The Gate Question Bank in Civil Engg

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.
net
ww
w.E
asy
E ngi
nee
rin
g.n
e
**Note : Other Websites/Blogs Owners we requested you, Please do not Copy

(or) Republish this Material.
This copy is NOT FOR SALE.
**Disclimers : EasyEngineering does not own this book/materials, neither created nor
scanned. we provide the links which is already available on the internet. For any quarries,
Disclaimer are requested to kindly contact us. We assured you we will do our best. We DO
NOT SUPPORT PIRACY, this copy was provided for students who are financially troubled but deserving
to learn. From : www.EasyEngineering.ne
Downloaded Thank You and God Bless!
Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.net
ww
w.E
asy
En
gi nee
rin
g.n
e
Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK

ww
w.E
asy for
E ngi
Civil Engineering
nee
By
rin
g.n
e

GATE QUESTION BANK Contents
Contents
Subject Name Topic Name Page No.
#1. Mathematics 1-148
1 Linear Algebra 1 – 28
2 Probability & Distribution 29 – 57
3 Numerical Methods 58 – 73
4 Calculus 74 – 112
5 Differential Equations 113 – 131
6 Complex Variables 132 – 143
7 Laplace Transform 144 – 148
ww
#2. Fluid Mechanics 149 - 169
w.E 1
2
3
Pressure and its Measurement
Hydrostatic Forces on Plane Surfaces
Kinematics of Flow
149
150 – 151
152 – 153
4
5 asy Fluid Dynamics
Flow Through Pipes
154 – 156
157 – 158
6
7
En
Impulse Momentum Equation and Its Application
Flow through Orifices and Mouth Pieces
159
160
8
9
10
11
Viscous Flow
gi
Boundary Layer Flow
Dimensional Analysis
Impacts of jets and Turbines nee
161
162 – 166
167
168
12 Open Channel Flow
rin 169
#3. Hydrology & Irrigation

1 Hydraulics & Hydraulic Machinery g.n
170 - 191
170 – 177
2
3
4
Irrigation
Water Requirements of Crops
Sediment, Transport and Design of Irrigation
Channels
178
179 – 181
182
e
5 Hydrology 183 – 191
#4. 4.Environmental Engineering 192 - 214

1 Quality Standards of Water 192 – 193
2 Water Supply and its Treatment 194 – 198
3 Waste Water Treatment 199 – 207
4 Sludge Disposal 208 – 209
5 Domestic Waste Water Treatment 210 – 211
6 Air Pollution 212 – 214
th th th
THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, Keshava Krupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
: 080-65700750,  info@thegateacademy.com © Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.com Page I

#5. Structural Analysis 215 - 235

1 Trusses and Arches 215 – 221
2 Influence Line Diagram and Rolling Loads 222 – 224
3 Slope and Deflection Method 225 – 231
4 Degree of Static Indeterminacy 232
5 Force Energy Method 233
6 Matrix Method of Structural Analysis 234 – 235
#6. Mechanics 236 - 257

1 Simple Stress and Strain Relationship 236 – 241
2 Bending Moment and Shear Force Diagram 242 – 246
ww 3
4
5
Thin Walled Pressure Vessel
Simple Bending Theory
Torsion
247
248 – 251
252 – 253
w.E 6
7
Column and Struts
Analysis of Statically Determinate Structures
254 – 256
257
#7. RCC
1
asy Concrete Technology
258 - 277
258 – 259
2
3 En
Basic of Mix Design
Design of RCC structures
260 – 263
264
4
5
6
gi
Analysis of Ultimate Load Capacity
nee
Basic Elements of Pre-stressed Concrete
Design of Pre-Stressed Concrete Beams
265 – 272
273 – 274
275 – 276
7 Concrete Design 277
rin
#8. Steel
1 Introduction g.n
278 - 290
278 – 279
2
3
4
5
Plastic Analysis
Welded Connections
Design of Tension Member
Compression member
280 – 283
284 – 286
287
288
e
6 Beams 289 – 290
#9. Geotechnical Engineering 291 – 325

Three Phase System, Fundamental
1 291
Definitions and Relationship
2 Index Properties and Soil Classification 292 – 295
3 Permeability and Seepage 296 – 300
4 Consolidation 301 – 304
5 Compaction 305
6 Stress Analysis 306 – 309
7 Stress Analysis 310 – 311
8 Surface Investigations 312 – 313
th th th
: 080-65700750,  info@thegateacademy.com © Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.com Page II

9 Earth Pressure 314 – 315

10 Stability of Slopes 316 – 317
11 Bearing Capacity 318 – 322
12 Pile Foundation 323 – 325
#10. Transportation & Surveying 326 - 358

1 Introduction to Transportation 326
2 Geometric design of highway 327 – 332
3 Traffic Characteristics 333 – 336
4 Traffic Signs and Signal Design 337 – 339
5 Intersection Design 340 – 341
ww 6
7
8
Testing and Specifications of Paving Materials
Design of Rigid Flexible Pavements
Introduction
342 – 344
345 – 348
349 – 350
w.E 9
10
11
Measurement of Distance & Direction
Theodolite & Traversing
Leveling
351
352 – 355
356 – 358
asy
En
gi nee
rin
g.n
e
th th th
: 080-65700750,  info@thegateacademy.com © Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.com Page III

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics
Linear Algebra
ME – 2005 5. Match the items in columns I and II.

1. Which one of the following is an Column I Column II
P. Singular 1. Determinant is not
matrix defined
Eigenvector of the matrix[ ]?
Q. Non-square 2. Determinant is
matrix always one
R. Real 3. Determinant is
(A) [ ] (C) [ ] symmetric zero
matrix
S. Orthogonal 4. Eigen values are
matrix always real
ww
(B) [ ] (D) [ ] 5. Eigen values are
not defined
2. w.E
A is a 3 4 real matrix and Ax=B is an
inconsistent system of equations. The
(A) P - 3 Q - 1 R - 4 S - 2
(B) P - 2 Q - 3 R - 4 S - 1
(C) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 5 S - 4
asy
highest possible rank of A is
(A) 1 (C) 3 ME – 2007
(D) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 2 S - 1
(B) 2 (D) 4
En 6. The number of linearly independent
ME – 2006
3. Multiplication of matrices E and F is G.
Matrices E and G are
os sin
gi Eigenvectors of 0
nee
(A) 0
(B) 1
1 is
(C) 2
(D) Infinite
E [ sin os ] and 7.
rin
If a square matrix A is real and symmetric,
then the Eigenvalues
G [
os
(A) [ sin
]. What is the matrix F?
sin
os ]
g
(A) are always real
(B) are always real and positive
(C) are always real and non-negative
(D) occur in complex conjugate pairs
.ne
sin os ME – 2008
(B) [ os sin ]
8. The Eigenvectors of the matrix 0 1 are
os sin
written in the form 0 1 and 0 1. What is
(C) [ sin os ]
a + b?
sin os (A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2
(D) [ os sin ]
4. Eigen values of a matrix 9. The matrix [ ] has one Eigenvalue

p
S 0 1are 5 and 1. What are the equal to 3. The sum of the other two
Eigenvalues of the matrix = SS? Eigenvalues is
(A) 1 and 25 (C) 5 and 1 (A) p (C) p – 2
(B) 6 and 4 (D) 2 and 10 (B) p – 1 (D) p – 3
th th th
THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, KeshavaKrupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
: 080-65700750,  info@thegateacademy.com © Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.com Page 1

10. For what value of a, if any, will the ME – 2012

following system of equations in x, y and z 15. For the matrix A=0 1 , one of the
have a solution
x y normalized Eigenvectors is given as
x y z
x y z
(A) (√ ) (C) (√ )
√
(A) Any real number
(B) 0
(B) (√ ) (D) ( )
(C) 1
√ √
(D) There is no such value
16. x + 2y + z =4
ME – 2009 2x + y + 2z =5
11. ww
For a matrix,M- *
x
+, the transpose
x–y+z=1
The system of algebraic equations given
above has
w.E
of the matrix is equal to the inverse of the
matrix ,M- ,M- . The value of x is
(A) a unique algebraic equation of x = 1,
y = 1 and z = 1
(B)
asy
given by
(A) ( )
( ⁄ )
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
(B) only the two solutions of ( x = 1,
y = 1, z = 1) and ( x = 2, y = 1, z = 0)
(C) infinite number of solutions.
ME – 2010 En (D) No feasible solution.
12. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix

0 1 is
gi ME – 2013
nee
17. The Eigenvalues of a symmetric matrix
are all
(A) 2 3 (C) 2 3 (A) Complex with non –zero positive
(B) 2 3 (D) 2 3 rin

imaginary part.
(B) Complex with non – zero negative
ME – 2011
13. Consider the following system of
(C) Real g
imaginary part.
(D) Pure imaginary. .ne

equations:
x x x 18. Choose correct set of functions, which are
x x linearly dependent.
x x (A) sin x sin x n os x
The system has (B) os x sin x n t n x
(A) A unique solution (C) os x sin x n os x
(B) No solution (D) os x sin x n os x
(C) Infinite number of solutions
ME – 2014
(D) Five solutions
19. Given that the determinant of the matrix
14. Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix [ ] is 12 , the determinant of

are always
(A) Positive (C) Negative
(B) Real (D) Complex the matrix [ ] is
(A) (B) (C) (D)

th th th

20. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix 2. Consider a non-homogeneous system of

0 1 is linear equations representing
mathematically an over-determined
(A) {– } (C) 2 3 system. Such a system will be
(A) consistent having a unique solution
(B) {– } (D) 2 3
(B) consistent having many solutions
(C) inconsistent having a unique solution
21. Consider a 3×3 real symmetric matrix S (D) inconsistent having no solution
such that two of its Eigenvalues are
3. Consider the matrices , - , - and
with respective Eigenvectors
x y , - . The order of , ( ) - will be
[x ] [y ] If then x y + x y +x y (A) (2 × 2) (C) (4 × 3)
wwx y
equals
(A) a (C) ab CE – 2006
(B) (3 × 3 (D) (3 × 4
w.E
(B) b (D) 0 4. Solution for the system defined by the set
of equations 4y + 3z = 8; 2x – z = 2 and
3x + 2y = 5 is
22.
asy
Which one of the following equations is a
correct identity for arbitrary 3×3 real
matrices P, Q and R?
(A) x = 0; y =1; z = ⁄
(B) x = 0; y = ⁄ ; z = 2
(A) (
(B) ( )
)
En (C) x = 1; y = ⁄ ; z = 2
(D) non – existent
(C) et (
(D) ( )
) et et
gi 5.
nee
For the given matrix A = [ ],
CE – 2005
1. Consider the system of equations ( )
rin
one of the Eigen values is 3. The other two
Eigen values are
(
( ) ( ) where is s l r Let
) e n Eigen -pair of an Eigenvalue
and its corresponding Eigenvector for
real matrix A. Let I be a (n × n) unit CE – 2007
(A)
(B)
g (C)
(D)
.ne
matrix. Which one of the following 6. The minimum and the maximum
statement is NOT correct?
Eigenvalue of the matrix [ ]are 2
(A) For a homogeneous n × n system of
linear equations,(A ) X = 0 having and 6, respectively. What is the other
a nontrivial solution the rank of Eigenvalue?
(A ) is less than n. (A) (C)
(B) For matrix , m being a positive (B) (D)
integer, ( ) will be the Eigen -
pair for all i. 7. For what values of and the following
(C) If = then | | = 1 for all i. simultaneous equations have an infinite
(D) If = A then is real for all i. of solutions?
X + Y + Z = 5; X + 3Y + 3Z = 9;
X+2Y+ Z
(A) 2, 7 (C) 8, 3
(B) 3, 8 (D) 7, 2
th th th

i i
8. The inverse of the m trix 0 1 is 14. The inverse of the matrix 0 1
i i
is
(A) 0 1 (C) 0 1
( ) i i
0 1
(B) 0 1 (D) 0 1 i i
i i
( ) 0 1
i i
CE – 2008 i i
( ) 0 1
9. The product of matrices ( ) is i i
(A) (C) i i
( ) 0 1
(B) (D) PQ i i
10. The Eigenvalue of the matrix CE – 2012
ww
[P] = 0
(A) and 8
1 are
(C) n
15. The Eigenvalues of matrix 0
(A)
(B)
2.42 and 6.86
3.48 and 13.53
1 are
11. w.E
(B) and 5 (D)
The following simultaneous equation

n
(C)
(D)
4.70 and 6.86
6.86 and 9.50
asy
x+y+z=3
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x + 4y + kz = 6
CE – 2013
16. There is no value of x that can
will NOT have a unique solution for k
equal to En simultaneously satisfy both the given
equations. Therefore, find the ‘le st
(A) 0
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7 gi squares error’ solution to the two
nee
equations, i.e., find the value of x that
minimizes the sum of squares of the
errors in the two equations.
CE – 2009
12. A square matrix B is skew-symmetric if
rin
2x = 3 and 4x = 1
(A)
(B)
CE – 2011
(C)
(D)
17.
g
What is the minimum number of
multiplications involved in computing the
matrix product PQR? Matrix P has 4 rows .ne
and 2 columns, matrix Q has 2 rows and
13. [A] is square matrix which is neither
4 columns, and matrix R has 4 rows and 1
symmetric nor skew-symmetric and , - column. __________
is its transpose. The sum and difference of
these matrices are defined as CE – 2014
[S] = [A] + , - and [D] = [A] , - ,
respectively. Which of the following 18. Given the matrices J = [ ] n
statements is TRUE?
(A) Both [S] and [D] are symmetric K [ ], the product K JK is
(B) Both [S] and [D] are skew-symmetric
(C) [S] is skew-symmetric and [D] is
symmetric 19. The sum of Eigenvalues of the matrix, [M]
(D) [S] is symmetric and [D] is skew
is, where [M] = [ ]
symmetric
(A) 915 (C) 1640
(B) 1355 (D) 2180
th th th

4. Let A be a 4x4 matrix with Eigenvalues

20. The determinant of matrix [ ] –5, –2, 1, 4. Which of the following is an
I
Eigenvalue of 0 1, where I is the 4x4
I
is ____________ identity matrix?
(A) (C)
21. The rank of the matrix (B) (D)
[ ] is ________________
CS – 2007
5. Consider the set of (column) vectors
CS – 2005 defined by X={xR3 x1+x2+x3=0, where
1. Consider the following system of XT =[x1, x2, x3]T }. Which of the following is
ww
equations
variables x x n x
x x x
in three real TRUE?
(A) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a basis for
the subspace X.
x
w.E
x
x
x x
x (B) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a linearly
independent set, but it does not span
X and therefore, is not a basis of X.
asy
This system of equation has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) X is not the subspace for R3
(D) None of the above
(C) more than one but a finite number of
solutions En CS – 2008
2.
(D) an infinite number of solutions
What are the Eigenvalues of the following

gi 6. The following system of
x
x
nee
x
x
x
x
2 2 matrix? x x x
0 1
rin
Has unique solution. The only possible
value (s) for is/ are
(A)
(B) n
n (C)
(D)
n
n
(A) 0
g
(B) either 0 or 1
(C) one of 0,1, 1 .ne
CS – 2006 (D) any real number except 5
3. F is an n x n real matrix. b is an n real
vector. Suppose there are two nx1 7. How many of the following matrices have
vectors, u and v such that u  v , and an Eigenvalue 1?
Fu=b, Fv=b. Which one of the following 0 1 0 1 0 1 n 0 1
statement is false?
(A) One (C) three
(A) Determinant of F is zero
(B) two (D) four
(B) There are infinite number of
solutions to Fx=b
CS – 2010
(C) There is an x  0 such that Fx=0
8. Consider the following matrix
(D) F must have two identical rows
A=[ ]
x y
If the Eigen values of A are 4 and 8, then
(A) x = 4, y = 10 (C) x = 3, y = 9
(B) x = 5, y = 8 (D) x = 4, y = 10
th th th

CS – 2011 13. The value of the dot product of the

9. Consider the matrix as given below Eigenvectors corresponding to any pair of
different Eigenvalues of a 4-by-4
[ ]
symmetric positive definite matrix is
Which one of the following options __________.
provides the CORRECT values of the
Eigenvalues of the matrix? 14. If the matrix A is such that
(A) 1, 4, 3 (C) 7, 3, 2
[ ], -
(B) 3, 7, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3
CS – 2012 Then the determinant of A is equal to

10. Let A be the 2 2 matrix with elements __________.
ww and .
Then the Eigenvalues of the matrix
are
15. The product of the non – zero Eigenvalues
of the matrix
w.E
(A) 1024 and
(B) 1024√ and √ is __________.
asy
(C) √ n
(D) √ n
√
√
[ ]
CS – 2013
11. Which one of the following does NOT En 16. Which one of the following statements is
TRUE about every n n matrix with only
equal [
x x
y y
z z
] gi real eigenvalues?
nee
(A) If the trace of the matrix is positive
and the determinant of the matrix is
x(x ) x negative, at least one of its
(A) | y(y
z(z
) y
) z
|
rin
eigenvalues is negative.
(B) If the trace of the matrix is positive,
(B) |
x
y
z
x y
x
y
z
x y
| g
all its eigenvalues are positive.
(C) If the determinant of the matrix is
positive, all its eigenvalues are .ne
positive.
(C) | y z y z | (D) If the product of the trace and
z z determinant of the matrix is positive,
x y x y
all its eigenvalues are positive.
(D) | y z y z |
z z ECE – 2005
1. Given an orthogonal matrix
CS – 2014
12. Consider the following system of
equations: A= [ ]. , - is
x y
x z ⁄
x y z ⁄
(A) [ ]
⁄
x y z
⁄
The number of solutions for this system is
__________.
th th th

⁄
⁄ 6. The rank of the matrix [ ]
(B) [ ]
⁄
⁄ (A) 0 (C) 2
(B) 1 (D) 3
(C) [ ]
ECE – 2007
⁄ 7. It is given that X1 , X2 …… M are M non-
⁄ zero, orthogonal vectors. The dimension
(D) [ ] of the vector space spanned by the 2M
⁄
⁄ vector X1 , X2 … XM , X1 , X2 … XM is
(A) 2M
⁄
2.
ww
Let, A=0
Then (a + b)=
(A) ⁄
1 and
(C)
= 0
⁄
1 (B) M+1
(C) M
(D) dependent on the choice of X1 , X2 …
w.E
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
ECE – 2008
XM.
3.
asy
Given the matrix 0
Eigenvector is
1 the
8. The system of linear equations
4x + 2y = 7, 2x + y = 6 has
(A) 0 1
(B) 0 1
(C) 0
(D) 0
1
1 En (A) a unique solution

(B) no solution
ECE – 2006
gi 9.
(C) an infinite number of solutions
nee
(D) exactly two distinct solutions
All the four entries of the 2 x 2 matrix

4. For the matrix 0 1 , the Eigenvalue
corresponding to the Eigenvector
rin
P = 0p
p p
p 1 are non-zero, and one of
0
(A) 2
(B) 4
1 is
(C) 6
(D) 8
(A) p p
(B) p p
g
its Eigenvalues is zero. Which of the
following statements is true?
p p
p p
.ne
(C) p p p p
5. The Eigenvalues and the corresponding
(D) p p p p
Eigenvectors of a 2 2 matrix are given
by
ECE – 2009
Eigenvalue Eigenvector
10. The Eigen values of the following matrix
=8 v =0 1 are
=4 v =0 1 [ ]
The matrix is
(A) 3, 3 + 5j, 6 j
(A) 0 1 (C) 0 1
(B) 6 + 5j, 3 + j, 3 j
(B) 0 1 (D) 0 1 (C) 3 + j, 3 j, 5 + j
(D) 3, 1 + 3j, 1 3j
th th th

ECE – 2010 ECE – 2014

11. The Eigenvalues of a skew-symmetric 16. For matrices of same dimension M, N and
matrix are scalar c, which one of these properties
(A) Always zero DOES NOT ALWAYS hold?
(B) Always pure imaginary (A) (M ) M
(C) Either zero or pure imaginary (B) ( M ) (M)
(D) Always real (C) (M N) M N
(D) MN NM
ECE – 2011
12. The system of equations 17. A real (4 × 4) matrix A satisfies the
x y z equation I where 𝐼 is the (4 × 4)
x y z identity matrix. The positive Eigenvalue
ww
x y z
has NO solution for values of n
of A is _____.
w.E
given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18. Consider the matrix
asy
ECE\EE\IN – 2012
J
13. Given that A = 0

the value of A3 is
1 and I = 0
En
1, [ ]
Which is obtained by reversing the order
(A) 15 A + 12 I
(B) 19A + 30
(C) 17 A + 15 I
(D) 17A +21 gi of the columns of the identity matrix I .
Let
nee
I J where is a non-
negative real number. The value of for
which det(P) = 0 is _____.
ECE – 2013
14. The minimum Eigenvalue of the following
matrix is
19.
rin
The determinant of matrix A is 5 and the
(A) 0
]
(C) 2 20.
g
determinant of matrix B is 40. The
The system of linear equations

.ne
determinant of matrix AB is ________.
(B) 1 (D) 3
( )4 5 ( )h s
15. Let A be a m n matrix and B be a n m
(A) a unique solution
matrix. It is given that
(B) infinitely many solutions
Determinant(I ) determinant
(C) no solution
(I ) where I is the k k identity
(D) exactly two solutions
matrix. Using the above property, the
determinant of the matrix given below is
21. Which one of the following statements is
NOT true for a square matrix A?
[ ] (A) If A is upper triangular, the
Eigenvalues of A are the diagonal
(A) 2 (C) 8 elements of it
(B) 5 (D) 16 (B) If A is real symmetric, the Eigenvalues
of A are always real and positive
th th th

(C) If A is real, the Eigenvalues of A and 4. An orthogonal set of vectors having a

are always the same span that contains P,Q, R is
(D) If all the principal minors of A are
positive, all the Eigenvalues of A are (A) [ ] [ ]
also positive
(B) [ ] [ ] [ ]
22. The maximum value of the determinant
among all 2×2 real symmetric matrices
with trace 14 is ___. (C) [ ] [ ] [ ]
EE – 2005 (D) [ ] [ ] [ ]
1.
ww
If R = [
(A) , -
] , then top row of
(C) , -
is
5. The following vector is linearly
w.E
(B) , - (D) , -
dependent upon the solution to the
previous problem
(A) [ ] (C) [ ]
2.
asy
For the matrix p = [
the Eigenvalues is equal to 2. Which of

] , one of
the following is an Eigenvector?

En (B) [ ] (D) [ ]
(A) [
(B) [
]
]
(C) [
(D) [ ]
]
gi EE – 2007
6.
nee
X = [x , x . . . . x - is an n-tuple non-zero
vector. The n n matrix V = X
rin
(A) Has rank zero (C) Is orthogonal
(B) Has rank 1 (D) Has rank n
3. In the matrix equation Px = q, which of
the following is necessary condition for
the existence of at least one solution for
the unknown vector x
7.
g
The linear operation L(x) is defined by
the cross product L(x) = b x, where
b =[0 1 0- and x =[x x x - are three
.ne
(A) Augmented matrix [P/Q] must have dimensional vectors. The matrix M
the same rank as matrix P of this operation satisfies
(B) Vector q must have only non-zero x
elements L(x) = M [ x ]
(C) Matrix P must be singular x
Then the Eigenvalues of M are
(D) Matrix P must be square
(A) 0, +1, 1 (C) i, i, 1
(B) 1, 1, 1 (D) i, i, 0
EE – 2006
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 4
and 5. 8. Let x and y be two vectors in a 3
dimensional space and <x, y> denote
P=[ ] ,Q=[ ] ,R=[ ] are their dot product. Then the determinant
xx xy
det 0 y x yy 1
three vectors
th th th

(A) is zero when x and y are linearly 13. A is m n full rank matrix with m > n and
independent  is an identity matrix. Let matrix
(B) is positive when x and y are linearly A+ = ( ) , then, which one of the
independent following statements is FALSE?
(C) is non-zero for all non-zero x and y (A) A A+ A = A (C) A+ A = 
(D) is zero only when either x or y is zero (B) (AA+ ) = A A+ (D) A A+ A = A+
Statement for Linked Questions 9 and 10.

14. Let P be a real orthogonal matrix. x⃗
Cayley-Hamilton Theorem states that a
is a real vector [x x - with length
square matrix satisfies its own
characteristic equation. Consider a ⃗x (x x ) . Then, which one of the
following statements is correct?
matrix. A = 0 1
9.
ww
A satisfies the relation
(A) A + 3 + 2 =0
(A)
(B)
x⃗ ⃗x
vector satisfies
x⃗
where at least one
x⃗ x⃗
⃗x for all vectors x⃗
w.E
(B) A2 + 2A + 2 = 0
(C) (A+ ) (A 2) = 0
(D) exp (A) = 0
(C) x⃗ ⃗x
vector satisfies
where at least one
x⃗ x⃗
(D) No relationship can be established
10. asy
equals
between x⃗ and x⃗
(A) 511 A + 510 

(B) 309 A + 104 
En EE – 2009
15. The trace and determinant of a
(C) 154 A + 155 
(D) exp (9A)
EE – 2008
gi matrix are known to be –2 and –35
respe tively It’s Eigenv lues re
nee
(A) –30 and –5
(B) –37 and –1
(C) –7 and 5
(D) 17.5 and –2
11. If the rank of a ( ) matrix Q is 4, then
which one of the following statements is EE – 2010 rin
correct?
(A) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and four linearly independent
columns
x
x
x
x
g
16. For the set of equations
x
x
x =2
x =6 .ne
The following statement is true
(B) Q will have four linearly independent (A) Only the trivial solution
rows and five linearly independent x x x x = 0 exists
columns (B) There are no solutions
(C) Q will be invertible (C) A unique non-trivial solution exists
(D) Q will be invertible (D) Multiple non-trivial solutions exist
12. The characteristic equation of a ( )
matrix P is defined as 17. An Eigenvector of [ ] is
() = | P| =    =0
If I denotes identity matrix, then the (A) , - (C) , -
inverse of matrix P will be (B) , - (D) , -
(A) ( I)
(B) ( I)
(C) ( I)
(D) ( I)
th th th

EE – 2011 22. Which one of the following statements is

18. The matrix[A] = 0 1 is decomposed true for all real symmetric matrices?
(A) All the eigenvalues are real.
into a product of a lower triangular
(B) All the eigenvalues are positive.
matrix [L] and an upper triangular matrix
(C) All the eigenvalues are distinct.
[U]. The properly decomposed [L] and [U]
(D) Sum of all the eigenvalues is zero.
matrices respectively are
(A) 0 1 and 0 1 23. Two matrices A and B are given below:
p q p q pr qs
(B) 0 1 and 0 1 0 1 [ ]
r s pr qs r s
(C) 0 1 and 0 1 If the rank of matrix A is N, then the rank
of matrix B is
ww
(D) 0 1 and 0 1 (A) N
(B) N
(C) N
(D) N
19. w.E
EE – 2013
The equation 0
(A) No solution
x
1 0x 1 0 1 has
IN – 2005
1. Identify which one of the following is an
asy x
(B) Only one solution 0x 1 0 1.
Eigenvector of the matrix A = 0
(A) [ 1 1]T (C) [1 1]T
1?
(C) Non – zero unique solution

(D) Multiple solution
En (B) [3 1]T (D) [ 2 1]T
20. A matrix has Eigenvalues – 1 and – 2. The

corresponding Eigenvectors are 0 1 and
gi 2. Let A be a 3 3 matrix with rank 2. Then
nee
AX = 0 has
(A) only the trivial solution X = 0
(B) one independent solution
0
(A) 0
1 respectively. The matrix is
1 (C) 0 1 rin
(C) two independent solutions
(D) three independent solutions
(B) 0
EE – 2014
1 (D) 0 1
IN – 2006 g
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 3.ne
and 4
21. Given a system of equations:
A system of linear simultaneous
x y z
equations is given as Ax=B where
x y z
Which of the following is true regarding
[ ] n [ ]
its solutions?
(A) The system has a unique solution for
any given and 3. The rank of matrix A is
(B) The system will have infinitely many (A) 1 (C) 3
solutions for any given and (B) 2 (D) 4
(C) Whether or not a solution exists
depends on the given and 4. Which of the following statements is true?
(D) The system would have no solution (A) x is a null vector
for any values of and (B) x is unique
(C) x does not exist
(D) x has infinitely many values
th th th

5. For a given matrix A, it is observed 10. Let P 0 be a 3 3 real matrix. There exist
that linearly independent vectors x and y such
0 1 0 1 n 0 1 0 1 that Px = 0 and Py = 0. The dimension of
the range space of P is
Then matrix A is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
 2 1   1 0   1 1 
(A) A     
 1 1  0 2  1 2 IN – 2010
11. X and Y are non-zero square matrices of
 1 1  1 0  2 1 
(B) A      size n n. If then
 1 2 0 2  1 1 (A) |X| = 0 and |Y| 0
 1 1   1 0   2 1  (B) |X| 0 and |Y| = 0
(C) A     
 1 2  0 2  1 1 (C) |X| = 0 and |Y| = 0
ww 0 2
(D) A   
1 3 12.
(D) |X| 0 and |Y| 0
A real n × n matrix A = [ ] is defined as
6.
w.E
IN – 2007
Let A = [ ] i j n with n n
follows: {
i i j
otherwise
The summation of all n Eigenvalues of A is
(A) asy
= i. j. Then the rank of A is
(C) n
(A) n(n
(B) n(n
)
)
(B) (D) n
En (C)
(D) n
( )( )
7. Let A be an n×n real matrix such that

= I and y be an n- dimensional vector.
Then the linear system of equations Ax=Y
gi IN – 2011
13. nee
The matrix M = [ ] has
has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution rin
Eigenvalues . An Eigenvector
(C) more than one but finitely many
independent solutions
(D) Infinitely many independent
,
g
corresponding to the Eigenvalue 5 is
- . One of the Eigenvectors of
the matrix M is
(A) , - (C) , -
.ne
solutions √
(B) , - (D) , -
IN – 2009
IN – 2013
8. The matrix P =[ ] rotates a vector 14. The dimension of the null space of the
matrix [ ] is
about the axis[ ] by an angle of
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
(A) (C)
(B) (D) 15. One of Eigenvectors corresponding to the
two Eigenvalues of the matrix 0 1 is
9. The Eigenvalues of a (2 2) matrix X are
2 and 3. The Eigenvalues of matrix j
(A) [ ] 0 1 (C) [ ] 0 1
( I) ( I) are j j
(A) (C) (B) 0 1 0 1 j
(D) [ ] 0 1
j
(B) (D)
th th th

IN – 2014
16. For the matrix A satisfying the equation
given below, the eigenvalues are
, -[ ] [ ]
(A) ( 𝑗,𝑗) (C) ( )

(B) (1,1,0) (D) (1,0,0)
Answer Keys and Explanations
ME Now E × F = G
1.
ww
[Ans. A]
∴ ,E-
os
[ sin
sin
os ]
w.E [ ]
h r teristi equ tions is | I|

4. [Ans. A]
For S matrix, if Eigenvalues are
(
asy )( )( )
∴ Real eigenvalues are 5, 5 other two are
… … … … … then for
the Eigenvalues will be , ,
matrix,
………
complex
Eigenvector corresponding to En For S matrix, if Eigenvalues are 1 and 5
then for matrix, the Eigenvalues are 1
(or)
(1)
is ( I)
→( )
Verify the options which satisfies relation
gi 5.
and 25.
nee
[Ans. A]
Option (A) satisfies. 6.

rin
[Ans. B]
2. [Ans. B]
Given n in onsistent No (
0
g 1 Eigenv lues re 2, 2
I) (
No. of L.I Eigenvectors
I) .
.ne /
(no of v ri les) ( I)
( ⁄ )
( ) n ( ⁄ ) 7. [Ans. A]
( ( ) minimum of m n) ( I) .
For inconsistence olving for , Let the symmetric and real
( ) ( ⁄ )
matrix be A = 0 1
∴ he highest possi le r nk of is
Now | |
3. [Ans. C]
Which gives ( )
os sin
Given , E = [ sin os ] ⟹
⟹
Hence real Eigen value.
and G = [ ]
th th th

8. [Ans. B] 12. [Ans. A]

Let 0 1 eigenv lues re n 0 1 → Eigenv lues re
Eigen vector corresponding to Eigenve tor is x x verify the options
is ( I)
x 13. [Ans. C]
. / .y/ . /
By simplifying [ ] [ ]
K
. / . / y t king K
Eigen vector corresponding to =2 → [ ]
is ( I)
x
. / .y/ . / → [ ]
ww
By simplifying (
K
K
) 4
⁄
5 by ( ) infinite m ny solutions
w.E
taking K
⁄
14. [Ans. B]
Eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix
asy ⁄
15.
are always real
[Ans. B]
9. [Ans. C]
Sum of the diagonal elements = Sum of En 0 1 eigenv lues v lue
the Eigenvalues
⟹ 1 + 0 + p = 3+S
⟹ S= p 2
gi Eigen vector will be .
nee
Norm lize ve tor
/
10. [Ans. B]
rin √( ) ( )
( ⁄ ) [
[
]
]
g [√( )
*
⁄
√ +
( ) ]
.ne
⁄
√
→
[ ]
→ 16. [Ans. C]
The given system is
→ [ ] x y z
x y z
If system will h ve solution x y z
Use Gauss elimination method as follows
11. [Ans. A] Augmented matrix is
iven M M → MM I
, | - [ | ]
x
[ ][ ] 0 1
x → [ | ]
Equating the elements x ⁄
th th th

→ [ | ] | |
nk ( ) (Taking 2 common from each row)

nk ( | ) ( )
So, Rank (A) = Rank (A|B) = 2 < n (no. of
variables)
So, we have infinite number of solutions 20. [Ans. D]
0 1 eigen v lues
17. [Ans. C]
Suppose the Eigenvalue of matrix A is Eigenve tor is verify for oth
( i )(s y) and the Eigenvector is n
ww
‘x’ where s the onjug te p ir of
Eigenvalue and Eigenvector is ̅ n x̅.
So Ax = x … ①
21. [Ans. D]
We know that the Eigenvectors
x̅
w.E
and x̅ ̅x̅……②
Taking transpose of equ tion ②
x̅ ̅ … ③
corresponding to distinct Eigenvalues of
real symmetric matrix are orthogonal.
x
x
y
y
[( )
x̅asy x x̅ ̅x
n ̅ is s l r ]
[ ][ ] x y
x y
x y x y
x̅ x x̅ ̅x … ,
x̅ x x̅ x ̅
-
En 22. [Ans. D]
( )
(x̅ x)
̅
̅ (x̅ x) (
( x x̅ re Eigenve tors they

̅ re s l r )
gi
nnot e zero )
CE
In case of matrix PQ
nee
QP (generally)
1. [Ans. C]
i
i
0
i
If
rin
= i.e. A is orthogonal, we can
only s y th t if is n Eigenv lue of
Hence Eigenvalue of a symmetric matrix
are real
then
g
which does not necessarily imply that
| | = 1 for all i.
.ne
also will be an Eigenvalue of A,
18. [Ans. C]
We know that 2. [Ans. A]
os x os x sin x In an over determined system having
( ) os x sin x ( ) os x more equations than variables, it is
Hence 1, 1 and 1 are coefficients. They necessary to have consistent unique
are linearly dependent. solution, by definition
19. [Ans. A] 3. [Ans. A]

With the given order we can say that
| | order of matrices are as follows:
 3×4
So, | | Y  4×3
 3×3
( )  3×3
P 2×3
th th th

 3×2
P( )  (2×3) (3×3) (3×2) [ | ]
2×2
( ( ) )  2×2 → [ | ]
4. [Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for given system is → [ | ]
[ | ]→ [ | ] Now for infinite solution last row must be

completely zero
Then by Gauss elimination procedure ie –2=0 n –7=0
 n
ww [ | ]→ [ | ]
8. [Ans. A]
w.E
( ⁄ )
→ [ | ] Inverse of 0
0 1
(
1 is
)
0 1
( )
( )
asy ( ⁄ )
∴ olution is non – existent for above
∴0 1
( )
0 1
system.
En 0 1
5. [Ans. B]
∑ = Trace (A)
+ + = Trace (A)
gi 9. [Ans. B]
nee
( ) P=(
( )( )
)P
Now = 3
= 2 + ( 1) + 0 = 1 =(
rin
) (I) =
∴3+ + =1

Only choice (B) satisfies this condition.
10. [Ans. B]
A=0 g 1
Characteristic equation of A is
.ne
6. [Ans. B] | |=0
∑ = Trace (A)
 (4 )( 5 ) 2 × 5 =0
+ + =1+5+1=7
Now = 2, = 6  + 30 = 0
∴ 2+6+ =7 6, 5
=3
11. [Ans. D]
7. [Ans. A] The augmented matrix for given system is
x
The augmented matrix for given system is
[ | ] 6y7 [ ]
k z
[ | ] Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to
an upper triangular matrix to find its rank
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to
an upper triangular matrix to find its
rank
th th th

17. [Ans. 16]

[ | ]→ M trix , - , - , -
k The product of matrix PQR is
→ , - , - , -
[ | ]
The minimum number of multiplications
involves in computing the matrix product
[ | ] PQR is 16
Now if k
18. [Ans. 23]
Rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 3
∴ Unique solution [ ][ ] [ ] [ ]
If k = 7, rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 2
ww
which is less than number of variables
∴ When K = 7, unique solution is not
possible and only infinite solution is
K JK , -[
, -
] , -
12.
w.E
possible
[Ans. A]
19. [Ans. A]
asy
A square matrix B is defined as skew-
symmetric if and only if = B
Sum of Eigenvalues
= Sum of trace/main diagonal elements
= 215 + 150 + 550
13. [Ans. D] En = 915
By definition A +
is symmetri
is always symmetric
is lw ys skew symmetri
is skew symmetri
gi20. [Ans. 88]
nee
The determinant of matrix is
14. [Ans. B]
[
rin ]
∴ 0
1 =(
i
i i
)
0
i
1
1
→
[
g ] .ne
i i
0 1 →
,( i)( i) i - i i
i i
= 0 1
i i [ ]
15. [Ans. B]
→
0 1
Sum of the Eigenvalues = 17 [ ]
Product of the Eigenvalues =
From options, 3.48 + 13.53 = 17 Interchanging Column 1& Column 2 and
(3.48)(13.53) = 47 taking transpose
16. [Ans. 0.5]

[ ]
0.5
th th th

The characteristic equation of this matrix

| | is given by
| I|
* ( ) ( )+
= ( ) | |
( )( )
21. [Ans. 2]
= 1, 6
[ ]
∴ The Eigenvalues of A are 1 and 6
→
3. [Ans. D]
[ Given that Fu =b and Fv =b
ww ( ) ( ) ( )
]
If F is non singular, then it has a unique
inverse.
Now, u = b and v= b
[ w.E ( )
]
( )
Since
th t u
is unique, u = v but it is given
v his is ontr i tion o
must be singular. This means that
asy
( ) no. of non zero rows = 2 (A) Determinant of F is zero is true. Also
(B) There are infinite number of
CS
1. [Ans. B] En solution to Fx= b is true since |F| = 0
(C) here is n su h the is
The augmented matrix for the given
system is [ | ]
gi also true, since X has infinite number
nee
of solutions., including the X = 0
solution
(D) F must have 2 identical rows is false,
Using elementary transformation on above
matrix we get,
rin
since a determinant may become
zero, even if two identical columns
[ | ]
g
are present. It is not necessary that 2
.ne
identical rows must be present for
|F| to become zero.
→ [ ⁄ | ]
⁄ ⁄ 4. [Ans. C]
It is given that Eigenvalues of A is
→ 5, 2, 1, 4
[ | ] I
Let P = 0 1
I
Rank ([A B]) = 3 Eigenvalues of P : | I|
Rank ([A]) = 3 I
| |
Since I
Rank ([A B]) = Rank ([A]) = number of ( ) I
variables, the system has unique solution. I
I
2. [Ans. B] Eigenvalue of P is
( 5 +1 ), ( 2+ 1), (1+ 1), (4+1 ),
0 1 ( 5 1 ), ( 2 1 ),(1 1), (4 1)
= 4, 1, 2, 5, 6, 3,0,3
th th th

5. [Ans. B] ( ) =0
X= {x |x x x + = –1, 1
= ,x x x - then, Only one matrix has an Eigenvalue of 1
{ [1, 1, 0]T , [1,0, 1 ]T } is a linearly which is 0 1
independent set because one cannot be
Correct choice is (A)
obtained from another by scalar
multiplication. However (1, 1, 0) and
8. [Ans. D]
(1,0, 1) do not span X, since all such
combinations (x1, x2, x3) such that | |
x y
x1+ x2+ x3 =0 cannot be expressed as ( )( y) x
linear combination of (1, 1,0) and When
(1,0, 1) (
6. ww
[Ans. D] When
y
y)
x
x
( )
w.E
The augmented matrix for above system
is
| ] →
x
(
y
y
y)
x
x
( )
asy
[ [ | ]
Solving (1) & (2)
x y
→ [
Now as long as – 5 0,
| ]
En 9. [Ans. A]
rank (A) =rank (A|B) =3

∴ can be any real value except 5. Closest
correct answer is (D).
gi The Eigenvalues of a upper triangular
matrix are given by its diagonal entries.
nee
∴ Eigenvalues are 1, 4, 3 only
7. [Ans. A]
10.
rin
[Ans. D]
0 1
Eigenvalues of 0
| | =0
1
=0,1 g
Eigenvalues of the matrix (A) are the
roots of the characteristic polynomial
given below.
.ne
Eigenvalues of 0 1
| |
| | =0
( )( )
=0 = 0, 0 ( )( )
Eigenvalues of 0 1
√
| |= 0
Eigenvalues of A are √ n √
( ) =0 respectively
( ) So Eigenvalues of
= i or 1
(√ ) n ( √ )
= 1 –i or 1 + i
n
Eigenvalues of 0 1
n
| | =0 √ n √
( )( ) =0
th th th

11. [Ans. A] 15. [Ans. 6]

→ p q
Since 2 nd & 3rd columns have been
Let A =
swapped which introduces a –ve sign
Hence (A) is not equal to the problem [ ]
x
12. [Ans. 1] x
x y Let X = x e eigen ve tor
x
x z [x ]
x y z By the definition of eigenvector, AX =
x y z x x
x x
ww ugmente m trix is [ ]
[
x
x
] [x ]
x
x
[x ]
w.E [ ]
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
asy
→
→
→ x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x x x x
En n x
(I) If
x x
s yx
x
x
x x
[
→
]
→
gi x
x
x
nee
x
x
x
x
x
(2) If Eigenv lue

[ ]
rin
∴ Three distinct eigenvalues are 0, 2, 3
Product of non zero eigenvalues = 2 × 3
[
→
] 16.
=6
[Ans. A]
g .ne
If the trace or determinant of matrix is
positive then it is not necessary that all
( ) ( ) no of v ri les
eigenvalues are positive. So, option (B),
∴ nique solution exists
(C), (D) are not correct
13. [Ans. 0]
ECE
The Eigenvectors corresponding to
1. [Ans. C]
distinct Eigenvalues of real symmetric
Since, , -
matrix are orthogonal
2. [Ans. A]
14. [Ans. 0]
We know, =I
[ ]
0 16 7=0 1
| | ( )
0 1 0 1
th th th

b 1 7. [Ans. C]
,  a
Or 2a 0.1b=0,  2a 
10 60 There are M non-zero, orthogonal vectors,
so there is required M dimension to
1 1 21 7
 a+b =    represent them.
3 60 60 20
8. [Ans. B]
3. [Ans. C] Approach 1:
0 1 Given 4x + 2y =7
and 2x + y =6
 (A I)=0
4 2   x  7
 ( 4 ) (3 ) 2 4=0 2 1  y   6
 2 + 20=0  = 5, 4     
 x1  0 0   x   5
ww
Putting = 5, 0 1   =0
 x2 
 x + 2x = 0 x = 2x
2 1  y   6 
    
On comparing LHS and RHS
w.E
x
 1= 2
2 1
x
0= 5, which is irrelevant and so no
solution.
Approach 2:
asy
Hence, 0 1 is Eigenvector. 4x + 2y =7
or 2x  y=
7
4. [Ans. C]
0 1 We know th t it is Eigenvalue En 2x+y=6
2
Then Eigenvector is x
Verify the options (C)
x
gi Since both the linear equation represent
parallel set of straight lines, therefore no
nee
solution exists.
Approach 3:
5. [Ans. A]
or m trix 0 1
rin
Rank (A)=1; rank (C)=2,
As Rank (A) rank (C) therefore no
We know
|
 2 –I2
+32 =0
|I A|=0
| 9. [Ans. C] g
solution exists.
Matrix will be singular if any of the

.ne
 = 4, 8 (Eigenvalues) Eigenvalues are zero.
|  |= 0
For = 4, ( I )=0 1
For = 0, P = 0
p p
v =0 1  |p p | =0
For = 8, ( I )=0 1  p p p p
v =0 1 10. [Ans. D]
Approach1: Eigenvalues exists as complex
6. [Ans. C] conjugate or real
Approach 2: Eigenvalues are given by
[ ]
| | =0
[ ] ( )(( ) )=0
 , j j
( )
th th th

11. [Ans. C]
Eigenvalue of skew – symmetric matrix is Then AB = [4]; BA [ ]
either zero or pure imaginary.
Here m = 1, n = 4
12. [Ans. B]
And et(I ) et(I )
Given equations are x y z
x y z and x y z
et of , - et of [ ]
If and ,
then x y z have Infinite solution
If and , then
x y z ( ) no solution 16. [Ans. D]
x y z Matrix multiplication is not commutative
ww
If
x y
n
z will have solution
17.
in general.
[Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01

x
w.Ey
and
z
will also give solution Let ‘ ’ e Eigenv lue of ‘ ’ hen ‘
e Eigenv lue of ‘ ’
’ will
13.
asy
[Ans. B]
0 1
A. =I=
Using Cauchey Hamilton Theorem,
Characteristic Equations is
En
By Cayley Hamilton theorem
∴
I I gi 18. [Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01
neeI J I J
( I)
I
rin | |
14. [Ans. A]
[ ]
19.
[
g
[Ans. *] Range 199 to 201
]
.ne
→ ( ) From matrix properties we know that the
determinant of the product is equal to the
[ ] | | product of the determinants.
That is if A and B are two matrix with
| | Product of Eigenvalues = 0 determinant | | n | | respectively,
∴ Minimum Eigenv lue h s to e ‘ ’ then | | | | | |
∴| | | | | |
15. [Ans. B]
Let , - [ ] 20. [Ans. B]

→
[ ] [ ]
→
I I [ ]
→ [ ]
th th th

( ) ( | ) no of v r les
Infinitely many solutions ∴ cof. (A) = [ ]
Adj (A) =, of ( )-
21. [Ans. B]
onsi er 0 1 =[ ]
whi h is re l symmetri m trix
Dividing by |R| = 1 gives
h r teristi equ tion is | I|
( ) =[ ]
∴ (not positive) ∴ Top row of =, -

( ) is not true
ww
(A), (C), (D) are true using properties of
Eigenvalues
2. [Ans. D]
Since matrix is triangular, the Eigenvalues
are the diagonal elements themselves
22.
w.E
[Ans. *] Range 48.9 to 49.1
Real symmetric matrices are diagnosable
Let the matrix be
namely  = 3, 2 & 1.
Corresponding to Eigenvalue  = 2, let
us find the Eigenvector
asy
0
x
x
1 s tr e is
So determinant is product of diagonal
[A - ] x̂ = 0
x
entries
So | | x x En [ ][ ] x
x
[ ]
∴ M ximum v lue of etermin nt
∴ | |
x x gi Putting
nee
[
x
x
in above equation we get,
][x ] [ ]
Which gives the equations,

EE
5x
rin
x =0
x x =0 . . . . . (i)
. . . . . (ii)
1. [Ans. B]
R= [ ]
3x = 0
g . . . . . (iii)
.ne
Since eqa (ii) and (iii) are same we have
5x x x =0 . . . . . (i)
j( ) , of tor( )- x =0 . . . . . (ii)
| | | | Putting x = k, we get
x = 0, x = k and 5x k =0
| |=| |
x = k
= 1(2 + 3) – 0(4 + 2) – 1 (6 – 2) = 1 ∴ Eigenvectorss are of the form
Since we need only the top row of , we x k
need to find only first column of (R) [x ] * k +
which after transpose will become first x
row adj(A). i.e. x x x = k : k : 0
cof. (1, 1) = + | |=2+3=5 = :1:0
cof. (2, 1) = | |= 3 =2:5:0
x
cof. (2, 1) = + | |= +1 ∴ [ x ]=[ ] is an Eigenvector of matrix p.
x
th th th

3. [Ans. A]
Rank [P|Q] = Rank [P] is necessary for M=[ ]
existence of at least one solution to
Hence Eigenvalue of M : | M |
x q.
| |
4. [Ans. A]
We need to find orthogonal vectors, verify  ( ) ( )
the options. 
Option (A) is orthogonal vectors  ( )
i i
( )( )
8. [Ans. B]
5. ww
Option (B), (C), (D) are not orthogonal
[Ans. B]
xy
xx
| yx
xy
xy
xx x n xy yx
x xy
y y | |y x y |
w.E
The vector (
Q. No. 4 namely
) is linearly
dependent upon the solution obtained in
, -
x y (x y)
= Positive when x and y are linearly
asy
and , -
We can easily verify the linearly
independent.
dependence as
En 9. [Ans. A]
A=0 1
6.
|
[Ans. B]
|
gi |A – | = 0
|
nee 

| =0
A will satisfy this equation according to
hen n
x x
n m trix
x x
x x x x
xx
x x
x x i.e.rin
Cayley Hamilton theorem
I=0
*
x x x x x x
Take x common from 1st row,
x common from 2nd row ……
+
I
g
Multiplying by
=0
on oth si es we get
I=0
.ne
x common from nth row.
10. [Ans. A]
It h s r nk ‘ ’
To calculate
Start from I = 0 which has
7. [Ans. D]
derived above
⃗
k I
L(x) = | |
x x x
( I)( I)
= (x ) ( ) ⃗(
k x )
x I
⃗ =[ ( I) I
= x x k ]
x I
x
L(x) = M [x ] ( I)( I)
x
I
Comparing both , we get,
( I) I
th th th

I 15. [Ans. C]
Trace = Sum of Principle diagonal
( I) elements.
( I) 16. [Ans. D]
I On writing the equation in the form of
AX =B
11. [Ans. A] x
x
If rank of (5 6 ) matrix is 4,then surely * + *x + * +
it must have exactly 4 linearly x
independent rows as well as 4 linearly
independent columns. Argument matrix C =* +
12. ww
[Ans. D]

w.E
If characteristic equation is
  =0
Then by Cayley – Hamilton theorem,
→
nk ( ) nk( )
, * +
= asy I=0
Number of variables = 4
Since, Rank (A) = Rank(C) < Number of
Multiplying by
=
on both sides,
I = ( I)
En variables
Hence, system of equations are consistent
13. [Ans. D]
Choice (A)
Since =A[(
= A is correct
) -A
gi and there is multiple non-trivial solution
nee
exists.
17. [Ans. B]
Put =P
= A[( ) -
rin
Characteristic equation | I|
Then A [
Choice (C)
=( )
] = A. = A
=  is also correct since
|
 (1 ) (

g )( )
|
.ne
= I
Eigenve tors orrespon ing to is
14. [Ans. B] ( I)
Let orthogonal matrix be x
os in [ ] [x ] [ ]
P=0 1 x
in os
By Property of orthogonal matrix A 2x x  x x
I At x x
x os x in x x  x x
So, x⃗ = [ ]
x in x os At x ,x
|| x⃗ || =
Eigenvectors = c[ ]{Here c is a constant}
√(x os x in ) (x in x os )
|| x⃗ || = √x x
18. [Ans. D]
|| x⃗ || = || x̅|| for any vector x̅ , - ,L-, - ⟹ Options D is correct
th th th

19. [Ans. D] p q pr qs
[ ]
x x … (i) pr qs r s
} (i) n (ii) re s me
x x … (ii) ∴ hey h ve s me r nk N
∴x x
So it has multiple solutions. IN
1. [Ans. B]
20. [Ans. D]
Given: 0 1
Eigen value
Characteristic equation is,
Eigenvectors 0 1 n 0 1 |A I|= | |
i.e., (1 ) (2 )
Let matrix 0 1
2
ww
0
x
10
x
1 0 1
Thus the Eigenvalue are 1, 2.
If x, y, be the component of Eigenvectors
0
w.E 10 1 0 1
orrespon ing to the Eigenv lues
have
[A- I]X=0
x
1 0y1=0
we
asy For =1, we get the Eigenvector as 0 1
Solving
En Hence, the answer will be , -
21.
0
[Ans. B]
1 0 1
gi 2. [Ans. B]
nee
AX=0 and (A) = 2
n=3
No. of linearly independent solutions
Since there are 2 equations and 3
variables (unknowns), there will be
rin
= n r
= 3
infinitely many solutions. If
x z y
then x y z x y z
For any x and z, there will be a value of y.

if
3.
=1
[Ans. C]
g .ne
There are 3 non-zero rows and hence
∴ Infinitely many solutions
rank (A) = 3
22. [Ans. A]
4. [Ans. C]
For all real symmetric matrices, the
Rank (A) = 3 (This is Co-efficient matrix)
Eigenvalues are real (property), they may
Rank (A:b) =4(This is Augmented matrix)
be either ve or ve and also may be
s r nk( ) r nk ( ) olution oes
same. The sum of Eigenvalues necessarily
not exist.
not be zero.
5. [Ans. C]
23. [Ans. C]
p q We know Hen e from the given
0 1 problem, Eigenvalue & Eigenvector is
r s
( pplying → p q known.
→r s element ry tr nsform tions) 1 1
X1    , X2    , 1  1, 2  2
 1  2
th th th

We also know that , where 11. [Ans. C]

1 1 A null matrix can be obtained by
P   X1 X 2     multiplying either with one null matrix or
 1 2
two singular matrices.
 0   1 0 
& D=  1  
 0 2   0 2 12. [Ans. A]
Hence A=[ ]
 1 1   1 0   2 1  i if i j
A       = 0 otherwise.
 1 2  0 2  1 1
For n n matrix
6. [Ans. B]
A=[ ]
ww
A= [ ]=[ ] n
For diagonal matrix Eigenvalues are
w.E
Using elementary transformation
[ ]
diagonal elements itself.
∴ n
n(n )
asy
Hence, rank (A) =1
13. [Ans. B]
7. [Ans. B]
Given I En If AX = →
From this result [1, 2, - is also vector
Hence rank (A) = n
Hence AX= Y will have unique solution gi
14.
for M
nee
[Ans. B]
Dim of null space [A]= nullity of A.
8. [Ans. C]
9. [Ans. C] rin
For given A = [ ]
Approach 1:
Assume,
∴A ( I)
0
(
1
I)
I 0 1 g
Apply row operations
[ ] .ne
0 1 0 1
→ [ ]
0 10 1 0 1
Now | I | → [ ]
| | ∴ ( )
( )( )=0 By rank – nullity theorem
Rank [A]+ nullity [A]= no. of columns[A]
Approach 2: Nullity [A]= 3
Eigenvalues of ( I) is = 1, 1/2 ∴ Nullity , -
Eigenvalues of (X+5I) is = 3, 2
Eigenvalues of ( I) (X+5I) is = , 15. [Ans. A]
A=| |
10. [Ans. D]
Characteristics equation | I|
th th th

| |
j
j
j x
[ ] 0x 1 0 1
j
x
x j
j
j x
[ ] 0x 1 0 1
j
x j
ww
x
16.
A[w.E
[Ans. C]
]=[ ]
asy
→| | | | | |
→| |
En
( |
|
|
gi
| two rows ounter lose thus | | nee
| |) rin
=Product of eigenvalues
Verify options
g .ne
Options (C) correct answer
th th th

Probability and Distribution
ME - 2005 ME - 2008
1. A single die is thrown twice. What is the 6. A coin is tossed 4 times. What is the
probability that the sum is neither 8 nor probability of getting heads exactly 3
9? times?
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄ (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
2. A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items ME - 2009

are chosen randomly from this lot. The 7. The standard deviation of a uniformly
probability that exactly 2 of the chosen distributed random variable between 0
ww
items are defective is
(A) 0.0036
(B) 0.1937
(C) 0.2234
(D) 0.3874
and 1 is
(A)
(B)
√
√
(C) ⁄√
(D) √
3.
w.E
ME - 2006
Consider a continuous random variable
8. If three coins are tossed simultaneously,
the probability of getting at least one head
asy
with probability density function
f(t) = 1 + t for 1  t  0
= 1 t for 0  t  1
is
(A) 1/8 (C) 1/2
The standard deviation of the random

En ME - 2010
(B) 3/8 (D) 7/8
variable is:
(A) ⁄√
(B) ⁄√
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄ gi 9. A box contains 2 washers, 3 nuts and 4
nee
bolts. Items are drawn from the box at
random one at a time without
replacement. The probability of drawing
4. A box contains 20 defective items and 80
non-defective items. If two items are
selected at random without replacement, rin
2 washers first followed by 3 nuts and
subsequently the 4 bolts is
what will be the probability that both
items are defective?
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(A) 2/315
(B) 1/630
ME - 2011
g (C) 1/1260
(D) 1/2520
.ne
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄ 10. An unbiased coin is tossed five times. The
ME - 2007 outcome of each toss is either a head or a
5. Let X and Y be two independent random tail. The probability of getting at least one
variables. Which one of the relations head is________
between expectation (E), variance (Var) (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
and covariance (Cov) given below is
FALSE? ME - 2012
(A) E (XY) = E (X) E (Y) 11. A box contains 4 red balls and 6 black
(B) Cov (X, Y) = 0 balls. Three balls are selected randomly
(C) Var (X + Y) = Var (X) + Var (Y) from the box one after another, without
(D) (X Y ) ( (X)) ( (Y)) replacement. The probability that the
selected set has one red ball and two
black balls is
(A) 1/20 (C) 3/10
(B) 1/12 (D) 1/2
th th th

ME - 2013 the probability of obtaining red colour on

12. Let X be a normal random variable with top face of the dice at least twice is _______
mean 1 and variance 4. The probability
(X ) is 17. A group consists of equal number of men
(A) 0.5 and women. Of this group 20% of the men
(B) Greater than zero and less than 0.5 and 50% of the women are unemployed.
(C) Greater than 0.5 and less than 1.0 If a person is selected at random from this
(D) 1.0 group, the probability of the selected
person being employed is _______
13. The probability that a student knows the
correct answer to a multiple choice 18. A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective
question is . If the student dose not know pieces in a day with associated
ww
the answer, then the student guesses the
answer. The probability of the guessed
probability of 1/6, 2/3 and 1/6,
respectively. The mean value and the
w.E
answer being correct is . Given that the
student has answered the questions
correctly, the conditional probability that
variance of the number of defective pieces
produced by the machine in a day,
respectively, are
(A) ⁄asy
the student knows the correct answer is
(C) ⁄
(A) 1 and 1/3
(B) 1/3 and 1
(C) 1 and 4/3
(D) 1/3 and 4/3
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
En 19. A nationalized bank has found that the
daily balance available in its savings
ME - 2014
14. In the following table x is a discrete
random variable and P(x) is the
probability density. The standard
gi accounts follows a normal distribution
nee
with a mean of Rs. 500 and a standard
deviation of Rs. 50. The percentage of
savings account holders, who maintain an
deviation of x is
x 1 2 3 rin
average daily balance more than Rs. 500
is _______
P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1
(A) 0.18
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.54
(D) 0.6
20. g .ne
The number of accidents occurring in a
plant in a month follows Poisson
distribution with mean as 5.2. The
15. Box contains 25 parts of which 10 are probability of occurrence of less than 2
defective. Two parts are being drawn accidents in the plant during a randomly
simultaneously in a random manner from selected month is
the box. The probability of both the parts
(A) 0.029 (C) 0.039
being good is (B) 0.034 (D) 0.044
( ) ( )
CE - 2005
( ) ( ) 1. Which one of the following statements is
NOT true?
16. Consider an unbiased cubic dice with (A) The measure of skewness is
opposite faces coloured identically and dependent upon the amount of
each face coloured red, blue or green such dispersion
that each colour appears only two times
on the dice. If the dice is thrown thrice,
th th th

(B) In a symmetric distribution the value CE - 2008

of mean, mode and median are the 5. If probability density function of a random
same variable x is
(C) In a positively skewed distribution x for x nd
f(x) {
mean > median > mode for ny other v lue of x
(D) In a negatively skewed distribution Then, the percentage probability
mode > mean > median P. x / is
(A) 0.247 (C) 24.7
CE - 2006 (B) 2.47 (D) 247
2. A class of first years B. Tech students is
composed of four batches A, B, C and D 6. A person on a trip has a choice between
each consisting of 30 students. It is found private car and public transport. The
wwthat the sessional marks of students in

Engineering Drawing in batch C have a
probability of using a private car is 0.45.
While using the public transport, further
w.E
mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3.
The mean and standard deviation of the
marks for the entire class are 5.5 and 4.2
choices available are bus and metro out of
which the probability of commuting by a
bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the
asy
respectively. It is decided by the course
instruction to normalize the marks of the
students of all batches to have the same
probability, (rounded upto two decimals)
of using a car, bus and metro, respectively
would be
mean and standard deviation as that of
the entire class. Due to this, the marks of a En (A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
(B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
student in batch C are changed from 8.5
to
(A) 6.0 (C) 8.0
gi (C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00
nee
(D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
(B) 7.0 (D) 9.0
3. There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of

CE - 2009
7.
rin
The standard normal probability function
them are defective. Suppose 5 calculators

are randomly picked for inspection (i.e.
each has the same chance of being
(x ) g
can be approximated as
exp( |x | )
.ne
Where x = standard normal deviate. If
selected). What is the probability that mean and standard deviation of annual
only one of the defective calculators will precipitation are 102 cm and 27 cm
be included in the inspection? respectively, the probability that the
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ annual precipitation will be between
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
90 cm and 102 cm is
(A) 66.7% (C) 33.3%
CE - 2007
(B) 50.0% (D) 16.7%
4. If the standard deviation of the spot speed
of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and CE - 2010
the mean speed of the vehicles is 8. Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The
33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in probability of two heads simultaneously
speed is appearing is
(A) 0.1517 (C) 0.2666 (A) 1/8 (C) 1/4
(B) 0.1867 (D) 0.3646 (B) 1/6 (D) 1/2
th th th

CE - 2011 14. A traffic office imposes on an average 5

9. There are two containers with one number of penalties daily on traffic
containing 4 red and 3 green balls and the violators. Assume that the number of
other containing 3 blue and 4 green balls. penalties on different days is independent
One ball is drawn at random from each and follows a poisson distribution. The
container. The probability that one of the probability that there will be less than 4
balls is red and the other is blue will be penalties in a day is ____.
(A) 1/7 (C) 12/49
(B) 9/49 (D) 3/7 15. A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four
times in succession and resulted in the
CE - 2012 following outcomes:
10. The annual precipitation data of a city is (i) Head (iii) Head
ww
normally distributed with mean and
standard deviation as 1000mm and
200 mm, respectively. The probability
(ii) Head (iv) Head
The prob bility of obt ining ‘T il’ when
the coin is tossed again is
w.E
that the annual precipitation will be more
than 1200 mm is
(A) < 50 % (C) 75 %
(A) 0
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
asy
(B) 50 % (D) 100 % 16. An observer counts 240 veh/h at a
specific highway location. Assume that
11. In an experiment, positive and negative
values are equally likely to occur. The En the vehicle arrival at the location is
Poisson distributed, the probability of
probability of obtaining at most one
negative value in five trials is
(A) (C)
gi CS - 2005
having one vehicle arriving over a
nee
30-second time interval is ____________
(B) (D)
1.
rin
Box P has 2 red balls and 3 blue balls and
box Q has 3 red balls and 1 blue ball. A
CE - 2013
12. Find the value of such that the function
f(x) is a valid probability density function
____________________
g
ball is selected as follows: (i) select a box
.ne
(ii) choose a ball from the selected box
such that each ball in the box is equally
likely to be chosen. The probabilities of
f(x) (x )( x) for x
otherwise selecting boxes P and Q are 1/3 and 2/3
respectively. Given that a ball selected in
CE - 2014 the above process is red, the probability
13. The probability density function of that it comes from box P is
evaporation E on any day during a year in (A) 4/19 (C) 2/9
a watershed is given by (B) 5/19 (D) 19/30
f( ) { mm d y 2. Let f(x) be the continuous probability

otherwise density function of a random variable X.
The probability that E lies in between 2 The probability that a  X  b , is
and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed (A) f(b a) (C) ∫ f(x)dx
is (in decimal) ______
(B) f(b) f( ) (D) ∫ x f(x)dx
th th th

CS - 2006 CS - 2008
3. For each element in a set of size 2n, an 7. Let X be a random variable following
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2n coin normal distribution with mean +1 and
tosses are independent. An element is variance 4. Let Y be another normal
chosen if the corresponding coin toss variable with mean of 1 and variance
were head. The probability that exactly n unknown If (X ) (Y≥ ) the
elements are chosen is standard deviation of Y is
(A) ( n ⁄ ) (C) ( ⁄ n ) (A) 3 (C) √
(B) ( n ⁄ ) (D) ⁄ (B) 2 (D) 1
8. Aishwarya studies either computer

CS - 2007
science or mathematics every day. If she
Linked Data for Q4 & Q5 are given below.
wwSolve the problems and choose the correct

answers.
studies computer science on a day, then
the probability that she studies
mathematics the next day is 0.6. If she
w.E
Suppose that robot is placed on the
Cartesian plane. At each step it is easy to
move either one unit up or one unit right,
studies mathematics on a day, then the
probability that she studies computer
science the next day is 0.4. Given that
4.
asy
i.e if it is at (i,j) then it can move to either
(i+1,j) or (i,j+1)
How many distinct paths are there for the
Aishwarya studies computer science on
Monday, what is the probability that she
robot to reach the point (10,10) starting

from the initial position (0,0)? En studies computer science on Wednesday?
(A) 0.24 (C) 0.4
5.
(A)
(B) 2 20
(C) 210
(D) None of these
Suppose that the robot is not allowed to

gi CS - 2009
9.
(B) 0.36
nee
(D) 0.6
An unbalanced dice (with 6 faces,
traverse the line segment from (4,4) to

(5,4). With this constraint, how many rin
numbered from 1 to 6) is thrown. The
probability that the face value is odd is
distinct paths are there for the robot to

reach (10,10) starting from (0,0)?
(A) 29
g
90% of the probability that the face value
.ne
is even. The probability of getting any
even numbered face is the same. If the
probability that the face is even given that
(B) 219
it is greater than 3 is 0.75, which one of
(C) . / . / the following options is closest to the
probability that the face value exceeds 3?
(D) . / . / . /
(A) 0.453 (C) 0.485
6. Suppose we uniformly and randomly (B) 0.468 (D) 0.492
select a permutation from the 20! CS - 2010
ermut tions of ………… Wh t is 10. Consider a company that assembles
the probability that 2 appears at an computers. The probability of a faulty
earlier position than any other even assembly of any computer is p. The
number in the selected permutation? company therefore subjects each
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ computer to a testing process. This
(B) ⁄ (D) none of these testing process gives the correct result for
any computer with a probability of q.
What is the probability of a computer
being declared faulty?
th th th

(A) pq+(1 – p)(1 – q) 15. If two fair coins flipped and at least one of
(B) (1 – q)p the outcomes is known to be a head, what
(C) (1 – p)q is the probability that both outcomes are
(D) pq heads?
(A) 1/3 (C) 1/4
11. What is the probability that a divisor of (B) 1/2 (D) 2/3
is a multiple of ?
(A) 1/625 (C) 12/625 CS - 2012
(B) 4/625 (D) 16/625 16. Suppose a fair six – sided die is rolled
once. If the value on the die is 1,2, or 3 the
12. If the difference between the expectation
die is rolled a second time. What is the
of the square if a random variable ( ,x -)
probability that the some total of value
and the square if the exopectation of the
ww
random variable ( ,x-) is denoted by R,
then
that turn up is at least 6?
(A) 10/21
(B) 5/12
(C) 2/3
(D) 1/6
w.E
(A) R = 0
(B) R< 0
CS - 2011
(C) R≥
(D) R > 0 17. Consider a random variable X that takes
values +1 and 1 with probability 0.5
asy
13. A deck of 5 cards (each carrying a distinct
number from 1 to 5) is shuffled
each. The values of the cumulative
distribution function F(x) at x = and
thoroughly. Two cards are then removed
one at a time from the deck. What is the En +1 are
(A) 0 and 0.5 (C) 0.5 and 1
probability that the two cards are
selected with the number on the first card
being one higher than the number on the
gi (B) 0 and 1
CS - 2013
nee
(D) 0.25 and 0.75
18. Suppose p is the number of cars per

second card?
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄ rin
minute passing through a certain road
junction between 5 PM and 6 PM, and p
14. Consider a finite sequence of random

values X = [x1, x2 … xn].Let be the
me n nd σx be the standard deviation of
g
has a Poisson distribution with mean 3.
What is the probability of observing
fewer than 3 cars during any given
minute in this interval?
.ne
X. Let another finite sequence Y of equal (A) ⁄ e (C) ⁄ e
length be derived from this as yi, a*xi+b, (B) ⁄ e (D) ⁄ e
where a and b are positive constants. Let
μy be the me n nd σy be the standard CS - 2014
deviation of this sequence. Which one of 19. Suppose you break a stick of unit length
the following statements is INCORRECT? at a point chosen uniformly at random.
(A) Index position of mode of X in X is Then the expected length of the shorter
the same as the index position of stick is ________ .
mode of Y in Y.
(B) Index position of median of X in X is 20. Four fair six – sided dice are rolled. The
the same as the index position of probability that the sum of the results
median of Y in Y. being 22 is x/1296. The value of x is
(C) μy μx + b ____________
(D) σy σx + b
th th th

21. The security system at an IT office is ECE - 2006

composed of 10 computers of which 3. A probability density function is of the
exactly four are working. To check form (x) e || x ( ).
whether the system is functional, the The value of K is
officials inspect four of the computers (A) 0.5 (C) 0.5a
picked at random (without replacement). (B) 1 (D) A
The system is deemed functional if at
least three of the four computers 4. Three Companies X, Y and Z supply
inspected are working. Let the computers to a university. The percentage
probability that the system is deemed of computers supplied by them and the
functional be denoted by p. Then 100p = probability of those being defective are
_____________. tabulated below
22.
ww
Each of the nine words in the sentence
“The quick brown fox jumps over the l zy
Company % of
computers
supplied
Probability
of being
defective
w.E
dog” is written on sep r te piece of
paper. These nine pieces of paper are kept
in a box. One of the pieces is drawn at
X
Y
60%
30%
0.01
0.02
asy
random from the box. The expected
length of the word drawn is _____________.
Z 10% 0.03
Given that a computer is defective, the
probability that it was supplied by Y is
(The answer should be rounded to one
decimal place.) En (A) 0.1
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.3
(D) 0.4
23. The probability that a given positive

integer lying between 1 and 100 (both
inclusive) is NOT divisible by 2, 3 or 5 is
gi ECE - 2007
5.
nee
If E denotes expectation, the variance of a
random variable X is given by
__________.
rin
(A) E[X2] E2[X]
(B) E[X2] + E2[X]
(C) E[X2]
(D) E2[X]
24. Let S be a sample space and two mutually
exclusive events A and B be such that
∪ S If ( ) denotes the prob bility
of the event, the maximum value of
6. g .ne
An examination consists of two papers,
Paper1 and Paper2. The probability of
failing in Paper1 is 0.3 and that in Paper2
P(A) P(B) is _______
is 0.2.Given that a student has failed in
ECE - 2005 Paper2, the probability of failing in
1. A fair dice is rolled twice. The probability paper1 is 0.6. The probability of a student
that an odd number will follow an even failing in both the papers is
number is (A) 0.5 (C) 0.12
(B) 0.18 (D) 0.06
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
2. The value of the integral


1  x2 
I    8 dx is
2 0
exp
(A) 1 (C) 2
(B) (D)
th th th

ECE - 2008 8. (x) exp( |x|) exp( |x|) is

7. The probability density function (PDF) of the probability density function for the
a random variable X is as shown below. real random variable X, over the entire x
PDF axis. M and N are both positive real
1 PDF
numbers. The equation relating M and N
is
(A) 1
1 0 x (B) 2M N=1
11
The -1
corresponding
0
cumulative (C) M + N = 1
distribution function (CDF) has the form (D) M + N = 3
ww (A)
1
CDF ECE - 2009
9. Consider two independent random
variables X and Y with identical
w.E x distributions. The variables X and Y take

value 0, 1 and 2 with probabilities
asy
1 0 1 x
(x y |x y|
and respectively. What is the
conditional probability
)
(B) 1 CD
C
F
D En (A) 0
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) 1
1
F
gi
10.
nee
A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is the
probability that ONLY the first two tosses
-1
0
CDF 1
1 x
r
will yield heads?
1
(A)  
2
2
ing 1
(C)  
2
10
.
0
(C) 1 0
(B) 10 1
C2  
2
2
(D) 10 1
C2  
2
ne
10
11. A discrete random variable X takes values

x from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown in
0 1 the table. A student calculates the mean of
1
X as 3.5 and her teacher calculates the
variance of X as 1.5. Which of the
(D) CDF following statements is true?
1
k P(X=k)
1
1 0.1
0 1 x 2 0.2
1
0 1 3 0.4
1 4 0.2
5 0.1
th th th

