k gksxk :(1) 1:2:1
(3) 9:3:3:1

(2) 3:1
(4) 1:1

118. ,d lkekU; n`f"V j[kus okyh vkSjr ftlds firk o.kk±/k Fks]

us ,d o.kk±/k iq:"k ls 'kknh dj ysrh gS vkSj ,d o.kk±Z/k iq=h


dks tUe nsrh gS mldk ifr ej tkrk gS vkjS og ,d lkekU;
iq:"k ftlds firk o.kkZ±/k Fks ds lkFk fQj ls 'kknh dj ysrh
gS vlekU; n`f"V j[kus okys iq=ksa dh laHkkouk D;k gksxh :(1) 0%

(2) 50%

(3) 100%

(4) 25%

119. uhps fn;k x;k dFku es.My ds dkuS ls fu;e dks izfrikfnr

djrk gS
ßtc fdlh ladj esa y{k.kksa ds nks tksM+s fy, tkrs gaS rks fdlh
,d tksM+s dk y{k.k fola;kstu nwljs tksM+s ls Lora= gksrk gÞS :(1) fola;kstu dk fu;e
(2) izHkkfor dk fu;e
(3) Lora= viO;wgu dk fu;e
(4) lgizHkkfork dk fu;e
120. fodYih foijhr y{k.kksa ds ladsrd tksM+s dks D;k dgk tkrk
gS :(1) ;qXe fodYih
(2) dkjd
(3) lgyXurk
(4) X-dk;
121. fuEu esa ls dkSu ls y{k.k ds fy, O;qRØe ØkWl dk ifj.kke
leku jgrk gS :(1) fejkfofyl esa 'kk[kkvksa dk jax
(2) eDdk esa uj cU/k;rk
(3) LusiMªxku esa iq"iksa dk jax
(4) MªkslksfQyk esa vka[kksa dk jax
0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
122. How many traits in the given below list belong
to dominant form in pea plant ?
Tall plant, terminal flower, inflated pod, axial
flower, white flowers, green seed, wrinkle seed,
yellow pod, voilet flower in pea plant .
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

122. uhps nh x;h fyLV esa ls eVj ds ik/S ks ds y{k.kksa esa ls fdrus

123. Removal of anthers or stamens is known as:-

123. ijkxdks'kks ;k iqadsljks dks gVkus dks D;k dgrs gS :-

fo'ks"kd (trait) izHkkoh :i esa gaS\


yEck ikS/kk] vR; iq"i] Qwyh gqbZ Qyh] v{kh; iq"i] lQsn
jax dk iq"i] gjh Qyh] >qjhZnkj cht] ihyh Qyh] cxaS uh iq"iA
(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 1

(1) Stratification

(2) Emasculation

(1) LrjfoU;kl

(2) foiqalu

(3) Eutrophication

(4) Bagging

(3) lqiks"k.k

(4) cksjk&oL=koj.k

124. Which of the following is an incorrect statement


about George Mendel :(1) He conducted hybridisation experiments on
garden peas from 1858 to 1865.
(2) He applied mathematical logics and statical
analysis to solve the problems of biology
(3) He confirmed his inferences from
experiments on successive generation of his
test plant
(4) He used large sampling size of his experiment
125. Select test cross representation :-

124. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku xzhxksj es.My ds ckjs esa vlR; gS :(1) 1858 ls ysdj
1865 rd m|ku eVj ds ik/S ks ij ladj.k

ds iz;ksx fd;sA
(2) mUgksus tho foKku dh leL;kvksa ds lek/kku ds fy,
xf.krh; RkdZ'kkL= rFkk lka[;dh; fo'ys"k.kksa dk mi;ksx
fd;kA
(3) mUgksus vius fu"d"kksZ dh iqf"Vdj.k vius ijh{kk/khu ik/S kksa
dh mÙkjksÙkj ihf<+;ks ij fd;s x;s iz;ksxksa }kjk dh FkhA
(4) mUgksus vius ijh{k.k esa uewuksa dh fo'kky la[;k dk iz;ksx
fd;k FkkA
125. ijh{kkFkZ ØkWl ds fu:i.k dks pqfu;s :-

(1) AaBb × AABB

(1) AaBb × AABB

(2) TtRr × TtRr

(2) TtRr × TtRr

(3) AAbb × BBaa

(3) AAbb × BBaa

(4) Aabb × aabb

(4) Aabb × aabb

126. Select correct statement :(1) Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant
varieties
(2) Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny plants
were green seeded in monohybrid croses for
seed colour
(3) Ratio of dihybrid test cross of Mendel is
7:1:1:7
(4) 8/16 progenies in F2 generation of dihybrid
cross are similar to F1 generation.
127. Who gave the chromosomal theory of
inheritance ?
(1) Hershey and chase
(2) Sutton & Boveri
(3) Meselson & Stahl
(4) Bateson & Sturtevant

