Aibe Sample Paper

AIBE XI
2017
OFFICIAL QUESTION PAPER

BCI- DEC 2017 AIBE-XI ENGLISH -Set-A
1. Section 154 under IT Act is c) Extent of judicial intervention

d) Awarding final decision
a) For filing return of Income
b) For filing return with late fee 7. Provision of Section 80 of CPC is binding on
c) Rectification of mistakes
a) The High Court
d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
b) The court of civil judge
2. Which of the following is not included in the c) The district judge
Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax d) All of the above
Act
8. Temporary Injunction can be granted
a) Any stock in Trade
a) Suo moto
b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central
Government b) Ex parte
c) (a) and ( b) c) Hearing both parties
d) None of the above d) None of the above
3. The language which is to be used in the arbitral 9. Right to Appeal is a

proceedings is decided by a) Natural Right
a) The Tribunal b) Inherent right
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding c) Statutory right
c) The petitioner d) Delegated right
d) The Defendant 10. The last amendment to the Indian Succession
4. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated Act was made in
a) On making of the final award a) 2000

b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal b) 2001
c) When the parties to the dispute agree to c) 2002
terminate proceedings d) 2004
d) All of the above 11. Which is the correct statement :
5. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a) There can be a will without a codicil
a) Order of district collector b) There can be a codicil without a will
b) Order of Income Tax commissioner c) Every will has a codicil
c) Decree of a civil court d) A codicil proceeds a will
d) (a) and (b) 12. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a
6. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, Will should be attested by
Section 18-27 states a) By two witnesses
a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings b) By two or more witnesses
b) Receipt and Written Communications
1
c) Only one witness who is not a relative of a) To provide legal sanction to all transaction
testator for e-commerce
d) None of the above b) To facilitate electronic filing of all
documents to the government
13. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian
a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife d) All of the above
c) Attaining of puberty
19. Right to Personal liberty includes
d) None of the above
a) Right against custodial violence
14. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage b) Right of under trials to separate them from
Registrar for any district is appointed by convicted
a) State government c) Right against Public hanging
b) The central government d) All of the above
c) The Clergyman of the Church 20. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force
d) High Court judges of India is
15. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from a) President
a) French administration b) Prime Minister
b) British Administration c) The Defence Minister
c) Swedish Administration d) Chief Marshal
d) German Administration 21. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is
16. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry a) 62 years
Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by b) 60 years
a) Central government or State government c) 58 years
b) Union Public Service Commission d) 65 years
c) State Public commission 22. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of
d) Supreme Court of India
a) Concurrent list
17. Information Technology Act was enacted in b) State list
a) 1988 c) Union list
b) 1996 d) None of the above
c) 2000 23. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been
d) 2004 defined in
18. Government of India passed Information a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
Technology Act in 2000 with objective b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc
d) Section 20 of IPC
2
24. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC, Special Executive b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure
Magistrate may be appointed by Code
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
a) Central Government d) None of the above
b) High court
c) Supreme Court 30. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in
d) State Government Cr. PC
25. Police may carry out personal search on an
a) U/s. 214
arrested person, b) U/s. 215
a) U/s 49 Cr.PC c) U/s. 216
b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC d) U/s.210
c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC 31. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits
d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC filing a case against the government?
26. The Special Court is a) Section 5
a) Not subordinate to High Court b) Section 6
b) Superior to High Court c) Section 7
c) Supplement to High Court d) Section 8
d) Equal to Supreme court 32. The Patent Act became a law in
27. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be a) 1970
exercised by a magistrate b) 1975
a) When the police decides not to investigate c) 1996
the case d) 1966
b) When the investigation is still going on 33. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of
c) Both (a) and (b)
Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by
a) Bank Tribunal
28. Statement recorded during investigation U/s. b) Consumer Forum
161 can be used in trial c) Magistrate Court
a) For contradicting the witness d) Sessions court
b) For corroborating the witness 34. The provision of establishing Public Service
c) Incorporating in the charge sheet Commission is made under
d) Discharging the accused
a) Article 310
29. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a b) Article 315
Magistrate of First class or second class is provided c) Article 320
a) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure d) Article 325
Code
3
35. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates 40. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act,
to which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury
for compensation
a) Water pollution
b) Air and water pollution a) Insurance certificate
c) Noise and air pollution b) Medical examination
d) Water and noise pollution c) Medical Certificate
d) (b) and (c)
36. What is the punishment for advocates if the
established finding of the Bar Council is 41. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act
misappropriation? 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the
power of
a) Impose a fine
b) Name of the advocate will be struck off a) A court
from the Rolls b) A Tribunal
c) Suspension from practice c) A quasi judicial form
d) All of the above d) All of the above
37. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar 42. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947
Council, one can appeal to is
a) High Court a) Industrial peace and economic justice

b) Supreme court b) To create harmonious relation between
c) Bar Council of India employer and employee
d) Indian Law Commission c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
d) All of the above
38. Which Section of Advocates Act provides
punishment for misconduct of advocates 43. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947
provides the definition of
a) Section 29
b) Section 35 a) Lock out
c) Section 37 b) Lay off
d) All of the above c) Strike
d) Hartal
39. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with
44. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
a) Qualification of advocates who should be
enrolled in the Bar a) 1st March 1955
b) Qualification to become the Advocate b) 1st March 1986
General c) 1st March 1994
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor d) 1st March 1894
General of India
d) (b) and (c) 45. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land
means
4
a) Useful for residential purpose d) Hostile witness

b) Useful for commercial purpose
c) Useful for cultivation 51. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly
d) Useful for industrial purpose known as
a) Judges Transfer Case

46. Which one is not a fundamental right?
b) Illegal Detention case
a) Right to Freedom of Assembly c) Mandal Commission case
b) Right to Property d) Constitutional case
c) Right to equality
52. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers
d) Right to freedom of speech and Expression
were benefitted
47. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
a) Confiscation of Passport was correct b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal
b) Right to go abroad is not within the Corporation
meaning of Article 21 c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of
Passport is not in accordance to the law
d) None of the above 53. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under
48. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the a) Article 226 of constitution and Article 32 of
the constitution
right of free movement
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
a) In the interest of general public c) (a) and (b)
b) In the interest of political leaders d) None of the above
c) In the interest of women’s safety
54. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India
d) All of the above
AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on
49. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of
constitution? a) Free Legal Aid
b) Bonded labours
a) A company c) Judges Transfer
b) A corporation d) Illegal detention
c) Only citizens
d) Citizens and aliens 55. Supreme court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath
case evolved,
50. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian
Constitution says that no accused person shall be a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
compelled to be b) Public Trust doctrine
c) Separation of power doctrine
a) An accused d) Public Interest doctrine
b) A witness
c) A witness against himself
5
56. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related 61. Which is the authority that determines the
to language of the Court other than High Court
within a given State, under Section 271 of Cr.PC
a) Sexual harassment at workplace
b) Protection of civil rights a) State government
c) Uniform civil code
d) None of the above b) Central government
c) Supreme Court of India
57. Court’s power to award compensation is d) Both (a) and (b)
provided in Specific Relief Act
62. A decree can be
a) Under Section 20
a) Final
b) Under Section 21
c) (a) and (b) b) Preliminary
d) None of the above c) Only Preliminary not final
d) Either preliminary or final
58. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian
Evidence Act 63. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC
a) By the opinion of Experts a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC

b) By the evidence of a person who is b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
acquainted with the handwriting c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
c) After police verification d) None of the above
d) (a) and (b) 64. The Minimum number of persons required to
59. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides incorporate a Public Company is
a) No confession made by a person in police a) 5

custody is admissible b) 10
b) Confession made by a person in police c) 7
custody is admissible d) 2
c) Confession made in the immediate 65. A Private company can commence business as
presence of a magistrate is admissible soon as it receives
d) (a) and (c)
a) Certification of incorporation
60. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes b) Letter of intent
c) Occupation certificate
a) Oral evidence
b) Documentary evidence d) None of the above
c) Electronic records produced for the 66. Which of the following is not an essential of a
inspection of the court contract of guarantee
d) All of the above
a) Concurrence of three parties
b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable
6
c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable c) Right to Caste and Religion

d) Existence of only one contract d) All of the above
67. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract 73. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata
Act under Section applies
a) 180 of the Act a) The suit is liable to be dismissed

b) 181 of the Act b) The suit is liable to be stayed
c) 182 of the Act c) Both (a) and (b)
d) 183 of the Act d) None of the above
68. What is the maximum number of partners in 74. Under Section16 CPC a suit relating to
Banking business immovable property can be filed in a court
whose local jurisdiction is
a) Eight
b) Ten a) Where the property is situated
c) Twelve b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or
d) Sixteen carries on business
c) Both (a) and (b)
69. A person who gives the guarantee is called d) None of the above
a) Bailee 75. Pleading means
b) Creditor
c) Debtor a) Plaint and written statement
d) Surety b) Plaint only
c) Written statement
70. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against d) Oral statement by the pleader
the goods
76. On failure to file a written statement, under
a) Lien
order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the court may
b) Stoppage in transit
c) Right of resale a) pass any other order
d) To ascertain price b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once
71. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides d) Any of the above
a) Injunctions 77. What is meant by Homicide ?
b) Court’s discretion on specific performance
c) Cancellation of instruments a) Suicide by human being not at home
d) None of the above b) Suicide at home
c) Killing of a human being by another human
72. Which of the following is not of civil nature being
a) Right to take out procession d) Killing of human being by animal
b) Right to Worship in a temple
7
78. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable c) 1955

offence d) 1978
a) Under Section 274-276 of IP C 84. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter
b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC Kriti
c) Under section 272-273 of IPC
d) None of the above a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
b) The marriage is void
79. Maximum punishment for waging a war against c) The marriage is valid only if the court
the Government of India under IPC is approves it
d) The marriage is valid only if the Panchayat
a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
permits
b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term 85. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning
d) Death sentence of Stream is defined as
80. Offences relating to elections are a) Includes a river but not a water course
b) Includes a water course but not a river
a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted c) Includes river and water course , but not
b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent subterranean waters
amendment d) Includes a river, a water course and
c) Are not covered by IPC
subterranean river
86. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999,
81. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which defines the meaning of
the Supreme Court decided on
a) License
a) Wrongful restraint b) Trade Mark
b) Wrongful confinement c) Registration
c) Outrage the modesty of a women
d) Cancellation
d) Maintenance to the divorced women
87. Outraging the modesty of a woman is
82. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance
punishable under IPC
Act, the person who is taken in adoption
a) Section 376 (a)
a) Must be a Hindu only b) Section 376 (b)
b) A Hindu or Jew c) Section 354
c) May be Hindu or Christian d) Section 498
88. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
83. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the crime of
year
a) House breaking
a) 1956 b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
b) 1954 c) Forgery
8
d) Forgery with cheating c) Documents and correspondence from

advocate and Notary office
89. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under d) Documents and circulars from University of
a) Section 503 to 506 Delhi
b) Section 509 to 516
94. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides
c) Section 319 to 329
d) None of the above a) Possession of driving license while driving
b) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC
90. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act certificate in the vehicle
the oral statement means c) Revoking driving license if drunk driving is
a) All statements made before the court by detected
the witness d) State government’s power to control the
b) All statement made before the police by road transport
the accused 95. The term ‘Tort’ is a
c) All statement of facts which a witness
heard to say a) Latin Word
d) All of the above b) French Word
c) English word
91. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes d) Italian word
a) All Judges 96. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
b) All Magistrates
c) All Arbitrators a) A person is generally liable for his own
d) (a) and (b) wrongful act
b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done
92. Admissibility of contents of electronic records by other person
may be proved in accordance with the provisions c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his
of absence
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act d) None of the above
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act 97. Under Section 2(1) (f) of Consumer Protection
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
Act 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault,
d) None of the above imperfection or shortcomings in
………………………in relation to the goods
93. Which is not a public record as per the a) Quality and Quantity
provisions of Indian Evidence Act b) Potency
a) Documents forming the acts or records of c) Purity or standard
the sovereign authority d) All of the above
b) Documents forming the acts or records of
official bodies, tribunals 98. Which of the following falls under the categories
of Act of God
9
a) Storm and cyclone

b) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
c) Lightning and thunder
d) All of the above
99. Income Tax Act was enacted in
a) 1951
b) 1961
c) 1971
100. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24 of the