(A) Both the student and the teacher are (C) ( (x) (x)) x
right (D) ( (x) (x)) x ≥
(B) Both the student and the teacher are
wrong ECE - 2014
(C) The student is wrong but the teacher 17. In a housing society, half of the families
is right have a single child per family, while the
(D) The student is right but the teacher is remaining half have two children per
wrong family. The probability that a child picked
at random, has a sibling is _____
ECE - 2010
12. A fair coin is tossed independently four 18. Let X X nd X , be independent and
times. The prob bility of the event “the identically distributed random variables
ww
number of times heads show up is more
th n the number of times t ils show up” is
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X is the largest} is _____
w.E
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
ECE - 2011
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
19. Let X be a random variable which is
uniformly chosen from the set of positive
asy
13. A fair dice is tossed two times. The
probability that the second toss results in
odd numbers less than 100. The
expectation, E[X], is __________.
a value that is higher than the first toss is
(A) 2/36 (C) 5/12 En 20. An unbiased coin is tossed an infinite
(B) 2/6
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
(D) 1/2
gi number of times. The probability that the
fourth head appears at the tenth toss is
nee
(A) 0.067
(B) 0.073
(C) 0.082
(D) 0.091
14. A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for
the first time probability that the number
of required tosses is odd , is
21.
rin
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly till both
head and tail appear at least once. The
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/2
(C) 2/3
(D) 3/4
22.
_______.g
average number of tosses required is
Let X X and X be independent and

.ne
ECE - 2013
15. Let U and V be two independent zero identically distributed random variables
mean Gaussian random variables of with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
variances ⁄ and ⁄ respectively. The The probability P{X X X } is ______.
probability ( V ≥ U) is
23. Let X be a zero mean unit variance
(A) 4/9 (C) 2/3
Gaussian random variable. ,|x|- is equal
(B) 1/2 (D) 5/9
to __________
16. Consider two identically distributed zero-
24. Parcels from sender S to receiver R pass
mean random variables U and V . Let the
sequentially through two post-offices.
cumulative distribution functions of U
Each post-office has a probability of
and 2V be F(x) and G(x) respectively.
Then, for all values of x losing an incoming parcel, independently
(A) ( (x) (x)) of all other parcels. Given that a parcel is
lost, the probability that it was lost by the
(B) ( (x) (x)) ≥
second post-office is ____________.
th th th

EE - 2005 EE - 2008
1. If P and Q are two random events, then 5. X is a uniformly distributed random
the following is TRUE variable that takes values between 0 and
(A) Independence of P and Q implies that 1. The value of E{X } will be
probability (P Q) = 0 (A) 0 (C) 1/4
(B) Probability (P ∪ Q)≥ Probability (P) (B) 1/8 (D) 1/2
+Probability (Q)
EE - 2009
(C) If P and Q are mutually exclusive,
6. Assume for simplicity that N people, all
then they must be independent
born in April (a month of 30 days), are
(D) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
collected in a room. Consider the event of
2. A fair coin is tossed three times in atleast two people in the room being born
ww
succession. If the first toss produces a
head, then the probability of getting
exactly two heads in three tosses is
on the same date of the month, even if in
different years, e.g. 1980 and 1985. What
is the smallest N so that the probability of
w.E
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
this event exceeds 0.5?
(A) 20
(B) 7
(C) 15
(D) 16
EE - 2006
3. asy
Two f ir dice re rolled nd the sum “ r ” EE - 2010
of the numbers turned up is considered
(A) Pr (r > 6) = En 7. A box contains 4 white balls and 3 red
balls. In succession, two balls are
(B) Pr (r/3 is an integer) =

(C) Pr (r = 8|r/4 is an integer) =
gi randomly selected and removed from the
box. Given that the first removed ball is
nee
white, the probability that the second
removed ball is red is
(D) Pr (r = 6|r/5 is an integer) =
EE - 2007 rin
(A) 1/3
(B) 3/7
(C) 1/2
(D) 4/7
4. A loaded dice has following probability

distribution of occurrences
Dice Value Probability
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
8.
g
Two independent random variables X and
.ne
Y are uniformly distributed in the interval
1 ⁄ , -. The probability that max , - is
2 ⁄ less than 1/2 is
3 ⁄ (A) 3/4 (C) 1/4
(B) 9/16 (D) 2/3
4 ⁄
5 ⁄ EE - 2013
6 ⁄ 9. A continuous random variable x has a
If three identical dice as the above are probability density function
thrown, the probability of occurrence of f(x) e x . Then *x + is
values, 1, 5 and 6 on the three dice is (A) 0.368 (C) 0.632
(A) same as that of occurrence of 3, 4, 5 (B) 0.5 (D) 1.0
(B) same as that of occurrence of 1, 2, 5
(C) 1/128
(D) 5/8
th th th

EE - 2014 IN - 2005
10. A fair coin is tossed n times. The 1. The probability that there are 53 Sundays
probability that the difference between in a randomly chosen leap year is
the number of heads and tails is (n – 3) is (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(A) (C) (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
(B) (D)
2. A mass of 10 kg is measured with an
11. Consider a dice with the property that the instrument and the readings are normally
probability of a face with n dots showing distributed with respect to the mean of
up is proportional to n. The probability of 10 kg. Given that
the face with three dots showing up is ∫ exp . / d =0.6
√
_______________ and that 60per cent of the readings are
12.
ww
Let x be a random variable with
probability density function
found to be within 0.05 kg from the mean,
the standard deviation of the data is
(A) 0.02 (C) 0.06
w.E
f(x) {
for |x|
for |x|
otherwise 3.
(B) 0.04 (D) 0.08
The measurements of a source voltage are
13.
asy
The probability P(0.5 < x < 5) is_________
Lifetime of an electric bulb is a random

5.9V, 5.7V and 6.1V. The sample standard
deviation of the readings is
variable with density f(x) kx , where x

is measured in years. If the minimum and En (A) 0.013
(B) 0.04
(C) 0.115
(D) 0.2
maximum lifetimes of bulb are 1 and 2

years respectively, then the value of k
is__________
gi IN - 2006
4.
nee
You have gone to a cyber-cafe with a
friend. You found that the cyber-café has
only three terminals. All terminals are
14. The mean thickness and variance of
rin
unoccupied. You and your friend have to
make a random choice of selecting a
silicon steel laminations are 0.2 mm and
0.02 respectively. The varnish insulation
is applied on both the sides of the
laminations. The mean thickness of one
g
terminal. What is the probability that
both of you will NOT select the same
terminal? .ne
side insulation and its variance are (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
0.1 mm and 0.01 respectively. If the (B) ⁄ (D) 1
transformer core is made using 100 such
5. Probability density function p(x) of a
varnish coated laminations, the mean
random variable x is as shown below. The
thickness and variance of the core
value of  is
respectively are
p(x)
(A) 30 mm and 0.22
(B) 30 mm and 2.44
(C) 40 mm and 2.44 α
(D) 40 mm and 0.24
0 α α b α c
(A) c (C)
( )
(B) c (D)
( )
th th th

6. Two dices are rolled simultaneously. The measurements, it can be expected that the
probability that the sum of digits on the number of measurement more than 10.15
top surface of the two dices is even is mm will be
(A) 0.5 (C) 0.167 (A) 230 (C) 15
(B) 0.25 (D) 0.125 (B) 115 (D) 2
IN - 2007 IN - 2011
7. Assume that the duration in minutes of a 12. The box 1 contains chips numbered 3, 6,
telephone conversation follows the 9, 12 and 15. The box 2 contains chips
exponential distribution f(x) = e ,x≥ numbered 6, 11, 16, 21 and 26. Two chips,
one from each box, are drawn at random.
The probability that the conversation will
The numbers written on these chips are
exceed five minutes is
ww
(A)
(B)
e
e
(C)
(D) e
multiplied. The probability for the
product to be an even number is
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
w.E
IN - 2008
8. Consider a Gaussian distributed random
(B) ⁄
IN - 2013
(D) ⁄
asy
variable with zero mean and standard
deviation . The value of its cummulative
13. A continuous random variable X has
probability density f(x) = .
distribution function at the origin will be
(A) 0 (C) 1
En Then P(X > 1) is
(A) 0.368 (C) 0.632
9.
(B) 0.5 (D)
A random variable is uniformly

σ
distributed over the interval 2 to 10. Its

gi (B) 0.5
IN - 2014
nee
(D) 1.0
14. Given that x is a random variable in the

variance will be
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
rin
r nge , - with
function
prob bility density
the value of the constant k is

(B) 6
IN - 2009
(D) 36
10. A screening test is carried out to detect a 15.

g
___________________
The figure shows the schematic of

.ne
certain disease. It is found that 12% of the production process with machines A,B
positive reports and 15% of the negative and C. An input job needs to be pre-
reports are incorrect. Assuming that the processed either by A or by B before it is
probability of a person getting a positive fed to C, from which the final finished
report is 0.01, the probability that a product comes out. The probabilities of
person tested gets an incorrect report is failure of the machines are given as:
(A) 0.0027 (C) 0.1497
(B) 0.0173 (D) 0.2100
IN - 2010
11. The diameters of 10000 ball bearings Assuming independence of failures of the
were measured. The mean diameter and machines, the probability that a given job
standard deviation were found to be is successfully processed (up to third
10 mm and 0.05mm respectively. decimal place)is ______________
Assuming Gaussian distribution of
th th th

ME 4. [Ans. D]
1. [Ans. D] ( oth defective)
( oth defective)
The number of ways coming 8 and 9 are S mple sp ce
(2,6),(3,5),(4,4),(5,3),(6,2),(3,6),(4,5),
(5,4),(6,3)
Total ways =9
So Probability of coming 8 and 9 are 5. [Ans. D]
X and Y are independent
∴ ( ) ( ) ( ) re true
So probability of not coming these Only (D) is odd one
ww 6. [Ans. A]
2.
w.E
[Ans. B]
Probability of defective item =
Number of favourable cases are given by
HHHT
HHTH
asy
Probability of not defective item = 1 0.1
= 0.9
HTHH
THHH
So, Probability that exactly 2 of the
chosen items are defective
En Total number of cases
= 2C1 2C1 2C1 2C1 =16
3.
= ( ) ( )
[Ans. B]
gi 7.
∴ Probability =
nee
[Ans. A]
Mean (t)̅ = ∫ t f(t) dt A uniform distribution and density
∫ t( t)dt ∫ t( t)dt rin

function
0,x  a
6
t t
7 6
t t
7 g
0
x x  a

f(x)   f  x dx  
b  a

0,
, axb
xb
.ne
[ ] [ ]
Density function
 1 a,x  b

f(x)   b  a
Variance = ∫ t f(t)dt  0 a  x,x  b
=∫ t ( t)dt ∫ t ( t)dt b
ab
=∫ (t t )dt ∫ t ( t)dt
 Mean E(x)=  x(F(x)) 
x a 2
 Variance = F(x)2  f(x)
2
=0 1 0 1
2
= b
b 
  x F(x)   xF(x)
2
Standard deviation = √v ri nce x a  x a 

= Put the value of F(x), we get
√ 2
b
1 b 1 
Variance   x dx   x.
2
dx 
x a ba  x a b  a 
th th th

b 2 9. [Ans. C]
 x3   xL 
    Probability of drawing 2 washers, first
 3(b  a)  a  2 b  a   followed by 3 nuts, and subsequently the
b3  a3 (b2  a2 )2 4 bolts
 
3(b  a) 4  b  a 2
(b  a)(b2  ab  a2 ) (b  a)2(b  a)2
 
3(b  a) 4 b  a 
2
10. [Ans. D]
4b2  4ab  4a2  3a2  3b2  6ab

12 Required probability = . / . /
b  a  2ab
2 2

12
ww

(b  a)2
12
Standard deviation = √v ri nce
11. [Ans. D]
Given 4R and 6B
w.E

(b  a)2
12
, -

asy
(b  a)
12
Given: b=1, a=0
 Standard deviation =
10

1
En
8. [Ans. D]
12
Let probability of getting atleast one head

12
gi 12. [Ans. C]
nee
= P(H) then
P (at least one head) = 1 P(no head) rin
 P(H)=1 P(all tails)
But in all cases, 23=8
 P (H) = 1  
1 7
X=0
Below X
(X
g X=1
(X ) is
.ne
) has to be less than 0.5 but
8 8 greater than zero
Alternately
Probability of getting at least one head 13. [Ans. D]
A event that he knows the correct
( ) ( )
answer
1 7 B event that student answered
1  
8 8 correctly the question P(B) = ?
Alternately ( ) ( )
From Binomial theorem
( )
Probability of getting at least one head
pq ⏟ ⏟
( ) ( ) ( ) he knows e does not know

3 correct nswer correct nswer
1 7 so he guesses
 (3  3  1)  
 2 8
th th th

= probability of one employed women

+probability of one employed man
( ) ( ) ( ⁄ )
( ) ⁄
( ⁄ )
( ) ⁄
18. [Ans. A]
14. [Ans. D]
x 1 2 3
P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1
(x) x (x)
ww (x)
x (x)
So from figure
σ w.E V(x) (x ) , (x)-

Mean value = 1
V ri nce : μ me n x defective pieces
σ
(x μ)
asy(
x (x) ( x (x))
) ( ) (
n(n
) (
)
) ( )
15.
σ
[Ans. A]
√
En ( )
gi 19.
nee
( )
[Ans. *](Range 49 to 51)
16. [Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.27 rin

p
q
g orm l distribution
.ne
Using Binomial distribution Given that μ σ
x μ x
(x ≥ ) z
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) σ
ere x μ , s x gre ter th n -
z
ence prob bility (z )
17. [Ans. *] Range 0.64 to 0.66
∫ e dz
Let number of men = 100 σ√
Number of women = 100 ∴ of s ving ccount holder
No. of employed men = 80% of men = 80
No. of employed women 20. [Ans. B]
= 50% of women = 50 Mean m = np = 5.2
Probability if the selected one person
being employed
th th th

me m p( defective in c lcul tors)

(x ) e
e
e
(x )
4. [Ans. C]
σ
CE
μ
1. [Ans. D]
A, B, C are true
5. [Ans. B]
(D) is not true. Since in a negatively
Given f(x) = x for x
skewed distribution
= 0 else where
mode > median > mean
2.
ww
[Ans. D]
Let the mean and standard deviation of
( x ) ∫ f(x)dx ∫ x dx
w.E
the students of batch C be μ and σ
respectively and the mean and standard
deviation of entire class of first year
=0 1
asy
students be μ and σ respectively
Now given, μ
The probability expressed in percentage
P=
σ
and μ En = 2.469% = 2.47%
σ
In order to normalise batch C to entire
class, the normalize score must be
gi 6. [Ans. A]
nee
Given
P(private car) = 0.45
equated P(bus 1 public transport) = 0.55
since Z =
rin
Since a person has a choice between
private car and public transport
Z =
Now Z =
=
=
Equation these two and solving, we get
g
P(public transport) = 1 – P(private car)
.ne
= 1 – 0.45 =0.55
P(bus) = P(bus public transport)
= (bus public tr nsport)
(public tr nsport)
 x = 8.969 ≃ 9.0
= 0.55 × 0.55
= 0.3025 ≃ 0.30
3. [Ans. B]
Now P(metro)
Since population is finite, hypergeometric
= 1 [P(private car) + P(bus)]
distribution is applicable
= 1 (0.45 + 0.30) = 0.25
25 Calculators
∴ P(private car) = 0.45
P(bus) = 0.30
2 Defective 23 Non-defective and P(metro) = 0.25
5 Calculators 7. [Ans. D]
ere μ cm; σ cm
( x 102)
1 Defective 4 Non-defective
=P. x /
th th th

=P( x )
[ ( ) ( ) ( )]
This area is shown below:
[ ]
-0.44 [ ]
The shades area in above figure is given
by F(0) –F ( 0.44)
= ( )( )
( ) ( )
= 0.5 – 0.3345
= 1.1655 ≃ 16.55% 13. [Ans. 0.4]
Closest answer is 16.7%
( ) ∫ f( )d ∫ d
8.
ww
[Ans. C]
P(2 heads) = ( )| ( )
9. w.E
[Ans. C]
P(one ball is Red & another is blue)
asy
= P(first is Red and second is Blue)
=
14. [Ans. *] Range 0.26 to 0.27
Avg= 5
10. [Ans. A] En Let x denote penalty

(x ) (x ) (x )
Given μ = 1000, σ = 200

We know that Z
When X= 1200, Z
gi (x
nee
)
ew (x n)
e
(x
e
x
)
e e e
p(x )
Req. Prob = P (X
(Z )
)
rin
e [ ]
(
Less than 50%
Z )
15. [Ans. B]
g .ne
11. [Ans. D] S * T+
(X ) (X ) (X ) n( )
( )
( ) ( ) n(S)
16. [Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.28

e ( t)
(n t)
n
12. [Ans. 6]
no of vehicles veh km
∫ f(x)dx
e . /
( x x ) x ( )
f(x) {
otherwise
∴∫ ( x x )dx = 2.e
= 0.2707
x x
6 x7
th th th

CS permutations of a word consisting of 10

1. [Ans. A] ‘ ’ s nd ’U’s
P: Event of selecting Box P, Applying formula of permutation with
Q: Event of selecting Box P limited repetitions we get the answer
P(P)=1/3, P(Q)=2/3 as
P(R/P)=2/5, P(R/Q)=3/4
P(R/ P).P(P)
P(P/R)=
P(R/ P).P(P)  P(R/ Q)P(Q) 5. [Ans. D]
2/5  1 /3 The robot can reach (4,4) from (0,0) in
  4 /19 8C ways as argued in previous problem.
2/5  1 /3  3/ 4  2/3 4
Now after reaching (4,4) robot is not
2. [Ans. C] allowed to go to (5,4)
ww
If f (x) is the continuous probability
density function of a random variable X
Let us count how many paths are there
from (0,0) to (10,10) if robot goes from
w.E
then,
( x b) P(
b
x b)
(4,4) to (5,4) and then we can subtract
this from total number of ways to get the
answer.
3.
asy
[Ans. A]
=  f  x  dx
a
Now there are 8C4 ways for robot to reach
(4,4) from (0,0) and then robot takes the
‘U’ move from ( ) to ( ) ow from
The probability that exactly n elements
are chosen En (5,4) to (10,10) the robot has to make 5
‘U’ moves nd ‘ ’ moves in ny order
=The probability of getting n heads out of
2n tosses
= ( ) . / (Binomial formula)
gi which can be done in 11! ways
nee
= 11C5 ways
Therefore, the number of ways robot can
=
=
( ) ( )
rin
move from (0,0) (10,10) via (4,4) – (5,4)
move is
4. [Ans. A]
Consider the following diagram
(3,3)
8C
4
g
11C =
5
 8   11 
   
 4 5 
.ne
No. of ways robot can move from (0,0) to
(10,10) without using (4,4) to (5,4) move
is
 20   8   11 
       ways
(0,0)  10   4   5 
The robot can move only right or up as which is choice (D)
defined in problem. Let us denote right
move by ‘ ’ nd up move by ‘U’ ow to 6. [Ans. D]
reach (3, 3), from (0,0) , the robot has to umber of permut tions with ‘ ’ in the
m ke ex ctly ‘ ’ moves nd ‘U’ moves first position =19!
in any order. Number of permutations with ‘ ’ in the
Similarly to reach (10, 10) from (0,0) the second position = 10 18!
robot h s to m ke ‘ ’ moves nd ‘U’ (Fill the first space with any of the 10 odd
moves in any order. The number of ways numbers and the 18 spaces after the 2
this can be done is same as number of with 18 of the remaining numbers in 18!
ways)
th th th

umber of permut tions with ‘ ’ in rd 9. [Ans. B]

position =10 9 17! It is given that
(Fill the first 2 place with 2 of the 10 odd P (odd) = 0.9 P (even)
numbers and then the remaining 17 Now since 𝜮P(x) = 1
places with remaining 17 numbers) ∴ P (odd) + P (even) = 1
nd so on until ‘ ’ is in th place. After 0.9 P (even) + P (even) = 1
that it is not possible to satisfy the given P(even) = = 0.5263
condition, since there are only 10 odd
Now, it is given that P(any even face) is same
numbers v il ble to fill before the ‘ ’
i.e. P(2) = P(4) = P(6)
So the desired number of permutations
Now since,
which satisfies the given condition is
P(even) = P(2) or P(4) or P(6)
= P(2) + P(4) + P(6)
ww …
Now the probability of this happening is
∴ P(2) = P(4) = P(6) = P(even)
= (0.5263)
(
w.E
given by =
Which are clearly not choices (A), (B) or (C)

… )
= 0.1754
It is given that
7.
asy
[Ans. A]
Given μ = 1, σ = 4 σ =2
P(even | face > 3) = 0.75
(
( )
)
= 0.75
and μ = 1, σ is unknown
En (
( )
)
= 0.75
Given, P(X ) = P (Y ≥ 2 )
gi
( ) ( )
P(f ce ) = =0.468
Converting into standard normal variates,
.z / = P (z ≥ ) 10.
nee
[Ans. A]
The tree diagram of probabilities is
rin
( )
.z / = P (z ≥ ) shown below
q decl red f ulty
(z ) = P (z ≥ )
Now since we know that in standard
normal distribution
_____(i)
p
g f ulty
not
q
q
.ne
decl red not f ulty
decl red f ulty
P (z ) = P (z ≥ 1) _____(ii) p
f ulty
Comparing (i) and (ii) we can say that
q decl red not f ulty
=1 σ =3
From above tree
(decl red f ulty) pq ( q)( p)
8. [Ans. C]
Let C denote computes science study and
11. [Ans. A]
M denotes maths study.
If b c …
P(C on Monday and C on Wednesday)
Then, no. of divisors of
= P(C on Monday, M on Tuesday and C on
(x )(y )(z )…
Wednesday)
iven
+ P(C on Monday, C on Tuesday and C on
∴ o of ivisors of
Wednesday)
( )( )
=1 0.6 0.4+ 1 0.4 0.4
( )( )
= 0.24 + 0.16 = 0.40
th th th

No. of divisors of which are multiples 16. [Ans. B]

of Required Probability
o of divisors of = P (getting 6 in the first time)
( )( ) + P (getting 1 in the first time and getting
5 or 6 in the second time)
+ P (getting 2 in the first time and getting
4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
∴ equired rob bility
+ P (getting 3 in the first time and getting
3 or 4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
12. [Ans. C]
( ) ( ) ( )
V(x) (x ) , (x)-
Where V(x) is the variance of x,
ww
Since variance is σ and hence never
negative, ≥
17. [Ans. C]
The p.d.f of the random variable is
x +1
13.
w.E
[Ans. A]
The five cards are * +
P(x) 0.5 0.5
The cumulative distribution function F(x)
is the probability upto x as given below
asy
Sample space ordered pairs
P (1st card = 2nd card + 1)
*( )( )( )( )+
x
F(x) 0.5 1.0
+1
En So correct option is (C)
14. [Ans. D]
𝛔y = a 𝛔x is the correct expression
gi 18. [Ans. C]
nee
(k)
e
k
P is no. of cars per minute travelling.
Since variance of constant is zero.
rin
For no cars. (i.e. k = 0)
15. [Ans. A]
Let A be the event of head in one coin. B
be the event of head in second coin.
The required probability is
g
For no cars. P(0) e
So P can be either 0,1,2. (i.e. k = 0,1,2)
For k = 1, p(1)=e .ne
For k = 2 , P(2)=
* ) ( ∪ )+
( )| ∪ ) Hence
( ∪ )
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
( ∪ ) e e e
( ) (both coin he ds)
( ) 4 5
e
( ∪ ) ( t le st one he d)
( ⁄ )
e
( TT ) ( )
e e
So required prob bility
th th th

19. [Ans. *] Range 0.24 to 0.27 24. [Ans. 0.25]

The smaller sticks, therefore, will range in ( ∪ ) P(S) = 1
length from almost 0 meters upto a ( ) ( ) ( )
maximum of 0.5 meters, with each length utu lly exclusive ( )
equally possible. ( ) ( )
Thus, the average length will be about et ( ) x; ( ) x
0.25 meters, or about a quarter of the P(A) P(B) = x( x)
stick. Maximum value of y = x ( x)
dy
( x) x
20. [Ans. 10] dx
22 occurs in following ways = 2x = 1
6 6 6 4 w ys x
ww
6 6 5 5 w ys
equired prob bility ximum v lue of y
(max)
( )
w.E
x
ECE
21.
asy
[Ans. *] Range 11.85 to 11.95
For functioning 3 need to be working
1. [Ans. D]
P(Odd number) 
3 1

(function)
En P(even number )  
6 2
3 1
gi nee
6 2
Since events are independent, therefore
1 1 1
 P(odd/even)   
2 2 4
p
2. rin
[Ans. A]
22. [Ans. *] Range 3.8 to 3.9
Expected length = Average length of all
words
I
√ g ∫ e
omp ring with

( )
dx
.ne
( )
∫ e dx
σ√
23. [Ans. *] Range 0.259 to 0.261 ut μ
Let A = divisible by 2, B = divisible by 3 ∫ e dx …
and C = divisible by 5, then √ σ
n(A) = 50, n(B) = 33, n(C) = 20 rom nd
n( ) n( ) n( ) x x
n( ) σ
P( ∪ ∪ ) σ
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) Put σ in equ tion
( ) ( ) ∫ e
√
∴ equired prob bility is
( ) ( ∪ ∪ )
th th th

3. [Ans. C] Probability of failing in paper 1, when


A
 P x  .dx  1

student has failed in paper 2, P    0.6
B

 A  P  A  B
We know that, P   
 Ke .dx  1
 ax


B P  B
or ∫ e dx ∫ e dx ∴ ( ) ( ) ( )
 x x,for x  0  = 0.6 0.2
  = 0.12
  x for x  0
K K 7. [Ans. A]
  1
a a x
ww
 CDF: F  x     PDF 

x
dx
4.
w.E
[Ans. D]
P (Y/D) =
. / ( )
. / ( )
. / ( ) . / ( )
For x<0, F  x  
0 1
  x  1
1
conc ve upw rds

dx
=
asy =0.4
F  0 
1
2
5. [Ans. A]
var[x]=σ =E[(x x)2] En For x>0, F  x   F 0    x  1 dx
x
Where, x=E[x]
x= expected or mean value of X defining

gi nee
1  x
 
2  2
 2
 x  concave downwards

0
E[X] =  xf  x  dx
x




 x P x    x  x dx
 rin
Hence the CDF is, shown in the figure (A).

  xiP xi 
i
i
i i 8. [Ans. A]

g
Given: Px  x   Me2|x|  Ne3|x|
 P  x dx  1
x
.ne
Variance σ is a measure of the spread of 
the values of X from its mean x.  
 Me   
 Ne3|x| dx  2 Me2|x|  Ne3|x| dx  1
2|x|
Using relation , E[X+Y]= E[X]+E[Y]
And E[CX]=CE[X]  0
On var[x]= σ =E[(x x)2] By simplifying

σ = ,X- x2 2
M N 1
= E[X2] [ ,X-] 3
9. [Ans. B]
6. [Ans. C]
x+y=2
Probability of failing in paper 1,
x y=0
P (A) = 0.3
=> x =1, y = 1
Probability of failing in paper 2,
P(x=1,y=1) = ¼ ¼ = 1/16
P (B) = 0.2
th th th

10. [Ans. C] 14. [Ans. C]

Probability of getting head in first toss = P(no. of tosses is odd)
(no of tosses is …)
Probability of getting head in second toss
P(no. of toss is 1) = P(Head in 1st toss)
= and in all other 8 tosses there should
P(no. of toss is 3) = P(tail in first toss, tail
be tail always.
in second toss and head in third toss)
So probability of getting head in first two
tosses
( )( )( )…………… ( )
P(no. of toss is 5) = P(T,T,T,TH)
= (1/2)10
. / … etc
11. [Ans. B]
So,
ww
Both the teacher and student are wrong
Mean = ∑ k
= 0.1 + 0.4 + 1.2 + 0.8 + 0.5
P(no. of tosses in odd)
w.E = 3.0
E(x2) = ∑ k
⁄
⁄
asy ⁄
⁄
Variance(x)= E(x2) – * (x)+ =10.2 9=1.2 En

12. [Ans. D]
P(H, H, H, T) +P (H, H, H, H )
gi 15.
nee
[Ans. B]
( V ≥ V)
( V V≥ )
= . / . / . / =
*z
rinv v+ Linear combination of
Gaussian random variable is Gaussian
13. [Ans. C]
Total number of cases = 36
Favorable cases:
∴ (z ≥ )
g and not mean till zero
.ne
because both random variables has mean
zero hence ( )
Hence Option B is correct
(1, 1) (2, 1) (3, 1) (4, 1) (5, 1)
(6, 1)
16. [Ans. D]
(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2)
F(x) = P{X x}
(6, 2)
(x) * X x+
(1, 3) (2, 3) (3, 3) (4, 3) (5, 3) x
(6, 3) 2X 3
(1, 4) (2, 4) (3, 4) (4, 4) (5, 4) For positive value of x,
(6, 4) (x) (x) is always greater than zero
(1, 5) (2, 5) (3, 5) (4, 5) (5, 5) For negative value of x
(6, 5) (x) (x)is ve
(1, 6) (2, 6) (3, 6) (4, 6) (5, 6) ut , (x) (x)- x ≥
(6, 6)
Total number of favorable cases
Then probability
th th th

17. [Ans. *] Range 0.65 to 0.68

et ‘ ’ be different types of f milies nd ‘S’ (x) ∑ x (x)
be there siblings.
S …
S S (siblings)
Probability that child chosen at random et S …… (I)
having sibling is 2/3
S …… (II)
18. [Ans. *] Range 0.32 to 0.34 (I II)gives
This is a tricky question, here, X X X
( )S ……
independent and identically distributed
random variables with the uniform
ww
distribution , -. So, they
equiprobable. So X X or X have chances
being largest are equiprobable.
are
S
S
w.E
So, [P {X is largest}] or [P {X is largest}]
or [P {X is largest}] =1
(x)
i.e. The expected number of tosses (after
first head) to get first tail is 2 and same
asy
and P {X is largest} = P {X is largest} =
P {X is largest} can be applicable if first toss results in
tail.
∴ *X is l rgest +
En Hence the average number of tosses is
19. [Ans. *] Range 49.9 to 50.1

Set of positive odd number less than 100
is 50. As it is a uniform distribution
gi 22.
nee
[Ans. *] Range 0.15 to 0.18
X X
et z X
X
X
X
X
X X
f(x)
∴ (x) ∑x f(x) ∑x rin

(X X X ) (z )
Pdf of z we need to determine. It is the
, … -
g
convolution of three pdf
.ne
20. [Ans. C]
21. [Ans. *] Range 2.9 to 3.1

Let the first toss be head. z z
(z ) ∫ dz |
Let x denotes the number of tosses(after
getting first head) to get first tail.
We can summarize the even as
Event(After x Probability
getting first H) 23. [Ans. *] Range 0.79 to 0.81
T 1 1/2 |x|
,|x|- ∫ e dx
HT 2 1/2 1/2=1/4 √
HHT 3 1/8
nd so on…
th th th

x ∴pr(P ∪ Q) pr(P) + pr(Q)

∫ |x| exp 4 5 dx
√ (D) is true
x since P Q P
∫ |x| exp 4 5 dx n(P Q) n(P)
√
x pr(P Q) pr(P)
∫ x exp 4 5 dx
√ 2. [Ans. B]
x ( )
∫ x exp 4 5 dx P(A|B) =
( )
√
∴ P(2 heads in 3 tosses | first toss is
x
∫ x exp 4 5 dx head)
√ ( he ds in tosses nd first toss in he d)
(first toss is he d)
ww √ [ exp ( x ) dx]
Also, P(first toss is head) =
( he d in tosses nd first toss in he d)
w.E √ , - √ = P(HHT) + P(HTH)
24.
asy
[Ans. *] Range 0.43 to 0.45
Pre flow diagram is
Parcel is ∴ Required probability = =
Parcel is sent to 4/5

En
sent to R
R
3. [Ans. C]
Probability
4/5
1/5
Parcel is lost
that parcel
1/5
is lost
gi
Parcel is lost
If two fair dices are rolles the probability
nee
distribution of r where r is the sum of the
numbers on each die is given by
r P(r)
rin 2
Probability that parcel is lost by
Probability that parcel is lost by

provided that the parcel is lost
g 3
4 .ne
5
EE 6
1. [Ans. D]
(A) is false since of P & Q are 7
independent
8
pr(P Q) = pr(P) pr(Q)
which need not be zero.
9
(B) is false since
pr(P ∪ Q) 10
= pr(P) + pr(Q) – pr(P Q)
(C) is false since independence and 11
mutually exclusion are unrelated
properties. 12
th th th

The above table has been obtained by P(1, 5, 6) = =

taking all different all different ways of
P(3, 4, 5) = =
obtaining a particular sum. For example, a
sum of 5 can be obtained by (1, 4), (2, 3), P(1, 2, 5) = =
(3, 2) and (4, 1). ∴ Choice (C) P(1, 5 and 6) = is correct.
∴ P(x = 5) = 4/36
Now let us consider choice (A)
5. [Ans. C]
Pr(r > 6) = Pr(r ≥ 7)
x is uniformly distributes in [0, 1]
= ∴ Probability density function
= = f(x) = = =1
∴ Choice (A) i.e. pr(r > 6) = 1/6 is wrong. ∴ f(x) = 1 0 < x < 1
ww
Consider choice (B)
pr(r/3 is an integer)
= pr(r = 3) + pr (r = 6) + pr (r = 9)
Now E(x ) = ∫ x f(x)dx
w.E
+ pr (r = 1)
=
∫x dx
=
asy
=
∴ Choice (B) i.e. pr (r/3) is an integer
6. [Ans. B]
Let N people in room. So no. of events that
at least two people in room born at same
= 5/6 is wrong.
Consider choice (C) En date
gi
…
Now, ≥
N
pr(r/4 is an integer) = pr(r = 4)
+ pr (r = 8) + pr (r = 12)
= + 7.
nee
Solving, we get N = 7
[Ans. C]
= =
rin
(II is red|I is white)
(II is red nd I is white)
pr(r = 8) =
∴ pr(r = 8 | r/4 is an integer) = = g (I is white)
(I is white nd II is red)
(I is white) .ne
=
∴ Choice (C) is correct.
4. [Ans. C]
Dice value Probability
1
8. [Ans. B]
2 and is the entrie
rectangle
3
The region in which maximum of {x, y} is
4 less than ⁄ is shown below as shaded
region inside this rectangle
5
th th th

y 12. [Ans. *] Range 0.35 to 0.45

( ) ( )
( x ) ∫ f(x)dx
∫ dx ∫ dx ∫ dx
x| x|
( ) ( )
13. [Ans. *] Range 0.4 to 0.5
p .m x,x y- / ∫ f(x) dx by property
ww ∴ ∫ kx dx
w.E k
x
| k ∴k
9. [Ans. A]
(x ) asy
∫ e dx , e -
14.
IN
[Ans. D]
,e e - e
En 1. [Ans. D]
Since leap chosen will be random, so, we
10. [Ans. B]
Let number of heads = x,
gi assume it being the case of uniform
nee
probability distribution function.
Number of days in a leap year=366 days
∴ Number of tails n x
∴ ifference x (n x)or (n
x n or n x
x) x
r
=52 weeks and 2 days are extra. Out of
7, (SUN MON) (or) (SAT SUN) are
favorable. ing
If x n n
If n
x n
x
x
n
n x or x 2.
So, Probability of this event=
[Ans. C]
. ne
As x and n are integers, this is not Since the reading taken by the instrument
possible is normally distributed, hence
( )
∴ Probability 0 P(x x ) ∫ e .dx
√
Where, μ e n of the distribution
11. [Ans. *] Range 0.13 to 0.15 σ St nd rd devi tion of the
Let proportionality constant = k distribution.
∴ ( dot) k ( dots) k
Now ∫ exp( )dx
( dots) k √
( dots) k ( dots) k where, n=x 10 (∴μ kg)

( dots) k and from the data given in question
∴k k k k k k ∫ e dx
√
k ∴k On equating, we get 0.05=0.84 σ
∴ rob bility of showing dots k σ
th th th

3. [Ans. D] 8. [Ans. B]
Mean= =5.9 V. By definition of Gaussian distribution,
total area under the curve =1. Hence half
( ̅) ( ̅) ( ̅)
S √ of the area =0.5
V
(closest answer is 0.2) 9. [Ans. A]
P(x)= =
4. [Ans. C] Mean = μ ∫ x (x)dx = ∫ x dx = 6
( ) ( )
Var(x)= ∫ (x μ) (x)dx
1 2
 =∫ (x ) dx =
3 3
5.
ww
[Ans. A] ]

10. [Ans. C]
Probability of incorrect report
w.E
 P(x)dx  1

 Area under triangle =

c
1
α
asy 2 11. [Ans. C]
σ mm
6. [Ans. A] En μ mm
Then probability
Probability that the sum of digits of two
dices is even is same either both dices
shows even numbers or odd numbers on
gi (X
nee
where x
) (
mm
σ
X μ
)
the top of the surface ( ) ( )

∴ ( )
Where
( ) ( )
rin e
( ) Probability of occurring even
number of both the dices
( ) Probability of occurring odd
√
√
g e
.ne
number of both the dices So, number of measurement more than
( ) 10.15mm
P Total number of measurement
nd ( )
≃
∴ ( )
12. [Ans. D]
7. [Ans. A] For the product to be even, the numbers
from both the boxes should not turn out
∫ f(x) dx=P
to be odd simultaneously.
or ∫ e .dx =P
∴ ( ) ( )( )
or e |
or P = .
th th th

13. [Ans. A]
∫ f(x)dx ∫ e dx
e | e
14. [Ans. 2]
For valid pdf ∫ pdf dx ;
∫ dx ;k
15. [Ans. *] Range 0.890 to 0.899

Probability that job is successfully
processed = ( )( )
ww
w.E
asy
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

Numerical Methods
ME – 2005 ME – 2010
1. Starting from x = 1, one step of Newton – 6. Torque exerted on a flywheel over a cycle
Raphson method in solving the equation is listed in the table. Flywheel energy (in
x³ +3x 7=0 gives the next value (x₁) as J per unit cycle) using impson’s rule is
(A) x₁=0.5 (C) x₁ = .5 Angle (degree) Torque (N-m)
(B) x₁= . 0 (D) x₁=2 0 0
60 1066
2. With a 1 unit change in b, what is the
change in x in the solution of the system 120 323
of equation = 2 .0 0. = 180 0
ww
(A) Zero
(B) 2 units
(C) 50 units
(D) 100 units
240
300
360
323
0
55
3. w.E
ME – 2006
Match the items in columns I and II.
Column I Column II
(A) 542
(B) 992.7
(C) 1444
(D) 1986
asy
(P) Gauss-Seidel
method
(1) Interpolation ME – 2011
7. The integral ∫ dx, when evaluated by
(Q) Forward
Newton-Gauss
(2) Non-linear
differential En using impson’s / rule on two equal
subintervals each of length 1, equals
method
(R) Runge-Kutta
method
equations
(3) Numerical
integration
gi ME – 2013
(A) 1.000
nee
(B) 1.098
(C) 1.111
(D) 1.120
(S) Trapezoidal (4) Linear algebraic
(A)
Rule equation
2
8.
rin
Match the correct pairs.
Numerical Order of Fitting
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
2
2
. impson’s
Rule
g
Integration Scheme
/
Polynomial
1. First
.ne
Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second
4. Equation of the line normal to function . impson’s / 3. Third
f(x) = (x ) at (0 5) is Rule
(A) y = x 5 (C) y = x 5 (A) P – 2 , Q – 1, R – 3
(B) y = x 5 (D) y = x 5 (B) P – 3, Q – 2 , R – 1
(C) P – 1, Q – 2 , R – 3
ME – 2007 (D) P – 3, Q – 1 , R – 2
5. A calculator has accuracy up to 8 digits
2
ME – 2014
after decimal place. The value of  sinxdx
0
9. Using the trapezoidal rule, and dividing
the interval of integration into three equal
when evaluated using this calculator by
sub intervals, the definite integral
trapezoidal method with 8 equal
intervals, to 5 significant digits is ∫ |x|dx is ____________
(A) 0.00000 (C) 0.00500
(B) 1.0000 (D) 0.00025
th th th

10. The value of ∫ . ( ) calculated using “value approximate value”) in the

the Trapezoidal rule with five sub estimate?
intervals is _______ (A) – (C) –
(B) 0 (D)
11. The definite integral ∫ is evaluated
using Trapezoidal rule with a step size of CE – 2007
1. The correct answer is _______ 4. The following equation needs to be
numerically solved using the Newton-
12. The real root of the equation Raphson method
5x 2cosx = 0 (up to two decimal x3 + 4x – 9 = 0 the iterative equation for
accuracy) is _______ the purpose is (k indicates the iteration
13.
ww
Consider
equation
an
= t
ordinary differential
.If x =x at t = 0 , the
level)
(A) x =
w.E
increment in x calculated using Runge-
Kutta fourth order multi-step method
(B) x
(C) x
=
=x x
asy
with a step size of Δt = 0.2 is
(A) 0.22
(B) 0.44
(C) 0.66
(D) 0.88
(D) x =
CE – 2005 En 5. Given that one root of the equation

x 10x + 31x – 30 = 0 is 5, the other
Linked Answer Question 1 and 2
Give a>0, we wish to calculate its
reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton
gi two roots are
nee
(A) 2 and
(B) 2 and
(C) and
(D) 2 and
Raphson Method for f(x) = 0.
1. The Newton Raphson algorithm for the

CE – 2008
6. rin
Three values of x and y are to be fitted in
function will be
(A) x = (x )
g
a straight line in the form y = a + bx by
the method of least squares. Given
∑x = 6, ∑y = 2 ∑x = and ∑xy = .ne
(B) x = (x x ) the values of a and b are respectively
(A) 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 1
(C) x = 2x ax
(B) 1 and 2 (D) 3 and 2
(D) x =x x
CE – 2009
2. For a = 7 and starting with x = 0.2 the 7. In the solution of the following set of
first two iteration will be linear equation by Gauss elimination
(A) 0.11, 0.1299 (C) 0.12, 0.1416 using partial pivoting 5x + y + 2z = 34;
(B) 0.12, 0.1392 (D) 0.13, 0.1428 4y – 3z = 12; and 10x – 2y + z = 4; the
pivots for elimination of x and y are
CE – 2006 (A) 10 and 4 (C) 5 and 4
3. A 2nd degree polynomial f(x) has values of (B) 10 and 2 (D) 5 and 4
1, 4 and 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2 respectively.
The integral ∫ f(x) dx is to be estimated
by applying the trapezoidal rule to this
data. What is the error (define as true
th th th

CE – 2010 CE – 2013
8. The table below given values of a function 12. Find the magnitude of the error (correct
F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals to two decimal places) in the estimation
of 0.25. of following integral using impson’s ⁄
x 0 0.25 0.5 0.75 1.0 Rule. Take the step length as 1.___________
F(x) 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
∫ (x 0) dx
The value of the integral of the function
between the limits 0 to using impson’s
rule is CS – 2007
(A) 0.7854 (C) 3.1416 1. Consider the series =
(B) 2.3562 (D) 7.5000
= 0.5 obtained from the Newton-
CE
9. ww
2011
The square root of a number N is to be
obtained by applying the Newton
Raphson method. The series converges to
(A) 1.5
(B) √2
(C) 1.6
(D) 1.4
xw.E
Raphson iterations to the equation
= 0. If i denotes the iteration
CS – 2008
2. The minimum number of equal length
(A) x
asy
index, the correct iteration scheme will be
= (x )
subintervals needed to approximate
2
 xe dx
x 1
to an accuracy of at least  106
(B) x = (x )
En 1
using the trapezoidal rule is

3
(C) x
(D) x
= (x
= (x )
)
gi (A) 1000e
nee
(B) 1000
(C) 100e
(D) 100
3. The Newton-Raphson iteration

10. he error in f(x)| for a continuous
rin 1 R
x n 1   x n   can be used to compute
function estimated with h=0.03 using the
central difference formula
f(x)| =
( ) ( )
is 2 0 .
the
g2
(A) square of R
xn 
(B) reciprocal of R
.ne
The values of and ( ) are 19.78 and
(C) square root of R
500.01, respectively. The corresponding
(D) logarithm of R
error in the central difference estimate
for h = 0.02 is approximately
CS – 2010
(A) . 0 (C) .5 0
(B) .0 0 (D) .0 0 4. Newton-Raphson method is used to
compute a root of the equation
CE – 2012 x 13 = 0 with 3.5 as the initial value.
11. The estimate of ∫ .
.
obtained using The approximation after one iteration is
(A) 3.575 (C) 3.667
impson’s rule with three – point function (B) 3.677 (D) 3.607
evaluation exceeds the exact value by
(A) 0.235 (C) 0.024
(B) 0.068 (D) 0.012
th th th

CS – 2012 (A) Only I

5. The bisection method is applied to (B) Only II
compute a zero of the function (C) Both I and II
f(x) = x x x in the interval (D) Neither I nor II
[1,9]. The method converges to a solution
after ___________ iterations. 9. With respect to the numerical evaluation
(A) 1 (C) 5 of the definite integral, = ∫ x dx
(B) 3 (D) 7 where a and b are given, which of the
following statements is/are TRUE?
CS – 2013 (I) The value of K obtained using the
6. Function f is known at the following trapezoidal rule is always greater
points: then or equal to the exact value of
ww x
0
f(x)
0
the defined integral
(II) The value of K obtained using the
w.E 0.3 0.09

0.6 0.36
0.9 0.81
impson’s rule is always equal to the
exact value of the definite integral
(A) I only
asy 1.2 1.44

1.5 2.25
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
1.8 3.24
2.1 4.41
En (D) Neither I nor II
2.4 5.76
2.7 7.29
3.0 9.00
gi ECE– 2005
1. Match the following and choose the
nee
correct combination
Group I Group II
he value of ∫ f(x)dx computed using
the trapezpidal rule is rin

(A) Newton-
Raphson
1. Solving non-
linear equations
(A) 8.983
(B) 9.003
(C) 9.017
(D) 9.045
method
g
(B) Runge-Kutta
method .ne
2. Solving linear
simultaneous
CS – 2014 equations
7. The function f(x) = x sin x satisfied the (C) impson’s 3. Solving ordinary
following equation: Rule differential
( ) + f(x) + t cos x = 0. equations
The value of t is _________. (D) Gauss 4. Numerical
elimination integration
8. In the Newton-Raphson method, an initial method
guess of = 2 made and the sequence 5. Interpolation
x x x .. is obtained for the function 6. Calculation of
0.75x 2x 2x =0 Eigen values
Consider the statements (A) A-6, B-1, C-5, D-3
(I) x = 0. (B) A-1, B-6, C-4, D-3
(II) The method converges to a solution (C) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
in a finite number of iterations. (D) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1
Which of the following is TRUE?
th th th

ECE– 2007 ECE– 2014

2. The equation x3 x2+4x 4=0 is to be 6. The Taylor expansion of sin x 2 cos x
solved using the Newton-Raphson is
method. If x=2 is taken as the initial (A) 2 x x . ..
approximation of the solution, then the
next approximation using this method (B) 2 x x . ..
will be (C) 2 x x . ..
(A) 2/3 (C) 1
(B) 4/3 (D) 3/2 (D) 2 x x . ..
ECE– 2008 7. Match the application to appropriate

3. The recursion relation to solve x= numerical method.
ww using Newton-Raphson method is

(A)
(B)
=e
= e
Application Numerical
Method
w.E
(C) X n 1  1  X n 
e X n
1  e X n
P1:Numerical
integration
P2:Solution to a
M1:Newton-
Raphson Method
M2:Runge-Kutta
asy
(D) X n 1 
X2n  e Xn 1  X n   1
X n -e Xn
transcendental
equation
P3:Solution to a
Method
M : impson’s
ECE– 2011 En system of linear 1/3-rule
4. A numerical solution of the equation
f(x) = x √x = 0 can be obtained
using Newton – Raphson method. If the
gi equations
P4:Solution to a
nee
differential equation
M4:Gauss
Elimination
Method
starting value is x = 2 for the iteration,
the value of x that is to be used in the next
step is rin
(A) P1—M3, P2—M2, P3—M4, P4—M1
(B) P1—M3, P2—M1, P3—M4, P4—M2
(A) 0.306
(B) 0.739
(C) 1.694
(D) 2.306
8.
g
(C) P1—M4, P2—M1, P3—M3, P4—M2
(D) P1—M2, P2—M1, P3—M3, P4—M4
The series ∑ converges to

.ne
ECE– 2013
5. A polynomial (A) 2 ln 2 (C) 2
f(x) = a x a x a x a x a (B) √2 (D) e
with all coefficients positive has
(A) No real root EE– 2007
(B) No negative real root 1. The differential equation = is
(C) Odd number of real roots discretised using Euler’s numerical
(D) At least one positive and one integration method with a time step
negative real root T > 0. What is the maximum permissible
value of T to ensure stability of the
solution of the corresponding discrete
time equation?
(A) 1 (C)
(B) /2 (D) 2
th th th

EE– 2008 EE– 2013

2. Equation e = 0 is required to be 7. When the Newton – Raphson method is
solved using ewton’s method with an applied to solve the equation
initial guess x = . Then, after one f(x) = x 2x = 0 the solution at the
step of ewton’s method estimate x of end of the first iteration with the initial
the solution will be given by guess value as x = .2 is
(A) 0.71828 (C) 0.20587 (A) 0.82 (C) 0.705
(B) 0.36784 (D) 0.00000 (B) 0.49 (D) 1.69
3. A differential equation dx/dt = e u(t) EE– 2014

has to be solved using trapezoidal rule of 8. The function ( ) = is to be
integration with a step size h = 0.01 sec. solved using Newton-Raphson method. If
ww
Function u(t) indicates a unit step
function. If x(0)= 0, then value of x at
t = 0.01 s will be given by
the initial value of is taken as 1.0, then
the absolute error observed at 2nd
iteration is ___________
w.E
(A) 0.00099
(B) 0.00495
(C) 0.0099
(D) 0.0198 IN– 2006
1. For k = 0 2 . the steps of
EE– 2009
4. asy
Let x 7 = 0. The iterative steps for
Newton-Raphson method for solving a
non-linear equation is given as
the solution using Newton – aphson’s
method is given by En 2 5
x k 1  x k  xK 2 .
3 3
(A) x
(B) x
(C) x
= (x
=x
=x
)
gi Starting from a suitable initial choice as k
nee
tends to , the iterate tends to
(A) 1.7099 (C) 3.1251
(B) 2.2361 (D) 5.0000
(D) x =x (x )
IN– 2007 rin
EE– 2011
5. Solution of the variables and for the
following equations is to be obtained by
2.
(A) x
g
Identify the Newton-Raphson iteration
= (x ) .ne
scheme for finding the square root of 2.
employing the Newton-Raphson iterative (B) x = (x )

method
(C) x =
equation(i) 0x inx 0. = 0
equation(ii) 0x 0x cosx 0. = 0 (D) x = √2 x
Assuming the initial values = 0.0 and
= .0 the jacobian matrix is 3. The polynomial p(x) = x + x + 2 has
0 0. 0 0. (A) all real roots
(A) * + (C) * +
0 0. 0 0.
(B) 3 real and 2 complex roots
0 0 0 0 (C) 1 real and 4 complex roots
(B) * + (D) * +
0 0 0 0
(D) all complex roots
6. Roots of the algebraic equation

x x x = 0 are
(A) ( ) (C) (0 0 0)
(B) ( j j) (D) ( j j)
th th th

IN– 2008 IN– 2013

4. It is known that two roots of the 8. While numerically solving the differential
nonlinear equation x3 – 6x2 +11x 6 = 0 equation 2xy = 0 y(0) = using
are 1 and 3. The third root will be
Euler’s predictor – corrector (improved
(A) j (C) 2
Euler – Cauchy )method with a step size
(B) j (D) 4
of 0.2, the value of y after the first step is
(A) 1.00 (C) 0.97
IN – 2009
(B) 1.03 (D) 0.96
5. The differential equation = with
x(0) = 0 and the constant 0 is to be IN– 2014
numerically integrated using the forward 9. The iteration step in order to solve for the
Euler method with a constant integration cube roots of a given number N using the
ww
time step T. The maximum value of T such
that the numerical solution of x converges
Newton- aphson’s method is
(A) x =x ( x )
w.E
is
(A) (C)
(D) 2
(B) x
(C) x
= (2x
=x (
)
x )
(B)
asy (D) x = (2x )

IN– 2010
6. The velocity v (in m/s) of a moving mass,
En
starting from rest, is given as
Using Euler’s forward difference method
(also known as Cauchy-Euler method)
=v
gi
t.
nee
with a step size of 0.1s, the velocity at 0.2s
evaluates to
rin
(A) 0.01 m/s
(B) 0.1 m/s
IN– 2011
(C) 0.2 m/s
(D) 1 m/s
g .ne
7. The extremum (minimum or maximum)
point of a function f(x) is to be
( )
determined by solving = 0 using the
Newton-Raphson method.
Let f(x) = x x and x = 1 be the initial
guess of x. The value of x after two
iterations (x ) is
(A) 0.0141 (C) 1.4167
(B) 1.4142 (D) 1.5000
th th th

ME y = sin ( ) =
1. [Ans. C] 2
( )
By N-R method , =x – x = y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
( )
f(x) = x x 7 y = sin( ) = 0
 f( ) = 5
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
( )
x =x ( )
y = sin ( )=
 f (x) = x
f ( )= , 7
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
ww
 =1
( )
= (0.5) = .5
y = sin ( )=0
2.
w.E
[Ans. C]
Given x y = 2
.0 x 0.0 y = b
(i)
(ii)
Trapezoidal rule
∫
y
f(x)dx = [(y
)]
y ) 2(y y
asy
Multiply 0.99 is equation (i) and subtract
from equation (ii); we get
( .0 0. )x = b (2 0. )
∫ sinx dx =
0.70 0 0.70 0
[(0 0)
0.70 0
2(0.70 0
0=0
0.02x = b
0.02Δx = Δb
.
En 6. [Ans. B]
Δx =
0.02
= 50 units gi ower = ω = Area under the curve.
neeh
= [(y y ) (y y y )
2(y y )]
3. [Ans. D]
4. [Ans. B]
=
rin [(0 0) ( 0 0 55)
Given f(x) = (x
2
f (x) = (x )
) /
7.
=
[Ans. C]
g 2(
2.7 /unit cycle.
2 2 )]
.ne
Slope of tangent at point (0, 5)
2 x 1 2 3
m = (0 ) / = 1
y=
Slope of normal = 3 x 2
h
(∵ roduct of slopes = 1) ∫ dx = (y y y )
x
Slope of normal at point (0, 5)
y 5 = (x 0) = ( )
2
y= x 5
= .
5. [Ans. A]
8. [Ans. D]
b a 2 0
h= = = By the definition only
n
y = sin(0) = 0
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
th th th

9. [Ans. *] Range 1.10 to 1.12 By intermediate value theorem roots lie

be between 0 and 1.
∫ |x|dx is et x = rad = 57. 2
By Newton Raphson method
h f(x )
∫ ydx = [y 2(y y .) y ] x =x
2 f (x )
2x sin x 2 cos x
y y y y x =
5 2 sin x
x 1 0.33 0.33 1 x = 0.5 2
x = 0.5 25
y 1 0.33 0.333 1 x = 0.5 2
2
ww
∫ |x|dx =
= . 0
2
[ 2(0. 0. )] 13. [Ans. D]
The variation in options are much, so it
can be solved by integrating directly
10. w.E
[Ans. *] Range 1.74 to 1.76
2.5
dx
dt
= t
.
h=
asy5
= 0.
∫ . ln (x)dx = [
y 2y 2y 2y
]
∫ dx = ∫ ( t )dt
En . .
2y y t
. Δx = t| = 2t t|
= [ln(2.5) 2(ln2. ) 2 ln( . ) 2
2ln( . )
= .75
2ln( .7) ln( )]
gi CE
Δx = 0.0
nee
0. = 0.
11. [Ans. *]Range 1.1 to 1.2
∫ dx by trapezoidal rule
1.
rin
[Ans. C]
To calculate using N-R method
x
rapezoidal rule
∫ f(x)dx = [y y 2(y y ..y )]
i.e. = a
g
Set up the equation as x =
.ne
a=0
h= iven in question
0 1 2 i.e. f(x) = a=0
x 1 2 3 Now f (x) =
y 1 0.5 0.33
f(x ) = a
∫ dx = [y y 2(y )] f (x ) =
x 2
For N-R method
= [ 0. 2 0.5] x =x
( )
2 ( )
= . ( )
x =x
12. [Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.56
Let f(x) = 5x 2 cos x Simplifying which we get
f (x) = 5 2 sin x x = 2x ax
f(0) = f( ) = 2.
th th th

2. [Ans. B] f(x )
x =x
For a = 7 iteration equation f (x )
Becomes x = 2x 7x (x x )
=x
with x = 0.2 ( x )
x = 2x 7x = 2× 0.2 – 7(0.2) = 0.12 x x x x
and x = 2x 7x = 2× 0.12 7(0. 2) =
( x )
= 0.1392 2x
x =
x
3. [Ans. A]
f(x) = 1, 4, 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2
5. [Ans. A]
respectively
Given
∫ f(x)dx = (f 2f f )
ww
(3 points Trapezoidal Rule)
Here h = 1
x – 10 x + 31x 30 = 0
One root = 5
Let the roots be α β and γ of equation
w.E∫ f(x)dx = (1 + 2(4) + 15) = 12

Approximate value by rapezoidal ule
ax + bx + cx + d = 0
αβγ=
= 12
asy
Since f(x) is second degree polynomial, let
f(x) = a0 + a x + a x
and α β
α βγ = 5
βγ γα =
βγ =
( )
= 30
f(0) = 1
a 0 0= En  βγ = (i)
Also
a =
f(1) = 4
a a a =
gi αβ
nee
βγ
 5 (β γ) βγ =
ince βγ = from (i)
γα = 5β βγ 5γ = =
 1+ a
a a =
a =
rin
5 (β γ)
β γ=5
=
 f(2) = 15
a

 2a
2a
2a
a =
a = 5
a = 5
βγ =
g
olving for β and γ
β (5 β) =
β 5β =0
.ne
Solving (i) and (ii) a = and a =  β = 2 and γ =
f(x) = 1 – x + 4 x Alternative method
Now exact value ∫ f(x)dx 5 1 0 31 0
0 5 25 30
=∫ ( x x )dx
1 5 6 0
= *x + = (x 5)(x 5x )=0
Error = exact – Approximate value (x 5)(x 2)(x )=0
x=2 5
= 2=
4. [Ans. A ] 6. [Ans. D]
Y = a + bx
Given f(x) = x x =0
Given
f (x) = x
n= ∑x = ∑y = 2 ∑x = 14
Newton – Raphson formula is
and ∑xy =
th th th

Normal equations are 9. [Ans. A]

∑y = na b∑x f(x )
x =x
∑xy = a∑x b∑x f(x )
Substitute the values and simply x
=x ( )
a= b=2 2x
x
= = [x ]
7. [Ans. A] 2x 2 x
The equation is
5x + y + 2z = 34 10. [Ans. D]
0x + 4y – 3z = 12 Error in central difference formula is
and 10x – 2y + z = (h)
The augmented matrix for gauss This means, error
ww
elimination is
5 2
If error for h = 0.03 is 2
then
0
w.E
[0
0 2
| 2]
Since in the first column maximum

element in absolute value is 10 we need
Error for h = 0.02 is approximately
2 0
(0.02)
(0.0 )
0
5 asy
to exchange row 1 with row 3
2 ( )
0 2
11. [Ans. D]
.
[0
0 2
| 2] → [0
5
So the pivot for eliminating x is a = 10
2
En
| 2] Exact value of ∫ .
Using impson’s rule in three – point
dx = .0
Now we eliminate x using this pivot

as follows :
0 2
gi form,
nee
h=
So,
b a
n
=
.5 0.5
2
= 0.5
[0 | 2]
5
5
2
y 2
rin
x 0.5 1 1.5
1 0.67
→
0
[0
0
0 2
2
/2
2]
Now to eliminate y, we need to compare

∫
g =
=
0.5
[
[2 0. 7
]
] .ne
the elements in second column at and = .
below the diagonal element Since a = 4 So, the estimate exceeds the exact value by
is already larger in absolute value Approximate value – Exact value
compares to a = 2 = 1.1116 1.0986
The pivot element for eliminating y is =0.012(approximately)
a = 4 itself.
12. [Ans. *](Range 0.52 to 0.55)
The pivots for eliminating x and y are
Using impson’s ule
respectively 10 and 4
X 0 1 2 3 4
Y 10 11 26 91 266
8. [Ans. A]
I = h(f f 2f f f ) ∫ (x 0)dx
= 0.25( 0. 2 2 = [( 0 2 ) 2(2 ) ( )]
0. 0. 0.5) = 2 5.
= 0.7 5 The value of integral
th th th

x = = 1000 e
∫ (x 0) dx = * 0x+ ( )/
5
3. [Ans. C]
= 0 =2 .
5 x = (x )
Magnitude of error
= 2 5. 2 . = 0.5 At convergence
x =x =α
CS α= (α )
1. [Ans. A] 2α=α+
Given x = + , x = 0.5
2α =
when the series converges x =x =α
ww
α= +
α=
2α = α + R
α=√
α =R
w.E 8α = 4α +9
α =
So this iteration will compute the square
root of R
asy
α = = 1.5 4. [Ans. D]
y=x
2. [Ans. A]
Here, the function being integrated is En dy
dx
= 2x
f(x) = xe
f (x) = xe + e = e (x + 1)
f’ (x) = xe + e + e = e (x + 2)
Since, both are increasing
gi f(x)= x
x
nee
= .5
= . 07
.
.
functions of x, maximum value of f ( ) in

interval 1 2, occurs at = 2 so
5.
rin
[Ans. B]
f( ) = 5
max |f ( )| =e (2 2) = e
Truncation Error for trapezoidal rule
= TE (bound)
f( ) = 5
f( )
x =(
g
0 f( )
72
2
0
)=5 f(x )
= 57 7
.ne
0
0
= max |f ( )|
oot lies between and
Where is number of subintervals
x =( )=2 f(x ) 0
= 2
After ' ' interations we get the root
= max |f ( )|
6. [Ans. D]
= (b – a) max |f ( )| 1 2
h
= (2 – 1) [e (2 + 2)] ∫ f(x)dx = [f(0) f( ) 2(∑f )]
2
= e . 0 2(0.0 0.
= [ ]
Now putting = 0 0. . . 7.2 )
( )
.
= [ 5 . ]
=
= 9.045
h=
Now, No. of intervals, =
th th th

7. [Ans. – ] 8 4
x1  2  
Given (x) + f(x) + t cos x = 0 12 3
and f(x) = x sin x
f (x) = x cos x + sin x 3. [Ans. C]
f (x) = x ( sin x) + cos x + cos x Given : f(x)= x e
= 2 cos x – x sin x By Newton Raphson method,
= 2 cos x – f (x) f(x ) x e
x =x =x
2 cos x – f (x) + f(x) +t cos x = 0 f (x ) e
2 cos x = tcos x t = 2 e x n
 1  x n 
1  e x n
8. [Ans. A]
f(x) = 0.75x 2x 2x 4. [Ans. C]
ww
f (x) = 2.25x
x =2 f = 2 f =
x 2
x =x
f(x )
f (x )
w.E
x =x
f = f = 2
f
f
=0 f(2) = (2
f (2) =
√2
√
=
) = √2
√
√
and
asy
x =x
f
f
=2 x =2
(√
√
√
)
= .
f = 2 f =
x =x
f
=0 En 5. [Ans. D]
f(x) = a x a x a x a x a
f
Also, root does not lies between 0 and 1
So, the method diverges if x = 2
nly ( )is true.
gi If the above equation have complex roots,
nee
then they must be in complex conjugate
pair, because it’s given all co-efficients are
positive ( they are real )
9. [Ans. C]
For value of K if trapezoidal rule is used rin
So if complex roots are even no. (in pair)
then real roots will also be even.
then the value is either greater than
actual value of definite integral and if
impson’s rule is used then value is exact
g
ption ( )is wrong
From the equation
roduct of roots = ( 0)
.ne
Hence both statements are TRUE As no. of roots = 4,
Product of roots < 1
ECE
either one root 0
1. [Ans. C]
(or)
By definition (& the application) of
Product of three roots < 0
various methods
ption ( )is rong.
2. [Ans. B] Now, take option (A),
y(t) =x3 x2 + 4x 4=0 Let us take it is correct .
x0 = 2 Roots are in complex conjugate pairs
f  x0  =
Next approximation x1  x0  Product of roots
f ' x 0 
0
x  x  4x0  4
3 2
| | | | 0 which is not possible
x1  x 0  0 0
3x02  2x0  4 ption (A) is wrong

orrect answer is option ( )
th th th

6. [Ans. A] Now put i=0

sin x 2 cos x ( )
x =
x x
= (x – ) 2( – ) Put x = as given,
2
x = [e ( 2) ]/e
= 0.71828
7. [Ans. B]
8. [Ans. D] 3. [Ans. C]
=e u(t)
∑ = . .. = e
n 2 x
x x
as e = . . . x in
2
EE ww t
1.
w.E
[Ans. D]
Here, =
x
x = ∫ e u(t) dt = ∫ f(t) dt
At t = 0.01, x = Area of trapezoidal
= [f(0) f(0.0 )] =
.
[ e .
]
asy
f(x y) =
Euler’s method equation is
= 0.0099
x = x h. f(x y )
x = x h(
x
) En 4. [Ans. A]
x =x
( )
x =(
h
)x
h
h
gi nee = x
= *x
( )
+
or stability | |
h 5.
rin
[Ans. B]
since h = Δ here
Δ g
u(x x ) = 0x sin x
v(x x ) = 0x
0. = 0
0x cosx
The Jacobian matrix is
u u
0. = 0
.ne
Δ 2
x x
o maximum permissible value of Δ is 2 .
v v
[ x x ]
2. [Ans. A]
Here f(x) = e 0x cos x 0sinx
=[ ]
0x sinx 20x 0cosx
f (x) = e
The Newton Raphson iterative equation is The matrix at x = 0 x = is
( )
x =x 0 0
( ) =* +
0 0
f(x ) = e
f’(x ) = e 6. [Ans. D]
x =x x x x =0
–( ) (x )(x )=0
i.e. x =
x =0 x =0
( )
= x= x= j
th th th

7. [Ans. C] Hence, it will have atleast 5 (0+1)= 4

f(x ) complex roots.
x =x
f (x )
( .2) 2( .2) 4. [Ans. C]
= .2 Approach- 1
( .2) 2
= 0.705 Given, x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0
Or (x – 1)(x – 3)(x – 2) = 0
8. [Ans. *] Range 0.05 to 0.07 x= 1, 2, 3.
Clearly, x = 0 is root of the equation
f(x) = e =0 Approach- 2
f (x) = e and x = .0 For ax3 +bx2 + cx +d = 0
Using ewton raphson method If the three roots are p,q,r then
wwx =x
f(x )
f (x )
=
(e .
e.
)
=
e
Sum of the roots= p+q+r= b/a
Product of the roots= pqr= d/a
pq+qr+rp=c/a
w.E
and x = x
f(x )
=
f (x ) e
(e
e
)
5. [Ans. D]
dx x
asy =
e
e
= 0. 7 0. = 0.0
dt
=
f(x, y) =
Absolute error at 2nd itteration is
|0 0.0 | = 0.0 En x =x h (x y ) = x h(
x
)
IN
1. [Ans. A]
gi =(
nee
h
)x
or stability |
(
h
h
)
|
As k ∞ xk+1 ≈xk
xk = x x
rin h
x = x
x =5
x =5 /
= 1.70
Δ g 2
Δ
.ne
6. [Ans. A]
2. [Ans. A] dv
Assume x = √ =v t
dt
f(x) = x =0 t v dv
=v t
f(x ) 2 dt
x =x = [x ] 0 0 0 0+0 0. = 0
f (x ) 2 x
0.1 0 0+0.1 0. = 0.0
3. [Ans. C]
Given p(x) = x + x + 2 7. [Ans. C]
There is no sign change, hence at most 0 f(x) = x x
positive root ( rom escarte’s rule of f (x) = x = g(x)
signs) x = initial guess
p( x) = x x+2 g (x) = x
g (x )
There is one sign change, hence at most 1 x =x
negative root ( rom escarte’s rule of g (x )
signs)
th th th

( )
= = .5
g(x )
x =x
g (x )
0.75
= .5
= . 7
8. [Ans. D]
dy
= 2xy x = 0 y = h = 0.2
dx
y =y h. f(x y )
= (0.2)f(0 ) =
ww
and y = y
=
[f(x y ) f(x y )]
(0. )[f(0 ) f(0.2 )]
w.E = 0.
is the value of y after first step, using
Euler’s predictor – corrector method
9.
asy
[Ans. B]
For convergence
x = x =x x= (2x
x
)
En
x = x= √
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

Calculus
ME – 2005 ME – 2006
1. The line integral ∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ of the vector 2x2  7x  3
7. If f( x ) = , then limf(x) will
function ⃗ ( ) 2xyz ̂+ x²z + ̂ k²y ̂ from 5x2  12x  9 x 3
the origin to the point P (1,1,1) be

(A) is 1 (A) ⁄ (C) 0
(B) is Zero (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
(C) is 1
(D) cannot be determined without 8. Assuming i = 1 and t is a real number,
specifying the path
∫ dt is:
2.
ww
The right circular cone of largest volume
that can be enclosed by a sphere of 1 m
radius has a height of
(A)
(B)
√
√
(C)
(D)
√
.
√
/
w.E
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
√
9. Let x denote a real number. Find out the
3. asy
By a change of variables
INCORRECT statement
(A) S * + represents the set if all
real numbers greater then 3
x(u,v) = uv, y(u,v) = v/u is double
integral, the integral f(x,y) changes to En (B) S *
set
+ represents the empty
f(uv, u/v) ( ). Then, ( )

(A) 2 v/u
(B) 2 u v
(C) v²
(D) 1
gi (C) S *
nee
+ represents the
union of set A and set B
(D) S * + represents the set
4. Changing the order of the integration in
the double integral I = ∫ ∫ ( ) rin
of all real umbers between a and b,
where and b are real number
leads to
I =∫ ∫ (
(A) 4y
) What is q?
(C) X
ME – 2007
10.
g ( )
.ne
(B) 16y² (D) 8 (A) 0 (C)
(B) ⁄ (D) 1
5. ∫ ( ) is equal to
(A) ∫ 11. The area of a triangle formed by the tips
(B) 2∫ of vectors a , b and c is
(C) 2∫ ( ) (A) ( )( )
(D) Zero (B) |( ) ( )|
6. Stoke’ theorem connects (C) | |

(A) A line integral and a surface integral (D) ( )
(B) Surface integral and a volume
integral
(C) A line integral and a volume integral
(D) Gradient of function and its surface
integral
th th th

19. In the Taylor series expansion of ex about

12. If √ √ √ , then x = 2, the coefficient of (x 2)4 is
y (2) = (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(A) 4 or 1 (C) 1 only (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
(B) 4 only (D) Undefined
20. The divergence of the vector field
13. The minimum value of function y = x2 in (x y) ̂ ( )̂ ( ) ̂ is
the interval [1, 5] is (A) 0 (C) 2
(A) 0 (C) 25 (B) 1 (D) 3
(B) 1 (D) Undefined
21. Let What is at x=2, y=1?
ME – 2008
14.
ww
The length of the curve
between x = 0 and x = 1 is
(A) 0
(B) ln2
(C) 1
(D) 1/ln2
w.E
(A) 0.27
(B) 0.67
(C) 1
(D) 1.22
ME – 2009
22. The area enclosed between the curves
15.
asy
Which of the following integrals is
unbounded?
y 2  4x and x2  4y is
(A)
(B) 8
⁄ (C)
(D) 16
⁄
(A) ∫
(B) ∫
(C) ∫
(D) ∫ En 23. The distance between the origin and the
16. The directional derivative of the scalar

function f(x, y, z) = x2  2y 2  z at the
gi point nearest to it on the surface
nee
z2  1  xy is
(A) 1 (C) √
point P = (1, 1, 2) in the direction of the
vector ⃗ ̂ ̂ is rin
(B) √ ⁄ (D) 2
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 1
24.
g
A path AB in the form of one quarter of a
.ne
circle of unit radius is shown in the figure.
Integration of  x  y  on path AB
2
17. Consider the shaded triangular region P
shown in the figure. What is∬ xydxdy? traversed in a counter-clockwise sense is
y Y
B
x+2y=2
1
P x X
A
0 2
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ (A) (C)
(B) ⁄ (D) 1 (B) (D) 1
18. The value of is 25. The divergence of the vector field

