Placement tests

Table of specifications 4
Test 1 5
Test 2 9
Test 3 13
Answer Key 17

Progress tests

Unit 1 – Getting along

Table of specifications 18
Test 1 19
Test 2 23
Test 3 27
Answer key 31

Unit 2 – Let’s have fun

Table of specifications 32
Test 1 33
Test 2 37
Test 3 41
Answer key 45

Test Correction criteria 46

Test Correction grid 47

2 ASA • Upgrade 8
Introduction
More than ever, teachers need to possess a range of resources that will invest the
assessment of their students’ work with greater validity and reliability. The present set of
tests is designed to offer teachers opportunities to use resources that prepare students
both for internal and external assessment.
These three books of tests have two goals. They aim to aid teachers along the
“long trail of assessment” by providing resources they can use to assess their students
at different stages of learning and, at the same time, help prepare students to face the
external assessment challenge they will encounter, namely the Key for Schools Test.
With this in mind, a wide range of tests have been created. First and foremost, a
selection of three placement tests has been created in order to determine where each
learner stands and what their specific learning needs are. Then three progress tests per
unit can be used to assess the students’ development; each one can be edited in order to
create two different versions of the same test or even to adapt the test to the specific
group each teacher is working with. The tests herein include a variety of items and a
level of difficulty appropriate for 8th graders. Thirdly, a set of 15 mini-tests, five for
each unit, aims to offer more opportunities for teachers to assess their students’
development and areas of strength and/or weakness with regard to the specific language
items taught in each unit. It is expected that the use of these grammar tests will inform
both the teacher and the learner on the areas which need to be further explored or
recycled with regard to the progress test at the end of each unit.
We believe the tests herein can also be viewed as an opportunity for formative
assessment, which will foster reflection and discussion about teaching and learning
between teachers and students. What is more, they can be re-used or edited in order to
re-assess particular areas of weakness. This book closes with a Mock Key for Schools
Test which will make teachers and learners aware of the challenge they will face at a
later stage of their learning.

We hope all the materials will prove useful and helpful.

The Team

ASA • Upgrade 8 3
 Table of specifications
Placement Tests

Contents
Number
Skills Types of Items Marks
Topics Language of items

A
Listening 3 20
comprehension Daily routine Verb tense revision

Adverbs of frequency
Summer holidays • Multiple choice
Degree of adjectives

Connectors • Sequencing

B When and while

Written • Matching 3/4 30
comprehension Some and any

Modal verbs • Short answer

(blank filling; sentence
completion; rephrasing)

• Short answer
(text comprehension)
C
4 30
Language

D • Essay
1 20
Written production (40 to 50 words)

4 © ASA • Upgrade 8
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

1. Listen to the first part of the text and tick (√) the words that are used. 10 marks

 bones substances thin sweet foods freshly body muscles drink

hungry child heart healthy grow nutrients quickly

2. Listen to the first part of the text again and say if the sentences 5 marks
are True (T), False (F) or Impossible to Know (IK).

 a) The food we eat is important when we are growing up.

 b) Ideally you should drink a litre of milk a day.
 c) All foods have elements that are essential for our health.
 d) Healthy foods don’t give us enough energy.
 e) You should eat a lot when you are growing up.

3. Listen to the last part of the text and fill in the blanks with the missing words. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

In our daily lives, we use energy to think, walk, , breathe and perform many other
actions. The b) it takes our body to do these things comes from two places: fat reserves
in the c) and the food we eat every day. If you don’t eat healthy d) ,

you’ll find that you are feeling weak. If you don’t e) the right nutrients, your body cannot
function properly.
http://hutchinsonm.hubpages.com (abridged and adapted),
accessed in July 2013

© ASA • Upgrade 8 5
 B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the following text about Jane.

Saturday
Today wasn’t a very good day. I got up late because mum didn’t wake me up! There
was no bread so I didn’t have any breakfast. I was hungry all morning! I arrived at the
shopping mall half an hour late and Tina wasn’t there. She’s going to be angry with me!
I went shopping on my own and I spent too much money. I bought some new boots.
5
They’re fantastic, but now I haven’t got any money and I can’t buy tickets for the music
concert. Oh dear! I’m terrible with money.
I didn’t have any money for the bus and I walked home. Of course, it started to rain
and I didn’t have my umbrella! My shoe has got a hole in it and my foot got wet. When
I got home I was wet, cold and hungry! I wanted to go out with Tim in the evening, but
10
he was busy. Wonderful!
In the end, I stayed home and watched TV with dad. The programmes were boring.
He wanted to watch the football match and I hate football, so I went to bed at 9.30 and
wrote this! Perhaps tomorrow is going to be a better day. I hope so!

In Edwards, L., Common European Framework Assessment Tests, Scholastic ltd.

1. Choose the correct option. 15 marks (5x3 marks)

1.1. This text is a…

 a) poem.  b) page from a diary  c) formal letter.

1.2. The text…

 a) talks about daily  b) describes a picture.  c) gives ideas to

life situations. solve a problem.

1.3. The text is in the…

 a) 3 rd
person.  b) 1 person.
st
 c) 2 nd
person.

1.4. The person who writes the text is…

 a) a mum.  b) an old lady.  c) a young girl.

1.5. The text is…

 a) in the past.  b) in the present.  c) in the future.

6 © ASA • Upgrade 8
© ASA • Upgrade 8 7
2. Find opposites of the following words in the first paragraph. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

a) early c) little e) horrible

b) happy d) old

3. Match the words from the second paragraph with their correct definition. 10 marks (4x2,5 mark)

a) home (l. 7) (1) low temperature

b) umbrella (l. 8) (2) place where you live
c) cold (l. 9) (3) having something to do
d) busy (l. 10) (4) object used to protect people from the rain

C – Language 30 marks

1. Go back to the text on part B. Re-read the third paragraph carefully and write down all the verbs
you can find in the past simple. 6 marks

2. Match the signs with the name of the places where they can be found. 12 marks (6x2 marks)

 a) library  c) hospital  e) public toilet

 b) shop  d) restaurant  f) airport

1 2 3

4 5

6
3. Write the following sentences in the present simple (PS) and present continuous (PC). 8 marks (4x2 marks)

a) Jane watched TV with her dad.

b) The kids studied hard for the exam.

c) Did you go to the cinema?

d) I didn’t spend my holidays at the beach.

4. Look at the following map and fill in the gaps with the expressions from the box.
Some are not used. 4 marks

turn left
turn right
go straight on
next to
opposite
go along
in front of

Tom is at the police station. He is asking for help to go to the train station.
Tom: Can you tell me the way to the train station, please?

Officer Jones: Of course! When you leave the police station, turn right and a) Main Street.
On the corner of Pine Street you’ll see a men’s wear shop, b) the bar. c) and
d) . You’ll find the train station in front of you.

D – Written production 20 marks

What is a normal day like for you? Describe your daily routine.
Use the following questions to help you write a text of about 40-50 words.

• What time do you wake up? • Do you have lunch at school?

• What do you do before going to school? • What do you do after school?
• How do you go to school? • What time do you go to bed?
• What time do your lessons start?
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

1. Listen to part 1 and write the missing information for each sentence. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) The surroundings are .

b) The school is the perfect place for children .
c) Other children come from the world.
d) Children learn in a environment.
e) The lessons, activities and school trips are for students.

2. Order the sentences according to what you hear in part 2. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

 a) Younger children stay in larger dormitories.

 b) Children feel comfortable away from home.
 c) Accommodation is ideal.
 d) Boys and girls stay in different houses.
 e) The children make good friends.

3. Listen to part 3 and match each beginning with its correct ending. One is not used. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

a) The children (1) English breakfast is served.

b) The meals are served
c) Three mornings a week
d) At lunch and dinner time
e) Drinks and biscuits are
(2) served before bed.
(3) there are always two hot choices.
(4) in the dining rooms.
(5) at home.
(6) eat three meals a day.
B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the text.