Income Tax Act, as
a) Profits and gains

b) Dividend
c) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust
for charitable Purpose
d) All of the above
10
BCI- DEC 2017 AIBE-XI ENGLISH -Set-B
1. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of d) Documents and circulars from University of
Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by Delhi
a) Bank Tribunal 6. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides

b) Consumer Forum
a) Possession of driving licence while driving
c) Magistrate Court
d) Sessions Court b) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC
certificate in the vehicle
2. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act c) Revoking driving licence if drunk driving is
the ‘oral statement’ means detected
d) State government’s power to control the
a) All statements made before the Court by the road transport
witness
b) All statements made before the police by the 7. The term ‘Tort’ is a
accused
c) All statements of facts which a witness heard a) Latin Word
b) French Word
to say
d) All of the above c) English word
d) Italian word
3. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
8. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
a) All Judges
b) All Magistrates a) A person is generally liable for his own
wrongful act
c) All Arbitrators
d) (a) and (b) b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done
by other person
4. Admissibility of contents of electronic records c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his
may be proved in accordance with the provisions absence
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act 9. Under Section 2 (1) (f) of Consumer Protection
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act Act 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault,
d) None of the above imperfection or shortcomings in
………………………in relation to the goods
5. Which is not a public record as per the provisions
of Indian Evidence Act a) Quality and Quantity
b) Potency
a) Documents forming the acts or records of c) Purity or standard
the sovereign authority d) All of the above
official bodies, tribunals 10. Which of the following falls under the
c) Documents and correspondence from categories of Act of God
advocate and Notary office a) Storm and cyclone
1
c) Lightning and thunder c) 2002

d) All of the above d) 2004
11. Income Tax Act was enacted in 17. Which is the correct statement :
a) 1951 a) There can be a will without a codicil

b) 1961 b) There can be a codicil without a will
c) 1971 c) Every will has a codicil
d) None of the above d) A codicil proceeds a will
12. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24 of the 18. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a
Income Tax Act, as Will should be attested by
a) Profits and gains a) By two witnesses

b) Dividend b) By two or more witnesses
c) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust c) Only one witness who is not a relative of
for charitable Purpose testator
d) All of the above d) None of the above
13. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on 19. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to
a) The High Court a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage

b) The Court of civil judge b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
c) The district judge c) Attaining of puberty
14. Temporary Injunction can be granted 20. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage
Registrar for any district is appointed by
a) Suo moto
b) Ex parte a) State government
c) Hearing both parties b) The Central government
d) None of the above c) The Clergyman of the Church
d) High Court judges
15. Right to Appeal is a
a) Natural Right
b) Inherent right a) Right to Freedom of Assembly
c) Statutory right b) Right to Property
d) Delegated right c) Right to equality
16. The last amendment to the Indian Succession
Act was made in 22. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
a) 2000 a) Confiscation of Passport was correct

b) 2001
2
b) Right to go abroad is not within the b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal
meaning of Article 21 Corporation
c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
Passport is not accordance to the law
d) None of the above 28. What is meant by Homicide ?
23. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the a) Suicide by human being not at home
right of free movement b) Suicide at home
a) In the interest of general public being
b) In the interest of political leaders d) Killing of human being by animal
c) In the interest of women safety
d) All of the above 29. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable
offence
24. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of
a) Under Section 274-276 of IPC
Constitution
b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
a) A company c) Under Section 272-273 of IPC
b) A corporation d) None of the above
c) Only citizens
d) Citizens and aliens 30. Maximum punishment for waging a war against
the Government of India under IPC is
25. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian
Constitution says that no accused person shall be a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
compelled to be b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
a) An accused d) Death sentence
b) A witness
c) A witness against himself 31. Offences relating to elections are
d) Hostile witness a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
26. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent
known as amendment
c) Are not covered by IPC
a) Judges Transfer Case d) None of the above
c) Mandal Commission case 32. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which
d) Constitutional case
27. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers a) Wrongful restraint
were benefitted b) Wrongful confinement
c) Outrage the modesty of a woman
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana d) Maintenance to the divorced women
3
33. Which of the following is not of civil nature c) Section 7

d) Section 8
a) Right to take out procession
b) Right to Worship in a temple 39. The Patent Act became a law in
c) Right to Caste and Religion
a) 1970
d) All of the above
b) 1975
34. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata c) 1996
applies d) 1966
a) The suit is liable to be dismissed 40. A Public Interest litigation can be filed under
b) The suit is liable to be stayed
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Article 226 of Constitution and Article 32
Constitution
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
35. Under Section 16, CPC, a suit relating to c) (a) and (b)
immovable property can be filed in a Court d) None of the above
whose local jurisdiction is
a) Where the property is situated AIR 1982, SC 149, decided
b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or
carries on business a) Free Legal Aid
c) Both (a) and (b) b) Bonded labours
c) Judges Transfer
d) Illegal detention
36. Pleading means
42. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath
a) Plaint and written statement case evolved,
b) Plaint only
c) Written statement a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
d) Oral statement by the pleader b) Public Trust doctrine
37. On failure to file a written statement, under d) Public Interest doctrine
order VIII rule 10 of CPC the Court may
43. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related
a) pass any other order to
b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once a) Sexual harassment at workplace
d) Any of the above b) Protection of civil rights
38. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits d) None of the above
filing a case against the Government
44. Court’s power to award compensation is
a) Section 5 provided in Specific Relief Act
b) Section 6
4
a) Under Section 20 b) Preliminary

b) Under Section 21 c) Only Preliminary not final
c) (a) and (b) d) Either preliminary or final
50. Foreign Judgment is defined in CPC
Evidence Act a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
a) By the opinion of Experts c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
b) By the evidence of a person who is d) None of the above
acquainted with the handwriting
c) After police verification 51. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999,
d) (a) and (b) defines the meaning of
46. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides a) Licence

b) Trade Mark
a) No confession made by a person in police c) Registration
custody is admissible d) Cancellation
b) Confession made by a person in police
custody is admissible 52. Outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable
c) Confession made in the immediate under IPC
presence of a magistrate is admissible a) Section 376 (a)
d) (a) and (c) b) Section 376 (b)
c) Section 354
47. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes d) Section 498
a) Oral evidence 53. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
b) Documentary evidence crime of
c) Electronic records produced for the
inspection of the Court a) House breaking
d) All of the above b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
c) Forgery
48. Which is the authority that determines the d) Forgery with cheating
language of the Court other than High Court
within a given State, under Section 271 of Cr.PC 54. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under
a) State government a) Section 503 to 506

b) Central government b) Section 509 to 516
c) Supreme Court of India c) Section 319 to 329
d) (a) and (b) d) None of the above
55. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates

49. A decree can be
to
a) Final
5
a) Water pollution a) Insurance certificate

b) Air and water pollution b) Medical examination
c) Noise and air pollution c) Medical Certificate
d) Water and noise pollution d) (b) and (c)
56. What is the punishment for advocates if the 61. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act
established finding of the Bar Council is 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the
misappropriation power of
a) Impose a fine a) A Court

b) Name of the advocate will be struck off b) A Tribunal
from the Rolls c) A quasi judicial form
c) Suspension from practice d) All of the above
d) All of the above
62. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947
57. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar is
Council, one can appeal to
a) Industrial peace and economic justice
a) High Court b) To create harmonious relation between
b) Supreme Court employer and employee
c) Bar Council of India c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
d) Indian Law Commission d) All of the above
58. Which Section of Advocates Act provides 63. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947
punishment for misconduct of advocates provides the definition of
a) Section 29 a) Lock Out

b) Section 35 b) Lay Off
c) Section 37 c) Strike
d) All of the above d) Hartal
59. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with

64. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
a) Qualification of advocates who should be a) 1st March 1955
enrolled in the bar b) 1st March 1986
b) Qualification to become the Advocate c) 1st March 1994
General d) 1st March 1894
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor
General of India 65. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the ‘arable
d) (b) and (c) land’ means
60. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, a) Useful for residential purpose
which is helpful decide the extent of injury for b) Useful for commercial purpose
compensation c) Useful for cultivation
6
d) Useful for industrial purpose c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc

66. The provision of establishing Public Service
Commission is made under 72. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC Special Executive
Magistrate may be appointed by
a) Article 310
b) Article 315 a) Central Government
c) Article 320 b) High Court
d) Article 325 c) Supreme Court
d) State Government
67. Right to Personal liberty includes
73. Police may carry out personal search on an
a) Right against custodial violence arrested person,
b) Right of under trials to separate them from
convicted a) U/s 49 Cr.PC
c) Right against Public hanging b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC
d) All of the above c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC
d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC
68. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force
of India is 74. The Special Court is
a) President a) Not subordinate to High Court

b) Prime Minister b) Superior to High Court
c) The Defence Minister c) Supplement to High Court
d) Chief Marshal d) Equal to Supreme Court
69. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is 75. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be
exercised by a Magistrate
a) 62 years
b) 60 years a) When the police decides not to investigate
c) 58 years the case
d) 65 years b) When the investigation is still going on
c) Both (a) and (b)
70. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of d) None of the above
a) Concurrent list 76. Statement recorded during investigation U/s.
b) State list 161 can be used in trial
c) Union list
d) None of the above a) For contradicting the witness
b) For corroborating the witness
71. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been c) Incorporating in the charge sheet
defined in d) Discharging the accused
a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
7
77. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a 82. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning
Magistrate of First class or second class is of Stream is defined as
provided
a) Includes a river but not a water course
a) Under Section 173 0f Criminal Procedure b) Includes a water course but not a river
Code c) Includes river and water course , but not
b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure subterranean waters
Code d) Includes a river, a water course and
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code subterranean river
83. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from
78. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in a) French administration
Cr. PC b) British Administration
a) U/s. 214 c) Swedish Administration
b) U/s. 215 d) German Administration
c) U/s. 216 84. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry
d) U/s.210 Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by
79. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance a) Central government or State government
Act, the person who is taken in adoption b) Union Public Service Commission
a) Must be a Hindu only c) State Public commission
b) A Hindu or Jew d) Supreme Court of India
c) May be Hindu or Christian
d) None of the above 85. Information Technology Act was enacted in
80. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the a) 1988

year b) 1996
c) 2000
a) 1956 d) 2004
b) 1954
c) 1955 86. Government of India passed Information
d) 1978 Technology Act in 2000 with objective
81. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter a) To provide legal sanction to all transaction
Kriti for e-commerce
b) To facilitate electronic filing of all
a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it documents to the government
b) The marriage is void c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian
c) The marriage is valid only if the Court Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
approves it d) All of the above
d) The marriage is valid only the Panchayat
permits
8
87. The Minimum number of persons required to d) Surety

incorporate a Public Company is
93. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against
a) 5 the goods
b) 10
a) Lien
c) 7
d) 2 b) Stoppage in transit
c) Right of resale
88. A Private company can commence business as d) To ascertain price
soon as it receives
94. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
a) Certification of incorporation
b) Letter of intent a) Injunctions
c) Occupation certificate
d) None of the above c) Cancellation of instruments
89. Which of the following is not an essential of a
Contract of Guarantee 95. Section 154 under IT Act is
a) Concurrence of three parties a) For filing return of Income

b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable b) For filing return with late fee
c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable c) Rectification of mistakes
d) Existence of only one contract d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
90. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract

Act under Section 96. Which of the following is not included in the
Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax
a) 180 of the Act Act,
b) 181 of the Act
c) 182 of the Act a) Any stock in Trade
d) 183 of the Act b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central
Government
91. What is the maximum number of partners in c) (a) and ( b)
Banking business d) None of the above
a) Eight
97. The language which is to be used in the arbitral
b) Ten proceedings is decided by
c) Twelve
d) Sixteen a) The Tribunal
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
92. A person who gives the guarantee is called c) The petitioner
a) Bailee d) The Defendant
b) Creditor 98. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated
c) Debtor
9
a) On making of the final award

b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
c) When the parties to the dispute agrees to
terminate proceedings
d) All of the above
99. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a
a) Order of district collector

b) Order of Income Tax Commissioner
c) Decree of a Civil Court
d) (a) and (b)
100. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996,

Section 18-27 states
a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings

b) Receipt and Written Communications
c) Extent of judicial intervention
d) Awarding final decision
10
BCI- DEC 2017 AIBE-XI ENGLISH -Set-C
1. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from a) Under Section 274-276 of IP C

b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
a) French administration c) Under section 272-273 of IPC
b) British Administration
c) Swedish Administration
d) German Administration 7. Maximum punishment for waging a war against
2. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry
Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
a) Central Government or state Government c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
b) Union Public Service Commission d) Death sentence
c) State Public commission
d) Supreme Court of India 8. Offences relating to elections are
3. Information Technology Act was enacted in a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent
a) 1988 amendment
b) 1996 c) Are not covered by IPC
c) 2000 d) None of the above
d) 2004
9. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which
4. Government of India passed Information the Supreme Court decided on
Technology Act in 2000 with objective a) Wrongful restraint
a) To provide legal sanction to all transaction b) Wrongful confinement
for e-commerce c) Outrage the modesty of a woman
d) Maintenance to the divorced women
b) To facilitate electronic filing of all
documents to the Government 10. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates
c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian to
Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
d) All of the above a) Water pollution
b) Air and water pollution
5. What is meant by Homicide ? c) Noise and air pollution
d) Water and noise pollution
a) Suicide by human being not at home
b) Suicide at home 11. What is the punishment for advocates if the
c) Killing of a human being by another human established finding of the Bar Council is
being misappropriation
d) Killing of human being by animal
a) Impose a fine
6. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable b) Name of the advocate will be struck off
offence from the Rolls
c) Suspension from practice
1
d) All of the above 17. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947
is
12. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar
Council, one can appeal to a) Industrial peace and economic justice
b) To create harmonious relation between
a) High Court employer and employee
b) Supreme Court c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
c) Bar Council of India
d) All of the above
d) Indian Law Commission
18. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947
13. Which Section of Advocates Act provides provides the definition of
punishment for misconduct of advocates
a) Lock Out
a) Section 29 b) Lay Off
b) Section 35
c) Strike
c) Section 37 d) Hartal
d) All of the above
14. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with 19. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
a) Qualification of advocates who should be a) 1st March 1955

enrolled in the Bar b) 1st March 1986
b) Qualification to become the Advocate c) 1st March 1994
General d) 1st March 1894
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor 20. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the ‘arable
General of India land’ means
d) (b) and (c)
a) Useful for residential purpose
15. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, b) Useful for commercial purpose
which is helpful decide the extent of injury for
c) Useful for cultivation
compensation
d) Useful for industrial purpose
a) Insurance certificate
21. Section 154 under IT Act is
b) Medical examination
c) Medical Certificate a) For filing return of Income
d) (b) and (c) b) For filing return with late fee
c) Rectification of mistakes
16. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the
power of 22. Which of the following is not included in the
a) A Court Act,
b) A Tribunal
c) A quasi judicial form a) Any stock in Trade
d) All of the above
2
b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central 28. A decree can be

