Ultimate Environmental Planning Reviewer No.

2A
Sl. No

This describes a portion of the workforce where part-time workers prefer to be full-time and where high- skilled workers
have low-paying or low-skill jobs.
A. Employment
1 B. Unemployment
C. Underemployment
D. Mismatch
The labor force is defined as
A. The employed and self-employed part of the population
B. The employed and self-employed part of the population, and those who are unemployed but seeking work
2
C. The population aged 15-64
D. The employed and self-employed part of the population

In international environmental law, the principle that „the burden of proof in demonstrating that a particular technology,
practice or product is clean and safe lies with the developer and not with the general public and that the producer must
answer for any environmental damage such technology has create‟ is called
3
a. Extended Producer Responsibility b. Polluter Pays Principle
c. Principle of Externalities d. Precautionary Principles

What are the administrative levels of government that RA 7160 LGC describe and makes provisions for?
a. National, regional, district, city/town, village b. Provincial, city/municipal, barangay
c. Local, supra-local, inter-local, sub-local d. Macro, meso, mela and micro
4

This plan is the overall basis in the planning and management of the country‟s land and other
physical resources at the national and sub-national levels. a. Medium Term Physical Development Plan
b. National Physical Framework Plan c. Philippine Development Plan
d. Regional Physical Framework Plan e. All of the above
5 f. None of the above

The Urban Development and Housing Act defined as the rationale approach of allocating available land
resources as equitably as possible among competing user groups and for different functions consistent with the
development plan of the area and the program. a. Land Use Plan
b. Site Plan
6 c. Development Plan
d. Boundary delineation e. All of the above
f. None of the above

Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning
of "inclusive growth‟
a. Compromise b. Transactional c. Equality
7 d. Beneficial to all particularly lagging groups e. Only for the Yellow Army

Which of the following is not a „thematic‟ map?

a. Political-administrative boundaries b. NPAAAD map
8 c. Slope map
d. Forest cover map

All of these are principles and approaches suggested for reference by the enhanced CLUP Process except one.
a. Watershed as a platform
b. Exclusive, expansive governance
c. Gender responsiveness and sensitivity d. Highest and best use of land
9 e. All of the above
f. None of the above
 is the implementation instrument of the Comprehensive Development Plan (CDP). a. Local
Development Investment Program
b. Executive & Legislative Agenda c. Annual Investment Program
10 d. Annual Budget e. All of the above
f. None of the above

is the implementation instrument of the Comprehensive Land Use Plan

(CLUP) a. Settlement Policies
b. Comprehensive Development Plan c. Zoning ordinance
11 d. Multi-sectoral development plan e. All of the above
f. None of the above

This republic act defined land use plan as of the rational approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as
possible.
a. RA 7279 b. RA 7160 c. RA 9729 d. RA 7161
12

CLUP formulation should be in consonance and consistent with the following frameworks and guidelines except one.
a. Philippine Agenda 21
b. National Framework for Physical Planning c. Sustainable Development Goals
d. National Climate Change Action Plan (NCCAP)
13 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

maybe viewed as subsets of a goal and therefore contribute to the attainment of a statement goal.
a. sub-goal b. objectives c. Strategy
d. activities
e. all of the above
14 f. none of the above

In case of Quality-Cost Based Evaluation, the financial proposal shall be given the following weights:
a. Minimum of 15% up to maximum of 40% b. Minimum of 15% up to maximum of 50% c. Minimum of 10% up to
maximum of 40% d. Minimum of 10% up to maximum of 50% e. None of the above
15

The Chairman of the Bids and Awards Committee in the Regional Office of the Department of Health is at least:
a. Second-ranking permanent official b. Secretary
c. Fourth-ranking permanent official d. Third-ranking permanent official e. Division Chief
16

The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of education institutions offering courses in
environmental planning is the responsibility of the
a. Commission on Higher Education
17
b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners c. Board of Environmental Planning
d. School of Urban and Regional Planning