( )
̂ ̂ ̂ at a point (1,1,1) is
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
⁄ ⁄ equal to
(B) (D)
(A) 7 (C) 3
(B) 4 (D) 0
th th th

ME – 2010 ME – 2012
26. Velocity vector of a flow field is given as 33. Consider the function ( ) in the
⃗ ̂ .̂ The vorticity vector at interval . At the point x = 0,
(1, 1, 1) is f(x) is
(A) 4 ̂ ̂ (C) ̂ ̂ (A) Continuous and differentiable.
(B) 4 ̂ ̂ (D) ̂ ̂ (B) Non – continuous and differentiable.
(C) Continuous and non – differentiable.
27. The function (D) Neither continuous nor
(A) o o ∀ R differentiable.
∀ R
(B) o o ∀ R 34. . / is
∀ R
ww
(C)
except at x = 3/2
o o ∀
∀
R
R
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
w.E
(D)
except at x = 2/3
o o ∀ R except at x = 3
35. At x = 0, the function f(x) =
(A) A maximum value
(B) A minimum value
has
28. asy
The value of the integral ∫
∀ R
is
(C) A singularity
(D) A point of inflection
(A) –π
(B) –π
(C) π
(D) π En 36. For the spherical surface
29. The parabolic arc √ is

revolved around the x-axis. The volume of
gi .
nee√ √
/
the unit outward
normal vector at the point
the solid of revolution is

(A) π
(B) π
(C) π
(D) π
(A)
(B) rin √
̂
̂
√
̂
̂
ME – 2011
30. If f(x) is an even function and is a positive
(C) ̂
(D)
g
√
√
̂
√
√
̂
√
̂
.ne
real number, then ∫ ( )dx equals
37. The area enclosed between the straight
(A) 0 (C)
(B) line y = x and the parabola y = in the
(D) ∫ ( )
x – y plane is
(A) 1/6 (C) 1/3
31. What is equal to? (B) 1/4 (D) 1/2
(A) (C) 0
(B) (D) 1 ME – 2013
38. The following surface integral is to be
32. A series expansion for the function is evaluated over a sphere for the given
(A) steady velocity vector field
defined with respect to a
(B) cartesian coordinate system having i, j and
(C) k as unit base vectors.
∫∫ ( )
(D)
th th th

Where S is the sphere, 45. If a function is continuous at a point,

and n is the outward unit normal vector to (A) the limit of the function may not exist
the sphere. The value of the surface at the point
integral is (B) the function must be derivable at the
(A) π (C) π⁄ point
(B) π (D) π (C) the limit of the function at the point
tends to infinity
39. The value of the definite integral (D) the limit must exist at the point and
∫ √ ( ) is the value of limit should be same as
the value of the function at that point
(A) √ (C) √
(B) √ (D) √ 46. Divergence of the vector field
ww
ME – 2014
̂
(A) 0
̂ ̂ (
(C) 5
) is
40.
w.E
(A) 0
(B) 1
is
(C) 3
(D)Not defined
47.
(B) 3 (D) 6
The value of the integral
41. asy
Which one of the following describes the
∫ (
(A) 3
(
)
) (
(
)
)
(C) 1
relationship among the three vectors
̂ ̂ ̂ +
̂ ̂ ̂
+ ̂ ̂ ̂
En (B) 0 (D) 2
(A) The vectors are mutually

perpendicular
(B) The vectors are linearly dependent
(C) The vectors are linearly independent
gi 48. The value of the integral ∫ ∫
nee
is
(A) ( ) (C) ( )
(D) The vectors are unit vectors
rin
(B) ( ) (D) . /
42.
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
. ( )
/ is equal to
(C) 1
(D) 2
CE – 2005
1.
g
Value of the integral ∮ (
Where, c is the square cut from the first
.ne ).
quadrant by the lines x = 1 and y = 1 will

43. Curl of vector ( G ’ h o o h h
⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ line integral into double integral)
(A) ( )̂ ̂ ̂ (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(B) ( )̂ ̂ ̂ (B) 1 (D) ⁄
(C) ̂ ̂ ̂
(D) ̂ ̂ ̂ 2. A rail engine accelerates from its
stationary position for 8 seconds and
44. The best approximation of the minimum travels a distance of 280 m. According to
value attained by (100x) for ≥ the Mean Value theorem, the
is _______ speedometer at a certain time during
acceleration must read exactly.
(A) 0 kmph (C) 75 kmph
(B) 8 kmph (D) 126 kmph
th th th

CE – 2006 10. The value of ∫ ∫ ( ) is

3. What is the area common to the circles (A) 13.5 (C) 40.5
o (B) 27.0 (D) 54.0
(A) 0.524 a 2 (C) 1.014 a2
(B) 0.614 a2 (D) 1.228 a2 CE – 2009
11. For a scalar function
4. The directional derivative of f(x, y, z) = + 3 + 2 the gradient at
f(x, y, z) = 2 + 3 + at the point the point P (1, 2, 1) is
P (2, 1, 3) in the direction of the vector
(A) 2 + 6 + 4⃗ (C) 2 + 12 + 4⃗
a= k is
(A) (C) (B) 2 + 12 – 4⃗ (D) √
(B) (D)
ww
CE – 2007
12. For a scalar function
f(x, y, z) = the directional
derivative at the point P(1, 2, 1) in the
5.
w.E
Potential function  is given as
= . When will be the stream
function () with the condition
direction of a vector
(A)
⃗ is
(C) √
asy
 = 0 at x = y = 0?
(A) 2xy (C)
(B)
CE – 2010
√ (D) 18
(B) + (D) 2
En 13. A parabolic cable is held between two

supports at the same level. The horizontal
6. Evaluate ∫
(A) π
(B) π⁄
(C) π⁄
(D) π⁄
gi span between the supports is L. The sag at
nee
the mid-span is h. The equation of the
parabola is y = 4h where x is the
7. A velocity is given as
̅ = 5xy + 2 y2 + 3yz2⃗ . The divergence rin
horizontal coordinate and y is the vertical
coordinate with the origin at the centre of
of this velocity vector at (1 1 1) is
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 15 (A) ∫ √
g
the cable. The expression for the total
length of the cable is
.ne
CE – 2008 (B) 2∫ √
8. The equation + = 0 can be
(C) ∫ √
transformed to + = 0 by substituting
(D) ∫ √
(A) (C) √
(B)
(D) √ . /
14. The  is
(A) 2/3 (C) 3/2
9. The inner (dot) product of two vectors ⃗ (B) 1 (D)
and ⃗ is zero. The angle (degrees)
between in two vectors is 15. Given a function
(A) 0 (C) 90 ( )
(B) 30 (D) 120 The optimal value of f(x, y)
th th th

(A) Is a minimum equal to 10/3 CE – 2013

(B) Is a maximum equal to 10/3 21. The value of ∫ o
(C) Is a minimum equal to 8/3 (A) 0 (C) 1
(D) Is a maximum equal to 8/3 (B) 1/15 (D) 8/3
CE – 2011 CE – 2014
√
16. ∫ ? 22. . / o
√ √
(A) 0 (C) a (A) (C) 1
(B) a/2 (D) 2a (B) (D)
17. Wh ho h o λ such that 23. With reference to the conventional
ww
the function defined below is continuous
π ?
π
Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the
vertices of a triangle have the following
coordinates:
w.E
f(x)={
(A) 0
π
(C) 1
(
(
)
)
( ) ( ) ( )
( ). The area of the
(B)
asy
π (D) π
triangle is equal to
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
18. If ⃗ and ⃗ are two arbitrary vectors with
magnitudes a and b respectively. |⃗ ⃗ | En 24. A particle moves along a curve whose
will be equal to
(A)
(B) ab ⃗ ⃗
– (⃗ ⃗ ) (C) + (⃗ ⃗ )
(D) ab + ⃗ ⃗
gi parametric equation are :
nee and z = 2 sin (5t), where x, y

and z show variations of the distance
covered by the particle (in cm) with time
CE – 2012
rin
t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration
of the particle (in cm ) at t = 0 is
19. For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the
sketch, ̅̅̅̅ ̂ ̂ and ̅̅̅̅
R
The area of the parallelogram is
Q
̂ .̂
25.
g
___________
If {x} is a continuous, real valued random .ne

variable defined over the interval
( ) and its occurrence is defined
R by the density function given as:
. /
P ( ) wh ‘ ’ ‘ ’
√
the statistical attributes of the random
O variable {x}. The value of the integral
(A) ad –bc (C) ad + bc ∫
. /
dx is
√
(B) ac+bd (D) ab – cd
(A) 1 (C) π
(B) 0.5 (D) π⁄
20. The infinity series
o o o 26. The expression o

(A) sec (C) o (A) log x (C) x log x
(B) (D) (B) 0 (D)
th th th

CS – 2005 CS – 2010
1 
7. What is the value of . / ?
1. Let G(x)    g(i)x i where |x|<1.
(1  x) i 0
2
(A) 0 (C)
What is g(i)?
(B) (D) 1
(A) i (C) 2i
(B) i+1 (D) 2i
CS – 2011
8. Given i = √ , what will be the
CS – 2007
evaluation of the definite integral
2. Consider the following two statements
about the function f(x) =|x|: ∫
P: f(x) is continuous for all real values of x (A) 0 (C) –i
Q: f(x) is differentiable for all real values (B) 2 (D) i
ww
of x
Which of the following is true? CS – 2012
w.E
(A) P is true Q is false
(B) P is false Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true
9. Consider the function f(x)= sin(x) in the
interval x ,π⁄ π⁄ -. The number and
location(s) of the local minima of this
asy
(D) Both P and Q are false function are
(A) One , at π⁄
CS – 2008
3. Lim
x  sinx
equals En (B) One , at π⁄
(C) Two , at π⁄ and π
x   x  cosx
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C)
(D)
gi (D) Two , at π⁄ and π
CS – 2013
nee
10. Which one the following function is
4. Let
P=∑ ∑ rin
continuous at x =3?
where k is a positive integer. Then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A) ( )
(B) ( )
g {
2 .ne
(C) ( ) 2
5. A point on a curve is said to be extreme if
it is a local minimum or a local maximum. (D) ( )
The number of distinct extrema for the
CS – 2014
curve 3x  16x  24x  37 is
4 3 2
11. Let the function

(A) 0 (C) 2
o
(B) 1 (D) 3 ( ) | (π ) o (π ) (π )|
(π ) o (π ) (π )
CS – 2009
Where 0 1 and ( ) denote the
6. ∫ evaluates to derivation of f with respect to . Which of
(A) 0 (C) ln2 the following statements is/are TRUE?
(B) 1 (D) ln 2 (I) There exists
. / h h ( )
th th th

(II) There exists (A)

. / h h ( )
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II (B)
(D) Neither I nor II
12. A function f (x) is continuous in the

interval [0, 2]. It is known that
(C)
f(0) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = 1. Which one
of the following statements must be true?
ww
(A) There exists a y in the interval (0,1)
such that f(y) = f(y + 1)
(B) For every y in the interval (0, 1),
(D)
w.Ef(y) = f(2 y)
(C) The maximum value of the function
in the interval (0, 2) is 1
asy
(D) There exists a y in the interval (0, 1)
such that f(y) ( )
ECE – 2006
2. As x is increased from to , the
13. If and are 4 – dimensional subspace

En function f  x  
ex
1  ex
of a 6 – dimensional vector space V, then
the smallest possible dimension of
is ____________.
gi (A)
nee
(B)
(C)
monotonically increases
monotonically decreases
increases to a maximum value and
then decreases
14. If ∫ dx = π, then the value of k
is equal to_______.
(D)
rindecreases to a minimum value and
then increases
15. The value of the integral given below is

3.
1
g 
The integral  sin  d is given by

0
3
4
.ne
∫ o (A) (C)
2 3
(A) π (C) – π 2 8
(B ) (D)
(B) π (D) π 3 3
ECE – 2005 4.   P  ds , where P is a vector, is

1. The derivative of the symmetric function
equal to
drawn in given figure will look like
(A) ∮ P  dl (C) ∮  P  dl
(B) ∮  P  dl (D)    Pdv
5.  P , where P is a vector, is equal to
(A) P  P   P (C) 2P      P
2
(B)  P   P
2
(D)     P  2P
th th th

ECE – 2007 ECE – 2008

6. For the function , the linear 12. Consider points P and Q in the x –y plane,
approximation around = 2 is with P=(1,0) and Q=(0,1). The line
(A) (3 x) Q
(B) 1 x integral 2  xdx  ydy  along the
 
P
(C) 3  2 2  1  2 x  e2 semicircle with the line segment PQ as its
 
(D) diameter
(A) is 1
7. For x <<1, coth(x) can be (B) is 0
approximated as (C) is 1
(A) x (D) depends on the direction (clockwise
(C)
ww
(B) x2
(D)
13.
or anticlockwise) of the semicircle
In the Taylor series expansion of

8.
w.E
Consider the function f(x) = x – 2.
The maximum value of f(x) in the closed
interval [ 4,4] is
exp(x)+sin(x) about the point x=π the
coefficient of (x π)2 is
(A) (π) (C) (π)
asy
(A) 18
(B) 10
(C) 2.25
(D) Indeterminate
(B) (π) (D) (π)
9. Which one of the following function is En 14. Which of the following functions would
have only odd powers of x in its Taylor
strictly bounded?
(A)
(B) e x
(C) x 2
(D)
gi series expansion about the point x=0?
(A) sin(x3)
nee
(B) sin(x )
2
(C) cos(x3)
(D) cos(x2)
10. lim
sin   / 2
is
15.
rin
The value of the integral of the function
g(x, y)=4x3+10y4 along the straight line
0
(A) 0.5
(B) 1

(C) 2
(D) not defined
g
segment from the point (0,0) to the point
(1,2) in the x y plane is
(A) 33
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 56
.ne
11. The following Plot shows a function y
which varies linearly with x. The value of 16. For real values of x, the minimum value of
2
the function f(x)=exp(x)+ exp( x) is
the integral I   ydx is (A) 2 (C) 0.5
1
Y
(B) 1 (D) 00
3 17. Consider points P and Q in the x-y plane,

with P=(1, 0) and Q= (0, 1).
2
1
h ∫ ( ) along
1
X the semicircle with the line segment PQ as
1 2 3
its diameter
(A) 1.0 (C) 4.0
(A) Is
(B) 2.5 (D) 5.0
(B) Is 0
(C) Is 1
th th th

(D) Depends on the direction 21. If , then has a

(clockwise or anti-clockwise) of the (A) maximum at
semicircle (B) minimum at
(C) maximum at
ECE – 2009
(D) minimum at
18. The Taylor series expansion of
sinx
at x   is given by ECE – 2011
x
22. Consider a closed surface S surrounding a
 x  
2
volume V. If is the position vector of a
(A) 1   .....
3! point inside S, with ̂ the unit normal of S,
 x   the value of the integral ∯ ̂⃗ is

2
(B) 1   .....
ww
(C) 1 
3!
 x  
2
 .....
(A) 3V
(B) 5V
(C) 10V
(D) 15V
w.E
(D) 1 
3!
 x  
2
 .....
ECE\IN – 2012
23. The direction of vector A is radially
outward from the origin, with
19.
asy 3!
If a vector field ⃗ is related to another

where and K is
constant. The value of n for which
vector field ⃗ through ⃗ = ⃗ , which
En . A = 0 is
(A) 2 (C) 1
of the following is true? Note: C and
refer to any closed contour and any
surface whose boundary is C.
(A) ∮ ⃗ ⃗ = ∬ ⃗ ⃗
gi (B) 2
nee
ECE\EE – 2012
(D) 0
24. The maximum value of

(B) ∮ ⃗ ⃗ = ∬⃗ ⃗ ( )
rin
[1,6] is
in the interval
(C) ∮
(D) ∮
⃗ ⃗ =
⃗ ⃗ =
∬⃗ ⃗
∬⃗ ⃗
(A) 21
(B) 25 g (C) 41
(D) 46
.ne
ECE – 2010 ECE – 2013
20. If ⃗ ̂ ̂ , then ∮ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ over the 25. The maximum value of unit which the
path shown in the figure is approximation holds to within
10% error is
(A) (C)
(B) (D)
26. The divergence of the vector field

⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ is
(A) 0 (C) 1
(B) 1/3 (D) 3
√ √
(A) 0 (C) 1
(B) ⁄√ (D) 2√
th th th

27. Consider a vector field ⃗ ( ) The closed 34. The magnitude of the gradient for the
loop line integral ∮ ⃗  can be expressed function ( ) at the
as point (1,1,1) is_______.
(A) ∯( ⃗ )  over the closed
35. The directional derivative of
surface boundary by the loop
( ) ( ) ( )in the direction
(B) ∰(  ⃗ )dv over the closed volume √
bounded by the loop of the unit vector at an angle of with

(C) ∭(  ⃗ )dv over the open volume y axis, is given by ________________.
bounded by the loop
(D) ∬( ⃗ ) over the closed surface EE – 2005
bounded by the loop 1. For the scalar field u = , magnitude
ww
ECE – 2014
of the gradient at the point (1, 3) is
(A) √ ⁄ (C) √
w.E
28. The volume under the surface
z(x, y) = x+y and above the triangle in
the x-y plane defined by
2.
(B) √ ⁄
For the function f(x) = , the

(D) ⁄
29. For
asy
{0 y x and 0 x 12} is______
the maximum value of the

maximum occurs when x is equal to
(A) 2 (C) 0
function ( )
(A) o (C)
occurs at
En (B) 1 (D) 1
30.
(B) o
The value of .
(D)
/ is
o
gi 3. If S = ∫
nee
(A)
(B) ⁄
⁄
, then S has the value
(C) ⁄
(D) 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
EE – 2006
4. rin
A surface S(x, y) = 2x + 5y – 3 is
31. The maximum value of the function

( ) ( ) (wh )
g
integrated once over a path consisting of
the points that satisfy
(x+1)2+ (y 1)2 =√ . The integral
.ne
occurs at x =____. evaluates to
(A) 17√ (C) √ /17
32. The maximum value of
(B) 17/√ (D) 0
( ) in the interval
0 x 3 is ______.
5. The expression V = ∫ πR ( h ) h
33. For a right angled triangle, if the sum of for the volume of a cone is equal to
the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side (A) ∫ πR ( h )
is kept constant, in order to have
(B) ∫ πR ( h ) h
maximum area of the triangle, the angle
between the hypotenuse and the side is (C) ∫ π ( R) h
(A) 12 (C) 60 (D) ∫ π ( ⁄R)
(B) 36 (D) 45
th th th

EE – 2007 EE – 2010
6. The integral ∫ ( ) o 11. At t = 0, the function ( ) has
equals (A) a minimum
(A) o (C) (1/2) o (B) a discontinuity
(B) 0 (D) (1/2) (C) a point of inflection
(D) a maximum
EE – 2008
7. Consider function f(x)= ( ) where 12. Divergence of the three-dimensional
x is a real number. Then the function has radial vector field is
(A) only one minimum (A) 3 (C) ̂ ̂ ̂
(B) only two minima (B) 1/r (D) ̂( ̂ ̂)
(C) three minima
ww
(D) three maxima 13. The value of the quantity P, where
∫ , is equal to
8. w.E
EE – 2009
f(x, y) is a continuous function defined
over (x, y) [0, 1] [0, 1]. Given the two
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) e
(D) 1/e
asy
constraints, x > and y > , the
volume under f(x, y) is
EE – 2011
14. The two vectors [1, 1, 1] and [1, a, ],
(A) ∫ ∫
√
( )
En where a = .
√
/, are
(B) ∫
(C) ∫
(D) ∫
√
∫
∫
∫
√
(
(
(
)
)
)
gi (A)
(B)
nee
(C)
(D)
orthonormal
orthogonal
parallel
collinear
9. A cubic polynomial with real coefficients 15. rin

The function f(x) = 2x – has
(A) can possibly have no extrema and no
zero crossings
(B) may have up to three extrema and
x=5g
(A) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
.ne
(B) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
upto 2 zero crossings x= 5
(C) cannot have more than two extrema (C) only a maxima at x = 1
and more than three zero crossings (D) only a minima at x = 1
(D) will always have an equal number of
extrema and zero crossings EE – 2013
16. Given a vector field
10. F(x, y) = ( )̂ ( )̂ ’ , the line integral
line integral over the straight line from ∫ evaluated along a segment on the x-
( ) = (0, 2) to ( ) = (2, 0) axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
evaluates to (A) 2.33 (C) 2.33
(A) –8 (C) 8 (B) 0 (D) 7
(B) 4 (D) 0
17. The curl of the gradient of the scalar field
defined by
(A)
th th th

(B) 23. ( ) Where f and

(C) ( ) ( ) v are scalar and vector fields respectively.
( ) If h is
(D) (A)
(B)
EE – 2014 (C)
18. Let ( ) . The maximum value of (D)
the function in the interval ( ) is
(A) (C) 24. The minimum value of the function
(B) (D) ( ) 0 in the
interval , - is
19. The line integral of function , in the (A) 20 (C) 16
ww
counterclockwise direction, along the
circle is
(B) 28 (D) 32
w.E
(A)
(B) π
π (C) π
(D) π
IN – 2005
1. A scalar field is given by f = x2/3 + y2/3,
where x and y are the Cartesian
20.
( ) asy
Minimum of the real valued function
( ) occurs at x equal to
coordinates. The derivative of f along the
line y = x directed away from the origin,
at the point (8, 8) is
(A)
(B)
(C) 1
(D)
En (A)
√ (C)
√
21. To evaluate the double integral

∫ .∫
( ⁄ )
. / / dy, we make the
gi 2.
(B)
nee
√ (D)
√
Given a real-valued continuous function

substitution u = (
integral will reduce to
) and . The
(A) rin
f(t) defined over [0,1],
(C) f(1)
∫ ( ) is
( ) ∫ (∫
( ) ∫ (∫
)
)
3.
(B) 0
g
The value of the integral ∫
(D) f(0)
.ne is
(A) 2 (C) 2
(B) does not exist (D)
( ) ∫ (∫ )
4. ̅(t) has a constant magnitude,
If a vector R
( ) ∫ (∫ ) then
̅ ̅
̅
(A) R ̅ R
(C) R ̅
22. A particle, starting from origin at t = 0 s, ̅
̅
̅ ̅
̅
(B) R (D) R R
is traveling along x-axis with velocity
π π
o . / 5. If f = + ……
At t = 3 s, the difference between the + where ai (i = 0 to n) are constants,
distance covered by the particle and the then is
magnitude of displacement from the (A) ⁄ (C) nf
origin is _________ (B) ⁄ (D) n√
th th th

6. The plot of a function f(x) is shown in the (B) once differentiable but not twice
following figure. A possible expression for (C) twice differentiable but not thrice
the function f(x) is (D) thrice differentiable
f(x)
11. For real x, the maximum value of is.
1 (A) 1 (C) √
(B) e 1 (D)
x IN – 2008
0 12. Consider the function y = x2 6x + 9. The
(A) ( ) (C) ( ) maximum value of y obtained when x
ww
(B) . / (D) . / varies over the interval 2 to 5 is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 9
7.
w.E
IN – 2006
The function
approximated as
( ) is
where is in 13. The expression for x > 0 is equal to
asy
radian. The maximum value of for
which the error due to the approximation
is within
(A) –
(B) x
(C)
(D)
(A) 0.1 rad

(B) 0.2 rad
(C) 0.3 rad
(D) 0.4 rad En 14. Given y = + 2x + 10, the value of |
8. The solution of the integral equation

()
gi is equal to
(A) 0
nee
(B) 4
(C) 12
(D) 13
() ( )∫ ( ) ( ) 15.
rin
(A) Indeterminate (C) 1
(A) (
(B) (
()
()
(
(
))
))
(B) 0
IN – 2009
g (D)
.ne
( () ( )) 16. A sphere of unit radius is centered at the
(C)
( () ( )) origin. The unit normal at a point (x, y, z)
( () ( )) on the surface of the sphere is
(D) ( ( ) ( ))
(A) (x, y, z) (C) . /
√ √ √
(B) . /
IN – 2007
√ √ √ (D) . /
√ √ √
9. The value of the integral
∫ ∫ dx dy is. IN – 2010
(C) Π 17. The electric charge density in the region
(A) √π⁄
(D) π⁄ R: is given as
(B) √π
σ( ) , where x and y are in
meters. The total charge (in coulomb)
10. Consider the function f(x) = , where x
contained in the region R is
is real. Then the function f(x) at x = 0 is
(A) π (C) π⁄
(A) continuous but not differentiable
(B) π (D) 0
th th th

18. The integral ∫ . / sin(t) dt 23. A scalar valued function is defined

as ( ) , where A is a
evaluates to
symmetric positive definite matrix with
(A) 6 (C) 1.5
dimension n× n ; b and x are vectors of
(B) 3 (D) 0
dimension n×1. The minimum value of
( ) will occur when x equals
19. The infinite series
(A) ( ) (C) . /
( ) ………… (B) – ( )
converges to (D)
(A) cos (x) (C) sinh(x) 24. Given
(B) sin(x) (D) () ( π)
π
() o . π /
20. ww
IN – 2011
The series ∑ ( ) converges
The
(A) A circle
o w
w.E
for
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B) A multi-loop closed curve
(C) Hyperbola
(D) An ellipse
IN – 2013 asy
21. For a vector E, which one the following
statement is NOT TRUE?
En
(A)
(B) If
(C) If
(D)
E
E
E
E
E
E o o
E is called conservative
E is called irrotational
-rotational
gi nee
IN – 2014 rin
22. A vector is defined as
̂
Where ̂ ̂
̂ ̂
̂ are unit vectors in
g .ne
Cartesian ( ) coordinate system.
The surface integral ∯ f.ds over the
closed surface S of a cube with vertices
having the following coordinates:
(0,0,0),(1,0,0),(1,1,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1),
(1,0,1),(1,1,1),(0,1,1) is________
th th th

ME = 0 o 1
1. [Ans. A]
√ √
Since, potential function of ⃗ is x²yz = 0 1
( ) ( ) ( )
9. [Ans. B]
2. [Ans. D]
o h 10. [Ans. B]
π h π o ( ) ( )
ww
For V to be max
Hence, h
This is of the form . /
Applying L hospital rule
3.
w.E
[Ans. A]
=
( )
. /
(
asy ) | | | | =
=
En
4. [Ans. A]
After changing order ∫ ∫ ( )
gi
11. [Ans. B]
Let the vectors be
nee
5. [Ans. A]
rin
( )(⃗ )(⃗ )
I= ∫ (
=2∫
= 2∫
)
[ ∫ ]
g
Now Area vector will be perpendicular to
.ne
plane of i.e.
6. [Ans. A] will be the required unit vector.
A Line integral and a surface integral is And option (A), (D) cannot give a vector
connected by stokes theorem
product
|(⃗ ⃗ ) (⃗ )|
7. [Ans. B]
12. [Ans. B]
Applying ’ Hospital rule, we get
Given: √ √ √
I=
( ) √
I=
( )
8. [Ans. A]
For
∫ 0 1 [ ]
th th th

But y is always greater than x. = ∫ ( )

Hence y= 4 only.
= ∫ ( )
13. [Ans. B] = 0 1
Since interval given is bounded, so
minimum value of functions is 1. =
14. [Ans. D] 18. [Ans. B]

L=
( )
h h ∫√ ( )
Let x= a3 ⇒ a=2
( )
L =∫ (√ ).dx
ww = ( ) |
Now by partial fractions,
(a3 8) = (a 2)(a2+2a+4)
15.
w.E=1.22
[Ans. D] 19.
⇒L=
[Ans. C]
=
asy
To see whether the integrals are bounded
or unbounded, we need to see that the
Taylor series expansion of f(x) about a is
given by
o ’ h h
interval of integration. Let us write down En ( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( )
( )
the range of the integrands in the 4

options,
A (0,1); B (0,1); C (0, ); D (0, )
gi ⇒
⇒nee
Coefficient of (x- )⁴
Now f(x)= ex
(x)= ex
(a)= ea
Thus, (D) , i.e., ∫ dx is unbounded.
rin
Hence for a=2,
( )
16. [Ans. B]
h
along a vector ⃗
o o
(
o Φ
Φ)
⃗⃗
20. [Ans. D]
div {(
g (
)̂
)
(
(
)̂
)
(
.ne
(
)̂}
)
Hence directional derivative is
( ̂ ̂) =3
(grad (x2+2y2+z)).
√
̂ ̂)
(2x ̂ ̂ ̂ ). ( 21. [Ans. C]
=
Hence at (1,1,2),
⇒
Directional derivative =
⇒ ( )
17. [Ans. A]
I = ∬ .dx dy
⇒ ( )
The limit of y is form 0 to and limit
of x from 0 to 2 ( )( )
I =∫ ∫ ∫ . /
th th th

22. [Ans. A] 23. [Ans. A]

Given: Short method:
y 2  4x Take a point on the curve z = 1, x = 0,
y=0
x2  4y
Length between origin and this point
√( ) ( ) ( ) =1
(4,4) This is minimum length because all
(0,0) options have length greater than 1.
24. [Ans. B]
x4 Y
  4x
16
ww
or x4  64x
or x(x  64)  0
3
B
w.E
or x3  64
or x  4
 y 4
x = cos 
A
X
asy
 Required area = ∫ .√ /
y=sin 
Path is x2  y 2  1
 2 x3 
 2  x3 2   
3 12 0
4
En R  e
(x  y)2  1  2sin  cos 
4

  (4)3 2 
3
32 16 16
64
12
gi nee
2
 cos2 
  (1  sin2)d   
0  2 0
2
    1 1 
3 3
Alternately
3
=
rin
   1
2 2 2 2
Alternately
For point where both parabolas cut each
other
y2  4x, x2  4y
g
Given: x2  y 2  1
Put x=cos  , and y=sin 
.ne
x  y
2
 cos2   sin2   2sin cos 
 x2  4 4x
= 1  sin2
or x2  8 x
or x4  64x
∫ ( )
or x3  64
 x   4,0 ,(4,0)  cos2    1 1
2
       
 Required area  2 0  2 2 2
4 4
x2  
  4x   dx    1
0 0 4 2 
4
 2 x3  16
 2  x3 2     25. [Ans. C]
 3 12 0 3
F  3xzi  2xyj  yz2k
⃗ ⃗
th th th

( ) ( ) ( ) √
 3z  2x  2yz
π ∫ π* +
At point (1, 1, 1), divergence =3+2 2=3
π
π( )
26. [Ans. D]
⃗
o ⃗ ⃗ 30. [Ans. D]
̂ ̂ ̂ If f(x) even function
∫ ( ) ∫ ( )
|| ||
31. [Ans. D]
ww o
̂
(
( )̂
) ̂ ̂
Standard limit formulae
27.
w.E
[Ans. C]
32. [Ans. B]
⇒ asy 33. [Ans. C]
En The function is continuous in [ 1, 1]

It is also differentiable in [ 1, 1] except at
1 1 2
gi x = 0.
Since Left derivative = 1 and
nee Right derivative = 1 at x = 0
y is continuous for all x R, and

34.
rin
[Ans. B]
o
differentiable for all x

since at o o
R, except at
’ h
,
g
Using this standard limit, here a = 1 then
= ( ) /2 =1/2 .ne
value towards the left and right side of
35. [Ans. D]
( )
( )
28. [Ans. D] ( )
( )
∫ , - π
f(x) has a point of inflection at x =0.
29. [Ans. D] 36. [Ans. A]
∫ π ( )
Volume from x = 1 to x = 2, ̂ ̂ ̂
̂ ̂ ̂
∫π
( )
√ √
th th th

̂ 38. [Ans. A]
̂ ̂
√ √ By Gauss Divergence theorem,
√ ̂ √ ̂ ̂
√ √ ∬( ̅ ̅) ∭( )
The unit outward normal vector at point
P is (Surface Integral is transformed to
volume Integral)
( )
( ) ( ) ( )
(√ ̂ √ )̂
̂ ̂
√ √
∭( ) ∭
37.
ww
[Ans. A]
The area enclosed is shown below as
w.E
shaded
π
π
asy ( ) ∬( ̅ ̂) ∭( )
En ( π)
obtained by solving
(
y = x and y = simultaneously,
)
The coordinates of point P and Q is
gi 39.
nee
π
[Ans. C]
i.e. x =
⇒ ( )
rin ∫(√ ) ( )
⇒
Now, x = 0 ⇒
and x = 1 ⇒
P(1,1)
which is point Q(0,0)
which is point
∫
Here,
g
Using Integration by parts
∫
.ne
So required area is f=ln(x) and dg=√
and g=
∫ ∫ o
∫(√ ) ( )
* + * +
[ ] ∫ ( )
[ ] [ ]
( )
th th th

40. [Ans. A] π
0 o 1
So the minimum value is
[Differentiating both . /
=
o o o w ’
Hospital method]
. / 45. [Ans. D]
o o o o ( ) o
o o
( ) ( )
otherwise it is said to be discontinuous.
41. [Ans. B]
ww
G o
46.
So the most appropriate option is D.
[Ans. C]
|
w.E |
Vectors are linearly dependent

Div
̂ ̂ ̂ ( )
42. asy
[Ans. B]
(
)
)
( En
( )
o ( )( )
( )
, ho -
gi 47. [Ans. B]
nee
Let
( ) ( )
o ( )( ) ∫
rin
( ) o ( )
43. [Ans. A]
⃗
̂ ̂ ̂
( g ) ()
∫
o
o
.ne o
[ ]
48. [Ans. B]
̂ [ ( ) ( )]
∫ ∫ ∫ |
̂ [ ( ) ( )]
∫ , -
̂[ ( ) ( )]
̂, - ,̂ - ̂, - ∫ ( ) |
( )̂ ( )̂ ( )̂
[ ]
44. [Ans. *] Range 1.00 to 0.94
h o , - , -
π
th th th

CE a =2a cos i.e, cos ⇒

1. [Ans C]
R
G ’ theorem is ( )

∮(  ) ∬( ) ( )
Here I = ∮ ( )
, ∫ ∫ -
∮ (( ) ( ) )
 = xy =∫ ∫ ( o )

= y and = 2y o
∫( )
’ h o w
ww
I= ∫
=∫ ∫
∫ , ( )-
π
. / | |
=∫
w.E ∫ π
. / (
π π √
)
2. [Ans. D]
asy
Since the position of rail engine S(t) is
continuous and differentiable function
*
π
π π
(
π
√
√
)+
according to Lagrange’s mean value

theorem more En * +
=
(t) = v(t) =
( )
m/sec
( ) ( )
gi nee
(
π √
)
= ×
= 126 kmph
kmph
Where v(t) is the velocity of the rail

4.
r
[Ans. C]
f = 2 +3
ing ( )⃗
3.
engine.
[Ans. D]
= 4xi + 6yj + 2zk
At P (2, 1, 3)
. ne
h ’ o h
r=2acos Directional derivation ̂
(i) r = a represents a circle with centre ( )
( )
( ) ‘ ’ √ ( )
(ii) r = 2acos represents a circle ( ) ( ) ( )
symmetric about OX with centre at
√
( ) ‘ ’
The circles are shown in figure below. At
√
h o o o ‘ ’
P 5. [Ans. A]
y Q
Potential function,
π 3
x
O A
th th th

8. [Ans. D]
Put √
Integrating ∫ ∫
 =√
wh o
 =√ …… ( )
⇒
Now given equation is
……….. (ii)
6. [Ans. B] h h h
Let I(α) ∫ dx …( ) ( ) ( )
ww =∫ (
= ∫
) . / = ( √ ) [ from eqn(i)]
w.E
Then Integrating by parts we get,
= 0 ( α o )1
√ (
h
)
asy
=
= . / √ ( ( ) )
dI =
En √ (
h
√ )
Integrating, I =
( )
+C=0
o
α
() ( )
gi nee
h
C=
(α) α
π
rin
Now substitute in eqn (ii) we get
 ( )
I(0) =
π
⇒
g h h
h h .ne
But from equation (i), I(0) = ∫ dx
h h
⇒
∫ dx =
Which is the desired form
7. [Ans. D]
√ is the correct transformation.
̅=5 +2 + 3y ⃗
(⃗ ) 9. [Ans. C]
̅ ̅=0
= 5y + 4y + 6yz
̅ ̅ o
At(1, 1, 1)
If ̅ ̅ = 0
div ( ) = 5.1 + 4.1 + 6.1.1
= 15  o
Since P and Q are non-zero vectors
 o
 0
th th th

10. [Ans. A] √
Since the limit is a function of x. We first √
√ √
integrate w.r.t. y and then w.r.t. x √
∫ ∫( )
13. [Ans. D]
Length of curve f(x) between x = a and
x = b is given by
∫ ∫( )
∫√ ( )
∫ * +
Here, 4h … … ( )
ww ∫ ( )
= 8h
Since
w.E ∫ ( )
and y = h at x =
(As can be seen from equation (i), by
substituting x = 0 and x = L/2)
asy
* ( ) ( )+
(Length of cable)
* +
En =∫ √ . /
11. [Ans. B]
gi nee
ho ∫ √
h
14. [Ans. A]
f = + 3 +2
f = grad f = i +j +k
rin
= i(2x) + j(6y) + k(4z)
The gradient at P(1, 2, 1) is
= i(2×1) + j(6×2) + k(4 ( ))
g .ne
= 2i + 12j – 4k 15. [Ans. A]
( )
12. [Ans. B]
( )
⃗
⃗ ̂
⃗ Putting,
⃗
√
o ̂ Given,
( ) . / is the only stationary point.

√
* +
. /
√
th th th

Since the limit is in form of , we can use

* +
. / ’ ho o o o ()
and get
* + λ
. /
Since, π
⇒λ
Since, ⇒λ
We have either a maxima or minima at
. / 18. [Ans. A]
Also since, r=0 1 = 8 > 0, the point ( )

o
ww
. /
o
( ) o o ( )
(w.E
The minimum value is
)
19. [Ans. A]
, o -
asy Area = |̅ ̅ |
̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅
R ( ) ( )
So the optimal value of f(x, y) is a

minimum equal to En | |
16. [Ans. B]
√
gi ̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅
nee
R
̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅
R
( ) ( ) ̅( )
Let I = ∫ …( )
Since ∫ ( )
√ √
∫ ( )
20.
rin
[Ans. B]
I=∫
√
√
(i) + (ii)  2I = ∫
√
…( )
√
√
√
√
21. [Ans. B]g .ne
 2I = ∫ ∫ o
2I = |
∫ o o
 I = a/2
⇒ o
17. [Ans. C]
For a function f(x) to be continuous, ⇒ ∫ ( )
at x=a
( ) ( ) ∫ ( )
If f(x) is continuous at x=
π λ o * +
. /
[ ]
th th th

( ) ( ) ( )
[ ] | |
Substituting the values we get

( ) ( ) ( )
| |
24. [Ans. 12]
π π
ww ∫ o
w.E∫
∫
o
o
(
o
o )
( )
asy
∫ o
o ( )
[ ] En ⇒
( )
22. [Ans. C] gi Magnitude of acceleration

=√
nee ( )
( ) 25. [Ans. B]
⇒ ( )
We have
rin
⇒
, ow -
∫ ( )
g .ne
∫ ( ) ∫ ( )
=1+0=1
Hence correct option is (C)
∫ ( )
23. [Ans. A]
(4, 3)
a
(2, 2)
c
b x ( )μ
(1, 0) 0.5 0.5

o ∆ wh o –ordinate points are
given is given by
th th th

26. [Ans. A]
=
α = =1
Use L – hospital Rule
4. [Ans. A]
α
P=∑ … ( –1)
o
= log x ‘ ’ w h a =1, l=2k 1
P= ( ) ( )
CS =
1. [Ans. B] Q=∑ … k

1
ww
1  x 
n

r 0
n 1  r
Cr x r
1 
‘ ’
(
w h
) (
k
)
w.E
Putting n=2,

  r 1 Cr x r   r 1 C1 x r

1  x 
2

r 0
2 1  r
Cr x r
asy
r 0 r 0
   r  1 x r    i  1 x i

5. [Ans. D]
r 0 i 0
(since r is a dummy variable, r can be En y = 3 – 16

= 12 48
– 24
– 48 x = 0
+ 37
replaced by i)
∑ ()
gi x (12 – 48x 48 ) = 0
nee
x = 0 or 12 – 48x – 48 = 0
4x – 4 = 0
g(i) =i+1
=2 rin
x=
√
√
=
√
=
√
2. [Ans. A]
f(x)= |x|
Continuity: In other words,
f(x) = x o ≥
g
= 36
Now at x = 0
96x 48
.ne
= 48 0
x for x< 0
Since, = =0 , At 2 ± √ also 0 (using
f (x) is continuous for all real values of x calculator)
Differentiability: There are 3 extrema in this function
( ) ( )
( ) 6. [Ans. D]
( )
Since ∫ ( ) =∫ ( )
R h 
I =∫
So |x| is continuous but not differentiable ( )

at x=0 =∫
( )
Since tan (A B) =
3. [Ans. A]
⁄
= ⁄
th th th


[ ]
∫
[ ]
 9. [Ans. B]
0 1
∫ f(x) = sin x
0 1 ⇒ ( ) o
 ( ) ⇒ o
( ) ( ) π π π π
∫ [ ]
( ) ( )
  ( )
∫ ∫ At . / gives maximum
ww
=, ( )-
value
At . / gives minimum
w.E
= ln ( sec ) – ln (sec 0)
= ln (√ )
= ln ( )–0=
( )
10.
value
[Ans. A]
7.
asy
[Ans. B]
For x = , f(x) =
For x = , f(x) = 3 – 1 = 2
( ) *( ) + En For x = 3, f(x) = 2
( ) ( ) = f(3)
* ( ) + gi 11.
nee
[Ans. C]
By Mean value theorem
. /
( ) [ ]
12.
rin
[Ans. A]
8. [Ans. D]
€(
g
Define g(x) = f(x) – f(x + 1) in [0, 1]. g(0)
) h h g(y) = 0
.ne
is negative and g(1) is positive. By
intermediate value theorem there is
o That is f(y) = f(y + 1)

∫
o Thus Answer is (A)
∫ 13. [Ans. 2]
* w +
* w +
∫ For min maximum non – common
elements must be there
⇒ * +
* + must be common to any 2 elements
of V1
[ ] ( )minimum value = 2
, -( o π π )
th th th

14. [Ans. 4]
∫ | ∫∫
∫ π
o ( )
oπ π o (π)
π o π π
Hence option (A) is correct
∫ ∫( )
ECE
1. [Ans. C]
ww ∫ ∫ (∫ )
w.E o ∫ o dy
dx
 0 for x< 0
asy o
Substituting the limits
π o (π) o ( )
dy
dx
 0 for x> 0
π
En 2. [Ans. A]
ex
∫
gi Given,
nee
 f ' x  
f x 
1  e .e  e
x
1  ex
x 2x

ex
0
∫ | ∫∫
1  e   
2 2
x
1  ex
= x cos 3. rin
[Ans. C]
= π o ( π) π o π
= π
∫
g .ne
LHS = I + II = π π π⇒
∫( o )
15. [Ans. A] Let cos = t ⇒

At o
∫ o
π o π
o
∫ o | ∫ ∫ o
∫( ) ∫( )
∫
| |
∫ ( ) ( )
th th th

8. [Ans. A]
Given, f  x   x2  x  2
df  x 
0
dx
4. [Ans. A]  2x 1=0
o ’ h o 1
 x
∬( ) ∮ 2
d2f  x 
 = 2 ve 
5. [Ans. D] dx2
From vector triple product So it shows only minima for interval
[ 4, 4], it contains a maximum value that
ww (
Here,
⇒ (
)
)
(
(
)
)
(
(
)
)
will be at x= 4 or x=4
 f( 4)=18 and f(+4)=10
6.
w.E
[Ans. A]
( ) ( )
9. [Ans. D]
y  f  x  ; x  0,  
( )
asy  x  x0  f ' x0   x  x 0 
2
f '' x0 
For strictly bounded, 0  limy  
x 0
 f  x0  
1

2
En  ...... or 0  lim y  
x 
 x  2
gi
2 2
So, y  e x is strictly bounded
2
 e  (x  2)(e )  2
 e ......
2

 e2  3  x 
 x  2
2

 ...... 
2
10.
nee
[Ans. A]
sin  /2 1  sin  /2 


2
(Neglecting higher power of x)

 lim
0
rin 
 lim 
0 2
  /2 

7. [Ans. C]
coth (x)= =
ex  e x
= lim
g
1  sin  /2  1

2  0  /2  2
.ne
ex  e x
11. [Ans. B]
x x 2 x3 Two points on line are ( 1, 0) and (0, 1)
e  1     ..........
x
1 2 3 Hence line equation is,

x x 2 x3  y  y1 
e x  1     .......... y  2 x  c
1 2 3  x 2  x1 
x2 x 4 y  x c
1   ..........
ex  e x 2 4 y  x 1 … ( )
 
ex  e x x3 x5 2 2
x    .......... 5
3 5 I   ydx    x  1 dx   2.5
1 1 2
1
or cot h (x)= (Since at x=1,y=2)
x
(Neglecting x2 and higher order)
th th th

12. [Ans. B] 15. [Ans. A]

Taking f(x, y)= xy, we can show that, Given : g  x,y   4x3  10y 4
xdx+ydy, is exact. So, the value of the
The straight line can be expressed as
integral is independent of path
y=2x
(0, 1) Then g(x,y)=4x3+ 10 (2x)4

1 1

4
 
I   4x3  10 2x   dx   4x3  160x 4 dx
0 0
1
 4x 4 160 5 
(1, 0) =   x   33
 4 5 0
ww ∫( ) 16. [Ans. A]
f(x)= +
w.E ∫ ∫
(x)=
(x)= +
=0 x=0
>0  x R.
asy
[ | | ]
Hence minimum at x=0
f(0)=1+1=2
Alternatively:
En For any even function the maxima &

minima can be found by
13. [Ans. B]
Let f(x)  ex  sinx
o ’
gi A.M. >= GM
nee
=> exp(x) + exp( x) ≥ 2
Hence minimum value = 2
f  x   f  a    x  a  f ' a  
x  a
2!
2
f '' a  17.
rin
[Ans. B]
where, a=
 f  x   f      x    f '   
 x  
2
f ''  
g Q
.ne
2!
f ''   P
Coefficient of (x )2 is
2
f ''   e  sinx |at x   e
x 
 Coefficient of (x )2=0.5 exp () ∫( )
14. [Ans. A]
∫ ∫
o [ | | ]
Thus, ( )w h o ow
( )w h ow
o ( )w h ow
o ( )w h ow
th th th

18. [Ans. D] 21. [Ans. A]

sinx = x ....
sin (x –π ) y= o
( ) ( )
= (x – π ) – .... o  o
( ) ( ) 
or sin x = (x – π ) – ...
( ) ( ) o
or =1 – ....
( )
( )
( ) ( )  = o
or = 1 ....
( )
Since
19. [Ans. D] Therefore, at has a maximum.
ww
∮
o ’ h o
⃗ ⃗ = ∬⃗ ⃗ 22. [Ans. D]
Apply the divergence theorem
w.E
According Stokes Theorem
∮ ⃗ ⃗ =∮ ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗
∯ ⃗ ∭
20.
asy
[Ans. C]
̂ ̂ (
( )∭
and is the position vector)
⃗⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
̂ ̂
En 23. [Ans. A]
1
Y
S R gi nee
̅ ⇒ [ (
̂
)]
̂
Q
P ⇒
rin
[ ( )]
∮ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
√ √
X ⇒
⇒
⇒
( g (
)
)
⇒
.ne
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
√
24. [Ans. C]
√
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ * + [ ] ( ) , -
√ √ ( ) ( )
= [ along PQ y =1 dy =0] ( ) ⇒
are the stationary points
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ .√ / , - ( )
( ) ( )
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
√
∫√ . / and f(2) = 25 and f(4)=21
√ √
M o ( ) , -
[ ] f(6)=41
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ .√ / ( )
25. [Ans. B]
∮ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
⇒
th th th

o 30. [Ans. C]
E o
( )
π
⇒
31. [Ans. *] Range to 0.01
E o o ( ) ( )
26. [Ans. D] ( )
̅ ̂ ̂ ̂ ⇒
⇒
( )
= ( )
ww =1+1+1
=3 o
( )
h
27.
w.E
[Ans. D]
o ’ h o “ h integral of a
32. [Ans. *] Range 5.9 to 6.1
Maximum value is 6
( )
asy⃗
vector around a closed path L is equal
to the integral of curl of ⃗ over the open
( )
∮⃗ ⃗
o
∬(
h o
⃗ )⃗ En
h ”
(
(
)
)
28. [Ans. *] Range 862 to 866

Volume under the surface
gi (
(
nee
)
)
33. [Ans. C]
∫ ∫ ∫
rin
Let x (opposite side), y (adjacent side)
and z (hypotenuse side) of a right angled
∫
∫
∫
*
(
+
) triangle
g .ne
∫
Given o …
( )( o )
29. [Ans. A]
o o
( )
̇( ) ⇒ ( ) o ⇒
⇒ ( ) o
Since ( ) is negative, maximum value of ⇒
o
f(x) will be where ( )
0( )
1
⇒ ⇒
o oh
⇒ ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ( )( ))
( )
th th th

By trial and error method using options Now at x = 2

π (2) = ( )
= ( )
= 2 <0
34. [Ans. *] Range 6.8 to 7.2 At x = 2 we have a maxima.
⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ = 0 1
̂ ̂ ̂
At (1, 1, 1) ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ 3. [Ans. C]
|⃗ | √ =∫ , - , -
= . /
35.
ww
[Ans. *] Range 2.99 to 3.01
√
( )
√
( )
4. [Ans. D]
⃗
w.E √
At (1, 1), ⃗
(
√
)̂
(̂ ̂ )
√
( )̂ 5. [Ans. D]
We consider options (A) and (D) only
because which contains variable r.
asy
Given unit vector, ̂
So, directional derivative
√
(̂ ̂ ) By integrating (D), we get
π , which is volume of cone.
⇒ ⃗ ̂ (̂
=3
̂ )
√
(̂
√
̂ )
En6. [Ans. D]
EE
1. [Ans. C]
gi By property of definite integral
nee
∫ ( ) ∫ ( π )
On simplification we get option (D)
Grad u = ̂ ⁄
7.
rin
[Ans. B]
f(x) = ( )
At (1, 3) Grad u = √
=√
,( ⁄ ) -
g
(x) = 2(
=4x( ) =0
)
.ne
x = 0, x = 2 and x = 2 are the stationary
2. [Ans. A] points.
f(x) = (x) = 4[x(2x) +( ) ]
(x) = ( ) = 4[2 -
= ( ) = 4 [3 -
Putting ( (x) = 0 = 12
( )=0 (0) = < 0, maxima at x = 0
( )=0 (2) =(12)
x = 0 or x = 2 are the stationary points. = 32 > 0, minima at x =
Now, ( 2) =12( )
(x) = ( ) ( )( ) = 32 > 0; minima at x =
= ( ( )) There is only one maxima and only two
= ( ) minima for this function.
At x = 0, (0) = ( )=2
Since (x) = 2 is > 0 at x = 0 we have a
minima.
th th th

8. [Ans. A] 13. [Ans. B]

P=∫
= , -
1
=, ( )-
= ( ) ( ) =1
0
14. [Ans. B]
Dot product of two vectors
√ =1+a+ =0
So orthogonal
∫ ∫ ( )
15. [Ans. C]
9. ww
[Ans. C]
( )
f(x) =
( )
w.E
( )
( )
( )
( )
So the equation f(x) having only maxima
at x = 1
asy
( ) 16. [Ans. B]
10. [Ans. D]
̅=( )̂ ( )̂ En ̂ ̇̂
(
(
) = (0, 2)
) = (2, 0)
Equation of starting line =
gi ∫
nee ̂
∫
̂
̂
Along x axis ,y=0,z=0

̂ ̂
̂
⇒ y = 2 – x , dy = – dx
̅ ̅ =( ) ( ) rin
The integral reduces to zero.
Putting
∫̅ ̅ ∫
y = 2 – x and dy = – dx
∫ ( )
17. [Ans. D]
C
go
( )
o .ne
‘ ’
11. [Ans. B]
.( )̂ ( )̂
( )
( )̂ /
But at is undefined
̂ ̂ ̂
Discontinuous
|| ||
12. [Ans. A] ( ) ( ) ( )
̂ ̂ ̂
̂ ( ) ̂ ( ) ̂ ( )
Div ( ) ⃗ =0
̂
=. ̂ ̂ /( ̂ ̂ ̂)
18. [Ans. A]
= 1+1+1= 3
( ) ( ) ( )
o ( ) ( )
⇒
M
th th th

19. [Ans. B] 23. [Ans. A]

( ⃗) ⃗ ⃗
∫⃗
( ) ( )
⃗
∫ [ ]
⇒ o o π
∫ ( )( )( ) 24. [Ans. B]
( )
o ( ) ⇒
∫ ( ) [ ]
⇒
π ⇒( )( )
⇒
20. [Ans. C] ( ) w , -
ww
( )
( )
( ) ( )
( )
o
w.E (
( ) (
)
For number of values of
) ⁄
( ) ( )
( )
asy ( ) (
( )
) IN
1. [Ans. A]
M
En
21. [Ans. B]
G gi ⇒
nee ( )
o h o Unit vector along y = x is
o o
̂
rin o
π
G
⇒
∫ .∫
o
/
̂
g √
o
√
̂ .ne
∫ .∫ / . /. /
√ √
√ √
22. [Ans. 2]
( ) √
√
∫ ∫ o . / . /
2. [Ans. D]
Using L Hospital Rule., numerator
()
becomes = = ( )
3. [Ans. B]
From the graph, distance at
π Given integral is, I=∫
0 . /1
Let f(x) = so curve of 1/ will be
th th th

f(x)
( ) ( )
The possible expression for f(x) is
1 . /
7. [Ans. B]
-1 0 1 x
Error,
This curve will be discontinuous at x=0
o ’ w o For error to be minimum
( o ) ( )
4. [Ans. A]
Let R ̂ z (t) ̂
̅ (t) =x (t) ̂+y (t) + ⇒ o
ww̅
|R( ) =K (constant)
i.e., (t) + (t) + (t) = constant.
⇒
⇒
w.E
On analyzing the given (A) option, we find
̅(t)
that R
̅( )
will give constant magnitude,
√
√
asy
so first differentiation of the integration will
be zero.
5. [Ans. C]
Given : En G
1
f=
where,
=
+ …… +
(i=0 to n) are constant.
+(n 1) ……
gi nee
o
+
and =0+ + ……
⇒
rin √
(n 1)
+
+n
⇒
⇒
√
g ( ) .ne
= , + + -
= nf ⇒
⇒
6. [Ans. B]
8. [Ans. B]
( ) ( )
When () ∫ ( ) …( )
( ) ( ) Differentiating the above equation

When ()
, ()
( ) ( )
When ∫ ( ) -
( ) ( )
And when From equation (i)
th th th

() 15. [Ans. C]
() ()
By definition
()
⇒ ()
16. [Ans. A]
This is Leibnitz linear equation
Unit vector= =xi+yj+zk
Integrating factor I.F = ∫ and
the solution is
17. [Ans. C]
() ∫ R:
Y
( )
ww , - o
1
1 +1 X
9.
w.E
[Ans. D]
Area = ( )
10.
asy
[Ans. A]
This is a standard question of
Total charge = σ
=
differentiability & continuity
En = coulomb.
11. [Ans. C]
y=
=( ).(cos x + sin x) = 0
gi 18. [Ans. B]
nee
We know that
∫ () ( ) ( )wh
⇒ tan x = 1
Or x =
∫ rin .
π
/
π
. /
y will be maximum at x =
=
y=
= √
19. [Ans. B]
g
Expansion of sin x
.ne
........
12. [Ans. C]
y(2) = ( )
y(5) = ( ) 20. [Ans. B]
In a G.P ( )
13. [Ans. C] For a G.P to converge
y= ( )
( )
⇒ ⇒
y=
⇒
14. [Ans. B]
21. [Ans. D]
Given y = x2 + 2x + 10
.E=0 is not irrational (it is solenoidal)
= 2x + 2
| 22. [Ans. 1]
From Gauss divergence theorem, we have
∫ ̅ ̅ ∫ ̅ ∫ ̅
th th th

∫. /dxdydz
∫ ∫ ∫ ( )
̅ ̂ ̂ ̂
[ ]
⇒
23. [Ans. C]
24. [Ans. D]
ww
/
π
π
w.E
o .
asy ( π )
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

Differential Equations
ME – 2005 (D) degree 2 order 2

1. If x xy n y then ME – 2007
what is y 7. The solution of y with initial value
(A) e (C) ⁄ y (0) = 1 is bounded in the interval
(B) 1 (D) ⁄ (A)   x   (C) x  1,x  1
(B)   x  1 (D) 2  x  2
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 2
and 3. ME – 2008
The complete solution of the ordinary 8. It is given that + 2y + y = 0, y (0) = 0,
ww
x
y
p
y
x
qy s
y(1) = 0. What is y (0.5)?
(A) 0
(B) 0.37
(C) 0.62
(D) 1.13
2. w.E
y
Then, p and q are
(A) p =3, q = 3 (C) p =4, q = 3
9. Given that ẍ + 3x = 0, and x(0) = 1,
ẋ (0) = 0, what is x(1)?
asy
(B) p =3, q = 4 (D) p =4, q = 4 (A) 0.99
(B) 0.16
(C) 0.16
(D) 0.99
3. Which of the following is a solution of the
differential equation En ME – 2009
x
(A)
y
(B) x
p
y
x
q y
(C) x
(D) x
gi 10. The solution of x
nee
condition y
(A) y
s
y
(C) y
x with the
ME – 2006 rin
(B) y (D) y
4. For +4
integral is:
(A)
+ 3y =
(C)
, the particular ME – 2010
11.
g
The Blasius equation, .ne , is a
(D) + (A) second order non-linear ordinary
(B) differential equation
(B) third order non-linear ordinary
5. The solution of the differential equation differential equation
dy 2
(C) third order linear ordinary
 2xy  e x with y (0) = 1 is:
dx differential equation
(A) (1+ x) (C) (1 x) (D) mixed order non-linear ordinary
(B) (1+ x) (D) (1 x) differential equation
6. The partial differential equation ME – 2011

12. Consider the differential equation
( ) ( )= 0 has
y x. The general solution with
(A) degree 1 order 2
constant c is
(B) degree 1 order 1
(C) degree 2 order 1 (A) y t n t n
th th th

(B) y t n ( ) 17. If y = f(x) is the solution of with

(C) y t n ( ) the boundary conditions y t
x at x __________
(D) y t n( )
18. The general solution of the differential

ME – 2012
13. Consider the differential equation equation os x y with c as a
constant, is
x x y with the boundary
(A) y s n x y x
conditions of y(0) =0 and y(1) = 1. The
complete solution of the differential (B) t n ( ) y
equation is (C) os ( ) x
ww
(A) x
(B) s n ( )
(C) s n( )
(D) s n( )
(D) t n ( ) x
w.E
ME – 2013
19. Consider two solution x(t) = x t and
x t
x t
x t of the differential equation
14. The
asy
u
partial
is a
t
x t
x t
t su t t
(A)
(B)
linear equation of order 2
non – linear equation of order 1
En x
t
|
x t
15.
(C)
(D)
linear equation of order 1
non – linear equation of order 2
The solution to the differential equation

gi x
nee
t
The wronskian W(t) =|

|
x t x t
| t
where k is a constant,
subjected to the boundary conditions
t
rin
(A) 1
s
(C) 0
u(0) = 0 and u(L) = U, is
(A) u (C) u ( ) 20.
(B) 1
g (D)
The solution of the initial value problem .ne

(B) u ( ) (D) u ( ) xy y is
(A) (C)
ME – 2014 (B) (D)
16. The matrix form of the linear system
x y and x y is CE – 2005
x x 1. Transformation to linear form by
,y- * + ,y- substituting v = y of the equation
t
x x + p(t)y = q(t)y ; n > 0 will be
,y- * + ,y-
t
x x (A) + (1 n)pv = (1 n)q
,y- * + ,y-
t (B) + (1 n)pv = (1+n)q
x x
,y- * + ,y- (C) + (1+n)pv = (1 n)q
t
(D) + (1+n)pv = (1+n)q
th th th

2. The solution of 7. The solution for the differential equation

y y , ( ) = x y with the condition that y = 1 at
in the range x is given by x = 0 is
(A) ( os x s n x) (A) y = (C) In(y) =

(B) In(y) = +4 (D) y =
(B) ( os x s n x)
(C) ( os x s n x)
8. A body originally at 600C cools down to
(D) ( os x s n x) C in 15 minutes when kept in air at a
temperature of 250C. What will be the
CE – 2006 temperature of the body at the end of 30
3.
ww
A spherical naphthalene ball expanded to
the atmosphere losses volume at a rate
proportional to its instantaneous surface
minutes?
(A) 35.20C
(B) 31.5 C
0
(C) 28.70C
(D) 150C
w.E
area due to evaporation. If the initial
diameter of the ball is 2 cm and the
diameter reduces to 1 cm after 3 months,
CE – 2008
9. The general solution of + y = 0 is
asy
the ball completely evaporates in
(A) 6 months (C) 12 months
(A)
(B)
y = P cos x + Q sin x
y = P cos x
(B) 9 months (D) Infinite time
En (C)
(D)
y = P sin x
y=Psn x
4. The solution of the differential equation
x
y = 0 is
xy x given that at x = 1, gi 10. Solution of
nee
(A) x y
= at x = 1 and y = √ is
(C) x y
(B) x y (D) x y
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) CE – 2009 rin
5. The differential equation
solv us ng t b w r
= 0.25 y is to be
mpl t Eul r’s
3y g
11. Solution of the differential equation
+ 2x = 0 represents a family of
(A) Ellipses
.ne
(C) circles
(B) Parabolas (D) hyperbolas
method with the boundary condition y = 1 at
x = 0 and with a step size of 1. What would CE – 2010
be the value of y at x = 1? 12. The order and degree of the differential
(A) 1.33 (C) 2.00
(B) 1.67 (D) 2.33 equation + 4 √( ) y = 0 are
respectively
CE – 2007 (A) 3 and 2 (C) 3 and 3
6. The degree of the differential equation (B) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 1
+ 2x = 0 is
(A) 0 (C) 2 13. The solution to the ordinary differential
(B) 1 (D) 3 equation + 6y = 0 is
(A) y = +
(B) y = +
(C) y = +
(D) y = +
th th th

14. The partial differential equation that can ECE – 2006

be formed from z = ax + by + ab has the d2 y
3. For the differential equation  k2y  0
form (w t p n q ) dx2
(A) z = px + qy the boundary conditions are
(B) z = px + pq (i) y=0 for x=0 and
(C) z = px + qy + pq (ii) y=0 for x=a
(D) z = qx + pq The form of non-zero solutions of y
(where m varies over all integers) are
CE – 2011 m x
y ∑ sn
m x
+ = x, with the condition that y = 1 at y ∑ os
ww
x = 1, is
(A) y = + (C) y = + y ∑ x
w.E
(B) y = +
CE – 2012
(D) y = +
y ∑
asy
16. The solution of the ordinary differential
equation y=0 for the boundary
ECE – 2007
condition, y=5 at x = 1 is
(A) y (C) y En k2
d2 y
dx2
 y  y 2 under the boundary
(B) y
CE – 2014
(D) y
gi conditions
nee
(i) y=y1 at x=0 and
(ii) y=y2 at x=, where k, y1 and y2 are
17. The integrating for the differential constants, is
equation s (A)
rin
y y y xp( x⁄ ) y
(A)
(B)
ECE – 2005
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
y
y
y
g y
y
y
y
y
y
xp x⁄
s n x⁄
xp x⁄
y
y
y
.ne
1. A solution of the following differential ECE – 2008
equation is given by 5. Which of the following is a solution to the
d2 y dy differential equation x t x t
2
 5  6y  0
dx dx
(A) t (C) x t t
3x 2x
(A) y  e  e (C) y  e  e
2x 3x
(B) x t
(D) x t t
2x 3x
(B) y  e  e (D) y  e  e
2x 3x
ECE – 2009
2. The following differential equation has 6. The order of the differential equation
3 3
d2 y  dy  d2 y  dy 
  y  e is
t
3  4   y 2 x
2
 4
dt 2
 dt  dt 2  dt 
(A) degree=2, order=1 (A) 1 (C) 3
(B) degree=1, order=2 (B) 2 (D) 4
(C) degree=4, order=3
(D) degree=2, order=3
th th th

7. Match each differential equation in Group ECE\EE\IN – 2012

I to its family of solution curves from 11. With initial condition x(1) = 0.5, the
Group II. solution of the differential equation,
Group I Group II t x t is
dy y 1. Circles
P.  (A) x t (C) xt
dx x
dy y 2. Straight Lines (B) x t (D) x
Q. 
dx x
dy x 3. Hyperbolas ECE\IN – 2012
R. 
dx y 12. Consider the differential equation
y t y t
dy x y t t
S.  t t
ww
(A)
(B)
dx y
P-2, Q-3, R-3, S-1
P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-1
wt y t | n |
y
w.E
(C)
(D)
P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-3
P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-2 (A)
(B)
num r l v lu o
(C)
t
(D) 1
| s
ECE – 2010
8. asy
Consider a differential equation ECE – 2013
y x x with the initial condition

En 13. A system described by a linear, constant
coefficient, ordinary, first order
y
is
(A) 0.01
s ng Eul r’s rst or r m t o
with a step size of 0.1, the value of y
(C) 0.0631
gi differential equation has an exact solution
nee
given by y t or t when the forcing
function is x(t) and the initial condition is
y(0). If one wishes to modify the system
(B) 0.031 (D) 0.1
rin
so that the solution becomes – 2y(t) for
t > 0, we need to
9. A function n x satisfies the differential
equation where L is a
constant. The boundary conditions are:
g
(A) Change the initial condition to – y(0)
and the forcing function to 2x(t)
(B) Change the initial condition to 2y(0) .ne
n and n . The solution to and the forcing function to –x(t)
this equation is (C) Change the initial condition to
(A) n x xp x j√ y(0) and the forcing function to
(B) n x xp x √ j√ x(t)
(C) n x xp x (D) Change the initial condition to
(D) n x xp x – 2y (0) and the forcing function to
– 2x(t)
ECE– 2011
10. The solution of the differential equation ECE – 2014
14. If the characteristic equation of the
y y is
(A) x (C) y
y has two equal roots,
(B) x (D) y
t n t v lu s o r
(A) ±1 (C) ±j
(B) 0,0 (D) ±1/2
th th th

15. Which ONE of the following is a linear EE – 2011

non-homogeneous differential equation, 3. With K as a constant, the possible solution
where x and y are the independent and for the first order differential equation
dependent variables respectively? is
(A) xy (C) xy (A) (C)
(B) xy (D) (D)
(B)
16. If z xy ln xy then EE – 2013

(A) x y (C) x y 4. A function y x x is defined over
an open interval x = (1,2). At least at one
(B) y x (D) y x
17. ww
If a and b are constants, the most general
point in this interval ,
(A) 20
(B) 25
is exactly
(C) 30
(D) 35
w.E
solution of the differential equation
t
x x
t
x s EE – 2014
5. The solution for the differential equation
(A)
(B)
asy bt
(C)
(D)
bt
t
x
x w t n t l on t ons x
18. With initial values y(0) = y (0) = 1, the

solution of the differential equation En n
x
t
| s
EE – 2005
y tx s
gi (A) t
nee
t
(B) s n t
(C) s n t
os t
os t
1. The solution of the first order differential
qu t on x’ t 3x(t), x (0) = x is rin
(D) os t t
(A) x (t) = x
(B) x (t) = x
(C) x (t) = x
(D) x (t) = x
6. Consider
x g x
the
y
.ne
Which of the following is a solution to this
EE – 2010 differential equation for x > 0?
2. For the differential equation (A) (C) x
x with initial conditions (B) x (D) ln x
x n | , the solution is IN– 2005

t
(A) x t 1. The general solution of the differential
(B) x t equation (D2 4D +4)y = 0, is of the form
(C) x t (given D = d/dx), and C1 and C2 are
(D) x t constants
(A) C1e2x (C) C1e2x + C2 e2x
(B) C1e2x + C2 (D) C1e2x + C2x
th th th

2. urv s or w t urv tur ρ t IN– 2007

any point is equal to cos θ w r θ s t
3 5. The boundary-value problem y λy
angle made by the tangent at that point y y w ll v non-zero
with the positive direction of the x-axis, solut on n only t v lu s o λ r
r gv nρ , where y and y (A) ± ± …
⁄
(B) …
are the first and second derivatives of y
(C) …
with respect to x)
(D) …
(A) circles (C) ellipses
(B) parabolas (D) hyperbolas
IN– 2008
IN– 2006
= 1 + y2. Which one of the following
3.
ww
For an initial value problem
ÿ
y
ẏ y
n ẏ
can be a particular solution of this
differential equation?
w.E
various solutions are written in the
following groups. Match the type of
solution with the correct expression.
(A) y = tan (x + 3) (C) x = tan (y + 3)
(B) y = tan x + 3 (D) x = tan y + 3
asy
Group 1
P. General solution
Group 2
1. 0.1ex
IN– 2010
of homogeneous
equations En y
y(1) is
with y(0)=1. The value of
Q. Particular integral 2.
R. Total solution
(A cos 10 x
+ B sin 10 x)
3. cos 10 x +
gi (A)
nee
(B)
(C)
(D)
satisfying boundary 0.1e x
conditions
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-3
IN – 2011
8.
rin
Consider the differential equation
4.
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1
A linear ordinary differential equation is

ÿ ẏ y
g with boundary conditions
y(0) = 1, y(1) = 0. The value of y(2) is
(A) 1
(B)
(C) –
(D)
.ne
given as
d2 y dy
2
 3  2y  δ(t) IN– 2013
dt dt
9. The type of the partial differential
Where  (t) is an impulse input. The
solut on s oun by Eul r’s orw r - equation is
difference method that uses an (A) Parabolic (C) Hyperbolic
integration step h. What is a suitable (B) Elliptic (D) Nonlinear
value of h?
(A) 2.0 (C) 1.0 10. The maximum value of the solution y(t) of
(B) 1.5 (D) 0.2 the differential equation y t ÿ t
with initial conditions ẏ and
y , for t is
(A) 1 (C)
(B) 2 (D) √
th th th

IN– 2014
11. The figure shows the plot of y as a
function of x
x
y
x
y
ww The function shown is the solution of the
w.E
differential equation (assuming all initial
conditions to be zero) is :
(C) x
asy
(A)
(B) x (D) |x|
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

ME 4. [Ans. B]
1. [Ans. D] The given differential equation may be
lnx written as
x y xy
x y y y
lnx ux l ry qu t on s
y y
x x
lnx
omp r ng w g t
x x
∫ ∫
ow x Substituting D=2, we get
y(I.F.) = ∫ x
ww x y ∫ x x
( )
x
w.Eolv ng bov
utt ng x
w sy
n t v lu o
t n n t v lu o y t
5. [Ans. B]
First order equation,

dy
dx
 Py  Q,
2.
asy
[Ans. C]
Where P = 2x and Q =
Since P and Q are functions of x, then
Given equation is
y En Integrating factor,
I.F. = e  Pdx  e x
2
x
p
p
p
x
qy
q y
q
gi Solution is
y
nee ∫ x
ts solut on s
y
um o roots p
y
rin 2
yex  x  c
∫ x
p
ro u t o roots q
q
Since, y
y
g (1 + x) e
,c=1
 x2
.ne
3. [Ans. C] 6. [Ans. A]
Given equation is Order: The order of a differential equation
y y is the order of the highest derivative
p q appears in the equation
x x
p q y Degree: The degree of a differential
ut p n q equation is the degree of the highest
y order differential coefficient or derivative,
when the differential coefficients are free
from radicals and fraction.
The general solution of differential
y x qu t on o or r ‘n’ must nvolv ‘n’
arbitrary constant.
th th th

7. [Ans. C] y
( )y x …
y x x
v n y Standard form
x
y y
x y …
y x
Where P and Q function of x only and
nt gr t ng x
y solution is given by
y ∫ x
x
nx y ∫
Where, integrating factor (I.F)
r n x
x
y
ww
x
x
x
olut on y x
∫
∫x x x
x
8.
w.E
[Ans. A]
x and x
yx
x
Given condition
y
asyy y
A.E is, D2+2D+1 =0
y
m 1
2=0
En m ns t x y
The C.F. is (C1+C2x)e-x

P.I. = 0
ow y
n y ₂
₁
₂
gi nee x
y rin r or yx
x
9. [Ans. D]
ẍ x
Auxiliary equation is
11.
y
[Ans. B]
g x
.ne
is third order ( ) and it
m2 + 3 = 0
i.e. m = ±√ is linear, since the product is not
x os√ t sn√ t allowed in linear differential equation
ẋ √ os√ t s n√ t
At t = 0 12. [Ans. D]
1=A y
y x
0=B x
y
x = os √ t ∫ ∫ x
y
x os √ t
x
t n y
10. [Ans. A]
x
Given differential equation is y t n. /
y
x y x
x
th th th

13. [Ans. A] 17. [Ans. *] Range 34 to 36

y y y
x x y
x x x
y n y y
Choice (A) satisfies the initial condition as x
well as equation as shown below y x
y x tx y
y n y y
tx
y x
lso x y x
x
y tx y
x
ww x
x
x
y
x
x
y
x
x
y
x
18. [Ans. D]
y
x
os x y
w.Ex x x
o y x is the solution to this equation with
given boundary conditions
Let x y z
y
x
z
x
14. asy
[Ans. D]
z
x
z
os z
z
15. [Ans. B] En x
z
os z os ( )
m
u
m gi s ( ) z
Integrating
nee
t n( )
z
x
x
u z
At x=0,
At x=L, rin
t n( )
x
x
y
( )
n 19.
t n(
[Ans. A]
g ) x
.ne
u x Since the determinant of wronskian
matrix is constant values for, therefore it
is same for both t=0 and t=
Solving we get u = U( ) x t x t
t x t x t
t t
16. [Ans. A]
x
x y
t
y 20. [Ans. B]
x y y
t ∫ ∫ x x ln y x ln
So by observation it is understood that, y
y
x x ln ( ) x y
,y- * + ,y-
t
v ny
n y
th th th

CE y
tx s
1. [Ans. A] x
Given + p(t) y = q(t) y ; n > 0
Given, v = y
v y
n y
t t
y v n
t n y t
Substitution in the differential equation y ( os x sn x)
we get
+ p(t)y = q(t) y 3. [Ans. A]
ww
Multiplying by (1 n) y we get
v
t
p t n y q t n
t
Where, V =
…
w.E
Now since y
v
t
n pv
= v we get
n q
t
r
r
r
t
asy
Where p is p (t) and q is q(t) Substituting in (i) we get
4 r = r )
2. [Ans. A]
y y
y En r
t
y
x
y
x
( )
x
gi  dr = kdt
nee
Integration we get
r = kt + C
At t = 0, r = 1
This is a linear differential equation
rin
1= k×0+C
y
±
( )
C=1
g
r = kt + 1
Now at t = 3 months r = 0.5 cm
0.5 = k × 3 + 1
.ne
os x sn x
os x 
sn x
os x r t
sn x utt ng r n solv ng g v s
t n
y os x sn x t
n y  t = 6 months
os sn
4. [Ans. A]
sn x os x Given
y
os x sn x x xy – x x y
x
sn x
y
os x x xy x
x
Dividing by x
th th th

y x Hence, here the degree is 1, which is

( )y ( )
x x x power of
Which is a linear first order differential of
the form
y 7. [Ans. D]
y y
x x y
Integrating factor = I.F = ∫ x
This is variable separable form
= ∫ x
= x dx
y × I.F = ∫ .(I.F)dx
x y
yx ∫( )x x ∫ x x ∫ ∫x x
x y
Now at x = 1, y = 0 x
ww
i.e. 0 ×
log y
tx y
x
Cw.E x
y
log y
asy
x y
y
–x
8. [Ans. B]
x x
En θ
= θ θ0) (Newton’s law of cooling)
5. [Ans. C]
y
x
h=1
y y tx gi θ θ
∫
nee =∫
 ln θ θ = kt +
t
Iterative equation for backward (implicit)

Euler methods for above equation would
θ θ
θ θ
rin C.
C.
be
y
y
y
y
x
y
y Now t t g
Given θ = 250C
60 = 25 + C.e0
C = 35
θ
.ne
y y y θ
 0.25hy y +y =0 At t m nut s θ 0C
Putting k = 0 in above equation 40 = 25 + 35
0.25h y y +y =0
=
Since, y = 1 and h = 1
±√ Now at t = 30 minutes
0.25 y y +1=0
Θ
y =2
= 25 + 35 ( )
6. [Ans. B] = 25 + 35 × ( ) (s n )
Degree of a differential equation is the = 31.
power of its highest order derivative after ≈ C
the differential equation is made free of
radicals and fractions if any, in derivative
power.
th th th

9. [Ans. A] 12. [Ans. A]

+y=0 y y
√( ) y
+1=0 x x
E sm m ± Removing radicals we get
General solution is
y y
y= [ cos (1 × x) + sin (1 × x)] . / 0( ) y 1
x x
= cosx + sinx
The order is 3 since highest differential
= P cosx + Q sinx
Where P and Q are some constants is
The degree is 2 since power of highest
10. [Ans. D] differential is 2
ww
y
x y
x
y dy = x dx
13. [Ans. C]
y y
y
w.E∫y y
x
∫ x x x x
Auxiliary equation is
+D–6=0
asy
At x = 1, y = √
(D 2) = 0
D = 3 or D = 2
√
En Solution is y = +
y
C=2
Solution is
x
gi 14. [Ans. C]
nee
Z = ax + by + ab …
p
z
x
x +y =4
q
rinz
y
b
11. [Ans. A]
3y
y
x
x
g
Substituting a and b in (i) in terms of p
and q we get z = px + qy + pq
.ne
x y 15. [Ans. D]
y y
y y x x x n y
x x
∫ y y ∫ x x This is a linear differential equation of the
x form
y y
y wt n x
y x x x
IF = Integrations factor
x y
∫ ∫
x
( ) ( )
Solution is
x y y (IF) = ∫ x
( ) ( )  y. x = ∫ xx x
Which is the equation of a family of ellipses  yx = ∫ x x
 yx = +C
th th th

y= +  sin ka=0

m x
Now y(1) = 1 
  m x
y ∑ sn
x
ot solut on s y
x
4. [Ans. D]
16. [Ans. D] k2D2y= y y2
y  2 1 y 2
y D  2 y  2
x  k  k
y
1
y m1 = 
ww y k
C.F. = C1e  C2 e
x/k  x/k
17.
w.E
[Ans. D]
Particular integral (P.I) =
=
∫
y= C1e  C2 e
x/k
At y=y1, x=0
 x/k
 y1 = C1+ C2+y2 …
 y2
ECE asy At y=y2 , x=  Hence C1 must be zero

 y1 = C2+y2
1. [Ans. B]
d2 y dy
 5  6y  0 En  C2 =y1 - y2
 x
dx 2
dx
A.E. is D2  5D  6  0
 D=2,3
gi 5.
 y=(y1 – y2) exp    + y2
nee
[Ans. B]
 k
Hence, solution is y  e  e
2x 3x
t
rin
x t
x t
2. [Ans. B]
3
d2 y
dt 2
 dy 
 4
 dt
3
  y 2 x

2 g
(D +3) x(t) = 0
So, x  t   ke3t , .ne

Order of highest derivative=2 Hence x  t   2e 3t
is one solution (for
Hence, most appropriate answer is (B) some boundary / initial condition)
3. [Ans. A] 6. [Ans. B]
Given, Differential equation, The order of a differential equation is the
d2 y order of the highest derivative involving
 k2y  0
dx2 in equation, so answer is 2.
Auxilary equation is The degree of a differential equation is
y the degree of the highest derivative
± involving in equation, so answer is 1.
Let y os x sn x
At x=0, y = 0  A=0 7. [Ans. A]
y sn x P. ∫ ∫
At x=a, y=0  B sin ka=0
log y log x log
B0 otherwise y=0 always
y xw s qu t on o str g t l n
th th th

Q. ∫ ∫ 11. [Ans. C]
log y log x log t x t x=1

∫
y … qu t on o yp rbol t
x
t
R. ∫y y ∫x x ol s xt ∫t t xt
y x Using initial condition, at t = 1, x = 0.5
… qu t on o ypr bol
S. ∫y y ∫x x
xt
x y … Equ t on o r l
12. [Ans. D]
8. [Ans. B]
ww y x
x
y x x
Approach 1:
y t
t
y t
t
y t t
x w.E

y y
x
x y
old y +0.1 ( ) new

Converting to s-domain
s y s sy y
y s
sy s y
0 0 asy 0+0
x y y
0+0.1×0=0
s
y s
s y s
s
s
0. 0
=0
0.1+0 0+0.1×0.1=0.01
En n nv rs
s s
pl tr ns orm
1 =0.1
0. 0.0 0.2+0.01 0.01+0.21×0.1
2 =0.21
1 =0.031
The value of y at x= 0.3 is 0.031.
gi y t
y t
y tnee
t
t
t u t
9. [Ans. D]
t
rin
Approach 2:
Auxiliary equation m
n x
m ±
y t
t g y t
t
y t t
Applying Laplace Transform on both .ne
olut on n x sides
Since, n  y
s y s sy |
t
Since, n  (hence
(sy s y ) y s
must be zero)
s y s s sy s y s
Therefore
s s
The solution is, n x y s
s s s s
10. [Ans. C] y t t t
t
Given y and y x t t
y t t
ln y x y
When t
y y t
y y t
|
t
th th th

13. [Ans. D] z
y xy ln xy xy
Let the differential equation be y
y t z z
y t x t ox y
t x y
Apply Laplace transform on both sides
y t 17. [Ans. B]
2 y t 3 {x t }
t x x
x
sy s y y s x s t t
s y s x s y Pre auxiliary equation is
x s y m m
y s
s s Pre roots of AE are m .
Taking inverse Laplace on both sides Repeated roots are present.
ww {y s } 2
x s
s
3 y {
s
}
So, most general solution in
n t bt
w.E
y t x t
So if we want
y
y t as a solution both
x(t) and y(0) has to be multiplied by .
18. [Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.55
E m m
olut ons s y bx
m
…
y
asy
Hence change x(t) by x t and y(0) by
y bx
b …
14. [Ans. A]
y y En y
s ng y
n gv s
x x
y
The auxiliary equation is
m m
gi nee
y
tx
n b
y
x
± then either
m or m
EE
1. rin
[Ans. A]
15.
i.e., roots of the equation are equal to
[Ans. A]
or
i.e. g
v n x’ t
t
x
x (t)
.ne
xy is a first order linear x
∫ ∫ t
equation non omog n ous x
lnx = t
xy 0 is a first order linear
x
equation (homogeneous)
Putting
r non l n r qu t ons
x
Now putting initial condition x(0) = x
16. [Ans. C]
x
z xy ln xy
x
z
y ln xy xy y y ln xy y Solution is x = x
x xy
i.e. x(t) = x
z
x ln xy xy x x ln xy x
y xy
2. [Ans. B]
z
ox xy ln xy xy x x
x x
t t
th th th

Auxiliary equation m m
w subst tut y
m m m x
(m+4)(m+2)=0 t nx x x( )
m= 2, 4 x x
x(t) = n y s ts s
x
x(0) = 1 1= … (1) IN

|  1. [Ans. C]
y
 … m m
On solving (1) & (2), we get and m
ww
x(t)= 2
Since there is double root at 2, so general
solution of the given differential equation
would be
3.
w.E
[Ans. A]
y
Integrate on both sides
x
2.
+
[Ans. B]
y
asy v n ρ
n ρ
os θ
y
…
…
4. [Ans. B]
y En now y’ t nθ
y
…
x
x
x
p n nt rv l
y
x gi Equating equations (i) and (ii) and using
equation (iii) in equation (ii), we get
nee
y os θ= os θ
x
x
y
x
y= .x
rin
Value is in between 20 and 30
So it is 25
3. [Ans. A]
A.E.
g
Which is equation of a parabola.
.ne
5. [Ans. C]
D= 1+ 10i
x
x gv n C.F = (A cos10 x + B sin 10 x)
t
x os t sn t x x
x n
x
sn t os t 4. [Ans. C]
t
x
| 5. [Ans. C]
t
x os t sn t 6. [Ans. A]
Given = 1 + y2
6. [Ans. C]
Integrating ∫ =∫ x
x y xy y
y y Or t n y = x + c
y Or y = t n x
x x
th th th

7. [Ans. C] 10. [Ans. D]

y y t ÿ t
y
x
Auxiliary equation, m + 1 = 0 ±
m= 1 y os x s nx
C.F = y
y= ẏ sn x os x
ẏ
y
ww
y
y
So, y
or m x m
os x s n x
8. w.E
[Ans. C]
y
s nx
x
s nx
os x
os x
asy
The solution for the differential equation
y
y
y m x
os x s n x
or x
os sn
m xm
is
y x En √
Now, y
values
We get,
y
and y
and
, placing these
gi 11.
√
nee
[Ans. D]
√ √
By back tracking, from option (D)

y
x
rin
|x| x or x
= x or x
9. [Ans. A]
Given partial differential equation is
Integrating
∫
y
x
g
∫ x x or x .ne
x t
∫ x x or x
x t x
We know that y or
(x y ) x
or x
is said to be
Parabolic if
Hyperbolic if
El ps
Compare the given differential equation
with standard from A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
Parabolic
th th th

Complex Variables
ME – 2007 ME – 2014
1. If x y and (x, y) are functions with 6. The argument of the complex number
continuous second derivatives, then
where i = √ , is
x y + i (x, y) π
π
can be expressed as an analytic function π 2
of x + i (i = √ ), when 2 π
(A)
7. The integral ∮ y x x y is evaluate
(B)
along the circle x + y traversed in
ww (C)
(D)
+
+
+ counter clock wise direction. The integral
is equal to
(A) 0 π
w.E
ME – 2008
2. The integral ∮ z z evaluated around
–
π
4
–
π
4
2
asy
the unit circle on the complex plane for
z is
8. An analytic function of a complex variable
z x + i y is expressed as
(A) 2πi
(B) 4πi
(C) 2πi
(D) 0 En z u x y +iv x y
ME – 2009
3. An analytic function of a complex variable
gi where i √
v(x,y) must be
nee
f u(x,y)= 2xy, then
(A) x + y + onst nt
(B) x y + onst nt
z = x + iy is expressed as
f(z) = u(x, y) +iv(x, y) where i = 1 . rin
(C) x + y + onst nt
(D) x y + onst nt
If u = xy, the expression of v should be
(A)
x  y 
2
2
k (C)
y 2
 x2
2
 k 9.
g
z = x + i y is expressed as
f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y),
.ne
An analytic function of a complex variable
(B)
x 2
 y2  k (D)
x  y
2
k
where i = √ . If u (x, y) = x – y , then
2 2 expression for v(x, y) in terms of x, y and
a general constant c would be
ME – 2010 (A) xy + (C) 2xy +
4. The modulus of the complex number
(B) + (D) +
( ) is
(A) 5 (C) 1/√
10. If z is a complex variable, the value of
(B) √ (D) 1/5
∫ is
ME – 2011 (A) i
5. The product of two complex numbers (B) 0.511+1.57i
1 + i and 2 – 5i is (C) i
(A) 7 – 3i (C) 3 – 4i (D) 0.511+1.57i
(B) 3 – 4i (D) 7 + 3i
th th th

CE – 2005 CE – 2011
1. Which one of the following is NOT true for 6. For an analytic function,
complex number and ? f(x + iy) = u(x, y)+iv(x, y), u is given by
̅̅̅̅
(A) =| u = 3x 3y . The expression for v
|
considering K to be a constant is
(B) | + |≤| |+| |
(A) 3y 3x + k (C) 6x 6y+k
(C) | |≤| | | |
(B) 6y – 6x + k (D) 6xy +k
(D) | + | +| |
2| | + 2| |
CE – 2014
2. Consider likely applicable of u hy’s 7. z can be expressed as
integral theorem to evaluate the following (A) i (C) i
integral counter clockwise around the (B) + i (D) + i
ww
unit circle c.
ECE – 2006
w.E ∮s z z
z being a complex variable. The value of I

1. The value
∮| |
of the contour
z in positive sense is
integral
asy
will be
(A) I = 0: singularities set = ϕ
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B) I = 0: singularities set
=, πn 2 - En 2. For the function of a complex variable
W = In Z (where, W = u + jv and
(C) I π/2: singul riti s s t
{ nπ n
2 } gi Z = x + jy), the u = constant lines get
nee
mapped in Z-plane as
(A) set of radial straight line
CE – 2006
3. Using Cauchy’s is integral theorem, the rin
(B) set of concentric circles
(C) set of confocal hyperbolas
value of the integral (integration being

taken in counter clockwise direction)
∮ dz is
ECE – 2007
3.
g
(D) set of confocal ellipses
If the semi-circular contour D of radius 2

.ne
(A) 4πi (C) πi is as shown in the figure, then the value of
(B) πi (D) 1 the integral ∮ is

j
CE – 2009
4. The analytic function f(z) = has j2
singularities at
(A) 1 and 1 (C) 1 and i 2
j2
(B) 1 and i (D) i and i
5. The value of the integral ∫ dz

(A) jπ (C) π
(where C is a closed curve given by (B) jπ (D) π
|z| = 1) is
(A) –πi (C)
(B) (D) πi
th th th

ECE – 2008 ECE – 2014

4. The residue of the function 11. C is a closed path in the z-plane given by
1 |z|=3. The value of the integral
f z  at z=2 is
 z  2  z  2 
2 2
∮( ) z is
(A) (C) (A) 4π + j2 (C) 4π + j2
(B) (D) (B) 4π j2 (D) 4π j2
5. The equation sin(z)=10 has 12. The real part of an analytic function z
(A) no real or complex solution where z x + jy is given by cos(𝑥).
(B) exactly two distinct complex The imaginary part of z is
solutions (A) os x (C) sin x
(C) a unique solution (B) sin x (D) sin x
ww
(D) an infinite number of complex
solutions EE – 2007
6.
w.E
ECE – 2009
If f(z) = + z , then ∮ z
1. The value of
contour |z-i/2| = 1 is
(A) 2πi
∮
(C) t n z
where C is the
asy
is given by
(A) 2π (C) 2πj
(B) π (D) πi t n z
(B) 2π + (D) 2πj +

En EE – 2011
2. A point z has been plotted in the complex
ECE – 2010
7. The residues of a complex function
z at its poles are
gi plane, as shown in figure below.
nee z
nit ir l
(A)
(B)
and 1
and
(C)
(D)
and
and rin
ECE – 2011
8. The value of the integral ∮ z
g lm nit ir l
.ne
lm nit ir l
where is the circle |z| is given by

(A) 0 (C) 4/5
(B) 1/10 (D) 1
y
ECE\EE\IN – 2012 y
9. If x = √ then the value of x is

⁄ lmlm nit ir l lm nit ir l
(A) (C) x
(B) ⁄ (D) 1
y
10. Given f (z) . If C is a
counterclockwise path in the z – plane
such that |z+1| =1, the value of y
∮ z z is
(A) 2 (C)
(B) (D) 2
th th th

EE – 2013 IN – 2005
3. ∮ z evaluated anticlockwise around 1. Consider the circle | | 2 in the
complex plane (x, y) with z = x + iy. The
the circle |z i| 2 where i √ , is
minimum distant form the origin to the
(A) 4π (C) 2 + π
circle is
(B) (D) 2 +2i
(A) √2 2 (C) √ 4
(B) √ 4 (D) √2
4. Square roots of – i, where i = √ , are
(A) i, i
2. Let ̅, where z is a complex number
(B) os ( ) + i sin ( ) not equal to zero. The z is a solution of
os ( ) + i sin ( ) (A) z (C) z
(B) z (D) z
ww
(C) os ( ) + i sin ( )
os ( ) + i sin ( ) IN – 2006
w.E
(D) os ( ) + i sin (
os ( ) + i sin ( )
)
3. The value of the integral of the complex
function
f(s)
3s  4
EE – 2014 asy (s  1)(s  2)

Along the path s  3 is
5. Let S be the set of points in the complex
plane corresponding to the unit circle. En (A) 2j
(B) 4j
(C) 6j
(D) 8j
(That is, {z: |z| } . Consider the
function f(z)=zz* where z* denotes the
complex conjugate of z. The f(z) maps S to
which one of the following in the complex
gi IN – 2007
4. nee
For the function of a complex variable
plane
(A) unit circle rin
z, the point z=0 is
(A) a pole of order 3
(B) horizontal axis line segment from
origin to (1, 0)
(C) the point (1, 0)
g
(B) a pole of order 2
(C) a pole of order 1
(D) not a singularity .ne
(D) the entire horizontal axis
5. Let j = √ .Then one value of is
6. All the values of the multi-valued complex (A) √j (C)
function , where i √ are (B) 1
(D)
(A) purely imaginary.
(B) real and non-negative. IN – 2008
(C) on the unit circle. 6. A complex variable x+j has its
(D) equal in real and imaginary parts. real part x varying in the range
to + . Which one of the following is
7. Integration of the complex function the locus (shown in thick lines) of 1/Z in
z , in the counter clockwise the complex plane?
direction, around |z 1| = 1, is
(A) πi (C) πi
(B) (D) 2πi
th th th

IN – 2010
m gin ry
m gin ry
10. The contour C in the adjoining figure is
xis
xis
described by x + y . The value of
∮ z is.
l xis l xis
j (Note: √ )
j y
pl n
m gin ry
m gin ry
xis
xis
x
l xis l xis
ww j
j (A) 2πj
(B) 2πj
(C) 4πj
(D) 4πj
7. w.E
IN – 2009
The value of ∮ where the contour
IN – 2011
11. The contour integral ∮ / with C as
asy
of integration is a simple closed curve
around the origin, is
the counter-clockwise unit circle in the z-
plane is equal to
(A) 0
(A) 0
(B) 2πj
(C)
(D)
En (B) 2π
(C) 2π√
(D)
8. If z = x+jy, where x and y are real. The

value of | | is
gi nee
(A) 1
(B) √
(C)
(D)
rin
9. One of the roots of the equation 𝑥 =j,
where j is positive square root of 1, is
(A) j (C)
√
j
g .ne
√ √
(B) +j (D) j
th th th

ME 4. [Ans. B]
1. [Ans. B] + 4i + 2i
By definition C-R equation holds 2i + 2i
+ i + 4i
+ 2i
2. [Ans. A] +4
f(z)= has simple pole at z = 0 Modulus = √
Residue of f(z) at z = 0
5. [Ans. A]
lim z z lim os z
+i 2 i
∫ z z 2πi (residue at z = 0)
2 i + 2i i i
3.
ww
[Ans. C]
2πi 2πi
6. [Ans. C]
w.E
Given u=xy
For analytic function
u v
+i
2i
i i
+i
+i
+ 2i + i
i

asy
x y
u v
2
rg (
i
+i
i
+ i
) t n ( )
and
y

x
By Milne Thomson method En π⁄
2
Let w = u + iv
dw u v
 i
dz x x
gi 7. [Ans. C]
nee
∫y x x y
y = r sin x r os

u u
i
x y
rin
y r os x r sin
or
dw
dz
 y  ix
Replacing x by z and y by 0, we get

∮
∮
g r sin
r
r os
r 2π .ne
π
2
dw
 0  iz
dz
Where, z = x + iy 8. [Ans. C]
u v
dw = izdz
x y
z2
Integrating, w  i C v
2 2y
y
Where C is a constant,
2y
z + x v
v m0 i + 1 2
2 y + x v
 (x2  y 2  2ixy)  u v
  m  i 
 2  y x
2x x
y 2  x2
or v  2x
2 + x
2
x x
th th th

v y x 2. [Ans. B]
y x + onst nt
∫s z z z ∫
os z
9. [Ans. C] The poles are at z = n + /2 π
iv n u x y = π/2 π/2 + π/2
v v None of these poles lie inside the unit
v x+ y
x y circle |z| =1
v u v u Hence, sum of residues at poles = 0
y x x y Singularities set = ϕ and
u u 2πi [sum o r si u s o t z t th
v x+ y
y x poles]
2y x + 2x y 2 πi
ww rm ont ing y t rms only llow

v 2 xy + 3. [Ans. A]
u hy’s int gr l th or m is
10.
∫
w.E
[Ans. B]
z
ln z| ln i ln
f(a) =
i.e. ∮
∮
z 2πi
z
z
asy ln + ln i
ln ln
ln
+ ln i
Now, ∮ z= ∮
( )
z
z i
os + i sin
i sin π/2 En pplying
z z
u hy’s int gr l th or m, using
+ i
(
z
ln i ln z
i
π
2
ln
/
i
/
)
gi nee
i
.2πi ( )/
i
.2πi 0( ) 1/
CE rin i
.2πi 0( ) 1/
1. [Ans. C]
(A) is true since
=
̅̅̅̅
̅̅̅̅
=|
̅̅̅̅
|
g 2π
2π
i 4πi
.ne
(B) is true by triangle inequality of 4πi
complex number
(C) is not true since | |≥| | | | 4. [Ans. D]
(D) is true since z z z
z
| + |2 = ( + ) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
+ z + z z i z+i
= ( + ) (z̅ + z̅ ) The singularities are at z = i and –i
= z̅ + z̅ + z̅ + z̅ i
And | |2 = ( + ) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅ 5. [Ans. C]
= ( + ) (z̅ z̅ ) os 2πz
r ∫
= z̅ + z̅ z̅ + z̅ ii 2z z
Adding (i) and (ii) we get * +
| + |2 + | |2 = 2 z̅ + 2 z̅ ∫
2 *z +
= 2| | + 2| |
th th th

in z is point with in |z|=1(the 7. [Ans. B]

2 i
los urv w n us u hy’s z
+i
integral theorem and say that
Multiplying by conjugates
os 2πz
[2πi ( )] wh r z 2 i i
2 2 z
+i i
[Notice that f(z) is analytic on all points
2i + i
inside |z| ]
2 +
os 2 π /2 + i
[2πi ] 2
2 ( )
+ i
2πi
6. ww
[Ans. D]
ECE
1. [Ans. D]
1

1
w.E
f = u + iv
u = 3x2 – 3y2
For f to be analysis, we have Cauchy-
Given ,
z  4  z  2j z  2j
2
Pole (0, 2) lies inside the circle |z j|=2
asy
Riemann conditions,
u v
i
y u hy’s nt gr l ormul
∮
z +4
z
x
u
y
v
ii En |z j| 2
2j 
y
x
u
x
x
From (i) we have
v
y
gi 2.
I
nee
[Ans. B]

2j  2j 2
∫ v ∫ x y
rin
iv n log
1
  y
 u  iv  loge  x  iy   log x2  y 2  i tan 1  
v
x
2
+ x
i.e. v = 3x2 + f(x) iii
Now applying equation (iii) we get
g 2
Since, u is constant, therefore
1

log x2  y 2  c 
.ne
x
u v 2
y x x +y Which is represented set
of concentric circles.
y [ x+
x
3. [Ans. A]
x + y
x ∮ s 2πj sum o r si u
y x Singular points are s =
x
By integrating, Only s= +1 lies inside the given contour
f(x) = 6yx – 3x2 + K lim  s  1 f  s 
Residues at s= +1 = S1
Substitute in equation (iii)
1 1
v= 3x2 + 6yx – 3x2 + K lim  s  1 2 
v yx + K
S 1
S 1 2 
n ∮ s 2πj ( ) πj
s 2
th th th

4. [Ans. A] + z+
(z )
Residue of z=2 is z z
d
lim  z  2 f  z  +
2
z 2 dz  
+
d 1  2 1 F(z 2πj + )
lim    lim 
z 2 dz  
  z  2   z  2
2 3
z 2 32
7. [Ans. C]
5. [Ans. D] X(z) =
sin z Poles are Z= 0, Z =1, Z=2
Residue at Z=0 is lim
2i
ww 2 i
2 i
Residue at Z =1 is lim
Residue z =2 is lim
w.E(
ut m
) 2 i 8. [Ans. A]
z+4
m
m
asy 2 im
2 i √ 2 i 4
∮
z + 4z +
z + 4z +
z
z+2 +
2 i √
2
2 i + i√
En z 2 j will be outside the unit circle
o th t int gr tion v lu is ‘z ro’
m
iz
i
i
log
2
√
√
i
i
i
√ i
2
i i√
gi 9.
i
nee
[Ans. A]
√ x
ty x log y x log x
iz log i + log(
π
√ )
⟹ log y
rin i log i
π
i log
π
iz log + i (
+log
iz i (
π
2
2
√
2nπ)
2nπ) + log √
⟹y
log y
g i i
2 2
.ne
π 10. [Ans. C]
z ( 2nπ) ilog( √ )
2 ∫ z z *∫ z ∫ z+
( 2
infinite number of complex solutions
∫ z
sin z has infinite no. of complex 2πj z+
solutions where f (z) =1
6. [Ans. D]
f(z) = + z 11. [Ans. C]
+ z + + z s z 2j
z ∮ z
z z
lim z + 2j 4+ j
+ z+
∮( ) 2πj[ 4 + j 4π + 2j
z
F z 2 π j r si u o
Residue at z = 0 ( 2- order )
th th th

12. [Ans. B]
Suppose that z u x y + iv x y is √ +
analytic then, u and v satisfy the Cauchy o / is outside the unit circle is IV
Riemann equation quadrant
u v u v
n
x y y x 3. [Ans. A]
r u xy os x z 4
u v ∮
z +4
sin x
x y |z i| 2
u v z +4
os x
y x z 4
v sin x z 2i
EE
1.
ww
[Ans. B]
For z 2i
Residue at z +2i
4 4
w.E
Pole (z=i) lies inside the circle. |z-i/2|=1.
Hence
z + 2i +4i
t z 2i li insi
+2i
∮
asy
z +
z ∮
z+i z i
z
tz
o∮
z
z +4
2i li outsi
4
2πi sum o r si u
∮
2 πi
z
π
2 πi i , wh r z
En -
2πi 2i
4π
2. [Ans. D]
Let + i
2i
gi 4.
nee
[Ans. B]
Let + i √ i
Since Z is shown inside the unit circle in I
quadrant, a and B are both +ve and
rin
Squaring both sides we get
+2 i i
ow
√
i
+
+ i 2
g
Equating real and imaginary parts
.ne
i wh n 2
+ + + 2
Since i
√2
√ + i i
wh n
√2 √2
+ i i i
+i +i ( ) +
o in qu r nt √2 √2 √2 √2
i i
wh n
√2 √2
| | √( ) +( ) i i i
+ + +i + i( ) +
√2 √2 √2 √2
i
√ +( )
+ √ + √2 √2
π π
in √ + os ( ) + i sin ( )
4 4
th th th

or x y
π π r uis o th ir l
os ( ) + i sin ( )
4 4 x + y 4
x 2
5. [Ans. C]
x √2
z zz |z|
n s {z: |z| }
z √2 x √2 2
All point of s will be mapped on the
2. [Ans. C]
point (1, 0)
z z̅
6. [Ans. B] Multiply both the side by z, we get
z z̅ z
z
z |z|
ww
log z i log
z r l n Non-negative |z|
since |z|
|z| wh r is ngl o z
is a real quantity so in order to
7.
w.E
[Ans. C]
∫ x x 2πi r s (f(a)) where a is a
satisfy above equation
quantity = 1 and
, (where n = +2 )
has to be real
r
asy
singularity in contour c
pol s o z
|z |
z
n o |z |
king π/2
nly z li s insi |z |
z En z |z|
z |z|
⁄
s( ) lim z
lim
z
z+
z
2
z+
gi 3.
z
nee
[Ans. C]
quir int gr tion 2πi
2
πi
rin
IN
1. [Ans. A]
| + i | 2
-3
g
X X
-2 -1
Cx y y
(Cx (
3
Cx
.ne
Radius of the circle is 2 and centre is at
y(n) n n
+ i )y(n))
y(n)
3s  4 1 2
F(s)
C3 =  C3  .
CC3
(sC 1)(s  2) s  1 s  2
2
y(n) 3 3
y(n) dz y(n)
+ i By Formula,
y y  z  a  2 j
xy ( (
Since, both the poles are enclosed by
n n
contour,
) )
therefore
Value of integral=2πj + 2 2πj πj
For distance to be min. The point P will be
on the line passes through origin and 4. [Ans. B]
centre of the circle. Expand by Laurent series
Slope of line OP = Slope of line OC
𝑥
th th th

5. [Ans. D] 10. [Ans. D]

⁄
⁄ ∮ z=∮ z
tx j ( )
Pole z j ⟹z j
⁄
⁄ Residue at z j ⟹ 2[ j + 2
log x log ( )
∮ z 2πj [sum o r si o pol
⁄ ⁄
log log ( )
2πj 2 4πj
π ⁄
log j
2
π 11. [Ans. C]
log j j
2 z ∮ ⁄
z
/
x
6.
ww
[Ans. B]
x+j
∮( + +
z 2z
+
z
+ ) z
The only pole of z is at z , which lies
w.E x+j
x
x j
x +
j
within |z|
∫ z z 2πi (residue)
Note: Residue of z at z is coefficient
| asy x +
j
x +
j
⁄
of z i.e. 1, here.
| lim {
j
} En
ption
j
x +
s tis y th ov
x +
on itions
gi nee
7. [Ans. A]
rin
u hy’s int gr l ormul is
∫
Here a = 0, then f(0) = sin 0 = 0
g .ne
8. [Ans. D]
z x + iy
p | |= | |
= | |= | |=
9. [Ans. B]
Given x3 = j = e+jπ/2
⁄
x
π π √
x os + j sin +j
2 2
th th th

Laplace Transform
ME – 2007 ME – 2014
1. If F (s) is the Laplace transform of 6. Laplace transform of is .
function f (t), then Laplace transform of The Laplace transform of
t
 f (t) dt is
0
(A) F (s) (C) sF (s) – f (0)

(D)
(B) F (s) f (0)
2. ww
ME – 2009
The inverse Laplace transform of

s 2
1
s 
w.E
is
(A) (C) 1 –
CE – 2009
1. Laplace transfrm of the function
f(x) = cosh(ax) is
(B)
asy (D) (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME – 2010
3. The Laplace transform of a function
En
is
ECE - 2005
(A)
(B)
. The function
(C)
(D)
is
gi 1. In what range should Re(s) remain so
nee
that the Laplace transform of the function
exists.
ME – 2012
4. The inverse Laplace transform of the
(A)
(B)
rin (C)
(D)
function F(s)
(A)
(B)
is given by
(C)
(D)
ECE – 2006
2.
g .ne
A solution for the differential equation
x’(t)+2x(t)= (t) with initial condition
x( )=0 is
ME – 2013 (A) (C)
5. The function satisfies the differential (B) (D)
equation and the auxiliary
ECE – 2008
conditions, . The
3. Consider the matrix P = * + . The
Laplace transform of is given by
value of eP is
(A) (C)
(A) * +
(B) (D)
(B) [ ]
(C) [ ]
(D) [ ]
th th th

ECE - 2010 The numerical value of | is

4. The trigonometric Fourier series for the
(A) (C)
waveform f(t) shown below contains
(B) (D)
ECE – 2013
9. A system is described by the differential
equation =x(t). Let x(t)
be a rectangular pulse given by
,
(A) Only cosine terms and zero value for
the dc component Assuming that y(0) = 0 and
ww
(B) Only cosine terms and a positive
value for the dc component
the Laplace transform of y(t) is
w.E
(C) Only cosine terms and a negative
value for the dc component
(D) Only sine terms and a negative value
asy
for the dc component.
5. Given
[ ] En
then the value of K is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
gi 10. The maximum value of the solution y(t) of
nee
the differential equation y(t) + ̈
with initial condition ̇ and
ECE– 2011
rin
(A) 1
≥
(C)
6. If
(A) 0, 2
[ ]
(C) 0, 2/7
then the initial
and final values of f(t) are respectively
(B) 2
ECE – 2014 g (D) √
11. The unilateral Laplace transform of

.ne
(B) 2, 0 (D) 2/7, 0
. Which one of the following
ECE/EE/IN – 2012 is the unilateral Laplace transform of
7. The unilateral Laplace transform of f(t) is ?
. The unilateral Laplace transform
of t f(t) is
(A) – (C)
(B) (D) EE – 2005

12. For the equation
8. Consider the differential equation (t) + 3 (t) + 2x(t) = 5, the solution
x(t) approaches which of the following
values as t ?
(A) 0 (C) 5
| |
(B) (D) 10
th th th

EE – 2014 14. Let g: [ [ be a function

13. Let be the Laplace defined by g(x) [ ] where [x]
represents the integer part of x. (That is,
transform of signal x(t). Then, is
it is the largest integer which is less than
(A) 0 (C) 5
or equal to x). The value of the constant
(B) 3 (D) 21
term in the Fourier series expansion of
g(x) is_______

ME 5. [Ans. C]
1.
ww
[Ans. A]
From definition,
We know ∫
2. w.E
[Ans. C]
1 1 1 1
Taking Laplace transformation on both
sides
[ ] [ ]
asy   
(s2  s) s(s  1) s (s  1)
[
( )
( )
( )
( ) ]
( ) ( ) ( )
En ( )
3. [Ans. A]
[ ]
gi 6.
nee
[Ans. D]
[ ]
[
rin ]
Matching coefficient of
in numerator we get,
s and constant
g .ne
CE
1. [Ans. B]
It is the standard result that
L (cosh at) =
[ ]
ECE
1. [Ans. A]
4. [Ans. D] [ ]
{ }
{ }
th th th

2. [Ans. A]
[ ]
̇ (t) + 2x (t) = (t)
Taking Laplace transform of both sides , Therefore, the trigonometric Fourier
we get series for the waveform f(t) contains only
sX(s) X(0) + 2X(s) = 1 cosine terms and a negative value of the
1 dc component.
X(s) =
s2
From Inverse Laplace transform gives, we 5. [Ans. D]
get
[ ]
[ ]
3. [Ans. D ]
ww
eP= [
0 1 
and P =  
]
[ ]
w.E
Where
 2  3
s 1 
=  
1
[ ]

asy 1
2 s+3
s  3 1 
 s  1 s  2 2 s
 s 3 1  En 6. [Ans. B]
  s  1 s  2
= 


2
  s  1 s  2
 s  1 s  2 
s 

 s  1 s  2 
gi nee
Using initial value theorem:
 eP
 2 1 1 1  rin
=
  s  1  s  2

  2  2
  s  1 s  2
2

s  1 s  2  

1 

s  2 s  1  
g .ne
⁄
=[ ]
=2
4. [Ans. C]
Since f(t) is an even function, its
trigonometric Fourier series contains
only cosine terms
∫ ∫ 7. [Ans. D]
*∫ ∫ +
t
[ ( )]
th th th

8. [Ans. D]
For t =
Taking Laplace transform on both the + sin √
sides. We have,
11. [Ans. D]
By Laplace transform property,
[ ]
( )
[ ]
ww [ ]
w.E
| [ ] 12. [Ans. B]
=5
By taking Laplace transform
9.
asy
[Ans. B]
Writing in terms of Laplace transform
(
X(s) =
⁄
En
( ) gi 13. [Ans. B]
nee
rin
( ) [ ]
(
g ) ( .ne
)
( )
14. [Ans. 0.5]

10. [Ans. D]
∫ ∫ |
Value of constant term = 0.5
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Fluid Mechanics
Pressure and its Measurement
CE– 2005
1. The reading of differential manometer of a Venturimeter, placed at to the horizontal is 11cm. If
the venturimeter is turned to horizontal position, the manometer reading will be
(A) Zero (C) 11cm
(B) cm (D) 11√ cm
√
Answer Keys & Explanations
1. [Ans. C]
ww
The manometer reading of a venturimeter does not depend upon the inclination of venturimeter
with the horizontal.
w.E
asy
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Hydrostatic Forces on Plane Surfaces
CE – 2005 CE– 2014

1. Cross – section of an object (having same 4. Three rigid buckets, shown as in the
section normal to the paper) submerged figures (1), (2) and (3), are of identical
into a fluid consists of a square of sides 2 heights and base areas. Further, assume
m and triangle as shown in the figure. The that each of these buckets have negligible
object is hinged at point P that is one mass and are full of water. The weights of
meter below the fluid free surface. If the water in these buckets are denoted as
object is to be kept in the position as d respectively. Also, let the
shown in the figure, the value of ‘x’ should force of water on the base of the bucket
be be denoted as F F d F respectively.
ww 2m x The option giving an accurate description

of the system physics is
w.E2m
p
1m
h h h
asy
(A) 2√ (C) 4 m
(D) 8 m ALL THREE BUCKETS HAVE THE SAME BASE AREA
(B) 4√
En (A)
(1) (2)
dF F F
(3)
CE– 2009
2. Water ( ) flows with a
flow rate of 0.3 /sec through a pipe AB
of 10m length and of uniform cross –
gi (B)
nee
(C)
(D)
dF
dF
dF
F
F
F
F
F
F
section. The end ‘B’ is above and ‘A’ and
the pipe makes an angle of to the
rin
horizontal for a pressureof 12 kN/
the end B, the corresponding pressure at
the end A is
(A) 12.0 kN/ (C) 56.4 kN/
at
g .ne
(B) 17.0 kN/ (D) 61.4 kN/
CE– 2012
3. If a small concrete cube is submerged
deep in still water in such a way that the
pressure exerted on all faces of the cube
is p, then the maximum shear stress
developed inside the cube is
(A) 0 (C) p
(B) (D) 2p
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] 3. [Ans. A]
The vertical force on the surface bounded P
by square and triangle would be
respectively,
F ( ) …… P
for squ re edge d ti g t fro P
F x( ) … … for i li ed edge of Maximum shear stress,
triangle and acting at x/3 from P
Taking moment of both the forces about
P, we get
ww
F
(
F
)
x
x( )
x
4. [Ans. D]
w.Ex
x √ m Force on base of Bucket, F hA
2. asy
[Ans. D]
Base area of all buckets is same
So, F F F
Applyi g Ber oulli’s equ tio betwee A
and B, we get
En Weight of water,
i e
10m
B
gi o
nee
z
rin
A 300
z = 10 sin 300
g .ne
z = 5 cm
p v p v
z
g g
 p =p + z
 p = 12 + 9.879 x 5
 p = 12 + 49.4
 p = 61.4 kN/m2
th th th

.
Kinematics of Flow
CE– 2005 6. A particle moves along a curve whose

1. An inert tracer is Injected continuously parametric equations are: x t t
from a point in an unsteady flow field. The y e and z = 2 sin (5t), where x, y
locus of locations of all the tracer particles and z show variations of the distance
at an instance of time represents covered by the particle (in cm) with time
(A) Streamline t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration
(B) Pathline of the particle (in s ) at t = 0 is
(C) Stream tube __________
(D) Streakline
2.
ww
A stream function is given by:
Ψ x y + (x + 1) y
w.E
The flow rate across a line joining point
A(3,0) and B(0,2) is
(A) 0.4 units (C) 4 units
3.
asy
(B) 1.1 units
The ir ul tio ‘G’ rou d

(D) 5 units
ir le of
radius 2 units for the velocity field
En
u = 2x + 3y and v = 2y is
(A)
(B)
u its
u its
(C)
(D)
u its
u its gi nee
CE– 2006
4. The velocity field for Flow is given by:
rin
⃗ = (5x + 6y + 7z) ̂ + (6x + 5y + 9z) ̂ +
( x y λz) ̂ and the density varies as
ρ ρ exp( 2t). In order that the mass is
overed the v lue of λ should be
g .ne
(A) 12 (C) 8
(B) 10 (D) 10
CE– 2014
5. A plane flow has velocity components,
u v= and w = 0 along x, y and z
direction respectively, where T ( ) and
T( ) are constants having the
dimension of time. The given flow is
incompressible if
(A) T T (C) T
(B) T (D) T T
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D] 6. [Ans. 12]

x t t
2. [Ans. C] y e
The rate of flow is the difference in value z si ( t)
of stream function at points A and B dx
t
∴Q = | | dt
= 2 × ( ) × 0 + (3 +1) × ( ) = 0 d x
t
= 2 × ( ) × 2 + (0 +1) × ( ) = 4 dt
Q | | dy
e ( )
= 4 units dt
3. ww
[Ans. B]
e
d
dt
e
w.E
Circulation = Vorticity × Area
(
v
x
u
y
) Are
dz
dt
d z
os ( t)
asy ( )
u its
( )
⃗ ̂
dt
̂ ̂
si t
4. [Ans. C]
En ⃗ tt
⃗ ̂
̂ ̂ ̂
The continuity equation is given by

ρ
ow ρ
(ρu)
ρ e
(ρ ) (ρw)
gi Magnitude of acceleration at t = 0
nee s
ρ
t
ρ e ρ
rin
ρ
∴
u
x
λ
ρ
ρ ρ
ρ
v
y
ρ
ρ ρ
λρ
w
z
λ
g .ne
λ
5. [Ans. D]
For a flow to exist
u v
x y
T T
T T
th th th

.
Fluid Dynamics
CE– 2006 CE– 2014

1. The necessary and sufficient condition for 5. An incompressible homogeneous fluid is
surf e to be lled s ‘free surf e’ is flowing steadily in a variable diameter
(A) No stress should be acting on it pipe having the large and small diameters
(B) Tensile stress acting on it must be as 15 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the
zero velocity at a section at the 15 cm diameter
(C) Shear stress acting on it must be zero portion of the pipe is 2.5 m/s, the velocity
(D) No point on it should be under any of the fluid (in m/s) at a section falling in
stress 5 cm portion of the pipe is ___________
ww
CE– 2007
2. At two points 1 and 2 in a pipeline the
6. A venturimeter, having a diameter of
7.5 cm at the throat and 15 cm at the
w.E
velocities are V and 2V, respectively. Both
the points are at the same elevation. The
fluid de sity is ρ The flow be
enlarged end, is installed in a horizontal
pipeline of 15 cm diameter. The pipe
carries an incompressible fluid at a steady
asy
assumed to be incompressible, inviscid,
steady and irrotational. The difference in
rate of 30 litres per second. The
difference of pressure head measured in
terms of the moving fluid in between the
pressures and at points 1 and 2 is
(A) ρ (C) ρ
En enlarged and the throat of the
(B)
CE– 2011
3.
ρ (D) ρ
For a body completely submerged in a

gi venturimeter is observed to be 2.45 m.
Taking the acceleration due to gravity as
nee
9.81 s , the coefficient of discharge of
the venturimeter (correct up to two
fluid, the centre of gravity (G) and centre
of Buoyancy (O) are known. The body is rin
places of decimal) is ______________
considered to be in stable equilibrium is

(A) O does not coincide with the centre of
mass of the displaced fluid
(B) G coincides with the centre of mass of
7.
g
Group I lists a few devices while Group II
.ne
provides information about their uses.
Match the devices with the corresponding
use.
the displaced fluid Group I Group II
(C) O lies below G P. Anemometer 1. Capillary potential of
(D) O lies above G soil water
Q. Hygrometer 2. Fluid velocity at a
CE– 2013 specific point in the
4. For a two dimensional flow field, the flow stream
stre fu tio is give s P. Pitot Tube 3. water vapour content
of air
= ( ) . The magnitude of
S. Tensiometer 4. Wind speed
discharge occurring between the stream
(A)
lines passing through points (0,3) and
(B)
(3,4) is :
(C)
(A) 6 (C) 1.5
(D)
(B) 3 (D) 2
th th th

.
8. A venturimeter having a throat diameter

of 0.1 m is used to estimate the flow rate
of a horizontal pipe having a diameter of
0.2 m. For an observed pressure
difference of 2 m of water head and
coefficient of discharge equal to unity,
assuming that the energy losses are
negligible, the flow rate (in /s) through
the pipe is approximately equal to
(A) 0.500 (C) 0.050
(B) 0.150 (D) 0.015
ww Answer Keys & Explanations
1.
2.
w.E
[Ans. C]
[Ans. B] Balloon
O
FB
FB
asy
Applying Ber oulli’s equ tio we get
+
( )
+z= +
( )
+z
G
W
G
W
=
En
= ρ
ρ gi nee Fig (i) Fig (ii)
he vily lo ded so th t its ‘G’ is lower th
3. [Ans. D] its ‘O’ s show i Figure (i) let
A submerged body is said to be in stable
equilibrium, if it comes back to its original rin
weight of balloon acting down and FB is
buoyant force action vertically up. For
position after a slight disturbance. The
relation position of the centre of gravity
(G) and centre of buoyancy (O) of a
g
equilibrium of the balloon FB = W.
.ne
if the balloon is distributed in clockwise
dire tio s show i figure (ii) the ‘FB’
determines the stability of a sub – merged d ‘ ’ o stitute ouple ti g i the
body. anti – clock wise direction and brings the
The position of G and O in case of system in the original position.
completely sub – merged body are fixed. Conclusion:
Figure below shows a balloon submerged When FB =W and centre of buoyancy (O)
in air with bottom portion. is above centre of gravity (G), the body
completely submerged in a fluid is said to
be in stable equilibrium.
4. [Ans. B]
Ψ Ψ
( ) ( )
u its
th th th

.
5. [Ans. *] (Range 22 to 23)

Using equation of continuity
A A
6. [Ans. *] Range 0.93 to 0.96
ww
D l⁄
s
w.E C
√ gh
D
asy √
( )
( )
En
C
√( ) ( )
gi nee
√
C
rin
7.
8.
[Ans. D]
[Ans. C]
g .ne
Given
Dia of throat d = 0.1 m
Dia of pipe D = 0.2 m
Pressure difference
Coefficient of discharge C
√
Discharge
√
A ( ) and A ( )
√
√( ) ( )
se
th th th

.
Flow Through Pipes
CE– 2012 CE– 2014

1. The circular water pipes shown in the 3. An incompressible fluid is flowing at a
sketch are flowing full. The velocity of steady rate in a horizontal pipe. From a
flow (i s) i the br h pipe “ ” is section, the pipe divides into two
dia = 4m horizontal parallel pipes of diameters
P Q d d d (where d d ) that run for
a distance of L each and then again join
V = 6 m/s V = 5 m/s back to a pipe of the original size. For
both the parallel pipes, assume the head
R loss due to friction only and the
ww V= ? dia = 2 m
Darcy Weisbach friction factor to be the
same. The velocity ratio between the
w.E
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
bigger and the smaller branched pipes is
_________
CE– 2013
2. asy
A 2 km long pipe of 0.2 m diameter
4. A straight 100 m long raw water gravity
main is to carry water from an intake
structure to the jack well of a water
connects two reservoirs. The difference
between water levels in the reservoirs is En treatment plant. The required flow
8 m. The Darcy – Weisbachfriction factor

of the pipe is 0.04. Accounting for
frictional, entry and exit losses, the
gi through this water main is 0.21
Allowable velocity through the main is
nee
0.75 m/s. assume f = 0.01, g = 9.81 m/ .
The minimum gradient (in cm/100 m
s.
velocity in the pipe (in m/s) is:

(A) 0.63
(B) 0.35
(C) 2.52
(D) 1.25 rin
length) to be given to this gravity main so
that the required amount of water flows
g
without any difficulty is _________
.ne
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 3. [Ans. 2]
d
4 mm 4 mm
V = 6 m/s V = 5 m/s d d
A B
Since pipes are in parallel

2 mm
So, head loss will be same
ww A
( )
A A
( ) ( )
f
d g d
f
g
d
w.E d d d
∴
asy s
s
4. [Ans. *] Range 4.7 to 4.9

2. [Ans. A]
Applyi g Ber oulli’s theore t e try d En s
Allowable velocity = 0.75 m/s
exit.
p
ρ g
p
ρ g
losses
gi f = 0.01
nee
g = 9.81
d
Hence both reservoirs are at atmospheric
pressure, and mean velocity is same at
d
rin
flv ( )
entry and exit.
|
|
| h
|
g g
fl
gd
gd
g h
.ne
h
i i u gr die t
l
g g Hence, answer is 4.8.
g
Upon solving
u s
th th th

.
Impulse Momentum Equation and Its Application
CE– 2005 CE– 2007

1. A tank and a deflector are placed on a 2. A horizontal water jet with a velocity of
frictionless trolley. The tank issues water 10m/s and cross sectional area of 10 mm2
jet (mass density of water = 1000 strikes a flat plate held normal to the flow
kg/m3), which strikes the deflector and direction. The density of water is
turns by 45°. if the velocity of jet leaving 1000 kg/ . The total force on the plate
the deflector s 4 m/s and discharge is due to the jet is
0.1 /s, the force recorded by the (A) 100 N (C) 1 N
spring will be (B) 10 N (D) 0.1 N
ww Jet of water
w.E
Tank
Spring Deflector
Trolley
asy
(A) 100N
(B) 100 √ N
(C) 200 N
(D) 200 √ N
En
1. [Ans. D]
Force in spring will be the force in
gi 2.
nee
[Ans. C]
The force is given by
horizontal direction.
F ρ os θ F
rin
F ρ
x x x( )
√
√
os F
g .ne
th th th

.
Flow through Orifices and Mouth Pieces
CE– 2010
1. Match List – 1( Devices) with List – II (Uses) and select the answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List – I
A. Pitot tube
B. Manometer
C. Venturimeter
D. Anemometer
List – II
1. Measuring pressure in a pipe
ww
2. Measuring velocity of flow in a pipe
3. Measuring air and gas velocity
w.E
4. Measuring discharge in a pipe
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 2asy 2
1
1
4
3
4
3
4
3
(D) 4 1 3 2
En
1. [Ans. C]
gi
nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Boundary Layer Flow
CE– 2006 CE– 2008

1. The thickness of the laminar boundary 2. The flow of water
layer on a flat plate at a point A is 2cm (mass density = 1000kg/ and
and at a point B, 1m downstreams of A, is kinematic viscosity = /s) in a
3cm. What is the distance of A from the commercial pipe, having equivalent
leading edge of the plate? roughness as 0.12 mm, yields an
(A) 0.50 m (C) 1.00 m average shear stress at the
(B) 0.80 m (D) 1.25m pipe boundary = 600 N/ . The value of
δ’ (δ’ bei g the thi ess of l i r
sub-layer) for this pipe is
ww (A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 6.0
(D) 8.0
w.E Answer Keys & Explanations
1.
asy
[Ans. B]
Laminar boundary layer thickness,
2. [Ans. D]
We know that
δ √
En δ
v
δ
δ
√
x
gi But
nee
∴δ
√
ρ
v
√
x
rin √
x
x
δ
δ
g √
.ne
∴
δ
th th th

.
Viscous Flow
CE– 2006 drop in 2 m length is equal to 2.0 MPa. The

1. The flow of glycerin (kinematic viscosity viscosity of the fluid is
v=5× s) in an open channel is (A) 0.025 N-s/ (C) 0.00192 N-s/
to be modeled in a laboratory flume using (B) 0.012 N-s/ (D) 0.00102 N-s/
water (v = /s) as the flowing
fluid. If both gravity and viscosity are CE– 2008
important. What should be the length Statements for Linked answer questions
scale (i.e ratio of prototype to model 5&6
dimensions) for maintaining dynamic An automobile with projected area 2.6
similarity? is running on a road with a speed of
ww
(A) 1
(B) 22
(C) 63
(D) 500
120 km per hour. The mass density and
the kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2
kg/ and 1.5 × /s respectively.
w.E
Common Data for Question 2 and 3
An upwards flow of oil (mass density
5.
The drag coefficient is 0.30
The drag force on the automobile is
(A) 620N (B) 600N (C) 580N (D) 520N
asy
800 kg/ , dynamic viscosity 0.8 kg/m-s)
takes place under laminar conditions in
an inclined pipe of 0.1 m diameter as
6. The metric horse power required to
shown in the figure. The pressure at

sections 1 and 2 are measured as En overcome the drag force is
(A) 33.23 (C) 23.23
p = 435 kN/ and p = 200 kN/

2
gi CE– 2009
7.
(B) 31.23
nee
(D) 20.23
Water flows through a 100 mm diameter
rin
5m
pipe with a velocity of 0.015 m/sec. If the
kinematic viscosity of water is
2. The discharge in the pipe is equal to

1.13 ×
(A) 0.0015
(B) 0.032
g /sec the friction factor of
the pipe materials is
(C) 0.037
(D) 0.048
.ne
(A) 0.100 /s (C) 0.144 /s
(B) 0.127 /s (D) 0.161 /s CE– 2011
8. A single pipe of length 1500 m and
3. If the flow is reversed, keeping the same diameter 60 cm connect two reservoirs
discharge, and the pressure at section 1 is having a difference of 20m in their water
maintained as 435 kN/ , the pressure at levels. The pipe is to be replaced by two
section 2 is equal to pipes of the same length and equal
(A) 488 kN/ (C) 586 kN/ di eter ‘d’ to o vey % ore
(B) 549 kN/ (D) 614 kN/ discharge under the same head loss. If the
friction factor is assumed to be the same
CE– 2007
for all the pipes the v lue of ‘d’ is
4. Flow rate of a fluid (density = 1000 kg/ ) approximately equal to which of the
in a small diameter tube is 800 m /s. The following options ?
length and the diameter of the tube are 2 m (A) 37.5 cm (C) 45.0 cm
and 0.5 mm, respectively. The pressure (B) 40.0 cm (D) 50.0 cm
th th th

.
CE– 2012 13. With reference to a standard Cartesian

9. A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at (x, y) plane, the parabolic velocity
the base and has a side slope of 4 distribution profile of fully developed
horizontal to 3 vertical. The bed slope is laminar flow in x-direction between two
0.002. the channel is lined with smooth parallel, stationary and identical plates
Concrete ( i g’s ) The that are separated by distance, h, is given
hydraulic radius (in m) for a depth of flow by the expression
of 3.0 m is h dp y
u [ ( ) ]
(A) 20.0 (C) 3.0 dx h
(B) 3.5 (D) 2.1 I this equ tio the y = 0 axis lies
equidistant between the plates at a
10. A rectangular open channel of width 5.0m distance h/2 from the two plates, p is the
ww
is carrying a discharge of 100 /s. The
Froude number of the flow is 0.8. The
depth of flow ( in m) in the channel is
pressure variable and is the dynamic
viscosity term. The maximum and
average velocities are, respectively
w.E
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 16
(D) 20
(A) u
(B) u
du
du u
u
11.
asy
The top width and the depth of flow in a
triangular channel were measured as 4m
(C) u du u
and 1m, respectively. The measured

velocities on the centre line at the water En (D) u du u
surface, 0.2m and 0.8m below the surface

are 0.7 m/s, 0.6 m/s and 0.4m/s,
respectively. Using two – point method of
gi nee
velocity measurement, the discharge ( in
/s) in the channel is
(A) 1.4 (C) 1.0 rin
(B) 1.2
CE– 2014
(D) 0.8
g .ne
12. The dimension for kinematic viscosity is
(A) (C)
(B) (D)
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 5. [Ans. D]
Equating Reynolds number and Froude The drag force on the automobile may be
number, we get given as
= ρ
√ F C A
∴ = (v ) Here, CD = 0.30, A = 2.6m2 ρ g 3,
v = = =2× V = 120 kmph

( )
=( ) F
( )
= 0.0159
 FD = 520 N
ww
But =
= = ≈ 6. [Ans. C]
2.
w.E
[Ans. B]
Applyi g Ber oulli’s equ tio betwee
Power required to overcome the drag =
Drag force × velocity
asy
(1) and (2)
= + 5sin +
w tt
√
=
( )
En H H
V = 16.19 m/s
∴ Q = AV
=
( )
16.19 = 0.127 /s
gi
7. [Ans. D]
nee
Reynolds number, Re =
3. [Ans. D]
When the flow is reversed, then rin
= 1327.43 < 2000
+
= + 5 sin
( )
= +
√
f
e g
Hence flow is laminar
.ne
ρ = 614.48 kN/ = 614 kN/ 8. [Ans. D]
Figure blow shows a single pipe which
4. [Ans. C] connects two reservoirs.
Applying Hazen-Poiseuille equation, the (1)
drop in pressure is given by 20m (2) datum
D 60 cm
But A Q1
D
A V1
L=1500m
( )
s ≈ s Let V1 = velocity of water flow in single
pipe (m/s)
∴
( ) Q1 = Discharge in single pipe ( /S)
s⁄ hf = Head loss due to friction in single
s pipe (m)
th th th

.
f Substitute (1) & (3) in (2),

h [where f Fri tio f tor]
gD d ( )
From continuity equation A Obtain d = 0.497 m = 49.7 cm say 50 cm
epl e
9. [Ans. D]
Fro Ber oulli’s equ tio
3V
h 3v
g ρg g 4H
10m 4H
h
[ for uniform diameter pipe ] A
∴h
f * ⁄ D + A (B y)y ( )
wwWhere D = 0.6 m
D
B y√
w.E
∴
f
( )
( ) √( ⁄ )
asy √f
In case of two pipes of the same length
d equ l di eter ‘d’ (p r llel pipe 10. [Ans. A]
system), discharge in each pipe will be
the same. As the discharge in each parallel En
pipe is same, hence velocity will also be
dame in parallel pipe, given 25% gi nee 5m
20m
rin
B = 5m
Q = 100 /s
2Q2
d
d
Q2
Q2
2Q2
Fr = 0.8
y=?
F
g .ne
√gy
A
L1=L2= 1500m
A
( )
f A√gy
h
gd
epl e y√ y
d y
f ( )
h 11. [Ans. C]
gd
f Area of flow =
d Aver ge velo ity
d
∴ ( )
√f
th th th

.
s
A s
12. [Ans. C]
Di e sio s of ν re since in SI unit
ν s since ν
13. [Ans. A]
h/2
ww h/2
Velocity for a laminar flow between two
u w.E
parallel plates is given as
h dp
( )[
dx
y
( ) ]
h
u asy
E d o ditio u u
h dp
( )
ty
dx
Discharge, dQ = Area velo ity
En
dQ =
h
( )[
dp
( ) ∫ (
( ) ] (dy
y
) dy
)
gi nee
dx h
h
(
dp
) rin
h
A
dp
( ) (h
dx
)
dx
g .ne
h dp
( )
dx
( )
( )
th th th

.
Dimensional Analysis
CE – 2007 CE – 2013
1. A 1 : 50 scale model of a spillway is to be 3. Group – I contains dimensionless
tested in the laboratory. The discharge in parameters and Group – II contains the
the prototype is 1000 /s. The ratios.
discharge to be maintained in the model Group – I Group – II
test is P. Mach 1. Ratio of inertial
(A) 0.057 /s (C) 0.57 /s Number force and
(B) 0.08 /s (D) 5.7 /s gravitational force
Q. Reynolds 2. Ration of fluid
Number velocity and
CE – 2008
2.
ww
A river reach of 2.0 km long with
maximum flood discharge of 10000 /s
R. Weber
Number
3.
velocity of sound
Ratio of inertial
force and viscous
w.E
is to be physically modeled in the
laboratory where maximum available
discharge is 0.20 /s. For a
S. Froude 4.
Number
force
Ratio of inertial
force and surface
asy
geometrically similar model based on
equality of Froude number, the length of
tension force
The correct match of dimensionless
parameters in Group – I with ratios in
the river reach (m) in the model is
(A) 26.4 (C) 20.5
En Group – II is:
(A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
(B) 25.0 (D) 18.0
gi (B) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1
nee
(C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1
(D) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4
Answer Keys & Explanations rin

1. [Ans. A]
Froude model law will be applicable in
this case.


g ( )
( )
.ne
=( )  Lm = 26.4 m
= 1000 x( ) 3. [Ans. C]
= 0.057 /sec 1. Froude number lined inertial force to
gravitational force
2. [Ans. A] 2. Reynolds number is ratio of inertial
According to Froude Model law forces to viscous force
3. Mach number classifier force as
=1 [ gr = 1]
√ subsonic sonic are supersonic
∴ Vr = √ depending upon ratio of velocity of
Now, we have fluid velocity and velocity of sound
x 4. Weber number is ratio of inertial
force to surface tension force
 x√
th th th

.
Impacts of jets and Turbines

CE – 2007
1. A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 10 m/s and cross sectional area of 10 strikes a flat
plate held normal to the flow direction. The density of water is 1000 kg . The total force on the
plate due to the jet is
(A) 100 N (C) 1 N
(B) 10 N (D) 0.1 N
1. [Ans. C]
ww
The force is given by
F=ρ
w.E
F
F
( )
asy
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Open Channel Flow

CE – 2007 CE – 2011
1. The flow rate in a wide rectangular open 3. The flow in a horizontal, frictionless
channel is 2.0 s per meter width. The rectangular open channel is supercritical.
h el bed slope is The i g’s A smooth hump is built on the channel
roughness coefficient is 0.012. The slope floor. As the height of hump is increased,
of the channel is classified choked condition is attained. With further
(A) Critical (C) Mild increase in the height of the hump, the
(B) Horizontal (D) Steep water surface will
(A) Rise at a section upstream of the
CE – 2010 hump
2.
ww
A mild – sloped channel is followed by
steep-sloped channel. The profiles of
gradually varied flow in the channel are
(B) Drop at a section upstream of the
hump
(C) Drop at the hump
w.E
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D) Rise at the hump
asy Answer Keys & Explanations

1. [Ans. D] En
The critical depth for a rectangular
channel is given by
y
q
( ) (
( )
)
gi nee
g
si g i g’s equ tio we get
rin
q (y ) √
(y ) √
g .ne
y
For steep slopes y y
2. [Ans. D]
3. [Ans. B]
The height of the hump attains its
maximum value at the choked condition.
Increasing the height of hump after
chocked condition results in hydraulic
jump formation in case of super critical
flow. Thus height of water surface will
drastically changes upstream and
downstream of hump.
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Hydrology & Irrigation
Hydraulics & Hydraulic Machinery
CE – 2005 5. A launching apron is to be designed at

1. A horizontal bed channel is followed by a downstream of a weir for discharge
steep bed channel as shown in the figure. intensity of 6.5 m ⁄s⁄m. For the design of
The gradually-varied profiles over the launching aprons the scour depth is taken
horizontal and steep beds are two times of Lacey scour depth. The silt
factor of the bed material is unity. If the
tailwater depth is 4.4m, the length of
launching apron in the launched position
is
(A) √5m (C) 5 m
ww Horizontal bed
(A) H and S
Steep bed
respectively
(B) 4.7 m (D) 5√5 m
w.E
(B)
(C)
H
H
and S
and S
respectively
respectively
CE – 2006
6. A channel with a mild slope is followed by
a horizontal channel and then by a steep
2.
(D)
asy
H and S respectively
Critical depth at a section of a rectangular

channel. What gradually varied flow
profiles will occur?
(A) M , H , S (C) M , H , S
channel is 1.5 m. The specific energy at
that section is En (B) M , H , S (D) M , H , S
(A) 0.75 m
(B) 1.0 m
(C) 1.5 m
(D) 2.25 m gi 7. Identify the FALSE statement from the
nee
following the specific speed of the pump
increase with
3. A partially open sluice gate discharge
water into a rectangular channel. The tail
water depth in the channel is 3m and rin
(A) Increase in shaft speed
(B) Increase in discharge
Froude number is
√
. If a free hydraulic
jump is to be formed at downstream of
the sluice gate after the vena contracta of
g
(C) Decrease in gravitational
acceleration
(D) Increase in head
.ne
the jet coming out from the sluice gate, 8. A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular
the sluice gate opening should be horizontal, frictionless channel. What
(co-efficient of contraction C = 0.9) would be the pre-jump depth if the
(A) 0.3 m (C) 0.69 m discharge per unit width is 2 m /s/m and
(B) 0.4 m (D) 0.9 m the energy loss is 1m?
(A) 0.2 (C) 0.8m
4. A triangular irrigation lined canal carries (B) 0.3m (D) 0.9m
a discharge of 25 m /s at bed slope =

9. A very wide rectangular channel is
If the side slopes of the canal are 1 : 1 and designed to carry a discharge of 5 m /s
Manning’s coefficient is 0.018, the central per meter width. The design is based on
depth of flow is equal to the manning’s equations with the
(A) 2.98 m (C) 4.91 m roughness coefficient obtained from the
(B) 3.62 m (D) 5.61 m grain size using Strickler’s equation and
results in a normal depth of 1.0m by
th th th

.
mistake, however, the engineer used the CE– 2008

grain diameter in mm in the Stricker’s 14. A person standing on the bank of a canal
equation instead of in meter, What should drops a stone on the water surface. He
be the correct normal depth? notices that the disturbance on the water
(A) 0.32m (C) 2.00m surface is not traveling upstreams. This is
(B) 0.50m (D) 3.20m because the flow in the canal is
(A) Sub-critical (C) Steady
CE – 2007 (B) Super-critical (D) Uniform
10. There is a free overfall at the end of a long
open channel. For a given flow rate, the Common data questions 15, 16 and 17
critical depth is less than normal depth. A rectangular channel 6.0 m wide carries
What gradually varied flow profile will a discharge of 16.0 m /s under uniform
ww
occur in the channel for this flow rate?
(A) M
(B) M
(C) M
(D) S 15.
flow condition with normal depth of 1.60
m. Manning's 'n' is 0.015.
The longitudinal slope of the channel is
11. w.E
A triangular open channel has a vertex
angle of 90 and carries flow at a critical
(A) 0.000585
(B) 0.000485
(C) 0.000385
(D) 0.000285
asy
depth of 0.30m. The discharge in the
channel is
16. A hump is to be provided on the channel
bed. The maximum height of the hump
(A) 0.08 m /s
(B) 0.11 m /s
(C) 0.15m /s
(D) 0.2m /s
En without affecting the upstream flow
condition is
Statement for linked answer questions

12 & 13
A rectangular open channel needs to be
gi 17.
(A) 0.50 m
nee
(B) 0.40 m
(C) 0.30 m
(D) 0.20 m
The channel width is to be contracted.

designed to carry a flow of 2.0 m /s
under uniform flow conditions. The
rin
The minimum width to which the channel
can be contracted without affecting the
Manning’s roughness coefficient is 0.018.
The channel should be such that the flow
depth is equal to half width and the
Froude number is equal to 0.5
g
upstream flow condition is
(A) 3.0 m
(B) 3.8 m
(C) 4.1 m
(D) 4.5 m .ne
18. A weir on a permeable foundation with
12. The bed slope of the channel to be
downstream sheet pile is show in the
provided is
figure below. The exit gradient as per
(A) 0.0012 (C) 0.0025
Khosla’s method is
(B) 0.0021 (D) 0.0052
Weir
13. Keeping the width, flow depth and

roughness the same. If the bed slope of 5m
the above channel is doubled. The Floor
average boundary shear stress under
uniform flow conditions is 10 m 4m
(A) 5.6 N/m (C) 12.3N/m Downstream
(B) 10.8 N/m (D) 17.2N/m Sheet Pile
(A) 1 in 6.0 (C) 1 in 3.4
(B) 1 in 5.0 (D) 1 in 2.5
th th th

.
19. Water emerges from an ogee spillway 24. For a rectangular channel section, match
with velocity = 13.72 m/s and depth = List – I (Geometrical elements) with
0.3 m at its toe. The tail water depth List – II (Proportions for hydraulically
required to form a hydraulic jump at the efficient section) and select the correct
toe is answer using the codes given below the
(A) 6.48 m (C) 3.24 m lists:
(B) 5.24 m (D) 2.24 m List – I List – II
A. Top width 1. y /2
20. The base width of an elementary profile B. Perimeter 2. y
of a gravity dam of height H is b. The C. Hydraulic Radius 3. 2y
specific gravity of the material of the dam D. Hydraulic Depth 4. 4y
is G and uplift pressure coefficient is K. y is the flow corresponding to
ww
The correct relationship for no tension at
the heel is given by
(A) (C)
hydraulically efficient section
Codes:
A B C D
w.E
(B)
√
√G (D)
√
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 3
4
1
4
1
4
1
3
2
2
CE – 2009
asy
21. Direct step method of computation for
(D) 3 4 2 1
gradually varied flow is

(A) Applicable to non-prismatic channels
En 25. The froude number of flow in a
rectangular channel is 0.8 if the depth is
(B) Applicable to prismatic – channels
(C) Applicable to both prismatic and
non-prismatic channels
(D) Not applicable to both prismatic and
gi flow is 1.5 m, the critical depth is
(A) 1.80 m
nee
(B) 1.56 m
(C) 1.36 m
(D) 1.29 m
non-prismatic channels CE – 2011

rin
26. A spill way discharges flood flow at a rate
22. A rectangular open channel of width 4.5m
is carrying a discharge of 100m /sec. The
critical depth of the channel is
g
of 9m /s per metre width. If the depth of
.ne
flow on the horizontal apron at the toe of
the spillway is 46 cm, the tail water depth
(A) 7.09 m (C) 2.16 m needed to form a hydraulic jump is
(B) 3.96 m (D) 1.31 m approximately given by which of the
following options?
CE – 2010 (A) 2.54 m (C) 5.77 m
23. The flow in a rectangular channel is (B) 4.90 m (D) 6.23 m
subcritical. If width of the channel is
reduced at a certain section, the water 27. For given discharge, the critical flow
surface under no-choke condition will depth in an open channel depends on
(A) Drop at a downstream section (A) Channel geometry only
(B) Rise at a downstream section (B) Channel geometry and bed slope
(C) Rise at an upstream section (C) Channel geometry, bed slope and
(D) Not undergo any change roughness
(D) Channel geometry, bed slope,
roughness and Reynolds number
th th th

.
CE – 2013 31. A rectangular channel having a bed slope

28. For subcritical flow in an open channel, of 0.0001, width 3.0 m and Manning’s
the control section for gradually varied coefficient ‘n’ 0.015, carries a discharge of
flow profiles is 1.0 m s. Given that the normal depth of
(A) At the downstream end flow ranges between 0.76 m and 0.8 m.
(B) At the upstream end The minimum width of a throat (in m)
(C) At both upstream and downstream that is possible at a given section, while
ends ensuring that the prevailing normal depth
(D) At any intermediate section is not exceeded along the reach upstream
of the contraction, is approximately equal
29. The normal depth in a wide rectangular to (assume negligible losses)
channel is increased by 10%. The (A) 0.64 (C) 1.04
ww
percentage increase in the discharge in
the channel is :
(A) 20.1 (C) 10.5 32.
(B) 0.84 (D) 1.24
A horizontal nozzle of 30 mm diameter
w.E
(B) 15.4
CE – 2014
(D) 17.2 discharges a steady jet of water into the
atmosphere at a rate of 15 litres per
second. The diameter of inlet to the
asy
30. A horizontal jet of water with its cross-
sectional area of 0.0028 m hits a fixed
nozzle is 100 mm. The jet impinges
normal to a flat stationary plate held close
vertical plate with a velocity of 5 m/s.
After impact the jet splits symmetrically En to the nozzle end. Neglecting air friction
and considering the density of water as
in a plane parallel to the plane of the
plate. The force of impact (in N) of the jet
on the plate is
gi 33.
1000 kg/m , the force exerted by the jet
nee
(in N) on the plate is _________
A rectangular channel of 2.5 m width is

(A) 90 (C) 70
(B) 80 (D) 60
rin
carrying a discharge of 4 m /s.
Considering that acceleration due to
g
gravity as 9.81 m/s , the velocity of flow
(in m/s) corresponding to the critical
depth (at which the specific energy is .ne
minimum) is _______
1. [Ans. A] F =
√
2. [Ans. D] ∴y = * 1 √1 8 +
For rectangular channel,
⇒ y = 0.62m
E = 1.5y = 1.5 × 1.5 = 2.25m .
Sluice gate opening = = = 0.69m
.
3. [Ans. C]
For hydraulic jump, 4. [Ans. C]
y 1 By Manning’s equations, Q R S A
* 1 √1 8F +
y 2
Given y = 3m ⇒ 25 = ×( ) ×( ) × y
. √
th th th

.
⇒ 25 = × y × ⇒ ∆E = 1m
. .
But energy loss ∆E given in problem is
⇒ y = 4.91 m
also 1m. Hence the assumed value of y ,
i.e. 0.3m is correct.
5. [Ans. C]
Lacey’s scour depth,
9. [Ans. B]
q 6.5
R 1.35 ( ) 1.35 ( ) 4.7 m As per Stickler’s equation. n
f 1
Scour depth =2R = 9.4m ∴ =( )
∴ D 2R 4.4 5m
Now, as per Mannings equation,
1
6. [Ans. D] q y √S
n
7.
ww
[Ans. D]
The specific speed of a pump is given by
∴ Correct depth of flow,
y (
n
) y
8.
N
w.E
[Ans. B]
N√Q H
= [(
n
) ] 1 = 0.50m
y
asy
We know that a rectangular channel,
…… 1
10. [Ans. B]
∴y * + En All free fall curves are zone II profiles.