0999DMD310318004

126. lgh dFku dks pqfu;s :(1) es.My us eVj dh 14 ræwi iztuuh dh fdLeksa dks pquk

FkkA
(2) es.My us ns[kk fd chtksa ds jax ds fy, djk;s x;s
,dy ladj.k esa F1 dh lHkh larfr;ksa esa gjs chtksa
okys ikS/ksa FksA
(3) es.My ds f}ladj.k ijh{kkFkZ ØkWl dk y{k.k izk:i dk
vuqikr 7 : 1 : 1 : 7 gAS
(4) f}ladj.k ØkWl dh F2 ih<+h esa 8/16 larfr;kWa F1 ih<+h
ds leku FkhA
127. oa'kkxfr dk Øksekslkse okn ;k fl¼kar fdlus fn;k Fkk ?
(1) g"ksZ o pt
S
(2) lêu o cksojs h
(3) eslYs lu rFkk LVky
(4) csVlu rFkk LVVhZoasV
LTS-25/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
128. Which of the following is a parental type of
progeny obtained by Morgan, while carring out
dihybrid cross ?
w m

(1)

w m
(2)

w m
(3)

w m+

128. fuEu esa ls dkSulh larfr ekWjxu }kjk fd;s x;s f}ladj.k

esa vius ifS =d izdkj tl


S h gS ?
w m

129. In a population of 2000 individuals 960 belong to


genotype Aa and 320 to aa. Based on this data,
the frequency of allele A in the population is :(1) 0.7
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.6
130. How many different kinds of gametes will be
produced by a plant having the genotype
aaBbcc ?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Nine
(4) Sixteen
131. The dough which is used for making idli and dosa
is fermented by :-

w m
(3)

131.

132.

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Yeast
(4) Lactobacillus
133.

Penicillin was extensively used to treat American


soldiers wounded in _____ world war.
(2) Second

(3) Third

(4) All of the above

134. Functioning of statin is based on?

(4) End-product inhibition

LTS-26/36

(4)

(2) 0.8

(3) 0.4

(4) 0.6

130. ,d ikS/kk ftldk thu izk:i aaBbcc gS] blesa fdrus

(4) Saccharomyces cerevisae

(1) First

w+ m

w m+

(1) 0.7

(3) Bacteria

133. Fill the blank space :-

w m

vkrs gSA bl vkadM+s ds vk/kkj ij A vyhy dh vko`fÙk


bl lef"V esa gksxh :-

(2) Propioni bacterium sharmanii

132. Large holes in swiss cheese are due to production


of large amount of CO2 by a :-

129. 2000 O;f"V;ksa dh lef"V esa 960 Aa rFkk 320 aa ds varxZr

(1) Lactobacillus

(3) Competitive inhibition

(2)

w m

(4)
(2) Non competitive inhibition

+
w m

(1)

w+ m

(1) Allosteric inhibition

134.

fofHkUu iz dkj ds ;qXed cusxs ?


(1) pkj
(2) nks
(3) ukS
(4) lky
S g
^Mkslk* rFkk ^bMyh* tlS s vkgkj dks cukus esa fy;k x;k vkVk]
fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk fdf.or gksrk gS %&
(1) yDS VkscfS lyl
(2) izksfivksfu cSDVhfj;e 'kkjeSukbZ
(3) cSDVhfj;k
(4) ld
S jksekblht ljS hohlh
fLol pht esa ik, tkus okys cM+&s cM+s fNnz fdlds }kjk cM+h
ek=k esa mRiUu CO2 ds dkj.k gksrs gS %&
(1) cSDVhfj;k
(2) dod
(3) ;hLV
(4) yDS Vksfcflyl
fjDr LFkku Hkfj;s %&
iSuhflyhu dk iz ;ksx -------------- fo'o ;q¼ esa ?kk;y
vesjhdu flikfg;ksa ds mipkj eas O;kid :i ls fd;k x;kA
(1) izFke
(2) nwljs
(3) rhljs
(4) mi;qZDr lHkh
LVSfVu dk dk;Z fuEu esa ls fdl ij vk/kkfjr g\
S
(1) vYyksLVsfjd laneu
(2) xjS Li/kkZ laneu
(3) Li/kkZ laneu
(4) vafre mRikn laneu
0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
135. Which of the following alcoholic drink are
produced by distillation of the fermented broth?
(1) Whisky

(2) Rum

(3) Wine
(4) Both (1) and (2)
136. Treatment of waste water is done by the :(1) Autotrophic microbes
(2) Heterotrophic microbes
(3) Chemoautotrophic microbes
(4) All of the above
137. Physical removal of large and small particle from
the sewage through filtration and sedimentation is
called?
(1) primary treatment

135. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu ls ,Ydksgyh; is; dh izkfIr fdf.or

jl ds vklou }kjk r;S kj fd;s tkrs g\


S
(1) fàLdh
(2) je
(3) okbu
(4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
136. O;FkZ ty dk mipkj fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk fd;k tkrk gAS
(1) Loiks"kh lw{ethoh
(2) fo"keiks"kh lw{etho
(3) jlk;u Loiks"kh lw{etho
(4) mi;qZDr lHkh
137. ewyHkwr :i ls mipkj ds fdl in esa okfgr ey ls cM+s NksVs

d.kksa dk fuL;anu rFkk volknu }kjk HkkfS rd :i ls vyx


dj fn;s tkrs g\
S
(1) izkFkfed mipkj

(2) secondary treatment

(2) f}rh;d mipkj

(3) Biological treatment

(3) tho foKkuh; mipkj

(4) Both (2) and (3)


138. Along with IARI (Indian Agricultural research
institute) which of the following plays a crucial role
in developing biogas technology in India:-

(4) (2) o (3) nksuksa


138. IARI ds lkFk feydj fuEu esa ls fdlus Hkkjr esa ck;ksxl
S

mRiknu dh izkS|ksfxdh esa eq[; Hkwfedk fuHkkbZ gAS

(1) ICAR (Indian council of Agricultural research)


(1) ICAR

(2) KVIC (Khadi and village Industries


commission)

(2) KVIC

(3) Indian Biogas Society


(4) W.H.O.
139. In which of the following process CO2 and CH4
both gases are produced :(a) Fermentation of dough
(b) Cheese making
(c) Production of beverages
(d) Biogas formation
(1) a,b,d

(2) a,b,c,d

(3) only d

(4) a,b,c

140. Which of the following bacteria involved in biogas


production?

(3) Hkkjrh; ck;ksxSl lkslk;Vh


(4) W.H.O.
139. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu izfØ;kvksa esa CO2 ds lkFk CH4 xl
S

dk mRiknu Hkh gksrk gS %&


(a) xhys vkVs dk fd.ou
(b) pht fuekZ.k
(c) is;ksa dk mRiknu
(d) ck;ksxSl dk mRiknu
(1) a,b,d

(2) a,b,c,d

(3) flQZ d

(4) a,b,c

140. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk thok.kq ck;ksxl


S ds mRiknu esa

Hkwfedk fuHkkrk g\
S

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis

(1) cfS lyl Fkwfjutsfull

(2) Trichoderma

(2) VªkbZdksMekZ

(3) Baculovirus
(3) csdqyksokbjl

(4) Methanobacterium

(4) esFksuks csfDVj;e

0999DMD310318004

LTS-27/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
141. Match the column A with column B :Column A

Column B

(a) Pest control


method

(i)

(b) Dragon flies

(ii)

(c) Trichoderma

(iii) Relies on natural


predator

(d) Baculo viruses

(iv) Kill plant pathogen

Mosquito
attack insects and
arthopods

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i


(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
142. Free living fungi that are very common in the root
ecosystem and act as effective biocontrol agent
of several plant pathogen :(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Baculovirus
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Lady bird
143. Dragon flies are used to get rid of :(1) Aphids
(2) Mosquitoes
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Plant pathogens
144. From the given list which of the following can be
used as biofertilizers :(a) Rhizobium
(b) Azospirillium
(c) Mycorrhiza
(d) Anabaena
(e) Azotobacter
(1) a,b,d,e
(2) a,b,e
(3) a,b,c,d,e
(4) a,b,c,e
145. The main source of biofertilizers :(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) All of the above
146. Given, below are three basic steps of genetical
modifying an organism. Arrange these steps in
correct manner :(a) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
(b) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host
and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
(c) Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
(1) a ® b ® c
(2) c ® a ® b
(3) b ® a ® c
(4) c ® b ® a

LTS-28/36

141. dkWye A o dkWye B dk lgh feyku dhft, :-

dkWye A

dkWye B

(a) ihM+dks ds fu;a=.k (i)

ePNj

(b) Mªsxu¶ykbZ

(ii)

dhVks rFkk laf/kiknksa

(c) VªkbdksMekZ

(iii) izkdf` rd ijHk{k.k

(d) cDS ;wyksok;jsfll

(iv) ikni jksxtudksa dks ekjuk

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i


(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii


(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

142. Lora= thoh dod tks fd lkekU;r% ewy ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=

esa ik;s tkrs gS rFkk ikni jksxtudksa ds fy, izHkko'khy toS


fu;a=.k dkjd gS %&
(1) cfS lyl Fkwfjuft,safll
(2) cDS ;wyksok;jsfll
(3) VªkbZdksMekZ
(4) ysMh cMZ
143. O;k?k irax fuEu esa ls fdlls NqVdkjk fnyokus esa vR;ar gh
ykHkizn gS %&
(1) ,sfQMks
(2) ePNjksa
(3) nksuksa (1) o (2)
(4) ikni jksxtud
144. fuEufyf[kr es a ls nh xbZ lw p h es a ls t So moZ j d dks
Nka f V;s %&
(a) jkbtksfc;e
(b) ,stksLikbfjye
(c) ekbdksjkbtk
(d) ,sukchuk
(e) ,stkscDS Vj
(1) a,b,d,e
(3) a,b,c,d,e