Government
c) (a) and ( b) a) Final
b) Preliminary
c) Only Preliminary not final
23. The language which is to be used in the arbitral d) Either preliminary or final
proceedings is decided by 29. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC
a) The Tribunal a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
c) The petitioner c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
d) The Defendant d) None of the above
24. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated 30. The provision of establishing Public Service
a) On making of the final award Commission is made under
b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal a) Article 310
c) When the parties to the dispute agree to b) Article 315
terminate proceedings c) Article 320
d) All of the above d) Article 325
25. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a 31. Right to Personal liberty includes
a) Order of district collector a) Right against custodial violence
b) Order of Income Tax Commissioner b) Right of under trials to separate them from
c) Decree of a civil Court convicted
d) (a) and (b) c) Right against Public hanging
26. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, d) All of the above
Section 18-27 states 32. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force
a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings of India is
b) Receipt and Written Communications a) President
c) Extent of judicial intervention b) Prime Minister
d) Awarding final decision c) The Defence Minister
27. Which is the authority that determines the d) Chief Marshal
language of the Court other than High Court 33. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is
within a given state, under Section 271 of Cr.PC
a) 62 years
a) State Government b) 60 years
b) Central Government c) 58 years
c) Supreme Court of India d) 65 years
d) (a) and (b)
3
a) Concurrent list 40. Statement recorded during investigation U/s.

b) State list 161 can be used in trial
c) Union list
d) None of the above a) For contradicting the witness
b) For corroborating the witness
35. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been c) Incorporating in the charge sheet
defined in d) Discharging the accused
a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC 41. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a

b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc Magistrate of First class or second class is
c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc provided
a) Under Section 173 0f Criminal Procedure
36. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC, Special Executive Code
Magistrate may be appointed by b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure
Code
a) Central Government c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
b) High Court d) None of the above
c) Supreme Court
d) State Government 42. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in
37. Police may carry out personal search on an Cr. PC
arrested person, a) U/s. 214
a) U/s 49 Cr.PC b) U/s. 215
b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC c) U/s. 216
c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC d) U/s.210
d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC
43. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act
38. The Special Court is the oral statement means
a) Not subordinate to High Court a) All statements made before the Court by
b) Superior to High Court the witness
c) Supplement to High Court b) All statement made before the police by
d) Equal to Supreme Court the accused
c) All statement of facts which a witness
39. The powers under 159 of Cr.PC can be heard to say
exercised by a magistrate d) All of the above
a) When the police decides not to investigate 44. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
the case
b) When the investigation is still going on a) All Judges
c) Both (a) and (b) b) All Magistrates
4
c) All Arbitrators a) 1956

d) (a) and (b) b) 1954
c) 1955
45. Admissibility of contents of electronic records
d) 1978
may be proved in accordance with the provisions
of 50. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter
Kriti
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act b) The marriage is void
d) None of the above c) The marriage is valid only if the Court
approves it
46. Which is not a public record as per the d) The marriage is valid only the Panchayat
provisions of Indian Evidence Act permits
a) Documents forming the acts or records of 51. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning
the sovereign authority of Stream is defined as
a) Includes a river but not a water course
official bodies, tribunals
c) Documents and correspondence from b) Includes a water course but not a river
c) Includes river and water course , but not
subterranean waters
d) Documents and circulars from University of
Delhi d) Includes a river, a water course and
subterranean river
52. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of
a) Possession of driving licence while driving Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by
b) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC
certificate in the vehicle a) Bank Tribunal
c) Revoking driving licence if drunk driving is b) Consumer Forum
detected c) Magistrate Court
d) State Government’s power to control the d) Sessions Court
road transport 53. Which of the following is not of civil nature
48. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance a) Right to take out procession
Act, the person who is taken in adoption b) Right to Worship in a temple
c) Right to Caste and Religion
a) Must be a Hindu only
b) A Hindu or Jew d) All of the above
c) May be Hindu or Christian 54. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata
d) None of the above applies
49. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the a) The suit is liable to be dismissed
year b) The suit is liable to be stayed
5
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Right to Freedom of Assembly

d) None of the above b) Right to Property
55. Under Section16 CPC a suit relating to
immovable property can be filed in a Court
whose local jurisdiction is 61. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
a) Where the property is situated a) Confiscation of Passport was correct

b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or b) Right to go abroad is not within the
carries on business meaning of Article 21
c) Both (a) and (b) c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of
d) None of the above Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of
56. Pleading means d) None of the above
a) Plaint and written statement 62. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the
b) Plaint only right of free movement
d) Oral statement by the pleader a) In the interest of general public
b) In the interest of political leaders
order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the Court may d) All of the above
a) Pass any other order 63. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of
b) Order for striking off the decree Constitution
c) May pronounce the judgment at once
d) Any of the above a) A company
b) A corporation
58. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits c) Only citizens
filing a case against the Government
d) Citizens and aliens
a) Section 5 64. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian
b) Section 6
Constitution says that no accused person shall be
c) Section 7 compelled to be
d) Section 8
a) An accused
59. The Patent Act became a law in b) A witness
a) 1970 c) A witness against himself
b) 1975 d) Hostile witness
c) 1996 65. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly
d) 1966 known as
6
c) Mandal Commission case 71. What is the maximum number of partners in

d) Constitutional case Banking business
66. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers a) Eight

were benefitted b) Ten
c) Twelve
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana d) Sixteen
b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal
Corporation 72. A person who gives the guarantee is called
c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand a) Bailee
b) Creditor
67. The Minimum number of persons required to c) Debtor
incorporate a Public Company is d) Surety
a) 5 73. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against

b) 10 the goods
c) 7
d) 2 a) Lien
68. A Private company can commence business as c) Right of resale
soon as it receives d) To ascertain price
a) Certification of incorporation 74. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides

b) Letter of intent
c) Occupation certificate a) Injunctions
c) Cancellation of instruments
69. Which of the following is not an essential of a d) None of the above
Contract of Guarantee
75. A Public Interest litigation can be filed under
a) Concurrence of three parties
b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable a) Article 226 of Constitution and Article 32
c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable Constitution
d) Existence of only one contract b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
c) (a) and (b)
70. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract d) None of the above
Act under Section
a) 180 of the Act AIR 1982 SC 149 , decided
b) 181 of the Act
c) 182 of the Act a) Free Legal Aid
d) 183 of the Act b) Bonded labours
c) Judges Transfer
d) Illegal detention
7
77. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath a) Oral evidence

case evolved, b) Documentary evidence
c) Electronic records produced for the
a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
inspection of the Court
b) Public Trust doctrine d) All of the above
d) Public Interest doctrine 83. Section 2 (1) (ZB), of the Trade Mark Act 1999,
defines the meaning of
78. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related
to a) Licence
b) Trade Mark
a) Sexual harassment at workplace c) Registration
b) Protection of civil rights d) Cancellation
d) None of the above 84. Outrage the modesty of a women is punishable
under IPC
79. Court’s power to award compensation is
provided in Specific Relief Act a) Section 376 (a)
b) Section 376 (b)
a) Under Section 20 c) Section 354
b) Under Section 21
d) Section 498
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of the above 85. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
crime of
Evidence Act a) House breaking
b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
a) By the opinion of Experts c) Forgery
b) By the evidence of a person who is d) Forgery with cheating
acquainted with the handwriting
c) After police verification 86. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under
d) (a) and (b)
a) Section 503 to 506
81. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides b) Section 509 to 516
a) No confession made by a person in police d) None of the above
custody is admissible
b) Confession made by a person in police 87. The term Tort is a
c) Confession made in the immediate a) Latin Word
presence of a magistrate is admissible b) French Word
d) (a) and (c) c) English word
d) Italian word
82. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes 88. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
8
a) A person is generally liable for his own a) The High Court

wrongful act b) The Court of civil judge
b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done c) The district judge
by other person d) All of the above
c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his
absence 94. Temporary Injunction can be granted
d) None of the above a) Suo moto
89. Under Section 2(1) (f) of Consumer Protection b) Ex parte
Act 1986 , defect is meant by any fault, c) Hearing both parties
imperfection or shortcomings in d) None of the above
………………………in relation to the goods 95. Right to Appeal is a
a) Quality and Quantity a) Natural Right
b) Potency b) Inherent right
c) Purity or standard c) Statutory right
d) All of the above d) Delegated right
90. Which of the following falls under the 96. The last amendment to the Indian Succession
categories of Act of God Act was made in
a) Storm and cyclone a) 2000

b) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood b) 2001
c) Lightning and thunder c) 2002
d) All of the above d) 2004
91. Income Tax Act was enacted in 97. Which is the correct statement
a) 1951 a) There can be a will without a codicil

b) 1961 b) There can be a codicil without a will
c) 1971 c) Every will has a codicil
d) None of the above d) A codicil proceeds a will
92. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24 of the 98. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a
Income Tax Act, as Will should be attested by
a) Profits and gains a) By two witnesses

b) Dividend b) By two or more witnesses
c) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust c) Only one witness who is not a relative of
for charitable Purpose testator
93. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on 99. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to
9
a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage

b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
100. Under the Christian Marriage Act the

marriage Registrar for any district is appointed
by
a) State Government
b) The Central Government
c) The Clergyman of the Church
10
BCI- DEC 2017 AIBE-XI ENGLISH -Set-D
1. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits 7. The Minimum number of persons required to
filing a case against the Government incorporate a Public Company is
a) Section 5 a) 5
b) Section 6 b) 10
c) Section 7 c) 7
d) Section 8 d) 2
2. The Patent Act became a law in 8. A Private company can commence business as
soon as it receives
a) 1970
b) 1975 a) Certification of incorporation
c) 1996 b) Letter of intent
d) 1966 c) Occupation certificate
3. Which is the authority that determines the
language of the Court other than High Court 9. Which of the following is not an essential of a
within a given state, under Section 271 of Cr.PC Contract of Guarantee
a) State Government a) Concurrence of three parties

b) Central Government b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable
c) Supreme Court of India c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
d) (a) and (b) d) Existence of only one contract
4. A decree can be 10. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract

Act under Section
a) Final
b) Preliminary a) 180 of the Act
c) Only Preliminary not final b) 181 of the Act
c) 182 of the Act
d) Either preliminary or final
d) 183 of the Act
5. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC
11. What is the maximum number of partners in
a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC Banking business
b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC a) Eight
d) None of the above b) Ten
c) Twelve
6. The provision of establishing Public Service d) Sixteen
Commission is made under
12. A person who gives the guarantee is called
a) Article 310
b) Article 315 a) Bailee
b) Creditor
c) Article 320
c) Debtor
d) Article 325
1
d) Surety b) Plaint only

13. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against d) Oral statement by the pleader
the goods
a) Lien order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the Court may
c) Right of resale a) Pass any other order
d) To ascertain price b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once
14. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides d) Any of the above
a) Injunctions 20. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Court’s discretion on specific performance the oral statement means
c) Cancellation of instruments
d) None of the above a) All statements made before the Court by
the witness
15. Which of the following is not of civil nature b) All statement made before the police by
a) Right to take out procession the accused
b) Right to Worship in a temple c) All statement of facts which a witness
c) Right to Caste and Religion heard to say
d) All of the above d) All of the above
16. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata 21. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
applies a) All Judges
a) The suit is liable to be dismissed b) All Magistrates
b) The suit is liable to be stayed c) All Arbitrators
c) Both (a) and (b) d) (a) and (b)
d) None of the above 22. Admissibility of contents of electronic records
17. Under Section16 CPC a suit relating to may be proved in accordance with the provisions
immovable property can be filed in a Court of
whose local jurisdiction is a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
a) Where the property is situated b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
carries on business d) None of the above
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above 23. Which is not a public record as per the
provisions of Indian Evidence Act,
18. Pleading means
a) Documents forming the acts or records of
a) Plaint and written statement the sovereign authority
2
b) Documents forming the acts or records of 29. Which is the correct statement
official bodies, tribunals
c) Documents and correspondence from a) There can be a will without a codicil
b) There can be a codicil without a will
d) Documents and circulars from University of c) Every will has a codicil
Delhi d) A codicil proceeds a will
30. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a