Since the critical depth (y ) is less than
⇒y 0.74m
.
We know that hydraulic jump is formed

when supercritical flow changes to
gi the normal depth (y ), therefore the slope
is mild. Thus, the gradually varied profile
nee
is M
subcritical flow, if the prejump depth and

post jump depth are y and y
11.
rin
[Ans. B]
The side slope of triangular open channel
respectively then y <y <y . Therefore
option (c) and (d) are ruled out.
From (i), we have
=
g
given as z horizontal to 1 vertical.
When vertex angle is 90 , z = 1
.ne
⇒
.
= 90 1
Solving the above equation by taking Z
y = 0.3m which is option (b) and thus
calculating the value of y Now, y = * + for a triangular
8
∴ 0.3y 0.3 y channel
9.81
⇒ y + 0.3y 2.72 = 0 ⇒ Q =
⇒ y = 1.51 m . .
⇒ Q =
We also known that
⇒ Q = 0.11 m /s
∆E =
. .
⇒ ∆E = 12. [Ans. B]
. .
. . Given Q = 2 m3/s, n = 0.018, B = 2y, F = 0.5
⇒ ∆E = We know that
. .
th th th

.
F= 16. [Ans. B]
√
When a hump is introduced on the
Where V is velocity of flow, D is hydraulic
channel bed the depth of flow at this
radius
location will reduce. If ∆Z is the
Now D= y maximum height of hump so that the
∴ F= depth of flow remains same, then
√
y+ ∆Z E
 0.5 =
√
16 3
 0.5 = Squaring both sides ∴ 1.6 ∆Z y
√ 2 9.81 9.6 2
 0.25 = 3 16 6
 1.74 ∆Z * +
2 9.81
 y=* +  ∆Z
ww
 y = 0.836m
. .
Using Manning’s equation, we get

 ∆Z
1.74 – 1.35
0.39 ≈ 0.4m
2
w.E1
n
A R
1
√S
2 0.836
17. [Ans. C]
If the channel is contracted, the depth of
flow at this location decreases. Thus
asy0.018
(
0.836
) √S
width of the channel can be decreased till
the specific energy becomes minimum. If
 √S = 0.0461
2
En the channel is contracted further, the

depth of flow starts decreasing.
13.
 S = 0.0021
[Ans. D]
The average shear stress, τ0 γRS0
gi ∴

nee
y+
1.6 +
.
E
.
y
Bed slope is doubled i.e. S0 = 2 0.0021

= 0.0042

rin 1.74 = ( )
τ0 = 9810
 τ0 = 17.22 N/m2
.
0.0042 


g 1.74 =
b = 2.557
b = 4.1m
* .
+
.ne
14. [Ans. A]
18. [Ans. C]
15. [Ans. A] The exit gradient may be given as
The velocity as per Manning’s equation is H 1
G
given by d √
√
V= R S Where 1 and
Here, Q = 16m3/s. n = 0.015, B =6.0m Here b = 10 m, d = 4 m, H = 5 m
A = 6.0 1.60 = 9.6 m2 b 10
∴ 2.5
R=
.
1.04m d 4
. .
1 √1 2.5
But Q = AV and 1.85
2
∴ Q=A R S 5 1
∴ G
 16 = 9.6 1.04 S 4 √1.85
.
1
 S = 0.00059 ⇒ G
3.4
th th th

.
19. [Ans. C] A 2y
Hydraulic radius, R
Water depth required to form a hydraulic P 2y 2y
jump may be given as y
2
y 8V Top width, T B 2y
y [ 1 √1 ]
2 gy Perimeter, P B 2y 2y 2y 4y
A 2y
0.3 8 13.72 Hydraulic depth, D y
[ 1 √1 ] T 2y
2 9.81 0.3
25. [Ans. D]
3.24 m
Froude Number for a rectangular channel
is given by
20. [Ans. A]
F=
ww
Tension will not be developed at the heel
with full reservoir, when
b
H
√
V = 0.8 √9.81 1.5 = 3.07 m/s

∴ Discharge per unit width of rectangular
21.
w.E
√G
[Ans. B]
channel is given by
q = Vy = 3.07 1.5 = 4.6 m3/s/m
22. asy
[Ans. B]
∴ Critical depth, yc = ( )
4.6
The critical depth for a rectangular
channel is given by
En (
9.81
) 1.29m
y
q
g
But q =
.
22.22 m sec
gi 26. [Ans. C]
nee y2
rin
.
∴ y
.
 y 3.69m
23. [Ans. A] q
y
g
9m s m
0.46m
y1
.ne
24. [Ans. C]
y y y y
Let the width of rectangular channel be B
and depth of flow be y. 2 9
0.46 y 0.46 y
Area of flow. A = By 9.81
Wetted perimeter, P = B + 2y y 5.77 m
= 2y
27. [Ans. A]
For hydraulically most efficient section, P
should be minimum y ( ) Q Constant
dP
∴ 0 y ( )
dy
A Depends on geometry only.
 2 0
y
 A 2y 28. [Ans. A]
 B 2y
 B 2y
th th th

.
29. [Ans. D] ( ⁄ )
So, E 0.78
. .
Discharge Q = R S A
0.789 m
manning’s formula
( )
∴Q ( ) S B y So, [ ] 0.789 ⇒ B
[for wide channels R = y/2]
⇒Q y 3 1
⇒ 0.7893
2 g B
∆ .
∴ 100 100
⇒B 0.84m
17.2
32. [Ans. *] (Range 318 to 319)
30. [Ans. C] Q 15 10 m s
ww
Force exerted in x direction
= rate of change of momentum in x
Velocity of jet, v
A 0.03
21.22 m s
w.E
direction
i.e. F
Herev
A v v v
0ms x direction 30 mm
⇒F
asy 1000 0.0028 5 5

70 N
100 mm
15
31. [Ans. B]
n 0.015, Q 1m s, B 3.0m En Force on plate,
Normal depth of flow ranges between

0.76m to 0.8 m
If prevailing normal depth of flow is not
gi F
nee
a. v
1000
4
318.29 N
0.03 21.22
exceeded, there must not be choking of

the section or it should be at boundary 33.
rin
[Ans. *] Range 2.45 to 2.55
condition of choking. So, width of section
should be such that there should be
critical flow corresponding to the
prevailing specific energy.
Q = 4m s
q
4
2.5
g
B = 2.5 m
1.6 m s m .ne
3 q q
i. e. , ( ) E E y ⇒y 0.639
2 g g
q . At critical depth velocity head =

V 0.639
3 ( ) 2g 2
So [ ] E
2 g V √0.639 g
= 2.504 m/s
E y
Q . A. R s ⇒ 1
.
. B. y . ( ).S
.
⇒1 . 3y . ( ) . 0.0001
.
⇒y 0.78 m
th th th

.
Irrigation
CE – 2005 2. Uplift pressure at points E and D (figure

1. On which of the canal systems, R.G. A) of a straight horizontal floor of
Kennedy, executive engineer in the negligible thickness with a sheet pile at
Punjab Irrigation Department made his downstream end are 28% and 20%,
observations for proposing his theory on respectively. If the sheet pile is at
stable channels? upstream end of the floor (figure-B), the
(A) Krishna Western Delta canals uplift pressures at points D and C are
(B) Lower Bari Doab canals
(C) Lower Chenab canals E C C
(D) Upper Bari Doab canals b d d b
ww Figure-A
D D
Figure-B
w.E (A) 68% and 60% respectively

(B) 80% and 72% respectively
(C) 88% and 70% respectively
asy (D) 100% and zero respectively
En
Answer keys & Explanations
1.
2.
[Ans. D]
[Ans. B]
gi nee
Uplift pressure at D , 100
100 20 80
rin
Uplift pressure at C , 100
100 28 72 g .ne
th th th

.
Water Requirements of Crops
CE – 2005 CE – 2009
1. The culturable commanded area for a 5. An agricultural land of 437 ha is to be
distributary is 2 10 m . The intensity irrigated for a particular crop. The base
of irrigation for a crop is 40%. If kor period of the crop is 90 days and the
water depth and kor period for the crop total depth of water required by the crop
are 14 cm and 4 weeks, respectively, the is 105 cm. If a rainfall of 15 cm occurs
peak demand discharge is during the base period, the duty of
(A) 2.63 m ⁄s (C) 8.58 m ⁄s irrigation water is
(B) 4.63 m ⁄s (D) 11.58 m ⁄s (A) 437 ha/cumec (C) 741 ha/cumec
(B) 486 ha/cumec (D) 864 ha/cumec
ww
CE – 2006
2. In a cultivated area, the soil has porosity
of 45% and field capacity of 38%. For a
CE – 2010
Common Data for Question 6 and 7
w.E
particular crop, the root zone depth is
1.0 m, the permanent wilting point is
10% and the consumptive use is
The moisture holding capacity of the soil
in a 100 hectare farm is 18 cm/m. The
asy
15 mm/d. If the irrigation efficiency is
60%, what should be the frequency of
field is to be irrigated when 50 per cent of
the available moisture in the root zone is
depleted. The irrigation water is to be
irrigation such that the moisture content
does not fall below 50% of the maximum En supplied by a pump working for 10 hours
a day, and water application efficiency is
available moisture?
(A) 5d
(B) 6d
(C) 9d
(D) 15d
gi 75 per cent. Details of crops planned for
nee
cultivation are as follows:
Crop Root zone Peak rate of moisture
CE – 2007
3. The consumptive use of water for a crop
X
rin
depth (m) use (mm/day)
1.0 5.0
during a particular stage of growth is
2.0 mm/day. The maximum depth of
available water in the root zone is
60 mm. Irrigation is required when the
6.
Y 0.8
g 4.0
The capacity of irrigation system
required to irrigate crop ‘X’ in 36
hectares is
.ne
amount of available water is 50% of the (A) 83 litres/sec (C) 57 litres/sec
maximum available water in the root (B) 67 litres/sec (D) 53 litres/sec
zone. Frequency of irrigation should be
(A) 10 days (C) 20 days 7. The area of crop ‘Y’ that can be irrigated
(B) 15 days (D) 25 days when the available capacity of irrigation
system is 40 liters/sec is
4. The culturable command area for a (A) 40 hectares (C) 30 hectares
distributed channel is 20,000 hectares. (B) 36 hectares (D) 27 hectares
Wheat is grown in the entire area and
the intensity of irrigation is 50%. The CE – 2012
kor period for wheat is 30 days and the 8. Wheat crop requires 55 cm of water
kor water depth is 120 mm. The outlet during 120 days of base period. The total
discharge for the distributary should be rainfall during this period is 100 mm.
(A) 2.85 m ⁄s (C) 4.63 m ⁄s Assume the irrigation efficiency to be
(B) 3.21 m ⁄s (D) 5.23 m ⁄s 60%. The area (in ha) of the land which
th th th

.
can be irrigated with a canal flow of CE – 2014

0.01 m ⁄s is 10. Irrigation water is to be provided to a
(A) 13.82 (C) 23.04 crop in a field to bring the moisture
(B) 18.85 (D) 230.40 content of the soil from the existing 18%
to the field capacity of the soil at 28%.
CE – 2013 The effective root zone of the crop is
9. The transplantation of rice requires 10 days 70 cm. If the densities of the soil and
and total depth of water required during water are 1.3 g/ cm and 1.0 g/ cm
transplantation is 48 cm. During respectively, the depth of irrigation water
transplantation, there is an effective rainfall (in mm) required for irrigating the crop is
( useful for irrigation) of 8 cm. the duty of ________
irrigation water (in hectares/cumec) is :
ww
(A) 612
(B) 216
(C) 300
(D) 108
1.
asy
[Ans. B]
Area under crop = 2 10
But the moisture content should not fall
below 50%.
Volume Area ∆
0.8 10 m
En ∴ Depth of water required
0.5 0.331 0.165 m
Discharge, Q
0.8 10
1.2 10 m
14 10
.
gi Actual depth stored,
0.165 60
nee 100
0.099m 99mm
Frequency of irrigation,
Actual depth stored 99
4.63 m ⁄sec
rin
Consumptive use 15
2. [Ans. B]
Depth of maximum available moisture,
d
γ
γ
F
3. [Ans. B]g
6.63 d ≈ 6 d
.ne
Consumptive use of water = 2.0 mm/day
Field capacity, Maximum depth of available water = 60
weight of water retained by soil mm
weight of same area of soil If amount of available water is reduced by
γ V 50%, then irrigation is required for a
γ V depth
But n 50
60 30 mm
γ 100
∴ Field capacity n 30
γ ∴ Frequency of irrigation
γ n 2
⇒ 15 days
γ Field capacity
γ 0.45
⇒ 4. [Ans. C]
γ 0.38
0.45 Area to be irrigated = Culturable
∴ d 1 0.38 0.1 command area × intensity of irrigation
0.38
0.331 m 50
20.00
100
th th th

.
10,000 ha 7. [Ans. D]
Duty, D
. . Moisture holding capacity of soil for crop
Y= 18 × 0.8 = 14.4 cm
=2160 ha/cumec Allowable depletion of moisture,
Area to be irrigated 50
∴ Outlet discharge 14.4 7.2cm
Duty of crop 100
, Consumptive use of water for crop
= 4.63 m s
Y = 0.4 cm/day
5. [Ans. D] ∴ Frequency of irrigation =
.
18 days
.
Total depth of water required by the crop
Thus 7.2 cm depth of water is to be
= 105 cm applied to the crop Y in the next 18 days.
Contribution of rainfall during the base Irrigation requirement
.
= 9.6 cm
.
period =15 cm
Quantity of water required = Discharge
∴ Delta, 105 15 90 cm
ww
Duty of crop
ha/cumec
864
through pump
⇒
9.6
100
A 10
6. w.E
[Ans. B]
Moisture holding capacity of soil = 18 8.
40 10
⇒ A 27 hectares
[Ans. A]
18 10 60 60
cm/m
asy
Root zone depth of crop X = 1.0 m
Given, Base period, B = 120 days
55 10 45cm 0.45m
Moisture holding capacity of soil for crop
X = 18 × 1 = 18 cm En B
8.64 , ∴ D
D
8.64 120
0.45
2304
Allowable depletion of moisture,

50
100
18 9 cm
Consumptive use of water for crop,
gi Area, A 2304 0.01 23.04
As efficiency of Irrigation is 60%
nee
Then required area for wheat crop
60
23.04 13.82 ha.
X 0.5 cm⁄day
∴ Frequency of irrigation 18 days 9. rin
[Ans. B]
100
to the crop X in the next 18 days.

Irrigation requirement,
.
Thus 9 cm depth of water is to be applied
g
Duty = 8.64
Duty = 8.64 .ne
hec cumec
Net water depth Duty = 216 hec/cumec.
Water application efficiency
9 10. [Ans. 91]
12cm Given,
0.75
Quantity of water required, Root zone depth d = 70 cm
12 Field capacity F 28
36 10 43200 m
100 Existing moisture content w = 18%
∴ Discharge through pump Density of soil γ = 1.3 gm/cm
43200 Density of water γ = 1.0 gm/cm
10 litres sec
18 10 60 60 Depth of irrigation water required,
litres γ
66.67 ≈ 67litres sec d d F w
sec γ
.
70 10 28 18
.
1.3 70 10
91mm
th th th

.
Sediment, Transport and Design of Irrigation Channels
CE – 2005 CE – 2008
1. Which one of the following equations 3. A stable channel is to be designed for a
represents the downstream profile of discharge of Q m s with silt factor f as
Ogee spillway with vertical upstream per Lacey’s method. The mean flow
face? (x, y) are the coordinates of the velocity (m/s) in the channel is obtained
point on the downstream profile with by
origin at the crest of the spillway and H
(A) * + (C) * +
is the design head.
.
(A) 0.5 ( ) (B) * + (D) 0.48 * +
ww
.
(B) 0.5 ( ) CE – 2009
. 4. The depth of flow in a alluvial channel is
(C) 2.0 ( )
w.E
(D) 2.0 ( )
.
1.5m. If critical velocity ratio is 1.1 and
Manning’s n is 0.018, the critical velocity
of the channel as per ennedy’s method is
CE – 2007
2. asy
As per the Lacey’s method for design of
(A) 0.713 m/s
(B) 0.784 m/s
(C) 0.879 m/s
(D) 1.108 m/s
alluvial channels, identify the TRUE

statement from the following: En
(A) Wetted perimeter increases with an
increase in design discharge.
(B) Hydraulic radius increases with an
gi nee
increase in silt factor.
(C) Wetted perimeter decreases with an
increase in design discharge. rin
(D) Wetted perimeter increases with an
increase in silt factor. g .ne
1. [Ans. A] 2. [Ans. A]
For a spillway having a vertical u/s face, As per Lacey’s method of design of
the d/s crest is given by the equation, alluvial channels,
x . 2H . y P 4.75√Q
H
⇒x . 2H . y
H 3. [Ans. A]
.
H y
⇒ x . 2
H 4. [Ans. B]
.
x y The critical velocity as per ennedy’s
⇒ .
2H H method is given by
y x . V 0.55 my . 0.55 1.1 1.5 .
⇒ 0.5 ( )
H H 0.784 m s
th th th

.
Hydrology
CE– 2005 (A) At point of inter section of the inflow
1. The intensity of rain fall and time interval and outflow hydrographs
of a typical storm are (B) A point, after the inter section of the
Time interval Intensity of rainfall inflow and outflow hydrographs
(minutes ) (mm/minute ) (C) The tail of inflow hydrographs
0-10 0.7 (D) A point, before the inter section of
10-20 1.1 the inflow and outflow hydrographs
20-30 2.2
30-40 1.5 5. Two observation wells penetrated into a
40-50 1.2 confined aquifer and located 1.5 km apart
in the direction of flow, indicate head of
ww 50-60
60-70
70-80
1.3
0.9
0.4
45 m and 20 m. If the coefficient of
permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day
w.E
The maximum intensity of rainfall for 20
minutes duration of the storm is
(A) 1.5 mm/minute
and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of
an inert tracer from one well to another is
(A) 416.7 days (C) 750 days
asy
(B) 1.85 mm/minute
(C) 2.2 mm/minute
(B) 500 days (D) 3000 days
(D) 3.7 mm/minute

En CE– 2006
6. During a 3 hour storm event, it was
Statement for Linked Answer Questions
2&3
A four hour unit hydrograph of a
gi observed that all abstractions other than
infiltration are negligible. The rainfall was
nee
idealized as 3 one hour storms of
intensity 10 mm/hr, 20 mm/hr and
catchment is triangular in shape with
base of 80 hours. The area of the
catchment is 720 km . The base flow and rin
10 mm/hr respectively and the
infiltration was idealized as a Horton
– index are 30 m /s and 1mm/h,
respectively. A storm of a 4 cm occurs
uniformly in 4 hours over the catchment.
(A) 10.00 mm
(B) 11.33 mm
g
curve, f = 6.8 + 8.7 exp( t) (f in mm/hr
(C) 12.43 mm
(D) 13.63 mm
.ne
and t in hr). What is the effective rainfall?
2. The peak discharge of four hour unit

hydrograph is Common Data for Questions 7and 8
(A) 40 m /s (C) 60 m /s For catchment, the S – curve (or S –
(B) 50m /s (D) 70 m /s hydrograph) due to a rainfall of intensity
1 cm/hr is given by Q =
3. The peak flood discharge due to the storm 1 (1+t)exp( t)(t in hr and Q in m /s).
is 7. What is the area of the catchment?
(A) 210 m /s (C) 260 m /s (A) 0.01 km (C) 1.00 km
(B) 230 m /s (D) 720 m /s (B) 0.36 km (D) 1.28 km
4. When the outflow from a storage 8. What will be the ordinate of a 2 – hour
reservoir is uncontrolled as in a freely unit hydrograph for this catchment at
operating spillway, the peak of outflow t = 3 hour ?
hydrograph occurs at (A) 0.13 m /s (C) 0.27 m /s
(B) 0.20 m /s (D) 0.54 m /s
th th th

.
9. For steady flow to a fully penetrating well (C) Increased peak with increased
in a confined aquifer, the drawdowns at time – base
radial distances of r1 and r2 from the well (D) Increased peak with reduced
have been measured as s1 and s2 time – base
respectively , for a pumping rate of Q. The
transmissivity of the aquifer is equal to 14. A volume of 3 10 m of ground water
was pumped out from an unconfined
(A) (C) l ( )
aquifer uniformly from an area of 5 .
(B) (D) 2 Q The pumping lowered the water table
( )
from initial level of 102 m to 99m. the
specific yield of the aquifer is
CE– 2007 (A) 0.20 (C) 0.40
ww
Common Data for Questions 10 and 11
Ordinates of a 1 – hour unit hydrograph at
1 hour intervals, starting from time t = 0, 15.
(B) 0.30 (D) 0.50
An outlet irrigates an area of 20 ha. The
w.E
are 0, 2, 6, 4, 2, 1 and 0 m /s.
10. Catchment area represented by this unit
hydrograph is
discharge (l/s) required at this outlet to
meet the evapo-transpiration
requirement of 20 mm occurring
asy
(A) 1.0 km
(B) 2.0 km
(C) 3.2 km
(D) 5.4 km
uniformly in 20 days neglecting other
field losses is
11. Ordinate of a 3 – hour unit hydrograph for En (A) 2.52

(B) 2.31
(C) 2.01
(D) 1.52
the catchment at t = 3 hour is
(A) 2.0 m /s
(B) 3.0 m /s
(C) 4.0 m /s
(D) 5.0 m /s
gi CE– 2009
nee
One hour triangular unit hydrograph of a
12. An isolated 4-hour storm occurred over a
catchment as follows: rin
watershed has the peak discharge of 60
m /sec.cm at 10 hour and time base of 30
Time
Rainfall
(mm)
1st hr 2nd hr 3rd hr 4th hr
9 28 12 7 g
hours. The index is 0.4 cm per hour and
base follow is 15 m /sec.
16. The catchment area of the watershed is .ne
The index for the catchment is 10 mm/h. (A) 3.24 km (C) 324 km
The estimated runoff depth from the (B) 32.4 km (D) 3240 km
catchment due to the above storm is
(A) 10 mm (C) 20 mm 17. If these is rainfall of 5.4 cm in 1 hour, the
(B) 16 mm (D) 23 mm ordinate of the flood hydrograph at 15th
hour is
CE– 2008 (A) 225 m /sec (C) 249 m /sec
13. A flood wave with a known inflow (B) 240 m /sec (D) 258 m /sec
hydrograph is routed through a large
reservoir. The outflow hydrograph will 18. The relationship among specific yield
have. (S ), specific retention (S ) and porosity
(A) Attenuated peak with reduced ( ) of an aquifer is
time – base (A) S S (C) S S
(B) Attenuated peak with increased (B) S S (D) S S 2
time – base
th th th

.
CE– 2010 22. A watershed got transformed from rural

19. A well of diameter 20 cm fully penetrates to urban over a period of time. The effect
a confined aquifer. After a long period of urbanization on storm runoff
pumping at a rate of 2720 liters per hydrograph from the watershed is to
minute, the observations of drawdown (A) Decrease the volume of runoff
taken at 10 m and 100 m distances from (B) Increase the time to peak discharge
the center of the wall are found to be 3 m (C) Decrease the time base
and 0.5 m respectively. The transmissivity (D) Decrease the peak discharge
of the aquifer is
(A) 676 m /day (C) 526 m /day Common Data Questions for 23 and 24
The ordinates of 2- h unit hydrograph at 1
(B) 576 m /day (D) 249 m /day
hour intervals starting from time t = 0,
are 0, 3, 8, 6, 3, 2 and 0 m /s. Use
20.
ww
Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
trapezoidal rule
integration, is required.
for numerical
w.EList-I
A. Evapotranspiration
B. Infiltration
23. What is the catchment area represented
by the unit hydrograph?
(A) 1.00 km (C) 7.92 km
asy
C. Synthetic Unit Hydrograph
D. Channel Routing
24.
(B) 2.00 km (D) 8.64 km
A storm of 6.6 cm occurs uniformly over

List-II
1. Penman method En the catchment in 3 hours. If – index is
equal to 2mm/h and base flow is 5 m /s ,
2. Snyder’s method
3. Muskingum method
4. Horton’s method
Codes:
gi what is the peak flow due to the storm?
nee
(A) 41.0 m /s
(B) 43.4 m /s
(C) 53.0 m /s
(D) 56.2 m /s
A B C D
(A) 1 3 4 2
CE– 2012
rin
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
range g
25. The ratio of actual evapo – transpiration
(A) 0.0 to 0.4 (C) 0.0 to 1.0

.ne
to potential evapo – transpiration is in the
(B) 0.6 to 0.9 (D) 1.0 to 2.0

CE– 2011
21. In an aquifer extending over 150 hectare, Statement for Linked Answer Questions
the water table was 20 m below ground 26 & 27
level. Over a period of time the water The drainage area of a watershed is 50
table dropped to 23 m below the ground km . The index is 0.5 cm/ hour and the
level. If the porosity of aquifer is 0.40 and base flow at the outlet is 10 m s. One
the specific retention is 0.15, what is the hour unit hydrograph (unit depth = 1 cm)
change in ground water storage of of the watershed is triangular in shape
aquifer? with a time base of 15 hours. The peak
(A) 67.5 ha.m (C) 180 ha.m ordinate occurs at 5 hours.
(B) 112.5 ha.m (D) 450 ha.m 26. The peak ordinate (in m /s/cm) of the
unit hydrograph is
(A) 10.00 (C) 37.03
(B) 18.52 (D) 185.20
th th th

.
27. For a storm of depth of 5.5 cm and 32. A 1 hour rainfall of 10 cm magnitude at a
duration of 1 hour, the peak ordinate (in station has return period of 50 year. The
m /s) of the hydrograph is probability that 1 hour of rainfall of
(A) 55.00 (C) 92.60 magnitude 10 cm or more will occur in
(B) 82.60 (D) 102.60 each of two successive year is
(A) 0.04 (C) 0.02
28. Group I contains parameters and Group II (B) 0.2 (D) 0.0004
lists methods/ instruments.
Group I Group II CE– 2014
P. Stream flow 1. Anemometer 33. A conventional flow duration curve is a
velocity plot between
Q. Evapo – 2. Penman’s (A) Flow and percentage time flow is
ww transpiration
rate
R. Infiltration 3.
method
Hortons’s
exceeded
(B) Duration of flooding and ground
level elevation
w.E rate
S. Wind
velocity
4.
method
Current
meter
(C) Duration of water supply in a city
and proportion of area receiving
supply exceeding this duration
asy
The correct match of Group I & Group II is
(A) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4
(D) Flow rate and duration of time taken
to empty a reservoir at that flow rate
(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
(C) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
En 34. In reservoirs with an uncontrolled
(D) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4
CE– 2013
29. An isohyet is a line joining points of
gi spillway, the peak of the plotted outflow
nee
hydrograph
(A) lies outside the plotted inflow
hydrograph
(A) Equal temperature
(B) Equal humidity rin
(B) lies on the recession limb of the
plotted inflow hydrograph
(C) Equal rainfall depth
(D) Equal evaporation g
(C) lies on the peak of the inflow
hydrograph
.ne
(D) is higher than the peak of the plotted
Statement for Linked Answer Questions inflow hydrograph
30 & 31
At a station, storm I of 5 hour duration 35. An isolated 3-h rainfall event on a small
with intensity 2 cm/ h resulted in a runoff catchment produces a hydrograph peak
of 4 cm and Storm II of 8 hour duration and point of inflection on the falling limb
resulted in a runoff of 8.4 cm. assume that of the hydrograph at 7 hours and 8.5
the - index is the same of both the hours respectively, after the start of the
storms. rainfall. Assuming, no losses and no base
30. The - index ( in cm/h) is : flow contribution, the time of
(A) 1.2 (C) 1.6 concentration (in hours) for this
(B) 1.0 (D) 1.4 catchment is approximately
(A) 8.5 (C) 6.5
31. The intensity of storm II ( in cm/h) is : (B) 7.0 (D) 5.5
(A) 2.00 (C) 1.50
(B) 1.75 (D) 2.25
th th th

.
36. The Muskingum model of routing a flood

through a stream reach is expressed as
O I I O , where k , k
and are the routing coefficients for the
concerned reach, I and I are the inflows
to the reach, and O and O are the
outflows from the reach corresponding to
time steps 1 and 2 respectively. The sum
of , and of the model is
(A) 1 (C) 0.5
(B) 0.5 (D) 1
1.
ww
[Ans. B]
Coefficient of permeability, K 30 m/day
w.E
Maximum intensities of rainfall for two
consecutive 10min, are 2.2 mm/min and
1.5 mm/min
∴ Discharge velocity V = K.i
30 0.01667
0.5 m/day
asy
Maximum intensity for 20 min is,
. .
1.85 mm/min
Actual velocity or seepage velocity,
V
.
2m/day
2. [Ans. B] En n = porosity = 0.25

.
Area of UH = Area of catchment
1
80 60 60
unit depth
Q
gi time of travel, t
nee 1.5
2
10
750
Q
720 10
50 m /sec
0.01
6. [Ans. D]
rin
g .ne
Intensity (m/hr)
20
3. [Ans. A]
15.5
Rainfall excess, R = P – t
= 4 – 0.1 4 Horton’s infiltration curve
3.6 cm
Peak of DRH = Peak of UH R 0 1 2 3
= 50 3.6 Time (hr)
180 m /s Horton’s equation, f 6.8 8.7 e
Peak of flood hydrograph = Peak of DRH At t =0 hr
+ Base flow f = 6.8 +8.7 e =15.5 mm/hr
180 30 At t = 1 hr
210 m /s f = 6.8 +8.7 e =10 mm/hr
t = 2 hr
4. [Ans. A] f = 6.8 +8.7 e =7.98 mm/hr
t = 3 hr
5. [Ans. C] f = 6.8 +8.7 e =7.23 mm/hr
Hydraulic gradient, I
.
0.01667
th th th

.
The Horton’s curve is super imposed on 9. [Ans. A]

the hyetograph. The hetched portion In a confined aquifer,
indicates run off. 2 kb s s
Q
Area below the Horton’s curve from log
t = 1 hr to 3 hr is
2 T s s
Q
∫ 6.8 8.7e dt log ( )
Transmissibility, T = kb
8.7e Q. log ( )
*6.8t +
1 T
2 s s
6.8 3 8.7e
6.8 1 8.7e 10. [Ans. D]
ww 19.97 3.60
16.37mm(equal to infiltration loss
from t = 1 hr to 3 hr)
Volume of UH = ∆t. ∑ 0
1 60 60 0 2
w.E
Total rain fall depth = 20 1 10 1
(in 2ndhr and 3rdhr)
=30mm
54000 m
6 4 2 1 0
Area of UH = catchment area 0.01 m
asy
Rain fall excess = 30 16.37
=13.63 mm
54000 A 0.01
A 5.4 10 m
5.4 km
7. [Ans. B] En 11. [Ans. C]

The saturation discharge four S – curve
Q
Q 1m s
Lim Q gi Method of superposition is used to derive
nee
3hr UH from the given 1hr UH as follows.
Time Ordinates DRH Ordinate of
Rainfall intensity (h) of 1 h – of 3 3h. UH
i 1
cm
hr 360000
1
m s
rin
UH( ) cm
in
( )
∴ catchment are i Q
⇒ catchment are
1
1 360000 0
0 hr
g 1 2
hr hr
0
3h
( )
0 .ne
0 2 0
⇒ catchment are 360000 m 1 2 02 2 3 0.67
0.36 km 2 6 2 28 8 3 2.67
3 4 6 612 12 3 4
8. [Ans. C] 4 2 4 412 12 3 4
The duration of S - curve =1hr 5 1 2 27 7 3 2.33
6 0 1 13 3 3 1
The ordinate of 2 - h OH is obtained by
7 0 01 1 3 0.33
the procedure.
8 0 0 0
Step 1: The ordinate of S - curve at t = 3h Thus at time t = 3 h, the ordinate of
S 1 1 3 e 0.8 m s 3h – UH is 4 m s
Step 2: The ordinate of S- curve at The ordinate of 3hr UH at t = 3 hr is 4m /sec
t = 3 – 2 = 1h
S 1 1 1 e 0.26 m s 12. [Ans. C]
Step 3: S S 0.8 0.26 0.54 m s -index =
28 12 Runoff
⇒ 10
Time of rainfall excess
th th th

.
But precipitation in the 1st and 4th hours 17. [Ans. B]

is less than the -index i.e. the rainfall
during these two hours is ineffective
which means time of rainfall excess will 60 m S
be 2 hrs.
40 Runoff Q
∴ 10
2 0 15 30
⇒ Runoff 20mm 10 20
By interpolation, the ordinate of UH at
13. [Ans. B] 15 hrs is : 45 m /sec
14. [Ans. A] Rainfall excess (R)=P – t

Area of the aquifer = 5 km = 5 10 m Ordinate of DRH at 15 hrs is : 45 5
ww
Depth by which W.T is lowered = 102 99
=3m
255 m /s
Ordinate of flood hydrograph
= ordinate of DRH + Base flow
w.E
∴ Volume of soil involved = 5 10
Volume of water pumped out

3
15 10 m 225 15 240m /s
asy
Specific yield =
= 3 10 m 18.
19.
[Ans. C]
[Ans. D]
3 10
15 10
0.2
En The transmissivity of a confined aquifer is
given by
15. [Ans. B]
Volume of water required for evapo-
transpiration,
gi T=
nee=
log
.
( )
log ( )
20 10
4 10 litres
20 10 10
rin
= 249.4 m day
∴ Dishcarge required at outlet,

4 10
20 24 60 60
20.
21.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. B]
S S
g m
.ne
2.31 liters sec
S 0.40 0.15
16. [Ans. C] S 0.25
Volume of UH (m = Area of catchment Specific yield,
m unit depth m S
1
30 60 3600 A 0.01 change in ground water storage
2
A 324 10 m 324 m = volume of water extracted,
S total volume of aquifer
0.25 150 23 20
112.5 ha. m
22. [Ans. C]
th th th

.
23. [Ans. C] Peak of 3hr. U.H = 6 m /sec

Volume of UH = ∆t. ∑ O Peak of D.R.H = Peak of U.H R cm
1 60 60 0 3 8 6 3 2 R P t 6.6
0
R 6 cm
79200 m
Peak of D.R.H = 6 6 36 m /sec
Area of UH (m Area of catchment
Peak of storm hydrograph = 36 + Base flow
(m 0.01 m
36 5
Area of catchment
41 m /sec
=
. .
7.92 10 m 25. [Ans. C]
7.92 km
26. [Ans. B]
24.
ww
[Ans. A] (Required confirmation)
Ordinates of 2-h unit hydrograph are
given in the question. Therefore, the Discharge
w.E
ordinates of 3 – hour unit hydrograph are
to be derived by method of S – curve as
shown below.
m s
QP
Time
asy 2-
hr.
S -Curve S - Curve, SA
Addition (3) (2) + (3)
0 5hr 15hr
Time (hr)
Volume of UH = Area of catchment 0.01 m
(1) UH
(2) En 1
2
15 60 60 Q 50 10 0.01
0
1
2
0
3
8
-
-
0
0
3
8
gi 27.
Q
nee
18.52 m /sec
[Ans. D]
3 6 3 9 Rainfall excess, R = P – t
4 3 8 11
rin
5.5 0.5 1 5 cm
Peak of DRH = Peak of UH R
5
6
7
8
2
0
9
11
11
11
11
11
11
g 18.52 5
92.6 m /sec
Peak of flood hydrograph .ne
= Peak of DRH + BF
9 11
92.6 10 102.60 m /sec
S- SA - 3hr.U.H S - Curve, SB
28. [Ans. C]
Curve, SB Lagged
SB by 3hr . 29. [Ans. C]
Lagged Isohyet joins points of same rainfall
by 3hr depth.
- 0 0 -
- 3 2 - 30. [Ans. A]
- 8 5.34 - Storm I
0 9 6 0 D = 5h
3 8 5.34 3 i = 2 cm/hr
8 3 2 8 Runoff = 4cm
9 2 1.33 9 Storm II
11 0 0 11 D = 8h
i =?
th th th

.
Run off = 8.4cm /hr

Inflow hydrograph
Recession limb
6 Outflow hydrograph
1.2
5
31. [Ans. D]
Let intensity of storm – II be P cm/hr
P 8 8.4
1.2 35. [Ans. D]
8
1.2 8 8.4 In a small catchment
P Time of concentration = Lag time of peak flow
8
P 2.25 cm /hr = 7.0 – 1.5
∴ intensity 2.25 cm/hr = 5.5 hr
32. ww
[Ans. D] 36. [Ans. D]
w.E
Return period of rainfall T=50 years
∴Probabilbity of occurrence once in 50
year,
p
1
5asy 0.02
Probability of occurrence in each of 2
Successive year p 0.02 0.004
En
33. [Ans. A]
A typical flow duration curve loops like gi nee
rin
Mean daily flow
g .ne
Flow exceedence
percentile
∴ A is best choice
34. [Ans. B]
Outflow hydrograph is similar to inflows
hydrograph but with time lag
∴Peak of outflow hydrograph must lie on
recession limits of plotted inflow
hydrograph for uncontrolled spillway
since time lag will be very less
For controlled spillway, peak of outflow
hydrograph may lie on recession limits or
outside of plotted inflow hydrograph.
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Environmental Engineering
Quality Standards of Water
CE – 2005 CE – 2010
1. If tomato juice is having a pH of 4.1 the Common Data for Q.No. 5 and 6
hydrogen ion concentration will be Ion concentration obtained for a
(A) groundwater sample (having pH = 8.1)
(B) are given below.
(C) Ion Ion Atomic Weight
(D) concentration
(mg/L)
CE – 2007 Ca2+ 100 Ca = 40
2. The alkalinity and the hardness of a water Mg2+ 6 Mg = 24
ww
sample are 250mg/L and 350 mg/L as
CaCO3 respectively. The water has
Na + 15
250
Na = 23
H = 1, C = 12 O
w.E
(A) 350 mg/L carbonate hardness and
zero non-carbonate hardness
(B) 250mg/L carbonate hardness and
45 S = 12
O = 16
=16
asy
zero non-carbonate hardness.
(C) 250mg/L carbonate hardness and
350 mg/L non-carbonate hardness
5.
39 CI = 35.5
Total hardiness (mg/L as CaCO3) present
(D) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and

100 mg/L non-carbonate hardness En in the above water sample is
(A) 205 (C) 275
CE – 2009
Common Data for Q.No. 3 and 4
gi 6.
(B) 250
nee
(D) 308
Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO3)

present in the above water sample is
Following chemical species were reported
for water sample from a well:
rin
(A) 205 (B) 250 (C) 275 (D) 289
Species
Chloride ( )
Sulphate ( )
Concentration
(milli equivalent/L)
15
15
CE – 2011
7. g .ne
Anaerobically treated effluent has MPN of
total coliform as 106/100mL. After
chlorination, the MPN value declines to
Carbonate ( ) 05 /100mL. The percent removal (%R)
Bicarbonate ( ) 30 and log removal (log R) of total coliform
Calcium ( ) 12 MPN is
Magnesium ( ) 18 (A) (%R) = 99.90; log R = 4
pH 8.5 (B) (%R) = 99.90; log R = 2
3. Total hardness in mg/L as CaCO3 is (C) (%R) = 99.99; log R = 4
(A) 1500 (C) 3000 (D) (%R) = 99.99; log R = 2
(B) 2000 (D) 5000
CE – 2014
4. Alkalinity present in the water in mg/L as 8. Some of the nontoxic metals normally
CaCO3 is found in natural water are
(A) 250 (C) 1750 (A) arsenic, lead and mercury
(B) 1500 (D) 5000 (B) calcium, sodium and silver
(C) cadmium, chromium and copper
(D) iron, manganese and magnesium
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D] 6. [Ans. A]
pH = log10 [ ] Total alkalinity in water consists of
4.1= log10 [ ] alkalinity caused by C ,H and
= [ ] = [ ] = 7.94× . A tittle negative alkalinity is also caused
by H+
2. [Ans. D] t ty ,
Carbonate hardness is equal to the total wt
[
hardness or alkalinity whichever is lesser. wt
In this case alkalinity (250 mg/L) is less = 250 × = 205 mg /L
than total hardness (350 mg/L)
Carbonate hardness is equal to the total
ww
Carbonate hardness = 250 mg/L as
CaC
Non-carbonate hardness is total hardness
hardness or alkalinity whichever is less.
The carbonate hardness of sample will be
w.E
in excess of the alkalinity i.e.
Non-carbonate hardness,
205 mg/L
N r t rd ss,
= total hardness carbonate hardness
asy
= Total hardness – alkalinity
= 350 – 250 = 100 mg/L as CaC
= 275 205 = 70 mg/L
3. [Ans. A]
Total hardness is mg/l as CaC En 7. [Ans. C]
( )
=[
[
w t of CaC
]× combining weight of CaC
= 12 × 50 + 18 × 50 = 600 + 900 = 1500
gi nee= 99.99%
4. [Ans. C]
rin
Total alkalinity in mg/L as CaC
=[
+[
{[
] × combining weight of CaC
] × combining weight of CaCO3+
]× combining weight of CaCO3
8. [Ans. D]g .ne
Silver, lead, mercury, cadmium are most
commonly present in industrial waste –
[H+] × combining weight of CaCO3}
water (effluent) and are toxic in nature
([ ] and [ ] can be neglected for
Also calcium, sodium are not metals.
lower values)
Option D is most appropriate.
= 5 × 50 + 30 × 50 = 250 + 1500 = 1750
5. [Ans. C]
Total hardness
wt
[ [
wt
wt
wt
=6×
th th th

.
Water Supply and its Treatment
CE – 2005 4. List-I contains some properties of

Statement for Linked Answer Q.No. 1 & 2 water/waste water and List-II contains
A city is going to install a rapid sand filter list of some tests on water /waste water.
after the sedimentation tanks. Use the Match List-I with List-II and select the
following data. correct answer using the codes given
Design loading rate to the filter below the lists
200m3/m2d List 1 (properties) List 2 (Test)
Design flow rate 0.5m3/s (A) Suspended 1) BOD
Surface area per filter box 50m2 solid
1. Surface area required for the rapid sand concentration
ww
filter will be
(A) 210
(B) 215
(C) 216
(D) 218
(B) Metabolism of 2) MPN
Biodegradable
organics
2. w.E
The no. of filter required
(C) Bacterial
concentration
(D) Coagulant
3) Jar test
4) Turbidity
asy
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Codes
dose
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the

correct answer using the code given En (A) 2
A B
1
C
4
D
3
below the lists
List I
A. Release
List II
1. Reduce high
gi (B) 4
nee
(C) 2
(D) 4
1
4
2
2
1
1
3
3
3
valve inlet pressure
to lower outlet
5.
rin
1 TCU is equivalent to the color produced
(A) 1 mg/L of chloroplatinate ion
B. Check valve
pressure
2. Limit the flow
of water to
single direction
g
(B) I mg/L of platinum ion
(C) 1 mg/L platinum in form of
chloroplatinate ion .ne
(D) 1 mg/L of organo – chloroplatinate
C. Gate valve 3. Remove air
ion
from the
pipeline CE – 2007
D. Pilot valve 4. Stopping the Common Data Questions Q No 6 & Q No 7
flow of water in A plain sedimentation tank with a length
the pipeline of 20m, width of 10m and a depth of 3m is
Codes used in a water treatment plant to treat
A B C D 4 million litres of water per day(4 MLD).
(A) 3 2 4 1 The average temperature of water is
(B) 4 2 1 3 C. The dynamic viscosity of water is
(C) 3 4 2 1 1.002 × 10-3 N.s/m2 at C. Density of
(D) 1 2 4 3 water is 998.2 kg/m . Average specific
3
gravity of particle is 2.65
th th th

.
6. What is the surface overflow rate in the list of titrants

sedimentation tank? Group – I Group – II
(A) 20 m3/m2/day P. Alkalinity 1. N/35.5 AgNO3
(B) 40 m3/m2/day Q. Hardness 2. N/40 Na2S2O3
(C) 67 m3/m2/day R. Chloride 3. N/50 H2SO4
(D) 133 m3/m2/day S. Dissolved 4. N/50 EDTA
oxygen
7. What is the minimum diameter of the The correct match of water quality
particle which can be removed with parameters in Group –I with titrants in
100% efficiency in the above Group – II is:
sedimentation tank? (A) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4
(A) 11.8 × 10-3 mm (C) 50 × 10-3 mm (B) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2
(B) 16.0 × 10 mm
-3 (D) 160 × 10-3 mm
.
ww
CE – 2011
(C) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3
(D) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
8.
w.E
Consider the following unit processes
commonly used in water treatment; rapid
mixing (RM), flocculation (F), primary
11. A water treatment plant, having discharge
1 s has 14 filter to treat the water.
Each filter is having area, but due
asy
sedimentation (PS), secondary
sedimentation (SS), chlorination (C) and
rapid sand filtration (RSF). The order of
to backwashing activity 2 filters are non
operational. Calculate hydraulic loading
these unit processes (first to last) in a

conventional water treatment plant is En rate in
(A) P → F → F →
(B) P → F →
(C) P → F → → F →
→ F→ →
→ →
→
gi CE – 2014
nee
12. 16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2.5
km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The
(D) P →
CE – 2012
→F→ → F→
rin
chlorine at the rate of 32 kg/d is applied
at the entry of this pipe so that
9. A town is required to treat

4.2 min of raw water for daily
domestic supply. Flocculating particles
g
disinfected water is obtained at the exit.
.ne
There is a proposal to increase the flow
through this pipe to 22 MLD from 16
MLD. Assume the dilution coefficient,
are to be produced by chemical n = 1. The minimum amount of chlorine
coagulation. A column analysis indicated (in kg per day) to be applied to achieve
that an overflow rate of 0.2 mm/s will the same degree of disinfection for the
produce satisfactory particle removal in enhanced flow is
a settling basin at a depth of 3.5 m. (A) 60.50 (C) 38.00
The required surface area (in m2) for
(B) 44.00 (D) 23.27
settling is
(A) 210 (C) 1728 13. The potable water is prepared from
(B) 350 (D) 21000 turbid surface water by adopting the
following treatment sequence.
CE – 2013 (A) ur d sur w t r→ u t
10. Some of the water quality parameters → F u t → d t t →
are measured by titrating a water F tr t →Ds t → t r &
sample with a titrant. Group-I gives a Supply
list of parameters and Group-II gives the
th th th

.
(B) ur d sur w t r→Ds t 16. A suspension of sand like particles in

→ F u t → d t t → water with particles of diameter
F tr t → u t → t r & 0.10 mm and below is flowing into a
Supply settling tank at s . Assume
(C) ur d sur w t r → F tr t → g = 9.81 s , specific gravity of
d t t → Ds t → particles = 2.65, and kinematic viscosity
F u t → u t → of water = /s. The
Storage & Supply minimum surface area (in ) required
(D) ur d sur w t r → for this settling tank to remove particles
d t t → F u t → of size 0.06 mm and above with 100%
Coagulation → D s t → efficiency is _______________
F tr t → t r & upp y
14.
ww
For a sample of water with the ionic
composition shown in the figure below,
17. A surface water treatment plant
operates round the clock with a flow rate
of 35 /min. The water temperature is
w.E
the carbonate and non - carbonate
hardness concentrations (in mg/ as
CaCO3), respectively are:
and jar testing indicated an alum
dosage of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a
Gt value of producing optimal
asy N
7
results. The alum quantity required for
30 days (in kg) of operation of the plant
0 3.5 En 7
is ____________
(A) 200 and 50

(B) 175 and 75
(C) 75 and 175
(D) 50 and 200 gi 18. A conventional flow duration curve is a
nee
plot between
(A) Flow and percentage time flow is
exceeded
15. A straight 100 m long raw water gravity
main is to carry water from an intake
rin
(B) Duration of flooding and ground
level elevation
structure to the jack well of a water
treatment plant. The required flow
through this water main is 0.21 /s.
Allowable velocity through the main is
g
(C) Duration of water supply in a city
and proportion of area receiving
supply exceeding this duration .ne
(D) Flow rate and duration of time taken
0.75 m/s. Assume
to empty a reservoir at that flow rate
s . The minimum gradient
(in cm/100 m length) to be given to this
gravity main so that the required
amount of water flows without any
difficulty is ___________
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 7. [Ans. B]
D s wr t Settling velocity = =
t sur r
D s d r t v u t
ut t
r t w
= 12960 seconds
s
2. [Ans. C] Let the velocity of particle which can be
ww
No. of filter = removed with 100% efficiency be then
100 = 100
w.E
As per the options select 6 filters.
∵ t rs > 
( -1)
(2.65
= 0.2315
1) d2 = 0.2315
3.
asy
[Ans. A]
All of these are pipe appurtenances which
d = 2.58
are required for the proper functioning of

the pipeline. En d = 1.6
= 16 mm
4. [Ans. B]
Properties Test
gi 8.
9.
[Ans. D]
nee
[Ans. B]
Suspended solid Turbidity
concentration
Metabolism of BOD
Q=
rin /min
/s= /min
biodegradable organics
Bacterial concentration
Coagulant dose
MPN
Jar test
g .ne
10. [Ans. B]
5. [Ans. C] Alkalinity is measured by acid base
1 TCU is the colour produced by 1 mg of titration & hardness by EDTA.
P
platinum – cobalt in the form of So, } pt s rr t
choroplatinate ions dissolved in 1 litre of
distilled water
11. [Ans. *]Range 143 to 145
6. [Ans. A] ydr u d r t
Surface overflow rate
s
= =
= 20 / /day d y
d y
th th th

.
12. [Ans. A] 15. [Ans. *] Range 4.7 to 4.9

For disinfection, we have t s
Where t = time required to kill all ⁄s ⁄s
organisms
d
c = concentration of disinfectant
n = dilution coefficient d
k = constant
t t d
r
t t u r d t
t t pp
v ty w 16. [Ans. *] Range 31.0 to 32.0
ww ds r p rd y
d
w
w.E w t ds t tp rd y
s
asy BL
( ) ( )
En = 31.21
13. [Ans. A]
d y
gi 17. [Ans. 37800]
nee
Given Q = 35
Gt =
14. [Ans. B]
Carbonate hardness CH rin
Alum dosage = 25 mg/ltr
Alum quantity for 30 days
N
t
r
⁄ s
t
rd s
rd ss N
r t s rd ss
18. [Ans. A]
g .ne
⁄ s
th th th

.
Waste Water Treatment
CE – 2005 [ ⁄ [ .
1. In a certain situation waste water Water pH is 7
discharges into a river mixes with the river Atomic weights: Ca:40;Mg: 24; Al: 27;
water instantaneously and completely. H: 1; C: 12; O: 16; Na: 23; Cl: 35.5
Following is the data available. 5. The total hardness of the sample in mg/L
Waste water DO = 2.00 mg/L as Ca is
Discharge rate = 1.10 m3/s (A) 484 (C) 242
River water DO = 8.3 mg/L (B) 450 (D) 225
Flow rate = 8.70 m3/s
Temperature = 20oC 6. The non - carbonate hardness of the
ww
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of
waste and river shall be
(A) 5.3 mg/L (C) 7.6 mg/L
sample in mg/L as
(A) 225
(B) 156
is
(C) 86
(D) 0
w.E
(B) 6.5 mg/L (D) 8.4 mg/L
Common Data for Question for 7 & 8
In a rapid sand filter, the time for
2.
asy
Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of
(A) Total organic nitrogen
(B) Total organic and ammonia nitrogen
reaching particle break through
defined as the time elapsed from start of
is
(C) Total ammonia nitrogen

(D) Total inorganic and ammonia En filter run to the time at which the
turbidity of the effluent from the filter is
3.
nitrogen
In aerobic environment, nitrosomonas

gi greater than 2.5 NTU. The time for
nee
reaching terminal head loss
defined as the time elapsed from the start
is
convert of the filter run to the time when head

(A) N t N
(B) N t N
(C) N t N
(D) N t N rin
loss across the filter is greater than 3m.
CE – 2006
4. A synthetic sample of water is prepared by
7.
on and
g
The effect of increasing the filter depth
s .ne
(while keeping all other condition same)
adding 100 mg Kaolinite (a clay mineral), (A) increases and decreases

200 mg glucose, 168 mg NaCl, 120 mg (B) Both and increases
MgSO4, and 111 mg CaCl2 to 1 liter of pure (C) decreases and increases
water. The concentration of total solids (D) t and decreases
(TS) and fixed dissolved solids (FDS)
respectively in the solution in mg/L are 8. The effect of increasing the filer loading
equal to rate (while keeping all other condition
(A) 699 and 599 (C) 699 and 199 same) on and is
(B) 599 and 399 (D) 699 and 399 (A) increases and decreases
(B) t and increase
Linked Data for Q.No. 5 and Q.No. 6 (C) decreases and increases
A water contains the following dissolved (D) Both and decreases
ions
[N ⁄ [ ⁄
[ ⁄ [ ⁄
th th th

.
9. To determine the BOD5 of a waste water 11. What is the hydraulic retention time of
sample, 5, 10 and 50 mL aliquots of the the wastewater in aeration tank?
waste water were diluted to 300 mL and (A) 0.2h (C) 10h
incubated at in BOD bottles for 5 (B) 4.8h (D) 24h
days. The results were as follows.
S.No. Waste- Initial DO 12. What is the average time for which the
water DO, after biomass stays in the system?
volume, mg/L 5 (A) 5h (C) 2 days
mL days, (B) 8h (D) 8 days
mg/L
13. The presence of hardness in excess of
1. 5 9.2 6.9
permissible limit causes
2. 10 9.1 4.4
(A) Cardio – vascular problem
ww
3. 50 8.4 0.0
Based on the data, the average D of
the waste water is equal to
(B) Skin discolouration
(C) Calcium deficiency
w.E
(A) 139.5 mg/L
(B) 126.5 mg/L
(C) 109.8 mg/L
(D) 72.2 mg/L 14.
(D) Increased laundry expenses
50 g of d 25 g of are produced
10.
asy
The composition of a certain MSW sample
and specific weights of its various
from the decomposition of municipal
solid waste (MSW) with a formula weight
of 120 g.
components are given below:
Component Percent Specific En What is the average per capita
greenhouse gas production in a city of 1
Food
by
50
weight
weight (kg/ )
300
gi million people with a MSW production
nee
rate of 500 ton/day?
(A) 104 g/day (C) 208 g/day
Dirt and 30 500 (B) 120 g/day (D) 313 g/day
Ash
Plastics 10 65 CE – 2008 rin
Wood and
Yard waste
10 125
Specific weight (kg/ ) of the MSW

g
15. Match group 1 (Terminology) with Group
2 (Definition / Brief Description) for
wastewater treatment system .ne
sample is Group 1 Group 2
(A) 319 (C) 209 P. Primary 1. Contaminant removal by
(B) 217 (D) 199 treatment physical forces
Q. Secondary 2. Involving biological
CE – 2007 treatment and/or chemical reaction
Common Data Question Q No 11 & Q No 12 R. Unit 3. Conversion of soluble
A completely mixed activated sludge operation organic matter to
process is used to treat a wastewater flow biomass
of 1 million litres per day (1 MLD) having S. Unit 4. Removal of solid
a BOD5 of 200 mg/L. The biomass process materials from incoming
concentration in the aeration tank is 2000 wastewater
mg/L and the concentration of the net (A) P-4,Q-3, R-1, S-2
biomass leaving the system is 50 mg/L. (B) P-4,Q-3, R-2, S-1
the aeration tank has a volume of 200 m3 (C) P-3,Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-1,Q-2, R-3, S-4
th th th

.
16. The 5 – day BOD of a wastewater sample CE – 2009

is obtained as 190mg/L (with k = 0.01 20. Match the following
). The ultimate oxygen demand Column 1 Column 2
(mg/L) of the sample will be P. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling
(A) 3800 (C) 272 Q. Secondary 2. t ’s w
(B) 475 (D) 190 settling tank
R. Activated 3. Aerobic
17. Group 1 lists estimation method of some sludge
of the water and wastewater quality process
parameter. Group 2 lists the indicators S. Trickling 4. Contact
used in the estimation methods. Match filter stabilization
the estimation method (Group 1) with the The correct match of the column 1 with
ww
corresponding indicator (group 2)
P.
Group 1
Azide modified
Group 2
1. Eriochrome
column 2 is
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
w.E Winkler method

for dissolved
oxygen
Black T
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
Q.
asy
Dichromate
method for
Chemical oxygen
2. Ferrion
21. An aerobic reactor receives wastewater at
a flow rate of 500 m3/d having a COD of
R.
demand
EDTA titrimetric 3. Potassium
En 2000 mg/L. The effluent COD is 400
mg/L. Assuming that wastewater contains
S.
method for
hardness
Mohr or
Argentometric
chromate
4. Starch gi 80% biodegradable waste, the daily
nee
volume of methane produced by the
reactor is
method for (A) 0.224m3 (C) 224m3
chlorides
(A) P-3,Q-2, R-1, S-4 rin
(B) 0.2804m3 (D) 280m3
(B) P-4,Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4,Q-1, R-2, S-3
(D) P-4,Q-2, R-3, S-1
CE – 2010
g
22. If the BOD3 of a wastewater sample is
75 mg/L and reaction rate constant k .ne
18. A wastewater sample contains 10–5.6 (base e) is 0.345 per day, the amount of
mmol/l of O ions at 250C. The pH of this BOD remaining in the given sample after
sample is 10 days is
(A) 8.6 (C) 5.6
(A) 3.12 mg/L (C) 3.69 mg/L
(B) 8.4 (D) 5.4
(B) 3.45 mg/L (D) 3.92 mg/L
19. A water treatment plant is required to
process 28800 d of raw water CE – 2011
(density = 1000 kg/ , kinematic 23. Chlorine gas (8mg/L as Cl2) was added to
viscosity = s). The rapid mixing a drinking water sample. If the free
tank imparts a velocity gradient of
chlorine residual and pH was measured to
to blend 35 mg/L of alum with
the flow for a detention time of 2 minutes. be 2 mg/L (as Cl2) and 7.5, respectively,
The power input (W) required for rapid what is the concentration of residual OCI –
mixing is ions in the water? Assume that the
(A) 32.4 (C) 324 chlorine gas added to the water is
(B) 36 (D) 32400
th th th

.
completely converted to HOCI and OCI–. CE – 2012

Atomic Weight of Cl: 35.5 27. Assertion [a]: At a manhole, the crown
Given OCI + H+ ⃗⃗⃗ HOCl, K = 107.5 of the outgoing sewer should not be
(A) 1.408 × 10–5 moles/L higher than the crown of the incoming
(B) 2.817 × 10–5 moles/L sewer.
(C) 5.634 × 10–5 moles/L Reason [r]: Transition from a larger
(D) 1.127 × 10–4 moles/L diameter incoming sewer to a smaller
diameter outgoing sewer at a manhole
24. Total suspended particulate matter (TSP) should not be made.
concentration in ambient air is to be The CORRECT option evaluating the above
measured using a high volume sampler. statements is
The filter used for this purpose had an (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
ww
initial dry weight of 9.787 g. The filter
was mounted in the sampler and the
initial air flow rate through the filter was
correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not
the correct reason for [a]
w.E
set at 1.5 m3/min. Sampling continued
for 24 hours. The airflow after 24 hours
was measured to be 1.4 m3/min. The dry,
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
asy
weight of the filter paper after 24 hour
sampling was 10.283 g. Assuming a linear
Common Data Question 28 and 29
An activated sludge system (sketched
decline in the air flow rate during
sampling, what is the 24 hour average En below) is operating at equilibrium with
the following information.
TSP concentration in the ambient. Air?
(A)
(B)
μ
μ
3.
3 .
(C)
(D)
μ
μ
3.
3.
gi Wastewater related data:
flow rate = 500 m3/hour,
nee
influent BOD = 150 mg/L,
effluent BOD = 10 mg/L.
Linked Data Question for 25 & 26
The sludge from the aeration tank of the rin
Aeration tank related data:
hydraulic retention time = 8 hours,
activated sludge process (ASP) has solids
content (by weight) of 2%. This sludge is
put in a sludge thickener, where sludge
g
mean-cell-residence time = 240 hours,
volume = 4000
mixed liquor suspended solids, .ne
volume is reduced to half. Assume that = 2000 mg/L.
the amount of solids in the supernatant Influent Aeration Secondary Effluent
from the thickener is negligible, the Tank Clarifier
specific gravity of sludge solids is 2.2 and Sludge Recycle
the density is 1000 kg/
Solids
Wasted
25. What is the density of the sludge removed
28. The food-to-biomass (F/M) ratio (in kg
from the aeration tank?
BOD per kg biomass per day) for the
(A) 990 kg/ (C) 1011 kg/
aeration tank is
(B) 1000 kg/ (D) 1022 kg/
(A) 0.015 (C) 0.225
26. What is the solids content (by weight) of (B) 0.210 (D) 0.240
the thickened sludge?
(A) 3.96% (C) 4.04%
(B) 4.00% (D) 4.10%
th th th

.
29. The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted 33. A waste water stream w s
from the system is ut t D is joining a
(A) 24000 (C) 800 small river (flow=12 /s,
(B) 1000 (D) 33 ultimateBOD=5mg/l). Both water
streams get mixed up instantaneously.
CE – 2013 Cross- sectional area of the river is 50 .
30. A student began an experiment for Assuming the de-oxygenation rate
determination of 5day, BOD on constant,
Monday. Since the 5 th day fell on K = 0.25/day, the BOD (in mg/l) of the
Saturday,the final DO readings was taken river water, 10 km downstream of the
on next Monday. On calculation, BOD (i.e. mixing point is
7 day, )was found to be 150 mg/L. (A) 1.68 (C) 15.46
ww
What would be the 5 day,
mg/L)? Assume value of BOD rate
BOD (in
constant (k) at standard temperature of

(B) 12.63 (D) 1.37
w.E
CE – 2014
as 0.23/day (base e)._____________
asy
31. The dominating microorganisms in an
activated sludge process reactor are
(A) aerobic heterotrophs
(B) anaerobic heterotrophs En
(C) autotrophs
(D) phototrophs gi nee
32. An effluent at a flow rate of 2670 /d
from a sewage treatment plant is to be
disinfected. The laboratory data of rin
disinfection studies with a chlorine
dosage of 15 mg/l yield the model
N N where N = number of
g .ne
micro-organisms surviving at time t (in
min.) and N = number of micro-
organisms present initially (at t = 0). The
volume of disinfection unit (in )
required to achieve a 98% kill of micro-
organisms is ______________
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 7. [Ans. C]
D D If filter depth is increased, the static head
D
of the filter increases thus it takes more
time to reach a head loss of 3 m. also, the
time required to reach a turbidity of 2.5
NTU will decrease as there will be a large
area for suspended particles to be
2. [Ans. B] entrapped in it.
The sum total of organic nitrogen and
ammonia nitrogen is called Kjeldahl 8. [Ans. D]
3.
ww
[Ans. A]
If the filter loading increases, time for
reaching terminal head will decrease and
same will happen with the time of
4.
w.E
[Ans. A]
Total solids
9.
reaching particle break through.
[Ans. C]
asy
Fixed dissolved solids
BOD in mg/L = [initial DO – Final DO] ×
dilution factor
= Total solid – 100
= 699 – 100 = 599 mg/L En [ D
5. [Ans. C]
Total hardness
wt
gi [
[
nee
D
D
[
wt
wt
[
v rrin D
[
wt
10. [Ans. A]
g = 109.8 mg/L
.ne
( ) ( ) Specific weight of the MSW sample
⁄ s ( ) ( )
6. [Ans. C] ( )
Carbonate hardness
wt ( )
[
wt
11. [Ans. B]
⁄ s
The hydraulic retention time is given by
Non carbonate hardness = Total hardness
– Carbonate hardness t = × 24
⁄ s Where V = vol of the aeration tank
th th th

.
Q = quality of wastewater flow into the where, is in mol/l.

aeration tank excluding the quality of p[
recycled sludge p[
t= ut P P
p –
p
12. [Ans. D]
The Average time for which the biomass
19. [Ans. D]
stays in the system is known as sludge
The power input (W) required for rapid
age ( ) and it is given by
mixing is expressed in terms of temporal
=
mean velocity gradient, G, expressed by
= the equation
13.
ww = 8 days
[Ans. D]
μ
P
[ ]
r μ
P
dy
μ
v s s ty r w
14. w.E
[Ans. D]
water = kinematic viscosity × density
s
N s
asy
We know that both
green house gases.
d are
Total green house gases produced by

t = 2 minutes = 120 seconds
Discharge of raw water
120 gm of MSW
En s
500 ton of MSW will produce green house

gases gi Volume of water in tank,
nee
P
= 32400 watts
d y
Per capita average production of green 20. rin
[Ans. B]
house gases
d y
21. [Ans. D]g
Q = 500 m3/day = 0.5 MLD .ne
d y d y Influent COD: 2000 mg/L
Effluent COD: 400 mg/L
15. [Ans. A] COD removed = 2000 – 400 = 1600 mg/L
Biodegrades in COD = 1600 0.8
16. [Ans. C] = 1280 mg/L
BOD of t days may be given as d r d s
Lt = L (1 )
ssu d t s
[ –
t v t s w st w t r w
L=
d y
Gas produced @ 0.9m3/kg of VSS
17. [Ans. B]
Methane gas t t t s
18. [Ans. D]
p[ [
p[
th th th

.
22. [Ans. C] Aeration Secondary Effluent

The BOD at any instant is given by Tank clarifies
Solid
wasted
F
D t r d ys = 0.225 kg Biomass per day
29. [Ans. C]
Sludge age, or sludge residence
u t Dr
ww is in days
since is not given
23.
24.
w.E
[Ans. B]
[Ans. C]
( )
Mass of solids,
v r
asy r wr t
mg/day = 800 kg/day
( )
En 30. [Ans. *]Range 127 to 132

BOD5= ( )
Total airflow through the sampler during
24 hours gi D
nee
(
(
)
)
D
P tr t t t r
rinD
(
μ
) D
g .ne
25. [Ans. C] 31. [Ans. A]
26. [Ans. A] 32. [Ans. *] Range 49.0 to 51.0

N N
27. [Ans. D] w r
Nt = No.of micro org @ time t
28. [Ans. C] No = No.of micro org @ time t = 0
Given, For 98% kill means, 2% of bacteria
Flow rate ur will remain
Influent BOD t
Effluent BOD, = 10 mg/lit
Hydraulic retention time ur d y t t sd s
Mean - cell resistance time, Log ( )
= 240 hour = 10 day t = 26.97 min
M.L.S.S, (X) = 2000 mg/lit. Discharge,Q =
th th th

.
Volume = Discharge
=
Volume = 50
33. [Ans. C]
⁄s
Du t
s
ty v r w
ww s
w.E t t tr v
s d
asy
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Sludge Disposal
CE – 2005 4. Direction: determine the correctness or

1. Match the following otherwise of the following Assertion [A]
List I List II and the Reason [R]:
A Thickening 1. Decrease in Assertion: The crown of the outgoing
of sludge volume of sludge larger diameter sewer is always matched
by chemical with the crown of incoming smaller
oxidation diameter sewer
B Stabilization 2. Separate of water Reason: It eliminates backing up of
of sludge by heat and sewage in the incoming smaller diameter
chemical sewer.
ww treatment
C Conditioning 3. Digestion of
of sludge Sludge
(A) Both [a] & [r] are true and [r] is the
correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not
w.E
D Reduction of 4. Separation of
sludge water by
the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
asy
Codes:
floatation or
gravity
CE – 2013
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
A B C D
(A) 4 3 1 2 En 5. A settling tank in a water treatment plant
is designed for a surface overflow rate of
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
gi 30
nee
. Assume specific gravity of
sediment particles = 2.65, density of
water , dynamic
2. Bulking sludge refers to having
rin
viscosity of water μ
d st s’ w s v d
Ns
ppr x t
,
(A) < 0.3/d

(B) 0.3/d < F/M < 0.6/d
(C) F/M = zero
(D) F/M > 0.6/d
g
minimum size of particles that would be
completely removed is :
(A) 0.01mm (C) 0.03 mm .ne
(B) 0.02 mm (D) 0.04 mm
CE – 2008
3. Two biodegradable components of
municipal solid waste are
(A) Plastic and wood
(B) Cardboard and glass
(C) Leather and tin cans
(D) Food wastes and garden trimmings
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C]
2. [Ans. A]
3. [Ans. D]
Biologically active or biodegradable
components of wastes oxidise by bacteria.
Food wastes and garden trimmings, both
are organic wastes which are
biodegradable.
4.
ww
[Ans. A]
5.
w.E
[Ans. B]
d
μ
asy
Surface overflow rate =
s
En
→d gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Domestic Waste Water Treatment
CE – 2005 CE – 2012
1. A Circular primary clarifier processes an 4. A sample of domestic sewage is digested
average flow of 5005 /d of municipal with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid,
waste water. The over flow rate is potassium dichromate and mercuric
35 / /d. The diameter of clarifier sulphate in chemical oxygen demand
shall be (COD) test. The digested sample is then
(A) 10.5 m (C) 12.5 m titrated with standard ferrous ammonium
(B) 11.5 m (D) 13.5 m sulphate (FAS) to determine the un –
reacted amount of
CE – 2009 (A) Mercuric sulphate
2.
wwA horizontal flow primary clarifier treats
wastewater in which 10%, 60% and 30%
of particles have settling velocities of 0.1
(B) Potassium dichromate
(C) Silver sulphate
(D) Sulphuric acid
w.E
mm/s, 0.2 mm/s and 0.1mm/s
respectively. What would be the total 5. A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The
asy
percentage of particles removed if
clarifier operates at a Surface Overflow
Rate (SOR) of 43.2 -d?
concentration of hydroxyl ions in the
water sample is
(A) 10 9.25 moles/L
(A) 43%
(B) 56%
(C) 86%
(D) 100% En (B) 10 4.75 moles/L
CE – 2010
3. A Coastal city produces municipal solid
gi CE – 2013
(C) 0.302 mg/L
nee
(D) 3.020 mg/L
waste (MSW) with high moisture content,

high organic materials. Low calorific
6.
rin
Elevation and temperature data for places
are tabulated below:
value and low inorganic materials. The
most effective and sustainable option for
MSW management in that city is
(A) Composting
4
444
g
Elevation, m Temperature,
21.25
15.70 .ne
(B) Dumping in sea Based on the above data, lapse rate can be
(C) Incineration referred as:
(D) Landfill (A) Super – adiabatic
(B) Neutral
(C) Sub – adiabatic
(D) Inversion
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D]
Area of clarifier =
= = 146
D = 143
D = = D = 13.5m
2. [Ans. B]
Surface overflow rate
d = 43.2 m/d
ww s
w.E
It means that particles which have setting
velocities more that surface overflow rate
will be 100% removed.
asy
t p r t p rt s r v d
En
3. [Ans. A]
Incineration can be adopted when the
calorific value of the MSW is high. Landfill
gi nee
can be adopted when the density of MSW
is high.
rin
Since in the given MSW the quantity of
inorganic material is low. Its density is
less compositing can be adopted when the
MSW contains high organic content.
g .ne
Barging the MSW into sea is now a days
generally not used and has becomes
obsolete
4. [Ans. B]
5. [Ans. C]
pH = 9.25
p0H = 14 – 9.25 =4.75
= mol/l
/l
6. [Ans. A]
th th th

.
Air Pollution
CE – 2006 is the overall efficiency of the system for

1. The cumulative noise power distribution the same d ?
curve at a certain location is given below. (A) 100% (C) 80%
(B) 93% (D) 65%
greater than stated
100
Percent of time
CE – 2008
value
5. Two primary air pollutants are

(A) Sulphur oxide and ozone
0 (B) Nitrogen oxide and
50 Noise Level, dBA 100
peroxyacetylnitrate
ww
The value of
(A) 90 dBA
(B) 80 dBA
is equal to
(C) 70 dBA
(D) 60 dBA
(C) Sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon
(D) Ozone and peroxyacetylinitrate
2. w.E
The mean indoor airborne Chloroform
concentration in a room was
CE – 2009
6. The reference pressure used in the
asy
determined to be
0.4 μ
determination of sound pressure level is
(A) 20 μP
(B) 20 d
(C) 10 μP
(D) 10 d
Use the following data T = 293K, P = 1
Atmosphere, R = 82.05 × atm- En
/mol-K. Atomic weights: C = 12, H=1,
Cl = 35.5. This concentration expressed in
parts per billion (volume basic, ppbv) is
gi 7. Particulate matter (fly ash) carried in
effluent gases from the furnaces burning
nee
fossil fuels are better removed by
(A) Cotton bag house filter
equal to
(A) 1.00 ppbv
(B) 0.20 ppbv
(C) 0.10 ppbv
(D) 0.08 ppbv rin
(B) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)
(C) Cyclone
CE – 2007
3. The dispersion of pollutants in
8.
g
(D) Wet scrubber
.ne
Match List – I with List – II and select the
correct answer by using the codes given
atmosphere is maximum when below the lists:
(A) Environment lapse rate is greater List – I List – II
than adiabatic lapse rate A. Coriolis effect 1. Rotation of earth
(B) Environment lapse rate is less than B. Fumigation 2. Lapse rate and
adiabatic lapse rate vertical temp. profile
(C) Environment lapse rate is equal to C. Ozone layer 3. Inversion
adiabatic lapse rate D. Max. mixing 4. Dobson
(D) Maximum mixing depth is equal to depth (mixing
zero height)
Codes:
4. Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are A B C D
in series. The fractional efficiencies of the (A) 2 1 4 3
upstream and downstream ESPs for size (B) 2 1 3 4
d are 80% and 65%, respectively. What (C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
th th th

.
CE – 2010 CE – 2011
9. According to the Noise pollution 11. Consider four common air pollutants
(Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, of found in urban environment, N
the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Soot and . Among these which one is
India, the day time and night time noise the secondary air pollutant?
level limits in ambient air for residential (A) (C)
area expressed in dB(A) are (B) N (D) t
(A) 50 and 40 (C) 65 and 55
(B) 55 and 45 (D) 75 and 70 CE – 2014
12. The two air pollution control devices that
10. An air parcel having temperature are usually used to remove very fine
moves from ground level to 500 m particles from the flue gas are
ww
elevation in dry air following the
“ d t ps r t ” r su t
temperature of air parcel at 500 m
(A) Cyclone and Venturi Scrubber
(B) Cyclone and Packed Scrubber
(C) Electrostatic Precipitator and Fabric
w.E
elevation will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Filter
(D) Settling Chamber and Tray Scrubber
asy 13. The amount of generated (in kg)

while completely oxidizing one kg of
En to the end products is ____________
1. [Ans. C]
gi
nee
is the sound pressure level in dB
which is exceeded for 40% of the gauging
rin
v u
= 22.4 L/mol
t t t sp r
time.
Now, slope of the given
∵ Curve is a straight line, hence slope is
constant
Given P
gP
P
t s p r
.ne
∵ μ ⁄
d
pp
2. [Ans. D] in ppm =
The relation between μ and ppm is 1 pp v
ppm × molecular mass of pp v
p ut t ⁄
μ
⁄ p ut t t v 3. [Ans. A]
When the environment lapse rate is more
y v dr ’s w w wt t than the adiabatic lapse rate, a rising
P P
parcel of warm lighter air (pollutants)
will continue to lift up; where as parcel of
r P atmosphere;
th th th

.
heavier cooler air will continue to come the Ministry of Environment & Forest,
down. In such circumstances the India are tabulated below:
environment is unstable and the Category of Day Night
dispersion of pollutants will be rapid due Area/Zone time time
to marked vertical mixing of the air Industrial 75 70
Area
4. [Ans. B] Commercial 65 55
Given data: Area
Since the efficiency of upstream ESP is Residential 55 45
80%, only 20% of the particulate are not Area
removed. These remaining particulates Silence 50 40
will face the downstream ESP whose Zone
ww
efficiency is 65%.
Particulates removed by downstream
P
10. [Ans. A]
Dry air cools at the rate of per km
w.E
The two ESPs are connected in series,
therefore the overall efficiency =80 + 13
and it is called dry adiabatic lapse rate. In
saturated (wet)air, this rate is calculated
to be per km and is known as wet
asy
= 93%.
adiabatic lapse rate.
Resulting temperature of air
5. [Ans. C]
Sulphur dioxide carbon monoxide,
En
nitrogen oxides, lead, hydrocarbons,
allergic agents like pollens and spores and
radioactive substances are primary
pollutants. Sulphuric acid, ozone,
gi 11.
nee
[Ans. A]
Soot is a general term that refers to
impure carbon particles resulting from
formaldehydes & peroxyacylnitrates
(PAN) are secondary pollutants.
the
rin incomplete combustion
hydrocarbons. Soot, as an air borne
of
6. [Ans. A]
The sound pressure of the faintest sound
that can be heard by a normal healthy
g
contaminant in the environment has
.ne
many different sources but they are all
result of some form of pyrolysis.
individual is about 20 μP . Hence, this 12. [Ans. C]

pressure is used as reference pressure in
determination of sound pressure level. 13. [Ans. *] Range 2.7 to 2.8
Oxidization reaction of CH4
7. [Ans. B] →
i.e 1 mole of →
8. [Ans. D] →
→
9. [Ans. B] →
Ambient air quality standards in respect 2.75 is correct response
of Noise as per Noise pollution
(Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, of
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Structural Analysis
Trusses and Arches
CE – 2005 4. The members EJ and IJ of a steel truss

Common Data for Q.No.1 & Q.No.2 shown in the figure below are subjected
A truss is shown in the figure. Members to a temperature rise . The
are of equal cross section A and same coefficient of thermal expansion of steel is
modulus of elasticity E. A vertical force P 0.000012 pe per unit length. The
is applied at point C displacement (mm) of joint E relative to
P joint H along the direction HE of the truss,
C is
E J
L
ww
3000 mm
B
A
w.E 2L
G H I
1.
(A)
asy
Force in the member AB of the truss is
(C)
(A) 0.255
(B) 0.589
3000 mm 3000 mm
(C) 0.764
(D) 1.026
(B)
√
√
(D)
En CE – 2009
2. Deflection of the point C is

(A) (
√
)
gi 5. The degree of static indeterminacy of a
nee
rigidly jointed frame in a horizontal plane
and subjected to vertical load only, as
shown in figure below , is
(B) √
(C) ( √ ) rin
Ends clamped to rigid wall
(D) (√
CE – 2008
)
g .ne
3. The degree of static indeterminacy of the
rigid frame having two internal hinges as
(A) 6 (C) 3
shown in the figure below, is
(B) 4 (D) 1
I
H J
CE – 2010
6. A three hinged parabolic arch having a
span of 20 m and rise of 5 m carries a
G F E point load of 10 kN at quarter span from
the left end as shown in the figure. The
resultant reaction at the left support and
(A) 8 (C) 6 its inclination with the horizontal
(B) 7 (D) 5 respectively
th th th

ww
w.E
asy
E ngi
nee
rin
g.n
e

.
10 kN CE – 2014
9. A box of weight 100 kN shown in the
figure is to be lifted without swinging. If
5m all forces are coplanar, the magnitude and
di ection (θ) of force (F) with respect to
5m 5m 10 m
x – axis should be
y
(A) 9.01 kN and
90 kN 40kN
(B) 9.01 kN and
(C) 7.50 kN and F
(D) 2.50 kN and θ
x
100kN
7. For the turss shown in the figure, the
ww
force in the member QR is
L
(A) k nd θ
(B) F= 56.389kN and θ
w.EQ
R
(C)
(D)
k nd θ
k nd θ
asy L 10. Mathematical idealization of a crane has

three bars with their vertices arranged as
T S
En shown in the figure with a load of 80 kN
hanging vertically. The coordinates of the
(A) Zero
(B)
√
P
(C) P
(D) √
gi vertices are given in parentheses. The
force in the member QR,
nee P (0, 4)
22.8
will be
rin
80 kN
CE – 2013
8. The pin-jointed 2-D truss is loaded with a
horizontal force of 15 kN at joint S and
another 15 kN vertical force at joint U, as
shown. Find the force in member RS (in
y
g .ne
kN) and report your answer taking 104.0 53.1
tension as positive and compression as
negative. __________ Q (1, 0) R (3, 0)
4m 4m 4m (A) 30 kN Compressive
R S
15kN (B) 30 kN Tensile
4m (C) 50 kN Compressive
Q V U T (D) 50 kN Tensile
4m
15kN 11. For the truss shown below, the member
P PQ is short by 3 mm. the magnitude of
vertical displacement of joint R (in mm)
is _______________
th th th

.
R 12. The tension (in kN) in a 10 m long cable,

shown in the figure neglecting its self –
3M weight is
P Q 3m 3m
S
P Q
4M 4M y
Cable Cable
R
120 kN
(A) 120 (C) 60
(B) 75 (D) 45
1.
w.E
[Ans. C]
Since the truss is loaded symmetrically,
the reaction will be equal
asy
Thus reaction at B =
Now considering joint equilibrium at B
En √ √
gi nee k
in θ (i) rin
co θ
From (i), we have
(ii)
g
√ √
.ne
in √
co θ
Assuming tensile forces as positive and
( ) co compressive forces as negative.
√
Member P K L
2. [Ans. A] A √
It is evident from the diagram that all the √ √ √
interior members will carry zero force BC √
√ √ √
A 2L
Deflection at C,
Where K is the force in member when a
unit load is applied at C.
th th th

.
√ √
√ √ √
(
√
) √
√ √
3. [Ans. D]
The degree of static indeterminacy for a
√
rigid hybrid frame is given by Considering joint I
m (j j )
Where,
m = total number of members = 9 in
ww tot l number of external reactions

=2+1+1=4
√
w.E tot l number of released reactions

at hybrid joint
(m ) ( ) ( )
asy
j = total number of rigid joints = 6
j = total number of hybrid joints = 2
( ) (
–
)
En Considering joint E
√
4. [Ans. *]
1 √
gi nee √ √
J
√
E
1 1 rin √
g
3000 mm
G H I
√
.ne
3000 mm 3000 mm The deflection at E in the direction HE is
given by
k
√ But only EJ and IJ subjected to
temperature change
√ k
( √
)
√
√
√ √
mm
√ Note: None of the option is correct.
th th th

.
5. [Ans. A] 7. [Ans. C]
Seeing the load pattern, it is to be treated Using method of joints and considering
as space frame. joint S, we get
The number of reactions at each fixed
support of a rigid jointed space frame = 6
Hence total no. of reactions = nd
No. of equilibrium equations =6
Static indeterminacy = 12 – 6 =6 (ten ile)
6. [Ans. A]
10 kN
ww 5m
w.E5m 5m 10 m Considering joint R, we get
in
asy
Let the vertical reactions at left and right
support be nd upwards
√ (comp )
respectively. Taking moment about right

support, we get En √
co
k
k
gi nee
√
(ten ion)
Let the horizontal reaction at left support

be H from left to right. Taking moment
about the crown from left, we get rin
k
e lt nt e ction √
g .ne
8. [Ans. 0]
√ ( ) k R S
15 kN
Let the resultant reaction at the left
support makes and angle θ with the
horizontal 15 kN
Q T
V U
θ 15 kN
P
H=0
t nθ
θ t n ( )
θ
th th th

.
X
Take moment about V
R
Z
40
So, Force in RS = 0
o
x sin 53.13 = 40
9. [Ans. A]
x = 50 kN
∑ ( )
Z = 30 kN
∑ ( ) ie. Compressive
From (1)
90 sin in in θ 11. [Ans. *] Range 1.0 to 2.5
( )
ww
From (2)
90 cos o θ co
is short by 3 mm
We have to find out vertical displacement
of joint R in mm
w.E
From (3)
in θ
( )
( )
( )
Let us apply unit load at R as shown
below
asy
From (1)
co θ ( )
1
R
(5) / (6)
θ n ( )
En
From (5)
F = 56.389 kN gi P
nee θ Q
10. [Ans. A]
At point ∑
rin
⁄ ⁄
g
in θ
co θ
⁄
co θ .ne
co θ
in θ
cot θ
Q
∑ ∑ ∑ ⁄ ⁄
Let force in PR be x and PQ be y and force ( )

in QR be Z (all assumed to be tensile)
mm p d
k
At point R:
th th th

.
12. [Ans. B]
3m 3m
S
P θ
4m
θ θ
5m 5m
R
120 kN
Free body diagram
S
T T
4m
θ
5m θ 5m
ww 120 kN
w.E θ
asy
o θ
En
= 75 kN
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Influence Line Diagram and Rolling Loads
CE – 2005 Q 135 kN
1. Match List – I with List –II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists 6m
List – I List – II
A. Slope deflection 1. Force P R
method method
B. Moment 2. Displacement
distribution
method 4.5m
ww C. Method of three
D.
moments
tigli no’
(A) 2.47 mm
(B) 10.25 mm
(C) 14.31 mm
(D) 15.68 mm
w.E
Codes
second theorem 4. The influence line diagram (lLD) shown is
for the member
P Q
asy
(A)
(B)
A
1
1
B
2
1
C
1
2
D
2
2
(C)
(D)
2
2
2
1
1
2
1
1 En Compression
R S
Tension
CE – 2006
2. Consider the beam ABCD and the
gi nee
(A) PS
(B) RS
(C) PQ
(D) QS
influence line as shown below. The

influence line pertains to
CE – 2008
5. rin
The span(s) to be loaded uniformly for
A B
Internal hinge
L L
C
2L
D
(are)
P
g
maximum positive (upward) reaction at
support P, as shown in the figure below, is
Q R
.ne S
1
A B C D T
(A) Reaction at A, (A) PQ only (C) QR and RS
(B) PQ and QR (D) PQ and RS
(B) Shear force at B,
(C) Shear force on the left of C,
CE – 2013
(D) Shear force on the right of C,
6. Beam PQRS has internal hinges in spans
PQ and RS as shown. The beam may be
CE – 2007
subjected to a moving distributed vertical
3. The right triangular truss is made of load of maximum intensity 4kN/m of any
members having equal sectional area of length any where on the beam. The
1550 mm nd Yo ng’ mod l of maximum absolute value of the shear
MPa. The horizontal deflection of force (in kN) that can occur due to this
the joint Q is
th th th

.
loading just to the right of support Q shall 0.75 0.6

P. Q.
be:
P Q R S
0.25
0.6
5m 5m 20 m 5m 5m
(A) 30 (C) 45
1.0
(B) 40 (D) 55 R. 0.5 S.
CE – 2014
7. In a beam of length L, four possible 0.5
influence line diagrams for shear force at
ww
a section located at a distance of
the left end support (marked as P, Q, R
from
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
w.E
and S) are shown below. The correct
influence line diagram is
1. [Ans. C]
En
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. D]
gi nee 135 kN
P θ
135 kN
Q
135 kN
1 kN
rin 180 kN 180 kN
P θ
6m A+R
g k
A+ P
co θ .ne
4.5 m P R and
R = 225 kN
k
Tension (+), compression ( ) and
k for each member
k
Member P K L
t nθ in θ co θ
PQ 225 1:67 7.5
Taking
QR 6
k
k RP 4.5
Considering joint R and joint P
th th th

.
When a cut is made just to right of Q and

displacement are given such that is
mm parallel to As is very close to Q,
displacement of to the left will be zero
4. [Ans. A] and that to right will be 1
Hence rope of
5. [Ans. D]
With the help of Muller Breslau principle, Slope of
we can draw the ILD for reaction at P or dinate at
Or dinate at
+ Q R S
P If UDL is loading span PR, we get max SF
just to the right of Q
ww T
k
( )
w.E ILD for vertical reaction at P

The reaction is positive between P and Q 7. [Ans. A]
asy
and R and S respectively. Hence the spans
PQ and RS should be loaded uniformly for
maximum positive reaction at P.
⁄ ⁄
6. [Ans. C] En ⁄
P
5m 5m
1
Q
20m
R
5m 5m
S
gi nee
⁄
⁄
θ
rin ⁄
⁄
0.25
( ) 0.25
l o
g
⁄
⁄
.ne
ILD for SF to right of Q
th th th

.
Slope and Deflection Method
CE – 2005 CE – 2007
1. All members of the frame shown below Common Data Questions 4 and 5
have the same flexural rigidity El and A two span continuous beam having equal
length L. if a moment M is applied at joint spans each of length L is subjected to a
B, the rotation of the joints is uniformly distributed load w per unit
M length. The beam has constant flexural
A B C
rigidity.
El, L El, L
4. The reaction at the middle support is

El, L
(A) wL (C)
ww
(A)
D
(C)
(B)
(D)
w.E
(B) (D) 5. The bending moment at the middle
support is
CE – 2006
2. asy
Carry – over factor for the beam
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
shown in the figure below is
A
C
B En CE – 2008
L
Internal hinge
gi Statement for linked Answer Questions
6&7
nee
Beam GHI is supported by three pontoons
as shown in the figure below. The
(A) ¼
(B) ½
(C) ¾
(D) 1
rin
horizontal cross sectional area of each
pontoon is 8m2, the flexural rigidity of the
3. Consider the beam AB shown in the figure
below. Part AC of the beam is rigid while
Part CB has the flexural rigidity El.
g
beam is 10000 kN-m2 and the unit weight
of water is 10kN/m3.
P = 48 kN .ne
Identify the correct combination of G H I
deflection at end B and bending moment
at end A, respectively
P
Pontoons
A C B 5m 5m
L L
6. When the middle pontoon is removed, the
(A) (C) deflection at H will be
(B) (D) (A) 0.2 m (C) 0.6m
(B) 0.4m (D) 0.8m
th th th

.
7. When the middle pontoon is brought back 3m 4m

to its position as shown in the figure S
above, the reaction at H will be
(A) 8.6 kN (C) 19.2 kN 2m
(B) 15.7 kN (D) 24.2 kN
P T R
CE – 2009 100kNm
Statement for linked Answer Questions 2m
8&9 Q
In the cantilever beam PQR shown in the
figure below, the segment PQ has flexural
rigidity EI and the segment QR has 12. A uniform beam (EI = constant ) PQ in
the form of a quarter circle of radius R is
ww
infinite flexural rigidity
EI Q Rigid
W fixed at end P and free at the end Q, where
a load W is applied as shown. The vertical
P
w.E L L
R downward displacement,
loaded point Q is given by:
at the
( )
8.
asy
The deflection and slope of the beam at Q
are respectively
ind the value of (correct to 4 – decimal
places).______________________
W
(A)
(B)
and
and
(C)
(D)
and
and En Q
9. The deflection of the beam at R is

(A) (C)
gi nee R
(B) (D)
rin P
CE – 2012
10. A simply supported beam is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of intensity w
13.
g
A uniform beam weighing 1800 N is
supported at E and F by cable ABCD.
Determine the tension (in N ) in segment
.ne
per until length, on half of the span from AB of this cable (correct to 1 – decimal
one end. The length of the span and the place). Assume the cables ABCD, BE and
flexural stiffness are denoted as l and EI, CF to be weightless,-----------------------
respectively. The deflection at mid – span A D
of the beam is
1m
(A) (C) C
(B) (D) B
CE – 2013 E F
11. All members in the rigid – jointed frame
1m 2m
shown are prismatic and have the same
flexural stiffness EI. Find the magnitude of 0.5 m 0.5 m 0.5 m
the bending moment at Q (in kNm) due to
the given loading.______________________
th th th

.
CE – 2014 16. The beam of an overall depth 250 mm

14. For the cantilever beam of span 3 m (shown below) is used in a building
(shown below), a concentrated load of 20 subjected to two different thermal
kN applied at the free end causes a environments. The temperatures at the
vertical displacement of 2 mm at a section top and bottom surfaces of the beam are
located at a distance of 1 m from the fixed 36°C and 72°C respectively. Considering
end. If a concentrated vertically coefficient of thermal expansion ( )
downward load of 10 kN is applied at the per °C, the vertical deflection
section located at a distance of 1 m from of the beam (in mm) at its mid-span due
the fixed end (with no other load on the to temperature gradient is ________
beam), the maximum vertical
displacement in the same beam (in mm)
ww
is __________
2 mm 20kN
w.E
1m 2m
15.
asy
Considering the symmetry of a rigid
frame as shown below, the magnitude of
the bending moment (in kNm) at P En
(preferably using
distribution method) is
the moment
gi nee
rin
g .ne
(A) 170 (C) 176
(B) 172 (D) 178
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 3. [Ans. A]
For AB, θ Part AC of the beam is rigid. Hence C will
act as a fixed end. Thus the deflection at B
l
tiffne t will be given as
fo θ
l But the bending moment does not depend
l on the rigidity or flexibility of the beam.
tiffne t
t 2L = 2PL
fo θ
l 4. [Ans. C]
l
ww
W per limit length
tiffne t B
A C
Total stiffness of the joint
w.E l l l
Rotation of joint B =
l L L
asy
0.5 0.5
Initial F.E.M
2. [Ans. D]
Carry over factor
En Balancing
M
A
C
B gi Carry over
nee
Final F.E.M 0
0
rin
A
B
0 L
et
For
∑
ppl moment ‘ ’ t
L
take moment @ C = 0
L
B
g .ne C
M/L (upward) 0 L
(do n d) Take moment at A: Take moment at C,

g in ∑ f om ight ide ∑ ∑
Carry over factor =
ot l
th th th

.
Hint: The given continuous beam can be

treated as two symmetrical propped
cantilevers.
H
Each span ( It is a standard case,
which can be remembered)
5. [Ans. B] Also, we have

Q+Q+R=P
6. [Ans. B] 2Q + R = 48 (iii)
The reaction at the ends are zero as there l o ( ) e of c o – section of
are hinges to left of G and right of I. Hence pontoon x =R
when the middle pontoon is removed, the ( )
ww
beam GHI acts as a simply supported
beam
48 kN
[from (ii)]
[from (iii)]
G
w.E H
I
24kN
asy 24kN
The deflection at H will be due to the load
( )
=
k
[from (i)]
at H as well as due to the displacement of
pontoons at G and I in water. Since the
loading is symmetrical, both the pontoons En 8. [Ans. A]
will be immersed to same height
Let it be x.
area of cross-section of pontoon
unit weight of water = 24
gi The given cantilever beam can be
nee
modified into beam as shown below
w
EI
x 8 10 = 24
x = 0.3m
P
rin L
Q
WL
Also, deflection at H due to load P =

( )
= 0.1m
in l deflection t m
=
g
Deflection at Q =
lope t
=
+
=
.ne
7. [Ans. C]
et the el tic deflection t be
( )
(i)
9. [Ans. C]
The reactions at G and I will be same, as
Since the portion QR of the beam is rigid,
the beam is symmetrically loaded,
QR will remain straight.
Let the reaction at each G and I be Q
Deflection of R = Deflection at Q + Slope
Using principle of buoyancy, we get
at Q × L
x area of cross-section of pontoon
x =Q = + ×L=
= =
(ii)
th th th

.
10. [Ans. B] k m
l l
(l) ( )( )
l ( )
k m
A B
l⁄ l⁄ 12. [Ans. *] Range 0.785 to 0.786
W
Q
d ( )( )
( )
d
Q R
ww d
d
(
(
)
) To find
P
Applying method of strain
w.E
( )
energy
asy
@ x = l, y = 0
∫ d he e
(
l l
)
( )
(l)
En nd d
in θ in pol
dθ
fo m in θ
l
l
l
gi nee ∫
rin in θ in θ dθ
[
l l
( )
( )
(
] l
l
l )( )
l
g ∫ in θdθ
.ne
11. [Ans. 25] 13. [Ans. *]Range 1310 to 1313
3m 4m R
s D H
2m H A
P T R 1m
100kNm
2m C
B
Q 1m
1350N 450N
Weight of beam = 1800 N.
For equilibrium, Taking moment about F:-
th th th

.
Fixed End Moment
fo c ble
k m
∑
k m
k m
m k m
√( ) ( ) Distribution table
14. [Ans. 1]
20 kN
ww 2mm
0 0
32
128
0
128 0 0 0
w.E d
ell’ ecip oc l theo em
d
16
16
32
32
48
16
6 of bending
The magnitude 2
3
moment at P =
0 0
asy
x = 1 mm 16.
176 kNm
[Ans. *] Range 2.38 to 2.45

1 is answer
En
15. [Ans. C]
B
24 kN/m
P
C
gi nee
m
6m
rinh
Distribution factor
8m E 8m D
(
g mm
(
)
(
)
)
.ne
Joint Member RS TRS DF
BA
B
BP
PB
P PE
PC
CP
C
CD
th th th

.
Degree of Static Indeterminacy
CE – 2005
1. Considering beam as axially rigid, the
degree of freedom of a plane frame shown
below is ble
F
ww
(A) 9 (C) 7
w.E
(B) 8
CE – 2014
(D) 6
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Unstable
2.
asy
The degree of static indeterminacy of a
rigid joined frame PQR supported as
3. The static indeterminacy of the two-span
continuous beam with an internal hinge
shown below, is ___________
shown in figure is.
En
gi
Answer Keys & Explanations nee
1. [Ans. B] 3. rin
[Ans. 0]
Degree of kinematic indeterminacy or
degree of freedom,
j m
g
Number of member, m = 4
Number of external reaction,
Number of joint, j = 5 .ne
Number of reactions released,
Degree of static indeterminacy,
m j
2. [Ans. A]
( )
( )
th th th

.
Force Energy Method
CE – 2006
1. Vertical reaction developed at B in the frame below due to the applied load of 100 kN (with
150,000 mm cross-sectional area and mm moment of inertia for both members) is
A B
Internal hinge
1m
ww 1m
w.E
(A) 5.9 kN
(B) 30.2 kN
(C) 66.3 kN
(D) 94.1 kN
1. [Ans. A] En
100 kN
A
R
B
gi nee
A R
rin
g .ne
C
R
Deflection at A in beam AB = Compression in column AC
( )
l
( ) ( )
th th th

.
Matrix Method of Structural Analysis
CE – 2005 CE – 2013
1. For a linear elastic frame, if stiffness Common Data Questions 4 and 5
matrix is doubled with respect to the A propped cantilever made of a prismatic
existing stiffness matrix, the deflection of steel beam is subjected to a concentrated
the resulting frame will be load P at mid span as shown.
(A) Twice the existing value P
(B) Half the existing value
(C) The same as existing value
(D) Indeterminate value
R
2. ww
CE – 2007
The stiffness coefficient k indicates
1.5m 1.5m
w.E
(A) Force at i due to a unit deformation at j
(B) Deformation at j due to a unit force at i
(C) Deformation at i due to a unit force at j
4. If load P = 80 kN, find the reaction R (in
kN) (correct to 1 – decimal place) using
elastic analysis.__________
asy
(D) Force at j due to a unit deformation at i
5. If the magnitude of load P is increased till
CE – 2012
3. A symmetric frame PQR consists of two
En collapse and the plastic moment carrying
capacity of steel beam section is 90 kNm,
inclined members PQ and QR, connected at
‘ ’ ith igid joint nd hinged t ‘ ’ nd
‘ ’ he ho i ont l length
eight i
i l f
pended t ‘ ’ the bending
gi determine reaction R(in kN) (correct to 1-
decimal place) using plastic analysis._______
nee
moment t ‘ ’ i
(A) (C) rin
(B) (D) Zero
g .ne
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 5. [Ans. 60]

Stiffness matrix and deflection are related P
m m
as
Thus, when stiffness matrix is doubled, θ
then deflection will reduced to half of the
existing value.
θ θ
2. [Ans. A]
k
3. [Ans. D]
ww
The given frame can be treated as a linear
inverted arch. For a lined arch, No S.F & m m R
w.E
B.M, only axial forces. Hence B.M at every
point incl ding t ‘ ’ i e o MP = 90kN m
θ θ
4.
A
asy
[Ans. 25]
B
k
l l
C
R
En ( )
k
From compatibility equation
Net deflection at c = 0
l
l
gi nee
( ) ( ) ( )
rin
*
k
( ) ( )
+
g .ne
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Mechanics
Simple Stress and Strain Relationship
CE – 2005 6. For an isotropic material, the relationship

1. The symmetry of stress tensor at a point between the Young's modulus (E), shear
in the body under equilibrium is obtained modulus (G) and Poisson's ratio (μ) is
from given by
(A) conservation of mass (A) G = (C)
( ) ( )
(B) force equilibrium equations
(B) E = (D)
(C) moment equilibrium equations ( ) ( )
(D) conservation of energy
7. A metal bar of length 100 mm is inserted
2. The components of strain tensor at a between two rigid supports and its
ww
point in the plane strain case can be
obtained by measuring longitudinal strain
temperature is increased by 10°C. If the
coefficient of thermal expansion is
w.E
in following directions
(A) Along any two arbitrary direction
(B) Along any three arbitrary directions
per °C and the Young's
modulus is 2 × 105 MPa, the stress in the
bar is
asy
(C) Along two mutually orthogonal
directions
(D) Along any arbitrary direction
(A) Zero
(B) 12 MPa
(C) 24MPa
(D) 2400 MPa
3. If principal stresses in a two-dimensional En 8. A rigid bar is suspended by three rods

made of the same material as shown in
case are MPa and 20 MPa
respectively, then maximum shear stress
at the point is
gi the figure. The area and length of the
nee
central rod are 3 A and L, respectively
while that of the two outer rods are 2A
(A) 10 MPa
(B) 15 MPa
(C) 20 MPa
(D) 30 MPa
rin
and 2L, respectively. If a downward force
of 50kN is applied to the rigid bar, the
CE – 2006
4. Mohr's circle of the state of stress defined
g
forces in the central and each of the outer
rods will be
.ne
by * + MPa is a circle with
(A) center at (0,0) and radius 30 MPa
(B) center at (0,0) and radius 60 MPa
(C) center at (30,0) and radius 30 MPa
(D) center at (30, 0) and zero radius
CE – 2007
50 kN
5. An axially loaded bar is subjected to a
normal stress of 173 MPa. (A) 16.67kN each
The shear stress in the bar is (B) 30kN and 15kN
(A) 75MPa (C) 100MPa (C) 30kN and 10kN
(B) 86.5MPa (D) 122.3MPa (D) 21.4kN and 14.3kN
th th th

.
9. U1 and U2 are the strain energies stored in CE – 2010

a prismatic bar due to axial tensile forces 13. The major and minor principal stresses at
P1 and P2, respectively. The strain energy a point are 3 MPa and MPa
U stored in the same bar due to combined respectively. The maximum shear stress
action of P1 and P2 will be at the point is
(A) U = U1 + U2 (C) U < U1 + U2 (A) Zero (C) 6 MPa
(B) U = U1 U2 (D) U > U1 + U2 (B) 3 MPa (D) 9 MPa
CE – 2008 14. The number of independent elastic

10. A mild steel specimen is under uniaxial constants for a linear elastic isotropic and
tensile stress. Young's modulus and yield homogeneous material is
stress for mild steel are 2 × 105 MPa and (A) 4 (C) 2
ww
250 MPa respectively. The maximum
amount of strain energy per unit volume
that can be stored in this specimen
(B) 3
CE – 2011
(D) 1
w.E
without permanent set is
(A) l56Nmm/mm3
(B) 15.6Nmm/mm3
15. Consider a simply supported beam with a
uniformly distributed load having a
neutral axis (NA) as shown. For points P
asy
(C) 1.56Nmm/mm3
(D) 0.156Nmm/mm3
(on the neutral axis) and Q (at the bottom
of the beam) the state of stress is best
11. A vertical rod PQ of length L is fixed at its

En represented by which of the following
pairs?
top end P and has a flange fixed to the
bottom end Q. A weight W is dropped
vertically from a height h (<L) on to the
flange. The axial stress in the rod can be
gi nee Q
P
NA
reduced by
(A) Increasing the length of the rod
(B) Decreasing the length of the rod rin L L
(C) Decreasing the area of cross-section

of the rod
(D) Increasing the modulus elasticity of
the material
(A)
g P Q
.ne
(B)
P Q
CE – 2009
12. Consider the following statements :
1. On a principal plane, only normal (C)
stress acts. P Q
2. On a principal plane, both normal
and shear stresses act. (D)
3. On a principal plane, only shear P Q
stress acts.
4. Isotropic state of stress is
independent of frame of reference. CE – 2012
Which of the above statements is /are 16. The poisson’s ratio is defined as
correct? (A) | | (C) | |
(A) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 4
(B) 2 only (D) 2 and 3 (B) | | (D) | |
th th th

.
17. If a small concrete cube is submerged 22. For the state of stresses (in MPa) shown
deep in still water in such a way that the in the figure below, the maximum shear
pressure exerted on all faces of the cube stress (in MPa) is ________
is p , then the maximum shear stress 4
developed inside the cube is 4
(A) 0 (B) (C) p (D) 2p
2 2
CE – 2013
18. The ‘plane section remains plane’
assumption in bending theory implies: 4
(A) Strain profile is linear
(B) Stress profile is linear 23. A box of weight 100kN shown in the
ww
(C) Both strain and stress profiles are
linear
figure is to be lifted without swinging. If
all forces are coplanar, the magnitude and
19.
w.E
(D) Shear deformations are neglected
The creep strains are

direction (θ) of the force (F) with respect
to x-axis should be
y 40 kN
asy
(A) Caused due to dead loads only
(B) Caused due to live loads only
90 kN
F
(C) Caused due to cyclic loads only
(D) Independent of loads
En θ
x
20. 2D stress at a point is given by a matrix

* + * + Pa
gi (A) nee
F
100 kN
kN and θ
The maximum shear stress in MPa is (B) F kN and θ
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 100
(D) 110
(C) F
rin kN and θ
CE – 2014
21. The values of axial stress ( ) in kN/m ,
(D) F
g kN and θ
.ne
bending moment (M) in kNm, and shear
force (V) in kN acting at point P for the
arrangement shown in the figure are
respectively
Cable
Frictionless
Pulley
P Beam Q
( m m)
3m
kN
(A) 1000, 75 and25
(B) 1250, 150 and50
(C) 1500, 225 and75
(D) 1750, 300 and100
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 8. [Ans. C]
Taking moment equilibrium about the If the force in each of outer rods is P0, and
Centre, we get force in the central rod is Pc then
2P0 + Pc … (i)
Also, the elongation of central rod and
outer rods is same.
d/2 ∴
d/2 d/2
d/2
P P … (ii)
ww Solving (i) and (ii), we get

PC = 30kN and PO = 10kN
∴w.E
yx
xy yx
yx xy xy
9. [Ans. D]
We know that strain energy, U =
2.
asy
[Ans. B]
When strain is measured along any three
It is obvious from the above equation that
strain energy is proportional to the
arbitrary directions, the strain diagram is
called rosette. En square of load applied. We know that sum
of squares of 2 number is less than square
3. [Ans. B]
Maximum
( )
shear stress =
gi 10.
of their sum. Thus U >
nee
[Ans. D]
The strain energy per unit volume may be
Pa
rin
given as
U=
4. [Ans. D]
The maximum and minimum principal
stresses are same, So, radius of circle
becomes zero and centre is at (30, 0). The
= g ( )
N
.ne
mm/mm
11. [Ans. A]
circle is represented by a point.
The kinetic energy of the weight (W) is
5. [Ans. B] stored in the form of strain energy in the
rod. We know that
Shear stress =
U= area of cross section of rod ×
∴Shear stress = Pa
length of rod
Since, energy remains constant, hence to
6. [Ans. A]
reduce the axial stress in the rod, the
( μ)
length of the rod should be increased or
( area of cross-section of the rod should be
μ)
increased or modulus of elasticity should
7. [Ans. C] be decreased.
Temperature stress αT
= 24MPa
th th th

.
12. [Ans. A] 19. [Ans. A]

On a principal plane, only normal stresses Creep strains are caused due to prolonged
act. No shear stresses act on the principal loading (static loading ) for long duration
plane. of time. Thus creep is caused by dead
loads whereas fatigue is caused by
13. [Ans. B] moving / cyclic loading.
Maximum shear stress at the point is
given by 20. [Ans. A]
( )
max = = Pa
⁄ √( )
14. [Ans. C]
15.
ww
[Ans. *]
No answer is correct. Correct stress
element will be
√( ) ( )
w.E
P Q
There will be no stress at P because of ∴ Pa
asy
zero shear force at mid span and location
of P at neutral axis.
21.
16. [Ans. B]
En [Ans. B]
Free body diagram
17.
μ
lateral strain
linear strain
[Ans. A]
gi nee
50 kN
(0.2m × 0.2m)
3m
50 kN
50 kN
A member subjected to hydrostatic
pressure has mohr circle as a point. The
rin
Axial stress =
Bending moment = shear force
kN/m
distance
radius of mohr circle, i.e, maximum shear
stress is zero.
Pressure is uniform in all directions in
absence of shear stress [By pascal’s law]
g = 50 × 3
= 150 kNm
.ne
22. [Ans. 5.0]
4
18. [Ans. A]
Recalling discussion from LSM of concrete 4
design, the limitations/ assumptions of
2 2
simple bending theory hold true with
stress and strain distribution
0.446fcp
4
ax shear stress
fy
s here
0.87fy
(Nonlinear above N. A.) Strain distribution
√( )
(linear)
Hence, (A) is most appropriate option
th th th

.
√( ) ( )
Pa
√( )
Pa
( )
o Pa
23. [Ans. A]
For no swinging F
ww
90 kN
40 kN
w.E θ
F
asy 100 kN
cos
49.658 F cos θ
cos F cos θ
En
F cos θ
From options
cos(
cos
kN
) kN
gi nee
So, F = 56.389 kN
θ rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Bending Moment and Shear Force Diagram
CE – 2005 P
B a C
1. The bending moment diagram for a beam
A a
is given Below. P
b 200 kN-m
L L
3. The reaction at C is
a
100 kN-m (A) (upwards)
(B) (downwards)
a' b' (C) (upwards)
ww 0.5 m 0.5 m 1m
The shear force at sections aa' and bb'
1m (D) (downwards)
w.E
respectively are of the magnitude
(A) 100 kN, 150 kN
(B) Zero, 100 kN
4. The rotation at B is
(A) (clockwise)
asy
(C) Zero, 50 kN
(D) 100 kN,100 kN
(B)
(C)
(anticlockwise)
(clockwise)
CE – 2006
En (D) (anticlockwise)
2. A simply supported beam AB has the

bending moment diagram as shown in the
following figure:
M
gi CE – 2008
5.
nee
The stepped cantilever is subjected to
moments, M as shown in the figure below.
A
C D B
rin
The vertical deflection at the free and
(neglecting the self weight) is
L
M
L
M
The beam is possibly under the action of

following loads
L
g 2EI
M
EI
.neM
L/2 L/2
(A) Couples of M at C and 2M at D (A) (C)

(B) Couples of 2M at C and M at D (D) Zero
(B)
(C) Concentrated loads of M/L at C and
2M/L at D
(D) Concentrated load of M/L at C and CE – 2009
couple of 2M at D 6. Match List – I (Shear force diagrams)
beam with List – II (Diagrams of beams
Common data questions 3 and 4 with supports and loading) and select the
Consider a propped cantilever beam ABC correct answer by using the codes given
under two loads of magnitude P each as below the lists:
shown in the figure below, Flexural
rigidity of the beam is EI
th th th

.
CE – 2010
7. Two people weighting W each are sitting
q q on a plank of length L floating on water at
+
+ L/4 from either end. Neglecting the
q weight of the plank, the bending moment
q
at the centre of the plank is
q
(A) (C)
B +
q (B) (D) Zero
q q
+ + q 8. For the simply supported beam of length
q q q L, subjected to a uniformly distributed
ww q
moment M kN-m per unit length as shown
in the figure, the bending moment (in kN-
m) at the mid – span of the beam is
w.E q M kN – m per unit

length
asy
q/unit length q/unit length
L
/ /
En (A) Zero
(B) M
(C) ML
(D) M/L
q q
/
q
giCE – 2011
nee
Linked Answer Questions 9 and 10:
/ A rigid beam is hinged at one end and
rin
supported on linear elastic springs (both
having a stiffness of ‘k’) at points ‘ ’ and
q
/ /
q
shown. g
‘ ’ and an inclined load acts at ‘ ’ as
inge .ne
√ P
/ /
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 3 1 2 4 Fixed
(B) 3 4 2 1 9. Which of the following options represents
(C) 2 1 4 3 the deflections and at points ‘ ’ and
(D) 2 4 3 1 ‘ ’?
(A) ( ) and ( )
(B) ( ) and ( )
(C) ( ) and ( )
√ √
√ √
(D) ( ) and ( )
th th th

.
10. If the load P equals 100 kN, which of the Q

following options represents forces
and in the springs at points ‘ ’ and ‘ ’?
h/2
(A) kN and kN
P
(B) kN and kN
M
(C) kN and kN
(D) kN and kN h/2
R
CE – 2012
11. The sketch shows a column with a pin at (A) A vertical force equal to P
the base and rollers at the top. It is (B) A vertical force equal to P/2
subjected to an axial force P and a (C) A vertical force equal to P and
ww
moment M at mid – height. The reactions
(s) at R is /are
horizontal force equal to M/h
(D) A vertical force equal to P/2 and a
horizontal equal to M/h
1. asy
[Ans. C] = ( )= (downwards)
The bending moment to the left as well as
right of section aa’ is constant which En ∴ The reaction at will be upwards
means shear force is zero at aa’
hear force at bb’ kN gi nee
Thus,
=
( )
=
= (upwards)
2. [Ans. A] =
The Shear force diagram is
rin (upwards)
g
C D
A
-
SFD
B
4. [Ans. A]
The rotation at B
(i) Due to moment
.ne
θ = (clockwise)
(ii) Due to reaction R
M 2M
θ = + =
(anticlockwise)
θ θ θ
RA RB =( )
Loading diagram
= (clockwise)
3. [Ans. C]
The moment at point B = 2Pa
In the cantilever beam ABC, the deflection
at C due to moment 2Pa will be given as
th th th

.
5. [Ans. C] =M
Using moment area method Thus, the reaction at the left support
M will be M downwards
M
A 2EI ∴ oment at the mid – span,
EI B
= M× +M× =0
L/2 L/2
Infact the bending moment throughout
the beam is zero
2M 9. [Ans. B]
M √ P P
ww BMD
k k
P
w.E diagram
k k
of asy
Deflection at B w.r.t A = moment of area
diagram between A and B about B
En
6.
7.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. D]
gi The free diagram of the beam is show
nee
below
From similar triangles, we get
The plank will be balanced by the buoyant
force acting under its bottom. Let the rin
intensity of buoyant force be w,
w w
P
P k(
g k
…( )
Taking moments about hinge, we get
)
k
[∴ from (i)]
.ne
/ / / P k( )
For equilibrium, w × L = W + W P
w= upwards k
From (i). we get
Thus, the bending moment at the centre P P
of the plank will be
k k
M= × × W×
M= 10. [Ans. D]
P
M=0 k k
k
8. [Ans. A] kN
Let the reaction at the right hand support P
k k
be upwards. Taking moments about k
left hand support, we get kN
× L ML = 0
th th th

.
11. [Ans. C]
Q
P
M
R H
V
ww
Taking moment about
θ
w.E
h
asy
And axial force =P
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Thin Walled Pressure Vessel
CE – 2006 CE – 2009
1. A thin-walled long cylindrical tank of 2. A thin walled cylindrical pressure vessel
inside radius r is subjected having a radius of 0.5 m and wall
simultaneously to internal gas pressure p thickness of 25 mm is subjected to an
and axial compressive force F at its ends. internal pressure of 700 kPa. The hoop
In order to produce 'pure shear' state of stress developed is
stress in the wall of the cylinder, F should (A) 14 MPa (C) 0.14MPa
be equal to (B) 1.4MPa (D) 0.014MPa
(A) pπr2 (C) pπr2
(B) pπr2 (D) pπr2
1. w.E
[Ans. C]
pr
asy
oop stress
ongitudinal stress
t
pr F
Now, for pure shear state,

t πrt
should be
En
compressive and is equal to
∴
pr
t
pr
t
F
πrt
gi nee
pr F
F
t πrt
πpr rin
2. [Ans. A]
oop stress
pd
g .ne
t
Pa
th th th

.
Simple Bending Theory
CE – 2006 shear force of 3000 N, the glue at any of

1. A beam with the cross-section given the four joints will be subjected to a shear
below is subjected to a positive bending force (in kN per meter length) of
moment (causing compression at the top) 50 mm
of 16 kN-m acting around the horizontal
axis. The tensile force acting on the
hatched area of the cross-section is 200 mm
75 mm
ww 25 mm
50 mm
w.E
50 mm 50 mm
50 mm
(A) 3.0
50 mm 75
200
mmmm
(B) 4.0 (C) 8.0 (D) 10.7
asy
(A) Zero
(B) 5.9 kN
(C) 8.9 kN
(D) 17.8 kN CE – 2007
2. If a beam of rectangular cross-section to

subjected to a vertical shear force V, the En 5. The shear stress at the neutral axis in a
beam of triangular section with a base of
sheer force earned by the upper one-third

of the cross-section is
(A) Zero (C)
gi 40 mm and height 20 mm, subjected to a
shear force of 3 kN is
nee
(A) 3 MPa
(B) 6 MPa
(C) 10 MPa
(D) 20 MPa
(B)
(D)
CE – 2008
rin
3. For the section shown below, second
moment of the area about an axis d/4
distance above the bottom of the area is.
6.
g
The maximum tensile stress at the section
X-X shown in the figure below is
L/3 L/3
X
L/3
.ne d/2
b
b d/2
d
X
L/2 L/2
(A) (B) (C) (D)

d
CE – 2009
7. The point within the cross sectional of a
beam through which the resultant of the
(A) (C) external loading on the beam has to pass
through to ensure pure bending without
(B) (D) twisting of the cross section of the beam
is called
4. I – section of a beam is formed by gluing (A) Moment centre
wooden planks as shown in the figure. If (B) Centroid
this beam transmits a constant vertical (C) Shear centre
(D) Elastic centre
th th th

.
CE – 2010 CE – 2012
8. A disc of radius r has a hole of radius r/2 10. The following statements are related to
cut – out as shown. The centroid of the bending of beams:
remaining disc (shaded portion) at a I. The slope of the bending moment
radial distance from the “O” is diagram is equal to the shear force.
II. The slope of the shear force diagram
r/2 is equal to the load intensity
III. The slope of the curvature is equal to
O O
the flexural rotation
IV. The second derivative of the
deflection is equal to the curvature.
The only FALSE statements is
ww(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
9.
w.E
CE – 2011
For the cantilever bracket, PQRS, loaded
CE – 2013
11. A symmetric l-section (with width of each
asy
as shown in the adjoining
figure(PQ=RS=L, and, QR =2L) which of
flange = 50 mm, thickness of web
= 10mm depth of web = 100mm) of steel
is subjected to a shear force of 100 kN.
the following statements is FALSE?
En Find the magnitude of the shear stress
(in N⁄mm ) in the web at its junction
Fixed
S
R
gi with the top flange.
nee 50mm
10mm
P 2L
rin
Q
g
100mm
10mm
W
L
(A) The portion RS has a constant
twisting moment with a value of 10mm
.ne
2WL. 50mm
(B) The portion QR has a varying
twisting moment with a maximum
value of WL.
(C) The portion PQ has a varying
bending moment with a maximum
value of WL.
(D) The portion PQ has no twisting
moment.
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] b d d d d
* +
mm
b d
25 mm
mm
b d
x
f
bd
mm
mm Bending stress distribution
3. [Ans. C]
y Using parallel axis theorem, we get the
second moment of inertia as
ww
From similar triangles, we have
N/mm
I= + bd ( ) = + =
w.E
x
x
n/mm
4. [Ans. B]
shear flow q =
asy
∴ Tensile force
I =
+= 3.5 ×
+ 2 ×*
mm
kN
En For any of the four joints, Q = 50 × 75 ×
125 = 468750 mm
2. [Ans. B]
d/
gi ∴q
nee = 4.0 N/mm = 4.0 kN/m
y 5.
rin
[Ans. C]
shear stress
̅
g
Where S = shear force
A = Area above the level where shear
stress is desired .ne
y̅ = distance of of area A from neautral
( / )
axis
̅ ( ) ( )
I = Moment of inertia about neutral axis
b = width of the section at the level where
( )
shear stress is desired
dF b dy
mm
( y )
b dy 20 mm
Integrating both sides, we get
b / d
F ∫ ( y ) dy
/ 40 mm
/
b d y Width at a distance of mm from the top
* y +
/ = mm
th th th

.
( ) ( ) 9. [Ans. B]
Statement B is false it should be the
( ) portion QR has a constant twisting
moment of WL.
Pa
Alternative q= (hy y ) 10. [Ans. C]

d d d y
[ ( ) ]
dx dx dx
=10 MPa But slope of curvature is not flexural
rotation
6. [Ans. A]
The section at X – X may be shown as in 11. [Ans. *] Range 70 to 72
ww
the figure below
P b
50mm
10mm
mm
60mm
d
w.E d
100mm
10mm
y̅
asy
60mm
The maximum tensile stress at the section
X – X is 10mm
=
+
+
( / ) En 50mm
=
( / )
+
( / )
gi l
q nee lb
y̅
mm
7. [Ans. C]
8. [Ans. C] rin N⁄mm
The centroid of the shaded portion of the

disc is given by
X=
g .ne
Where x is the radial distance from O.
πr ; x = 0; = π ( ) =
=
πr
πr πr
r
( ve sign indicates centroid lies in left of

the origin)
th th th

.
Torsion
CE – 2005 CE – 2008
1. A circular shaft shown in the figure is 4. The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft
subjected to torsion T at two points A and of circular cross – section having
B. The torsional rigidity of portions CA diameter d subjected to a torque T is . If
and BD is GJ1, and that of portion AB is the torque is increased by four times and
GJ2. The rotations of shaft at points A and the diameter of the shaft is increased by
B are θ and θ . The rotation θ is two times, the maximum shear stress in
C A B D the shaft will be
(A) (C) /
(B) (D) /
ww(A)
L
T
L
(C)
T
L
CE – 2009
w.E
(B) (D)
5. A hollow circular shaft has an outer
diameter of 100 mm and a wall thickness
of 25 mm. The allowable shear stress in
CE – 2006
2. asy
A long shaft of diameter d is subjected to
the shaft is 125 MPa. The maximum
torque the shaft can transmit is.
twisting moment T at its ends. The
maximum normal stress acting at its En (A) 46 kN-m
(B) 24.5 kN-m
(C) 23 kN-m
(D) 11.5kN-m
cross-section is equal to
(A) Zero
(B)
(C)
(D)
gi CE – 2010
6.
nee
A solid circular shaft of diameter d and
length L is fixed at one end and free at the
CE – 2007 rin
other end. A torque T is applied at the free
end. The shear modulus of the material is
3. The maximum and minimum shear
stresses in a hollow circular shaft of outer
diameter 20 mm and thickness 2 mm,
(A)
(B)
g
G. The angle of twist at the free end is.
(C)
(D)
.ne
subjected to a torque of 92.7 N-m will be
(A) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa
(B) 100 MPa and 80 MPa CE – 2014
(C) 118 MPa and 160 MPa 7. Polar moment of inertia ( ) in cm of a
(D) 200 MPa and 160 MPa rectangular section having width, b=2cm
and depth, d = 6 cm is ______________
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 5. [Ans. C]
The symmetry of the shaft shows that …… ( )
there is no torsion on section AB. T T
T [ ][ ]
∴ otation θ
Td
putting in ( )
π(d d )
2. [Ans. A] Td
Maximum shear stress π( )
Normal stress = 0 T
π[ ] [ ]
3.
ww
[Ans. B]
f T
T kNm
So correct option is (C)
w.E ere
π
( )mm
6. [Ans. B]
Angle of twist is given by
asy mm θ
T
πd
T
T
N m mm
En But
T
( )
Pa
(
Pa
)
gi 7.
θ
nee
[Ans. 40]
and f Polar moment of inertia,
( )
Pa
(
Pa
)
rin bd db
4. [Ans. C]
We know that
bd
g (b
(
d )
) cm
.ne
T
T
T
T
( )
T
th th th

.
Column and Struts
CE – 2006 4. A rigid bar GH of length L is supported by

1. The buckling load P = Pcr for the column a hinge and a spring of stiffness K as
AB in figure, as KT approaches infinity, shown in the figure below, the bucking
load, for the bar will be
becomes
P
P
Flexural rigidity, EI
L
ww B
Torsional spring
of stiffness
w.E
Where α is equal to
(A) 0.25
(B) 1.00
(C) 2.05
(D) 4.00
(A) 0.5 KL
(B) 0.8 KL
(C) 1.0KL
(D) 1.2KL
CE – 2007asy CE – 2010
5. The effective length of a column of length
2. A steel column pinned at both ends, has a
buckling load of 200 kN. If the column is En L fixed against rotation and translation at
one end and free at the other end is
restrained against lateral movement at its
mid-height, its buckling load will be
(A) 200 kN (C) 400 kN
gi (A) 0.5 L
nee
(B) 0.7 L
(C) 1.414 L
(D) 2 L
(B) 283 kN (D) 800 kN CE – 2012
CE – 2008
6.
rin
The ratio of the theoretical critical
buckling load for a column with fixed
3. Cross-section of a column consisting of
two steel strips, each of thickness t and
width b is shown in the figure below. The
g
ends to that of another column with the
same dimensions and material, but with
pinned ends, is equal to .ne
critical loads of the column with perfect (A) 0.5 (C) 2.0
bond and without bond between the (B) 1.0 (D) 4.0
strips are P and respectively. The ratio
P/P is. CE – 2013
7. Two steel column P(length L and yield
strength f Pa) and Q(length 2L
and yield strength f MPa) have
the same cross-section and end condition
the ratio of bucking load of column P to
(A) 2 (C) 6 that of column Q is
(B) 4 (D) 8 (A) 0.5 (C) 2.0
(B) 1.0 (D) 4.0
th th th

.
CE – 2014
8. The possible location of shear centre of
the channel section, shown below is,
P Q R S
ww
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
1. asy
[Ans. C] When the steel strips are perfectly
Support A behaves like a hinge and
support B like a fixed end
En bonded then
( )
l=
P
√
( )
√
π π gi When the steel strips are not bonded,
nee
then
bt bt
Nearest approximate answer is (C)

∴
rin /
/
2. [Ans. D]
When both ends are hinged, the bucking
load is given by
π 4.
P
P
[Ans. C]
g .ne
P Let the deflection in the spring be and
π force in the spring be F. Taking moments
about G, we get
When the lateral movement at the mid - P F (But F )
height is not available, than buckling load. P
kN
π π P
where P P
( )
F
3. [Ans. B]
We know that critical load for a column is
proportional to moment of inertia
irrespective of end conditions of the
column i.e. ,
P
th th th

.
5. [Ans. D]
Force end
Left =2L
Fixed end
6. [Ans. D]
Eulers critical load,
π
ww
P
P (l ) l
P
w.E *
(l )
+ [
l⁄
]
7.
asy
[Ans. D]
Buckling load,
π
P
(l )
En
∴P
∴
P
P
π
( )
P
π
( )
gi nee
8. [Ans. A]
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Analysis of Statically Determinate Structures
CE – 2014
1. The axial load (in kN) in the member PQ for the arrangement/assembly shown in the figure given
below is ____________
P
2m
160 kN
ww Q
2m
Beam
S 2m
R
1. asy
[Ans. 50]
Free body diagram
En
160 kN
gi nee
Q S
rin
g
2m 2m
We can neglect the axial deformation as deflection due to axial forces will be less compared to
.ne
bending forces.
kN
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK RCC
Concrete Technology
CE – 2009 CE – 2014
1. Match List I (list of test methods for 4. Group I contains representative stress –
evaluating properties of concrete) with strain curve as shown in the figure, while
List II (List of properties) and select the Group II gives the list of materials. Match
correct answer using the codes given the stress – stress curve with
below the list. corresponding materials.
List I List II Stress
(A) Resonant 1. Tensile J
Frequency test strength
(B) Rebound 2. Dynamic
ww hammer test Modulus of

Elasticity
K L
w.E
(C) Split
test
(D)Compacting
cylinder 3. Workability
4. Compressive
asy
Codes
factor test strength
Group I Group II
Strain
(A) 2
A B
4
C
1
D
3
En P. Curve J
Q. Curve K
1. Cement paste
2. Coarse aggregate
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) 4
1
4
3
4
3
1
3
1
2 gi R. Curve L
(A)
nee
(B)
(C)
3. Concrete
CE – 2011
2. The cross-section of a thermo-mechanically
(D)
rin –
treated (TMT) reinforcing bar has

(A) Soft ferrite-pearlite throughout.
(B) Hard martensite throughout
(C) A soft ferrite-pearlite core with a
5.
where g
The modulus of elasticity, E = 5000√
is the
.ne
characteristic
compressive strength of concrete,
specified in IS: 45-2000 is based on
hard martensitic rim. (A) Tangent modulus
(D) A hard martensitic core with a soft (B) Initial tangent modulus
pearlite-bainitic rim. (C) Secant modulus
(D) Chord modulus
CE – 2013
3. Maximum possible value of Compacting 6. The first moment of area about the axis of
Factor for fresh (green) concrete is bending for a beam cross-section is
(A) 0.5 (C) 1.5 (A) Moment of inertia
(B) 1.0 (D) 2.0 (B) Section modulus
(C) Shape factor
(D) Polar moment of inertia
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A]
2. [Ans. C]
3. [Ans. B]
Compacting factor is ratio of actual
density after compaction/theoretical
density (maximum) and for fresh
concrete it approaches unity semi
compact sections.
4. ww
[Ans. B]
5.
w.E
[Ans. B]
Modulus of electricity of concrete is based
on initial tangent modulus
6. asy
[Ans. B]
En
i
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Basic of Mix Design
CE – 2005 5. Consider the following statements

1. The flexural strength of M-30 concrete as 1. Modulus of elasticity of concrete
per IS : 456-2000 is increases with increase in
(A) 3.83MPa (C) 21.23MPa compressive strength of concrete
(B) 5.47MPa (D) 30.0MPa 2. Brittleness of concrete increases
with decrease in compressive
2. In a random sampling procedure for cube strength of concrete.
strength of concrete, one sample consists 3. Shear strength of concrete increases
of X number of specimens. These with increase in compressive
specimens are tested at 28 days and strength of concrete.
ww
average strength of these X specimens is
considered as test result of the sample,
provided the individual variation in the
The TRUE statements are
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3
w.E
strength of specimens is not more than
Y percent of average strength the value of CE – 2008
asy
X and Y as per IS :456-2000 are
(A) 4 and 10 respectively
(B) 3 and 10 respectively
6. A reinforced concrete structure has to be
constructed along a sea coast. The
minimum grade of concrete to be used as
(C) 4 and 15 respectively
(D) 3 and 15 respectively En per IS : 456-2000 is
(A) M 15 (C) M 25
CE – 2006
3. If the characteristic strength of concrete
gi (B) M 20
CE – 2009 nee
(D) M 30
fck is defined as the strength below which

not more than 50% of the results are
7.
rin
The modulus of Rupture of concrete in
terms of its characteristic cube
expected to fall, the expression for fck in
terms of mean strength fm and standard
deviation would be
(A) fm 0.1645 (C) fm
compressive
g strength (fck)in
according to IS : 456 -2000 is
(A) 5000 fck
(B) 0.7 fck
(C) 5000√
MPa
.ne
(D) 0.7√
(B) fm 1.645 (D) fm+ 1.645
CE – 2011
CE – 2007
8. A 16mm thick plate measuring
4. Consider the following statements
650mm × 420 mm is used as a base plate
1. The compressive strength of
for an ISHB 300 column subjected to a
concrete decreases with increase in
factored axial compressive load of 2000
water cement ratio of concrete mix
kN. As per IS : 456:2000, the minimum
2. Water is added to concrete mix for
grade of concrete that should be used
hydration of cement and workability
below the base plate for safely carrying
3. Creep and shrinkage of concrete are
load is
independent of the water cement
(A) M 15 (C) M 30
ratio in concrete mix.
(B) M 20 (D) M 40
(A) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 only
th th th

.
9. Consider a reinforcing bar embedded in 1000

concrete. In a marine environment this 100
bar undergoes uniform corrosion, which
leads to deposition of corrosion products 650
570
on its surface and an increase in apparent
volume of the bar. This subjects the
surrounding concrete to expansive
325
pressure. As a result, corrosion cracks
All dimensions are in mm.
appear at surface of concrete. Which of
the following statement is true? 10. The value of (in mm) computed as per
(A) Corrosion causes circumferential the Limit State Method of IS 456:2000 is
tensile stress in concrete and the (A) 200.0 (C) 236.3
(B) 223.3 (D) 273.6
ww cracks will be parallel to corroded

reinforcing bar.
(B) Corrosion causes radial tensile 11. The ultimate moment capacity (in kNm)
w.E stresses in concrete and cracks will

be parallel to corroded reinforcing
bar.
of section, as per the Limit State Method
is IS 456:2000 is
(A) 475.2 (C) 756.4
asy
(C) Corrosion causes circumferential
tensile stresses in concrete and
(B) 717.0 (D) 762.5
cracks will be perpendicular to the

direction corroded reinforcing bar. En CE – 2014
12. In a reinforced concrete section, the
(D) Corrosion causes radial tensile
stresses in concrete and cracks will
be perpendicular to direction of the
corroded reinforcing bar.
gi stress at the extreme fibre in compression
is 5.80 MPa. The depth of neutral axis in
nee
the section is 58 mm and the grade of
concrete is M25. Assuming linear elastic
CE – 2012 rin
behavior of the concrete, the effective
curvature of the section (in per mm) is
10 & 11
The cross – section at mid – span of a
13.
(A)
(B) g (C)
(D)
The target mean strength

.ne
for concrete
beam at the edge of a slab is shown in the
sketch. A portion of the slab is considered mix design obtained from the
as the effective flange width for the beam. characteristic strength and standard
The grades of concrete and reinforcing vi i σ , i i : 6-2000, is
steel are M25 and Fe415, respectively. (A) σ (C) σ
The total area of reinforcing bars (A), is (B) σ (D) 6 σ
4000 . At the ultimate limit state,
denotes the depth of the neutral axis from
the top fiber. Treat the section as under –
reinforce and flanged ( .
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] 7. [Ans. D]
Flexural strength of concrete is given as The modulus of rupture of concrete
= 0.7√ is = 0.7√
= 0.7 × √ = 3.83 N/mm2 = 3.83 MPa
8. [Ans. B]
2. [Ans. D] Working axial load =
As per IS : 456 – 2000, the variation
should not be more than 15% for 3
sample listed for a cube for 28 days
compressive strength. The allowable bearing pressure on
3. ww
[Ans. C]
concrete may be given as
σ
i
w.E
As per clause 8.2.8 of IS:456-2000
concrete in sea water or exposed directly
along the sea coast shall be atleast M 20 6
asy
grade in the case of plain concrete and M
30 in case of reinforced concrete.
⁄
The permissible stress in direct
4. [Ans. C]
En compression in various grades of
concrete as per IS: 456-2000 are
For 50% fck=fm
Where fm = average or mean compressive
strength. gi tabulated below:
Grades Stress
nee
M10
M15
2.5
4.0
5. [Ans. B]
1. Compressive strength of concrete
rin
M20
M25
5.0
6.0
increase with decrease of water –
cement ratio
2. Main function of water in concrete is
hydration of cement and make
M30
M35
M40
g 8.0
9.0
10.0 .ne
M45 11.0
concrete workable. M50 12.0
3. Creep and shrinkage are
The permissible stress in concrete should
independent of water-cement ratio.
be more than the allowable bearing
pressure. Thus the minimum grade of
6. [Ans. B]
concrete which should be used is M20.
1. Ec = 5000√ . Therefore modulus of
elasticity of concrete increases with 9. [Ans. C]
compressive strength of concrete.
2. Brittleness is opposite to elasticity of
the concrete as brittleness increases,
elasticity decreases so the strength of Sectional view of
reinforcement bar
concrete.
3. More compressive strength means Corrosion on the surface of steel bar will
more compacted material and hence, cause apparent increase in volume of
more shear strength of concrete. concrete as it is obvious if stress acts in X
th th th

.
– direction thus cracks will develop in 12. [Ans. C]

direction perpendicular to X ie. Y. By From flexure formula
some reason as circumferential tensile
stress develops in bar, hence crack will
develop parallel to surface of bar. Here E = 5000 √ [clause 6.2.1.1 IS 456]
= 5000 √
10. [Ans. C] Y = 58 mm
1000 mm σ
100 mm
570 mm
ww
30 mm C is correct answer
w.E 13. [Ans. D]

6 σ
570
asy
En
Given,
325
And section is under reinforced

gi nee
6 ( (6
6 6 rin
g .ne
Take 6
Check ( 6
(
11. [Ans. B]
6 ( (
(6
6
6 (
6
6 (
, take M = 717.00 kNm
th th th

.
Design of RCC structures
CE – 2013 CE – 2014
1. As per IS 456:2000 for M20 grade 2. Match the information given in Group – I
concrete and plain barsin tension the with those in Group – II.
design bond stress . Further, Group – I
IS 456:2000 permits this design bond A. Factor to decrease ultimate strength
stress value to be increased by 60% for to design strength
HSD bars. The stress in the HSD B. Factor to increase working load to
reinforcing steel barsin tension, ultimate load for design
σ = 6 . Find the required C. Statical method of ultimate load
development length, , for HSD barsin analysis
ww
terms of the bar diameter, .____ D. Kinematical mechanism method of
ultimate load analysis
w.E Group – II
1. Upper bound on ultimate load
2. Lower bound on ultimate load
asy 3. Material partial safety factor

4. Load factor
En A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
gi (C) 3 4 2 1
nee
(D) 4 3 2 1

rin
1. [Ans. *] Range 46 to 47
(
σ
6
6
g .ne
6
6
2. [Ans. C]
th th th

.
Analysis of Ultimate Load Capacity
CE – 2005 CE – 2006
1. A rectangular column section of Statement for Linked Answer Questions
250mm × 400mm is reinforced with five 4 and 5
steel bars of grade Fe-500, each of 20mm In the design of beams for the limit state
diameter. Concrete mix is M-30. The axial of collapse in flexure as per IS:456-2000,
load on the column section with minimum let the maximum strain in concrete be
eccentricity as per IS:456-2006 using limited to 0.0025 (in place of 0.0035). For
limit state method can be applied upto. this situation, consider a rectangular
(A) 1707.37 (C) 1806.40 beam section with breadth as 250mm,
(B) 1805.30 (D) 1903.7 effective depth as 350mm, area of tension
ww
Assume straight line instead of parabola
steel as 1500 and characteristic
strengths of concrete and steel as 30
and 250 MPa respectively
w.E
for stress-strain curve of concrete as
given below and partial factor of safety as
4. The depth of neutral axis for the balanced
failure is
1.0
asy (A) 140mm

(B) 156mm
(C) 168mm
(D) 185mm
En 5. At the limiting state of collapse in flexure,

Stress
0.67
the force acting on the compression zone
0.002
Strain
0.0035 gi of section is
nee
(A) 326 kN
(B) 389 kN
(C) 424 kN
(D) 542 kN
A rectangular under-reinforced concrete
section of 300 mm width and 500mm
effective depth is reinforced with 3 bars
6.
rin
Consider the following statements:
1. The width-to-thickness ratio
of grade Fe-415, each of 16mm diameter.
Concrete mix is M-20. g .ne
limitations on the plate elements
under compression in steel members
are imposed by IS: 800-1984 in order
2. The depth of neutral axis from the to avoid fabrication difficulties.
compressive fibre is 2. In a doubly reinforce concrete beam,
(A) 76mm (C) 87mm the strain in compressive
(B) 81mm (D) 100mm reinforcement is higher than the
strain in adjoining concrete.
3. The depth of the neutral axis abtained as 3. If a cantilever I-section supports slab
per IS : 456-2000 differs from the depth construction all along its length with
of neutral laxis obtained in Q.2 by sufficient friction between them, the
(A) 15mm (C) 25mm permissible bending stress in
(B) 20mm (D) 32mm compression will be the same as that
in tension.
The true statements are
(A) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
th th th

.
7. As per IS: 456-2000, consider the 9. The limiting value of the moment of
following statements resistance of the beam in kN-m is
1. The modular ratio considered in the (A) 0.14 (C) 45.08
Working stress methods depends on (B) 0.45 (D) 156.82
the type of steel used.
2. There is an upper limit on the 10. The limiting area of tension steal in mm2 is
nominal shear stress in beams (even (A) 473.9 (C) 373.9
with shear reinforcement) due to the (B) 412.3 (D) 312.3
possibility of crushing of concrete in
diagonal compression. CE – 2008
3. A rectangular slab whose length is 11. In the design of a reinforced concrete
equal to its width may not be a two – beam the requirement for bond is not
ww way slab for some support

conditions.
The true statement are
getting satisfied. The economical option
to satisfy the requirement for bond is by
(A) Bundling of bars
w.E
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Providing smaller diameter bars
more in number
(C) Providing larger diameter bars less
8.
asy
Assuming concrete below the neutral axis
to be cracked, the shear stress across the
in number
(D) Providing same diameter bars more
depth of a singly-reinforced rectangular
beam section.
En in number.
(A) Increases parabolically to the neutral

axis and then drops suddenly to zero
value.
(B) Increases parabolically to the neutral
gi Common Data for Questions 12 & 13
A
nee reinforced concrete beam of

rectangular cross-section of breadth 230
mm and effective depth 400mm is
axis and then remains constant over
the remaining depth. rin
subjected to a maximum factored shear
force of 120kN. The grades of concrete,
(C) Increases linearly to the neutral axis
and then remains constant up to the
tension steel
g
main steel and stirrup steel are M 20,
.ne
Fe-415 and Fe-250 respectively. For the
area of main steel provided, the design
(D) Increases parabolically to the neutral h g h c as per IS: 456-2000 is
axis and then remains constant up to 0.48N/mm . The beam is designed for
2
the tension steel. collapse limit state.

12. The spacing (mm) of 2-legged 8mm
CE – 2007 stirrups to be provided is
Common Data for Questions 9 and 10 (A) 40 (C) 250
A single reinforced rectangular concrete (B) 115 (D) 400
beam has a width of 150mm and an
effective depth of 330mm. The 13. In addition, the beam is subjected to a
characteristic compressive strength of torque whose factored value is 10.90 kN-m.
concrete is 20 MPa and the characteristic The strirrups have to be provided to carry a
tensile strength of steel is 415 MPa. Adopt shear (kN) equal to
the stress block for concrete as given is (A) 50.42 (C) 151.67
IS:456-2000 and take limiting value of (B) 130.56 (D) 200.23
depth of neutral axis as a 0.48 times the
effective depth of the beam.
th th th

.
14. A reinforce concrete column contains CE – 2011

longitudinal steel equal to 1% of net 18. Consider two RCC beams, P and Q, each
cross-sectional area of column. Assume having the section 400 mm × 750mm
modular ratio as 10. The loads carried (effective depth, d = 750mm) Made with
(using elastic theory) by the longitudinal h vi g cmax = 2.1N/mm . For
2
steel and net area of concrete are Ps and the reinforcement provided and the grade
Pc respectively. The ratio Ps/Pc expressed of concrete used , it may be assumed that
as percent is h c = 0.75 N/mm2. The design shear in
(A) 0.1 (C) 1.1 beam P is 400kN and in beam Q is 750kN.
(B) 1 (D) 10 Considering the provisions of IS:456-
2000, which of the following statements is
15. Un-factored maximum bending moments true?
at a section of a reinforced concrete beam
ww
resulting from a frame analysis are 50, 80,
120 and 180 kN-m under dead, live, wind
(A) Shear reinforcement should be
designed for 175kN for beam P and
the section for beam Q should be
w.E
and earthquake loads respectively. The
design moment (kNm) as per
IS 456: 2000 for the limit state of collapse
revised.
(B) Nominal shear reinforcement is
required for beam P & shear
asy
(flexure) is
(A) 195
(B) 250
(C) 345
(D) 372
reinforcement should be designed
for 120kN for beam Q
CE – 2010 En (C) Shear reinforcement should be

designed for 175kN for beam P and
16 & 17
A doubly Reinforced rectangular concrete
gi shear reinforcement should be
nee
designed for 525 kN for beam Q
(D) The sections for both beams P & Q
need to be revised.
beam has a width of 300 mm and an
effective depth of 500 mm. the beam is
reinforced with 2200 mm2 of steel in 19. rin
Consider a bar of diameter D embedded
tension and 628 mm2 of steal in
compression. The effective cover for
compressive steel is 50mm. Assume that i g
g
in a large concrete block as shown in the
i σb .ne
adjoining figure, with a pull out force P
σst be the bond
both tension and compressive steel yield. strength (between the bar and concrete)
The grades of concerete and steel used and the tensile strength of the bar,
are M 20 and Fe 250 respectively. The respectively. If the block is held in
stress block parameters (rounded off to position and it is assumed that the
first two decimal places) for concrete material of block does not fail, which of
shall be as per IS: 456-2000) the following options represents the
maximum value of P?
16. The depth of neutral axis is
(A) 205.30mm (C) 160.91mm
(B) 184.56mm (D) 145.30mm
17. The moment of resistance of section is

(A) 206.00 KN-m (C) 237-80 kN-m
(B) 209.20KN-m (D) 251.90Kn-M
th th th

.
Concrete 22. A rectangular beam of width (b) 230 mm

block and effective depth (d) 450 mm is
reinforced with four bars of 12 mm
Embedded
diameter. The grade of concrete is M20
Steel bar and grade of steel is Fe500. Given that
L for M20 grade of concrete the ultimate
shear strength, 6 for
steel percentage, p = 0.25, and
for p = 0.50. For a
factored shear force of 45 kN, the
diameter (in mm) of Fe500 steel two
P legged stirrups to be used at spacing of
ww(A) Maximum of (
(B) Maximum of (
σ )
σ )
(π
(π
σst)
σb)
375 mm, should be
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16
w.E
(C) Minimum of (
(D) Minimum of (
σ )
σ )
(π
(π σ
σ
23. For a beam of cross-section,
width = 230 mm and effective depth
CE – 2012asy = 500 mm, the number of rebars of

12 mm diameter required to satisfy
20. As per IS 456:2000, in the Limit State
Design of a flexural member, the strain in En minimum tension reinforcement
requirement specified by IS:456-2000
reinforcing bars under tension at ultimate
state should not be less than
(A) (C)
gi 24.
(assuming grade of steel reinforcement as
nee
Fe500) is _____________
The flexural tensile strength of M25 grade

(B) (D)
rin
of concrete, in , as per
IS:456-2000 is __________
CE – 2014
21. While designing, for a steel column of
Fe250 grade, a base plate resting on a
g .ne
concrete pedestal of M20 grade, the
bearing strength of concrete (in N/ )
in limit state method of design as per
IS : 456 – 2000 is _______
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] 6 6
The axial Load on the column can be given
as
6
=3 ( 6
= 100.38
( * ( +
So, difference = 100.38 76 = 24.38 mm
= 25mm.
π
( 4. [Ans. B]
ww (
( 6
B 0.0035
0.002
2.
w.E
[Ans. A]
d
,
asy
Variation of stress is taken as straight line
instead of parabola for the strain upto
0.002 and rest rectangular.
Here d, = 500mm, let x be depth of neutral
En
axis so force of tension = Force of
compression 3× (16)2 × 0.87 × fy = 0.67
fck × b × xu + 0.67 × b × xu ×
gi nee
,
similar triangle, we have
,
Calculation of depth of rectangular section

from strain diagram.
rin ,
g
,
X=
(
,
⁄ (
, .ne
= 75.84.38 = 76mm ,
3. [Ans. C] ,
Difference between above result when
variation of stress for strain upto 0.002 is ,
taken as straight line instead of
parabolically IS : 456 – 2000 provided
, [ ]
parabolic variation of stress upto strain
0.002 partial factor of safety as 1.5 for , 66 6
concrete equating,
force of compression = Force in tension
th th th

.
5. [Ans. B] Parabolic
B A 0.0035 B
0.002
E
F ,
d O
D
C 9. [Ans. C]
B = 150mm, d = 330 mm, fck = 20 MPa
fy = 4.15, , = 0.48d, =?
In strain diagram Limiting value of moment of Resistance
ww = Force of compression x lever arm

6
6
,
(
( , )
w.E (
= 45.07 kN-m
T
asy iv ,
10. [Ans. A]
Limiting area of tension in steel, Force of
En tension = Force in compression

6
For limiting state of collapse in flexure
T
, 6
iv ,
gi nee
6
= 473.82mm2
(
6
6 11.
rin
[Ans. B]
Provide small diameter bars in more
6. [Ans. B]
To avoid buckling not for fabrication
difficulty 12.
number
[Ans. B]
g .ne
Here, B = 230 mm, d = 400 mm, V = 120 kN
7. [Ans. B] c = 0.48 N/mm
2
Modular ratio in wsm method is defined as Total shear carried by beam

m = where σ permissible comp. = 0.48 × 230 × 400
= 44.16 kN< 120 kN
stress due to bending in concrete
Net shear force to be used for design
Therefore, it does not depend upon type of
= 120 – 44.16 = 75.84KN
steel used, but type of grade of concrete.
For vertical stirrups, spacing is given as
8. [Ans. D]
Shear stress distribution along the depth π
for a singly reinforced rectangular beam
section is given as
th th th

.
13. [Ans. C] (
=
Now, T = 10.90 kN-m
= 158.29 mm
Equivalent Shear force due to concrete
6
6T 6
(Discrepancy in deduction of area of
= 75.82 concrete taken over by steel in
Total Shear Force compression)
= 75.82 + 75.84 = 151.66 kN
17. [Ans. B]
14. [Ans. D] Moment of resistance (MR) calculated by
If A is the net cross sectional area of the using compressive force
column, is the area of steel, is the 6 (
area of concrete, m is modular ratio and (
ww
is stress in concrete, then
(
6
6
6
((
w.E (
= 209.21 kNm
6 ( )
asy 18. [Ans. A]

𝛕cmax = 2.1 N/mm2, c = 0.75 N/mm2
15. [Ans. D] En Pr = 400 KN, Qr = 750kN

For P,
Wind and earthquake effects are not
considered simultaneously.
(i) Design moment when wind effect is
considered
gi h
v
as
=
nee , h
,
i i vi
( v c) bd
= 1.2 (DL + LL + WL)
= 1.2 (50 + 80 + 120) rin = (1.33 0.75)
= 175 kN
400 750 N
= 300 kN-m
(ii) Design moment when earthquake
effect is considered
revised.
g ,
v> max
V =
hence, sections should be .ne
= 1.2 (DL + LL + EL)
= 1.2 (50 + 80 + 180)
19. [Ans. C]
= 372 kN-m
σ will be working for peripheral area
16. [Ans. C] embedded in concrete
Both compressive steal and tensioned B g h σb (π
steal yield now, let x be the depth of σst will act on x –section are of bar
neautral axis, T i gh σst( )
Total force of compression
= 6 and force D
intension = 0.87 fy
Equating both, P
= 6 10 L
th th th

.
Maximum value of P will be minimum of 23. [Ans. 2]

bond strength and tensile strength. Minimum tension reinforcement as per
σ ( ) 26.5.11 is
P= i [ ]
σ (π
20. [Ans. D]
21. [Ans. 9] 1 12 rebar =

As per clause 344 of IS 456: 2000
Permissible bearing stress =
(
=9
22.
ww
[Ans. A]
230m
24. [Ans. 3.5]
are required
w.E
m
Flexural strength =
= 0.7 √
√
asy 450 mm = 3.5 N/
En
i i (
gi nee
(
rin
6 (
g .ne
, i i h i i i
i i h i
th th th

.
Basic Elements of Pre-stressed Concrete
CE – 2005 CE – 2010
1. IS 1343: 1980 limits the minimum 5. As per Indian standard code of practice
characteristic strength of pre-stressed for pre-stressed concrete (IS: 1343-1980)
concrete for post tensioned work and the minimum grades of concrete to be
pretension work as used for post-tensioned and pre-
(A) 25 MPa, 30 MPa respectively tensioned structural elements are
(B) 25 MPa, 35 MPa respectively respectively
(C) 30 MPa, 35 MPa respectively (A) M 20 for both (C) M 15 and M 20
(D) 30 MPa, 40 MPa respectively (B) M 40 and M 30 (D) M 30 and M 40
2.
ww
A concrete beam of rectangular cross
section of 200 mm × 400 mm is
prestressed with a force 400 kN at
w.E
eccentricity 100 mm. The maximum
compressive stress in the concrete is
(A)
asy
(B) 7.5
(C) 5.0
(D) 2.5
CE – 2007
3. The percentage loss of pre-stress due to En
anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete
beam of length 30m, which is post
tensioned by a tendon with an initial
gi nee
stress of 1200 N/mm2 and modulus of
elasticity equal to 2.1 × 105 N/mm2 is
(A) 0.0175 (C) 1.75 rin
(B) 0.175
CE – 2009
(D) 17.5
g .ne
4. A rectangular concrete beam of width
120 mm & depth 200 mm is pre-stressed
by pre-tensioning to a force of 150 KN at
an eccentricity of 20mm. The cross
sectional area of the pre-stressing steel is
187.5 mm2. Take modulus of elasticity of
steel and concrete as 2.1 × 105 MPa and
3 × 104 MPa respectively. The percentage
loss of stress in pre-stressing steel due to
elastic deformation of concrete is.
(A) 8.75 (C) 4.81
(B) 6.125 (D) 2.19
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D]
2. [Ans. A] So, strain in steel = strain in concrete

⁄
σ
ii ⁄
6
( , g 6
6
3. [Ans. C]
5. [Ans. D]
ww
Slip 5 =3mm
Length = 30m
Ec = 2.1×105 N/mm2
A high strength concrete is always
required for pre-stressed concrete work
w.E , i
So, stress loss = strain ×
the pre-tension losses are more than the
post tension losses therefore minimum
M 30 is used for post tension work while
asy
,
⁄ minimum M 40 is used for pre-tension
work.
En
4. [Ans. B]
Here,
B
,
,
,
gi nee
,
rin
So Percentage loss of pre-stresses due to
elastic shortening = ?
Initial direct stresses
g .ne
6 ⁄
And stress due to eccentricity
(
⁄
Maximum compression in concrete,
= 6.25+0.75= 7N/mm2
This stress will cause compression in
steel strain concrete
th th th

.
Design of Pre-Stressed Concrete Beams

CE – 2007 The stress (in N/ )in the bottom fiber
1. A concrete beam of rectangular cross- at mid – span is
section of size 120 mm (width) and
200 mm (depth) is prestressed by a
straight tendon to an effective force of 145
150 kN at an eccentricity of 20 mm
(below the centroidal axis in the depth 7300
Sectional elevation
direction). The stresses at the top and All dimensions are in mm
bottom fibres of section are
(A) 2.5 N/mm2 (compression), 500
10 N/mm (compression)
2
ww
(B) 10 N/mm2 (tension), 2.5 N/mm2
(compression)
(C) 3.75 N/mm2 (tension), 3.75 N/mm2
750
Cross – section
w.E (compression)
(D) 2.75 N/mm2 (compression), 3.75
N/mm2 (compression)
(tendon not shown)
(A) Tensile 2.90
(B) Compressive 2.90
CE – 2008 asy (C) Tensile 4.32

(D) Compressive 4.32
2. A pre-tensioned concrete member of
section 200 mm 250 mm contains En CE – 2013
tendons of area 500 mm2 at centre of
gravity of section. The pre-stress in the
tendons is 1000 N/mm2. Assuming
modular ratio as 10, the stress (N/mm2)
gi 5. A rectangular concrete beam 250 mm
wide and 600 mm deep is per – stressed
nee
by means of 16 high tensile wires, each of
7 mm diameter, located at 200 mm from
in concrete is
(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5 rin
the bottom face of the beam at a given
section. If the effective pre - stress in the
CE – 2012
3. Which one of the following is categorized
as a long –term loss of prestress in a
g
wires is 700 MPa, what is the maximum
sagging bending moment (in kNm)
.ne
(correct to 1 – decimal place) due to live
load that this section of the beam can
prestressed concrete member? withstand without causing tensile stress
(A) Loss due to elastic shortening at the bottom face of the beam? Neglect
(B) Loss due to friction the effect of dead load of
(C) Loss due to relaxation of strands beam._______________
(D) Loss due to anchorage slip
4. A concrete beam prestressed with a

parabolic tendon is shown in the sketch.
The eccentricity of the tendon is
measured from the centroid of the cross –
section. The applied prestressing force at
service is 1620 kN. The uniformly
distributed load of 45 kN/m includes the
self – weight.
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] 5. [Ans. *] Range 85.5 to 86.5

B=120 mm, D=200 mm
P=150 kN, e=20 mm
Stress due to direct stresses
6
6
Stress due to moment produced due to
eccentricity of load M(P.e)
ww
So, stress at top,
6 (compression)
Since the tensile stress at bottom face of
the beam is zero
w.E
Stress at bottom,
6 ( i π
( 6
2.
asy
[Ans. B]
Compressive force in steel =
6
Since the prestressing force is located at
200 mm from the bottom face of the beam
Area of section in terms of concrete
En i i
=A+(
( (
gi nee
6
6
6
6
6
i 6 66
rin 6
3. [Ans. C]
The only time dependent loss
relaxation of pre stress in strands.
is
g .ne
4. [Ans. B]
σ
6 6
( )
( )
[ ]
th th th

.
Concrete Design
CE – 2005 CE – 2009
1. The partial factor of safety for concrete as 2. For limit state of collapse, the partial
per IS: 456-2000 is safety factors recommended cube by IS :
(A) 1.50 (C) 0.87 456-2000 for estimating the design
(B) 1.15 (D) 0.446 strength of concrete and reinforcing steel
are respectively
(A) 1.15 and 1.5 (C) 1.5 and 1.15
(B) 1.0 and 1.0 (D) 1.5 and 1.0
1.
w.E
[Ans. A]
Partial factor of safety = 1.50
The High FOS is because of larger
2. [Ans. C]
Partial safety factor for concrete is 1.5
and for steel is 1.15 per IS: 456 – 2000
asy
variation in strength of concrete in
comparison to steel.
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Steel structure
Introduction
CE – 2013
1. As per IS 800:2007, the cross – section in
which the extreme fiber can reach the
yield stress, but cannot develop the
plastic moment of resistance due to
failure by local buckling is classified as
(A) Plastic section
(B) Compact section (A) 30.33 and 20.00
(C) Semi – compact section (B) 30.33 and 25.00
(D) Slender section (C) 33.33 and 20.00
2.
ww
CE – 2014
Match the information given in Group – I 4.
(D) 33.33 and 25.00
The ultimate collapse load (P) in terms of
w.E
with those in Group - II.
Group – I Group – II
plastic moment by kinematic
approach for a propped cantilever of
length L with P acting at its mid – span as
asy
P. Factor to decrease 1. Upper bound
ultimate strength
to design strength
on ultimate
load
shown in the figure, would be
Q. Factor to increase
working load to
2. Lower bound
on ultimate En
ultimate load for
design
R. Statical method of
load
3. Material partial
gi nee
(A) (C)
ultimate load safety factor
analysis
S. Kinematical 4. Load factor
(B)
rin (D)
mechanism
method of ultimate
load analysis
5.
g
The first moment of area about the axis of
bending for a beam cross-section is
(A) moment of inertia
(B) section modulus
.ne
(A)
(C) shape factor
(B)
(D) polar moment of inertia
(C)
(D) – 6. A prismatic beam (as shown below) has
plastic moment capacity of then the
3. The tension and shear force (both in kN) collapse load P of the beam is
in each bolt of the joint, as shown below,
respectively are
(A) (C)
(B) (D)
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C ]
(fail by local lusting )
Internal work done:
Plastic section
Stress (full plastic Only point C and A will form plastic hinge
moment (since B is free to rotate roller joint).
Compact sections capacity) =
(full elastic capacity
only ) By principle of virtual work
Strain
P=
2. [Ans. C]
ww
Steel structure: Plastic analysis
P and Q are definitions of partial factor of
5. [Ans. B]
w.E
safety for material and load respectively
R: Statical method of ultimate load
analysis is based on lower bound theorem
asy
which states that actual collapse load
cannot be less than collapse load obtained
6. [Ans. C]
from static method of load analysis.

S: kinematic mechanism method of
En
ultimate load analysis follows upper
bound theorem.
gi nee
Degree of static indeterminacy = 0
3. [Ans. D]
Horizontal force = rin
No.of plastic winges required
Vertical force = 250

= 200 kN
= 150 kN
g p
.ne
Horizontal force will exert tensite pull of
magnitude = 33.33 kN on each bolt.
Vertical force will exert shear force of
magnitude = 25 kN on each bolts
Mp Mp
D is correct choice
From principal of virtual work
4. [Ans. C]
( )
External work done
th th th

.
Plastic Analysis
CE – 2005 5. Continuous beam is loaded as shown in
1. A cantilever beam of length L, width b and the figure below. Assuming a plastic
depth d is loaded with a concentrated moment capacity equal to , the
vertical load at the tip. If yielding starts at minimum load at which the beam would
a load P, the collapse load shall be collapse is
(A) 2.0 P (C) 1.2 P P P
(B) 1.5 P (D) P G H I J
CE – 2006 L
2. When the triangular section of a beam as
(A) (C)
wwshown below becomes a plastic hinge, the

compressive force acting on the section
(with denoting the yield stress)
(B) (D)
w.E
becomes CE – 2009
6. The square root of the ratio of moment of
inertia of the cross-section to its cross-
asy h sectional area is called

(A) second moment of area
b En (B) slenderness ration

(C) section modulus
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
gi 7.
(D) radius of gyration
nee
In the theory of plastic bending of beams,
the ratio of plastic moment to yield
CE – 2007
rin
moment is called
(A) Shape factor
3. The plastic collapse load for the
propped cantilever supporting two point
loads as shown in figure in terms of
plastic moment capacity, is given by
g
(B) Plastic section modulus
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Rigidity modulus .ne
w w CE – 2011
L/3 L/3 L/3 8. The value of W that results in the collapse
of the beam shown in the adjoining figure
R
and having a plastic moment capacity of
(A) (C) is
(B) (D) W
Fixed Hinge
CE – 2008 7m 3m
4. The shape of the cross-section, which has
the largest shape factor, is (A) (4/21) (C) (7/21)
(A) Rectangular (C) Diamond (B) (3/10) (D) (13/21)
(B) I-section (D) Solid circular
th th th

.
CE – 2013 9. If load P= 80 kN, find the reaction R(in

Common data Questions (9 & 10) kN)(correct to 1-decimal place) using
A propped cantilever made of a prismatic elastic analysis. _________
steel beam is subjected to a concentrated
load P at mid span as shown. 10. If the magnitude of load P is increased till
P collapse and the plastic moment carrying
capacity of steel beam section is 90 kNm,
determine reaction R(in kN)(correct to 1-
R decimal place) using plastic analysis.
1.5 m 1.5 m
_________________
1. ww
[Ans. B]
Yielding starts at P, therefore yielding
3. [Ans. B]
w w
w.E
moment at the fixed end is given by
…
A
L/3 L/3 L/3
asy P
=1
L
En No. of plastic hinges formed,
PL
Now, if is the collapse load, then

gi 1st case: Plastic hinge formed at A and B
nee
A B
w
C
w
D
collapse moment at the fixed end is give

by rin
But, for rectangular beam
[
…
]
g L/3 L/3
.ne
L/3
By virtual work method

External work = Internal work
( ) ( )
2. [Ans. A] Put
We know that the neutral axis of the
…
plastified section is the equal area axis.
Compressive force, 2nd case: Plastic hinge at (A) and (C)
w w
A B C D
th th th

.
6. [Ans. D]
External work = Internal work
7. [Ans. A]
Put 8. [Ans. D]
Number of possible hinges, n = 2
Statical indeterminacy, r = 1
Hence, collapse load
Number of independent mechanisms,
4. [Ans. C]
7m 3m
Shape factors of some cross-section are as
ww
follows:
(i) Rectangle – 1.5
(ii) I-section 1.14
w.E
(iii) Diamond – 2
(iv) Triangle 2.34
5.
asy
(v) Circle 1.7
[Ans. B] By principle of virtual work, we get
G H
P
I
P
EnJ
For collapse in IJ
gi nee
rin
9.
g
[Ans. 25]
.ne
From compatibility equation
net deflection at C = 0
For collapse in HI
[ ]
Minimum load for collapse

th th th

.
10. [Ans. 60]
ww
w.E
asy
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Welded Connections
CE – 2005 e =100 P = 10 kN
1. A fillet-welded joint of 6 mm size is
shown in the figure. The welded surfaces
meet at 60-90 degree and permissible
stress in the fillet weld is 108 MPa. The 30
safe load that can be transmitted by the
joint is 30
100 mm
F F 40 40
50 mm
ww (A) 5 kN
(B) 6.5 kN
(all distance are in mm)
(C) 6.8 kN
(D) 7.16 kN
w.E
(A) 162.7 kN
(B) 151.6 kN
(C) 113.4 kN
(D) 109.5 kN CE – 2008
4. Rivets and bolts subjected to both shear
2.
asy
An unstiffened web I-section is fabricated
from a 10 mm thick plate by fillet welding
as shown in the figure. If yield stress of
stress and axial tensile stress
shall be so proportioned that the
steel is 250 MPa, the maximum shear load

that section can take is En stresses do not exceed the respective
allowable stresses and and the
gi value of (
nee
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.2
) does not exceed
(C) 1.4 (D) 1.8
CE – 2009
rin
300 mm
5. A 12 mm thick plate is connected to two 8

mm thick plates, on either side through a
g
16 mm diameter power driven field rivet
as shown in the figure below. Assuming
permissible shear stress as 90 MPa and .ne
permissible bearing stress as 270 MPa in
200 mm the rivet, the rivet value of the joint is
(A) 750 kN (C) 337.5 kN
(B) 350 kN (D) 300 kN P/2 8mm
P
12mm
P/2 8mm
CE – 2007
3. A bracket connection is made with four
(A) 56.70 kN (C) 36.19 kN
bolts of 10 mm diameter and supports a (B) 43.29 kN (D) 21.65 kN
load of 10 kN at an eccentricity of
100 mm. The maximum force to be CE – 2010
resisted by any bolt will be. 6. A double cover butt riveted joint is used
to connect two flat plates of 200 mm
width and 14 mm thickness as shown in
the figure. There are twelve power driven
rivets of 20 mm diameter at a pitch of
th th th

.
50 mm in both directions on either side of 7. Two plates, subjected to direct tension,

the plate. Two cover plates of 10 mm each of 10 mm thickness and having
thickness are used. The capacity of the widths of 100 mm and 175 mm,
joint in tension considering bearing and respectively are to be fillet welded with
shear ONLY, with permissible bearing and an overlap of 200 mm. Given that the
shear stresses as 300 MPa and 100 MPa permissible weld stress is 110 MPa and
respectively is the permissible stress in steel is 150 MPa,
50 mm 50 mm 50 mm the length of the weld required using the
50 mm maximum permissible weld size as per IS
50 mm
800: 1984 is
50 mm
175 mm
ww
50 mm
(A) 1083.6 kN
(B) 871.32 kN
(C) 541.8 kN
(D) 433.7 kN
100 mm
w.E (A) 245.3 mm

(B) 229.2 mm
200 mm
(C) 205.5 mm
(D) 194.8 mm
asy
En
1. [Ans. C]
Total weld length = (100×2)+50 =250mm
Strength of weld per mm length,
gi 3. [Ans. D]
nee e =100
10 kN
= 0.70 × 6 × 108 = 453.6 N

Maximum load taken by joint,
rin
30 mm 30 mm
2. [Ans. D]
g .ne
The web depth to thickness ratio
40 mm 40 mm
Bolt will be subjected to direct shear and
shear force due to twisting moment.
Force on bolt due to direct shear
= Force on bolt due to twisting
moment
th th th

.
Thus the strength of joint will be

governed by shearing and it will be equal
to 871.32 kN
Resultant force,
7. [Ans. B]
√ The maximum size of a fillet weld is
obtained by subtracting 1.5 mm from the
√ thickness of the thinner member to be
jointed.
4. [Ans. C] Strength of the thinner plate

As per clause 8.9.4.5 of IS:800-1984 rivets
and bolts subject to both shear and axial
ww
tension shall be so proportioned that the
shear and axial stresses calculated do not
Strength of the weld
(
w.E
exceed the respective allowable stresses
and and the expression
) does not exceed 1.4.
√
5. asy
[Ans. B]
Rivet value is the lesser of shearing
strength or bearing strength of rivet. En
Shearing strength of rivet,
gi nee
Bearing strength of rivet
rin
Rivet value of the joint g .ne
6. [Ans. B]
Strength of one rivet in double shear,
Strength of the riveted joint in double

shear
Strength of one rivet in bearing ,

=
3 kN
Strength of the riveted joint in bearing
th th th

.
Design of Tension Member
CE – 2005 CE – 2007
1. The permissible stress in axial tension 3. A steel flat of rectangular section of size
in steel member on the net effective area 70 × 6 mm is connected to a gusset plate
of the section shall not exceed is the by three bolts each having a shear
yield stress) capacity of 15 kN in holes having
(A) 0.80 (C) 0.60 diameter 11.5 mm. If the allowable tensile
(B) 0.75 (D) 0.50 stress in the flat is 150 MPa, the
maximum tension that can be applied to
CE – 2006 the flat is
2. In the design of welded tension members,
ww
consider the following statements:
1. The entire cross-sectional area of
the connected leg is assumed to
w.E contribute to the effective area in

case of angles. T
15
20
20
asy
2. Two angles back-to-back and tack-
welded as per the
requirements may be assumed to
codal
15
behave as a tee section.

3. A check on slenderness ratio may be En 35
necessary in some cases.

(A) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1 and 3
gi (A) 42.3 kN
nee
(B) 52.65 kN
(C) 59.5 kN
(D) 63.0 kN
(B) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
rin
1. [Ans. C]
g
Along (1)-(1)
.ne
2. [Ans. D] ( )
=52.65 kN
3. [Ans. B] Along (2)-(2)
2
1
Force to shear 1 bolt
at position (1) – (1)
15
20
T Hence, the maximum tension that we can
20
15 applied = 52.65 kN
35 mm
1 2
th th th

.
Compression member
CE – 2005 3. As per IS 800: 1984, the effective

1. Which one of the following is NOT correct length of a column effectively held in
for steel sections as per IS 800: 1984? position at both ends but not
(A) The maximum bending stress in restrained against rotation, is taken to
tension or in compression in extreme be greater than that in the ideal end
fiber calculated on the effective conditions.
section of a beam shall not exceed The TRUE statements are
0.66 (A) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3
(B) The bearing stress in any part of a (B) 2 and 3 (D) 1,2 and 3
beam when calculated on the net
ww area shall not exceed 0.75

(C) The direct stress in compression on
the cross sectional area of axially
CE – 2009
3. Consider the following statements for a
compression member:
w.E loaded compression member shall

not exceed 0.6
1. The elastic critical stress in
compression increases with decrease
in slenderness ratio.
CE – 2006
asy
2. The effective length depends on the
boundary conditions at its ends.
2. Consider the following statements:

1. Effective length of a battened column En 3. The elastic critical stress in
compression is independent of the
is usually increased to account for the

additional load on battens due to the
lateral expansion of columns.
gi slenderness ratio
nee
4. The ratio of the effective length to its
radius of gyration is called as
slenderness ratio.
2. As per IS 800: 1984, permissible
stress in bending compression
rin
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
depends on both Euler bucking stress
and the yield stress of steel.
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 3 and 4 g (C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
.ne
1. [Ans. D] 3. [Ans. D]
The elastic critical stress in compression
2. [Ans. A] depends on the slenderness ratio.
The ideal condition is that column is
effectively held in position at both ends
but not restrained against rotation. IS Where is slenderness ratio of the
800: 1984, prescribes the same value of compression member
effective length as taken for ideal end
condition. Hence 3 is false.
th th th

.
Beams
CE – 2011 CE – 2012
1. ‘ ’ 3. In a steel plate with bolted connections,
adjoining figure the effective throat the rupture of the net section is a mode of
thickness is failure under
(A) Tension (C) Flexure
(B) Compression (D) Shear
4. Two plates are connected by fillet welds

of size 10 m and subjected to tension, as
shown in the sketch. The thickness of
ww
(A) 0.61s
(B) 0.65s
(C) 0.70s
(D) 0.75s
each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and
the ultimate tensile stress of steel are
250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. The
2.
w.E
The adjoining figure shows a schematic
representation of a steel plate girder to be
welding is done in the workshop
( . As per the Limit State
asy
used as a simply supported beam with a
concentrated load. For stiffeners, PQ
(running along the beam axis) and RS
Method of IS 800.2007. The minimum
length (rounded off to the nearest higher
multiple of 5mm) of each weld to
(running between the top and bottom
flanges) which of the following pairs of En transmit force P equal to 270 kN is
statements will be TRUE?
R
gi nee
P
100mm
P
S
Q
rin
L
(A) (i) RS should be provided under the
concentrated load only
g .ne
(ii) PQ should be placed in the
150mm
tension side of the flange.
(B) (i) RS helps to prevent local buckling P
of the web. (A) 100 mm (C) 110 mm
(ii) PQ should be placed in the (B) 105 mm (D) 115 mm
compression side of the flange.
(C) (i) RS should be provided at CE – 2014
supports. 5. A steel section is subjected to a
(ii) PQ should be placed along the combination of shear and bending
neutral axis actions. The applied shear force is V and
(D) (i) RS should be provided away from the shear capacity of the section is . For
points of action of concentrated such a section, high shear force (as per
loads. IS: 800 – 2007) is defined as
(ii) PQ should be provided on the (A) (C)
compression side of the flange. (B) (D)
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] RS is a vertical stiffener in the given plate

Throat thickness T = K fillet size girder. Vertical stiffeners are also called
K is depends upon angle between fusion transverse stiffeners. It is assumed that
forces the vertical stiffener is not subjected to
any load and is selected to provide
necessary lateral stiffness only and can
therefore, be crimped or joggled for tight
T fitting. Such stiffeners increase the
49.5
S buckling resistance of the web caused by
shear.
ww 3. [Ans. A]
w.E S
4. [Ans. B]
Design strength of fillet weld,
asy 49.5
√
T +
En √
s 990
gi 5.
nee
Rounded off to 105 mm
[Ans. A]
s
rin
As per clause 9.2.1 of IS 800: 2007,
V > 0.6
T
= 0.65s
x
g .ne
2. [Ans. B]
PQ is a horizontal stiffener in the given
plate girder. Horizontal stiffeners are also
called longitudinal stiffeners. The
horizontal stiffener are provided in the
compression zone of the web. The first
horizontal stiffener is provided at one-
fifth of the distance from the compression
flange to the tension flange. If required
another stiffener is provided at the
neutral axis. Horizontal stiffeners are not
continuous and are provided between
vertical stiffeners.
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Geotechnical Engineering
Three Phase System, Fundamental

Definitions and Relationship
CE – 2005 CE – 2009
1. A saturated soil mass has a total density 3. Deposit with flocculated structure is
22kN/m3 and a water content of 10%. formed when
The bulk density and dry density of this (A) clay particles settle on sea bed
soil are (B) clay particles settle on fresh water
(A) 12kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively lake bed
(B) 22kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively (C) sand particles settle on river bed
(C) 19.8kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively (D) sand particles settle on sea bed
(D) 23.2kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively
ww
CE – 2007
CE – 2012
4. As per the Indian Standard soil
2.
w.E
The water content of a saturated soil and
the specific gravity of soil solids were
found to be 30% and 2.70, respectively.
classification system, a sample of silty
clay with liquid limit of 40% and
plasticity index of 28% is classified as
asy
Assuming the unit weight of water to be
10 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight
(A) CH
(B) CI
(C) CL
(D) CL - ML
(kN/m3) and the void ratio of the soil are
(A) 19.4,0.81 (C) 19.4,0.45
En CE – 2014
(B) 18.5,0.30 (D) 18.5,0.45
gi 5. The clay mineral primarily governing the
swelling behavior of Black Cotton soil is
nee
(A) Halloysite
(B) Illite
(C) Kaolinite
(D) Montmorillonite
Answer Keys & Explanations rin

1. [Ans. B]
Total density is bulk density,
3. [Ans. B]g .ne
4. [Ans. B]
Dry density, Since liquid limit lies between 35 and 50
it is intermediate compressible (1)
w Height of A – Line = 0.73
( = 14.6%
2. [Ans. A] Since of soil is more than 14.6%, it falls
We know that e w above A – line, Hence it is clay (C)
e Soil is C I
e
5. [Ans. D]
And * +
* +
th th th

.
Index Properties and Soil Classification
CE – 2005 CE – 2008
1. A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50% 5. Group symbols assigned to silty sand and
sand 10% silt. This soil can be classified clayey sand are respectively
as (A) SS and CS (C) SM and SC
(A) Silty sandy gravel having coefficient (B) SM and CS (D) MS and CS
of uniformity less than 60.
(B) Silty gravelly sand having coefficient 6. The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL)
of uniformity equal to 10. and shrinkage limit (SL) of a cohesive soil
(C) Gravelly silty sand having coefficient satisfy the relation
of uniformity greater than 60. (A) LL > PL < SL (C) LL < PL < SL
ww
(D) Gravelly silty sand and its coefficient
of uniformity cannot be determined.
(B) LL > PL > SL (D) LL < PL > SL
w.E
CE – 2006
Statement for Linked Answer question
CE – 2009
7. The laboratory test results of a soil
sample are given below:
2&3
asy
Laboratory sieve analysis was carried out
on a soil sample using a complete set of
Percentage finer than 4.75 mm = 60
Percentage finer than 0.075 mm = 30
Liquid Limit = 35%
standard IS sieves. Out of 500g of soil
used in the test, 200g was retained on IS En Plastic Limit = 27%
The soil classification is
600 sieve, 250g was retained on IS 500
sieve and the remaining 50g was retained
on IS 425 sieve.
gi (A) GM
nee
(B) SM
(C) GC
(D) ML-MI
2. The coefficient of uniformity of the soil is

(A) 0.9 (C) 1.1
CE – 2010
8.
rin
A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60
3.
(B) 1.0 (D) 1.2
The classification of the soil is

(A) SP (C) GP
g
and plastic limit of 20. As per the
plasticity chart, according to IS
.ne
classification, the soil is represented by
the letter symbols
(B) SW (D) GW (A) CL (C) CH
(B) CI (D) CL-ML
CE – 2007
4. Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of CE – 2011
mass 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g 9. The results for sieve analysis carried out
of soil pass through 4.75 mm and for three types of sand, P, Q and R, are
0.075 mm sieve, respectively. The liquid given in the adjoining figure. If the
limit and plastic limits of the soil fraction fineness modulus values of the three
passing through 425 sieves are 40% and sands are given as FMP, FMQ and FMR it
18%, respectively. The soil may be can be stated that
classified as
(A) SC (C) CI
(B) MI (D) SM
th th th

.
P Torque
Q Top view (plan)
Percentage passing
R Vane
rod
Vane
Torque
blade
Vane rod
Sieve size
(A) FMQ = √
(B) FMQ = 0.5 (FMP + FMR) 15 mm 100 mm
(C) FMP> FMQ> FMR
(D) FMP< FMQ< FMR
10.
ww
A soil is composed of solid spherical
grains of identical specific gravity and
Elevation
50 mm
w.E
diameter between 0.075mm and
0.0075mm. If the terminal velocity of the
largest particle falling through water
(A) 5 kPa
(B) 10 kPa
(C) 15 kPa
(D) 20 kPa
asy
without flocculation is 0.5 mm/s, that for
the smallest particle would be
CE – 2013
12. In its natural condition, a soil sample has
(A) 0.005 mm/s
(B) 0.05 mm/s
(C) 5 mm/s
(D) 50 mm/s En a mass of 1.980 kg and a volume of
0.001 . After being completely dried in
11. A field vane testing instrument (shown

alongside) was inserted completely into a
deposit of soft, saturated silty clay with
gi an oven, the mass of the sample is
nee
1.800 kg. Specific gravity G is 2.7. Unit
weight of water is 10kN/ . The degree
of saturation of the soil is :
the vane rod vertical such that the top of
the blades were 500mm below the rin
(A) 0.65
(B) 0.70
(C) 0.54
(D) 0.61
ground surface. Upon application of a
rapidly increasing torque about the vane
rod, the soil was found to fail when the
13. g
Laplace equation for water flow in soil is
given below. .ne
torque reached 4.6 Nm. Assuming
mobilization of undrained shear strength x y z
on all failure surfaces to be uniform and Head H does not vary in y and z
the resistance mobilized on the surface of directions.
the vane rod to be negligible, what would Boundary conditions are: at x = 0,
be the peak undrained shear strength H = 5m, and
(rounded off to the nearest integer value
What is the value of H at x = 1.2 ?_________
of kPa) of the soil?
CE – 2014
14. A certain soil has the following
properties: = 2.71, n = 40% and
w = 20%. The degree of saturation of the
soil (rounded off to the nearest percent)
is __________
th th th

.
15. As per Indian Standard Soil Classification 16. A given cohesion less soil has e = 0.85
System (IS: 1498 - 1970), an expression and e = 0.50. In the field, the soil is
for A – line is compacted to a mass density of
(A) w 1800 g at a water content of 8%.
(B) w Take the mass density of water as 1000
(C) w g and as 2.7. The relative density
(D) w (in %) of the soil is
(A) 56.43 (C) 62.87
(B) 60.25 (D) 65.71

1.
ww
[Ans. D]
As 50% of the soil is sand, the soil is sand
with gravel and silt as ingredients. Also,
4.
5.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
w.E
there is no information regarding D60 and
D10. Hence the soil is gravelly silty sand 6. [Ans. B]
asy
whose coefficient of uniformity cannot be
determined. u e
2. [Ans. D]
S.No. 1. 2. 3. En
Sieve
Weight size
Cum.weight
600
200
200
500
250
450
425
50
500
gi nee
w
Water content
So, w w w
w w
retained
% retained 40 90 100 7.
rin
[Ans. B]
%N
retained
60 10 0
g
Plasticity index, w w
.ne
Coarse grained soils which contain more
than 12% fines (<0.075 mm) are
Now uniformity coefficient, classified as GM or SM if the fines are silty
in character meaning, the limits plot
below the A-line on the plasticity chart.
Coarse grained soils are those having
3. [Ans. A] 50% or more retained on the 0.075 mm
More than 50% of the soil pass through sieve. They are designated as gravel (G) if
sieve which eans that even a 50% or more of the coarse fraction is
greater percentage of the soil passes retained on 4.75 mm sieve; otherwise
through 4.75 mm sieve. they are designated as sand.
Hence, the soil is definitely sandy soil.
8. [Ans. C]
Also, we know that for a sand to be
Plasticity index, w w
considered well graded, should be
greater than 6. Here, in the case Cu = 1.2.
Equation of A line is given by
Thus, the soil is poorly graded sand.
w
th th th

.
Thus the given soil lies above the A-line. i

The liquid limit of the soil is more than i
50, hence the soil will be CH.
From (2)
s
9. [Ans. A]
s
10. [Ans. A]
By t e’s aws
13. [Ans. 3.8]
Terminal velocity V =
∝ 2 x
Integrating both sides, we get
ww
 ( )
( ) x
Integrating again
 w.E V2 = 0.005mm/sec
x
At x = 0, H = 5
11.
asy
[Ans. B]
When the top end of the vane completely
At x = 0,
From eq. (i)
shear the soil, then the torque at failure is
give by En x
T = cu x π *
4.6 = cu x π *
+
+
gi At x = 1.2 m
nee
cu = 10040.40 N/m2 14. [Ans. *] Range 81.0 to 81.5
Undrained shear strength,
R = cu = 10 kPa rin
By definition
WG = Se
12. [Ans. C]
Given
e
S
g .ne
m = 1.980 kg
= 1.800 kg 15. [Ans. A]
g
16. [Ans. D]
water c ntent RD (%) =
Here, e =
r w
r g s
e e
Now , e
r se
r
i e
s r
and r
i
e
From (1)
th th th

.
Permeability and Seepage
CE – 2005 5. To provide safety against piping failure,

1. In a constant head permeameter with with a factor of safety of 5, what should be
cross section area of 10 cm2, when the the maximum permissible exit gradient
flow was taking place under a hydraulic for soil with specific gravity of 2.5 and
gradient of 0.5, the amount of water porosity of 0.35?
collected in 60 seconds is 600 cc. The (A) 0.155 (C) 0.195
permeability of the soil is (B) 0.167 (D) 0.213
(A) 0.002 cm/s (C) 0.2 cm/s
(B) 0.02 cm/s (D) 2.0 cm/s CE – 2007
2.
ww
Two observation wells penetrated into a
confined aquifer and located 1.5 km apart
in the direction of flow, indicate head of
Water is flowing through the permeability
apparatus as shown in the figure. The
c efficient f per eabi ity f the s i is ‘ ’
w.E
45 m and 20 m. If the coefficient of
permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day
m/s and the porosity of the soil sample is
0.50
asy
and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of
an inert tracer from one well to another is
(A) 416.7 days (C) 750 days
0.4
m
(B) 500 days (D) 3000 days
En 0.8
CE – 2006
3. Which of the following statement is NOT
true in the context of capillary pressure in
gi nee
SOIL
R
m
0.4
soils? m
(A) Water is under tension in capillary
rin
zone
(B) Pore water pressure is negative in
capillary zone
(C) Effective stress increases due to
6. g
The total head, elevation head and
pressure head in metres of water at the .ne
capillary zone point R shown in the figure are
(D) Capillary pressure is more in coarse (A) 0.8,0.4,0.4 (C) 0.4,0,0.4
grained soils (B) 1.2,0.4,0.8 (D) 1.6,0.4, 1.2
7. What are the discharge velocity and

4. The range of void ratio between which
seepage velocity through the soil sample?
quick sand condition occurs in cohesion
(A) , (C) ,
less granular soil deposits is
(A) 0.4-0.5 (C) 0.8-0.9 (B) , (D) ,
(B) 0.6-0.7 (D) 1.0-1.1
CE – 2009
8. The relationship among specific yield
( ), specific retention and porosity
of an aquifer is
(A) (C)
(B) (D)
th th th

.
CE – 2010 13. Steady state seepage is taking place

9. Quick sand condition occurs when through a soil element at Q, 2 m below the
(A) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0 ground surface immediately downstream
(B) The upward seepage pressure in soil of the toe of an earthen dam as shown in
becomes zero the sketch. The water level in a
(C) The upward seepage pressure in soil piezometer installed at P, 500 mm above
becomes equal to the saturated unit Q, is at the ground surface. The water
weight of the soil level in a piezometer installed at R,
(D) The upward seepage pressure in soil 500 mm below Q, is 100 mm above the
becomes equal to the submerged ground surface. The bulk saturated unit
unit weight of the soil weight of the soil is 18 kN/ and the
unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/ . The
10. An open ended steel barrel of 1 m height
ww
and 1 m diameter is filled with saturated
fine sand having coefficient of
vertical effective stress (in kPa) at Q is
w.E
permeability of ⁄s The barrel
stands on a saturated bed of gravel. The
time required for the water level in the Q
P
asy
barrel to drop by 0.75 m is
(A) 58.9 s (C) 100 s (A) 14.42
(B) 15.89
R
(C) 16.38
(D) 18.34
(B) 75 s (D) 150 s
En Common Data Questions 14 and 15

CE – 2011
11. For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio
and the specific gravity of solids are 0.70
and 2.67, respectively. The critical
gi The flow net around a sheet pile wall is
nee
shown in the sketch. The properties of the
soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09
(upward) hydraulic gradient for the
deposit would be rin
m/day (isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70
and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall
(A) 0.54
(B) 0.98
CE – 2012
(C) 1.02
(D) 1.87 g
and the bottom of the soil are
impermeable.
.ne
12. Two soil specimens with identical 10 m
geometric dimensions were subjected to
1.5 m
falling head permeability tests in the
3m
laboratory under identical conditions.
The fall of water head was measured after
an identical time interval. The ratio of
initial to final water heads for the test
involving the first specimen was 1.25. If
the coefficient of permeability of the
second specimen is 5 times that of the
first, the ratio of initial to final water
14. The seepage loss (in per day per unit
heads in the test involving the second
length of the wall) of water is
specimen is
(A) 0.33 (C) 0.43
(A) 3.05 (C) 4.00
(B) 0.38 (D) 0.54
(B) 3.80 (D) 6.25
th th th

.
15. The factor of safety against the reading of + 10 m elevation. Assume that
occurrence of piping failure is the piezometric head is uniform in the
(A) 3.55 (C) 2.60 sand layer. The quantity of water (in
(B) 2.93 (D) 0.39 /s) flowing into the lake from the sand
layer through the silt layer per unit area
CE – 2013 of the lake bed is :
16. The ration Nf/Nd is known as shape Stand pipe
+ 10
factor, where Nf is the number of flow
lines and Nd is the number of 0
equipotential drops. Flow net is always Lake Lake bottom
Elevation (m)
drawn with a constant b/a ratio, where b
and a are distance between two Silt(k = m/s)
ww
consecutive flow lines and equipotential
lines, respectively. Assuming that b/a
ratio remains the same, the shape factor
Sand
(under artesian pressure)
w.E
of a flow net will change if the
(A) Upstream and downstream heads
are interchanged
(A)
Rock
(C)
asy
(B) Soil in the flow space is changed
(C) Dimensions of the flow space are
(B)
CE – 2014
(D)
changed
(D) Head difference causing the flow is En 19. Water is flowing at a steady rate through
a homogeneous and saturated horizontal
17.
changed
Following statements are made on

compacted soils, where in DS stands for
gi soil strip of 10 m length. The strip is being
nee
subjected to a constant water head (H) of
5 m at the beginning and 1 m at the end. If
the soil compacted on dry side of

optimum moisture content and WS stands strip is
rin
the governing equation of flow in the soil
(where x is the distance
for the soil compacted on wet side of
optimum moisture content. Identify the
incorrect statement.
g
along the soil strip), the value of H (in m)
at the middle of the strip is ____________.
.ne
(A) Soil structure is flocculated on DS 20. The flow net constructed for the dam is
and dispersed on WS. shown in the figure below. Taking the
(B) Construction of pore water pressure coefficient of permeability as
is low on DS and high on WS m/s, the quantity of flow (in
(C) On drying , shrinkage is high on DS c /s) under the dam per meter of dam
and low on WS is ______________
(D) On access to water, swelling is high
50 m
on DS and low on WS
1.6 m
6.3 m
18. The soil profile below a lake with water
level at elevation = 0 m and lake bottom 9.4 m
at elevation = 10 m is shown in the 17.2 m
figure, where k is the permeability

coefficient. A piezometer (stand pipe)
Impermeable stratum
installed in the sand layer shows a
th th th

.

1. [Ans. D] 7. [Ans. A]
i Discharge velocity, v i
head ss
c s But i
i ength f s i ass
v s
2. [Ans. C] v
The average flow velocity or discharge eepage ve city, v
n
velocity, v i
8. [Ans. C]
( ) day
v 9. [Ans. D]
ww eepage ve city, v
n
day
h
w.E rave ti e days

L Soil
3.
asy
[Ans. D]
Capillary rise is more in fine grained soils
and as a result of this, the capillary
pressure is also more than the coarse
grained soils. En Quick sand occurs when net effective
pressure is zero
4. [Ans. B]
The specific gravity of cohesion less
gi ie
nee
But
̅
h
h
granular soils (sands) does not vary much
and for all practical purposes it is taken to
be 2.65. Critical hydraulic gradient should rin
So quick sand condition occurs when
upward seepage pressure in soil becomes
be nearly 1 for quick sand condition

i e ,i
e
10.
soil.
[Ans. B]
g
equal to the submerged unit weight of the
.ne
From the above equation, the void ratio
range is found be between 0.6 & 0.7 Time required
5. [Ans. C] s
i n
e 11. [Ans. B]
Critical hydraulic gradient, i
axi u per issib e exit gradient,
= 0.98
12. [Ans. A]
6. [Ans. A]
a h
t g
h
h
t∝ g
h
Since time interval is same
th th th

.
h h 18. [Ans. D]
g g
h h Head causing flow = 10m
h This head will be lost in 20 m depth of silt
iven ,
h
i
ubstituting the ab ve va ues
h h i
g g
h h ischarge per unit area, i
h
g g s
h
h
19. [Ans. 3]
h
Given, equation of the flow of soil strip is
d
13. [Ans. B]
ww
Average water pressure head at point Q is
h
dx
d
dx
w.E u
h
at x ,
x
14.
asy
[Ans. B]
a
at x ,
x
Seepage head, H = 10 – 1.5 = 8.5m

, , /d En
/day/m
gi nee x
15. [Ans. C]
Exit gradient, i
at x
rin
given in the fig
Critical hydraulic gradient, 20.
g
[Ans. *] Range 7.10 to 7.85 .ne
i Seepage loss, q per meter length of dam is
f f w channe
Factor of safety against piping,
f e uip tentia dr ps
q=K
Here, H = 6.3m
16. [Ans. C]
K= s
depends only on dimension of flow field
and is independent of soil & head
parameters.
Option C is the most appropriate answer.
s
17. [Ans. C] c s
Shrinkage is low on DS and high on WS
th th th

.
Consolidation
CE – 2005 (iii) Unit weight of sand and clay below

1. Root time method is used to determine the water table
(A) , time factor (iv) Coefficient of volume compressibility
(B) , coefficient of consolidation
(C) a , coefficient of compressibility G.L.
(D) , coefficient of volume
compressibility 5m
Original water table
CE – 2006 15 m
20 m
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 20 m
ww
2 and 3
The average effective overburden
pressure on 10m thick homogeneous
Lowered water table
w.E
saturated clay layer is 150 kPa.
Consolidation test on an undisturbed soil
sample taken from the clay layer showed
Clay soil layer 5m
asy
that the void ratio decreased from 0.6 to
0.5 by increasing the stress intensity from 4. What is the change in the effective stress
2.
100 kPa to 300 kPa (G = 2.65).
The initial void ratio of the clay layer is En in at mid-depth of the clay layer
due to the lowering of the water table?
3.
(A) 0.209
(B) 0.563
(C) 0.746
(D) 1.000
The total consolidation settlement of the

gi (A) 0
nee
(B) 20
(C) 80
(D) 100
5. What is the compression of the clay layer

clay layer due to the construction of a
structure imposing an additional stress rin
in mm due to the lowering of the water
table?
intensity of 200 kPa is
(A) 0.10 m
(B) 0.25 m
(C) 0.35 m
(D) 0.50 m
(A) 125
(B) 100 g (C) 25
(D) 0
.ne
CE – 2008
CE – 2007 6. A saturated clay stratum draining both at
Statement for linked answer questions the top and bottom undergoes 50 per cent
4&5 consolidation in 16 years under an
The ground condition at a site are as applied load. If an additional drainage
shown in the figure. The water table at layer were present at the middle of the
the site which was initially at a depth of 5 clay stratum, 50 per cent consolidation
m below the ground level got would occur in
permanently lowered to a depth of 15 (A) 2 years (C) 8 years
m below the ground level due to pumping (B) 4 years (D) 16 years
of water over a few years. Assume the
following data:
(i) Unit weight of water
(ii) Unit weight of sand above water
table
th th th

.
CE – 2009 CE – 2011
Statement for Linked Answers Questions 10. Identical surcharges are placed at ground
7&8 surface at sites X and Y, with soil
7. A saturated undisturbed sample from a conditions shown alongside and water
clay strata has moisture content of table at ground surface. The silty clay
22.22% and specific weight of 2.7. layers at X and Y are identical. The thin
Assuming = 10 the void sand layer at Y is continuous and free-
ratio and the saturated unit weight of the draining with a very large discharge
clay, respectively are capacity. If primary consolidation at X is
(A) 0.6 and 16.875 kN/m3. estimated to complete in 36 months, what
(B) 0.3 and 20.625 kN/m3 would be the corresponding time of
(C) 0.6 and 20.625 kN/m3 completion of primary consolidation at Y?
8.
ww
(D) 0.3 and 16.975 kN/m3
Using the properties of the clay layer

Site X Uniform
surcharge
Ground
Site Y
w.E
derived from the above question, the
consolidation settlement of the same clay
layer under a square footing (neglecting
Water
Table
surface Water
Table
asy
its self weight) with additional data
shown in the figure below (assume-the
5m
Isotropic
saturated
silty clay
stress distribution as 1 H: 2V from the

edge of the footing and = 10 ) is En Isotropic
saturated
silty clay 10 m
Thin
sand
gi
layer
1.0 m aturated sand nee 5m Isotropic

saturated
silty clay
1.0 m
rin
Bedrock Bedrock
g
1.0 m tiff
pressi n ndex (A) 2.25 months (C) 9 months
(A) 32.78 mm
(B) 61.75 mm
ense sand
(C) 79.5 mm
(D) 131.13 mm
(B) 4.5 months
CE – 2012
11. A layer of normally consolidated,
.ne
(D) 36 months
CE – 2010 saturated silty clay of 1 m thickness is

9. The e-log p curve shown in the figure is subjected to one dimensional
representative of consolidation under a pressure increment
of 20 kPa. The properties of the soil are:
specific gravity = 2.7, natural moisture
Void ratio. e
content= 45%, compression index= 0.45,

and recompression index =0.05. The
initial average effective stress within the
ayer is a ssu ing erzaghi’s
log p
theory to be applicable, the primary
(A) Normally consolidated clay consolidation settlement (rounded off the
(B) Over consolidated clay nearest mm) is
(C) Under consolidated clay (A) 2mm (C) 14mm
(D) Normally consolidated clayey sand. (B) 9mm (D) 16mm
th th th

.
CE – 2014
12. The following data are given for the
laboratory sample.
a e
a
e
If thickness of the clay specimen is
25 mm, the value of coefficient of volume
compressibility is _____
1.
2.
ww
[Ans. B]
[Ans. B]
hange in effective stress
⁄
̅ ̅
w.E
efficient f c
e e
̅
pressi n,
5. [Ans. A]
asy g (̅ ) ̅
Also,
g ( )
En 6. [Ans. B]
e
g (̅ )
e
̅
e
gi r
nee d
ay r’s f r u a, we have
t
Here and are constant
e
g ( )
rin
t∝d
t d
3. [Ans. D]
g [
̅
]
t
gt
( )
d
( ) .ne
e ̅
t
( ) g [ ]
t years
7. [Ans. C]
4. [Ans. D] e w
When the water table is 5 m below the
e [ i is saturated]
ground level
̅ e
⁄ e
e
When the water table is 15 m below the ( )
e
ground level,
̅ ( )
( ) ⁄
⁄
th th th

.
8. [Ans. B] 11. [Ans. D]

The consolidation settlement at the w
e
centre of clay layer is given by
̅ c , a,
g [ ]
e ̅ a
For NCC, g ( )
g [ ]
12. [Ans. *] Range 7.6 to 8.0
ww Co – efficient of volume compressibility is

defined as
e
w.E
Load distribution dimensions at the
centre of clay layer
e
asy
ncrease in stress due t ad
= 7.61
⁄
En
Effective stress at the centre of clay layer
⁄
gi nee
g [ ]
rin
9. [Ans. B]
This condition
consolidated clay.
represents over
g .ne
10. [Ans. C]
ay r’s f r u a
t
t
( )
 ( )
 t nths
th th th

.
Compaction
CE – 2012
1. Two series of compaction test were performed in the laboratory on an inorganic clayey soil
employing two different levels of compaction energy per unit volume of soil. With regard to the
above tests, the following two statements are made.
I. The optimum moisture content is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
II. The maximum dry density is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
The correct option evaluating the above statement is.
(A) Only I is TRUE
(B) Only II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are TRUE
ww
(D) Neither I nor II is TRUE
Answer keys & Explanations

w.E
1. [Ans. B]
asy higher energy
s ,
En
w w
gi nee
isture c ntent
rin
g .ne
th th th

.
Stress Analysis
CE – 2005 CE – 2008
1. A clayey soil has maximum dry density of 4. Compaction by vibratory roller is the best
16 and optimum moisture content method of compaction in case of
of 12%. A contractor during the (A) Moist silty sand
construction of core of an earth dam (B) Well graded dry sand
obtained the dry density 15.2 and (C) Clay of medium compressibility.
water content 11%. This construction is (D) Silt of high compressibility
acceptable because.
(A) The density is less than the 5. A footing 2 m × 1 m exerts a uniform
maximum dry density and water pressure of 150 kN/m2 on the soil.
ww content is on dry side of optimum

(B) The compaction density is very low
and water content is less than 12%
Assuming a load dispersion of 2 vertical
to 1 horizontal, the average vertical stress
(kN/m2) at 1.0 m below the footing is
w.E
(C) The compaction is done on the dry
side of the optimum
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 80
(D) 100
asy
(D) Both the dry density and water
content of the compacted soil are
within the desirable limits
Statement for linked answer questions
6 & 7.
CE – 2006 En The ground conditions at a site are shown

in the figure below.
2. In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist
soil was filling the mould
(volume = 944 cc) after compaction. A
gi nee Sand
GL
Water table is at ground level

5m Water content = 20%
soil sample weighing 23 g was taken from
the mould and over dried for 24 hours at
rin P
Specific gravity of solids =2.7
Unit weight of water = 10
a temperature of 110°C. Weight of the dry
sample was found to be 20 g. Specific
gravity of soil solids is G = 2.7. The
theoretical maximum value of the dry unit
6. g .ne
The saturated unit weight of the sand
is
weight of the soil at that water content is (A) 15 (C) 21
equal to (B) 18 (D) 24
(A) 4.67 kN/m3 (C) 16.26kN/m3
(B) 11.5kN/m3 (D) 18.85kN/m3 7. The total stress, pore water pressure and
effective stress (kN/m2) at the point P
are, respectively
CE – 2007
(A) 75,50 and 25 (C) 105,50 and 55
3. The vertical stress at some depth below
(B) 90,50 and 40 (D) 120,50 and 70
the corner of a 2 m × 3 m rectangular
footing due to a certain load intensity is
100 ⁄ . What will be the vertical CE – 2010
stress in ⁄ below the centre of a 8. In a compaction test, G, w, S and e
4 m × 6 m rectangular footing at the same represent the specific gravity, water
depth and same load intensity? content, degree of saturation and void
(A) 25 (C) 200 ratio of the soil sample, respectively. If
(B) 100 (D) 400 represents the unit weight of water and
th th th

.
represents the dry unit weight of the 10. What would be the effective stress
soil, the equation for zero air voids line is (rounded off to the nearest integer value of
(A) (C) kPa) at 30 m depth into the sand layer'?
(A) 77 kPa (C) 268 kPa
(B) (D)
(B) 273 kPa (D) 281 kPa
9. The vertical stress at point P1 due to the 11. What would be the change in the effective
point load Q on the ground surface as stress (rounded off to the nearest integer
shown in figure is . According to
value of kPa) at 30 m depth into the sand
Boussinesq's equation, the vertical stress
layer if the sea water level permanently
at point P2 shown in figure will be
rises by 2 m?
(A) 19 kPa (C) 21 kPa
ww z
z/2
(B) 0 kPa
CE – 2014
(D) 22 kPa
w.E r/2
12. For a saturated cohesive soil, a triaxial
test yields the angle of internal friction
(A) asy r
(C)
φ as zer he c nducted test is
(A) Consolidated Drained (CD) test
(B) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test
(B) (D)
En (C) Unconfined Compression (UC) test

(D) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test
CE – 2011
Common Data for Questions 10 & 11
A sand layer found at sea floor under
20 m water depth is characterized with
gi nee
relative density = 40%. Maximum void
ratio = 1.0, minimum void ratio = 0.5, rin
and specific gravity of soil solids = 2.67.
Assume the specific gravity of sea water
to be 1.03 and the unit weight of fresh
water to be 9.81
g .ne
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] t eve , an area

= 2 x 1 = 2m2
2. [Ans. D] At level B – B, Plan area
= {(2 + 2 x 0.5) (1 + 2 x 0.5)}
Bu density f the s i
= 6m2
g ⁄cc So, pressure intensity at level B – B (1m.
ater c ntent s i ( ) below the A – A)
= 150 x = 50 kN/m2
For, theoretical maximum dry unit weight
6. [Ans. C]
ww
degree of saturation should be 100%
e w
e
e
e
w.Ee
The theoretical maximum dry unit weight and
e
( )
asy
may be given as
,
( )
e
⁄
En7. [Ans. C]
ta stress
3. [Ans. D]
For same load intensity and same depth, gi nee re water pressure, u
⁄
⁄
ffective stress, ̅ u
⁄
rin ⁄
4.
5.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. A]
8. [Ans. B]
g
The bulk unit weight of soil is given by
e
.ne
1m e
For dry unit weight, degree of saturation,
S=0
2m
e
But we know that w e
A A
1m For zero air voids, degree of saturation
1 1
1m 2 2
w
B B
0.5 1m 0.5
2.0
th th th

.
9. [Ans. D] Pore water pressure at the bottom of sand

As per Boussinesq equation, the vertical layer,
stress at a point located at a depth z u
and a horizontal distance r from the point
of application of point load Q is Effective stress at the bottom of sand layer,
⁄ ̅ u
[ ]
πz
()
Alternatively,
For a horizontal distance and a depth .
̅
The stress will be
⁄
ww π( )
[
( )
] 11. [Ans. B]
w.E πz
[
()
]
⁄
The effective stress will not alter due to
change in sea water level. The total stress
will increase due to increase in sea water
10. asy
[Ans. D]
level. The pore water pressure will also
increase in the same proportion, thus
Relative density
( ) En nullifying the effect of each other.
Sea water
( )
e
gi nee
22 m
e 30 m Sand layer
Also,
rin
Sea water
u g .ne
20 m ̅ u
30 m Sand layer
12. [Ans. D]
( ) Mohr circle for UU test
( )
Total stress at the bottom of sand layer, ϕ=0
Which is only possible for UU test on

saturated clays.
th th th

GATE Supplement Book Geotechnical Engineering
Stress Analysis
CE – 2005 pressure at a deviator stress of

1. Assuming that a river bed level does not 40 kN/m2?
change and the depth of water in river (A) 0 (C) 40 kN/m2
was 10m, 15m and 8m during the months (B) 20 kN/m 2 (D) 60 kN/m2
of February, July and December
respectively of a particular year. The 5. Match List – I with List – II and select the
average bulk density of the soil is 20 correct answer using the codes given
kN/m3. The density of water is 110 below the lists:
kN/m3. The effective stress at a depth of List – I List - II
10 m below the river bed during these A. Constant head 1. Pile
ww
months would be
(A) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2
permeability test Foundation
B. Consolidation test 2. Specific
w.EJuly and 320 kN/m2 in December

(B) 100 kN/m2 in February, 100 kN/m2
July and 100 kN/m2 in December
C. Pycnometer test
gravity
3. Clay soil
asy
(C) 200 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2
(D) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2
D. Negative skin
friction
4. Sand

En Codes:
A B C D
2. For a triaxial shear test conducted on a

sand specimen at a confining pressure of
100 kN/m2 under drained conditions,
gi (A)
(B)
nee
(C)
(D)
4
4
3
4
3
2
4
1
2
3
2
2
1
1
1
3
resulted in a deviator stress
failure of 100 kN/m2. The angle of
at
CE – 2008
rin
shearing resistance of the soil would be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
g
A direct shear test was conducted on a
.ne
cohesion less soil (c=0) specimen under a
normal stress of 200 kN/m2. The
specimen failed at a shear stress of
CE – 2006 100 . The angle of internal friction
3. A sample of saturated cohesionless soil of the soil (degrees) is
tested in a drained triaxial compression (A) 26.6 (C) 30.0
test showed an angle of internal friction (B) 29.5 (D) 32.6
of . The deviatoric stress at failure for
the sample at a confining pressure of CE – 2010
200 kPa is equal to Statement for linked Answer Question
(A) 200 kPa (C) 600 kPa 7and 8
(B) 400 kPa (D) 800 kPa The unconfined compressive strength of a
saturated clay sample is 54 kPa.
CE – 2007
4. A clay soil sample is tested in a triaxial 7. The value of cohesion for the clay is
apparatus in consolidated drained (A) Zero (C) 27 kPa
conditions at a cell pressure of 100kN/m2. (B) 13.5 kPa (D) 54 kPa
What will be the pore water
th th th

.
8. If a square footing of size 4 m × 4 m is CE – 2012

resting on the surface of a deposit of the 9. The effective stress friction angle of a
above clay, the ultimate bearing capacity saturated, cohesionless soil is . The
f the f ting as per erzaghi’s e uati n ratio of shear stress to normal effective
is stress on the failure plane is
(A) 1600 kPa (C) 200 kPa (A) 0.781 (C) 0.488
(B) 316 kPa (D) 100 kPa (B) 0.616 (D) 0.438

1. [Ans. B] 4. [Ans. A]
Since the river bed level does not change In the consolidated drained test, the soil
ww
and the depth of water is changing only
above the river bed, the effective stress
below the river bed will not change.
sample is first consolidated under an
appropriate cell pressure. With the cell
pressure kept at the same value, the soil
w.E
Total stress at a depth of 10 m below
river bed,
sample is then sheared by applying the
deviator stress so slowly that excess pore
water pressure does not develop during
asy
Pore water Pressure,
u
the test. Thus, at any stage of the test, the
total stresses are the effective stresses.
̅
Effective stress,
u En 5. [Ans. A]
Thus effective stress will be 100 kN/m2
each in the month of February, July and
December.
gi 6.
nee
[Ans. A]
c ̅ tan ϕ [ c
tan ϕ
]
2. [Ans. B]
We know that, rin
ϕ tan
ϕ
sin ϕ
sin ϕ
7. [Ans. C]g
hensi n f c ay, c
.ne a
sin ϕ
sin ϕ 8. [Ans. C]
The ultimate bearing capacity of a square
ϕ sin ( )
footing in clay as per erzaghi’s bearing
ϕ capacity equation is given by
c [ f r c ay ]
3. [Ans. B]
ϕ ϕ
tan ( ) c tan ( ) a
tan ( )
9. [Ans. A]
tan ( ) tan ϕ
tan ϕ
Deviatoric stress at failure tan
a
th th th

Surface Investigations
CE – 2005 (C) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value

1. During the subsurface investigations for of SPT > 15 after the overburden
design of foundations, a standard correction
penetration test was conducted at 4.5m (D) Coarse sand under dry condition and
below the ground surface. The record of N value of SPT < 10 after the
number of blows is given below. overburden correction
Penetration Number of
depth (m) blows CE – 2014
0 - 7.5 3 4. The degree of disturbance of the sample
7.5 - 15 3 collected by the sampler is expressed by a
ww 15 - 22.5
22.5 - 30
6
6
term called the "area ratio". If the outer
diameter and inner diameter of the
sampler are and respectively, the
w.E 30 - 37.5
37.5 - 45
8
7
Assuming the water table at ground level,
area ratio is given by
(A) (C)
asy
soil as fine sand and correction factor for
verburden as , the c rrected ‘ ’ va ue
for the soil would be
(B) (D)
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 21
(D) 33 En 5. Group I enlists in-situ field tests carried
CE – 2007
2. The no. of blows observed in a standard
gi out for soil exploration, while Group II
provides a list of parameters for sub-soil
nee
strength characterization. Match the type
of tests with the characterization
penetration test (SPT) for different
penetration depths are given as follows:
rin
parameters.
Group I Group II
Penetration of
sampler
0 - 150 mm
150 - 300 mm
Number of
blows
6
8
(PMT) g
P. Pressuremeter Test 1. enard’s
Q. Static Cone
Penetration Test
(Em)
.ne
du us
2. Number of blows
(N)
300 - 450 mm 10 (SCPT)
The observed N value is R. Standard 3. Skin resistance (fc)
(A) 8 (C) 18 Penetration Test
(B) 14 (D) 24 (SPT)
S. Vane Shear Test 4. Undrained
CE – 2009 (VST) cohesion (cu)
3. Dilatancy correction is required when a (A)
strata is (B)
(A) Cohesive and saturated and also has (C)
N value of SPT > 15 (D)
(B) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value
of SPT < 10 after overburden
correction
th th th

1. [Ans. C] 3. [Ans. C]
The number of blows required for the Saturated Dilatancy correction is applied
first 150 mm of penetration is for fine sand/silt if N > 15
disregarded, and only the number of
blows required for the last 300 mm of 4. [Ans. A]
penetration is added together
number of blows,
(i) Correction for overburden pressure

Corrected value f bserved ’
ww
(ii) Correction for dilatancy
It is to be applied when number of blows
obtained after overburden correction
w.E
exceeds 15 in saturated fine sands and
silts.
2. asy
[Ans. C]
Area ratio =
The number of blows for the first 150 mm

penetration of the sampler is disregarded. En Inner clearance =
Outer – clearance =
The number of blows for the next 300 mm
penetration is recorded as the observed N
value
gi 5.
nee
[Ans. A]
Observed va ue
rin
g .ne
th th th

Earth Pressure
CE – 2005 CE – 2010
1. A 3m high retaining wall is supporting a 4. If , , and represent the total
saturated sand (saturated due to capillary horizontal stress, total vertical stress,
action) of bulk density 18 kN/m3 and effective horizontal stress and effective
angle of shearing resistance . The vertical stress on a soil elements,
change in magnitude of active earth respectively, the co-efficient of earth
pressure at the base due to rise in ground pressure at rest is given by
water table from the base of the footing to (A) (C)
the gr und surface sha w = 10 kN/m )
2
(A) Increase by 20 kN/m2 (B) (D)
ww (B) Decrease by 20 kN/m2

(C) Increase by 30 kN/m2
(D) Decrease by 30 kN/m2
CE – 2012
5. A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as
2.
w.E
CE – 2006
Figure given below shows a smooth
shown in the sketch causing the backfill
material to fail. The backfill material is
homogeneous and isotropic, and obeys
asy
vertical gravity retaining wall with
cohesionless soil backfill having an angle
the Mohr – Coulomb failure criterion. The
major principal stress is
of internal friction ϕ.
En Initial wall position
Final wall position
gi
β
hr’s enve pe
H
Sand
P
Ground
nee Dry, granular,
cohesionless
backfill with
O
line
rin horizontal top

surface
In the graphical representation of
an ine’s active earth pressure f r the
retaining wall shown in figure, length OP
represents
g .ne
(A) Parallel to the wall face and acting
downwards
(A) Vertical stress at the base
(B) Normal to the wall face
(B) Vertical stress at a height H/3 from
(C) Oblique to the wall face acting
the base
downwards
(C) Lateral earth pressure at the base
(D) Oblique to the wall face acting
(D) Lateral earth pressure at a height
upwards
H/3 from the base
CE – 2013
CE – 2008 6. Two different soil types (soil 1 and soil 2)
3. When a retaining wall moves away from are used as backfill behind a retaining
the backfill, the pressure exerted on the wall as shown in the figure, where is
wall is termed as total unit weight, and c and ϕ are
(A) passive earth pressure effective cohesion and effective angle of
(B) swelling pressure shearing resistance. The resultant active
(C) pore pressure earth force per unit length ( in kN/m)
(D) active earth pressure acting on the wall is :
th th th

.
Retaining wall
Soil 1:
2m
=15kN/ c =0;ϕ
Soil 2:
2m =20kN/ c =0;ϕ
(A) 31.7 (C) 51.8

(B) 35.2 (D) 57.0

1.
w.E
[Ans. A]
When water table is at the base of footing
to the vertical stress at a specified depth.
Ko =
asy But for a saturated soil,
En 5. [Ans. B]
In passive earth pressure, major principle
gi 6.
stress is horizontal.
nee
[Ans. A]
sin
When water table rises upto the surface rin sin
thrust due to water will be added

g .ne
So change in pressure = (increase)
= 10kN/m
2. [Ans. A]
=13.02kN/m
3. [Ans. D]
4. [Ans. B]
Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is the
ratio of intensity of earth pressure at rest
th th th

.
Stability of Slopes
CE – 2005 CE – 2007
1. For two infinite slopes (one in dry 3. The factor safety of an infinite soil slope
condition and other in submerged shown in the figure having the properties
condition) in a sand deposit having the c = 0, ϕ = , = 16 kN/m3, and
angle of shearing resistance , factor of = 20 kN/m is approximately equal to
3
safety was determined as 1.5 (for both

slopes).
The slope angles would have been.
(A) for dry slope and for
submerged slope
ww(B)
(C)
for dry slope and
submerged slope
for dry slope and
for
for
w.E
(D)
submerged slope
for dry slope and for
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.8
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.2
CE – 2006asy
submerged slope
CE – 2013
4. The soil profile above the rock surface for
2. List-I below gives the possible types of
failure for a finite soil slope and List-II En a infinite slope is shown in the figure,
where s is the undrained shear strength
gives the reasons for these different types
of failure. Match the items in List-I with
the items in List-II and select the correct
gi and is total unit weight. The slip will
occur at a depth of
nee
answer from the codes given below the
lists:
List-I rin 5m
A. Base failure
B. Face failure
C. Toe failure
g 5m
.ne
List-II
1. Soils above and below the toe have
same strength
2. Soil above the toe is comparatively
weaker (A) 8.83 m (C) 7.83 m
3. Soil above the toe is comparatively (B) 9.79 m (D) 6.53 m
stronger
Codes: CE – 2014
A B C 5. A long slope is formed in a soil with shear
(A) 1 2 3 strength parameters: c' = 0 and ϕ ' = 34°.
(B) 2 3 1 A firm stratum lies below the slope and it
(C) 2 1 3 is assumed that the water table may
(D) 3 2 1 occasionally rise to the surface, with
seepage taking place parallel to the slope.
Use = 18 kN/ and = 10 kN/ .
th th th

