Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Preface
–3 SD –2 SD –1 SD mean +1 SD +2 SD +3 SD
For most of us, the perfect day might well be one spent small improvements in the clinical pathology laboratory are
hugging a microscope in quiet contemplation. Inevitably, quickly leveraged to impact a large number of patients in ways
however, this does not describe a typical day. Instead, that anatomic pathology can rarely achieve. Last, it is our
such moments must be stolen between the myriad clinical duty; in that humming and whirring place toil the too-often
laboratory difficulties that crop up every day. Even to those of nameless face shield-wearing people who are the long arm of
us with keen interest in it, the clinical laboratory is a mystery. our own medical licenses.
The truth is that many of us spend our days in the realm of The original Quick Compendium began as a publication of my
anatomic pathology, where through immersion we are able to personal notes, begun when I was a resident, because I thought
keep most important facts at the forefront of our brain. But that somebody might like to use them. Unexpectedly, many
when heaved into clinical pathology, we often must relearn came to depend upon them not only for board preparation but
things, comb through patient charts, ask questions, and also, alarmingly, for the practice of clinical pathology. That
synthesize it all into a plan of action. When the problem is first certainly was outside the intended scope of use!
posed, we don’t always have a good answer; in this instant, we Practical Clinical Pathology hopes to provide a comprehensive
sympathize, promise to investigate, and promise to follow up. and up-to-date working review of clinical pathology; the
This state of affairs comes as a surprise to most young making of it required help from experts in a variety of
pathologists. It is in fact normal and is no reflection upon disciplines. So please pay attention to the Contributors’ page
one’s training or dedication. A willingness to engage with and that faces this Preface. With their help, we mean to bring a
assist clinicians in such moments is in large measure the value text that encompasses what, to date, is of greatest practical
of the local pathologist. The help we offer in these situations necessity for general pathologists and others wanting more
is a large part of what defines us as a specialty. Furthermore, than can ever be included in a Quick Compendium.
Daniel Mais
Acknowledgements
The existence of Practical Clinical Pathology is credited to in taking on new problems and in correcting entrenched old
Joshua Weikersheimer, who saw the value of expanding from ones. I hope that this is the sort of book that he might have
the Quick Compendium idea to create a book better suited to the made good use of.
everyday needs of general pathologists. My mentor, Dr James Last, I acknowledge those close to me who put up with me
Kelley, exemplified the real value one could bring as a general (and without me) for so long while I was absorbed in doing
pathologist: by being always available to assist or consult, this book.
always forthright in explanations and corrections, and fearless
ISBN 978-089189-5985 v
Table of Contents
Chapter 1: Table of Contents
Calcium. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18 Overdose . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32
Calcium measurement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18 General aspects of laboratory evaluation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32
Hypercalcemia . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19 Toxic alcohol (ethylene glycol, methanol & isopropyl alcohol) poisoning . . . . . . 34
Hypocalcemia . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20 Lead poisoning (plumbism) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 34
Acid-base disorders. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20 Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 35
Definitions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20 Acetaminophen (Tylenol) poisoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 35
Henderson-Hasselbalch equation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21 Cyanide poisoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
Methods . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21 Salicylate (aspirin) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
Classifying an acid-base disorder . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21 Arsenic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
Renal function . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22 Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Renal function tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22 Organophosphates & carbamates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Laboratory screening for chronic kidney disease . . . 23 Mercury . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Laboratory evaluation in acute renal failure . . . . . 23 Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) . . . . . . . . . 37
Digoxin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Hepatorenal syndrome. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
Procainamide . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24 Aminoglycosides (eg, gentamicin) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Laboratory tests in pregnancy. . . . . . 24 Vancomycin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Amniotic fluid bilirubin (ΔOD 450). . . . . . . . . . 24 Quinidine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Human chorionic gonadotropin. . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Phenytoin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
hCG in normal gestation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Lithium . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
hCG in ectopic pregnancy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Amiodarone . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
hCG in spontaneous abortion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Lipids & carbohydrates. . . . . . . . . 38
hCG in gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Lipids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Prenatal screening for trisomy & neural tube defects. 26 Brief review of lipids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Available approaches to screening . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Methods . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 39
Analytes & risk calculation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Lipid disorders . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40
Clinical considerations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27 Carbohydrates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 41
Assessing risk of preterm birth. . . . . . . . . . . . . 27 Methods . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 41
Determination of fetal lung maturity. . . . . . . . . 27 Hypoglycemia . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 41
Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Types of diabetes mellitus . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 42
Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) concentration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Diagnosis & monitoring . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 42
Foam stability . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 43
Lamellar body count (LBC) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (HHNC) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 44
Fluorescence polarization assay (S/A ratio)* . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 The metabolic syndrome . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .44
Laboratory evaluation of diseases in pregnancy. . . . 28 Tumor markers. . . . . . . . . . . . 44
Physiologic changes & altered reference ranges in pregnancy . . . . . . . . . . . 28
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) . . . . . . . . . . . . 44
Medical conditions of particular importance in pregnancy . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
Prostate cancer screening . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 44
Toxicology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Adjunctive PSA indices . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45
Pharmacokinetics. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Prostate cancer prognosis & recurrence detection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45
Half life . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Free vs bound . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 & colorectal carcinoma screening. . . . . . . . . . . 45
Volume of distribution (Vd) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Thyroglobulin. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
Drugs of abuse screening (forensic toxicology) . . . . 30 Cancer antigen (CA) 125. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
Cocaine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 CA 27.29 & 15 ‑ 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
Opiates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
CA 19 ‑ 9. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
Barbiturates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
Amphetamines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 α fetoprotein (AFP) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
Phencyclidine (PCP) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). . . . . . . . . 47
Ethanol . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
β2 microglobulin (β2M) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
Alkaline phosphatase. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
Markers of neuroendocrine tumors . . . . . . . . . . 47
Carcinoid tumors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
Markers of medullary thyroid carcinoma . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
Paraganglioma & pheochromocytoma . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 48
Neuroblastoma . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 48
Urine markers for urothelial carcinoma. . . . . . . . 48
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Table of Contents
ISBN 978-089189-5985 xi
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ISBN 978-089189-5985 xv
Table of Contents
laminated material. Clinical and radiologic features, micro- The microscopic morphology of fungi in direct wet prepara-
scopic and macroscopic morphology and serology are com- tions can help with initial classification. Yeasts are unicellular
monly combined for definitive diagnosis. organisms, most of which display budding, and many of
Echinococcosis is acquired when ingesting food contami- which form pseudohyphae. Molds are multicellular organisms
nated with eggs from the stool of an infected dog, the defini- which form true hyphae. Hyphal structures may be further
tive host. Sheep, cattle, and other herbivores are intermediate classified as septate, aseptate or pauciseptate.
hosts; thus, the infection is commonest in sheep and cattle- India ink is used for the presumptive identification of
raising areas (pastoral infections). There is also a wild (sylvatic) Cryptococcus neoformans, particularly in CSF. A small amount
life cycle that occurs between foxes and wolves and their her- of India ink is added to a drop of CSF on a slide. The slide
bivore prey. Echinococcus infection results in the formation of is examined for the presence of encapsulated yeasts, which
cysts in various organs, particularly the liver. A single hydatid appear round, with wide variation in size, and narrow-based
cyst, sometimes containing daughter cysts, is seen in E granu- budding. A clear halo around the yeast cells indicates the pres-
losis infection, while multilocular cysts are seen with E multi- ence of a capsule, which strongly suggests Cryptococcus as
locularis. Polycystic hydatid cyst disease is seen with E vogeli. few other yeast species are encapsulated.
Hepatic cysts may rupture through the diaphragm, giving rise In tissue sections, fungi are difficult to detect by examining
to pulmonary cysts. routine H&E-stained sections. The exception are the intrinsi-
cally pigmented (dematiaceous) molds. For sensitive detection
Additional pearls of parasitology t3.23-t3.26 of most fungi, special stains are needed. Commonly, either
a Gormori methenamine silver (GMS) or periodic acid schiff
t3.23 Dual infections involving parasites (PAS) stain is used.
Ascaris lumbricoides & Trichuris trichiura
Pinworm & Dientamoeba fragilis Fungal culture
Babesia, Lyme disease & Anaplasma phagocytophilum For general purpose cultures, several media are typically
Lepromatous leprosy or HTLV-1 & Strongyloides stercoralis hyperinfection inoculated and incubated simultaneously, including brain
heart infusion (BHI) agar, Sabouraud dextrose agar, and inhibi-
t3.24 Parasitic oculocutaneous infections tory mold agar t3.27. Cultures are incubated at 25 ‑ 30°C for 4 - 6
Loa loa—disease is caused by the adult worm weeks. Special culture techniques may be applied either for
Onchocerca volvulus—disease is caused by the larvae initial isolation or for differentiation, in some circumstances t3.28
f3.36 H capsulatum
Fungal isolate growing as a mold in a GMS stained, b PAS stained tissue sections demonstrate small yeasts with narrow based budding;
25 ‑ 30°C culture: thermally dimorphic c H&E stained, d Wright stained smears demonstrate intracellular yeast forms
fungi & thermally monomorphic molds
Thermally dimorphic fungi (also called endemic fungi) t3.30
a b a b
f3.38 H capsulatum; in mold form, demonstrates a septated, hyaline hyphae with intermittent small f3.39 B dermatitidis
(2 μm), smooth, microconidia & b large (7-15 μm), thick walled, spiny macroconidia a & b Smears demonstrate uniform, large (8-15 μm) yeasts with broad based budding; the yeast cell
walls are thick & double contoured
Histoplasmosis caused by H capsulatum var capsulatum may f3.40 B dermatitidis; the mold form has a cottony white surface that darkens to tan with age
be asymptomatic, or may cause acute or chronic pulmonary
infection. Disseminated histoplasmosis may follow pulmo-
nary infection, particularly in HIV/AIDS patients and other
immunocompromised hosts. Disseminated infection may
lead to oropharyngeal ulcers, hepatic and/or splenic involve- (eg, Chrysosporium), definitive identification of B dermatitidis
ment, or infection of the bone marrow, central nervous system, rests either on conversion to its yeast form at 37°C, or exoan-
major arteries or cardiac valves. Histoplasmosis caused by tigen tests or molecular confirmatory tests.
H capsulatum var duboisii may be acquired by inhalation or by Blastomycosis has a geographic distribution that partly
direct inoculation of the skin. It most often presents with skin overlaps with that of Histoplasmosis, being endemic in the
(chronic ulcers), subcutaneous tissue involvement (nodules), or Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. It is also endemic in the
bone involvement (osteolytic lesions), and pulmonary infec- Southeastern US and in areas bordering the Great Lakes
tion is not a typical feature. (several states and Canadian provinces), and the St Lawrence
In addition to culture, the diagnosis of histoplasmosis can Seaway (parts of New York and Canada). It is thought to thrive
be made with an antigen test performed on urine or serum. in the soil of wooded areas.
B dermatitidis initially infects the lung, where it can produce
Blastomyces dermatitidis acute and/or chronic infection, although many infections are
In tissue sections, touch imprints f3.39, primary wet prepara- asymptomatic. Severe pulmonary disease and disseminated
tions, or culture at 37°C, B dermatitidis appears as fairly uni- infection occur more frequently in immunocompromised
form, large (8 - 15 µm) yeasts with broad-based budding. The hosts. Disseminated infection most often involves the skin or
yeast cell walls are thick and double-contoured. mucous membranes of the nasopharynx and mouth. Other
When cultured at 25 ‑ 30°C, B dermatitidis is a slow growing common sites of disseminated infection include the bones,
mold, with a cottony, white surface that darkens to tan with prostate, and central nervous system. Rare primary cutaneous
age f3.40. Microscopic examination of the mold colonies reveals blastomycosis may arise as a result of direct inoculation fol-
septate, hyaline hyphae with short, unbranched conidiophores lowing trauma or dog bite. In addition to culture, the diagnosis
producing single, pyriform to round, smooth conidia that mea- can also be made with an antigen test performed on urine or
sure 2 ‑ 10 μm. The conidiophores together with their solitary serum.
conidia are sometimes referred to as “lollipops.” Because this
morphology is similar to that of certain nondimorphic molds
ISBN 978-089189-5985 161
3: Microbiology
a b
c d
f3.41 C immitis f3.42 C immitis; in culture, mature arthroconidia are barrel shaped & alternate with empty cells
a, c-d In tissue sections stained with H&E, it appears as large (10-100 μm) spherules with thick, hyaline
walls that enclose numerous tiny (2-5 μm) endospores, which do not bud
b The spherules are highlighted by GMS stain
Coccidioides immitis/posadasii
In tissue sections f3.41 or primary wet preparations, Coccidioides
is seen as large (10 - 100 µm) spherules with thick, hyaline walls
that enclose numerous tiny (2 - 5 µm) endospores. The spher-
ules may be confused with the sporangia of Rhinosporidium
seeberi or Prototheca species. Sometimes the endospores are
seen spilling from the spherules, and individual endospores
may be confused with small yeasts such as those produced by
H capsulatum. However, in contrast to yeast, the endospores of
Coccidioides do not bud. Septated hyphae may also be seen in
tissue, particularly in association with foreign material.
In routine culture, whether incubated at 25 ‑ 30°C or 37°C,
C immitis grows moderately to rapidly in its mold form, initially
forming glabrous, moist, gray colonies that become white and
cottony when mature. Microscopic examination reveals thin,
hyaline, septate hyphae and arthroconidia. Mature arthroco-
nidia are barrel shaped, and alternate with empty cells f3.42.
However, immature arthroconidia are not barrel shaped and
may resemble the arthroconidia of Malbranchea species. If spe-
f3.43 P brasiliensis yeast form with circumferential budding
cial media are used, incubation at 37°C can produce the same
morphology seen in tissue sections, including spherules.
Coccidioides has recently been divided into 2 separate species:
C immitis, which is found mostly in the San Joaquin Valley of
California, and C posadasii, which is found outside of California factor for severe disease. In addition to culture, the diagnosis
in the Southwestern United States (Arizona and New Mexico) can also be made with an antigen test performed on urine or
as well as parts of Mexico and Central America. The 2 species serum, or with antibody testing.
are morphologically indistinguishable and produce the same Coccidioides is a risk to laboratory personnel and can be con-
clinical syndrome. The infectious arthroconidia are present in tracted from laboratory cultures.
soil, and soil disruption or soil exposure are risk factors.
Coccidioides is acquired through inhalation of environmental Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
arthroconidia, causing pulmonary infection. It may also dis- In tissue sections or primary wet preparations, the diagnostic
seminate, most commonly to skin but also to bone, joints, the form is a round, large (10 ‑ 50 µm) yeast cell with circumferential
meninges or other organs. Compromise of the immune system budding, giving the appearance of a mariner’s wheel f3.43. The
predisposes infected persons to dissemination (eg, HIV/AIDS, daughter cells bud on a narrow base from the mother cell.
corticosteroid use), and for some reason those in certain ethnic When cultured at 25 ‑ 30°C, P brasiliensis is a slow growing
groups (Filipino and African American) are at greater risk for mold with a white to tan surface and a variable texture that may
dissemination. Pregnancy in the third trimester is another risk be leathery, velvety or glabrous. Microscopic examination of the
f3.44 S schenckii mold colonies cultured at 25-30°C f3.46 S schenckii; yeast form cultured at 37°C
f3.45 S schenckii mold form; conidiophores topped by clusters of microconidia (“rosettes”) f3.47 S schenckii yeast form; “cigar bodies”
cultured mold reveals septate, hyaline hyphae with terminal and Sporothrix schenckii
intercalary chlamydospores, and infrequent, pear shaped micro- In tissue sections or primary wet preparations, S schenckii
conidia arranged along the hyphae. Definitive identification appears as 4 -
6 µm elongated (“cigar shaped”) yeasts with
requires conversion of the mold form to the yeast form. narrow based budding, usually seen in a background of puru-
Paracoccidioidomycosis is encountered in the rainforests lent inflammation.
of Central and South America. It can be acquired either by When cultured at 25 ‑ 30°C, the mold form grows moder-
inhalation or by direct inoculation during penetrating injury. ately to rapidly. Colonies are moist and white to pale orange
In adults, pulmonary infection is chronic and indolent, and initially, turning brown with age f3.44. Microscopic examina-
untreated infection often leads to dissemination involving tion of the cultured mold reveals very delicate, hyaline, sep-
the skin, oral mucosa, lymphatics, viscera or central nervous tate hyphae producing conidiophores topped by clusters of
system. In children and immunocompromised hosts, the infec- microconidia (“rosettes”) f3.45. Definitive identification requires
tion progresses more rapidly and frequently disseminates to conversion of the mold form to the yeast form, which exists as
involve bone marrow, lymphatics and the abdominal organs. tan to brown, creamy colonies f3.46. Yeast cells are oval or long
and thin (“cigar bodies”), and bud on a narrow base f3.47.
Penicillium marneffei
In tissue sections or primary wet preparations, P marneffei
appears as elongated, ovoid, small (3 - 5 µm) yeast that divide by
fission rather than by budding. They are frequently found within
histiocytes.
When cultured at 25 ‑ 30°C, P marneffei forms rapidly growing,
tan mold colonies that are initially powdery or velvety on the
surface, and become colored with maturity (typically blue/green
centrally, but other colors are also seen). A red pigment diffuses
into the agar around and underneath the mold colonies; this is an
important feature for correct identification. Microscopic exami- f3.48 Aspergillus species in tissue—narrow septate hyphae with acute-angle dichotomous
nation of the mold colonies reveals features indistinguishable evenly spaced branching is characteristic but not genus-specific
from other Penicillium species, including hyaline, septate hyphae
with conidiophores and metulae producing brushlike clusters
of phialides. Chains of small, oval conidia form at the terminal
ends of the phialides. For concrete identification, thermal dimor-
a b
phism should be demonstrated by converting the mold form to
the yeast form at 37°C. Yeast colonies are off-white to pink, and
consist of small (3 ‑ 5 μm), oval yeastlike cells that reproduce by
fission rather than by budding. Although they are yeastlike in
appearance, they are actually single celled arthroconidia.
Penicilliosis marneffei is endemic in Southeast Asia, and is not
found elsewhere. At particular risk are HIV/AIDS patients, among
whom the infection is most prevalent. The usual portal of entry is the
respiratory route, but pulmonary infection is not always a prominent f3.49 Aspergillus species, when growing in an air-filled space (in this case a paranasal sinus) may
clinical feature. Most cases lead to involving the bone marrow, skin, demonstrate the formation of fruiting heads; in this case, A niger
lymphatics, liver and spleen.
a a
b b
f3.50 A fumigatus colonies a are blue-green with a distinct white apron & b a light reverse f3.52 A flavus colonies a are yellow-green to olive with b a light reverse
f3.51 A fumigatus: swollen vesicles with single row of phialides (uniseriate) that cover only the top f3.53 A flavus: circumferential phialides
2/3 of the vesicle
f3.54 A niger colonies are dark brown to black; the reverse side is light b
f3.56 A terreus colonies a are cinnamon brown on the surface with b a yellow or orange reverse
f3.55 A niger: circumferential biseriate pigmented phialides A terreus colonies are cinnamon brown on the surface
f3.56a, with a yellow or orange reverse f3.56b. Microscopically,
A terreus looks superficially like A fumigatus, in that its
phialides cover only the top 2/3 of the vesicle. In contrast
to A fumigatus, though, A terreus is biseriate and typically
A niger cultures have a dark brown to black surface has longer chains of conidia. A terreus is intrinsically
f3.54, due to the dark (non-melanin) pigmentation of resistant to amphotericin B, unlike A fumigatus, A flavus
the conidia, but the reverse side is light. This contrasts or A niger.
with cultures of dematiaceous molds, which tend to be Aspergillosis most commonly affects the respiratory tract.
darkly pigmented front and back, and contain melanin. The type of respiratory disease caused by Aspergillus depends
Microscopic examination reveals vesicles with 2 rows on host factors. An immunocompetent individual with cavi-
of phialides (biseriate) covering the entire surface of the tary lung disease, such as from bronchiectasis or old tubercu-
vesicle f3.55. Phialides produce chains of rough, round, losis, is prone to develop the saprophytic form of aspergillosis:
dark conidia. Of note, A niger pulmonary infection an aspergilloma (fungus ball), which is a noninvasive coloni-
is associated with oxalosis (calcium oxalate tissue zation. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a
deposition). condition in which Aspergillus colonizes the airway, without
invasion, and elicits a marked allergic response characterized
by mucus impaction, peripheral eosinophilia, and reactive
airways. The inflammatory response can be sufficiently severe
a b
f3.59 Trichophyton rubrum; red reverse f3.60 Trichophyton rubrum; birds on a wire
arrangement. Each annellide bears a chain of rough-walled, microconidia, macroconidia, or both. These reproductive
round or truncated microconidia. structures are often the key to a species-level identification.
Conidia arranged singly: Chrysosporium species, Sepedonium Trichophyton rubrum: tear shaped microconidia are
species, and Beuveria species. Chrysosporium species form arranged along the hyphae, producing a “birds on a
single, cutoff microconidia directly on hyphae or on the tips of telephone wire” appearance f3.60.
simple conidiophores. They sometimes also produce interca-
Trichophyton mentagrophytes: microconidia are arranged
lary, cylindrical conidia resembling arthroconidia. Sepedonium
in clusters, and occasional spiral hyphae may be seen.
species have single-borne, hyaline conidia at the ends of
Club shaped macroconidia are sometimes present,
branched or unbranched conidiophores. The conidia are large,
containing 1 ‑ 6 cells each. T mentagrophytes has the
thick walled and echinulate, resembling the macroconidia of
ability to penetrate hair shafts, unlike T rubrum, which
the mold form of H capsulatum. Beuveria species are character-
can appear morphologically similar to some strains of
ized by single, small, round or oval microconidia emerging
T mentagrophytes.
from each inflection point in a zigzagging (geniculate), flask
shaped conidiophore. Although the conidia appear singly, the Trichophyton tonsurans is distinctive for the marked size
conidiophores themselves typically cluster together. and shape variability of its microconidia. Microconidia
may be round, tear shaped, cigar shaped, or swollen
Dermatophytes and enlarged. Intercalary chlamydospores are common,
Dermatophytes are considered separately from other hya- particularly in mature cultures.
line septate molds because they share certain unique features. Microsporum canis: macroconidia are spindle shaped and
They are keratinophilic, meaning that they are able to digest rough (echinulate), and taper to a knob-like end. Each
keratin as nutrient source using keratinases. This special macroconidium contains >6 cells, separated by transverse
ability informs their pathogenicity, which is mostly limited septae.
to infection of superficial, keratinized structures such as hair,
Microsporum gypseum: macroconidia are oval shaped
nails, and the stratum corneum of skin. In addition, they are
structures with rounded ends and transverse septae. Each
uniformly resistant to cycloheximide, a feature that is lever-
macroconidium contains 3-6 cells.
aged in culture strategies by including a cycloheximide-con-
taining medium when culturing for dermatophytes. Epidermophyton floccosum: macroconidia are smooth,
Rapid diagnosis of dermatophytosis can be made with a club shaped structures with rounded ends, which
bedside KOH prep or calcofluor white prep of skin scrap- may be found singly or in characteristic clusters.
ings. This does not permit species identification, which is not Each macroconidium contains 2 ‑ 6 cells, separated by
always necessary to guide therapy. transverse septae. Microconidia are never produced.
Dermatophytes are speciated based upon characteristic Dermatophyte infection may take many forms, including
colony and microscopic morphology after culture. Trichophyton tinea capitis (scalp ringworm), tinea corporis (ringworm),
rubrum has a particularly distinctive colony morphology, tinea cruris (jock itch), tinea pedis (athlete’s foot), and tinea
because it produces a red pigment that causes the reverse unguium (onychomycosis). Multiple dermatophyte species can
side of the plate to appear red f3.59. Microscopically, the der- cause the same clinical manifestation.
matophytes appear as hyaline, septate hyphae that produce
b f3.62 Alternaria species form chains of conidia with transverse & longitudinal (muriform) septations;
one end of each conidium is blunt & the other pointed
b f3.64 Pseudallescheria boydii/Scedosporium boydii complex forms a mold colony with a light brown
melanized surface
f3.63 A slow growing dematiaceous mold whose a early colony morphology is smooth & moist
(yeastlike) & whose b late colony morphology is fuzzy (moldlike); this would be typical of Exophiala,
Wangiella & Hortaea
Stemphilium conidia resemble those of ulocladium but are f3.65 Pseudallescheria boydii/Scedosporium boydii complex: oval, truncated, melanized microconidia
borne upon straight conidiophores, and frequently the with non-melanized hyphae
conidiophores will each produce only a single, terminal
conidium.
Slow growing dematiaceous molds may be grouped into 2 melanization of its oval, truncated microconidia f3.65. Its sep-
categories: those whose early growth is yeastlike (becoming tate hyphae are hyaline (non-melanized), resulting in a light
moldlike with age), and those whose early and late growth is reverse, which can darken with age. In its sexual state, the mold
moldlike. Those with yeastlike early growth produce smooth, produces large (50-200 μm), dark cleistothecia f3.66, whereas the
moist colonies in early culture f3.63a, composed of budding asexual form lacks this feature but is otherwise indistinguish-
yeastlike cells. With age, the colonies become fuzzy f3.63b and able. An alternative asexual form of the same mold, called
the microscopic morphology converts to septate hyphae with Graphium, is also sometimes seen. Its colony morphology is
conidia formation. Examples include Exophiala, Wangiella, and indistinguishable from P boydii or S boydii, but microscopically
Hortaea. Those with moldlike early growth produce fuzzy it is characterized by thick mats of long conidiophores stuck
colonies from the beginning. Examples include Pseudallescheria together side by side, resembling the bristles of a broom f3.67.
boydii/Scedosporium boydii complex and Scedosporium prolificans. P boydii/S boydii complex molds are intrinsically resistant to
The name “P boydii” refers to the sexual state of the mold, amphotericin B, but are usually susceptible to triazoles such
whereas S boydii refers to its asexual state. In either state, as voriconazole and posaconazole. A closely related species,
the mold has a light gray or brown surface f3.64, owing to Scedosporium apiospermum was thought until recently to be an
f3.66 Pseudallescheria boydii/Scedosporium boydii complex: in the sexual state, the mold produces b
large dark cleistothecia
f3.67 Pseudallescheria boydii/Scedosporium boydii complex: the alternative asexual form, Graphium,
characterized by thick mats of long conidiophores stuck together side by side, resembling the bristles
of a broom
f3.69 Scedosporium prolificans microconidia are oval & truncated, forming clusters at the end of
annellides, which have swollen bases & thin necks
a b a b
f3.72 Rhizopus species produce rhizoids & unbranched sporangiophores that arise directly over the c d
rhizoids; their sporangia are prominent spherical structures that tend to collapse when mature,
resembling a collapsed umbrella; their sporangiophores lack an apophysis
f3.75 Zygomycetes
a A necrotic vessel containing angioinvasive ribbonlike hyphae seen better b at high magnification in
H&E stained sections
c The trichrome stained section highlights the residual vessel wall
d A residual thrombosed vessel in cross section, with numerous mural hyphae
contain spores) are prominent spherical structures full
of tiny spores which tend to collapse when mature,
resembling a collapsed umbrella. Sporangiophores lack
an apophysis.
Mucor species f3.73, f3.74 do not produce rhizoids.
Sporangiophores can be branched or unbranched, but
lack an apophysis. Their sporangia are large spherical
structures that tend to fall apart, releasing their numerous
spores.
f3.73 Mucor species: colonies are rapidly growing (lid lifters), fluffy & become pigmented with the
development of sporangia Lichtheimia (formerly Absidia) produces rhizoids but its
sporangiophores arise at points between rhizoids, rather
than over the rhizoids. Sporangiophores are branched
and form a conical apophysis at the top.
Cunninghamella species differ from most zygomycetes in
that their branched sporangiophores are topped by large
vesicles. The vesicles are covered with spines (denticles),
each of which supports a single spore contained within a
round sporangiolum.
Zygomycetes may produce several forms of invasive
infection: rhinocerebral, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, and
cutaneous. Hosts are typically immunocompromised, and
important risk factors include uncontrolled diabetes (espe-
cially ketoacidosis), stem cell or solid organ transplantation,
neutropenia, corticosteroid therapy or severe burns. Like
Aspergillus species, the zygomycetes characteristically invade
vessel walls and thereby produce parenchymal infarction and
sometimes disseminated infection. They can be seen in rou-
tine H&E-stained sections f3.75.
Fungal isolate growing in culture at accompanied by appropriate colony morphology and micro-
scopic morphology. Importantly, other commonly isolated basid-
25 ‑ 30°C as yeast: yeast & yeastlike fungi iomycetous yeasts are also urease+, including Rhodotorula species
Approach to identification and Trichosporon species, so a positive urease test alone cannot be
Presumptive identification methods relied upon to presumptively identify Cryptococcus species
Chromogenic agar plates (Chromagar) are available that
are selective for yeast, while inhibiting the growth of bac- Phenol oxidase test
teria, and allowing for differentiation between some common Demonstration of phenol oxidase enzyme activity can dif-
Candida species on the basis of colony color after incubation. ferentiate Cryptococcus neoformans from nonneoformans
Chromogenic compounds within the medium are used to Cryptococcus species and from other yeast genera. C neoformans
demonstrate enzyme activity that is species specific. If pri- is uniquely able to oxidize diphenolic compounds such as caffeic
mary specimens are directly cultured on this medium, a pre- acid, dopamine, and dopa to produce darkly pigmented melanin
sumptive identification of C albicans, C tropicalis, or C krusei can or melanin precursors. The classic phenol oxidase test involves
be made after 24 ‑ 48 hour incubation at 35 ‑ 37°C. This method culturing a yeast isolate on bird seed agar, a natural source of
is particularly useful in fungal culture of specimens from the caffeic acid. Growth of brown-pigmented yeast colonies after
vagina, oropharynx, stool or urine, where Candida species are overnight incubation supports the presumptive identification of
frequently encountered along with resident bacterial flora. C neoformans, whereas white or nonpigmented colonies indicate
a negative result. A more rapid method involves the use of caf-
Germ tube test feic acid disks, which are inoculated with a yeast isolate and can
This assay can be performed on yeast isolates (after initial demonstrate brown pigment production within a few hours.
culture) to rapidly identify C albicans presumptively. The test
relies on 2 principles Definitive identification methods
1. Yeast cells of C albicans begin to produce hyphal elements Assimilation tests
(pseudohyphae and true hyphae) more rapidly than most These tests assess the ability of an isolate to use a particular
other species carbohydrate as its sole carbon source, or its ability to use nitrate
2. C albicans yeast cells are able to produce true hyphae as its sole source of nitrogen. Several commercially-available,
without a constriction between the mother cell and the biochemical identification systems are available that combine
hyphal element, whereas most yeast species can produce a battery of assimilation tests for yeast identification. Because
only pseudohyphae, which do have a constriction these systems rely on yeast metabolism, a prolonged incubation
period (18 - 48 hours) is required to obtain results. However, they
Briefly, yeast are suspended in serum and incubated at 37°C
are accurate and provide a species-level identification along
for up to 3 hours (no more). A wet mount is prepared
with a confidence score, to help interpret the results.
and examined for the formation of germ tubes—yeast cells
producing hyphae with no constriction at the juncture with the
MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry
yeast cell. Sensitivity is good but not 100%, and the absence of
This method allows for the analysis of yeast isolates without
germ tubes does not rule out C albicans. Specificity is also high,
the need for growth and metabolism, and therefore can provide
but C dubliniensis also produces germ tubes within 3 hours.
a full identification in a matter of minutes. In this method, an
isolate taken from an agar plate is transferred to a target slide.
Rapid trehalose assimilation
The sample on the target slide is then overlaid with a matrix
This test can presumptively identify C glabrata, using yeast
solution, and loaded into the ionization chamber of a matrix-
isolates after initial culture. Unlike most other yeast, C glabrata
assisted laser desorption/ionization time of flight (MALDI-TOF)
has the ability to ferment trehalose rapidly at 42°C. To perform
mass spectrometer. The sample is irradiated by a laser, causing
the test, a yeast isolate is inoculated into broth containing treha-
the sample/matrix mixture to vaporize. During this process,
lose and a pH indicator. After a short (3 hour) incubation at 42°C,
proteins in the sample acquire an electrical charge. Electric
fermentation of the substrate causes a color change, indicating a
fields in the instrument then push the charged proteins into
positive result. The test is very sensitive, and specificity is high,
a vacuum tube. The time of flight through the vacuum tube
particularly if one only tests isolates with appropriate micro-
is measured, and used to determine the mass of each protein
scopic morphology (small budding yeast producing no pseudo-
within a certain size range. From these data, a mass spectrum is
hyphae, and germ tube negative).
compiled, which serves as a type of fingerprint that can be used
to identify the organism. The mass spectrum generated from
Urease test
the sample is compared to a database of spectra generated from
Detection of urease enzyme activity can distinguish asco-
known yeast species, to provide a species-level identification
mycetous yeasts, which do not have urease activity, from
and an associated confidence score. The same methodology can
basidiomycetous yeasts, which do. It is most commonly used
be used to identify bacteria, mycobacteria, and molds.
to presumptively identify Cryptococcus species isolates after
Demonstration of specific morphology using specialized
initial culture. Urea disks are available for rapid testing and
media: Certain media, especially rice or cornmeal agar supple-
can detect urease activity by a color change within a few hours.
mented with Tween 80, will reliably induce formation of char-
An alternative method involves the use of urea agar slants, but
acteristic yeast structures such as blastoconidia, pseudohyphae,
this requires a longer incubation. A positive urease test can aid
true hyphae, arthroconidia or chlamydospores (chlamydoco-
in the presumptive identification of Cryptococcus species, when
nidia). Microscopic examination can be performed by dropping
f3.76 Pseudohyphae: note the constriction between the yeast & the hyphal structure f3.78 C albicans on yeast morphology medium: pseudohyphae with clusters of blastoconidia at
septations & single terminal chlamydospores
f3.77 C albicans colonies frequently form filamentous extensions (“feet”) around the edges f3.79 C glabrata: slow growing smooth creamy colonies lacking “feet”
a coverslip directly on the agar and examining the yeast struc- f3.77—a characteristic that helps to differentiate C albicans from
tures through the coverslip. This method can be used alone to nonalbicans species. When cultured on yeast morphology
identify yeast, but is more often used as a supplemental test medium (cornmeal or rice agar with Tween), C albicans forms
when more convenient identification methods prove inad- pseudohyphae with clusters of blastoconidia present at the
equate for definitive identification of a particular isolate. septations. In addition, single, terminal chlamydospores are
seen f3.78. C albicans is positive by the germ tube test and forms
Notes on specific yeasts green colonies on chromogenic agar. Most clinical isolates are
Candida species susceptible to azole agents, echinocandins, and amphotericin
C albicans is by far the most common Candida species iso- B.
lated from humans, regardless of specimen type or host. On C glabrata is frequently isolated from blood and urine. Direct
direct examination, C albicans appears as 3 ‑ 5 µm budding examination reveals small (2 ‑ 4 µm) budding yeast (blastoco-
yeast with accompanying pseudohyphae f3.76, and occasionally nidia), without pseudohyphae or other structures. In culture,
true hyphae as well. Colonies grown on solid medium fre- isolates are relatively slow growing in comparison to other
quently form filamentous extensions (“feet”) around the edges Candida species, and may take an extra day of incubation for
a b
f3.81 C neoformans: a Wright stain & b calcofluor white show spherical, narrow-budding yeasts that
vary greatly in size
a b
f3.80 C glabrata on yeast morphology medium: budding yeast with no additional structures formed
Cryptococcus neoformans
Although there are numerous species within the genus,
the main human pathogens are C neoformans and C gattii.
Previously, C gattii was considered a variety of C neoformans,
but these have now been classified as separate species. C neo-
formans is the cause of most infections in the US. C gattii, pre-
viously confined to tropical zones, has now been reported as
an emerging infection in the Pacific northwest region of the f3.83 C neoformans: mucoid colonies on solid agar
United States.
In histologic sections or direct wet mounts, cryptococci
present as spherical, narrow-budding yeasts that vary in
The cryptococcal capsular polysaccharide antigen can be
size from 3 - 15 µm f3.81. The yeast are encapsulated (although
detected in either serum or body fluids (usually CSF). Latex
rare capsule-deficient strains exist), a feature that can be
particles coated with antibodies against cryptococcal capsular
highlighted in tissue using a mucicarmine stain, or in wet
antigen form the basis for this simple agglutination test.
mounts using india ink f3.82. The yeast cell walls contain
C neoformans is acquired by inhalation during exposure to
melanin, which makes them positive by the Fontana-Masson
contaminated soil, particularly soil containing bird excreta (eg,
stain in tissue sections. Colonies grown on solid agar are fre-
pigeon, chicken). C gattii appears to be associated with trees,
quently mucoid f3.83, owing to the capsular material. Whether
especially eucalyptus trees. C gattii has become increasingly
visualized directly in primary specimens or after culture,
relevant in the US for 2 reasons: it is an emerging infection in
Cryptococcus forms only budding yeast, and never forms other
the Pacific northwest, and seems capable of causing infection
structures like pseudohyphae.
in immunocompetent hosts.
Bacteriology
Laboratory methods
Specimens
Routine aerobic and anaerobic cultures can be performed
on a wide variety of specimens. Specimens for anaerobic
b c culture should be transported to the lab immediately, or in
anaerobic transport containers. Specimens transported anaer-
obically can be used for aerobic cultures as well. The following
sites normally harbor indigenous anaerobic flora and should
not be cultured for anaerobes: stool, skin, oropharynx, vagina,
and urethra. Anaerobic culture is best reserved for specimens
obtained from normally-sterile sites.
Blood culture bottles are ideally inoculated with 10 mL of
blood per bottle (in adults), and typically a 2- bottle set (con-
d e sisting of 1 aerobic and 1 anaerobic bottle) is collected from a
given anatomic site (20 mL per set). Inoculation of <10 mL per
bottle in adults reduces yield; likewise, collecting only a single
set of bottles per episode is discouraged, because the total
volume cultured is inadequate and interpretation of results is
more difficult. The optimal number of blood cultures per epi-
sode is 3 sets, but the minimum should be 2 sets (40 mL total)
drawn from separate sites. Bacteremic children tend to have a
higher concentration of organisms in their blood than adults,
f3.84 Pneumocystis: characteristic exudative material is seen within alveolar airspaces on a an H&E and so collection of smaller quantities of blood for culture in
stained lung section & b on Pap stained & c Wright stained sputum smears; note the central dot visible
within the empty spaces on the Wright stained preparation children is acceptable. In children, the volume collected should
In GMS stained preparations at d low & e high magnification, the organisms are approximately the not exceed 1% of total blood volume.
size of yeast but do not bud; they tend to cluster & have a central dark staining dot when stained with
silver stains; cyst forms are round or cup shaped & have been likened to crushed ping pong balls
Direct examination
Gram staining is routinely performed on certain specimen
types, especially those collected from normally-sterile sites.
Blood and urine specimens are not examined directly, because
Pneumocystis jiroveci Gram staining is too insensitive to be practical. For CSF, the
Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly known as P carinii) is an atyp- specimen must be concentrated by cytocentrifugation prior to
ical fungus that cannot be cultured in vitro. Laboratory diag- staining and examination. t3.32, t3.33
nosis depends upon direct examination of clinical specimens.
The organism was first recognized as a cause of human dis- Gram stain procedure
ease a century ago, at which time it mainly affected the severely
Heat-fix a smeared slide
malnourished. In this population it was generally associated
with interstitial plasma cell pneumonitis or granulomatous Apply crystal violet for 20 seconds, then wash with water
pneumonitis. In the late 20th century, P jiroveci emerged as Add iodine for 20 seconds, then wash with water
a major pathogen in HIV-infected patients. In HIV infected
Decolorize with acetone-alcohol, then wash with water
patients, the strongest risk factor is a CD4 count <200 cells/mL.
In addition to the HIV infected, populations at risk include those Apply safranin for 20 seconds, then wash with water
with primary immunodeficiency, particularly severe combined Blot dry and examine at 1,000× magnification (oil
immunodeficiency (SCID), patients undergoing chemotherapy, immersion light microscopy)
especially for lymphoma, and patients receiving immunosup-
pression for transplant or collagen vascular disease.
t3.34 Commonly used nonselective media t3.36 Commonly used differential media
Medium Type Purpose Medium Type Basis for differentiation Purpose
Sheep blood Solid General bacteriology; supports the growth of most bacteria, with MacConkey Solid Lactose fermentation results in Differentiating between lactose
agar important exceptions (eg, N gonorrhea, H influenzae & Legionella). (MAC) agar pink or red coloration of colonies fermenting & nonlactose
Chocolate agar Solid Cultivation/isolation of fastidious bacteria like Neisseria species & Lactose nonfermenters form fermenting enterics
Haemophilus species, but not Legionella species translucent colonies
Buffered Solid Recovery of Legionella species; contains cysteine & iron Eosin methylene Solid Lactose fermentation results in Differentiating between lactose
charcoal-yeast supplementation, necessary to support growth of Legionella blue (EMB) purple-black colonies or colonies fermenting & nonlactose
extract (BCYE) Activated charcoal helps bind & sequester growth inhibitors that may be with a green metallic sheen fermenting enterics
agar present in the specimen Lactose nonfermenters form
Mueller-Hinton Solid Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of many common bacteria translucent colonies
agar Hektoen enteric Solid Lactose and/or sucrose Differentiating between lactose
Thioglycolate Liquid Cultivation of bacteria, including microaerophilic & obligately anaerobic (HE) agar fermentation results in yellow or and/or sucrose fermenting
broth bacteria; oxygen tension decreases toward bottom of tube, permitting orange coloration of colonies enterics & nonlactose or
growth of obligate anaerobes & microaerophilic bacteria without Lactose & sucrose nonfermenters nonsucrose fermenting
incubation in an anaerobic atmosphere form translucent colonies enterics
. H2S production results in black Differentiating between
coloration of colonies H2S-producing & non-H2S-
producing enterics
t3.35 Commonly used selective media Salmonella- Solid Lactose fermentation results in Differentiating between
Shigella (SS) pink or red colonies lactose fermenting enterics
Medium Type Basis for selectivity Purpose agar Lactose nonfermenters form & nonlactose fermenting
MacConkey agar (MAC) Solid Bile salts & crystal violet inhibit Cultivation/isolation of hardy translucent colonies enterics
growth of Gram+ bacteria & enteric Gram– rods H2S production results in black Differentiating between
delicate Gram– bacteria coloration of colonies H2S-producing & non-H2S-
Eosin methylene blue Solid Aniline dyes inhibit growth of Cultivation/isolation of hardy producing enterics
(EMB) Gram+ bacteria enteric Gram– rods Thiosulfate- Solid Sucrose fermentation results in Differentiating between
Campylobacter blood Solid Antimicrobials to which Recovery of Campylobacter citrate-bile yellow colonies sucrose fermenting Vibrios
agar (Campy-BAP) Campylobacter species are species salts-sucrose Sucrose nonfermenters form (eg, Vibrio cholerae) & sucrose
resistant (cephalothin, (TCBS) agar translucent colonies nonfermenting Vibrios
vancomycin, trimethoprim, Cefsulodin- Solid Mannitol fermentation results in Differentiating between
amphotericin B, polymyxin B) Irgasan- characteristic “bull’s eye” colonies mannitol fermenting
Hektoen enteric (HE) Solid Bile salts & the dyes bromthymol Enhanced recovery of Novobiocin (colorless with red center) Yersinia species (eg, Yersinia
agar blue & acid fuchsin inhibit the Salmonella & Shigella, (CIN) agar Mannitol nonfermenters form enterocolitica) & mannitol
growth of Gram+ organisms & compared with MAC or EMB translucent colonies nonfermenting Yersinia
some Gram– strains species
Salmonella-Shigella (SS) Solid Bile salts, sodium citrate & Recovery of Salmonella & Motility test Semi-solid Motile organisms show growth Differentiating between motile
agar brilliant green dye inhibit Shigella, although Shigella agar spreading away from the line & nonmotile bacteria
Gram+ bacteria & many enterics strains may be inhibited or inoculation (stab), clouding
other than Salmonella Not recommended for the agar
primary isolation of Shigella Nonmotile organisms stay within
Selenite broth Liquid Sodium selenite inhibits growth Recovery & enrichment of the stab, leaving the remaining
of Gram+ bacteria & many Salmonella agar clear
enterics other than Salmonella
Thiosulfate-citrate-bile Solid Bile salts inhibit Gram+ bacteria Recovery of Vibrio species
salts-sucrose (TCBS) Alkaline pH inhibits most enterics Culture temperature
agar & enhances growth of Vibrio The optimal temperature for initial incubation is usually
species
Cefsulodin-Irgasan- Solid Antimicrobials (cefsulodin, Recovery of Yersinia species
37°C. Yersinia enterocolitica and certain Pseudomonas species (eg,
novobiocin (CIN) agar Irgasan, novobiocin) & crystal Pseudomonas fluorescens, Pseudomonas putida) grow optimally at
violet inhibit most Gram– & 25°C to 30°C, while the Campylobacter species most commonly
Gram+ bacteria other than associated with diarrheal illness (C jejuni and C coli) grow
Yersinia species optimally at 42°C. Listeria monocytogenes grows optimally at
Anaerobic colistin- Solid Antimicrobials (colistin, nalidixic Recovery of anaerobic 37°C, but displays its characteristic motility only at 25°C, and is
nalidixic acid (CNA) agar acid) inhibit Gram– bacteria streptococci; blood in the
agar allows differentiation notoriously able to multiply at refrigeration temperature (4°C).
based on hemolytic reactions
Lim broth Liquid Antimicrobials (colistin, nalidixic Recovery of Group B
acid) inhibit Gram– bacteria streptococci (S agalactiae)
Regan-Lowe medium Solid Antimicrobials to which Recovery of Bordetella
Bordetella species are resistant pertussis & Bordetella
(cephalexin) parapertussis
Thayer-Martin medium Solid Antimicrobials to which Recovery of Neisseria species
Neisseria species are resistant from nonsterile sites
(vancomycin, colistin, nystatin,
& SXT)
a b a b c
f7.39 Her2 by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) f7.40 Basal-like invasive breast carcinoma
a The ratio of Her2 signals (red) & chromosome 17 signals (green) is 1.0; no amplification is present a Low magnification view shows a somewhat circumscribed tumor with central collagenous scarlike zone
b Large clusters of Her2 signals (red) are present in this case with Her2 amplification b Intermediate magnification shows that the tumor is composed of high grade epithelial cells
arranged in somewhat syncytial trabecular groups
c Strong & diffuse expression of CK5/6
is a ratio <1.8. Equivocal FISH results (ratio between 1.8 and roughly the same rate as those positive for both; however, ER–,
2.2) should be repeated or more cells counted. If repeatedly PR+ tumors respond in only ~15% of cases.
equivocal FISH results are obtained, IHC should be considered
(if not already done). BRCA-associated tumors
~1/2 of familial breast cancer is caused by inherited defects
TP53 tumor suppressor gene in one of the BRCA genes. In most of the remaining familial
The TP53 gene (17p) encodes the transcription factor p53. It cases, no defined genetic defect has been identified.
is the normal function of p53 to bind to several specific DNA There are 2 BRCA genes, BRCA1 located on chromosome
sequences and enhance their transcription. The genes it nor- 17q21, and BRCA2 on chromosome 13q12 ‑ 13. Each encodes
mally enhances—such as those which promote apoptosis and a tumor suppressor protein. Each of the genes is large, with
others which inhibit entry into the cell cycle—work in concert thousands of described mutations, making mutation detec-
to control cell division. Clinically significant TP53 muta- tion difficult. BRCA mutations are especially prevalent in
tions usually affect the DNA binding domain and result in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. A quarter of Ashkenazi
loss of specificity of p53 protein; thus, this effective promoter women with breast cancer harbor BRCA mutations. Within
of transcription becomes less inclined to promote its usual this population, mutation detection is facilitated by a small
targets and becomes free to activate other genes. number of founder mutations that account for 90% of all cases:
Mutated TP53 encodes a p53 protein that is resistant to deg- 185delAG mutation in BRCA1, 5385insC mutation in BRCA1,
radation (so-called TP53 stabilized mutant protein); thus TP53 and 6174delT mutation of BRCA2.
mutations, though associated with decreased p53 functional A mutated BRCA gene (BRCA1 or BRCA2) is expressed in an
activity, are associated with increased p53 immunohistochem- autosomal dominant fashion, with high penetrance. In fami-
ical (IHC) staining. lies harboring germline BRCA gene mutations, there are often
In breast cancer, TP53 mutations correlate with tumor 2 or more generations of women with premenopausal breast
aggressiveness, higher tumor grade, and lower rates of ER/ cancer, sometimes arising bilaterally. In addition, there is an
PR expression. There is some evidence that TP53 mutation increased risk of neoplasms of the ovary, fallopian tube, colon,
may reduce the efficacy of chemotherapeutic agents whose uterus, and pancreas. In particular, the BRCA2 6174delT muta-
mechanism of action involves the induction of apoptosis; eg, tion is strongly associated with familial pancreatic cancer. In
adriamycin, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU). families with BRCA2 mutations, there is a high rate of prostate
cancer. BRCA mutations increase the lifetime risk of breast
Steroid receptors cancer to 80%, compared to the 10% risk seen in the general
The steroid receptors ER and PR, like all steroid recep- population. Such mutations increase the risk of ovarian cancer
tors, reside within the nucleus and, when bound to steroid to 50%, especially BRCA1 mutations. The lifetime risk of breast
hormone, activate transcription of specific genes. There is an cancer in a male who carries a BRCA mutation is ~6%; BRCA2
α form and a β form for both ER and PR. In the case of ER, carries a higher male breast cancer risk than does BRCA1.
these are encoded by separate largely homologous genes. In About 5% of all women with breast cancer and 25% of
contrast, PRα and PRβ are encoded by the same gene, one with Ashkenazi Jewish women with breast cancer have a germ-
more 3′ (amino-terminal) material than the other. In routine line BRCA mutation. Additionally, in a woman with breast
immunohistochemical assays for ER, only ERα is measured; cancer who is found to harbor a BRCA mutation, the risk of
whereas the PR assay measures both PRα and PRβ. cancer developing in the contralateral breast is 25%. BRCA-
A clinical response to hormonal therapy (tamoxifen, aroma- associated breast cancers often have distinctive though not
tase inhibitors, or LHRH agonists) is largely, but not entirely, entirely specific histologic features. The tumors tend to have a
dependent upon the expression of steroid hormone recep- high nuclear grade, a central acellular scar-like zone, pushing
tors. In fact, ~70% of tumors expressing both ER and PR will rather than infiltrating margins, and tumor-infiltrating lym-
respond to hormonal therapy, and only ~5% of tumors nega- phocytes (medullary carcinoma-like histology) f7.40. They are
tive for ER and PR will respond. ER+, PR– tumors respond at most negative for ER, PR, and HER2 (triple-negative), nega-
tive for luminal cytokeratins (CK8/18), and positive for basal
cell markers (CK5/6). This constellation of findings has been 2. basal-like—expressing high molecular-weight
described as the basal-like phenotype. While typical of BRCA- cytokeratins (CK5/17 or 5/6), having a poor prognosis,
associated tumors, basal-like carcinoma is frequently seen often ER– and high nuclear grade, but sensitive to
sporadically. chemotherapy
3. HER2+—also associated with a poor prognosis and
Other inherited influences upon breast cancer sensitivity to chemotherapy, almost always associated
Germline mutations in P53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome), PTEN with amplified HER2
(Cowden syndrome), CDH1 (hereditary diffuse gastric cancer It is clear depending on the nature of the clustering that some
syndrome), and STK11 (Peutz-Jeghers syndrome) are associ- of these groups may have subgroups (luminal-A, luminal-B,
ated with an increased risk of breast cancer. luminal-C) but the significance of these subgroups is unclear
in relationship to the parent group. Note also that “basal-like”
Molecular classification of breast carcinoma (gene and “triple-negative” are not synonymous terms. While most
expression profiling) basal-like tumors are in fact triple-negative, a wide variety of
It has long been acknowledged that certain histologic sub- triple-negative tumors do not have basal-like features.
types of breast cancer demonstrate particular clinical courses, Predictive panels to determine response to chemotherapy
while some seemingly histologically disparate tumors behave also promise to improve response to particular agents. By
similarly. In addition it is known that the benefit of adjuvant testing tumors for genes that are associated with response to
chemotherapy is variable between patients. Classification of individual agents, such as tamoxifen or one of the taxols it can
breast carcinomas by gene expression patterns and the utiliza- be predicted whether a patient may respond and a tailored
tion of gene expression panels to make clinical decisions have chemotherapeutic regimen can be designed. A further chal-
gained support as a means to better characterize tumors and lenge is to combine the results of prognostic and predictive
better predict their behavior. Some of the first work was done panels to determine whether a patient with a certain molecular
with predictive quantitative multigene panels. In an effort to expression group responds to a particular chemotherapeutic
stratify patients who would derive the most benefit from adju- reagent.
vant hormone therapy, panels of genes including proliferation Much is still unknown, particularly about how robust
markers, hormone receptors and some downstream targets molecular classification will be, but the promise exists for
of hormone receptors, and genes associated with metastatic tailoring therapeutic options and prognosis based on gene
disease among others were constructed. Given the quantitative expression patterns. Of note, it has recently been demonstrated
basis the results are given as a quantitative “score.” Patients that a combination of morphology and immunohistochemical
with certain test values are predicted to derive the most benefit analysis can be used to derive results comparable to those
from hormone therapy while others less so. Since the initial obtained by gene expression profiling t7.14.
description of this test many others with similar testing strate-
gies have evolved with likely more in the future. The design t7.14 Breast cancer subtyping by morphology & IHC
of markers to determine whether any individual tumor will
Subtype Morphology ER, PR, Her2 Other IHC Notes
respond to a particular chemotherapeutic regimen, such as
Luminal A Low grade ER+, PR±, Low Ki67 Sensitive to endocrine
the quantitative multigene assays previously described, is a ductal, NOS Her2– CK8/18+ therapy, variable response to
form of supervised (directed) classification. If a large panel of chemotherapy, overall good
expressed genes is grouped according to their expression pat- prognosis
terns (eg, upregulated, downregulated), this is referred to as Luminal B High grade ER+, PR±, Mod to high Ki67 Tend to be sensitive to
unsupervised classification. ductal, NOS Her2+ CK8/18+ endocrine therapy, variable
response to chemotherapy,
Unsupervised classification of gene expression by math- more aggressive than
ematical tools such as hierarchical clustering allows patterns luminal A
to evolve and groups to form based on shared molecular Her2+ ER–, PR–, High Ki67 Sensitive to trastuzumab
expression features. Surprisingly, once tumors are grouped Her2+
into clusters the gene expression patterns within these groups Basal-like Triple negative High Ki67 Resistant to everything,
CK5/6+, P63+ require aggressive
is fairly consistent. In addition the expression pattern of most
chemotherapy
genes is consistent between groups. There are, however, genes BRCA1-related
that can be used to distinguish certain groups with high Triple-negative Triple negative
reproducibility. The most basic groups based on hierarchical
clustering are
1. luminal—expressing low molecular-weight cytokeratins
(CK8/18), harboring a favorable outcome, and most often
associated with ER positivity
Genitourinary tumors
Renal cell carcinoma syndromes
Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome (VHL syndrome) is an auto-
somal dominant condition causing predisposition to a variety
of tumors, including clear cell renal cell carcinoma, hemangio-
blastoma of the central nervous system (cerebellum, retina, or
spinal cord), pheochromocytoma, pancreatic islet cell tumors
and cysts, cystadenomas of the epididymis or broad liga-
ment, and the papillary tumor of endolymphatic sac origin.
Germline mutations in the gene VHL located on chromosome
3p25 ‑ 26 account for the majority of cases. Alteration of 3p is
extremely common in sporadic clear cell renal cell carcinoma.
A form of the syndrome having all the usual features except
pheochromocytoma is known as type 1 VHL. It is associated
with nonproduction of the VHL gene product, resulting from
gene deletion or missense mutation. Forms of the syndrome
with a high risk of pheochromocytoma are known as type 2
VHL, and these are associated with missense mutations. The
VHL gene product is a part of a ubiquitin-dependent complex f7.41 Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome-associated renal tumor
that is responsible for the degradation of the hypoxia inducible
factor (HIF-1). Increased HIF-1 leads to increased angiogenesis
and promotion of tumor growth.
Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome is an autosomal dominant con- upon prognosis, while loss of 14q, 9p, and 8p each correlates
dition predisposing to renal cell carcinoma. Skin lesions with higher stage and a worse prognosis.
and spontaneous pneumothorax complete the diagnostic Papillary renal cell carcinoma accounts for ~15% of renal
triad. Skin manifestations include multiple fibrofolliculomas, cell carcinomas. Like many of the nonclear variants, the gross
trichodiscomas, and acrochordons, especially affecting the appearance is that of a uniform brown tumor. Papillary renal
head, neck, and upper trunk. The lung contains numerous cell carcinoma is often multifocal. There are 2 histologic
cystic parenchymal spaces in addition to blebs and bullae, subtypes—type 1, characterized by bland cuboidal cells on
causing recurrent spontaneous pneumothorax. The spon- tubular or papillary formations, and type 2, which has larger
taneous pneumothoraces tend to involve the lower lobes of pseudostratified cells lining papillary cores. The vascular
the lung, unlike most other conditions that predispose to cores in each tend to have foamy interstitial macrophages.
pneumothorax (α1 antitrypsin deficiency, lymphangiomyoma- Type 2 papillary RCC is more often associated with multiple
tosis, Langerhans cell histiocytosis, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, chromosomal anomalies, but both can be associated with loss
Marfan syndrome). The renal tumors tend to be bilateral and of the Y chromosome and gains of chromosomes 7 and 17
multifocal and have features of a combined chromophobe (similar to urothelial carcinoma). These chromosomal abnor-
renal cell carcinoma and oncocytoma f7.41. Mutations of the malities help differentiate papillary RCC from the histologi-
BHD (FLCN) gene on chromosome 17p11.2 encoding the pro- cally similar mucinous tubular and spindle cell carcinoma of
tein folliculin are responsible for the syndrome. the kidney.
Familial clear cell renal cell carcinoma is associated with
mutations of 3p and lacks the other features of the VHL syn- t7.15 2004 WHO classification of renal tumors (modified)
drome. A hereditary form of papillary renal cell carcinoma
is associated with bilateral papillary renal cell carcinomas Tumor Immunophenotype Genetic anomalies Behavior
Clear cell renal cell CD10+, vimentin+, RCC Ag+ del(3p) Aggressive
and gain of function mutations of the protooncogene C-MET carcinoma
on chromosome 7q31. C-MET functions in a manner similar Papillary renal cell CD10+, vimentin+, Loss of Y, gains of 7 & 17 Indolent
to C-KIT, with mutation resulting in a constitutively acti- carcinoma AMACR+, CK7+
vated tyrosine kinase. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with Chromophobe renal cell CD10–/+, vimentin–, Loss of Y, 1, 2, 6, 10, 13, Indolent
increased incidence of renal cell carcinoma, but is much more carcinoma CD117+, CK7+ 17 & 21
commonly associated with the renal angiomyolipoma. Collecting (Bellini) duct CD10–, vimentin–, high MW del(1q) Aggressive
carcinoma keratin+
Renal medullary carcinoma CD10–, vimentin–, CEA+ Unknown Aggressive
Sporadic renal cell carcinoma Xp11.2 translocation TFE3+ (nuclear) Xp11.2 translocation Indolent
The most common type of renal cell carcinoma t7.15 is con- carcinoma CD10+
ventional clear cell carcinoma. Portions of the short arm of Oncocytoma CD10–/+, vimentin±, CK7 Highly variable: loss of Benign
chromosome 3 are deleted in most cases. 3 particular loci are rare focal +, CD117+ 1, 14. t(5;11)
disproportionately affected: 3p14, 3p25.3 (the location of the Mucinous, tubular & CD10–, vimentin+ Loss of 1, 4, 6, 8, 13, 14 Indolent
spindle cell carcinoma
VHL gene), and 3p21.3. Only a small percentage of cases have Angiomyolipoma HMB45+ LOH at TSC2 on 16p Benign
3p anomalies as the sole abnormality; most tumors start
with 3p mutations and collect additional ones, commonly in
14q, 9p, 8p, and 6q. Furthermore, del(3p) by itself has no impact
Wilms tumor
a b Nephroblastoma or Wilms tumor is most often caused by
a mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11p13. Wilms
tumor is a feature of WAGR syndrome, which is caused by a
microdeletion that involves the WT1 gene and adjacent PAX6
gene. Loss of PAX6 is associated with the aniridia of WAGR
syndrome.
Prostate cancer
f7.42 Renal carcinoma with Xp11.2 translocation When studied by conventional cytogenetics, most pros-
tatic adenocarcinomas have a normal karyotype. However,
numerous small abnormalities are demonstrable by FISH or
comparative genomic hybridization (CGH), the most common
of which is loss of 8p. More recently, a recurrent translocation
Chromophobe RCC has clear to microvacuolated cytoplasm t(4;6)(q22;q15) has been demonstrated. Found in ~10% of cases,
and distinct “plant cell” borders. Hale colloidal iron and CD7 this translocation creates the fusion transcript TMPRSS2:ERG,
preferentially stain chromophobe RCC and help to distinguish and is associated with high stage at presentation, high tumor
it from oncocytoma. CD117 helps to distinguish it from clear volume, and high baseline PSA levels. Several oncogenes are
cell RCC. Most chromophobe RCCs are hypodiploid with overexpressed in prostatic adenocarcinoma, MYC and BCL2
common losses of multiple chromosomes including Y, 1, 2, 6, especially, and many cases demonstrate mutations in PTEN,
10, 13, 17, and 21. GSTP1, and P53.
Renal carcinoma with Xp11.2 translocation most commonly Some genes overexpressed in carcinoma have been
affects children and young adults. The tumor has a distinc- exploited for diagnostic purposes. The prostate cancer 3
tive appearance with alveolar (nested) and papillary architec- (PCA3) gene encodes a nontranslated transcript called DDT3
ture, clear cells, and psammoma bodies f7.42. Based upon the that is excreted in urine. The DDT3 transcript is elevated in
foregoing, therefore, TFE3-associated carcinoma should be >95% of prostate cancers (by 66-fold on average). The gene
thought of whenever encoding PSA, KLK3, is not overexpressed (increased PSA
1. a diagnosis of a RCC with a mixed histologic pattern is in cancer is probably caused by increased release of the pro-
entertained tein into the extracellular matrix). Using quantitative reverse
2. any RCC is seen in a child transcriptase PCR, the quantity of the PCA3 transcript can be
The tumor is characteristically negative for EMA (a marker measured and compared to the urine PSA (to correct for the
uniformly positive in conventional clear cell carcinoma) but number of prostatic cells obtained).
positive for CD10. Translocations of the transferrin receptor About 5% of cases are associated with a strong family his-
TFE3 gene is responsible for the disease. Several Xp11.2 tory. The proportion may be as high as 40% in cases diagnosed
abnormalities have been described in connection with these before age 55. Presently, most cases are thought to be linked
tumors, including t(X;1)(p11.2;q21), producing the TFE3-PRCC to the RNASEL gene (encoding ribonuclease L). Additionally,
fusion gene, t(X;17)(p11.2;q25), producing TFE3-ASPL, and families with germline mutations of the BRCA1 or BRCA2
t(X;1)(p11.2;p34), producing TFE3-PSF. The TFE3-ASPL gene genes have a higher rate of prostatic adenocarcinoma.
fusion of t(X;17) is also seen in alveolar soft part sarcoma From a practical standpoint, specimen identity testing is
(ASPS); however, a key difference is that the translocation in occasionally required in the practice of prostate pathology
ASPS is an unbalanced one, while that in renal carcinoma and other types of biopsy pathology. Specimen identity
is balanced. The TFE-ASPL renal tumors characteristically testing refers to the use of molecular techniques to ensure
present at advanced stage but, like ASPS, follow an indolent that a specimen belongs to a particular patient. Most patholo-
course marked by very late relapses/metastases. Renal cell car- gists are familiar with the uniquely alarming circumstance
cinomas with t(6:11)(p11.2;q12) involves the TFEB gene which in which cancer cannot be found in a prostatectomy after a
is closely related in function to the TFE3 gene. The resulting positive biopsy. Often the issue can be resolved with thorough
tumor is essentially identical to Xp11.2 tumors. sectioning, but there are rare cases in which even after exhaus-
tive efforts one is left with the predicament of an unequivo-
cally positive biopsy and a negative prostate gland. In 1995,
Goldstein referred to this situation as the “vanishing cancer”
phenomenon. While there are a number of possible explana-
tions, one that must occasionally be entertained is a specimen
mix-up. One approach to this problem is the comparison of
DNA microsatellites, either between biopsy and patient or
between biopsy and prostatectomy. Microsatellites are regions
a b a b
c d f7.44 Ewing sarcoma FISH utilizing dual color break apart probes; the red & green probes flank the
region of known breakpoints
a A normal nucleus contains 2 red-green fusion signals (2F)
b An abnormal nucleus demonstrates 1 red-green fusion signal & separate red & green signals
(1R,1G,1F)
a b a b
c d
f7.45 Adrenal neuroblastoma
Thyroid
Familial thyroid carcinoma
The cardinal manifestations of multiple endocrine neoplasia
type 1 (MEN 1; Wermer syndrome) are parathyroid adenomas, c d
pituitary adenomas, and pancreatic islet cell tumors. The most
common and earliest manifestation is usually primary hyper-
parathyroidism, caused by a PTH-secreting pituitary adenoma.
Most of the pituitary tumors are prolactinomas. Pancreatic tumors
often produce gastrin (gastrinomas) or insulin (insulinomas).
Nonendocrine lesions in MEN1 include facial angiofibromas,
collagenomas, lipomas, and meningiomas. A predisposition
exists to endocrine tumors in the lung, adrenal cortex, thymus,
and gastrointestinal tract. The MEN1 gene on chromosome e f
11q13 encodes the protein menin and 90% of the time a germline
MEN1 mutation can be found in patients with MEN 1 syndrome.
Somatic MEN1 mutations are found in 15 - 20% of sporadic para-
thyroid adenomas, islet cell tumors, and gastrinomas.
Mutations in the RET protooncogene on chromosome
10q are a feature common to multiple endocrine neoplasia
type 2A (MEN2A; Sipple syndrome), MEN2B, and familial
medullary thyroid carcinoma (FMTC). The 3 syndromes—
f7.49 Papillary carcinoma
MEN2A, MEN2B, and FMTC—have some things in common, a Classic papillary carcinoma, papillary variant
all imparting a high risk for medullary thyroid carcinoma, b Tall cell variant
all autosomal dominant, and all due to a RET gene muta- c Columnar variant
d-f Follicular variant
tion. These features alone comprise FMTC. These features
plus pheochromocytoma and parathyroid adenoma comprise
the MEN2A syndrome; and these plus pheochromocytoma,
mucosal neuromas, ganglioneuromatous intestinal polyps, 40% of sporadic papillary thyroid carcinomas have somatic
and Marfanoid body habitus comprise MEN2B. While the mutations in RET.
histology of medullary thyroid carcinomas f7.48 is not par-
ticularly distinctive in these syndromes, the appearance of Papillary thyroid carcinoma
the background thyroid is: C-cell hyperplasia and numerous Papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC) is the most common spo-
microscopic foci of medullary carcinoma. MEN2A is caused radic cancer of the thyroid, accounting for >75% of all thyroid
by mutations affecting exons 10 ‑ 11 of the RET gene, most often malignancies. Mutations in BRAF, RET, and RAS, all of which
affecting a particular cysteine residue (634 Cys). MEN2B is are capable of causing unregulated MAPK stimulation, have
most often due to a RET mutation affecting exon 16, encoding been found in PTC in mutually exclusive distribution.
the tyrosine kinase domain. FMTC is caused by RET muta- The most common mutation found in PTC is the BRAF
tions affecting other cysteine residues, particularly 609, 611, V600E mutation, which is seen in almost 1/2 of cases. BRAF
618, and 620 Cys. Mutations of the RET gene are associated mutation is found with highest frequency in conventional
with Hirschsprung disease (often gain of function), and (60%) and tall cell (80%) variants of PTC f7.49, and it is found
almost 1/2 of sporadic papillary thyroid carcinoma. About
ISBN 978-089189-5985 413
7: Molecular Pathology
in only 10% of follicular variant. Several studies have dem- estimated that ~10% of melanoma is due to a familial predispo-
onstrated that the accuracy of thyroid FNA diagnosis can be sition. Dysregulation of p16, the product of the gene CDKN2A
significantly improved by adding BRAF testing. In this setting, (cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A) underlies FAMM.
the BRAF mutation appears to have a specificity of >99% for Another form of familial melanoma is based upon defects in
PTC. Lastly, BRAF mutation serves as a prognostic marker, the CDK4 gene on chromosome 12q14, which functions as an
with BRAF positive PTCs demonstrating more aggressive oncogene in the retinoblastoma pathway.
behavior. In sporadic melanoma, comparative genomic hybridization
There are several structural chromosomal rearrangement (CGH) studies have elucidated certain reproducible chromo-
involving the RET gene that result in marked RET overex- somal gains and losses that may help to differentiate Spitz nevi
pression. Collectively, these rearrangements are denoted RET/ and other ambiguous melanocytic tumors from melanomas,
PTC, but individual rearrangement partners are termed PTC1 while also demonstrating that different types of melanomas
through PTC11. The vast majority of PTCs harboring such a have different genetic anomalies with which they are often
rearrangement have either RET/PTC1 or RET/PTC3, with PTC1 associated. Based on the array CGH findings a refined set of 4
being the CCDC6 gene and PTC3 the NCOA4 gene. Nonclonal FISH probes has shown initially promising results in differen-
RET/PTC rearrangements can be found in benign thyroid tiation of melanocytic.
tissue, and clonal rearrangements are found in 20 -
30% of Approximately 1/3 of mucosal and acral melanomas are
PTCs, being more common in radiation-associated PTC and in associated with mutations in C-KIT. This presents an attractive
PTC arising in children. Tumors with RET/PTC have classic therapeutic target since C-KIT-mutation tumors may respond
architecture and a high rate of lymph node metastases. to the tyrosine kinase inhibitor imatinib. Additionally, strong
Nearly all PTCs with RAS mutations have follicular archi- immunohistochemical staining for c-kit has been shown to
tecture (follicular variant of PTC). Interestingly, nearly 1/2 of have a close association with mutation status, opening a poten-
follicular carcinomas also have RAS mutations, as do 1/3 of tial screening test for C-KIT mutation analysis.
follicular adenomas. RAS mutations appear to correlate with Mutations in BRAF are more closely associated with cuta-
metastatic potential, especially to bone. neous melanoma. Specifically, BRAF mutations (pV600E pre-
dominantly) are common in cutaneous melanomas that are
not associated with sun damage. The BRAF pV600E mutation
Skin tumors results in a constitutively active protein that sends proliferative
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) signals to the nucleus in the absence of mitogen activation.
BCC, the most common cutaneous malignancy, often Successes in the treatment of metastatic melanoma with a
appears on sun-damaged skin in adults. Several inherited specific small molecule inhibitor of BRAF kinase herald a new
disorders are associated with an increased risk of basal era in therapy.
cell carcinoma. Gorlin syndrome (nevoid basal cell carci- An additional issue with molecular testing in melanoma
noma syndrome) is due to germline mutations in the PTCH is lymph node evaluation. As lymph node status is a major
gene. The protein product of the PTCH gene is involved in determinant in prognosis, accurate assessment for the pres-
sonic-hedgehog (SHH) signaling, functioning as an inhibitor ence of melanoma is critical. With current histomorphologic
of signal transduction. Mutations in PTCH lead to SHH- and immunohistochemistry techniques it is clear that some
independent signaling. PTCH mutations are found in a high potentially microscopically-positive lymph nodes are going
proportion of sporadic BCC. undetected because a significant number of node-negative
Xeroderma pigmentosa-affected individuals are prone to cases develop recurrent disease. Specific mRNA markers for
several different types of cutaneous malignancies, including the detection of melanoma have been developed for paraffin-
BCC and squamous cell carcinoma. embedded tissue and show some promise in detecting occult
metastatic melanoma in these lymph nodes.
Melanoma
Less common than either squamous cell carcinoma or basal Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP)
cell carcinoma but accounting for far more morbidity and Like many other soft tissue tumors, DFSP is associated
mortality than the 2 combined, melanoma is one of the worst with a characteristic chromosomal translocation. Fusion of the
human cancers. Emerging molecular data suggests that the type I collagen α-1 chain gene, COL1A1, to the platelet derived
entity we had been referring to as melanoma may actually rep- growth factor β-chain gene, PDGFB, either via linear translo-
resent a class of tumors sharing similar morphologic features. cation (most common) or supernumerary ring chromosome
It is difficult to predict behavior of the tumors as metastatic formation is the hallmark of DFSP. While there are several
disease can occur with even thin melanomas. Even molecular specific breakpoints leading to translocation heterogeneity,
characterization of melanoma is fraught with difficulty as the fusion gene is present in almost all cases of DFSP. In addi-
many of the changes seen in melanoma, such as BRAF muta- tion, the same translocation is seen in the pediatric giant cell
tions, are present in benign melanocytic nevi. fibroblastoma tumor, providing evidence that in fact that DFSP
Increased risk for the development of cutaneous mela- and giant cell fibroblastoma are the same tumor with different
noma can be due to several factors—fair skin and a tendency ages of presentation.
to freckle, having multiple nevi, environmental exposure
(deep sunburns), and familial predisposition. The latter is a
feature of several familial melanoma syndromes, including
familial atypical mole and melanoma (FAMM) syndrome. It is
impacts clinical response to treatment with temozolomide and (monosomy 14) and/or deletion of 9p21 have been associated
radiotherapy; that is, an unsuppressed MGMT gene can miti- with shortened survival.
gate the DNA-damaging effect of combined therapy, thus res- Particular histologic subtypes are thought to have a higher
cuing the tumor cells from harm. The mechanism of action of rate of progression, including clear cell, chordoid, rhabdoid,
temozolomide, an alkylating agent, is the addition of a methyl and papillary. With regard to the more aggressive subtypes,
group to the O6-position of nucleotide guanine residues, only chordoid meningioma so far appears to have a molec-
which results in DNA damage; the MGMT protein is capable ular signature. An unbalanced translocation—der(1)t(1;3)
of repairing this damage. In 2006, Hegi et al reported that, (p12 - 13;q11)—has been found in this variant and preliminarily
in GBM patients treated with temozolomide and XRT, 49% promises to be a specific marker.
of those with methylated MGMT were alive at 2 years, com-
pared to 15% of those with unmethylated MGMT. The status Embryonal tumors
of the MGMT gene can be assessed by a variety of methods, Embryonal tumors belong to a group defined by the pres-
including methylation-specific PCR. ence of undifferentiated-appearing small blue cells, which
account for the majority of primary pediatric brain tumors. 3
Pilocytic astrocytoma of the embryonal tumors—medulloblastoma, primitive neu-
The BRAF gene, encoding the MAPK pathway protein RAF, roectodermal tumor, and atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor—
is involved in tumorigenesis throughout the body. In many have characteristic molecular alterations.
tumors, BRAF activation arises as a result of a point muta- Medulloblastoma is a tumor of the posterior fossa affecting
tion, most commonly the BRAF V600E mutation. In pilocytic the cerebellum with a tendency to metastasize within the CNS.
astrocytoma, BRAF mutation appears to be the sole inciting There are several subtypes with varying histologic appear-
genetic event. Both BRAF point mutations and BRAF gene ances and prognoses. Certain inherited tumor predisposition
duplication have been found. BRAF anomalies are found in up conditions are associated with a higher risk of developing
to 80% of pilocytic astrocytomas, but they are rare in diffuse medulloblastoma, including Turcot syndrome secondary to
astrocytomas. mutations in APC, Gorlin syndrome, and Li-Fraumeni syn-
drome. In sporadic medulloblastoma, the most common aber-
Retinoblastoma ration, seen in 1/2 of tumors, is isochromosome 17q. The
Retinoblastoma is a rare tumor closely associated with alteration most strongly associated with prognosis is loss
mutations of the RB1 gene on chromosome 13q14. Over 90% of of chromosome 17p, present in 1/3 of tumors. Loss of 17p is
cases of retinoblastoma are sporadic, the remainder are associ- associated with more aggressive tumor behavior, shortened
ated with an inherited defect in one copy of the RB1 gene. The survival, and a relatively poor response to chemotherapy.
presence of bilateral retinoblastomas in a young patient should Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor (AT/RT) is a particularly
raise suspicion of an inherited cause. Patients with inherited aggressive pediatric CNS tumor that usually affects the very
mutations in RB1 are at high risk for later development of young (<2 years old). AT/RT is prone to extensive metastatic
osteosarcoma, pineal gland tumors, and primitive neuroecto- disease and lack of response to chemotherapy. Loss of the
dermal tumors (PNETs). SMARCB1 gene on chromosome 22q11.2, which encodes INI1,
is found in majority of AT/RTs. The INI1 protein is a compo-
Meningioma nent of a SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complex involved
Monosomy of chromosome 22 is the most common abnor- in DNA replication and transcription. Loss of INI1 enables
mality found in meningiomas, and this was one of the first confident distinction from other related and similar-appearing
chromosomal rearrangements described in solid tumors. tumors, such as medulloblastoma or PNET, as this mutation
The key region appears to be 22q12.2 where the NF2 gene is is not frequently seen in either. Immunohistochemistry for
located. Recall that meningioma is one of the features of the INI1 is available, as are FISH probes for the affected region on
NF2 syndrome (caused by germline NF2 mutations). Merlin is chromosome 22.
the protein encoded by the NF2 gene. Merlin is found in the
cell membrane where its function is to mediate cell-cell contact
and cell contact inhibition.
Pulmonary tumors
Lung carcinoma can be divided histologically into 2 major
The frequency of NF2 anomalies varies from one histologic
categories: small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and for lack of a
variant to the next. NF2 abnormalities are found in 80% of
better name, non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). The latter
transitional and fibroblastic meningiomas but in only 25% of
group encompasses the majority of lung tumors and includes
meningothelial meningiomas and in virtually no secretory
adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. For many
meningiomas. The overall rate is ~50%.
years there was little or no clinical benefit obtained from
NF2 anomalies are an early event in tumorigenesis and
efforts to distinguish among non-small cell carcinoma types.
that additional molecular defects underlie tumor progres-
Studies published in 2004 and 2006 changed this, as it became
sion. Higher grade (atypical and anaplastic) meningiomas are
clear that patients with squamous cell carcinoma might suffer
found to have NF2 abnormalities at roughly the same rate as
fatal hemorrhagic complications if treated with antiangiogen-
low grade meningiomas, but have additional complex anoma-
esis agents such as bevacizumab (Avastin). As a result of this
lies, including numerous genetic gains and losses. The losses
finding, it became critical to distinguish squamous cell carci-
involve 1p, 9p, 14, and others, and the gains include 1q, 9q,
noma from other varieties of non-small cell lung cancer. For
and others. In fact, del 1p is the second most common chro-
poorly differentiated tumors, an immunohistochemical panel
mosomal abnormality found in meningiomas. Deletion of 14
416 Practical Clinical Pathology
7: Molecular Pathology
can be helpful in this regard; eg, a panel consisting of CK5/6 t(2;5)(p23;35) translocation in anaplastic large cell lymphomas
and P63 (both positive in squamous cell carcinoma) vs TTF1 and subsequently shown to be rearranged in inflammatory
and BerEP4 (both positive in adenocarcinoma). myofibroblastic tumor. Oncogenic ALK fusion genes are ones
A demand for even sharper distinction among non-small that result in overexpression and constitutive activation ALK.
cell carcinomas emerged as a result of success with EGFR- In non-small cell lung cancer, the EML4-ALK translocation
targeted therapy in some patients. In particular, it seems that (and less commonly, TFG-ALK and KIF5-ALK) causes the for-
adenocarcinomas show the best response to these agents, and mation of a fusion gene of the transcription activation domain
further histologic subtyping of adenocarcinoma can roughly of ALK with the dimerization domain of EML4, leading to
predict response. Tumors with a lepidic component are likely constitutive activation. The translocation is the result of an
to have EGFR-susceptible mutations, as are tumors with pre- interstitial inversion in the short arm of chromosome 2. So far,
dominantly micropapillary or solid growth patterns. There it appears that IHC correlates poorly with response to small-
appears to be no correlation, positive or negative, with acinar molecule ALK-TKIs, and FISH is recommended.
growth, and tumors with mucinous differentiation and enteric Reduced expression of the miRNA, let-7 is a stage-indepen-
differentiation are very unlikely to respond. dent poor prognostic finding. It is hypothesized that one of
Mutation analysis is the best predictor of response. 3 genes the targets of let-7-mediated control of gene expression, RAS
in particular have been shown to be frequently mutated in may be the effector molecule for this poor prognosis. Other
lung adenocarcinoma—EGFR, KRAS, and ALK—all mutually miRNAs, including the miR-17 ‑ 92 cluster and miR-31 act
exclusive of one another. as oncogenes and have been demonstrated to be aberrantly
EGFR mutations in this setting most commonly affect exons expressed in a number of non-small cell lung cancer cases.
18 through 21, which encodes a portion of the tyrosine kinase
domain. In particular, one common mutation in exon 21 con-
sists of a leucine to arginine substitution at amino acid 858 Gynecologic tumors
(L858R). Also frequent is a deletion in exon 19. These anoma- Inherited gynecologic tumor syndromes
lies have the result of constitutive activation and signaling. Most of the cases of inherited predisposition to gynecologic
Adenocarcinomas with these mutations are most commonly tumors are due to germline mutations in mismatch repair
seen in patients with specific demographic features—young proteins (Lynch syndrome) or mutations in BRCA1/BRCA2
Asian females and/or never-smokers. Anti‑EGFR agents come (hereditary breast and ovarian cancer). Peutz-Jeghers can
in 2 varieties, including small molecular tyrosine kinase present with particular gynecologic manifestations, such as
inhibitors (EGFR-TKIs) such as gefitinib (Iressa) and erlotinib adenoma malignum of the cervix and ovarian sex cord tumor
(Tarceva), and anti‑EGFR monoclonal antibodies such as cetux- with annular tubules (SCTAT).
imab (Erbitux). Tumors with mutations in exons 18 through Lynch syndrome is caused by an inherited germline muta-
21 have a high likelihood of response to EGFR-TKIs but are tion in the gene for one of the proteins involved in mismatch
unlikely to respond to anti‑EGFR monoclonal antibodies. repair, most commonly MLH1, MSH2, or MSH6. Women with
EGFR status by immunohistochemistry and FISH has not reli- Lynch syndrome have a nearly 50% lifetime risk of endome-
ably predicted response, and at this time mutation analysis trial cancer (often of the lower uterine segment) and a 10% risk
by PCR is recommended, targeting exons 18 - 21. As discussed of an epithelial ovarian cancer. The risk for endometrial cancer
below, mutations in the genes encoding downstream pro- in Lynch syndrome is equivalent to the risk for colorectal car-
teins in the EGFR signaling cascade (KRAS, BRAF) are found cinoma. Ovarian cancer in Lynch syndrome tends to present
exclusively in tumors that lack EGFR mutations. Lastly, some at an early age, usually before 50, and is often of the clear cell
patients develop secondary resistance to anti‑EGFR therapy. type. While most screening guidelines (Bethesda, Amsterdam)
Secondary resistance is associated with certain additional are focused more on colorectal carcinoma, there are also
mutations in EGFR (T790M) as well as mutations in other guidelines proposed by Society of Gynecologic Oncologists
genes such as MET. that address screening for an increased risk of endometrial
KRAS mutations can lead to signaling downstream and and ovarian carcinoma. Similar to colorectal carcinoma it has
independent of EGFR. There is a very high KRAS mutation been proposed that universal screening of all endometrial car-
rate in mucinous adenocarcinoma (75%) as compared to non- cinomas for defects in mismatch repair be performed.
mucinous adenocarcinoma (45%). Since they are mutually Hereditary Breast/Ovarian Cancer (HBOC) is caused by
exclusive, the presence of KRAS mutations would theoretically mutations in the tumor suppressor genes BRCA1 or BRCA2. It
be associated with nonresponsiveness to anti-EGFR therapy is estimated that a patient with BRCA mutations has a 10-fold
(as is the case in colon cancer); on the contrary, this has not increased risk of developing an epithelial ovarian carcinoma,
consistently proven to be the case. While KRAS mutations do and ~10% of ovarian cancers are caused by underlying BRCA
appear to predict lack of response to EGFR-TKIs (gefitinib, mutations. The majority of high grade serous ovarian carci-
erlotinib), there is no correlation with response to anti‑EGFR nomas due to mutations in BRCA also harbor mutations in
monoclonal antibodies (cetuximab). P53. These high grade or type II serous carcinomas are dif-
The small percentage of lung adenocarcinomas not associ- ferent from low grade or type I serous carcinoma in behavior,
ated with EGFR or KRAS mutations may have mutations in appearance, and underlying mutations. Type I tumors are less
the anaplastic lymphoma kinase gene, ALK. While uncommon likely to be associated with mutations in BRCA, instead har-
in lung cancer overall (1 - 5%), ALK rearrangements have been boring mutations in KRAS or BRAF. Recently it has become
described in up to 20% of high-stage tumors. ALK, another clear that these high grade tumors in BRCA patients arise
receptor tyrosine kinase, was originally identified as part of the from a precursor lesion in the fallopian tube, serous tubal
intraepithelial carcinoma (STIC). STIC lesions often predate RNA probes. Successful hybridization of the probes (with any
high grade serous tumors and have similar mutations in P53. viral DNA present in the sample) is detected by enzymatic
Prophylactic bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is reported to reaction. This assay may be used to detect HRHPV specifically,
reduce the risk of developing pelvic cancer by as much as 90%. or it may be used to detect low-risk HPV. Such assays have
much higher sensitivity than cytology, but they are positive
Cervix in a large number of women with no lesion (low specificity);
In the United States, the incidence of invasive cervical hence the recommendation for testing only in the presence of
cancer is relatively low due to the success of Pap screening. an atypical cytology.
Still, in some countries of southern Asia, central America,
and sub-Saharan Africa cervical cancer is still for women the Endometrium
most common cause of death from cancer. The most common Type I endometrial adenocarcinomas, including those with
cause of cervical carcinoma is human papillomavirus (HPV) endometrioid, mucinous, and secretory morphology, are often
infection. estrogen-dependent and low grade. Type I tumors typically
HPV is a double stranded DNA virus with many different demonstrate mutations in mismatch repair genes, with associ-
serologic subtypes. These subtypes are grouped according ated microsatellite instability, and mutations in PTEN, KRAS,
to their risk for developing squamous carcinoma. The HPV and CTNNB1 (β-catenin). Type II tumors, serous papillary and
types that are considered carcinogenic are referred to as high clear cell carcinoma, are high grade estrogen unresponsive
risk HPV (HRHPV) and include HPV 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, tumors. These tumors are more likely to have mutations of
51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68, 73, and 82. Others, such as 6 and 11 are HER2 and P53.
extremely common causes of human infection but do not pose Endometrial stromal tumors arise from the mesenchymal
a great cancer risk. The likelihood of malignant transforma- stroma of the uterus. The translocation t(7;17)(p15;q21) has
tion appears to relate to 2 variables: been found in a significant number of cases of endometrial
1. the ease with which the viral genome becomes integrated stromal sarcoma (ESS). The translocation creates a chimeric
into the host genome protein between the JAZF1 gene on chromosome 7 and the
JJAZ1 on chromosome 17. The translocation is found in the
2. the particular gene sequence (alleles) of the viral E6 and
majority of cases of ESS, but has also been found in a number
E7 genes
of endometrial stromal nodules and neoplastic undifferenti-
That is, HPV infections that result in benign processes ated endometrial sarcomas, thereby limiting its diagnostic
are usually associated with an episomal viral DNA, whereas specificity for ESS.
HPV infections that result in malignancy are usually associ-
ated with integration of the viral DNA into the host genome.
Gestational trophoblastic disease
Such integration results in unchecked transcription of 2 viral
Partial moles are most commonly derived from the fertiliza-
genes in particular—E6 and E7—that trigger malignant trans-
tion of an egg by 2 sperm. Partial mole is triploid (usually 69,
formation. The E6 and E7 gene products act through several
XXY) and may be found in association with a triploid fetus.
mechanisms, important among them being the inhibition of
Complete moles are derived from the fertilization of a blighted
the retinoblastoma (Rb) and p53 tumor suppressor proteins.
ovum (one without genetic material), either by a single sperm
The E6 protein is known to bind to the p53 protein, leading
followed by duplication of genetic material or by 2 sperm.
to its subsequent degradation through the ubiquitin pathway.
Complete moles are diploid, but composed entirely of paternal
The E7 protein interacts with the Rb-E2F complex, blocking Rb
genetic information. Historically, morphology and ploidy
inhibition. Uninhibited, E2F can function as a transcriptional
analysis has been used to distinguish between the complete
activator of the genes involved in cell cycle progression. This
and partial mole. Chromosomal enumeration can distinguish
biphasic attack on the regulatory apparatus of the cell leads
partial moles from hydropic abortuses. However, hydropic
to unregulated cell division. Various serotypes differ in the
products of conception can resemble complete molar pregnan-
effectiveness of their respective E6 and E7 proteins to abrogate
cies, and both are diploid.
cellular regulatory machinery. A surrogate marker of unregu-
Immunohistochemical stains for a paternally-imprinted
lated cell cycle progression, p16, can be used to detect cells that
gene, P57 have shown promise as a way of distinguishing com-
may be infected with high risk HPV subtypes.
plete molar pregnancies. Complete moles show no staining for
The approach most widely advocated for HPV screening is
P57, while the nuclei of intermediate trophoblastic cells will
cervical cytology. When a cytologic diagnosis of either low- or
stain in a partial mole or hydropic pregnancy. In addition,
high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL or HSIL)
STR analysis of potential molar pregnancies has been used
is rendered, colposcopy is indicated. When a cytologic diag-
for classification purposes. By comparing the STR haplotype
nosis of atypical squamous cells (ASC) is rendered, molecular
of the presumed molar pregnancy to maternal tissue or blood
testing for the presence of high risk HPV (HRHPV) is indi-
one can determine the origin of the genetic material in the
cated, followed by colposcopy and biopsy if this is positive.
products of conception. If a diploid conceptus has evidence of
In all 3 instances, the purpose of colposcopy is to exclude a
maternal STRs, then one can exclude a complete mole.
high grade lesion. Several assays are currently available for the
molecular detection of HPV in cervical samples, most of which
are performed on the same liquid-based collection system
used to prepare the slide for cytologic screening. The most
common assay is a solution-phase hybridization using labeled
has almost no relationship to NF1. The disease first manifests high-resolution chromosome studies. FISH studies, utilizing
around the age of 20, and nearly all affected individuals have several probes that span the affected band, can also be diag-
bilateral vestibular schwannomas by the age of 30. Early detec- nostically useful.
tion is important, to prevent deafness. Schwannomas may
arise in association with other nerves as well, and there is an Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
increased tendency to develop meningiomas, ependymomas, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome can be caused by any
and pilocytic astrocytomas. one of several defects, the common thread being abnormal
transcription of genes within the 11p15.5 band. 11p normally
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an imprinted domain (expression depends upon whether
Mutations in the tumor suppressor gene TP53 (p53) are inherited from the mother or from the father), one in which
found in ~50% of malignancies, regardless of type, and are maternally derived alleles are preferentially expressed. Several
the most common genetic anomaly found in malignant genes are located within 11p, including:
tumors. An inherited (germline) mutation in TP53 causes 1. KCNQ1, encoding a potassium channel, and the
Li-Fraumeni syndrome; as might be predicted, Li-Fraumeni is same gene implicated in Romano-Ward and Jervell
associated with a tendency to develop numerous widespread Lange-Nielsen syndromes
malignancies,
2. IGF2, encoding an insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
Early reports focused on the association of Li-Fraumeni
syndrome with a number of tumors, including osteosarcoma, 3. H19, encoding a nontranslated mRNA
soft tissue sarcoma, breast cancer, adrenal cortical carcinoma, 4. CDKN1C, encoding a cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor
and acute leukemia. It seems now that there is no limit to the Embryonal tumors (Wilms tumor and hepatoblastoma, in
variety of tumors, however, with well-documented docu- particular) occur with a high rate in Beckwith-Wiedemann
mented increased risk for gastric adenocarcinoma, colorectal syndrome. The syndrome may become apparent in utero, with
carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, esophageal carcinoma, germ a fetus that is large for gestational age (LGA) and has polyhy-
cell tumors, melanoma, Wilms tumor, and malignancy of the dramnios. At birth, the placenta is large, and the umbilical cord
central nervous system. Perhaps the only characteristic fea- is abnormally long. Additional features that may be identified
tures of Li-Fraumeni are (1) that any given tumor type arises at birth include macrosomia, macroglossia, hemihypertrophy
at a younger age than would be expected for a sporadic tumor (asymmetric growth), omphalocele (exomphalos), and anterior
of the same type, and (2) that multiple disparate tumors may ear creases or pits. A peculiar adrenocortical cytomegaly has
arise in the same person. About 40% of those with Li-Fraumeni been described in patients with Beckwith-Wiedemann, and
have developed a malignancy by the age of 20 years, 60% by renal anomalies (renal medullary dysplasia, nephrocalci-
age 40, and 90% by age 60. nosis, medullary sponge kidney, and nephromegaly) are very
Especially concerning for Li-Fraumeni is the appearance common.
of adrenocortical carcinoma in a young adult; >1/2 such cases About 80% of cases are inherited, and the remaining are
are associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Adrenocortical sporadic (simplex) cases. Beckwith-Wiedemann is primarily
carcinoma is rare overall, and they often occur in children a clinical diagnosis. The molecular diagnosis is problematic,
with Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Thus, the occurrence of an adre- as no single finding defines it. Conventional cytogenetics
nocortical carcinoma in a child or young adult is sufficient can identify an anomaly at 11p15 in only ~1% of cases. FISH
indication for Li-Fraumeni testing. can identify another 1 - 2%. Methylation assays are capable
About 85% of cases are due to TP53 mutations (chromosome of finding abnormalities in >1/2 of patients (either gain or
17p); mutations in the CHEK2 gene (whose product is one of the loss of methylation). Uniparental disomy studies can identify
intracellular targets of p53) has been identified in a minority of abnormalities in ~15% of cases. Lastly, a single gene defect in
cases. While there are a variety of TP53 mutations, most arise CDKN1C appears to underlie around 10% of simplex cases and
between exons 4 through 9 (or amino acids 91 through 309). up to 40% of familial cases.
This permits good (95%) sensitivity for sequencing analyses
confined to this portion of the gene.
Chromosomal breakage syndromes
Immunohistochemistry can be performed for p53 expres-
Among this group of disorders, which are usually trans-
sion. Most mutated forms of p53, though nonfunctional as
mitted in an autosomal recessive fashion, the unifying feature
tumor suppressor proteins, have a prolonged half life within
is a tendency in cell culture to exhibit elevated rates of chro-
the cell (the mutated forms are able to avoid protein degrada-
mosomal breakage or instability. Underlying this tendency are
tion). Thus, tumors with TP53 mutations (and decreased p53
defects in DNA repair mechanisms, and the clinical effect is
activity) have overexpression of p53.
a predisposition to cancer. Chromosomal breakage disorders
are numerous and include Bloom syndrome, ataxia telangiec-
Aniridia/WAGR syndrome tasia, Nijmegen syndrome, Fanconi syndrome, and xeroderma
Aniridia may be a sporadic or inherited trait, usually pigmentosa. This group of disorders should be conceptually
occurring as an isolated finding; however, in some it occurs distinguished from the trinucleotide repeat disorders associ-
as part of a Mendelian syndrome that includes Wilms tumor, ated with the presence of “fragile sites” which do not cause a
aniridia, genitourinary anomalies, and mental retardation cancer predisposition.
(WAGR syndrome). The WAGR syndrome is a contiguous gene
syndrome in which a microdeletion spanning 11p13 affects
several genes. In ~20 - 30% of cases, the deletion is detectable by
420 Practical Clinical Pathology
7: Molecular Pathology