Under the concept of urbanized areas as defined in the Philippine Census of Population and Housing in 1990, central
districts of municipalities and cities have a population density of at least
a. 100 persons per square kilometer b. 250 persons per square kilometer c. 500 persons per square kilometer
18 d. 1,000 persons per square kilometer

Metro Manila is considered a primate city because a. It is the largest urban center o the country
b. It contains the country‟s primary central business district
19 c. It has a very large population compared to all other urban centers of the country d. It is a metropolitan center
 Per EO 72, reviews land use plan and zoning ordinance for highly urbanized cities and independent
component cities.
a. Regional Land Use Committee b. Provincial Land Use Committee
c. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
20 d. National Economic and Development Authority e. All of the above
f. None of the above

Mandated by Section 5, Article II of EO 648 to formulate land use planning guidelines and standards. a. NEDA
b. HLURB
c. LGU
d. MMDA
21 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

This principle/approach in CLUP Preparation Process discusses meaningful participation of the state, civil society, and the
private sector and promotes collaborative partnerships. a. Co- management
b. Gender responsiveness and sensitivity Inclusive, expansive governance c. Watershed as platform
22 d. All of the above
e. None of the above

In the eCLUP process, serves as physical reference for the formulation of sectoral development plans.
a. Integrated watershed management framework b. National Physical Development Plan
c. Zoning Ordinance
d. Medium term physical development plan e. All of the above
23 f. None of the above

Step 10 refers to the following enhanced CLUP Process:. I. Review of CLUP and ZO
II. Adoption of CLUP and ZO III. Approval of CLUP and ZO
IV. Implementation of CLUP and ZO
a. I, II, and IV b. II, III, and IV c. I, II, and III
d. All of the above
24 e. None of the above

Which of the following statement(s) are true:

I. Goals are more specific statement, short-range desired outcomes or results
II. Goals are broad statement of desired outcome in medium or long term
III. Objectives aims to address a general problem situation of a municipality/city as derived from the situation analysis
IV. Objectives may be viewed as subsets of a goal and therefore contribute to the attainment of a statement goal.
a. I and III b. II and III c. I and IV d. II and IV
25 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

_describes the role of state to regulate acquisition, ownership, use and disposition of property and its
increments.
a. 1987 Constitution b. RA 7160
c. RA 7279 d. EO 72
26 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

The comprehensive development plan is ideally subdivided into sectors. a. 2

b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
e. All of the above
27 f. None of the above
 covering ridge-to-reef land features serves as the vertical and horizontal platform and framework in land use
preparation and management strategies and policies. a. Watershed
b. Land Use
c. Geographical boundaries d. Political boundaries
28 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

This step in the eCLUP process discusses the formulation or enhancement of the vision statement. a. Step 1
b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
29

chairs the Provincial Land Use Committee. a. National Economic and Development Authority
b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
c. Provincial Planning and Development Coordinator d. Metro Manila Development Authority
30 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

chairs the Regional Land Use Committee. a. National Economic and Development Authority
b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
c. Provincial Planning and Development Coordinator d. Metro Manila Development Authority
31 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

are result or changes expected from a local condition or LGU level of development. It can be a series of
interventions delivered by an LGU or NGA, or activities done in a particular sector.
a. Output
b. Outcome c. Activities
32 d. Strategies
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

It is the action plan utilized by every local administration to develop and implement priority sectoral and cross sectoral
programs and projects in the proper locations.
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
33
b. Comprehensive Development Plan
c. Comprehensive Development Planning d. All of the Above

What are the two basic components of the Comprehensive Development Plan?
a. Political Component and Policy Component b. Policy Component and Social Component
34 c. Economic Component and Technical Component d. Political Component and Technical Component

Which of the following is not part of the core technical working group of the social development sectoral committee?
a) MPDO/CPDO staff b) SWDO
c) POSO d) NSO e) CSO
35

Which of the following is part of the expanded technical working group of the economic development sectoral committee?
a) Transport Organizations b) Agriculturist
c) Coop Development Officer d) LDC Rep CSO
36 e) Sanggunian Rep

Which of the following are members of the Physical/Land Use Development sectoral committee that must be there?
a) Electric Coop Representative b) Municipal Architect
c) Academe
37 d) Telecommunications Companies e) Real Estate Developers
 Which of the following is not a member of the expanded technical working group of the environmental management
sectoral committee?
a) Sanitary Inspector b) CENRO
38 c) PENRO
d) LG-ENRO
e) BFAR Representatives

LGUs shall prepare the CLUP enacted through zoning ordinances as primary bases for future use of land resources, as
stipulated in
a. Section 21(a), RA 7160 b. Section 20(c), RA 7160 c. Section 20(c), Ra 7279 d. Section 21(a), 7279
e. All of the above
39 f. None of the above

Among the steps in the enhanced CLUP Process, these may be carried out interchangeably. a. Step 1 and Step 2
b. Step 2 and Step 3 c. Step 3 and Step 4 d. Step 4 and Step 5 e. All of the above
f. None of the above
40

Which of the following is not a suggested member of a full blown institutional development sectoral committee?
a) HRDO
b) Religious Groups
41 c) Good Governance Advocates
d) Other interested groups and individuals e) LDC Rep. Brgy.

Which of the following statements is not part of preparing a comprehensive development plan?
a) Formulation of sectoral goals, objectives and targets.
b) Prioritization of sectoral programs, projects and activities c) Preparation of the local development investment program
42
d) Identification of new legislation needed to carry out the sectoral plans. e) Preparation of institutional staffing
requirements.

Which of the following statements is false?

a) A CLUP and ZO are deemed compliant when it covers the entire territorial jurisdiction of the LGU, including its waters.
b) A CDP is deemed non-compliant if it includes all the development sectors – social,
economic, environment, and institutional.
43 c) The entire CDP preparation is estimated to take at least four months and 2 weeks, assuming that the planning process is
targeted to also yield a CLUP.
d) A vision is stated in the form of an infinitive
e) A vision is a desired state or scenario of the LGU and its people.

In setting the vision of LGU, a good vision statement should posses the following characteristics except one?
a) Achievable b) Thoughtful c) Inspiring
d) Easily Understood e) Distinctive
44

Which of the following is not a descriptor for a local economy vision element?
a) Competitive b) Self-reliant c) Diversified
d) Environment friendly e) Balanced
45

A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contract out the building of an infrastructure facility to a private entity
such that the contractor build the facility on a turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks.
a. Build, transfer and operate
46 b. Build own and operate c. Build and transfer
d. Build, operate and transfer

Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called a. Indigenous people
b. Stakeholders c. Squatters
47 d. Proponent
 Which of these projects requires an EIS?
a. Gold courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares b. Drugstores and backyard piggery
48 c. Projects under Kalakalan 20 d. All of the above

It embodies what the local government intends to do to create a favorable climate for private investments through a
combination of policies and public investments to enable business and industry to flourish.
a) Social development plan
b) Economic development plan c) Institutional development plan
49 d) Environmental development plan e) Infrastructure development plan

How many sections does a sectoral development plan have?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) 8
50

The planning tool that analyzes success indicators of how much or to what extent are these desired future states are
already attained.
a) Problem Solutions Matrix b) Goals Achievement Matrix c) Vision Reality Gap Analysis d) Overlay
51 e) Visioning

The translation of an organization‟s vision into more concrete and measurable terms. Simply clearer,
they are the end toward which design or action tends. a) Sectoral Goal
b) Goals
52 c) Objectives d) Targets
e) Strategies

Which of the following is not a suggested source of development goals?

a) Universal concept of public interest b) General welfare goals
c) Regional Physical Framework Plans d) Local Chief Executive
53
e) Local Communities

Type of regulatory measure that gives encouragement or rewards for acts that are socially desirable and that help promote
the general welfare.
a) Zoning Ordinance b) Positive Regulation c) Services
54 d) Programs e) Projects

Which of the following does not define a program?

a) A cluster of projects
b) 3 to 6 year time frame
55
c) Comprises the operational components of a long term plan d) A cluster of activities
e) Specific but complex effort

The planning tool that is essentially a listing of the LGUs social and political goals, weighed according
to the local administration‟s priorities and commitments.
a) Problem Solutions Matrix b) Goals Achievement Matrix c) Vision Reality Gap Analysis d) Overlay
56 e) Visioning

How long is the process to prepare an Executive – Legislative Agenda?

a) 1 to 4 months b) 4 to 6 months c) 3 to 6 months d) 2 to 5 months
57

It is a continuous process of data collection and analysis to check whether a project running according to plan and to make
adjustments if required.
a) Monitoring b) Evaluation c) Advocacy d) Learning
58 e) Research
 aims to address a general problem situation of a municipality/city as derived from the situation analysis.
a. objectives b. sub-goal c. Goals
d. activities
e. all of the above
59 f. none of the above

a logically consistent set of individual actions, combined to create a comprehensive plan or policy
response.
a. Strategy b. Activities c. Goals
d. Objectives
60 e. All of the above
f. None of the above

APP in RA 9184 stands for

a. Annual Procurement Plan b. Annual Project Plan
c. Annual Physical Plan
61
d. Annual Plans and Programs e. None of the above

Under the IRR of RA 9184, what is one of the evaluation procedures may be used for Consulting
Services?
a. Direct Contracting b. Quality-Cost Based c. Shopping
62 d. Repeat Order
e. Limited Source Bidding

The Umbrella Organization of Consultants recognized by the GPPB. a. COFIC

b. COFILCO
c. CECOPHIL
63
d. PICPA
e. PCAB

Recognized as „father of landscape architecture,‟ he also began the „Parks and Conservation Movement‟ in the United
States which advanced the idea that city parks and greenways can structure urban space, stimulate mixed uses, dampen
class conflict, heighten family and religious values and serve as aid to social reform.
a. Frederic Law Olmstead Sr b. John Muir
64 c. Glifford Pinchot
d. George Perkins Marsh

He proposed the „neighborhood unit‟ (1929) as a self-contained „garden suburb‟ bounded by major streets, with shops at
intersections and a school in the middle; its size would be defined by school‟s catchment area with a radius of quarter mile
or 402 meters. This incorporated Garden City ideas and attempted at some kind of social engineering.
a. Clarence Perry b. Clarence Stein
65 c. Clarence Thomas d. Clarence Mckay

If „World Heritage Day‟ is marked each year on April 18, „World Biodiversity Day‟ is observed on May
22,
„World Ocean Day‟ on June 8, when is the „World Water Day‟ celebrated?
66 a. January 19 b. March 22
c. June 12
d. October 26

Which of the following is not part of the technical component of comprehensive development planning?
a) Local planning development office b) Local special bodies
c) Civil Society Organizations d) Local Finance Committee e) All of the above
67
 Which of the following statements is true about CDP?
I. The comprehensive development plan is the people‟s plan.
II. The comprehensive development plan is implemented through a local zoning ordinance. III. The comprehensive
development plan is delegated to the local development councils IV. The comprehensive development plan is implemented
through the local development implementation plan.
68 a) I and II b) I and III c) III and IV d) III only
e) None of the above

After two (2) failed biddings, the Approved Budget for the Contract (ABC) may be adjusted up to what percentage of the
ABC for the last failed bidding.
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 25%
69

Consultancy Contracts shall be awarded to the bidder with the :

a. Lowest Calculated and Responsive Bid b. Highest Rated and Responsive Bid
c. Highest Responsive Technical Proposal d. Lowest Responsive Financial Proposal e. None of the above
70

Advertisement of Request for Expression of Interest shall not be required for the procurement of Consulting
Services with duration of :
a. Four months or less b. Five months or less c. Six months or less
71 d. Seven months or less e. All of the above

What is the allowable amount of Advance Payment or Mobilization Fee for Consulting Services?
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15%
d. Any of the above
72
e. None of the above

Under the IRR of RA 9184, foreign consultants may be hired even when Filipino consultants have the expertise to render
the services.
a. Yes b. No
73 c. No such provision d. Not applicable
e. None of the above

Which of the following is part of the “Class A” documents for Consulting Services.
a. DTI Registration
b. Mayor‟s Permit
74
c. Audited Financial Statement
d. Computation of the Net Financial Contracting Capacity
e. All of the above are part of the Class “A” documents
The number of shortlisted firms shall consist of:
a. 3 to 5 Consultants b. 5 to 7 Consultants c. 3 to 7 Consultants d. 4 to 6 Consultants e. None of the above
75

Pursuant to the revised IRR of the RA 9184, posting of the Advertisement of the Invitation to bid in the newspaper of
general nationwide circulation is required for the procurement with the following ABC:
a. Above PhP3M for goods; Above PhP2M for consulting services and Above PhP5M for infrastructure projects
b. Above PhP1M for goods; Above PhP1M for consulting services and Above PhP3M for infrastructure projects
c. Above PhP2M for goods; Above PhP1M for consulting services and Above PhP5M for infrastructure projects
d. Above PhP3M for goods; Above PhP2M for consulting services and Above PhP5M for infrastructure projects
76 e. At least PhP2M for goods; At least PhP1M for consulting services and At least PhP5M for infrastructure projects
 Which of the following are examples of the modes of negotiated procurement: a. Limited Source Bidding, Emergency
Cases and Small Value Procurement b. Lease of Venue, Small Value Procurement and Agency-to-Agency
c. Limited Source Bidding, Direct Contracting and Shopping d. Repeat Order, Direct Contracting and Agency-to-Agency
77
e. None of the above

The purpose of post-qualification is to determine:

a. Highest calculated and responsive bid b. Lowest calculated and responsive bid c. Middle calculated and responsive
bid d. Highest rated bid
78
e. Lowest rated bid

The Notice of Award is approved/signed by before issuing to the winning bidder by the:
a. Bids and Awards Committee b. Head of Procuring Entity
c. End-user
79 d. BAC – Technical Working Group
e. BAC Secretariat

An activity aimed to become ready with the advertisement or posting of bid opportunities is . a. Pre-procurement
conference
b. Advertisement
80 c. Pre-bid conference d. Post-qualification
e. None of the above

Who should not be allowed to attend during the Pre-Procurement Conference?

a. End-user
b. Bids and Awards Committee (BAC) members
81
c. BAC – Technical Working Group
d. Bidders
e. BAC Secretariat
“Refers to activities connected with the management and development of land, as well as the preservation,
conservation and management of the human environment.”
a. RA 9729 b. RA 10587 c. PD 1308
82
d. PD 1096

Which of the following are some transitions in modern planning (after)? I. Bottom-up
II. Integrated
III. Process-Oriented IV. Open Participation a. I, II
b. II, IV
c. I, II, IV
83 d. I, II, III
e. None of the Above

“Whatever it takes to kill the cat.”

a. Socrates
b. Daniel Burnham c. Peter Calthorpe
84
d. Niccolo Machiavelli
e. Charles-Édouard Jeanneret-Gris

The output of the first stage activities in the preparation of a development plan. It consists of an overall growth pattern,
strategy, sectoral policies and population and employment target and forecasts.
a. Project
b. Concept Plan c. Program
85 d. Goals
e. Objectives

It is a self-contained unit of investment aimed at developing resources and facilities within a limited area within a given time
period. It deals with goods and services significant to the accomplishment of national, regional and local development
plans.
a. Project
86 b. Concept Plan c. Program
d. Goals
e. Objectives
 It is a broad, long-term ends towards which a collectivity should aim; always related to community/group situation or
organizational structure.
a. Project
87 b. Concept Plan c. Program
d. Goals
e. Objectives

It is a major school of thought in planning wherein [planning] is a State function that aims to create purposive change by
directing human behavior through a combination of persuasive and coercive strategies.
a. Planning as Social Physics b. Critical or Radical Planning
c. Planning as Social Engineering d. Systems Theory of Planning
88 e. Planning and Social Darwinism

“Plan is determined through politics; Planner acts as mediator to determine common interest.”
a. George Chadwick b. Norbert Weiner
c. Peter Calthorpe
89
d. Charles Lindbloom
e. Charles-Édouard Jeanneret-Gris

Activist/Advocacy Planning a. Daniel Burnham

b. Paul Davidoff
c. Peter Calthorpe
90
d. Charles Lindbloom e. Sir Patrick Geddes

A sphere of citizen groups, civic institutions, civic values; facilitates political and social interaction by mobilizing groups to
participate in economic, social, political activities
a. People Power b. Revolution
91 c. Forum
d. Civil Society e. Academe

“Urban and Regional Planning refers to the scientific, orderly, and aesthetic disposition of land, buildings, resources,
facilities and communication routes, in use and in development, with a view to obviating congestion and securing the
maximum practicable degree of economy, efficiency, convenience, sound environment, beauty, health and well-being in
urban and rural communities"
a. Board of Environmental Planning
92 b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners c. American Institute of Certified Planners
d. Canadian Institute of Planners
e. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board

“URP is the unified development of urban communities and their environs and of states, regions, and the nation as a whole,
as expressed through determination of the comprehensive arrangement of land uses and land occupancy and their
regulation.”
a. Board of Environmental Planning
93 b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners c. American Institute of Certified Planners
d. Canadian Institute of Planners e. American Planning Association

Which of the following is an example of a medium-term plan?

a. CLUP of San Mateo, Rizal
94 b. Philippine Development Plan
c. Local Development Investment Plan d. Resort Masterplan

Under what Article of the 1987 Philippine Constitution stipulates that the protection and advancement of the right of the
people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accord with the rhythm and harmony of nature
95
a. Article I b. Article II c. Article III d. Article IV e. Article V

The topography of the forest land not allowed for pasture purposes, as stipulated in Revised Forestry
Code
96
a. 50% slope and above b. 18% and above c. 50% and below d. 50% and below e. None of the
Above
 This plan may include proposals for the redevelopment of old and declining sections of the locality opening up new
settlement areas or development of new growth centers in conformity with the chosen spatial strategy.
a) Institutional development plan
b) Comprehensive development plan c) Infrastructure development plan
97 d) Social development plan
e) Economic development plan

It embodies programs for maintaining cleanliness of air, water, and land resources and rehabilitating or preserving the
quality of natural resources to enable them to support the requirements of economic development and ecological balance
across generations.
a) Social development plan
98 b) Economic development plan c) Institutional development plan
d) Environmental development plan e) Infrastructure development plan

Executive Order No. 26 series of 2011 required the planting of million trees a. 1.0
b. 1.5 c. 2.0 d. 2.5 e. 3.0
99

It is the classification and administration of all designated protected areas to maintain essential ecological processes and
life-support systems, to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure sustainable use of resources found therein, and to maintain
their natural conditions to the greatest extent possible
100
a. Protected Area b. National Park c. NIPAS d. Natural Park e. Strict Nature Reserve

Engr. Juanito C. Ricohermoso, CE, EnP, ASEAN Eng.

3.00%
 Put Your Remarks /
Answer Here Correct Answer

c Correct

c Correct

b Correct
Total
Score: 3