(2) a,b,e
(4) a,b,c,e

145. to
S moZjdksa dk eq[; L=ksr D;k g\
S
(1) thok.kq
(3) lk;ukscDS Vhfj;k

(2) dod
(4) mi;qZDr lHkh

146. uhps fn, x, rhu pj.k tho ds vkuqofa 'kd :ikarj.k dks n'kkZrs

g]S budks lgh Øe esa fyf[k, %&


(a) fpfUgr Mh,u, dk ijiks"kh esa LFkkukarj.k
(b) LFkkukarfjr Mh,u, dks ijiks"kh esa lqjf{kr j[kuk rFkk mldks
larfr esa LFkkukarfjr djukA
(c) okafNr thu ;qDr Mh,u, dh igpkuA

(1) a ® b ® c
(3) b ® a ® c

(2) c ® a ® b
(4) c ® b ® a

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
147. The technique of genetic engineering include:(1) Creation of recombinant DNA
(2) Gene cloning
(3) Gene Transfer
(4) All of the above
148. Complete the given below statement :Stanley cohen and Herbert Bayer
accomplished
construction of first recombinant DNA in ______
by isolating the antibiotic resistence gene by cutting
out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was
responsible for conferring antibiotic resistence.
(1) 1974
(2) 1977
(3) 1972
(4) 1988
149. Among the following, select the tools of
recombinant DNA technology :(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Polymerase enzymes
(c) Ligases
(d) Vectors
(e) Host organisms
(1) a,d,e
(2) a,d,c,e
(3) a,b,c,d,e
(4) only a
150. Read the following statements and select the
incorrect ones :(a) In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments
separate according to their size through sieving
effect provided by the agarose gel
(b) Larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(c) Unless one cuts the vector and the source
DNA with the same restriction enzyme, the
recombinant vector molecule cannot be
created.
(d) Now a days the most commonly used matrix
is agarose which is a synthetic polymer
extracted from sea weeds.
(1) a,b,c,d
(2) a,c
(3) b,d
(4) c,d
R
151. In pBR - 322 amp and tetR genes are present.
When we ligate a foreign DNA at Pvu I site, then
recombinant plasmids will lose the resistence to
the :(1) Ampicillin
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None
152. Restriction enzymes belongs to a large class of the
enzymes called
(1) Cellulase
(2) Nucleases
(3) Chitinase
(4) Spooling

0999DMD310318004

147. fuEu rduhdksa esa ls vuqokaf'kd bathfu;fjax esa dkuS lfEefyr


gS %&
(1) iqu;ksZxt Mh,u, dk fuekZ.k
(2) thu Dyksfuax
(3) thu LFkkukarj.k
(4) mi;ZqDr lHkh
148. uhps fn;s x;s dFku dks iw.kZ djsa %&
LVsuys dksgus o gjcVZ cks;j us ______ esa çFke iqu;ksZxt
Mh,u, dk fuekZ.k] IykfTeM ls Mh,u, dk VqdM+k dkVdj
laiUu fd;k ftuesa izfrtfS od izfrjks/k iznku djus ds fy,
ftEesnkj thu FkkA
(1) 1974
(3) 1972

(2) 1977
(4) 1988

149. uhps fn;s x, lk/kuksa esa ls] iqu;ksZxt Mh,u, rduhd esa dke

vkus okys lk/kuksa dks NkafV, %&


(a) izfrca/ku ,atkbe
(b) ikWfyejst ,atkbe
(c) ykbxst
(d) laokgd
(e) ijiks"kh tho
(1) a,d,e

(2) a,d,c,e

(3) a,b,c,d,e

(4) flQZ a

150. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa ls xyr dFku dks NkafV, %&


(a) Mh,u, [kaMksa dks ,sxkjkst tsy ds Nyuh izHkko }kjk muds

vkdkj ds vuqlkj vyx djrs gAS


(b) [kaM ftrus cM+s vkdkj ds gksaxs] os vf/kd nw j rd
tk;saxAs
(c) tc rd laokgd o L=ksr Mh,u, ,d gh izfrca/ku ,atkbe
}kjk ugha dkVs tkrs gSa rc rd iqu;ksZxt laokgd v.kq dk
fuekZ.k ugha gks ldrkA
(d) vktdy cgqr gh lkekU; :i ls mi;ksx fd;k tkus okyk
ek/;e] ,xksjkst gS tks ,d d`f=e cgqyd gS tks leqnzh;
?kkl ls cuk;k tkrk gAS
(1) a,b,c,d
(3) b,d

(2) a,c
(4) c,d

151. Dyksfuax laokgd pBR - 322 esa ampR vkjS tetR thu gksrs

gaS] vxj ge ckgjh Mh,u, dk ykbxs'ku Pvu I ds LFkku ij


djs rks iqu;ksZxt fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, izfrjks/kh ugha gksxkA
(1) ,afiflfyu
(2) VsVªkl
s kbDyhu
(3) nksuksa (1) o (2)
(4) dksbZ ugha
152. izfrca/ku ,atkbe] ,atkbeksa ds fdl cM+s oxZ esa vkrk gS %&
(1) lsyqyt
s

(2) U;wfDy,tst

(3) dkbfVust

(4) Liwfyax

LTS-29/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
153. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching

153. uhps fn, x, fp= dks igpkudj (A,B,C,D) dk lgh

feyku fdft, %&


(A)

(A)
Same restriction enzyme cutting both foreign
DNA and vector DNA at specific point

(B)

,d gh izfrca/ku ,atkbe nksuksa ckgjh Mh,u,


o laokgd Mh,u, dks fof'k"V txgksa ij dkVrk gS

ykbxst ckgjh Mh,u, dks


IyktfeM ls tksM+rk gS

Ligase join foreign


DNA to plasmid

(C)

(C)
E.coli

E.coli

dksf'kdk foHkktu

Cells divide

(D)

Options :(1) A-foreign DNA, B-vector DNA, C-translation,


D-PCR
(2) A-Vector DNA,
B-Foreign DNA,
C-Transduction, D-electrophoresis.
(3) A-foreign
DNA,
B-vector
DNA,
C-Transformation, D-r-DNA technology
(4) A-Vector DNA, B-Foreign DNA,
C-Transformation, D-r-DNA technology.
154. Purified DNA ultimately precipitate out after the
addition of chilled ethanol. This DNA that separate
out can be removed by
(1) Electrophoresis
(2) Downstream processing
(3) PCR
(4) Spooling
155. Which of the following technique is employed to
check the progression of a restriction enzyme
digestion?
(1) PCR
(2) Bioreactor

(D)

fodYi :(1) A-ckgjh Mh,u,] B-la o kgd Mh,u, , C-iz k sV hu


la'ys"k.k, D-PCR (ihlhvkj)
(2) A-laokgd Mh,u,, B-ckgjh Mh,u,, C-Vªka lMD'u
(Transduction), D-bysDVªkQ
s ksjsfll
(3) A- ckgjh
Mh,u, , B- la o kgd Mh,u, ,
C-LFkkukarj.k, D-iqu;ksZxt Mh,u, rduhd
(4) A- la o kgd
Mh,u, , B- ckgjh Mh,u, ,
C-LFkkukarj.k, D-iqu;ksZxt Mh,u, rduhd
154. varrksxRok nzo
q 'khry (fpYM) ,FksukWy feykus ls 'kksf/kr
Mh,u, vo{ksfir gks tkrk g]S bls dgrs ga\
S
(1) bysDVªkQ
s ksjfs ll
(2) vuqizokg lalk/ku
(3) ihlhvkj
(4) Liwfyax
155. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lh rduhd izfrca/ku ,atkbe ds ikpu
dks lapkyu dks fu;af=r djus ds dke esa vkrk g\
S
(1) ihlhvkj
(2) ck;ksfj,DVj

(3) Gel electrophoresis

(3) ty
S bysDVªkQ
s ksjfs ll

(4) Micro injection

(4) ekbØksbatsDlu

LTS-30/36

(B)

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
156. Which of the following steps are catalysed by taq
polymerase in a PCR?

156. uhps fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lk dFku Vd


S ikyhejst }kjk

lapkfyr gksrk g\
S

(1) Annealing of primers to template DNA

(1) VsaiysV Mh,u, dk rkikuq'khyu

(2) Denaturation of template DNA

(2) VsaiysV Mh,u, dk fuf"Ø;dj.k

(3) Extension of primer on the template DNA

(3) VsaiysV Mh,u, esa miØkedks dk foLrkj

(4) All of the above

(4) mi;qZDr lHkh

157. Recognise the figure and find out the correct


matching for A & B :-

157. uhps fn, x, fp= dks ns[kdj A vkjS B ds ckjs esa crkb,%&

(A)
(A)

(B)
(B)
(1) A – Simple stirred tank bioreactor
B – Mixed tank bioreactor
(2) A – Simple stirred tank bioreactor
B – Sparged stirred tank bioreactor
(3) A – Sparged stirred tank bioreactor
B – Simple stirred tank bioreactor
(4) A – Mixed tank bioreactor
B – Sparged stirred tank bioreactor

0999DMD310318004

(1) A – lk/kkj.k fcyksMu gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj


B – fefJr ck;ksfj,DVj
(2) A – lk/kkj.k fcyksMu gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj
B – naM foyksMd gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj
(3) A – naM foyksMd gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj
B – lk/kkj.k fcyksMu gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj
(4) A – fefJr ck;ksfj,DVj
B – naM foyksMd gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj

LTS-31/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
158. After the biosynthetic phase, the product is
separated and purified by the process called as:(1) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(2) PCR
(3) Downstream processing
(4) Insertional inactivation
159. Identify the X,Y,Z in given figure of polymerase
chain Reaction.

158. tSo la'ysf "kr voLFkk ds iw.kZ gksus ds ckn ifj"d`r dk

i`FkDdj.k o 'kks/ku fd;k tkrk] bls dgk tkrk gAS


(1) ,xjkst tSy bysDVªksQksjsfll
(2) ihlhvkj
(3) vuqizokg lalk/ku
(4) fuos'kh fuf"Ø;rk
159. uhps fn, x, ihlhvkj ds fp= esa ls X,Y,Z dks igpkusA

Heat
Heat

X
Y
Y
Taq Polymerase

Taq Polymerase

Z
Z

(1) X=Annealing, Y=Denaturation, Z=Extension


(2) X=Extension, Y=Annealing, Z=Denaturation
(3) X=Denaturation, Y=Annealing, Z=Extension
(4) X=Denaturation, Y=Extension, Z=Annealing
160. Bioreactors are useful in :-

(1) X=rkiuq'khyu, Y=fu"Ø;dj.k, Z=izlkj


(2) X=izlkj, Y=rkiuq'khyu, Z=fu"Ø;dj.k
(3) X=fu"Ø;dj.k, Y=rkiuq'khyu, Z=izlkj
(4) X=fu"Ø;dj.k, Y=izlkj, Z=rkiuq'khyu
160. ck;ksfj,DVj dh vko';drk fdl txg gksrh gS %&

(1) Separation & purification of product

(1) i`FkDdj.k o 'kks/kuA

(2) Microinjection

(2) ekbØksbatsDlu

(3) processing of large volume of culture.

(3) lao/kZu dk vf/kd vk;ru la'kksf/kr djus esaA

(4) Isolation of genetic Material.


(4) vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ dk i`FkDdj.k

161. The green revolution succeded in tripling the food


supply but yet it was not enough to feed the
growing human population. Increased yield have
mainly been due to the use of :(a) Improved crop varieties.

161. gfjr Økafr }kjk [kk| vkiwfrZ esa rhxquh o`f¼ esa lQyrk feyus

ds ckotwn euq"; dh c<+rh tula[;k dk isV Hkj ikuk laHko


ugha gAS mRiknu esa o`f¼ eq [;rk fdu otg ls gqbZ %&
(a) mUur fdLeksa dh Qlyksa ds mi;ksx

(b) Better management practises.

(b) mÙke izca/kdh; O;oLFkk

(c) Agro chemicals (fertilizers & pesticides)

(c) d`f"k jlk;uksa dk iz;ksx

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) a and c

(4) a,b and c

(3) a and c

(4) a,b and c

LTS-32/36

0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
162. Strategy used to prevent nematode infection of
tobacco root's is :(1) Use of agrochemicals

162. rackdw dh tM+kas dks fuesVksM ds laØe.k ls cpkus dh fofèk

(2) Bt toxin gene


(3) Gene mutation
(4) RNA-interference
163. Which of the following statement is not correct
regarding Bt-cotton?
(1) Bt-toxin is produced by a bacterium called
Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) The choice of gene depends upon the crop and
the targeted pest, as most Bt-toxins are insect
group specific.
(3) Bt-cotton helped to reduce post harvest
losses.
(4) Bt toxin protein exists as inactive protoxin but
once an insect ingest due to alkaline pH it
becomes active.
164. Golden rice will help in :-

163.

164.

(1) producing petrol like fuel


(2) Making pest resistence
(3) Making herbicide tolerance
(4) Enhance nutritional valine
165. Maturation of proinsulin into insulin takes place
after :(1) Removal of C-peptide

165.

(2) Removal of disulphide bridge


(3) Addition of C-peptide
(4) Removal of A–peptide
166. From which of the following technique, early
diagnosis of disease is/are not possible.
(a) ELISA
(b) Urine analysis
(c) PCR
(d) Serum analysis
(e) recombinant DNA technology
(1) a,b,d

(2) a,c,e

(3) a,b

167. ADA-deficiency occurs due to the :(1) Deletion

(4) b,d

166.

dk D;k uke gAS


(1) d`f"k jlk;uksa dk iz;ksx
(2) Bt tho fo"k thu
(3) thu mRifjorZu
(4) vkj,u, varj{ksi
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk dFku chVh dikl ds fy, lgh
ugha g\
S
(1) chVh tho fo"k dk mRiknu cl
S hyl Fkqjhufta,lhl thok.kq
ls gksrk gAS
(2) thu dk pquko Qly o fu/kkZfjr dhV ij fuHkZj djrk gS]
tcfd lokZf/kd chVh&tho fo"k dhV lewg fof'k"Vrk
ij fuHkZj djrs gaSA
(3) chVh&dikl dVkbZ i'pkr~ gksus okys uqdlkuksa dks de
djus esa lgk;d gksrh gAS
(4) Bt-tho fo"k izkVs hu] izkd~tho fo"k fuf"Ø; :i esa gksrk
gS T;ksafg dhV bls [kkrk gS alkaline pH ds dkj.k ;g
lfØ; gks tkrk gAS
Lof.kZr /kku lgk;rk djsxk&
(1) isVªky
s ds fuekZ.k esa
(2) ihM+d&izfrjks/kh cukus esa
(3) 'kkduk'kh izfrjks/kh cukus esa
(4) [kk| inkFkks± ds iks"kf.kd Lrj esa o`f¼ ds fy,
izkdbUlqfyu ds balqf yu ds ifjiDou ds fy, fd;k tkrk
gS %&
(1) lh isIVkbM dk i`FFkdj.k
(2) MkbZ lYQkbZM dk i`FFkdj.k
(3) lh isIVkbM dk tqM+uk
(4) A–isIVkbM dk i`FFkdj.k
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh rduhd ls jksx dk irk izkjaHk esa
ugha yx ikrkA
(a) ,ykbtk
(b) ew= fo'ys"k.k
(c) ihlhvkj
(d) lhje fo'ys"k.k
(e) iqu;ksZxt Mh,u, rduhd

(1) a,b,d

(2) a,c,e

(3) a,b

167. ADA dh deh gksrh g&


S
(1) foyksiu ds dkj.k

(2) Translocation

(2) Vªk¡lyksd's ku (LFkkukUrj.k) ds dkj.k

(3) Substitution

(3) izfrLFkkiu ds dkj.k

(4) Inversion

(4) izrhiu ds dkj.k


0999DMD310318004

(4) b,d

LTS-33/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
168. Correction of a genetic defect involves delivery
of a normal gene into the individual or embryo
to take over the function of and compensate for
the non functional gene is called :(1) Genetic modification
(2) Genetic correction
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Bioremediation
169. Fill the blank spaces marked as A & B. At present,
about __A__ recombinant therapeutics have been
approved for human use the world over. In India,
__B__ of these are presently being marketed.
(1) A = 30, B = 12
(2) A = 36, B = 16
(3) A = 27, B = 17
(4) A = 32, B = 13
170. Select the correct statement :(a) Transgenic animals are used for study of
complex factors involved in growth such as
insulin like growth factor.
(b) Transgenic animals are specially made to serve
as models for human disease so that
investigation of new treatment for disease is
made possible.
(c) First transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human
protein-enriched milk containing the human
alpha-lactglobulin.
(d) Transgenic mice are being developed for use
in testing the sefety of vaccines before they
are used on humans.
(1) a,b,c,d
(2) a,b,d
(3) a,c,d
(4) b,c,d
171. From all transgenic animals, 95 percent of all
existing transgenic animals are :(1) pig

(2) sheep

(3) cow

(4) mice

172. In 1997, the first transgenic cow Rosie produced


human protein – enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre),
milk contains :(1) Alpha-lactaglobulin
(2) Alpha-lactalbumin
(3) Beta-lactaglobulin
(4) Beta-lactalbumin
173. Today for which of the following human diseases
transgenic models exist :(1) Cancer
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) rheumatoid arthritis (4) All of the above

LTS-34/36

168. vkuqokaf'kd nks"k okyh dksf'kdkvksa ds mipkj gsrq lkekU; thu

dks O;fDr ;k Hkzw.k esa LFkkukarfjr djrs gS tks fuf"Ø; thu dh


{kfriwfrZ dj mlds dk;ksZa dks laiUu djrs g]aS mls dgrs gaS %&
(1) vkuqokaf'kd :ikUrj.k
(2) vkuqokaf'kd lq/kkj
(3) thu fpfdRlk
(4) tSfod mipkj
169. fjDr LFkku esa A o B dks Hkfj;s] orZeku le; esa yxHkx
__A__ iqu;ksZxt fpfdRlh; vkS"kf/k;k¡ fo'o esa euq"; ds
ç;ksx gsrq LohÏr gks pqdh gAS orZeku esa] buesa ls __B__
Hkkjr esa foif.kr gks jgh gAS
(1) A = 30, B = 12
(3) A = 27, B = 17

(2) A = 36, B = 16
(4) A = 32, B = 13

170. lgh dFku pqfu, %&


(a) ikjthoh tarqvksa dk fuekZ.k fo'ks"k:i ls fodkl esa

Hkkxhnkj tfVy dkjdksa tlS s & balqfyu dh rjg fodkl


dkjd dk v/;;uA
(b) ikjthoh tarq fof'k"V :i ls fufeZr gS tks ekuo jksxksa ds
fy, uewus ds :i esa iz;ksx fd;s tkrs gS rkfd jksxksa ds
u, mipkj dk v/;;u gks ldsA
(c) loZizFke ikjthoh xk; ^jksth* ekuo izkVs hu lEiUu nqXèk
izkIr fd;k x;k] bl nw/k esa ekuo vYQk&ysDVXyksc;qfyu
feyrk gAS
(d) Vhdksa dk ekuo ij iz;ksx djus ls igys Vhds dh lqj{kk
tk¡p ds fy, ikjthoh pwgksa dks fodflr fd;k x;kA
(1) a,b,c,d
(3) a,c,d

(2) a,b,d
(4) b,c,d

171. lHkh ikjthoh tUrqvksa esa ls 95% ikjthoh tUrq D;k g\


S
(1) lwvj

(2) HksM+

(3) xk;

(4) pwgs

172. o"kZ 1997 esa loZiFz ke ikjthoh xk; ^jksth* ekuo izkVs hu laiUu

nw/k (2.4 xzke izfr yhVj) izkIr fd;k x;k] bl nw/k esa feyrk g%S &
(1) vYQk-ysDVXyksfcu
(2) vYQk-ysDV,Ycqfeu
(3) chVk-ysDVXyksfcu
(4) chVk-ysDV,Ycqfeu
173. orZeku le; esa fuEu esa ls fdu ekuo jksxksa ds fy, ikjthoh
uewus miyCèk gS %&
(1) daSlj
(2) iqVh; js'kke;rk
(3) :esVok,M laf/k'kksFk
(4) mi;qZDr lHkh
0999DMD310318004
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
174. Which of the following is the correct match?

174. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk ,d lgh feyku g\


S

(1) cry IAb – cotton bollworms

(1) ØkbZ I ,ch – dikl ds eqdqy d`fe

(2) cry IAc – cotton bollworms

(2) ØkbZ I ,lh – dikl ds eqdqy d`fe

(3) cry IAc – Corn borer

(3) ØkbZ I ,lh – eDdk Nsnd

(4) cry IIAb – Corn borer

(4) ØkbZ II ,ch – eDdk Nsnd


175. ikjthoh tUrqvksa dk mi;ksx fd;k tk pqdk gS&

175. Transgenic animals have been used :(1) for testing safety of vaccines

(1) Vhdk lqj{kk ds ijh{k.k gsrq

(2) for testing toxicity of drugs

(2) vkS"kf/k vkfo"kkyqrk ds ijh{k.k gsrq

(3) To produce useful biological products.

(3) mi;ksxh tfS od mRikndks dks iSnk djus ds fy,

(4) all of the above


176. Which transgenic animals has been used for organ
transplantation into humans without risk of
rejection?
(1) Pig

(2) cow

(3) Mice

(4) Goat

177. Which Indian government organisation will make


decisions regarding the validity of GM research
and the safety of introducing GM organisms for
public service.
(1) ICAR

(2) IARI

(3) KVIC

(4) GEAC
178. How many documented varieties of Basmati rice
are grown in India.

(4) mi;qZDr lHkh


176. fdl ikjthoh tUrq dks ekuo vax izR;kjksi.k ds fy, fcuk

fdlh vLohÏfr tksf[ke ds bLrseky fd;k x;k\


(1) lwvj
(2) xk;
(3) pwgk
(4) cdjk
177. dkSu lk laxBu Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk LFkkfir fd;k x;k] tks fd
th,e vuqla/kku laca/kh dk;ksZa dh o/S kkfudrk rFkk tu lsokvksa
ds fy, th,e thoksa ds lfUuos'k dh lqj{kk vkfn ds ckjs esa
fu.kZ; ysxhA
(1) ICAR

(2) IARI

(3) KVIC (4) GEAC

178. cklerh /kku dh fdruh igpkuh x;h fdLesa Hkkjr esa mxk;h

tkrh g&S

(1) 2,00,000

(2) 50,000

(1) 2,00,000

(2) 50,000

(3) 1000

(4) 27

(3) 1000

(4) 27

179. The indian parliament has recently cleared the


_________ amendment of Indian patent Bill, that
takes such issues into consideration, including
patent terms emergency provision and research
and development initative.
(1) First
(2) second (3) third
(4) fourth
180. Which term is used to refer to the use of bio-resources
by multinational companies and other organisation
without proper authorisation from the countries and
people concerned without compensatory payment :(1) Biopatent

(2) Biopiracy

(3) Bio resources

(4) Bio war


179. Hkkjrh; laln us gky gh esa Hkkjrh; ,dLo fcy esa _________

la'kks/ku ikfjr fd;k gAS tks ,sls eqíks dks /;kukFkZ ysxk] ftlds
varxZr ,dLo fu;e lac/a kh vkikrdkfyd izkoèkku rFkk vuql/a
kku ,oa fodklh; iz;kl 'kkfey gAS
(1) igyk
(2) nwljk
(3) rhljk
(4) pkSFkk
180. eYVhus'kuy da ifu;ksa o nwljs la xBuksa }kjk fdlh jk"Vª ;k
mlls lacaf/kr yksxksa ls fcuk O;ofLFkr vuqeksnu o {kfriwjd
Hkqxrku ds tSo lalk/kuksa dk mi;ksx djuk D;k dgykrk gSA
(1) ck;ksiVs asV

(2) ck;ksikbjslh

(3) tfS od lalk/ku

(4) ck;ksokj

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to


dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code
and Your Form No.
uks V% ;fn bl iz'u i= esa dksbZ Correction gks rks Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form
No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
ij mail djsaA

0999DMD310318004

LTS-35/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/19-08-2018
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy;s txg

LTS-36/36

0999DMD310318004