.
The maximum slope angle (in degrees) to 6. An infinitely long slope is made up of a
ensure a factor of safety of 1.5, assuming a c-φ s i having the pr perties: c hesi n
potential failure surface parallel to the (c) = 20 kPa and dry unit weight ( ) =
slope, would be 16 kN/ . The angle of inclination and
(A) 45.3 (C) 12.3 critical height of the slope are 40° and
(B) 44.7 (D) 11.3 5 m, respectively. To maintain the limiting
equilibrium, the angle of internal friction
of the soil (in degrees) is _______________
1. [Ans. A] The slip will occur when shear stress is
ww
For dry or submerged slopes,
Factor of safety =
greater than or equal to shear strength.
z z sin β c s β
w.E
=) tan β =
=) β = 21.05
z sin
z sin β
2.
asy
[Ans. D]
Face failure or slope failure can occur z
when the s pe ang e β is very high and
the soil close to the toe is quite strong or
En epth f s ip
the soil in the upper part of slope is

relatively weak.
Base failure can occur when the soil
below the toe is relatively weak and soft
gi 5. [Ans. D]
For submerged case
nee
F.O.S =
For seepage parallel to slope
and the slope is flat.
Toe failure occurs in steep slopes when rin
F.O.S =
3.
the soil mass above the base and below
the base is homogeneous.
[Ans. A]
as
g
(2) is worst case since
O f case < FOS of case (1)
.ne
Factor of safety, * + Considering (2)
tan
Assuming, O
tan i
* + i
4. [Ans. A] 6. [Ans. *] Range 21.0 to 23.0
Slip surface
tan tanϕ
z ϕ
z
β β
th th th

Bearing Capacity
CE – 2005 3. The net ultimate bearing capacity

1. The strip footing (8, wide) is designed for (kN/ ) of the footing based on
a total settlement of 40 mm. The safe erzaghi’s bearing capacity e uati n is
bearing capacity (shear) was 150 kN/ (A) 216 (C) 630
and safe allowable soil pressure was (B) 432 (D) 846
100 kN/ . Due to importance of the
structure, now the footing is to be 4. The safe load (kN) that the footing can be
redesigned for total settlement of 25 mm. with a factor of safety 3 is
The new width of the footing will be (A) 282 (C) 945
(A) 5 m (C) 12 m (B) 648 (D) 1269
ww (B) 8 m
CE – 2007
(D) 12.8m
5. A test plate 30 cm × 30 cm resting on a
sand deposit settles by 10 mm under a
2.
w.E
The bearing capacity of a rectangular
footing of plan dimensions 1.5m × 3m
resting on the surface of a sand deposit
certain loading intensity. A footing
150 cm × 200 cm resting on the same
sand deposit and loaded to the same load
asy
was estimated as 600 kN/m2 when the
water table is far below the base of the
intensity settles by
(A) 2.0 mm (C) 30.2 mm
footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m2
when the water level rises to depth of 3m, En (B) 27.8mm (D) 50.0mm
1.5m and 0.5m below the base of the

footing are
(A) 600, 600, 400 (C) 600, 500, 250
gi CE – 2009
6.
nee
A plate load test is carried out on a
300 mm × 300 mm plate placed at 2 m
(B) 600, 450, 350 (D) 600, 400, 250 below the ground level to determine the
CE – 2008 rin
bearing capacity of a 2 m × 2 m footing
placed at same depth of 2 m on a
3 and 4
A column is supported on footing as
g
homogeneous sand deposit extending 10
m below ground. The ground water table
is 3 m below the ground level. Which of.ne
shown in the figure below. The water the following factors does not require a
table is at a depth of 10m below the base correction to the bearing capacity
of the footing determined based on the load test?
Column (A) Absence of the overburden pressure
GL
during the test
1.0 m (B) Size of the plate is much smaller than
Sand the footing size
Footing = 18 kN/ (C) Influence of the ground water table
= 24 (D) Settlement is recorded only over a
1.5×3m
= 20 limited period of one or two days
th th th

.
Common Data for Questions 7 and 8: 11. Two geometrically identical isolated
Examine the test arrangement and the footings, X (linear elastic) and Y (rigid),
soil properties given below; are loaded identically (shown below). The
5m 5m soil reaction will
Uniform pressure
Footing X: Linear elastic

Rigid Steel Beam
Concrete block Isotropic linear
1.5×1.0×0.6m high
elastic soil
G.W.T
Saturated dense sand 500 mm diameter bored pile
ww ⁄ 5m Angle of friction
ϕ c a Earth pressure coefficient Uniform pressure
(K)= 1.5
⁄
7.
w.E
The maximum pressure that can be
applied with a factor of safety of 3
through the concrete block, ensuring no
Footing Y: Rigid
Isotropic linear
asy
bearing capacity failure in soil using
erzaghi’s bearing capacity e uati n
elastic soil
without considering the shape factor,

depth factor and inclination factor is En (A) be uniformly distributed for Y but not
(A) 26.67 kPa
(B) 60 kPa
(C) 90 kPa
(D) 120 kPa gi nee
for X
(B) be uniformly distributed for X but not
for Y
(C) be uniformly distributed for both X
8. The maximum resistance offered by the
soil through skin friction while pulling out
the pile from the ground is rin
and Y
(D) not be uniformly distributed for both
(A) 104.9 kN
(B) 209.8 kN
(C) 236 kN
(D) 472 kN
CE – 2012
g
X and Y
12. An embankment is to be constructed with

.ne
CE – 2011
9. Likelihood of general shear failure for an a granular soil (bulk unit weight =
isolated footing in sand decreases with 20kN/ ) on a saturated clayey silt
(A) Decreasing footing depth deposit (undrained shear strength = 25
(B) Decreasing inter-granular packing of kPa). Assuming undrained general shear
the sand failure and bearing capacity factor of 5.7,
(C) Increasing footing width the maximum height (in m) of the
(D) Decreasing soil grain compressibility embankment at the point of failure is
(A) 7.1 (C) 4.5
10. For a sample of dry, cohesionless soil with (B) 5.0 (D) 2.5
friction angle, ϕ, the failure plane will be
inclined to the major principal plane by
an angle equal to
(A) ϕ (C) ϕ⁄
(B) 45° (D) ϕ⁄
th th th

.
CE – 2013 CE – 2014
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 15. Group I contains representative load-
13 & 14 settlement curves for different modes of
A multistory building with a basement is bearing capacity failures of sandy soil.
to be constructed. The top 4m consists of Group II enlists the various failure
loose silt, below which dense sand layer is characteristics. Match the load-settlement
present up to a great depth. Ground water curves with the corresponding failure
table is at the surface. The foundation characteristics.
consists of the basement slab of 6 m Load
width which will rest on the top of dense
sand as shown in the figure. For dense
sand, saturated unit weight = / , J K L
ww
and bearing capacity factors
weight = 18kN/ , and

and
. For loose silt, saturated unit
.
Settlement
Group I
P. Curve J
Group II
1. No apparent heaving of soil
w.E
ffective c hesi n c’ is zer f r both soils.
Unit weight of water is 10kN/ . Neglect Q. Curve K
around the footing
an ine’s passive z ne
develops imperfectly
ratioasy
shape factor and depth factor.
verage e astic du us and iss n’s
of dense and is /
R. Curve L 3. Well defined slip surface
extends to ground surface
and 0.3 respectively.
En (A)
(B)
,
,
,
,
gi
Ground
surface (C) , ,
Loose
silt 4 m
Basement
Foundation
slab
Loose
silt
16.
nee
(D) , ,
The contact pressure for a rigid footing
6m rin
resting on clay at the centre and the edges
are respectively
13.
Dense sand
Using factor of safety =3, the net safe
bearing capacity (in kN/
foundation is :
) of the
g
(A) maximum and zero
(B) maximum and minimum
(C) zero and maximum .ne
(D) minimum and maximum
(A) 610 (C) 983
(B) 320 (D) 693
17. A circular raft foundation of 20 m
diameter and 1.6 m thick is provided for a
14. The foundation slab is subjected to
tank that applies a bearing pressure of
vertical downward stresses equal to net
110 kPa on sandy soil with Young's
safe bearing capacity derived in the above
modulus, ' = 30 MPa and Poisson's
question. Using influence factor =2.0,
ratio, = 0.3. The raft is made of
and neglecting embedment depth and
concrete ( = 30 GPa and = 0.15).
rigidity corrections, the immediate
Considering the raft as rigid, the elastic
settlement of the dense sand layer will be:
settlement (in mm) is
(A) 58 mm (C) 126 mm
(A) 50.96 (C) 63.72
(B) 111 mm (D) 179 mm
(B) 53.36 (D) 66.71
th th th

1. [Ans. A] 5. [Ans. B]
The allowable soil pressure for 25 mm
[ ] for sandy soils
settlement ( )
= 100 = 62.5 kN/

[ ]
Thus new width of footing = =5m
2. [Ans. A]
The bearing capacity of the sand deposit
6. [Ans. C]
will remain same until the water table
rises to a depth less than the width of the
ww
footing.
Thus, when water table is 3.0 below
7. [Ans. A]
The bearing capacity equation for
rectangular footing given by Terzaghi is
w.E
footing, the bearing capacity is 600
, similarly when water table is 1.5 m
below footing, the bearing capacity
given by
c [
B
]
asy
remaining same i.e. 600 . But when
the water table rises to a depth of 0.5 m [
B
]
below the footing, the sand deposit will be
saturated for a depth of 1.5 – 0.5 = 1 m.
En where *
+ areShape factors.
+ and *
thus, the bearing capacity below the base

of footing will decrease due to
submergence of soil (1 m).
gi Thus, neglecting shape factors in the
nee
above equation we get,
c B
3. [Ans. C]
Ultimate bearing capacity of the footing as
rin
per erzaghi’s e uati n f r rectangu ar
footing is given as
=( )c + +
g ⁄
.ne
B( ) act r f safety
For sand, c= 0 [ here are tw c ncrete b c s]
= + 18 1.5 a
( ) 20 8. [Ans. A]
= 432 + 243 = 675 KN/ Ultimate (maximum) skin friction
The net ultimate bearing capacity, resistance,
= is given by
= 675 18 1 = 657 kN/ ̅ tan
Where,
4. [Ans. C] K=lateral earth pressure coefficient
Using net Ultimate nearing capacity as =1.5
630 kN/ ̅ Average effective overburden
afe ad = 945 kN Pressure over the embedded length of pile,
th th th

.
14. [Ans. B]
⁄
= Surface area of pile in contact with [ ]
soil
π tan
Nearest option (B)
9. [Ans. B] 15. [Ans. A]

L: General shear failure
10. [Ans. D]
J: punching shear failure
K: Local shear failure
ww ϕ
2a
16. [Ans. D]
w.E
We know, ϕ
17. [Ans. B]
Elastic settlement of rigid footing,
B
11.
asy
[Ans. A]
s
Shape factor for circular raft footing
12. [Ans. A] En [ ]
⁄
Ultimate bearing capacity, gi nee
Maximum vertical stress due to
embankment =
Where = unit wt of embankment and rin
H = Height
Equating, g .ne
Height of embankment, H =
13. [Ans. A]
Safe bearing capacity
( ) B
(y ( ) By )
Nearest option (A)
th th th

Pile Foundation
CE – 2005 CE – 2008
1. Negative skin friction in a soil is 4. A pile of 0.5m diameter and of length 10m
considered when the pile is constructed is embedded in a deposit of clay. The
through a undrained strength parameters of the
(A) fill material clay are cohesion = 60 kN/ and the
(B) dense coarse sand angle of internal friction = 0. The skin
(C) over consolidated stiff clay friction capacity (kN) of the pile for an
(D) dense fine sand adhesion factor 0.6 is
(A) 671 (C) 283
CE – 2006 (B) 565 (D) 106
2. For the soil profile shown in figure below,
ww the minimum number of precast concrete

piles of 300 mm diameter required to
CE – 2009
5. A precast concrete pile is driven with a
w.E
safely carry the load for given factor of
safety of 2.5 (assuming 100% efficiency
for the pile group ) is equal to
50 kN hammer falling through a height of
1.0 with an efficiency of 0.6. The set value
observed is 4 mm per blow and the
asy 5000 kN combined temporary compression of the

pile, cushion and the ground is 6 mm. As
En per modified Hiley formula, the ultimate

resistance of the pile is
10 m
Medium stiff
clay
= 100k Pa
= 0.57
gi (A) 3000 kN
nee
(B) 4285.7 kN
CE – 2010
(C) 8333 kN
(D) 11905 kN
Stiff clay
6.
rin
The ultimate load capacity of a 10 m long
concrete pile of square cross section
g
a
500 mm × 500 mm driven into a
(A) 10
(B) 15
CE – 2007
(C) 20
(D) 25
homogeneous clay layer
undrained cohesion value of 40 kPa is .ne
having
700 kN. If the cross section of the pile is

3. What is the ultimate capacity in kN of the reduced to 250 mm × 250 mm and the
pile group shown in the figure assuming length of the pile is increased to 20 m,
the group to fail as a single block? the ultimate load capacity will be
(A) 350 kN (C) 722.5 kN
0.4 m (B) 632.5 kN (D) 1400 kN
diameter piles
10 m Clay soil CE – 2011

= 40kN/ 7. A singly under-reamed, 8-m long, RCC pile
ϕ = (shown in the adjoining figure) weighing
1.2 m c/c 20 kN with 350 mm shaft diameter and
750 mm under-ream diameter is installed
1.2 m c/c within stiff, saturated silty clay (undrained
(A) 921.6 (C) 2438.6 shear strength is 50 kPa, adhesion factor is
(B) 1177.6 (D) 3481.6 0.3, and the applicable bearing capacity
th th th

.
factor is 9) to counteract the impact of soil 10. A single vertical friction pile of diameter
swelling on a structure constructed above. 500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a
Neglecting suction and the contribution of vertical compressive load. The pile is
the under-ream to the adhesive shaft embedded in a homogeneous sandy
capacity, what would be the estimated stratum where:
ultimate tensile capacity (rounded off to ng e f interna fricti n φ ,
the nearest integer value of kN) of the pile? Dry unit weight ( ) = 20 kN/ and
ang e f wa fricti n φ
Considering the coefficient of lateral earth
pressure (K) = 2.7 and the bearing
capacity factor ( ) = 25, the ultimate
8000
mm bearing capacity of the pile (in kN) is
ww 400 mm
_______________
w.E
asy 350 mm
750 mm
(A) 132 kN
(B) 156 kN
(C) 287 kN
(D) 301 kN
En
CE – 2013
8. Four columns of a building are to be
located within a plot size of .
gi nee
The expected load on each columns is
4000 kN.allowable bearing capacity of the
rin
soil deposit is 100 kN/ . The type of
foundation best suited is
(A) Isolated foundation
(B) Raft foundation
g .ne
(C) Pile foundation
(D) Combined foundation
CE – 2014
9. The action of negative skin friction on the
pile is to
(A) increase the ultimate load on the pile
(B) reduce the allowable load on the pile
(C) maintain the working load on the
pile
(D) reduce the settlement of the pile
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A]
Negative skin friction is experienced
when the soil around the pile settles at a
faster rate than pile. Thus, piles installed Again,
in freshly prepared fills of soft
compressive deposits are subject to a
downward drag. This downward drag on
the pile surface, where the soil moves 7. [Ans. B]
down relative to the pile, adds to the The tensile resistance of a pile is given as
structural loads and is called negative
skin friction.
Where shaft resistance c
2.
ww
[Ans. C]
The ultimate load capacity of piles,
weight f pi e
c
w.E
The load capacity of single pile,
c c̅
π
asy π
π
8. [Ans. C]
En Area of footing of each column required,

ad
⁄
3.
number of piles
[Ans. D]
The ultimate load capacity of pile group
gi Beading capacity
Which is very large to be provided in
nee field size.

r
Shallow foundation will not be feasille
by block failure
= + L rin
Pile foundation is best choice
= 40 × 9
10 × 40
= 3481.6 kN
+4 × 9. [Ans. B]
g
Negative skin function is downward
acting on pile due to downward
movement of surrounding compressible
.ne
soil relative to pile. It reduces allowable
4. [Ans. B]
load on pile.
The skin friction capacity of a pile is given
by, 10. [Ans. *] Range 6150 to 6190
= For friction pile
π f
= 565.48 kN = 565 kN
here, f ̅ tan
5. [Ans. B]
R= =
tan tan ( ϕ) tan ( )
= 4285.7 kN
,f
6. [Ans. B]
The ultimate load of a pile in clay is given , π
by c c π
th th th

GATE QUESTION BANK Transportation & Surveying
Introduction to Transportation
CE - 2005 CE - 2014
1. PradhanMantri Gram SadakYojna 2. On a section of a highway the speed-
(PMGSY), launched in the year 2000, aims density relationship is linear and is given
to provide rural connectivity with all- by v * k+; where v is in km/h and
weather roads. It is proposed to connect
k is in veh/km. The capacity (in veh/h) of
the habitations in plain areas of
this section of the highway would be
population more than 500 persons by the
(A) 1200 (C) 4800
year
(B) 2400 (D) 9600
(A) 2005 (C) 2010
(B) 2007 (D) 2012
1.
2.
w.E
[Ans. B]
[Ans. B]
asy
v = 80
Capacity, q = v k
= 80 k
For q to be maximum
k
En
dq
dk
dq
dk
k gi nee
k
Max. capacity,
rin
q ( )
g .ne
th th th

Geometric design of highway
CE – 2005 5. On an urban road, the free mean speed

1. The length of summit curve a two lane was measured as 70 kmph and the
two way highway depends upon average spacing between the vehicles
(A) Allowable rate of change of under jam condition as 7.0 m. The speed-
centrifugal acceleration flow- density equation is given by
(B) Coefficient of lateral friction [ ] nd q k
(C) Required stopping sight distance
(D) Required overtaking sight distance Where,
U = space-mean speed (kmph);
2. A road is having a horizontal curve of Usf =free mean speed (kmph);
ww
400 m radius on which a super-elevation
of 0.07 is provided. The coefficient of
lateral friction mobilized the curve when
k = density (veh/km);
kj= jam density (veh/km);
q = flow (veh/hr).
w.E
a vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is
(A) 0.07
(B) 0.13
(C) 0.15
(D) 0.4
The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for
this condition is equal to
(A) 2000 (C) 3000
CE - 2006 asy (B) 2500 (D) None of these
3. A vehicle moving at 60 kmph on an

ascending gradient of a highway has to En CE - 2007
6. The extra widening required for a two-
come to stop position to avoid collision

with a stationary object. The ratio of lag
to brake distance is 6:5. Considering total
gi lane national highway at a horizontal
curve of 300 m radius, considering a
nee
wheel base of 8m and a design speed of
100kmph is
reaction time of the driver as 2.5 seconds
and the coefficient of longitudinal
frication as 0.36, the value of as ascending rin
(A) 0.42m
(B) 0.62m
(C) 0.82m
(D) 0.92m
gradient (%) is.

(A) 3.3
(B) 4.8
(C) 5.3
(D) 6.8
7. g .ne
While designing a hill road with a ruling
gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal curve
of 50 m radius is encountered, the
compensated gradient at the curve as per
4. At a horizontal curve portion of a 4 lane
the Indian roads congress specifications
undivided carriageway, a transition curve
should be.
is to be introduced to attain required
(A) 4.4% (C) 5.0%
super elevation. The design speed is
(B) 4.75% (D) 5.25%
60 kmph and radius of the curve is 245m.
Assume length of wheel base of a longest
8. The design speed on a road is 60kmph.
vehicle as 6m, super elevation rate as 5%
Assuming the driver reaction time of 2.5
and rate of introduction of this super
seconds and coefficient of friction of
elevation as 1 in 150. The length of the
pavement surface as 0.35, the required
transition curve (m) required, if the
stopped distance for two-way traffic on a
pavement is rotated about inner edge is
single lane road is.
(A) 81.4 (C) 91.5
(A) 82.1m (C) 164.2m
(B) 85.0 (D) 110.2
(B) 102.4m (D) 186.4m
th th th

CE - 2008 respectively. the curve length (which is

9. A road is provided with a horizontal less than stopping sight distance) to be
circular curve having deflection angle 55 provided is
and centre line radius of 250m. a (A) 120m (C) 163m
transition curve is to be provided at each (B) 152m (D) 240m
end of the circular curve of such a length
that the rate of gain of radial acceleration CE - 2010
is 0.3m/s3 at a speed of 50 km per hour . 14. Consider the following statements in the
Length of the transition curve required at context of geometric design of roads.
each of the ends is I. A simple parabolic curve is an
(A) 2.57m (C) 35.73 m acceptable shape for summit curves.
(B) 33.33 m (D) 1666.67 m II. Comfort to passengers is an important
consideration in the design of
ww
Common data for Q no 10 and Q 11
A horizontal circular curve with a centre
summit curves
The correct option evaluating the above
w.E
line radius of 200m is provided on a 2-
lane, 2-way SH section. The width of the
2-lane road is 7.0m. Design speed for this
statements and their relationship is
(A) I is true , II is false
(B) I is true, II is true, and II is the
asy
section is 80 km per hour. The brake
reaction time is 2.4s, and the coefficients
correct reason for I
(C) I is true, II is true and II is Not the
of friction in longitudinal and lateral
directions are 0.3555 and 0.15,
En correct reason for I
(D) I is false, II is true
10.
respectively.
The safe stopping sight distance on the
section is
(A) 221 m (C) 125 m
gi 15. The design speed for a two-lane road is
nee
80kmph. When a design vehicle with a
wheelbase of 6.6m is negotiating a
(B) 195 m (D) 65 m
rin
horizontal curve on that road, the off-
tracking is measured as 0.096m,. the
11. The set-back distance from the centre line
of the inner lane is
(A) 7.93m
(B) 8.10m
(C) 9.60m
(D) 9.77m
g
required widening of carriage way of the
two-lane road on the curve is
approximately
(A) 0.55 m (C) 0.75 m
.ne
(B) 0.65 m (D) 0.85 m
CE - 2009
12. The value of lateral friction or side CE - 2011
friction used in the design of horizontal 16. A vehicle negotiates a transition curve
curve as per Indian roads congress with uniform speed v. If the radius of the
guidelines is horizontal curve and the allowable jerk
(A) 0.40 (C) 0.24 are R and J, respectively, the minimum
(B) 0.35 (D) 0.15 length of the transition curve is
(A) ⁄(v ) (C) v ⁄
13. A crest vertical curve joins two gradients (B) ⁄( v) (D) v ⁄( )
of +3% and 2% design speed of 80
km/h and the corresponding stopping 17. If v is the initial speed of a vehicle, g is
sight distance of 120m.The height of the gravitational acceleration, G is the
driver’s eye nd the object bove the ro d upward longitudinal slope of the road and
surface are 1.20m and 0.15m f is the coefficient of rolling friction
th th th

during braking, the braking distance Assume total reaction time = 2.5 seconds;
(measured horizontally) for the vehicle to coefficient of longitudinal friction of the
stop is pavement = 0.35; height of head light of
(A) (C) ( the vehicle = 0.75 m;
( ) )
and beam angle =
(B) (D) ( )
( )
20. What is the length of valley curve (in m)
CE - 2012 based on the head light sight distance
18. The following data are related to a conditions? _______________________
horizontal curved portion of a two – lane
highway: length of curve = 200 m, 21. What is the length of valley curve (in m)
radius of curve = 300 m and width of based on the comfort condition?_________
ww pavement = 7.5 m. In order to provide a

stopping sight distance (SSD) of 80 m, the
set back distance (in m) required from
CE - 2014
22. The perception-reaction time for a vehicle
w.E
the centre line of the inner lane of the
pavement is
(A) 2.54 m (C) 7.10 m
travelling at 90 km/h, given the
coefficient of longitudinal friction of 0.35
and the stopping sight distance of 170 m
asy
(B) 4.55 m (D) 7.96 m (assume g = 9.81 m s ),
is _____________ seconds.
CE - 2013
19. The percent voids in mineral aggregate En 23. A road is being designed for a speed of
(VMA) and percent air voids ( ) in a
compacted cylindrical bituminous mix
specimen are 15 and 4.5 respectively. The
gi 110 km/hr on a horizontal curve with a
super elevation of 8%. If the coefficient of
nee
side friction is 0.10, the minimum radius
of the curve (in m) required for safe
percent voids filled with bitumen (VFB)
for this specimen is :
(A) 24 (C) 54 rin
vehicular movement is
(A) 115.0 (C) 264.3
(B) 30 (D) 70

g
(B) 152.3 (D) 528.5
.ne
For a portion of national highway where a
descending gradient of 1 in 25 meets an
ascending gradient of 1 in 20, a valley
curve needs to be designed for a vehicle
travelling at 90 kmph based on the
following conditions.
(1) Headlight sight distance equal to the
stopping sight distance (SSD) of a
level terrain considering length of
valley curve > SSD.
(2) Comfort condition with allowable
rate of change of centrifugal
acceleration is 0.5 m/sec
th th th


1. [Ans. D] Now length of transition curve as per rate
Length of summit curve depends upon: of introduction of super elevation
a. SSD for single lane two way highway x m
b. OSD for two lane two way highway
from formul
2. [Ans. B] ( )
m
(e f) The length of transition curve will be
110.22m
e f
5. [Ans. B]
ww f
( )
Traffic volume = density × speed
q= k
3.
w.E
[Ans. B]
q (
k
k
k
)k
asy
g dist nce t
m
q
m ensity
(k
k
)
r ke dist nce
l g dist nce En ver ge sp cing between vehicles
m[
r king dist nce

br ke dist nce
(f n)
]
gi nee
nd
for m ximum tr ffic volume

km⁄hr
dq
dk
( )
( n)
rin
(
k
k
) [ u )
n
n
( )
k
k
g
k
k .ne
4. [Ans. D]
ximum tr ffic volume
When the pavement is rotated about the
inner edge k k
q ( ( ) )
k
x k
( ) ( )
e
veh⁄hr
K
W+EW
ise x ( )e 6. [Ans. C]
[ king width of e ch l ne m] The extra widening w given by
n
* +
√ √
[ ] ( )
m
x m √
th th th

7. [Ans. A] 11. [Ans. C]

r de compens tion
1m
ulling gr deient 7.0m

R
ompens ted gr dient cos
8. [Ans. C]
v et b ck dist nce m cos
topping ist nce vt
ww f (
cos ( )
m)
w.E m
But the traffic is two way therefore the
stopping distance = 2 × 82.1= 164.2m m
cos ( )
9. asy
[Ans. C] 12. [Ans. D]
If is the rate of change of radial
acceleration, the radial acceleration (a)
En 13. [Ans. B]
attained during the time the vehicle
passes over the transition curve is given
by
gi When the curve length is less than
stopping sight distance then it is given by,
nee
t
di l cceler tion rin ( )
14. [Ans. A]
g m
.ne
15. [Ans. C]
( ) l
ff tr cking m
m m
10. [Ans. C] nl
xtr widening
fe stopping sight dist nce, √
v
vt
f √
m
( )
m m 16. [Ans. D]
17. [Ans. B]
th th th

18. [Ans. B] 22. [Ans. *] (Range 3.1 to 3.2)

Length of curve,
t
Radius of curve, R = 300 m gf
Width of pavement, w = 7.5 m
( )
SSD, S = 80 m ( )t
t s
distance, m = R – (R-d) cos
23. [Ans. D]
⁄ ( )
( ) ( ) e f
g
( ) cos( ) e f
ww (e f)
19.
w.E
[Ans. D]
(
528.5 m
)
asy
20. [Ans. *] En
t
f gi nee
m
rin
(
s
)
m
g .ne
21. [Ans. *]
( )
c
( )
Where V is in m s
( )
( )
[ m⁄hr ms ]
m
th th th

Traffic Characteristics
CE - 2005 vehicles nd very little cross tr ffic)” re
1. A transport company operates a respectively
scheduled daily truck service between (A) 1200 and 2400 (C) 1200 and 1500
city P and city Q. One-way journey time (B) 1800 and 2000 (D) 2000 and 1200
between these two cities is 85 hours. A
6. A roundabout is provided with an average
minimum layover time of 5 hours is to be
entry width of 8.4m, width of weaving
provided at each city. How many trucks
section as 14m, and length of the weaving
are required to provide this service?
section between channelizing islands as
(A) 4 (C) 7
35m. The crossing traffic and total traffic
(B) 6 (D) 8
on the weaving section are 1000 and
2.
ww
A single lane unidirectional highway has a
design speed of 65 kmph. The perception-
2000 PCU per hour respectively. The
nearest rounded capacity of the
roundabout (in PCU per hour) is
w.E
brake-reaction time of drivers is 2.5
seconds and the average length of
vehicles is 5 m. The coefficient of
(A) 3300
(B) 3700
(C) 4500
(D) 5200
asy
longitudinal friction of the pavement is
0.4. The capacity of road in terms of
7. A linear relationship is observed between
speed and density on a certain section of a
vehicles per hour per lane is
(A) 1440 (C) 710
En highway. The free flow speed is observed
to be 80 km per hour and the jam density
(B) 750
CE - 2006
3.
(D) 680
Name the traffic survey data which is

gi is estimated as 100 vehicles per km
nee
length. Based on the above relationship,
the maximum flow expected on this
section and the speed at the maximum
plotted by me ns of “ esire lines”
(A) Accident
rin
flow will respectively be
(A) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80km
(B) Classified volume
(C) Origin and Destination
(D) Speed and Delay
g
per hour
(B) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25km
per hour .ne
CE - 2007 (C) 2000 vehicles per hour 80km per
4. If a two-lane national highway and a hour.
two–lane state highway intersect at right (D) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40km
angles, the number of potential conflict per hour
points at the intersection, assuming that
both the roads are two-way is CE - 2009
(A) 11 (C) 24 8. On a specific highway, the speed-density
(B) 17 (D) 32 relationship follows the Greenberg's
model [v=vf log (kj/k)], where vf and
CE - 2008 kj are the free flow speed and jam density
5. The capacities of “One-way 1.5m wide respectively. When the highway is
sidewalk (persons per hour)" and "One operating at capacity, the density
way 2-lane urban road (PCU per hour, obtained as per this model is
with no frontage access, no standing (A) e.kj (C) kj/2
(B) kj (D) kj/e
th th th

CE - 2011 CE - 2014
9. If the jam density given as k and the free 13. The minimum value of 15 minute peak
flow speed is given as u the maximum hour factor on a section of a road is
flow for a linear traffic speed density (A) 0.10 (C) 0.25
model is given by which if the following (B) 0.20 (D) 0.33
options?
(A) k u (C) k u 14. The speed-density (u k) rel tionship on
a single lane road with unidirectional flow
(B) k u (D) k u is u = 70 0.7k, where u is in km/hr and
k is in veh/km. The capacity of the road
10. The probability that k number of vehicles (in veh/hr) is ___________
arrive (i. e. cross a predefined line) in
time t is given as ( t) e k where is
ww
the average vehicle arrival rate. What is
the probability that the time headway is
15. A student riding a bicycle on a 5 km one-
way street takes 40 minutes to reach
home. The student stopped for 15
w.E
greater than or equal to time t
(A) e
(B) e
(C) e
(D) e
minutes during this ride. 60 vehicles
overtook the student (assume the
number of vehicles overtaken by the
CE - 2013 asy student is zero) during the ride and 45

vehicles while the student stopped. The
11. It was observed that 150 vehicles crossed
a particular location of a highway in a
En speed of vehicle stream on that road (in
km/hr) is
duration of 30 minutes. Assuming that
vehicle arrival follows a negative
exponential distribution, find out of
number of time headways greater than 5
gi 16.
(A) 7.5
(B) 12
nee
(C) 40
(D) 60
An observer counts 240 vehicle/h at a

seconds in the above observation?____
rin
specific highway location. Assume that
the vehicle arrival at the location is
12. For two major roads with divided
carriageway crossing at right angle, a full
clover leaf interchange with four indirect
ramps in provided. Following statements
g
Poisson distributed, the probability of
having one vehicle arriving over a
30-seconds time interval is .ne
are made on turning movements of
vehiclesto all directions from both roads.
Identify the correct statements:
(A) Merging from left is possible, but
diverging to left is not possible
(B) Both merging from left and diverging
to left are possible.
(C) Merging from left is not possible, but
diverging to left is possible
(D) Neither merging left nor diverging to
left is possible.
th th th

GATE Supplement Book Transportation & Surveying
1. [Ans. D] 6. [Ans. B]
Width of the weaving section, W =14m
2. [Ans. C] Average entry width, e = 8.4 m
Space headway, Length of weaving section between
channelizing islands L = 35 m
t
f Proportion of weaving traffic is given by
( )
m
Capacity
The capacity the round about may be
given as:
ww w( )( )
3.
4.
w.E
[Ans. C]
[Ans. C]
( )( )
asy
On a right angled road intersection with
two way traffic the total number of
(
per hour
)
conflict points merging and diverging

conflicts are considered as minor
En 7. [Ans. D]
conflicts, numbering 4 in each case.
gi The maximum flow may be calculated as.
q
nee free flow speed j m density
rin vehicles⁄hr
g
Maximum flow occurs when the speed
.ne
becomes half of the free flow speed i.e.,
peed t q
free flow speed
5. [Ans. A] km⁄hr
Tentative capacity values of urban roads
suggested by IRC are: 8. [Ans. D]
a. One-way two lane road with no Given
frontage access, no standing vehicles k
and very little cross traffic = 2400 log ( )
k
PCU per hour
But capacity C = traffic density × speed
b. One way traffic two lane road with
=k×V
frontage access, but no standing k
vehicle and high capacity k log ( )
k
intersections – 1500 PCU/hr.
d
c. One-way two lane road with free from for m ximum c p city
dk
frontage access, parked vehicles and d k
heavy cross traffic -1200 PCU/hr * log ( )+
dk k
th th th
: 080-65700750,  info@thegateacademy.com © Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.comPage 335

d k k d 15. [Ans. D]
k log ( ) log ( ) k
dk k k dk Velocity = km hr
k k
k k ( ) log ehicle⁄min
k k k ( )
el tive speed of vehicle
k
log ehicle min
k ( )
k el tive speed of vehicle
e
k
k x x
k
e x = 60 km/hr
9. [Ans. A] 16. [Ans. *]Range (0.25 to 0.28)

e ( t)
10.
ww
[Ans. D]
(n t)
ere
n
no of vehicles
11.
w.E
[Ans. *]
Insufficient data (Declared by IIT)
( )
vehicle km
e ( )
12.
asy
[Ans. B]
On cloverleaf intersection, merging &
e
diverging from both direction is possible.
En
13. [Ans. C]
15 min peak factor is used for traffic
intersection division
gi nee
V = peak hourly volume ( ) rin
m x min volume within the pe k hr
Max value = 1, value = 0.25
Normal range = 0.7 – 0.98
g .ne
14. [Ans. 1750]
u = 70 – 0.7 k
u k
p city
u free velocity k j m density
At k u
ok eh km
tk u u km hr
o c p city veh hr
th th th

Traffic Signs and Signal Design
CE - 2006
1. For designing a 2-phase fixed type signal
at an intersection having North – South
and East – West road where only straight
ahead traffic is permitted, the following
data is available.
Parameter North South East West
Design Hour 1000 700 900 550
Flow
(PCU/hr)
ww
Saturation
Flow
2500 2500 3000 3000
Combination
choice
Phase Phase
I II
Phase
III
w.E
(PCU/hr)
Total time lost per cycle is 12 seconds.
The cycle length (seconds) as per
P
Q
1, 4
1, 2
2, 5
4, 5
3, 6
3, 6
asy
ebster’s ppro ch is
(A) 67 (C) 87
R
S
(A) P
2, 5
1, 4
(C) R
1, 3
2, 6
4, 6
3, 5
(B) 77 (D) 91
En (B) Q (D) S
CE - 2007
2. In signal design as per Indian Roads
Congress specification, if the sum of the
ratios of normal flows to saturation flow
gi CE - 2010
5.
nee
As per IRC: 67-2001, a traffic sign
indicating the speed limit on a road
of two directional traffic flow is 0.50 and
the total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds,
rin
should be of
(A) Circular Shape with White
the optimum cycle length in seconds is
(A) 100
(B) 80
(C) 60
(D) 40
g
Background and Red Border
(B) Triangular Shape with White
Background and Red Border
(C) Triangular Shape with Red
.ne
CE - 2008 Background and White Border
3. The shape of the STOP sign according to (D) Circular Shape with Red Background
IRC:67-2001 is and White Border
(A) Circular (C) Octagonal
(B) Triangular (D) Rectangular CE – 2012
6. A two – lane urban road with one – way
CE - 2009 traffic has a maximum capacity of 1800
4. A three-phase traffic signal at an vehicle/ hour. Under the jam condition,
intersection is designed for flows shown the average length occupied by the
in the figure below. There are six groups vehicles is 5.0 m. The speed versus
of flows identified by the numbers 1 density relationship is linear. For a traffic
through 6. Among these 1, 3, 4 and 6 are volume of 1000 vehicles/hour, the
through flows and 2 and 5 are right dencity (in vehicles / km) is
turning. Which phasing scheme is not (A) 70 (C) 71.11
feasible? (B) 69.10 (D) 75
th th th

CE – 2014 9. A pre-timed four phase signal has critical

7. An isolated three-phase traffic signal is lane flow rate for the first three phases as
designed by Webster's method. The 200, 187 and 210 veh/hr with saturation
critical flow ratios for three phases are flow rate of 1800 veh/hr/lane for all
0.20, 0.30, and 0.25 respectively, and lost phases. The lost time is given as 4 seconds
time per phase is 4 seconds. The optimum for each phase. If the cycle length is 60
cycle length (in seconds) is ___________ seconds, the effective green time (in
seconds) of the fourth phase is
8. The average spacing between vehicles in ______________
a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density
(in veh/km) of the stream is _____________
1.
ww
[Ans. B] 6. [Ans. C]
q
w.E
For N – S road and E – W road the higher
traffic volume will be taken i.e.,
nd q
And
s
y
asy
q
nd s ( )
y
s
q En m s
y y
s
y
optimum cycle time
gi Traffic capacity = Speed × density
nee
1000 = 14.06 × density
density
( )
seconds 7.
rin
Total time lost in a cycle,
2. [Ans. D]
iven y
optimum cycle length
sec g y (
s
.ne
sec
sec
8. [Ans. 20]
3. [Ans. C] Density =
The stop sign is intended to stop the =
vehicle on a road way. It is octagonal in
= 20 veh/km
shape and red in colour with a white
border. Stop sign is a regulatory or
9. [Ans. *] Range 14.0 to 18.0
mandatory sign.
Given flow rates
4. [Ans. C] q eh hr
Under phase II, 1 and 3 cannot move q eh hr
simultaneously. It is also the case under q eh hr
phase III for 4 and 6. Saturation flow rate = 1800 Veh/hr/lane
5. [Ans. A]
th th th

Lost time sec

length of cycle sec
q
y
s
q
y
s
q
y
s
C=
60 =
60 =
ww y = 0.517
And y = y y y y
w.E
y
y
y
asyy
(
(
)
)
sec
En
gi nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

Intersection Design
CE – 2007 CE - 2011
1. Two straight line intersect at an angle of 4. The cumulative arrival departure curve of
. The radius of a curve joining the two one cycle of an approach lane of a
straight lines is 600 m. The length of long signalized intersection is shown in the
chord and mid-ordinates in meters of the adjoining figure. The cycle time is 50s and
curve are the effective red time is 30s and the
(A) 80.4, 600.0 (C) 600.0, 39.89 effective green time is 20s. What is the
(B) 600.0, 80.4 (D) 49.89, 300.0 average delay?
40
Cumulative arrival or departure

CE - 2008
2.
ww Design parameter for a signalized

30 Cumulative
(No. of vehicles)
intersection are shown in the figure Arrival
below. The green time calculated for
w.E
major and minor roads are 34 and 18s,
respectively. The critical lane volume on
the major road changes to 440 vehicles
20
asy
per hour per lane and the critical lane
volume on the minor road remains
10
Cumulative
unchanged. The green time will.
inor
En 0
0 10 20
Time (s)
30
departure
40 50
gi
o d urns prohibited
l ne (A) 15 s (B) 25 s (C) 35 s (D) 45 s
jor Road
4-lane divided
m CE - 2012
5.
nee
Two major roads with two lanes each are
m
Vehicles
Per hour rin
crossing in an urban area to from an
un – controlled intersection. The number
(A) Increase for the major road and
remain same for the minor road.
(B) Increase for the major road and
g
of conflict points when both roads are
one – w y is “X” nd when both ro ds re
two – w y is “Y” the r tio of X to Y is .ne
decrease for the minor road (A) 0.25 (B) 0.33 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.75
(C) Decrease for both the roads.
(D) Remain unchanged for both the CE - 2014
roads. 6. The chainage of the intersection point of
two straight is 1585.60 m and the angle of
CE - 2010 intersection is If the radius of a
3. Aggregate impact value indicates the circular curve is 600.00 m, the tangent
following property of aggregates distance (in m) and length of the curve
(A) Durability (C) Hardness (in m), respectively
(B) Toughness (D) Strength (A) 418.88 and 1466.08
(B) 218.38 and 1648.49
(C) 218.38 and 418.88
(D) 418.88 and 218.38
th th th

1. [Ans. B] 6. [Ans. C]
( )
( ) ( )
ww 600 m
R
w.E
Length of long chord,
ength of the curve
O
asy sin (
m (
)
sin(
)
)
m
Length of mid-ordinate
[ cos( )] En Tangent distance (T) is the distance
between P-C to P.I (also the distance from
[ cos( )]
m gi P.I to P.T)
nee t n t n
2. [Ans. A]
rin t n
m
3.
4.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. A]
g .ne
5. [Ans. A]
No. of points of contra flexure when both
roads one way x=6
No of points of conflicts when both roads
two way y=24
th th th

Testing and Specifications of Paving Materials
CE - 2005 CE - 2007
1. Group I contains some properties of 5. The consistency and flow resistance of
bitumen. Group II gives a list of Laboratory bitumen can be determined from the
Test conducted on bitumen to determine following.
the properties. Match the property with (A) Ductility test
the corresponding test (B) Penetration test
Group I (C) Softening point Test
P. Resistance to flow (D) Viscosity Test
Q. Ability to deform under load
R. safety 6. Match the following test on aggregate and
wwGroup II
1. Ductility test
2. Penetration test
its properties
Test
P. Crushing test
Property
1. Hardness
w.E
3. Flash and fire point test
(A)
(B)
Q. Los Angles abrasion test 2. Weathering
R. Soundness test
S. Angularity test
3. Shape
4. Strength
(C)
(D)asy (A)
(B)
2. Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising of En (C)

(D)
(A) Fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(B) Fine aggregate and bitumen
(C) Coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filter
and bitumen
gi CE - 2008
7.
nee
The specific gravity of paving bitumen as
per IS:73-1992 lies between
(D) Coarse aggregate, filter and bitumen
rin
(A) 1.10 and 1.06
(B) 1.06 and 1.02
(C) 1.02 and 0.97
(D) 0.97 and 0.92
CE - 2006
3. If aggregate size of 50-40 mm is to be
tested for finding out the portion of
elongated aggregates using length gauge,
8. g
A combined value of flakiness and
.ne
elongation index is to be determined for a
sample of aggregates. The sequence in
the slot length of the gauge which the two tests are conducted is
(A) 81 mm (C) 53mm (A) Elongation index test followed by
(B) 45mm (D) 90mm flakiness index test on the whole
sample
4. A subgrade soil sample was tested using
(B) Flakiness index test followed by
standard CBR Apparatus and the
elongation index test on the whole
observation are given
sample.
Load ,Kg Penetration, mm
(C) Flakiness index test followed by
60.5 2.5
elongation index test on the nonflaky
80.5 5.0
aggregates.
Assuming that the load-penetration curve
(D) Elongation index test followed by
is convex throughout, the CBR value (%)
flakiness index test on non-elongated
of the sample is
aggregates.
(A) 6.5 (C) 4.4
(B) 5.5 (D) 3.9
th th th

CE - 2009 12. Two bitumen samples X and Y have

9. During a CBR test, the load sustained by a softening points and ,
remolded soil specimen at 5.0 mm respectively. Consider the following
penetration is 50 kg. the CBR value of the I. Viscosity of X will be greater than that
soil will be. of Y at the same temperature
(A) 10.0% (C) 3.6% II. Penetration value of X is lesser than
(B) 5.0% (D) 2.4% that of Y under standard conditions
The correct option evaluating the above
CE - 2011 statement is
10. In marshal testing of bituminous mixes, as (A) Both I and II are true
the bitumen content increases the flow (B) I is false and II is true
value (C) Both are false
(A) Remains constant
ww (B) Decreases first and then increases

(C) Increase monotonically CE - 2014
(D) I true and II false
w.E
(D) Increases first and then decreases
CE - 2012
13. In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific
gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324
and 2.546 respectively. The sample
asy
11. Road roughness is measured using
(A) Benkelman beam
includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of
mix) of specific gravity 1.10. The
(B) Bump integrator
(C) Dynamic cone penetrometer
En theoretical maximum specific gravity of
mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen
(D) Falling weight deflectomerter
gi (VFB) in the Marshall sample (in %) is

___________
nee
rin
g .ne
th th th

1. [Ans. A] 8. [Ans. B]
2. [Ans. C] 9. [Ans. D]
3. [Ans. A] ( )
Slot length for elongated aggregate,
me n dimension
( )
mm 10. [Ans. C ]
wwor fl kiness index the slot size
( ) mm
11. [Ans. B ]
w.E
Thus, the higher value of CBR which is
obtained at 2.5 mm penetration is
Road roughness is indicated
roughometer or bump integrator,
by
4.
asy
adopted i.e. 4.4%.
[Ans. C]
12. [Ans. C]
Lower the softening, lower the viscosity,
and higher the penetration value. So both
lo d sust ined by specimen En statements wrong
t mm penetr tion
o d sust ined by st nd rd
ggreg tes t mm penetr tion
gi 13. [Ans. *] Range 62 to 66
nee
Bitumen % by total wt of min = 5
Also, rin
g
et tot l volume of min
tot l weight
kg
m
.ne
weight of bitumen
Thus the higher value of CBR which is = 116.2 kg
obtained as 2.5 mm penetration is Value of bitumen
adopted
i.e. 4.4%
= 68%
5. [Ans. D]
6. [Ans. D]
7. [Ans. C]
th th th

Design of Rigid Flexible Pavements

CE - 2005 (A) Both statement are True
1. For a 25 cm thick cement concrete (B) I is True and II is False
pavement, analysis of stresses gives the (C) Both statements are False
following values: (D) I is False and II is True
Wheel load stress due to corner loading:
30 kg/cm2. 4. Using IRC: 37- “ uidelines for the
Wheel load stress due to edge loading: design of flexible p vements” nd the
32 kg/cm2. following data chose the total thickness of
Warping load stress at corner region the pavement.
during summer: 9 kg/cm2. No of commercial vehicles when
wwWarping load stress at corner region

during winter: 7 kg/cm2.
Warping load stress at edge region during
construction is completed
= 2723veh/day
Annual growth rate of the traffic = 5.0%
w.E
summer: 8 kg/cm2.
Warping load stress at edge region during
winter: 6 kg/cm2.
design life of the pavement = 10 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.4
CBR value of the subgrade soil = 5%
asy
Frictional stress during summer: 5 kg/cm2.
Frictional stress during winter: 4 kg/cm2.
Data for 5% CBR value
No. of standard Total thickness,
The most critical stress value for this
pavement is En Axles, msa
20 620
mm
2.
(A) 40 kg/cm2.
(B) 42 kg/cm . 2
(C) 44 kg/cm2.
(D) 45 kg/cm2.
The following observation were made of

gi nee
25
30
40
640
670
700
(A) 620 mm (C) 670 mm
an axle load survey on a road
Axle Load (kN) Repetitions per day rin
(B) 640 mm (D) 700 mm
35-45
75-85
800
400
The standard axle-load is 80 kN.
CE - 2007
5. g .ne
The width of the expansion joint is 20 mm
in a cement concrete pavement. The
Equivalent daily number of repetitions for laying temperature is and the
the standard axle-load are maximum slab temperature in summer is
(A) 450 (C) 800 . The coefficient of thermal
(B) 480 (D) 1200 expansion of concrete is
mm mm and the joint filter
CE - 2006 compresses upto 50% of the thickness.
3. In case of governing equations for The spacing between expansion joints
calculating wheel load stress using should be
esterg rd’s ppro ch the following (A) 20m (C) 30m
statements are made. (B) 25m (D) 40m
i. Load stress are inversely
proportional to wheel load 6. The following data pertains to the
ii. Modules of subgrade reaction is number of commercial, vehicles per day
useful for load stress calculation. for the design of a flexible pavement for a
national highway as per IRC: 37-1984
th th th

Type of Number of Vehicle CE - 2010

commercial vehicle per day Damage 9. Consider the following statements in the
vehicle considering the Factor context of cement concrete pavements.
number of lanes 1. Warping stresses in cement concrete
Two axle 2000 5 pavements are caused by the
trucks seasonal variation in temperature,
Tandem axle 200 0 2. Tie bars are generally provided
trucks across transverse joints of cement
Assuming a traffic growth factor of 7.5% concrete pavements
per annum for both the types of vehicles. The correct option evaluating the above
The cumulative number of standard axle statements is
standard axle load repetitions (in million) (A) 1: True and 2: False
ww for a design life ten years is

(A) 44.6
(B) 57.8
(C) 62.4
(D) 78.7
(B) 1: False and 2:True
(C) 1: True and 2: True
(D) 1: False and 2: False
7.
w.E
CE - 2008
It is proposed widen and strength an
CE - 2012
10. A pavement designer has arrived at a
asy
existing 2-lane NH section as a divided
highway. The existing traffic in one
design traffic of 100 million standard axles
for a newly developing national highway
direction is 2500 commercial vehicles
(CV) per day. The construction will take 1 En as per IRC: 37 guidelines using the
following data: life = 15 years, commercial
year. The design CBR of soil subgrade is
found to be 5 percent. Given: traffic
growth rate for CV = 8 percent, vehicle
damage factor = 3.5 (standard axles per
gi vehicle count before
construction = 4500 vehicles/day,
nee
pavement
annual traffic growth rate = 8%. The

vehicle damage factor used in the
CV). Design life = 10 years and traffic
distribution factor = 0.75. The cumulative rin
calculation was
(A) 1.53 (C) 3.66
standard axles (msa) computed are
(A) 35 (B)37 (C) 65 (D) 70
(B) 2.24
CE - 2013
g (D) 4.14
11. select the strength parameter of concrete

.ne
CE - 2009
used in design of plain jointed cement
8. Which if the following stress
concrete pavements from the following
combinations are appropriate in
choices:
identifying the critical condition for the
(A) tensile strength
design of concrete pavements?
(B) compressive strength
Type of stress Location
(C) flexural strength
P. Load 1. Corner
(D) shear strength
Q. Temperature 2. edge
3. interior CE - 2014
(A) (C) 12. The following statements are related to
(B) (D) temperature stresses developed in
concrete pavement slabs with free edges
(without any restraint):
th th th

P. The temperature stresses will be 13. A traffic survey conducted on a road

zero during both day and night times yields an average daily traffic count of
if the pavement slab is considered 5000 vehicles. The axle load distribution
weightless on the same road is given in the following
Q. The temperature stresses will be table:
compressive at the bottom of the Axle load (tonnes) Frequency of traffic (%)
slab during night time if the self- 18 10
weight of the pavement slab is 14 20
considered 10 35
R. The temperature stresses will be 8 15
compressive at the bottom of the 6 20
slab during day if the self - weight of The design period of the road is 15 years,
ww the pavement slab is considered

The TRUE statement(s) is (are)
(A) P only (C) P and Q only
the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.5% and
the load safety factor (LSF) is 1.3. If the
vehicle damage factor (VDF) is calculated
w.E
(B) Q only (D) P and R only from the above data, the design traffic (in
million standard axle load, MSA is)
_______________
asy Answer Keys and Explanations
1. [Ans. B] En iv. During winter, critical combination of

There are four cases which should be
i.
considered
During summer, critical condition
gi nee
stress at corner region
= Wheel load stress at corner loading +
warping stress at winter region during
combinations of stress at edges winter
= wheel load stress due to edge loading
+ warping stress at edge region during rin
= 30 +7
= 37kg/cm2
winter frictional stress during summer
= 32+ = 35 kg/cm2 g
Hence, to critical combination (II)
i.e., 42 kg/cm2
.ne
ii. During winter, critical combination of 2. [Ans. A]
stresses at edges
= Wheel load stress due to edge loading 3. [Ans. D]
+ warping stress at edge region during Load stresses are proportional to wheel load.
winter + frictional stress during winter. Modules of subgrade reaction (K) is used to
= 32 + 6 + 4 calculate the radius of relative stiffness (L)
= 42 kg/cm2 which eventually is used in load stress
calculations.
iii. During summer, critical combination of
stresses at corner regions 4. [Ans. C]
= wheel load stress at corner loading + Number of standard axles in msa is given by
warping stress at corner region during [( ) ]
summer
= 30+ 9 [( ) ]
= 39 kg/cm2
th th th

ms 8. [Ans. A]
Now for 5% CBR value, the total thickness of
the pavement for 30 msa is given as 670 mm. 9. [Ans. D]
Warping stress in cement concrete
5. [Ans. B] pavements are caused by the daily variation
The spacing of expansion joint given by in temperature
Tie bars are generally provided across
c( ) longitudinal joints of cement concrete
Given, pavements
idth of exp nsion joint
mm
10. [Ans. B]
m [( r) ]
( )
6. ww
[Ans. B]
r
[( ) ]
w.E [(
[(
r
r)
)
]
asy ( )
11. [Ans. C]
While designing rigid concrete pavement
flexural st of concrete is considered
[( r) ]
En 12. [Ans. C]
(
[(
)
r
) ] gi Since slab has free edges, no warping stresses
nee
shall be introduced if slab is considered
weightless. During night time, temperature of
lower surface is higher
rin
t tries to exp nd resulting in development
7. [Ans. D]
Number of commercial vehicles per day A 13.
g
of compressive stresses t bottom
Hence correct option is C

.ne
= Number lane × existing traffic × traffic Vehicle damage factor
distribution factor = 2 × 2500 × 0.75 = 3750 ( ) ( ) ( )
Annual growth rate of commercial vehicles
= 8%
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
Vehicle damage factor, F = 3.5
Design life, n = 10 years
Thus, the cumulative standards axles (msa) [( r) ]
may be calculated as r
[( r) ] [( ) ]
r
[( ) ]
o esign tr ffic
th th th

Introduction
CE - 2007 5. Following bearings are observed while

1. The plan of map was photo-copied to a traversing with a compass.
reduced size such that a line originally Line Fore Bearing Back Bearing
100mm was measured 90mm. The AB
original scale of the plan was 1:1000. The BC
revised scale is CD
(A) 1:900 (C) 1:1121 DE
(B) 1:1111 (D) 1:1221 EA
After applying the correction due to local
CE - 2008 attraction, the corrected fore bearing of
2.
ww The plan of survey plotted to scale of 10m
to 1cm is reduced in such a way that line
originally 10cm long now measures 9cm.
line BC will be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
w.E
The area of reduced plan is measured as
81cm2. The actual area (m2) of survey is
(A) 10000 (C) 1000
CE - 2014
asy
(B) 6561 (D) 656
6. The survey carried out to delineate natural
features, such as hills, rivers, forests and
man-made features, such as towns, villages,
CE - 2010
3. The local mean time at a place located in En buildings, roads, transmission lines and
canals is classified as
Longitude when the standard
time is 6 hours and 30 minutes and the
standard meridian is is
gi (A) Engineering survey
nee
(B) Geological survey
(C) Land survey
(A) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds
(B) 5 hours, 47 minutes and 20 seconds
(C) 6 hours and 30 minutes rin
(D) Topographic survey
(D) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
CE - 2013
g .ne
4. The latitude and departure of a line AB
are + 78 m and 45.1 m, respectively.
The whole circle bearing of the line AB is :
(A) (C)
(B) (D)
th th th

1. [Ans. B] 4. [Ans. D]
N
Reduction factor =
B
Revided scale = original scale R.F
=
W A E
2. [Ans. A]
Shrinkage factor = 9/10 = 0.9 =S.F
Reduced plan are S
= (S.F)2 actual plan area +ve latitude means either I quadrant or
ww
= 81 = ( ) Actual plan area
= Actual plan area = 100cm
4th quadrant (casein is +ve in 1st or 4th )
-ve departure means either 3rd of 4th
quadrant [ dep rture l sin ]
3.
m
w.E
Actual area of survey in
[Ans. D]
( ) should lie in 4th quadrant.
asy
Difference between standard meridian
and the longitude of the given
5. [Ans. D]
Angle difference between back bearing
pl ce
The longitude of the given place is more En and fore bearing as line DE
than the standard meridian. Hence the

local mean time of the given place will be
ahead of the standard time.
gi station D and E are free from local
nee
attraction
of (correct)
of
hours
hours nd minutes nd seconds rin
But observed BB of
minutes
hours nd minutes nd
Time for a difference of
seconds
g
correct
correct of
of b
.ne
So correction applied
minutes nd seconds
Local mean time = standard time + 32
correct of
minutes and 40 seconds = 6 hours and 30
minutes + 32 minutes and 40 seconds =
7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
6. [Ans. D]
th th th

GATE Supplement Book Transportation & Surveying
Measurement of Distance & Direction
CE - 2006 CE - 2008
1. Consider the following figure, which is an 2. A light house of 120m height is just visible
extract from a contour map (scale = 1:20, above the horizon from a ship. The
000) of an area. An alignment of a road at correct distance (m) between the ship
a ruling gradient of 4% is to be fixed from and the light house considering combined
the point O and beyond. What should be correction for curvature and refraction, is
the radius of the arc with O as the center (A) 39.098 (C) 39098
to get the point of alignment of the next (B) 42.226 (D) 42226
contour on the map?
CE - 2014
ww 3. The Reduced Levels (RLs) of the points P

and Q are +49.600 m and +51.870 m
w.E respectively. Distance PQ is 20 m. The

distance (in m from P) at which the
+51.000 m contour cuts the line PQ is
asy O
(A) 15.00
(B) 12.33
(C) 3.52
(D) 2.27
10 m 30 m 50 m 70 m
En
(A) 0025 cm
(B) 0.25 cm
(C) 2.5 cm
(D) 5.0 cm
gi nee
rin
1. [Ans. C]
The contour interval = 20 m
For 4% gradient, the length needed from
one contour to another
d
d
d
g = 0.0673
√
m
d2
1000 .ne
m
3. [Ans. B]
dius of rc cm For change in elevation of 2.27m,
Distance = 20m
For (+51.000 – 49.600) = 1.4m
2. [Ans. D]
Correction due to curvature, ist nce m
Cc = 0.0785d2
Correction due to refraction,
Cr = +0.0112d2
omposite correction
C = +0.0112d2 +0.0112d2
Where C is in metres and d is in
kilometers
Here, C = 120m; d =?
th th th

Theodolite & Traversing
CE - 2006 4. The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S

1. In the figure given below, the lengths PQ E and the declination is west. The
(WCB: ) and OR (WCB: ) true bearing of the line AB is
respectively up to three places of decimal (A) S E (C) S E
are (B) S E (D) S W
N
CE - 2008
5. The lengths and bearings of a closed
R(1000N, 1000E)
traverse PQRSP are given below.
Line Length(m) Bearing(WCB)
ww 0 PQ
QR
RS
200
1000
907
w.E
(A)
P(100N, 200E)
273.205, 938.186
E
SP ? ?
The missing length and bearing,
respectively of the line SP are
(B)
(C) asy
273.205, 551.815
551.815, 551.815
(A) 207m and
(B) 707m and
(C) 707m and
(D) 907m and
(D) 551.815, 938.186

En 6. The focal length of the object glass of a
tachometer is 200 mm, the distance
2. The observed magnetic bearing of a line
OE was found to be . It was later
discovered that station O had a local
attraction of + . The true bearing of
gi between the vertical axis of the
tachometer and the optical centre of the
nee
object glass is 100 mm and the spacing
between the upper and lower line of the
the line OE, considering a magnetic
declination of E shall be rin
diaphragm axis is 4 mm. with the line of
collimation perfectly horizontal, the staff
intercepts are 1 m (top), 2 m (middle),
(A)
(B)
CE - 2007
(C)
(D)
g
and 3 m (bottom). The horizontal distance
.ne
(m) between the staff and the instrument
station is
(A) 100. 3 (C) 150.0
3. The following table gives data of
(B) 103.0 (D) 153.0
consecutive coordinates in respect of a
closed theodolite traverse PQRSP. CE - 2009
Station P Q R S 7. In quadrantal bearing system, bearing of a
Northing, m 400.75 100.25 line varies from
Southing, m 199.0 300.0 (A) to (C) to
Easting, m 199.25 399.75 (B) to (D) to
Westing, m 300.5 200.5
8. The magnetic bearing of a line AB was N
The magnitude and direction of error of in the year 1967, when the
closure in whole circle bearing are. declination was . If the present
(A) 2.0m and declination is the whole circle
(B) 2.0m and bearing of the line is
(C) 2.82m and (A) (C)
(D) 3.42m and (B) (D)
th th th

CE - 2011 CE - 2014
9. The observations from a closed loop 11. Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II
traverse around an obstacle are lists the method of surveying. Match the
Segment Observation Length Azimuth tool/instrument with the corresponding
from (m) (clockwise from method of surveying.
station magnetic north)
Group I Group II
PQ P Missing
QR Q 300.00 P. Alidade 1. Chain surveying
RS R 354.524 Q. Arrow 2. Levelling
ST S 450.000 R. Bubble tude 3. Plain table surveying
TP T 268.000 S. Stadia hair 4. Theodolite surveying
What is the value of the missing (A) P – 3; Q – 2; R – 1; S – 4
measurement (rounded off to the nearest (B) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 3; S – 1
ww10 mm)?
(A) 396.86 m
(B) 396.79 m
(C) 396.05 m
(D) 396.94 m
(C) P – 1; Q – 2; R – 4; S – 3
(D) P – 3; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 4
w.E
CE - 2013
12. A tacheometer was placed at point P to
estimate the horizontal distances PQ and
asy
10. A theodolite is set up at station A and a
3 m long staff is held vertically at station
B. The depression angle reading at 2.5 m
PR. The corresponding stadia intercepts
with the telescope kept horizontal, are
marking on the staff is

horizontal distance between A and B is
. The
En 0.320 m and 0.210 m, respectively. The
∠ is me sured to be 30' 30". If the
2200 m. Height of instrument at station A

is 1.1 m and R.L. of A is 880.88 m. Apply
the curvature and refraction correction,
gi stadia multiplication constant = 100 and
stadia addition constant = 0.10 m, the
nee
horizontal distance (in m) between the
points Q and R is _________________
and determine the R.L, of B ( in m)._______
rin Q
g R .ne
1. [Ans. A] Solving (i) and (ii) we get
Let, length of OQ and QR are L1 and L2 L1 = 273.205m and L2 = 938.186m
respectively.
From P1 coordinates of 2. [Ans. B]
Q = (100+ cos sin ) Observed magnetic bearing of OE
From R, Coordinates of Local attraction at O =
Q = (1000 L2 cos , 1000 L2 sin .) Correction magnetic bearing of
But, 100+ L1 cos = 1000 L2 cos .
√
L1 + L2 = 900 ----------- ------- (i)
√
And 200+L1 sin = 1000 L2 sin .
L1 + = 800 --------------------- (ii)
√
th th th

TM MM True bearing of AB, ( )

of gnetic declin tion
5. [Ans. B]
For a closed traverse sum of latitudes and
departures should be zero respectively i.e.
∑
cos + 1000 cos + 907 cos
E 180 0 cos
MB
cos 0.10678 --- (i)
True bearing of OE= Corrected magnetic ∑ =0
bearing of OE+ Magnetic declination
ww sin
sin
sin
sin
+ 1000 sin
707.10678 ---(ii)
+ 907
3.
w.E
[Ans. C]
∆L = 400.75 + 100.25 199.0 300.0 =2
∆D = 300.5 + 199.25 + 299.75* 200.5
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
t n
asy
= 2
[* This value is given as 399.75 in the
m
original question paper which is
incorrect].
En 6. [Ans. A]
rror of closure e
∆
√(∆ )
= √( )
m
(
(∆ )
) gi nee
b
Vertical
axis
d
D
objective A
s
t n
∆
t n ( )
rin
Diaphrag
m
a focus
f u
B
Or 45 =
D=u+d g
The horizontal distance (D) between the
vertical axis and staff may be given as
f
.ne
4. [Ans. C] ut u ( ) s f
N
i
f
( )s f d
i
( ) ( )
W E m
7. [Ans. C]
T.B
S MB
T.B = M.B ± Declination

( e st west)
th th th

8. [Ans. B]
m
A RL = 808.88 m
ye r 2200 m
True staff reading at station,
m
now (t n )
ww =237.701 m
R.L. of station B = R.L. of Plane of
w.E
True Bearing of AB,
= Magnetic beaing of AB magnetic
declination
Collimation – true staff reading –
asy 11. [Ans. D]

Present magnetic bearing of
AB = True bearing AB Magnetic
En 12. [Ans. *]Range 28.0 to 29.0
declination
Whole circle bearing of

gi nee
P
Q
rin R
9. [Ans. B]
In a closed loop travers, the algebraic sum
of all the latitudes should be equal to zero
i.e. ∑
(
ks
gs
) m
.ne
= 100 (0.21) + 0.1 = 21.1 m
cos cos Applying the cosine rule
cos
√ ( )( ) cos
cos cos
cos
m √ ( )( ) cos
m
10. [Ans. *] Range 641.9 to 642.3
R.L. of A = 880.88 m
R.L. of Plane of Collimation
= 880.88 + 1.2
= 882.08 m
th th th

Leveling
CE - 2006 CE - 2009
1. A bench marck (BM) with Reduced Level 5. Consider the following statements:
(RL) = 155.305m has been established at Assertion (A): Curvature correction must
the floor of a room. It is required to find be applied when the sights are long.
out the RL of the underside of the roof (R) Reason (R): Line of collimation is not a
of the room using Spirit Leveling. The level line but is tangential to the level line.
Back Sight (BS) to the BM has been Of these statements
observed as 1.500m wheareas the fore (A) both A and R are true and R is the
sight (FS) to R has been observed as correct explanation of A
0.575m (Staff held inverted). The RL (m) (B) both A and R are true but R is not a
wwof R will be
(A) 155.880
(B) 156.230
(C) 157.380
(D) 157.860
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
2. w.E
During a leveling work along a falling
gradient using a Dumpy level and a staff of
CE - 2010
6. A bench mark has been established at the
asy
3m length, following successive readings
were taken. 1.785, 2.935, 0.360, 1.320.
soffit of an ornamental arch at the known
elevation of 100.0 m above mean sea
What will be the correct order of booking
these four readings, in a level book?(BS:
Beck sight, IS: Intermediate Sight, FS: Fore En level. The back sight used to establish
height of instrument is an inverted staff
sight)
(A) BS, FS, BS, FS
(B) BS, IS, FS, FS
(C) BS, IS, IS, FS
(D) BS, IS, BS, FS
gi reading of 2.105 m. A forward sight
nee
reading with normally held staff of 1.105
m is taken on a recently constructed
plinth. The elevation of the plinth is
CE - 2007
3. The following measurements were made rin
(A) 103.210 m
(B) 101.000 m
(C) 99.000 m
(D) 96.790 m
during testing a leveling instrument.
Instrument at Staff reading At
P1 Q1
CE - 2011
7.
g .ne
Curvature correction to a staff reading in a
P 2.800m 1.700m differential leveling survey is
Q 2.700m 1.800m (A) Always subtractive
P1 is close to P and Q1 is close to Q. if the
(B) Always zero
reduced level of station P is 100.000m, the
(C) Always additive
reduced level of station Q is
(D) Dependent on latitude
(A) 99.000m (C) 101.000m
(B) 100.000m (D) 102.000m.
CE – 2012
8. The horizontal distance between two
CE - 2008
stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical
4. The type of surveying in which the
angles from P and Q to the top of a vertical
curvature of the earth is taken into
tower at T are and above horizontal,
account is called
respectively. The vertical angles from P
(A) Geodetic surveying
and Q to the base of the tower are and
(B) Plane surveying
below horizontal, respectively.
(C) Preliminary surveying
Stations P, Q and the tower are in the same
(D) Topographical surveying
th th th

vertical plane with P and Q being on the

s me side of neglecting e rth’s
curvature and atmospheric refraction, the
height (in m) of the tower is
(A) 6.972 (C) 12.540
(B) 12.387 (D) 128.745
9. Which of the following errors can be

eliminated by reciprocal measurements in
differential leveling?
I. rror due to e rth’s curv ture
II. Error due to atmospheric refraction
ww
(A) Both I and II
(B) I only
w.E
(C) II only
(D) Neither I nor II
CE - 2014
asy
10. A levelling is carried out to establish the
Reduced Levels (RL) of point R with respect
to the Bench Mark (BM) at P. The staff
readings taken are given below. En
Staff
Station
BS
P
1.655 m
Q
m
R
gi nee
IS
FS m 0.750 m
rin
RL 100.00m ?
If RL of P is + 100.00 m, then RL (in m) of R
is
(A) 103.355 (C) 101.455
g .ne
(B) 103.155 (D) 100.355
th th th


1. [Ans. C] Height of instrument,
Height of instrument = RL of bench mark ( )
+ BS m
= 155.305 + 1.500 lev tion of plinth
= 156.805m eight of instrument ore sight
Now, the staff is held inverted and the
foresight (FS) is 0.575m m
of eight of instrument
= 156.805+ 0.575 = 157.380m 7. [Ans. A]
2.
ww
[Ans. A]
The first reading is always BS. The second
8. [Ans. B]
w.E
reading is foresight because the
instrument has been shifted after this
reading which is evident from the low
asy
value of third reading. Since the
instrument has been shifted the third
reading is backlight again. Successively
Xt n
X
(X )t n (i)
the fourth reading is foresight.
En Xt n
(i) (ii)
(X )t n (ii)
3. [Ans. C]
h
gi X(t n
nee
[t n
X
t n
t n ) (X
eight of tower
]
m
)
h
( ) ( )
rin
= 12.387 m
[t n t n ]
h
educed level of st tion
educed level of h
m
9. [Ans. A]g .ne
10. [Ans. C]
4. [Ans. A]
nd
Geodetic surveying is that type of
surveying in which the shape of the earth
Staff P Q R
is taken into account. Geodetic surveying
station
involves spherical trigonometry
BS 1.655 0.95 -
5. [Ans. A] IS - - -
FS - 1.5 0.75
6. [Ans. D] RL - - -
Height of instrument = BM + Back sight HI 101.655 102.205 -
Since the staff is inverted, the back sight RL 100 103.155 101.455
will be negative. RL of R = 101.455 m
th th th

ww
w.E
asy
E ngi
nee
rin
g.n
e


The Gate Question Bank in Civil Engg

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

The Gate Question Bank in Civil Engg

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.

**Note : Other Websites/Blogs Owners we requested you, Please do not Copy

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Contents

#3. Hydrology & Irrigation

#4. 4.Environmental Engineering 192 - 214

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Contents

#5. Structural Analysis 215 - 235

#6. Mechanics 236 - 257

#9. Geotechnical Engineering 291 – 325

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Contents

9 Earth Pressure 314 – 315

#10. Transportation & Surveying 326 - 358

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

ME – 2005 5. Match the items in columns I and II.

4. Eigen values of a matrix 9. The matrix [ ] has one Eigenvalue

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

10. For what value of a, if any, will the ME – 2012

ME – 2010 En (D) No feasible solution.

12. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix

(B) 2 3 (D) 2 3 rin

(D) Pure imaginary. .ne

14. Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix [ ] is 12 , the determinant of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

20. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix 2. Consider a non-homogeneous system of

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

10. The Eigenvalue of the matrix CE – 2012

The following simultaneous equation

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

4. Let A be a 4x4 matrix with Eigenvalues

What are the Eigenvalues of the following

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

CS – 2011 13. The value of the dot product of the

CS – 2012 Then the determinant of A is equal to

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

1 En (A) a unique solution

All the four entries of the 2 x 2 matrix

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

ECE – 2010 ECE – 2014

13. Given that A = 0

The system of linear equations

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

(C) If A is real, the Eigenvalues of A and 4. An orthogonal set of vectors having a

the Eigenvalues is equal to 2. Which of

the following is an Eigenvector?

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne

GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics

Statement for Linked Questions 9 and 10.

(A) 511 A + 510 

Downloaded From : www.EasyEngineering.ne