Will should be attested by
a) Possession of driving licence while driving
b) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC a) By two witnesses
certificate in the vehicle b) By two or more witnesses
c) Revoking driving licence if drunk driving is c) Only one witness who is not a relative of
detected testator
d) State Government’s power to control the d) None of the above
road transport 31. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to
25. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
a) The High Court b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
b) The Court of civil judge
c) The district judge d) None of the above
d) All of the above 32. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage
26. Temporary Injunction can be granted Registrar for any district is appointed by
a) State Government
a) Suo moto
b) Ex parte b) The Central Government
c) Hearing both parties c) The Clergyman of the Church
27. Right to Appeal is a 33. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from
a) Natural Right a) French administration

b) Inherent right b) British Administration
c) Statutory right c) Swedish Administration
d) Delegated right d) German Administration
28. The last amendment to the Indian Succession 34. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry
Act was made in Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by
a) 2000 a) Central Government or state Government

b) 2001 b) Union Public Service Commission
c) State Public commission
c) 2002
d) Supreme Court of India
d) 2004
3
35. Information Technology Act was enacted in c) Union list

a) 1988
b) 1996 41. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been
c) 2000 defined in
d) 2004
a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
36. Government of India passed Information b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
Technology Act in 2000 with objective c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc
a) To provide legal sanction to all transaction
for e-commerce 42. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC, Special Executive
b) To facilitate electronic filing of all Magistrate may be appointed by
documents to the Government
a) Central Government
c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian
Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes b) High Court
d) All of the above c) Supreme Court
d) State Government
37. Right to Personal liberty includes 43. Police may carry out personal search on an
arrested person,
a) Right against custodial violence
b) Right of under trials to separate them from a) U/s 49 Cr.PC
convicted b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC
c) Right against Public hanging c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC
d) All of the above d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC
38. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force 44. The Special Court is
of India is
a) Not subordinate to High Court
a) President b) Superior to High Court
b) Prime Minister c) Supplement to High Court
c) The Defence Minister d) Equal to Supreme Court
d) Chief Marshal
45. The powers under 159 of Cr.PC can be
39. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is exercised by a magistrate
a) 62 years a) When the police decides not to investigate
b) 60 years the case
c) 58 years b) When the investigation is still going on
d) 65 years c) Both (a) and (b)
46. Statement recorded during investigation U/s.

a) Concurrent list
161 can be used in trial
b) State list
4
a) For contradicting the witness b) The marriage is void

b) For corroborating the witness c) The marriage is valid only if the Court
c) Incorporating in the charge sheet approves it
d) Discharging the accused d) The marriage is valid only the Panchayat
permits
47. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a
Magistrate of First class or second class is 52. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning
provided of Stream is defined as
a) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure a) Includes a river but not a water course
Code b) Includes a water course but not a river
b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure c) Includes river and water course , but not
Code subterranean waters
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code d) Includes a river, a water course and
d) None of the above subterranean river
48. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in 53. What is meant by Homicide ?

Cr. PC a) Suicide by human being not at home
a) U/s. 214 b) Suicide at home
b) U/s. 215
being
c) U/s. 216
d) U/s.210 d) Killing of human being by animal
49. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance 54. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable
Act, the person who is taken in adoption offence
a) Under Section 274-276 of IP C

a) Must be a Hindu only
b) A Hindu or Jew b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
c) May be Hindu or Christian c) Under section 272-273 of IPC
d) None of the above d) None of the above
50. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the 55. Maximum punishment for waging a war against
year
a) 1956 a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years

b) 1954 b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
c) 1955
d) 1978 d) Death sentence
51. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter 56. Offences relating to elections are
Kriti a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent
amendment
5
c) Are not covered by IPC a) Order of district collector

d) None of the above b) Order of Income Tax Commissioner
c) Decree of a civil Court
57. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which
d) (a) and (b)
63. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996,
a) Wrongful restraint Section 18-27 states
b) Wrongful confinement
c) Outrage the modesty of a woman a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
d) Maintenance to the divorced women b) Receipt and Written Communications
c) Extent of judicial intervention
58. Section 154 under IT Act is d) Awarding final decision
a) For filing return of Income 64. Which one is not a fundamental right?
b) For filing return with late fee
c) Rectification of mistakes a) Right to Freedom of Assembly
d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO b) Right to Property
59. Which of the following is not included in the d) Right to freedom of speech and Expression
Act, 65. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
a) Any stock in Trade a) Confiscation of Passport was correct

b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by b) Right to go abroad is not within the
Central Government meaning of Article 21
c) (a) and ( b) c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of
d) None of the above Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of
60. The language which is to be used in the arbitral d) None of the above
proceedings is decided by
66. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the
a) The Tribunal right of free movement
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
c) The petitioner a) In the interest of general public
d) The Defendant b) In the interest of political leaders
61. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated d) All of the above
a) On making of the final award 67. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of
b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal Constitution
c) When the parties to the dispute agree to
terminate proceedings a) A company
b) A corporation
d) All of the above
c) Only citizens
62. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a d) Citizens and aliens
6
68. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
Constitution says that no accused person shall be b) Public Trust doctrine
compelled to be c) Separation of power doctrine
d) Public Interest doctrine
a) An accused
b) A witness 74. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related
c) A witness against himself to
d) Hostile witness
a) Sexual harassment at workplace
69. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly b) Protection of civil rights
known as c) Uniform civil code
b) Illegal Detention case 75. Court’s power to award compensation is
c) Mandal Commission case provided in Specific Relief Act
d) Constitutional case
a) Under Section 20
70. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers b) Under Section 21
were benefitted c) (a) and (b)
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal 76. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian
Corporation Evidence Act
c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand a) By the opinion of Experts
b) By the evidence of a person who is
71. A Public Interest litigation can be filed under acquainted with the handwriting
c) After police verification
a) Article 226 of Constitution and Article 32 d) (a) and (b)
Constitution
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code 77. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides
c) (a) and (b)
a) No confession made by a person in police
72. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India b) Confession made by a person in police
AIR 1982 SC 149 , decided custody is admissible
c) Confession made in the immediate
a) Free Legal Aid presence of a magistrate is admissible
b) Bonded labours d) (a) and (c)
c) Judges Transfer
d) Illegal detention 78. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes
73. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath
a) Oral evidence
case evolved, b) Documentary evidence
7
c) Electronic records produced for the 84. What is the punishment for advocates if the
inspection of the Court established finding of the Bar Council is
d) All of the above misappropriation
79. Section 2 (1) (ZB), of the Trade Mark Act 1999, a) Impose a fine
defines the meaning of b) Name of the advocate will be struck off
from the Rolls
a) Licence
c) Suspension from practice
b) Trade Mark d) All of the above
c) Registration
d) Cancellation 85. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar
Council, one can appeal to
80. Outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable
under IPC a) High Court
b) Supreme Court
a) Section 376 (a) c) Bar Council of India
b) Section 376 (b) d) Indian Law Commission
c) Section 354
d) Section 498 86. Which Section of Advocates Act provides
punishment for misconduct of advocates
81. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
crime of a) Section 29
b) Section 35
a) House breaking c) Section 37
b) Dishonest misappropriation of property d) All of the above
c) Forgery
d) Forgery with cheating 87. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with
82. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under a) Qualification of advocates who should be
enrolled in the Bar
a) Section 503 to 506 b) Qualification to become the Advocate
b) Section 509 to 516 General
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor
d) None of the above General of India
83. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates d) (b) and (c)
to 88. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act,
a) Water pollution which is helpful decide the extent of injury for
b) Air and water pollution compensation
c) Noise and air pollution a) Insurance certificate
d) Water and noise pollution b) Medical examination
c) Medical Certificate
d) (b) and (c)
8
89. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act b) Consumer Forum