Summer program

C.T.Y. is organized by Johns Hopkins University

for students between the ages of thirteen and
seventeen. There are many different courses to choose
from in the humanities, mathematics, and sciences.
5
Each student picks one course for the entire session.
I attended C.T.Y. at Franklin and Marshall College in Lancaster, PA and took a writing
course. It was my first time at C.T.Y. The students were all normal teenagers interested in
normal teenage things. I met a lot of different kinds of people: athletes, artists,
environmentalists, etc. The social atmosphere was great. No one was ever left out because
10
they were weird or different. I made a lot of great friends.
Classes ran for five hours every day, but there was still time to play sports or music,
make art, or just hang out. During the weekends there were special activities, dances, and
trips to the mall and movies. I found my course more interesting and challenging than normal
school classes. The teachers respected our opinions and intelligence and we were able to
15
discuss topics usually not mentioned in school. Although the course was challenging, it was
enjoyable; we had plenty of time to complete homework during the two-hour evening study
hall and had no tests. I feel I learned a lot in my course. I really enjoyed my experience at
C.T.Y. I recommend it to anyone who wants to learn over the summer but doesn’t want to go
to summer school.
by Rachel C., Westford
http://www.teenink.com/summer_guide/program_reviews/article/15904/Center-For-Talented-Youth/
(abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

1. Match the pairs of equivalents. One isn’t used. 4 marks

a) attended (l. 5) (1) difficult

b) weird (l. 9) (2) organised
c) ran (l. 10) (3) normal
d) challenging (l. 12) (4) was present at
(5) strange

2. Identify four positive things about the C.T.Y. experience. 6 marks (4x1,5 marks)
3. Are the sentences True (T) or False (F)?
Justify the false ones with sentences from the text. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

 a) The course was less interesting and challenging than school.

 b) They discussed topics which were different from school.

 c) The students didn’t have time to do their homework.

 d) The tests were extremely difficult.

 e) The writer thinks he learned a lot.

4. Answer these questions on the text. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

4.1. What institution is responsible for the course?

4.2. How many courses does each student do per session?

4.3. What course did the writer take?

4.4. What were the students like?

4.5. How long did the classes last?

C – Language 30 marks

1. Choose the correct adverb of frequency. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

a) Good students never / always do their homework.

b) The University usually / rarely organises the course during the summer break.
c) You must frequently / never go to bed late on school days.
d) C.Y.T. classes often / always last for 5 hours every day.
e) My brother and I are such good friends that we often / rarely fight.
2. Complete with the correct form of the adjective in brackets. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

a) That is the book I have ever read! (good)

b) Who is the boy in the class, John or Mike? (tall)
c) Riding a bike is than sitting on the couch playing computer games. (healthy)
d) My new couch is more than the old one. (comfortable)
e) Mary is than her sister. (old)

3. Link the clauses from the column A to the ones from column C using when or while. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

A B C

a) I was waiting for the bus (A) the doorbell rang?

b) They were doing their homework (B) she fell and broke her leg.
(1) when
c) Peter was cleaning his closet (C) dad was cooking dinner.
(2) while
d) Were you having a shower (D) I saw a car accident.

e) Janice was walking down the street (E) Jean was washing the dishes.

4. Join the sentences using the words in brackets. 10 marks (4x2,5 marks)

a) Sarah attended John Hopkins University. She went to the University of Virginia. (then)

b) She felt worried. She didn’t make new friends. (because)

c) Paul had to go to class. He preferred to ride his bike. (but)

d) Work hard. You will get bad marks. (or)

D – Written production 20 marks

Do you think going to a summer school is interesting?

What are the positive and negative aspects of this kind of school?
Write 40-50 words expressing your opinion.
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

1. Listen to part 1 and choose the correct option. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Disney World, no matter how old you are, brings out the worst / brings out the best / leaves the least
out of you.
b) It makes you feel like a child / like an old person / like other people.
c) The staff always are so attentive and bad / helpful and nice / angry and nervous.
d) It was such a nice / such a bad / such a useless thing.
e) They seem to have affordable buses and trains / prices for rooms / harbours and towers.

2. Listen to part 2 and match each beginning with its correct ending. One is not used. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

a) Our family loves (1) hate the bus system.

b) We continue to (2) be more buses when the parks close.
c) There should (3) to be too far away.
d) The buses seem (4) been connected by monorail.
e) All the parks should have (5) no one leaving.
(6) all Disney Parks.

3. Order the sentences according to what you hear in part 3. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

 a) We reserved lunch.
 b) The Disney Jr. and Beauty and the Beast shows.
 c) We were excited to return.
 d) Coming back to Disney World.
 e) She loved taking a picture.
B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the text.

Why you should visit Sydney, Australia

Sydney is a beautiful city in the “down-under” country of Australia. Australia may be a
rough and primitive land but there is nothing rough about Sydney. The very modern
and active city is very much alive. This city is located in the southwest of Australia
right near the coast. It is the largest and oldest city in Australia and that attracts more
5 tourists than any other city in the country.

Beaches
Sydney also has some of the best beaches you
can find. If you plan to enjoy the sun at the famous
Bondi Beach, don’t forget the climate in the
10 southern hemisphere is the opposite of the
northern hemisphere. Australia’s summer is in
January and July and August is the coldest time of
the year. Of course, their summers are much
longer. You should expect about 8 months of
15 sunshine.

Language
What makes Sydney great along with its unique attractions is that everyone speaks
English. This may sound obvious but traveling to a strange country where everything
is new may be difficult. If you cannot understand anyone, it makes it even harder.
20 Their variety of English is different from American or British English. And it may take
some time getting used to. Australians may use the same words but they have different
meanings to those we use in the States.

Hospitality
If you need help or have a question, you will find that Australians are nice and more
25 than happy to help. I found that asking for help resulted in hours of conversations. This
is great family vacation destination where the sun always shines and the hospitality
never ends.
http://voices.yahoo.com/why-visit-sydney-australia-87066.html (abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

1. Complete this file about Sydney with information from the text. 6 marks (4x1,5 marks)

a) Country

b) Characteristics of Sydney

c) Location

d) Age
2. Match the pairs of equivalents. One does not apply. 4 marks (4x1 mark)

a) rough (l. 2) (1) busy

b) primitive (l. 2) (2) organised
c) active (l. 3) (3) be prepared for
d) expect (l. 14) (4) wild
(5) irregular

3. Are the sentences True (T) or False (F)?

Justify the false ones with sentences from the text. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

 a) There are not many beaches in Sydney.

 b) Everyone speaks English in Australia.

 c) Australian English is like American English.

 d) July and August are cold months.

 e) Australians use the same words as the Americans and the English.

4. Answer these questions on the text. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

4.1. What is the weather like?

4.2. What are Australians like?

4.3. When is Australian summer?

4.4. How long is it?

4.5. Who can visit Australia?

C – Language 30 marks

1. Choose the correct form of the adjective in each sentence. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Joan is the shorter / short / shortest girl in her class.

b) Patrick is a best / good / better student than Kieran.
c) Who is the prettiest / prettier / pretty girl in our group?
d) I find Science a more interesting / very interesting / most interesting subject.
e) The most fantastic / more fantastic / fantastic month of the year is July.

2. Circle the correct option. 4 marks (4x1 mark)

a) Are there some / any beaches in Sydney?

b) Have you got a / an photo of the city?
c) I had any / no time to visit the Opera House.
d) My friend Paul visited some / any of the greatest attractions in the city.

3. Underline the correct option. 6 marks (3x2 mark)

a) In Sydney you can’t / couldn’t / may visit Sydney Harbour.

b) Few tourists must / can / may resist the beautiful views from the bay.
c) There were so many people at the ATP Tower in Sydney that we can’t / must / couldn’t see the city.

4. Link the clauses from the column A to the ones from column C using when or while. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

A B C

a) I was having lunch

(A) she was waiting for the bus?
b) Bob and Ted were talking on the phone
(1) when (B) she slipped and fell.
c) Mom was vacuuming (2) while (C) the line broke down.
d) Was Maggie listening to music
(D) my best friend called.
e) Janice was walking down the school
(E) dad was washing the dishes.
corridor

D – Written production 20 marks

Which country would you like to visit? Write 40-50 words expressing your opinion.
Answer key
Placement Tests
Test 1
A – Listening comprehension
1. Bones, substances, foods, body, muscles, child, healthy,
grow, nutrients, quickly.
2. a) T; b) IK; c) T; d) F; e) IK.
3. a) talk; b) energy; c) body; d) foods; e) eat.
B – Reading comprehension
1. 1.1. b); 1.2. a); 1.3. b); 1.4. c); 1.5. a)
2. a) late (l. 1); b) angry (l. 4); c) much (l. 4); d) new (l. 5);
e) fantastic (l. 5).
3. a) (2); b) (4); c) (1); d) (3).
C – Language
1. stayed; watched; were; wanted; went; wrote.
2. a) 4; b) 6; c) 1; d) 3; e) 5; f) 2.
3. a) PS: Jane watches TV with her dad; PC: Jane is
watching TV with her dad. b) PS: The kids study hard
for the exam; PC: The kids are studying hard for the
exam. c) PS: Do you go to the cinema?; PC: Are you
going to the cinema? d) PS: I don’t spend my holidays at
the beach; PC: I am not spending my holidays at the
beach.
4. a) go along; b) opposite; c) Turn left; d) go straight on.
Test 2
A – Listening comprehension
1. a) stunning; b) aged 8 to 12; c) all over; d) safe and fun;
e) wonderful experiences.
2. a) 4; b) 5; c) 1; d) 3; e) 2.
3. a) (6); b) (4); c) (1); d) (3); e) (2).
B - Reading comprehension
1. a) (4); b) (5); c) (2); d) (1).
2. met lots of different kinds of people; social atmosphere
was great; no one was left out; the social atmosphere
was great.
3. a) False – “I found my course more interesting and
challenging than normal school classes.” (ll. 12-13). b)
True; c) False – “(…) we had plenty of time to complete
homework (…)” (l. 15). d) False – “(…) had no tests
(…)” (l. 16). e) True.
4. 4.1. John Hopkins University is.
4.2. One.
4.3. She took a writing course.
4.4. They were all normal teenagers.
4.5. They took five hours every day.
C - Language
1. a) always; b) usually; c) never; d) always; e) rarely.
2. a) best; b) tallest; c) healthier; d) comfortable; e) older.
3. a) (2) (D); b) (1) (C); c) (1) (E); d) (2) (A); e) (2) (B).
4. a) Sarah attended John Hopkins University then she
went to the University of Virginia. b) She felt worried
because she didn’t make new friends. c) Paul had to go
to class but he preferred to ride his bike. d) Work hard
or you will get bad marks.
Test 3
A - Listening comprehension
1. a) brings out the best; b) like a child; c) helpful and
nice; d) such a nice; e) prices and rooms.
2. a) (6); b) (1); c) (2); d) (3); e) (4).
3. a) 5; b) 4; c) 2; d) 1; e) 3.
B - Reading comprehension
1. a) Australia; b) very modern and active and very much
alive; c) southwest of Australia; d) the largest and the
oldest city in Australia.
2. a) (5); b) (4); c) (1); d) (3).
3. a) False – “Sydney also has some of the best beaches
you can find.” (ll. 7-8). b) True. c) False – “Their variety
of English is different from American or British
English.” (l. 20). d) True. e) True.
4. 4.1. The weather is always sunny.
4.2. Australians are nice and more than happy to help.
4.3. Australia’s summer is in January and July and
August is the coldest time of the year.
4.4. Their summers are much longer. You should expect
about 8 months of sunshine.
4.5. Australia is a great family vacation destination.
C - Language
1. a) shortest; b) better; c) prettiest; d) very interesting;
e) most fantastic.
2. a) any; b) a; c) no; d) some; e) any.
3. a) may; b) can; c) couldn’t.
4. a) (1) (D); b) (1) (C); c) (2) (E); d) (2) (A); e) (1) (B).
 Table of specifications
Progress Tests (Unit 1)

Contents
Number
Skills Types of Items Marks
Topics Language of items

A
Listening 3 20
comprehension Team Up! Present simple and
present continuous

Let’s Go Wild! • Multiple choice

Past simple
BFF • Sequencing
When and while
B
Written • Matching 4 30
comprehension
Modal verbs
• Short answer
(blank filling; sentence
Past simple completion; rephrasing)
and past continuous
• Short answer
(text comprehension)
C
3 30
Language

D • Essay
Written 1 20
production (60 words)
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

You are going to listen to some information about Corey and Angie, twin brother and sister.
1. Listen to part 1. What is the text about? Tick (√) the correct answer. 5 marks

 a) Friends and friendship

 b) Extracurricular activities
 c) Sports
2. Listen to part 1 again and choose the correct option. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Corey and Angie enjoy playing all kinds of indoor sports / outdoor games / extracurricular activities.
b) On particularly nice days / rainy mornings / cold evenings, Corey and Angie have been known to kick around
the soccer ball, toss around the baseball, or go on long runs.
c) In just a month the twins will go to grammar school / primary school / high school.
d) Angie is thinking about try her hand / begin to play / play in the land at a sport she has never played.
e) They’re having a problem / facing a problem / solving a problem a lot of teens face.

3. Order the sentences according to what you hear in part 2. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

 a) Make sure it’s cool with your parents.

 b) You think it’s more fun.
 c) Choosing sports in high school is hard.
 d) You can always try another.
 e) They aren’t sure what they’ll most enjoy.
 B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the text.

Bored? looking for a new challenge?

You can watch basketball, baseball, track, gymnastics, tennis, aerobics, volleyball, and weight lifting
on ESPN, or you can get out and enjoy them by joining your school team. Not into team sports?
There’s a French club, the debating team, chess club, student government, radio, newspaper, yearbook,
environmental club, 4-H, drama, choir, photography, Students Against Destructive Decisions, jazz band,
5
Business Professionals of America, computer club, and more.
So many choices can seem excessive, but getting involved in new activities with new people is a fun way
to challenge yourself. Here are some basics and advantages of getting involved.

Benefits of extracurricular activities

So what’s in it for you? You get to explore your physical,

10 creative, social, and career interests. You’ll find friends:
trying something different may bring you in contact
with people you didn’t know who share your interests
and curiosity.
You can get involved with groups as a way to get support
15 from other students with your culture or nationality.

A club or group can also be a great way to meet people who

are different from you. Lots of youth programs bring different
people together as a way to put an end to the barriers between
people.
20 Participating in extracurricular activities helps you in other ways, too: it looks good when you try to go to
university or to get a job and shows you’re mature and responsible. Specific activities help with specific
objectives: if you want to teach language or get a job in which you have to speak two languages, being the
president of the Spanish club shows you are determined.
The most basic reason for joining a club or team is that it gives you something better to do than
25
staring at the wall, wandering the hall, or sleeping all afternoon. People who are involved do not get
bad habits, like smoking or drinking.

http://kidshealth.org/teen/school_jobs/school/involved_school.html (abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

1. Identify four advantages of extracurricular activities. 4 marks (4x1 mark)

2. Match the pairs of equivalents. One isn’t used. 10 marks (4x2,5 marks)

a) joining (l. 2) (1) refuse

b) excessive (l. 6) (2) test

c) getting involved (l. 6) (3) participating

d) challenge (l. 7) (4) becoming a member of

(5) too much

3. Are the sentences True (T) or False (F)? Justify the false ones with sentences from the text. 8 marks (4x2 marks)

 a) There are only disadvantages in doing extracurricular activities.

 b) You will meet new people.
 c) Extracurricular activities make no difference when trying to get a job.
 d) People who are busy do not have bad habits.
4. Answer these questions on the text. 8 marks (4x2 marks)

4.1. How can a group or a club be good for you?

4.2. What do extracurricular activities tell other people about you?

4.3. In what other ways can extracurricular activities help you?

4.4. What is the most basic reason for joining a club or a team?

C – Language 30 marks

1. Match the words to their definitions. One definition isn’t used. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

a) choir (1) people who play a game or sport together

b) team (2) group of actresses and actors

c) band (3) people watching a show or performance

d) audience (4) musicians who normally play together

e) company (5) group of singers

(6) a large group of people

2. Choose the correct option. 15 marks (15x1 mark)

a) At the moment she rehearses / is rehearsing for the play.

b) Paul is studying / studies very hard for his tests so that he has / is having no time to do his extracurricular
activities.
c) Mary and her sister take / are taking ballet lessons every day. They are starting / start at 8 o’clock and
finish / are finishing at 10 o’clock.
d) Now they get / are getting dressed for today’s show. They are taking / take part in a show every week.
e) The two girls are enjoying / enjoy ballet very much.
f) Billy and his brother Ross like / are liking sports very much. Billy is doing / does boxing but his brother
prefers / is preferring football.
g) Ross plays / is playing football twice a week. Sometimes his friends participate / are participating in training
sessions. They are playing / play at the moment.

3. Form correct sentences using the present simple or the present continuous
and the words below. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) usually / she / supportive / be / very / .

b) now / for / leave / school / they / ?

c) English / at / read / moment / an / Susan / book / the / .

d) assignments / she / I / rehearse / her / do / play / the / while / for / .

e) not / know / Mary / word / mean / “relieved” / the / what / .

D – Written production 20 marks

Write an email to a friend telling him/her about your extracurricular activities. Which are they?
Why did you choose them? What are the benefits of doing such activities?
Write about 60 words expressing your opinion.
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

You are going to hear a text about a teen’s favourite subjects.

1. Listen to part 1 and tick () the schools subjects which are mentioned. 2 marks

 a) English  e) History
 b) Physical Education  f) Maths
 c) Chemistry  g) Science
 d) Moral Studies  h) Geography
2. Order the sentences according to what you hear in part 2. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

 a) You’d never take the time to think about the elements.

 b) There’s no other class that I really mind.
 c) Least favourite is gym.
 d) It’s hard, but it’s really interesting.
 e) Simple things are actually complex.

3. Listen to part 3 and choose the correct option. 8 marks (4x2 marks)

FAVOURITE: a) I don’t think / I can’t believe / In my opinion I’m saying this, but b) I began to hate / I’ve
learned to love maths. I think it’s just because my teacher explains so well and it all c) makes sense / means
nothing / becomes hard now. Getting straight As in it is wonderful. It’s d) a mental challenge / an extra difficulty
/ a physical illness also, which I like.
http://uk.answers.yahoo.com (abridged and adapted),
accessed in January 2014
B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the text.

Reader’s column: girls need

sporting role models
I was in that rare 1% of girls who always loved physical
education at school – it may not have been particularly cool but
I could live with that. I’m naturally competitive and have always
enjoyed winning, but that’s not what I love most about sport.
5
It’s the challenge, pushing yourself and knowing you can always
aspire to be better. That said, I’ve often learnt more from my sporting
failures over the years than my successes. In my first national cross-country race I came 5 th before
last. Out of 360 other girls. Why? The course was full of mud and water and I wasn’t wearing
spikes (the little studs runners wear on the soles of their trainers to help their grip). It was my first
10
proper race and before that I didn’t even know what spikes were. But I kept going, finished the race
anyway and promised myself I wouldn’t be so unprepared again!
I still love sport and have played with the same netball team for almost five years in London.
I love being part of a team, working together and relying on each other even when it means
dragging myself down to the courts to play a game in the freezing cold rain. Playing sport keeps
15me fit and healthy but it’s also the perfect remedy to a busy day in the office, the chance to focus
on what’s right in front of me and switch off from everything else.
http://www.stylist.co.uk/people/readers-column-we-need-female-sporting-role-models#image-rotator-1
(abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

1. Identify four reasons why the narrator does sports. 2 marks (4x0,5 marks)

2. Find synonyms for the words/expressions below in paragraph 2. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) trusting

b) forcing

c) in shape

d) medicine

e) concentrate
3. Are the sentences True (T) or False (F)?
Justify the false ones with sentences from the text. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

 a) The writer didn’t like physical education very much at school.

 b) She says she learned more from her failures than her successes.

 c) She didn’t win her first competition.

 d) The conditions were so hard that she didn’t end the race.

 e) She was not totally prepared for the race.

4. Answer these questions on the text. 8 marks (4x2 marks)

4.1. What percentage of girls like physical education?

4.2. What does she still love about sports?

4.3. What are the most obvious benefits/advantages of doing sports?

4.4. How does sport help people after a day of work?

C – Language 30 marks

1. Choose the correct option. 10 marks (10x1 marks)

a) At the moment Jill is cleaning up / cleans up the house while John is taking / takes the dog for a walk.

b) When Paul gets / is getting home, Susan is doing / does her assignments.

c) Annie always is washing / washes her swimming suits when she gets / is getting home.

d) Sarah never leaves / is leaving the gym before she is taking / takes a shower.

e) James often goes / is going hiking on his own. He loves / is loving to be alone in the forest.
2. Fill in the gaps with past simple forms. 10 marks (10x1 mark)

a) Laura had to do choose French as an extracurricular activity. There (be) no more

options to pick.

b) – you (watch) Stephen’s game last night?

– No, it (finish) before I got home.

c) Francis (not know) which activity to choose.

d) When she (come) to school, she (not be) sure what

extracurricular activities she should choose.

e) – the school (offer) many extracurricular options last year?

– No, there (not be) many students.

3. Use the words below to make sentences.

Put the verbs into either the past simple or the past continuous. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Mark and his friends / go skiing / last year / ?

b) They / go to France / and while they / drive there / they / have an accident / .

c) Nobody / be / hurt / but after the accident / they / feel / very / nervous / .

d) When they / wait for / the ambulance / there be / a small avalanche / .

e) Mark and his friends / not want / to tell anyone / about the accident / .

D – Written production 20 marks

Who is your favourite celebrity/singer? Why do you admire him/her?

Write about 60 words describing your idol.
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

You are going to hear a text about what good friends are supposed to be.
Listen and answer the questions below.

1. Listen to part 1 and tick (√) the right option to complete the sentence. 5 marks

A best friend is someone...

 a) you can rely on 90%.

 b) you can trust 100%.
 c) You can confide in 99,9%.
2. Listen to part 1 again and order the information 5 marks (5x1 mark)
according to what you hear.

 a) We may be in trouble.
 b) They will be there without hesitation.
 c) We all make mistakes.
 d) We really need a friend.
 e) We need somebody to support us.
3. Listen to part 2 and choose the correct option. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

A best friend is someone who a) confides and likes / trusts and cares about you. No matter how busy he or she
may be, but they’ll b) always be there for / never ignore / often advise you when you need them. They live up to
your expectations and c) frequently order you / often tell you what to do / always give you advice and shed tears
when you’re in pain and worried. They d) don’t tell your ideas / keep your secrets / never reveal your ideals and
would do anything for you. They fight with you but when someone hurts you they go crazy and they e) never hide
anything / often keep something / always hold nothing from you.

www.smartgirl.org (abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

 B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the text.

How to choose friends wisely:

what are the important traits to
look for in a friend
Think you don’t get to choose who you’re friends with?
Absolutely not. You get just as much say in who your friends are
as they do. Making friends is one thing, but choosing who your
friends are is incredibly important, because your friends are your
5 guides in life as well as the
people who help define who you are. In some ways, they are
family.
There are some friends who are closer to you than others, but who
you choose to share important parts of your life with matters.
Choose a friend who is honest
A friend that is honest is one of the best friends you can have. Trust
10 and honesty are essential in any relationship. Choosing a friend who can tell you how it is will be something
you’ll appreciate greatly. An honest friend will keep you from walking out of the house wearing that awful
green shirt or tell you that the girl you’re going to ask out isn’t interested. They’re supportive in their honesty,
and you should choose someone you know will not lie.
Choose a friend who stands by you in the difficult times
15
It’s so easy for us to be good friends in the fun times. There’s all kinds of happy moments,
and those times make relationships easy. But who are the people who stand by you when times turn
difficult? Those are your true friends. Those are the people that understand that life doesn’t always go
the way we plan. It’s much harder to stand by someone that’s having a tough time, so choosing a friend
that is strong enough to be the shoulder to cry on, or hold your hand when it’s needed, is a good
20 choice.

Choose a friend who gives as much as they take

We’ve all had friends that only want things from us, but they never seem willing to give to us anything
when we need it. Sometimes you’re going to do what your friend wants to do, even though it’s not
quite your thing, and sometimes he or she is going to do what you want to do, even though it’s not quite
25 their thing. When a friendship is one-sided, we just end up feeling angry. It’s not healthy. Choose a friend
with whom you feel a balance of give and take.
http://christianteens.about.com/od/christianliving/tp/How-To-Choose-Friends-Wisely.htm (abridged and adapted),
accessed in January 2014

1. Identify four reasons why choosing friends is important. 2 marks (4x0,5 marks)
2. Find synonyms for the words below in paragraphs 2 and 3. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) indispensable d) understand
b) value e) hard
c) content

3. Are the sentences True (T) or False (F)?

Justify the false ones with sentences from the text 10 marks (5x2 marks)

 a) All friends are equally close to you.

 b) Honesty is important.
 c) Don’t worry if your friend tells lies.
 d) True friends stay with you through the good and bad times.
 e) A friend must be strong and supportive.

4. Answer these questions on the text. 8 marks (4x2 marks)

4.1. Why is an honest friend so important?

4.2. What will you like about her/him?

4.3. When is it easy to be a good friend?

4.4. Who are the people who stand by you when times are difficult?

C – Language 30 marks

1. Match the functions on the left with the expressions on the right. 8 marks

(1) Stating opinion a) I totally disagree with...

(2) Giving Advice b) I really don’t think...
c) As far as I’m concerned...
d) Why don’t you...?
e) If I were you, I would...
f) In my opinion...
g) I agree that...
h) I think you should...
2. Underline the correct option. 10 marks (10x1 mark)

a) Teens should / shouldn’t / can’t only have wise, fun friends.

b) People who are rude and too proud couldn’t / can’t / should be real friends.

c) Teens don’t have / couldn’t / mustn’t choose their friends based on their looks, but on their ideas and beliefs
or they may / should / must be easily disappointed.

d) You can’t / must / should believe I’d become a friend of Janet’s. She’s too selfish. She could / might / has
to change her attitudes completely to be my friend

e) Good friends can / must / could be trustworthy, funny and loyal. A good friend can / must / shouldn’t lie.

f) Someone who is easily amused and feels satisfied with his life mustn’t / shouldn’t / could be the friend you are
looking for. I have to / shouldn’t / couldn’t admit that’s not easy to find.

3. Form sentences using the past simple or the past continuous. 12 marks (6x2 marks)

a) you / last / meet / friends / night / your / ?

b) the / get / I / pub / most / when / of / leave / them / to / .

c) know / time / we / not / I / what / meet / .

d) with / spend / them / much / I / not / time / yesterday / .

e) meet / tomorrow / again / but / decide / to / not / we / they / .

f) plan / another / you / out / not / evening / ?

D – Written production 20 marks

Imagine that a friend of yours has just had a fight with his/her best friend.
Write an agony aunt letter giving suggestions to solve the problem.
Write about 60 words.
Use expressions for giving opinions and advice.
Answer key
Progress Tests (Unit 1)
Test 1
A – Listening comprehension
1. c).
2. a) outdoor games; b) nice days; c) high school;
d) try her hand; e) facing a problem.
3. 1. c); 2. e); 3. b); 4. a); 5. d).
B – Reading comprehension
1. explore career interests; find friends; get support;
meet people who are different.
2. a) (4); b) (5); c) (3); d) (2).
3. a) False – “You get to explore your physical, creative,
social, and career interests.” (ll. 9-10); b) True; c) False
– “(…) it looks good when you try to go to university or to
get a job and shows you’re mature and responsible.”
(ll. 20-21); d) True.
4. 4.1. They can help you meet new people. 4.2. They tell
them that you are mature and responsible. 4.3. Specific
activities help with specific objectives. 4.4. The most basic
reason for joining a club or team is that it gives you
something to do and stops you from getting bad habits.
C – Language
1. a) (5); b) (1); c) (4); d) (3); e) (2).
2. a) is rehearsing; b) is studying; has; c) take; start; finish;
d) are getting; take part; e) enjoy; f) like; does; prefers;
g) plays; participate; are playing.
3. a) She is usually very supportive. b) Are they leaving
for school now? c) Susan is reading an English book
at the moment. d) While she is doing her assignments,
I am rehearsing for the play. e) Mary doesn’t know what
the word “relieved” means.
Test 2
A – Listening comprehension
1. a); e); f); g).
2. 1. d); 2. a); 3. e); 4. c); 5. b).
3. a) I can’t believe; b) I’ve learned to love; c) makes sense;
d) mental challenge.
B - Reading comprehension
1. Naturally competitive; always enjoyed winning;
the challenge; pushing yourself.
2. a) relying on (l. 13); b) dragging (l. 14); c) fit (l. 15);
d) remedy (l. 15); e) focus (l. 15).
3. a) F – “I was in that rare 1% of girls who always loved
physical education at school (…)” (ll. 1-2); b) True; c)
True; d) False – “But I kept going, finished the race (…)”
(ll. 10-11); e) True.
4. 4.1. It is 1%; 4.2. She loves being part of a team, working
together and relying on each other;4.3. It keeps people fit
and healthy; 4.4. It’s the perfect remedy and helps you
focus, switch off and relax.
C – Language
1. a) is cleaning up; is taking; b) gets; is doing; c) washes;
gets; d) leaves; takes; e) goes; loves.
2. a) were; b) Did… watch; finished; c) didn’t know;
d) came; wasn’t; e) Did… offer; weren’t.
3. a) Did Mark and his friends go skiing last year?
b) They went to France and while they were driving there
they had an accident. c) Nobody was hurt but after the
accident they felt very nervous.
d) When they were waiting for the ambulance, there was a
small avalanche. e) Mark and his friends didn’t want to tell
anyone about the accident.
Test 3
A – Listening comprehension
1. b).
2. 1. d); 2. a); 3. e); 4. c); 5. b).
3. a) trusts and cares; b) always be there; c) always give you
advice; d) keep your secrets; e) never hide anything.
B – Reading comprehension
1. Guides in life; help define who you are; are family;
share important parts of your life.
2. a) essential (l. 10); b) appreciate (l. 11); c) happy (l. 15);
d) stand by (l. 16); e) difficult (l. 17);
3. a) False – “There are some friends who are closer to you
than others (…)” (l. 6); b) True; c) False – “(…) you
should choose someone you know will not lie.” (l. 13); d)
True; e) True.
4. 4.1. … because trust and honesty are essential in any
relationship. 4.2. She/He will be honest everytime.
4.3. In the fun times. 4.4. Your true friends.
C – Language
1. (1) a); b); c); f); g). (2) d); e); h).
2. a) should; b) can’t; c) mustn’t; may; d) can’t; has to;
e) must; shouldn’t; f) could; have to.
3. a) Did you meet your friends last night? b) When I got to
the pub, most of them were leaving. c) I didn’t know what
time we were meeting. d) I didn’t spend much time with
them yesterday. e) We were meeting again tomorrow, but
they decided not to. f) Didn’t you plan another evening
out?
 Table of specifications
Progress Tests (Unit 2)

Contents
Number
Skills Types of Items Marks
Topics Language of items

A
Listening 3 20
comprehension Chill Out! Compound words

On the Catwalk Possessive pronouns • Multiple choice

Gig Around • Sequencing

Relative pronouns
B
Written • Matching 4 30
When and be going to
comprehension
• Short answer
Connectors (blank filling; sentence
completion; rephrasing)

• Short answer
(text comprehension)
C
3 30
Language

D • Essay
Written 1 20
production (60 words)
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

You are going to hear a famous actress being interviewed about her recent work.
1. Listen to part 1 and say what the name of the programme is. Tick (√) the correct option. 2 marks

 a) Theatre Hour  b) Cinema Time  c) Director Period

2. Listen to part 2 of the text. Choose the correct option. 6 marks (6x1 mark)

a) She’s currently appearing on Broadway in the spectacular musical, Morning wakeups / Daydreams / Nightmares.

b) “I’ve been working non-stop / fulltime / extra hours since I began working on my new movie.”

c) “This is quite a beginning / departure / debut for you, isn’t it?”

d) It’s been a very rewarding / an insignificant / an extremely simple experience.

e) It is very different from the stage world / performing work / theatre work.

f) But that’s been the great thing / real deal / funny side.

3. Listen to part 3 of the text to fill in the gaps. 12 marks (6x2 marks)

Dennis: Tell us something about this a) .

Jenny: Well, everyone knows Tom Cruise plays the b) role but it’s a team performance to
tell you the truth.
Dennis: What was Tom Cruise like to c) ?
Jenny: Oh, listen! You know you get all these actors and people on their way to success who just feel very excited
because of the d) and say how wonderful they are, but with Tom it’s been great.
He put me at ease from the first e) . I was a little marveled on day one. We were out
in the desert in Arizona and I just wanted to ask Tom for his f) . What an amateur!
But he makes it simple and that was very important for me.

http://esl-lounge.com (abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the text.

Emma Watson biography

The Harry Potter star has grown up into a highly sought-after
actress and style icon.
Emma Charlotte Duerre Watson, who is known for her role as
Hermione Granger in the Harry Potter films, was born in Paris on
5
15 April 1990.
Her parents Jacqueline and Chris divorced when Emma was five
years old, at which point she moved to Oxfordshire with her mother
and younger brother. From the age of six, Emma knew that she
wanted to act and started attending part-time theatre school
10
Stagecoach.
By the age of ten, she had starred in several theatre shows. Her
big break came in 1999 when casting began for Harry Potter and
the Philosopher’s Stone, which was based on JK Rowling’s
bestselling novel of the same name about a boy wizard.
15
Watson won the role of muggle-born Hermione Granger with
Daniel Radcliffe and Rupert Grint taking the other two leading roles.
Harry Potter and the Philosopher’s Stone not only marked Watson’s
film debut but it broke records for opening-day ticket sales when it was released in 2001.
She played Hermione for almost ten years. Because of her role in this franchise, she has become one of the
20 most well-known and highest paid actresses under the age of 30 in the world, earning £10 million for each film.
Since the end of Harry Potter, Watson has appeared in other films, such as The Perks of Being a Wallflower, The
Bling Ring and The End of the World.
As well as acting, Watson has modelled for Burberry and Lancome. In 2010, she was named Elle’s style icon
of the year. She also worked with Fair Trade fashion brand People Tree to design an organic cotton teen spring
25 collection. She still found time to attend Brown’s University.

http://www.thebiographychannel.co.uk/biographies/emma-watson.html
(abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

1. Fill in the table with information from the text. 5 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Name

b) Birthdate

c) Birthplace

d) Job

e) First film role

2. Match these words from the text with their equivalents. One isn’t used. 5 marks (5x1 mark)

a) role (l. 3) (1) part

b) break (l. 12) (2) launched
c) bestselling (l. 13) (3) very rich
d) wizard (l. 14) (4) opportunity
e) released (l. 18) (5) sorcerer
(6) very successful

3. Choose the options to complete the sentences according to the text. 10 marks (4x2,5 marks)

3.1. Emma moved to England when…

 a) her mum remarried.  b) her parents divorced.  c) her brother was born.
3.2. Acting was always…

 a) her dad’s job.  b) something she hated.  c) her childhood dream.

3.3. The Harry Potter films made her…

 a) rich and happy.  b) happy and famous.  c) rich and famous.

3.4. Modelling is something…

 a) she does part-time.  b) she does for a living.  c) she never wanted to do.

4. Answer these questions on the text. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

4.1. What role is Emma Watson well-known for?

4.2. Was it her first role? Why/why not?

4.3. When did she know she wanted to become an actress?

4.4. Where did she learn acting?

4.5. Is Emma concerned about the environment? Justify with a sentence from the text.
C – Language 30 marks

1. Complete the sentences below using the words in the box. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Some film directors prefer to film in when there is .

lifestyle
b) Some Hollywood stars have a very luxurious . software
talk
c) Tim Burton is a film director.
show
well-know
d) Oprah Winfrey is extremely famous because of her on American television.
daylight
e) Many films use computer nowadays.

2. Fill in the gaps with the correct possessive pronouns or determiners. 10 marks (10x1 mark)

a) We didn’t really like Ang Lee’s film Life of Pi. But he is one of favourite directors.

b) Tim Burton’s films are very interesting. adaptations of famous stories or films are
extraordinary. No other producer makes films like .

c) Burton and Johnny Depp have worked together in several films. I think collaboration
is very successful and exciting. Burton uses talent to choose the films he wants to
produce. Depp puts in excellent performing skills.

d) I think one of favourite films with Johnny Depp is Edward Scissorhands. It is one
of best parts.

e) Emma Thompson’s screenplay for Sense and Sensibility was very successful. screenplay won
the Oscar for the Best Adapted Screenplay. This means no other screenplay was as good as .

3. Use the words below to make sentences. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) said / actress / Sarah / Keira Knightley / is / favourite / her / .

b) watched / films / she / all / has / her / .

c) films / more / prefers / Paul / are / Leonardo DiCaprio / interesting / his / because / .

d) favourite / and / their / Steven Spielberg / is / Jack / director / say / John / .

e) don’t / we / Robert Downey Jr / like / our / but / friends / .

D – Written production 20 marks

Think of a film you have watched recently and which you enjoyed.
What was the film about? Why did you enjoy it? Write a summary of the film in about 60 words.
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

1. Listen to part 1 of this text about a model talking about herself.

1.1. Which jobs did this top model dream of as a child? Tick (√) the correct options. 4 marks

 a) President  c) Nuclear physicist  e) Doctor

 b) Engineer  d) Teacher
2. Listen to part 1 again to fill in each gap in the text with a word. 6 marks (6x1 mark)

When I was a young girl in Illinois, I could never have even a) about a life like mine.
I would like to acknowledge and thank God for the b) good fortune I’ve had. I am blessed
with a wonderful, healthy family and a c) that has given me the opportunity to experience
so many incredible things as well as opened the door to countless d) – past, present and future.
My e) behind the creation of this f) is to share with you some
of the things I’ve done, some of the things I’m currently up to, and a little of what I’ve learned along the way.

http://www.cindy.com/about-me (abridged and adapted), accessed in January 2014

3. Listen to part 2 and decide if the sentences below are True (T) or False (F). 10 marks (5x2 marks)

 a) Cindy Crawford worked in a clothing store.

 b) She is often asked for advice.
 c) “Do not look for modeling agencies near your city.”
 d) Cindy is in favour of modelling schools.
 e) Few people become successful models.
B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

Read the text.

How to be a model: a guide

Know the type of modeling you want to do
The first step to becoming a model is knowing what type of modeling you want to do. There
are quite a few areas to choose from: print models focus on magazine photo shoots while runway
models walk the catwalk for labels. There are also more commercial options such as being a
5 swimsuit or catalogue model. Plus size modeling has made an impact in recent years too. No
matter which area you choose, most female models start at the minimum height of 1,70 but closer
to 1,75 is preferred.

Find the right agency

After you have researched the right agencies, you will want to contact them. Most agencies have
10 forms online where you can send in your photos and personal info. These include your height,
measurements and weight. They will also want to see photos of you. Simple digital photos are
what most agencies require. Make sure to do a head shot and full-length shot. Wear no makeup
and a simple tank top and pants. Take the photo in natural light so people can see your features.
Look for a response within (usually) 4 weeks.
15 Some agencies will do open calls, where they will see aspiring models from the street – bring
your digitals or past professional work printed out. Once again, keep your styling simple. You may
be told you are not what they’re looking for or get a callback later.

Think ahead
If you are lucky enough to get a contract, you should also
20 know all the difficulties that come with the job. Depending
on the jobs you get, traveling can take you away from home
a lot. Rejection is also something, especially at the beginning
of the career, you need to get used to. Even if they have
contracts, some models have part-time jobs. That’s why we
25 recommend having a plan B just in case your modeling career
doesn’t work out. But, if you manage to make it, there is a
world
of opportunities. Models like Gisele Bündchen, Cindy Crawford

and Kate Moss have transformed their looks into lucrative

careers. Think ahead, always!
http://www.fashiongonerogue.com/how-to-be-a-model-a-guide/ (abridged and adapted), accessed in
January 2014

1. Identify the four types of models the text refers to. 2 marks (4x0,5 marks)
2. Match the words/expressions from the text with their definitions. One is not used. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) researched (l. 9) (1) need

b) require (l. 12) (2) invitation for a second audition
c) aspiring (l. 15) (3) physical traits
d) callback (l. 17) (4) investigated
e) think ahead (l. 18 (5) trying to get into a job
(6) make plans to be prepared for the future

3. Quote sentences from the text to justify the sentences below. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Girls who want to become models need to have specific physical characteristics.

b) Agencies will want you to send simple photos.

c) Modelling agencies can hire you or reject you.

d) Models should have an alternative plan.

e) There are many examples of highly successful models.

4. Answer the following questions on the text. 8 marks (4x2 marks)

4.1. What is the first decision when you want to become a model?

4.2. Which area of modelling is more commercial?

4.3. How long will you wait for an answer?

4.4. What challenge do models face at the beginning of their career?

C – Language 30 marks

1. Fill in the gaps with the words from the box. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

catwalkhairdressersoutfitshigh-heeledself-esteem

a) There are different types of modelling. One of them is to go on the .

b) When they are working, models have to wear shoes and the most recent
created by clothes designers.
c) Many girls believe that it is necessary to have a lot of to be a good fashion model.
d) In fashion shows also present the latest styles for the hair.

2. Complete the sentences with who, whose or which. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Kate Moss is a model everybody knows.

b) Cindy Crawford was a top model career was very successful.
c) Gisele Bündchen, nationality is Brazilian, is a well-known model.
d) Sara Sampaio, is Portuguese, has become very famous.
e) Modelling is a career is very short.

3. Join the sentences below using which, whose, that or whose. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Elle McPherson was a very famous top model. Her career was very successful. (whose)

b) Kate Moss is a British model. Her face is often seen on magazine covers. (whose)

c) Agencies hire models. They have to be punctual and professional. (who)

d) Designers prepare their latest creations. They are worn by top models. (which)

e) Many schools organise eco-fashion shows. The shows are very popular. (that)

D – Written production 20 marks

Imagine that you have just been signed by a modelling agency and that you are now in Paris,
ready to start working as a model.
Write a postcard to a friend telling him/her about your feelings as you arrive in the city and
the show you are going to participate in. Write about 60 words.
A – Listening comprehension 20 marks

You are going to listen to someone talking about a festival.

1. Listen to the text. What type of text is it? Tick (√) the correct option. 4 marks

 a) Advertisement  b) Informative  c) Opinion

2. Listen to part 2 and complete the gaps with a word or short phrase. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

During the period of a) you can buy tickets for weekend

1 or weekend 2. It’s important to b) that you buy
tickets for your preferred weekend. Access to the festival is only possible
if you have a c) for your preferred weekend. If you
are d) a Tomorrowland ticket for the other weekend,
access will be denied! You e) your tickets for the
other weekend.

http://www.tomorrowland.com (abridged and adapted), accessed in

February 2014

a) Minimum age limit for entry to the festival

b) Teenagers who turn 18 in 2014
c) Sunday check in closing time
d) Access after this time
e) Full Madness Regular/Comfort Pass ticket
holders re-entry conditions
f) DreamVille Package holders re-entry
conditions
3. Listen to the text again to complete the table in note form. 6 marks (6x1 mark)
B – Reading comprehension 30 marks

1. Choose a phrase or phrases to describe a festival. 4 marks

 a) An organised series of concerts, plays, or films.  d) It happens at the same location.

 b) It takes pace annually.  e) The audience is always the same.
 c) Only teenagers attend it.

Read the text.

My first Glastonbury experience: I’d go again

I’m no festival expert. I’ve never had any problems with
camping or any of the other things that are typical of festivals but
after attending Reading Festival in 2008 and 2009 I took some
time away from the festival scene until I was a bit older and could
5 appreciate it all a bit more.
So, earlier this year I went in for the resale of Glastonbury
tickets and guaranteed my first ever trip to the world famous
festival, on a coach from Norwich. Sitting at home and watching
Glastonbury on TV was not an option. In 2011, I did just that and
10 told myself I want to go to there.
It’s important during festivals not to focus on all the bands you MUST see, because there will be
arguments and there will be massive walks between the two different stages. You’ve got to save some time to
just find unexpected talent. I discovered so much new music there as well as music I already knew and
loved and now have the possibility of saying I’ve experienced live.
15
The Rolling Stones were a personal preference – a piece of history that I’ll remember all my life.
I heard heaps of music – the beauty of it all is going from field to field listening to such a variety
of tunes.
The whole festival had a great vibe. It was sunny for the rest of the time after the initial outburst. People
smiled, offered advice, and shared things. The wide variety of food was awesome and the music vibrated
20 throughout.
My Glastonbury experience was incredible. I was lucky with the weather in the end, the people I was with,
the experiences available, the freedom of living away from the outside world, the music/arts and all the
wonderful performances.
http://www.kettlemag.co.uk/article/my-first-glastonbury-experience-i%E2%80%99d-go-again (abridged and adapted),
accessed in January 2014

2. Find equivalents of the words/expressions below in paragraphs 3 and 4. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) concentrate d) favourite

b) differences of opinion e) lots

c) very long/big
3. Quote from the text to justify the sentences below. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) The writer had attended other music festivals before going to Glastonbury.

b) His first experience of Glastonbury Festival was not completely satisfactory.

c) He enjoyed both new music and music he was already familiar with.

d) Some of his favourite musicians were playing at the festival.

e) The writer thinks the festival was great.

4. Answer the questions on the text. 6 marks (3x2 marks)

4.1. How did he buy the ticket for the festival?

4.2. How did he get to London?

4.3. Which things made his experience incredible?

C – Language 30 marks

1. Choose the best word to complete each sentence. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

1.1. The of their most recent song tells the story of a boy who loves a girl.

 a) lyrics  b) music  c) rhythm

1.2. Everyone was dancing to the of the music.

 a) notes  b) rhythm  c) speed

1.3. The audience has no idea about what happens .

 a) backstage  b) festival  c) rooms

1.4. We had a look at the production of the show.

 a) stage  b) dressing room  c) behind-the-scenes

1.5. Many artists spend a few minutes alone in their before the beginning of the concert.

 a) backstage  b) dressing room  c) stage

2. Choose the correct option to complete each of the dialogues. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Have you planned your holidays?

 (1) Yes, I have arranged everything. I will go to Paris.

 (2) Yes, I have arranged everything. I’m going to Paris.
b) What are Paul and Susan doing next Sunday?

 (1) They’re going to the Coldplay concert together.

 (2) They will go to Coldplay’s concert.
c) I can buy the bus tickets to go to London.

 (1) I’m going to buy them now.

 (2) I’ll get them now.
d) The concert was incredible.

 (1) After this amazing event I’m not going to sleep.

 (2) After this amazing event I won’t be able to sleep.
e) I’m not sure we should go to the concert next summer.

 (1) We’ll discuss it later.

 (2) We’re discussing it later.
3. Rewrite the sentences below using the connector in brackets. 10 marks (5x2 marks)

a) Jamie is a huge fan of Metallica. He hasn’t been able to buy tickets for their concert. (but)

b) All tickets for Glastonbury next year have already been sold. We must wait for the resale in June. (so)

c) People say that Prince is going to perform at Glastonbury Festival this year. His agent has just
denied it. (however)

d) You have to buy tickets in January to guarantee your presence at Glastonbury. (in order to)

e) Many well-known bands and singers performed at the festival this year, but the Rolling Stones were the most
popular. (although)
D – Written production 20 marks

Imagine that you have just attended a live concert by your favourite band or singer. Write a text of about 60
words in which you describe the experience: your feelings and the impact of the concert.
Answer key
Progress Tests (Unit 2)
Test 1
A – Listening comprehension
1. a).
2. a) Daydreams; b) non-stop; c) debut; d) a very rewarding;
e) theatre work; f) great thing.
3. a) movie; b) lead; c) work with; d) big stars; e) take;
f) autograph.
B – Reading comprehension
1. a) Emma Charlotte Duerre Watson; b) 15 April 1990; c) Paris,
France; d) Actress; e) Hermione Granger in Harry Potter and
the Philosopher’s Stone.
2. a) (1); b) (4); c) (6); d) (5); e) (2).
3. 3.1. b). 3.2. c). 3.3. c). 3.4. a).
4. 4.1. She is famous for the role of Hermione Granger in the
Harry Potter films. 4.2. No, she had already starred in some
theatre plays. 4.3. When she was a child. 4.4. She learned
acting at a theatre school called Stagecoach. 4.5. Yes, she is:
“She also worked with Fair Trade fashion brand People Tree
to design an organic cotton teen spring collection.” (ll. 24-25)
C – Language
1. a) daylight; b) lifestyle; c) well-known; d) talk show;
e) software.
2. a) our; b) His; his/him; c) their; his; his; d) my; his;
e) Her; hers.
3. a) Sarah said Keira Knightley is her favourite actress. b) She
has watched all her films. c) Paul prefers Leonardo DiCaprio,
because his films are more interesting. d) Jack and John say
their favourite director is Steven Spielberg. e) We like Robert
Downey Jr, but our friends don’t.
Test 2
A – Listening comprehension
1. a); c); d).
2. a) dreamed; b) incredibly; c) career; d) opportunities;
e) intention; f) website.
3. a) T; b) T; c) F; d) F; e) T.
B – Reading comprehension
1. print models; runway models; swimsuit and catalogue; plus
size modeling.
2. a) (4); b) (1); c) (5); d) (2); e) (6).
3. a) “(…) most female models start at the minimum height
of 1,70 but closer to 1,75 is preferred.” (ll. 6-7); b) “Simple
digital photos are what most agencies require.” (ll. 11-12); c)
“You may be told you are not what they’re looking for or get
a callback later.” (ll. 16-17); d) “That’s why we recommend
having a plan B just in case your modeling career doesn’t
work out.” (ll. 24-26); e) “Models like Gisele Bündchen, Cindy
Crawford and Kate Moss have transformed their looks into
lucrative careers.” (ll. 27-29)
4. 4.1. Finding out the type of modelling you want to do.
4.2. Swimsuit or catalogue modelling. 4.3. About four weeks.
4.4. Dealing with rejection.
C – Language
1. a) catwalk; b) high-heeled; outfits; c) self-esteem;
d) hairdressers.
2. a) who; b) whose; c) whose; d) who; e) which.
3. a) Elle McPherson was a very famous top model whose career
was very successful. b) Kate Moss is a British model whose
face is often seen on magazine covers. c) Agencies hire
models, who have to be punctual and professional.
d) Designers prepare their latest creations, which are worn by
top models. e) Many schools organise eco-fashion shows that
are very popular.
Test 3
A – Listening comprehension
1. a).
2. a) online Ticket Sale; b) double check; c) valid ticket;
d) in possession of; e) cannot exchange.
3. a) 18; b) entrance permitted; c) 21H00; d) denied;
e) after 5 pm; f) through the whole day.
B – Reading comprehension
1. a).
2. a) focus (l. 11); b) arguments (l. 12); c) massive (l. 12);
d) preference (l. 15); e) heaps (l. 16).
3. a) “(…) after attending Reading Festival in 2008 and 2009
I took some time away from the festival scene (…)” (ll. 3-4);
b) “Sitting at home and watching Glastonbury on TV was not
an option. In 2011 I did just that and told myself I want to go
to there.” (ll. 8-10); c) “I discovered so much new music there
as well as music I already knew and loved. (…)” (ll. 13-14);
d) “The Rolling Stones were a personal preference – a piece
of history that I’ll remember all my life.” (l. 15);
e) “The whole festival had a great vibe.” (l. 18)
4. 4.1. He went in for the resale of Glastonbury Festival tickets.
4.2. He took a bus (from Norwich). 4.3. The weather; the
people he was with; the experiences (the freedom of living
away from the outside world, the music/arts; the wonderful
performances).
C – Language
1. 1.1. a). 1.2. b). 1.3. a). 1.4. c). 1.5. b).
2. a) (2); b) (1); c) (2); d) (2); e) (1).
3. a) Jamie is a huge fan of Metallica but he hasn’t been able to
buy tickets for their concert. b) All tickets for Glastonbury
next year have already been sold so we must wait for the
resale in June. c) People say that Prince is going to perform at
Glastonbury Festival this year. However, his agent has just
denied it. d) You have to buy tickets in January in order to
guarantee your presence at Glastonbury. e) Although any
well-known bands and singers performed at the festival this
year, the Rolling Stones were the most popular.
 Test correction criteria

Type of items Criteria

• Correct / incorrect
• Multiple choice
- Sequencing items will only be given marks if the whole sequence is correct
• True / false
- One mark off in true / false items for each incorrect quotation from the text,
• Matching
when applicable
• Sequencing
- One mark off in true / false items for each incorrect answer, if quotation from the text is
• Short answer (blank filling)
correct, when applicable

• One mark less for each language mistake, up to a maximum of 3 marks

• Short answer (text comprehension)
• Incomprehensible or decontextualised answers will be marked wrong

• One mark less for language mistakes, up to a maximum of 3 marks

• Short answer (sentence completion;
• The answer should demonstrate the comprehension of the text, using student’s words
rephrasing)
• Incomprehensible or decontextualised answers will be marked wrong

16 to 20: The student shows excellent writing skills; totally respects the topic or text type; presents
his own ideas about the topic, contextualises and develops them; uses appropriate
and varied cohesive devices; organises the text in a coherent manner; mistakes (structure
or spelling) are irrelevant for the comprehension of message.

12 to 15: The student shows reasonable writing skills; respects the topic or the text type; presents
some ideas about the topic and contextualises them; uses simple cohesive devices
to organise text but not always successfully; choice of words is good; makes few mistakes
(structure or spelling) which hardly affect message.

8 to 11: The student shows some writing skills; respects the topic or the text type; presents some
ideas about the topic and tries to contextualise them; uses some cohesive devices

but the text is slightly disorganised; choice of words is reasonable; makes some mistakes
• Written production
(structure or spelling) which sometimes make message slightly confusing.

4 to 7: The student shows poor writing skills; mostly respects the topic or the text type;
presents some ideas about the topic but the text is slightly confused; uses few cohesive devices
but the text is not well organised; choice of words is poor; makes some mistakes (structure or
spelling) which sometimes impede meaning.

0 to 3: The student shows very poor writing skills; doesn’t fully respect the topic or the text type;
ideas are scarce and mostly decontextualised; uses few cohesive devices and the text is
disorganised; choice of words is very poor; makes many mistakes (structure or spelling) which
sometimes make message incomprehensible or illegible.

Note: the student will get 0 marks if the topic or text type is not respected, or if the whole text
is incomprehensible or illegible.