1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the c) Magistrate Court
power of d) Sessions Court
a) A Court 95. The term Tort is a

b) A Tribunal
c) A quasi judicial form a) Latin Word
b) French Word
d) All of the above
c) English word
90. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 d) Italian word
is
96. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
a) Industrial peace and economic justice
b) To create harmonious relation between a) A person is generally liable for his own
wrongful act
employer and employee
c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc., b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done
d) All of the above by other person
c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his
91. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947 absence
provides the definition of d) None of the above
a) Lock Out 97. Under Section 2(1) (f) of Consumer Protection

b) Lay Off Act 1986 , defect is meant by any fault,
c) Strike imperfection or shortcomings in
d) Hartal ………………………in relation to the goods
92. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from a) Quality and Quantity
b) Potency
a) 1st March 1955 c) Purity or standard
b) 1st March 1986 d) All of the above
c) 1st March 1994
d) 1st March 1894 98. Which of the following falls under the
categories of Act of God
93. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the ‘arable
land’ means a) Storm and cyclone
a) Useful for residential purpose c) Lightning and thunder
b) Useful for commercial purpose
d) All of the above
c) Useful for cultivation
d) Useful for industrial purpose 99. Income Tax Act was enacted in
94. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of a) 1951

Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by b) 1961
c) 1971
a) Bank Tribunal
9
100. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24 of the

Income Tax Act, as
a) Profits and gains
b) Dividend
c) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust
for charitable Purpose
d) All of the above
10
Question. No. Set A Set B Set C Set D
1 C C C A
2 C A A A
3 B D C A
4 D C D D
5 C C C A
6 A D C B
7 D B D C
8 B B B A
9 C D C D
10 C D C C
11 A B D B
12 B D C D
13 D D B D
14 A B A A
15 C C D C
16 A C A A
17 C A D A
18 D B C A
19 D D D D
20 A A C A
21 D B C D
22 A C C C
23 A A B C
24 D C D D
25 C C C D
26 A C A B
27 A B A C
28 A C D C
29 B C A A
30 C D B B
31 B B D D
32 A C A A
33 C C D C
34 B A A A
35 C A A C
36 D A D D
37 C D C D
38 B B A A
39 A A A D
40 D C A A
41 A C B A
42 D D C D
43 C A A C
Ques. No. Set A Set B Set C Set D
44 D B D A
45 C D C A
46 B D C A
47 C D D B
48 A A A C
49 C D C A
50 C A A C
51 C B D A
52 B C C D
53 C C C C
54 C A A C
55 B C A D
56 A D A B
57 B C D C
58 D B B C
59 D A A C
60 D D B B
61 A A C D
62 D D A C
63 A C C A
64 C D C B
65 A C C C
66 D B B A
67 C D C C
68 B A A C
69 D D D C
70 D A C B
71 A A B C
72 C D D C
73 A C D B
74 A A A A
75 A A C B
76 D A C D
77 C B B D
78 C C A D
79 D A B B
80 B C D C
81 C A D C
82 A D D A
83 C C B C
84 A A C D
85 D C C C
86 B D A B
Ques. No. Set A Set B Set C Set D
87 C C B A
88 C A B D
89 A D D A
90 A C D D
91 D B B C
92 C D D D
93 C D D C
94 D A B C
95 B C C B
96 B C C B
97 D B A D
98 D D B D
99 B C D B
100 D A A D

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AIBE XI

OFFICIAL QUESTION PAPER

1. Section 154 under IT Act is c) Extent of judicial intervention

3. The language which is to be used in the arbitral 9. Right to Appeal is a

a) On making of the final award a) 2000

a) High Court a) Industrial peace and economic justice

a) Useful for residential purpose d) Hostile witness

a) Judges Transfer Case

a) By the opinion of Experts a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC

a) No confession made by a person in police a) 5

c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable c) Right to Caste and Religion

a) 180 of the Act a) The suit is liable to be dismissed

78. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable c) 1955

d) Forgery with cheating c) Documents and correspondence from

a) Storm and cyclone

99. Income Tax Act was enacted in

100. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24 of the

a) Profits and gains

a) Bank Tribunal 6. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides

c) Lightning and thunder c) 2002

a) 1951 a) There can be a will without a codicil

a) Profits and gains a) By two witnesses

a) The High Court a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage

a) 2000 a) Confiscation of Passport was correct

33. Which of the following is not of civil nature c) Section 7

a) Under Section 20 b) Preliminary

46. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides a) Licence

a) State government a) Section 503 to 506

55. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates

a) Water pollution a) Insurance certificate

a) Impose a fine a) A Court

a) Section 29 a) Lock Out

59. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with

d) Useful for industrial purpose c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc

a) President a) Not subordinate to High Court

80. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the a) 1988

87. The Minimum number of persons required to d) Surety

a) Concurrence of three parties a) For filing return of Income

90. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract

a) On making of the final award

99. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a

a) Order of district collector

100. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996,

a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings

1. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from a) Under Section 274-276 of IP C

a) Qualification of advocates who should be a) 1st March 1955

b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central 28. A decree can be

34. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of d) None of the above

a) Concurrent list 40. Statement recorded during investigation U/s.

a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC 41. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a

c) All Arbitrators a) 1956

c) Both (a) and (b) a) Right to Freedom of Assembly

a) Where the property is situated a) Confiscation of Passport was correct

c) Mandal Commission case 71. What is the maximum number of partners in

66. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers a) Eight

a) 5 73. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against

a) Certification of incorporation 74. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides

77. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath a) Oral evidence

a) A person is generally liable for his own a) The High Court

a) Storm and cyclone a) 2000

a) 1951 a) There can be a will without a codicil

a) Profits and gains a) By two witnesses

a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage