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Gynecology

1.Which is true about oedema of preeclmpsia?


// it has no diagnostic value
///it is because of increased aldosterone level
///it worsens the prognosis of preeclampsia
///it is because of increased DOC
2.What is the most common complication of eclampsia?
// abruption
///aspiration pneumonia
///pulmonary edema
///direct maternal mortality
3.Which is wrong about superimposed preeclampsia?
/// it occurs earlier in pregnancy and most often is accompanied by IUGR
// BP changes remain through life
/// some women have increased BP after 24 weeks gestation
*/// above 90% of them have a history of essential HTN
4.Which drug has the complication of tachycardia?
/// methyl dopa
/// propranolol
/// nifedipine
// hydralazine
5.which is the most common reason of DIC in Obstetrics?
/// IUFD
// abruption
/// embolism
/// septic shock
6.Which is wrong about prolonged gestation?
/// placental apoptosis increases from 41-42
weeks gestation
/// umbilical cord erythropoietin increases from 41 weeks
// Late deceleration is the most common finding in prolonged gestational age
/// lack of vernix causes skin changes of post maturity
7.In the second stage of labor ,you notice a persistent fetal heart rate bradycardia of 110 bpm.
What is your management?
/// left lateral position, fetal monitoring
/// detecting fetal blood PH
/// intervention is needed
// It is a normal event in this stage . No further step is needed.

Module 6.postterm pregnancy


8.A patient comes to the clinic because of fever 4 days after C/S which persists 72 hours from
antibiotic administration. What is the most likely reason of antibiotic failure?
// wound infection
/// pelvic thrombophlebitis
/// pyelonephritis
/// adenexal infection
9. Which is wrong about fever after delivery?
/// fever more than 39 c in the first 24 hours after delivery is a sign of severe infection
/// fever in bacterial mastitis usually is late and persistent
/// pulmonary infection usually occurs in the first 24 hours mostly after C/S
// pyelonephritis is one of the most common reason of infection and is most often mistaken for
pelvic infection
10. What is McRoberts maneuver to release shoulder dystocia?
/// rotation of post. shoulder to deliver ant. shoulder
/// abduction of shoulders
// flex of mother’s knees and suprapubic pressure
///rotation and extraction of ant. Shoulder
11. What is Robin maneuver to release shoulder dystocia?
/// rotation of post. shoulder to deliver ant. shoulder
// abduction of shoulders
/// flex of mother’s knees and suprapubic pressure
/// rotation and extraction of ant. Should
12.What is Woods screw maneuver to release shoulder dystocia?
// rotation of post. shoulder to deliver ant. shoulder
/// abduction of shoulders
/// flex of mother’s knees and suprapubic pressure
/// rotation and extraction of ant. Should
13. Signs of Placental separation after delivery include:
/// Bleeding.
/// Changes of uterine shape from discoid to globular.
/// Lengthening of the umbilical cord.
/// Presentation of the placenta at the cervical os.
// All of the above.
14. The relation of the fetal parts to one another determines:
/// Presentation of the fetus.
/// Lie of the fetus.
// Attitude of the fetus.
/// Position of the fetus.
15.The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother is called:
// Lie.
/// Presentation.
/// Position.
/// Attitude.
16. Engagement is strictly defined as:
/// When the presenting part goes through the pelvic inlet.
/// When the presenting part is level with the ischial spines.
// When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic
inlet.
//When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head is at the level of
ischial spines.
17. Methods of determining fetal presentation & position include:
/// Cullen's sign.
// Leopold's maneuver.
/// Careful history taking.
/// all of the above.
18. The first stage of labor :
/// Separation of the placenta.
/// Effacement of the cervix.
/// Expulsion of the placenta.
// Ends with fully Dilation of the cervix.
19. The heart rate of a normal fetus at term:
/// 80-100 bpm.
/// 100-120 bpm.
// 120-160 bpm.
/// 160-180 bpm.
20. Repetitive late decelerations most commonly indicate:
/// Fetal academia.
// Fetal distress.
/// maternal sedation.
/// Rapid cervical dilation
21. Bishop score includes all the followings exept:
/// Dilation of the cervix.
/// Position of the cervix.
// The presenting part of the fetus.
/// Length of the cervix.
22. Sure sign of pregnancy is:
/// Amenorrhea
/// Hegar's sign
/// Nausea and vomiting
*/// Auscultation of fetal heart
23. The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy except:
/// Backache due to an increased lumbar lordosis.
/// Lower abdominal pain and groin pain due to stretch of round ligaments.
// Visual disturbance.
/// Increased vaginal discharge.
24.The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1ST
trimester:
/// Placenta.
*/// Corpus luteum.
/// Corpus albicans.
/// Endometrium.
25.Ultrasound examination used for:
/// Fetal weight.
/// Presence of multiple gestation.
/// Placental position.
// All of the above.
26. Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may
help to protect neural tube defects?
/// Vitamin B6.
/// Iron.
*/// Folic acid.
/// Magnesium
27. Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amount during
pregnancy?
*/// Iron.
/// Folic acid.
/// Protein.
/// Calcium.
/// All of the above.
28. Often, an increase in vaginal discharge may be noted during pregnancy, It may be:
/// Bacterial.
/// Caused by Candidosis.
/// Physiological.
*/// All of the above.
29. The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy
uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation except:
/// Symphysis-fundal height.
/// blood pressure.
/// Maternal BMI
*/// Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity.
/// Listening to the fetal heart.
30. Probable sign of pregnancy include:
*/// Detection of fetal movement.
/// Enlargement of the abdomen.
/// Lower abdominal cramps.
/// Nausea in the morning
31.The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:
*/// Hegar's sign.
/// Chadwick's sign.
/// Braxton Hick's contraction
///Cullen's sign
32. Components of biophysical profile include all of the following, except:
/// Fetal movement
*/// Placental thickness
/// Fetal tone
/// Fetal breathing movement
/// Amniotic fluid volume assessment
33. Fetal assessment include the following except:
/// Fetal biophysical profile.
/// Fetal Doppler velocimetry.
/// Fetal biometry
/// Fetal CTG
// Fetal blood sugar sample
34. Patients with high risk pregnancy should have:
*/// ultrasound
/// Fetal CTG
/// amnocentesis
/// Fetal biophysical profile.
35. A biophysical profile includes all of the following assessment parameters except:
/// Fetal movement.
*/// Fetal weight.
/// Fetal breathing movements.
/// Amniotic fluid volume.
36. RH incompatibility :
/// Occurs when the mother is Rh+
/// Occurs when the father is RH+.
// Occurs when the fetus is Rh +ve
/// Antibodies are formed against maternal RBCs
37.Rh isoimmunization Anti rh immunoglobulin should be given:
/// After every abortion occurring more than 8 weeks gestation
*/// To all Rh negative females who have an Rh positive baby
/// Postpartum only to Rh negative mothers who are sensitized
/// Postpartum to Rh positive mothers with 1st delivery
38.RH incompatibility occurs with :
/// Rh –ve father & Rh+ve mother
/// Rh –ve mother & Rh –ve father
*/// Rh –ve mother & Rh +ve father
/// Rh +ve mother & Rh +ve father
39. In ABO incompatibility :
/// The mother has to be blood group AB
/// It doesn't protect against RH disease
// It is an antigen antibody reaction
/// Erythroblastosis
40. In Abruption placenta: Which is true?
/// It is bleeding from abnormally situated placenta
/// Causes painless bleeding
*/// Can be a cause of DIC
/// All should deliver by caesarean section
41. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) :
/// Can be managed by leukocyte transfusion
/// Can cause decrease fibrinogen degeneration products
/// Can cause decrease PT , PTT
*/// Can be encountered in case of IUFD
42.Prolapse of umbilical cord:
/// Not an indication for caesarean section
/// Incidence is 5%
// is one of the complications of amniotomy
/// Causes severe respiratory distress
43. The best uterine scar a patient can have for Caesarian section is
/// Transverse upper segment
/// Longitudinal upper segment
// Transverse lower segment
/// Longitudinal lower segment
44. Indications for instrumental delivery include all the followings except:
/// Prolonged second stage of labor.
/// Fetal distress.
// Transverse lie.
/// Maternal cardial disease.
45. Vacuum extraction (ventouse):
///Can be used when the cervix is 7 cm dilated.
/// Can be applied when the fetal head is engaged
// Can cause Cephalohematoma to the newborn
/// Can be used in face presentation.
46. Which one of these conditions is an absolute indication for C/S :
/// Twin pregnancy
/// Breech presentation
/// IUGR
// Major degree placenta previa
47. Advantage of lower segment caesarean section over the classic incision
includes:
/// Ease of repair
/// Decreases blood loss
/// Lower probability of subsequent uterine rupture
// All of the above
48. Indication for cesarean section include all of the following except:
/// Previous caesarean section
/// Cervical incompetence
/// Cord prolapse
// Primigravida.
49. Which of the following neonatal morbidities is not related to forceps delivery
// Sepsis
/// Nerve palsies
/// Cephalohematoma
/// Convulsion
50. Epidural nerve block in labor:
/// Involves the injection of an anesthetic agent into the subarachnoid space.
/// Causes transient hypertension.
// Increases the length of the 2 stage of labor.
/// Is contraindicated if the patient is on anti-coagulants.
51.The following are absolute indication for C-section except:
/// Face presentation.
/// Cervical cancer.
/// Fibroids in the lower uterine segment.
// Previous C-section.
51. In cases with premature rupture of membranes, all the following are
acceptable in the conservative management except:
// Frequent vaginal examination to assess cervical dilatation
/// Close monitoring of maternal vital signs
/// Ultrasound to assess fetal weight and amount of liquor
/// Monitoring of the fetus
52. The following has a recognized relation with spontaneous preterm labor:
/// Oligohydromnios
/// Maternal hypothyroidism
// Bacterial Vaginosis
/// Transverse lie of the fetus
53. Early signs of premature labor include all of following except:
/// Increased vaginal discharge
/// Increased uterine contraction
/// Low back pain
// Cervical dilatation to 4 cm
54. The most serious complication of preterm premature rupture of membrane
(PPROM)
/// Fetal distress
// Intrauterine infection.
/// Abruption placenta.
///all of the above

55. The following are causes for premature labor except:


/// Multiple pregnancy
// Multiparity
/// Premature preterm rupture of the membrane
/// Cervical incompetence
56. Rupture of membranes is suspected with all of the followings except:
/// Positive Nitrazine test.
/// Pooling of amniotic fluid on speculum examination.
/// Observing amniotic fluid drain through the cervix during speculum
examination.
// Contractions seen on the CTG.
57. In cases of premature rupture of membrane, all the following is acceptable in
conservative management, except:
/// Closed monitoring of maternal vital signs.
// Frequent vaginal examination to asses cervical dilation.
/// to asses fetal weight and the amount of liquor.
/// Monitoring of fetus by cardiogram
58. A premature birth has been defined as:
// Before 37 completed weeks' gestation.
/// Prior to the period of viability
/// Weighing less than 2500g.
/// None of the above.
59. Preterm labor is defined as labor which starts
// Before 37 completed weeks.
/// Before the viability of the fetus.
/// When the fetus weighing < 1000 gm.
/// Prior to 40 weeks gestation.
60. Premature rupture of membrane is defined as rupture at any time
prior to
/// The 2ND stage of labor.
/// The 32 weeks of gestation.
// The onset of labor.
/// The 38 weeks of gestation
61. Premature rupture of membrane is :
// Rupture of membranes before the onset of labor.
/// Rupture of membranes before fetal lung maturity.
/// Rupture of membranes before term.
/// Rupture of membranes before 28 weeks gestation
62. Dexamethasone is indicated in which of the following condition :
// Premature labor to prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
/// Spontaneous rupture of membrane at 39 week
/// abruption placenta
/// Threatened abortion
63. All these tests can be useful in management of intrauterine fetal growth
restriction (IUGR) except:
/// Cardiotocography CTG non stress test
// Chorionic villous sampling
/// Biophysical profile
/// Umbilical cord Doppler waveforms
64.The definition of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR):
// Infant with birth weight below 10th percentile for a give gestation age
/// Infant with birth weight below 25th percentile for a given gestation age
/// Infant with birth weight of 2.8 kg
/// Infant born at 30 weeks of gestation with a weight of 2.3 kg
65. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include all the followings except:
/// Maternal obesity.
/// Macrosomia.
/// Prolonged second stage of labor.
// IUGR.
66.IUGR may occur in all of the following EXCEPT:
/// Pre-eclampsia.
/// Congenital anomaly.
// Gestational diabetes mellitus.
/// Maternal smoking.
67. Which of the following is an indication for induction of labor:
/// Placenta previa.
// Post-term gestation.
/// Prior C-section.
/// Active genital herpes
68.Which is a contraindication of induction of labor
// previous caesarian section
/// Gestational diabetes at 39 weeks
/// Post term pregnancy
/// Chorioamnionitis
70. Complications of amniotomy include all the following, except :
Abruptio placenta.
Fetal distress.
Meconium aspiration.
Cord prolapse.
71. what is the most common complication for amniotomy ;
Abruptio placenta.
Fetal distress.
Uterine hyper contractivity
//Cord prolapse
72.. A contraindication to the use of Oxytocin for stimulating labor at term is:
Dead fetus.
Hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
Twin gestation.
//Prior history of the uterine surgery.
73. Which of the following is contraindicated for delivery using Vacuum extraction?
//Face presentation
///38 weeks gestation
///Chorioamnionitis
///Post-term pregnancy
74. Oxytocin in the Puerperium is associated with:
//Involution of the uterus
///Initiation of lactation
///Resumption of menses
///Sub-involution of the uterus
75. Which of the following is the most likely causes of a fever in a woman on the second day
postpartum:
///Pneumonia
//Endometritis.
///Mastitis
///Cholycyst
76. The most common bacteria isolated from cases of puerperal infection is:
///E.coli.
//Anaerobic streptococcus.
///staphylococcus aureus
///Clostridium perfringens.
77. Risk factors of post-partum Endometritis include all of the following, except:
///Prolonged labor
///Prolonged rupture of membranes
///Multiple vaginal exams
//Gestational diabetes
78. myoma of the uterus:
///Is pre malignant tumor
//Estrogen dependent tumor
///Can be associated with endometriosis
///Can cause postpartum hemorrhage
79. These are possible symptoms caused by fibroids except:
///Pelvic pain.
///Pressure symptoms.
//Deep vein thrombosis.
///Irregular vaginal bleeding
80. The drug of choice to prevent convulsions in eclampsia is:
//Magnesium Sulfate.
///Hydralazine.
///Labetalol.
///nifedipine
81.The terminology of pelvic inflammatory diseases indicates:
///Infection of the vagina.
///Infection of Bartholin's glands
///Infection of the urinary tract
//Endometritis and salpingo-oophoritis
82. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in:
///Vertex presentation.
///Face presentation.
///brow presentation.
//Breech presentation.
///distocia
83. Causes of IUGR include all the followings except:
///Constitutional small fetus
///Fetal urinary tract anomalies
//Premature rupture of membranes.
///Placental insufficiency
84. Which is a contraindication of induction of labor
//History of upper segment caesarian section
///Gestational diabetes in pregnancy
///Post term pregnancy
///Chorioamnionitis
85. The most common feature associated with diabetes is:
//macrosomia
///Neural tube defect.
///Renal pathologies
///glaucoma.
86. Patient complaining of heavy menstrual bleeding what the diagnosis:
///endometriosis
///fibroid
//ovarian cyst
///cervical polyp
odule 16.uterine myoma.
87. All the following are possible causes of menorrhagia, except
///Uterine fibroid
//endometriosis
///Pelvic inflammatory disease
///Combine oral contraceptive pills
88. At which gestational age we can detect the first fetal heart rate
///12
//6
///17
///18
89. Breast feeding:
Should be discontinued if breast infection is suspected
Should be started immediately in normal cases
fasciliates involution of uterus
Contain adequate of iron and minerals
90. The second stage of labor involve:
///Separation of placenta
///Effacement of the cervix
///Expulsion of placenta
//Expulsion of the fetus
91. Bishop score include all except:
///Station of fetal head
///Cervical effacement
///Cervical dilatation
//Cervical length
92. Abruption placenta:
///It is bleeding from abnormally situated placenta
///Causes painless bleeding
///Can be a cause of post partum hemorrhage
//deliver by caesarean section
93. Intra uterine contraceptive device (IUCD)
///Reduces pelvic inflammatory disease
///Inhibits ovulation
///Increases incidence of bleeding
//there is increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
94.Causes of first trimester abortion
* Chromosomal abnormalities
Cervical incompetence
Bicornuate uterus
Gestational hypertension
95. The following are always indications for Caesarean Section
Abruptio placentae
Postterm Labor
* Active primary genital herpes
Severe pre-eclampsea
96. Gestational diabetes is associated with an increase risk of all the following:
Cesarean section
Shoulder dystocia
* Fetal macrosomia
Intrauterine growth restriction
97. The best screening test for gestational diabetes
Random blood sugar
Glucose challenging test
* Glucose tolerance test
Blood sugar series
98. Pre-eclampsia is associated with an increase risk of all of the following except:
Delivery of a small for gestational age infant
Placental abruption
Pulmonary edema
*Prolonged duration of labor
99. The volume of amniotic fluid:
Is closely related to the fetal crown-rump length in the 3rd trimester of
Pregnancy
*can be diagnosed by Ultrasound
Is reduced in sever rhesus disease
Increases following amniocentesis
100. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is:
* History of pelvic inflammatory disease
Congenital anomalies of the tube
Endometriosis
Tubal surgery
101. An absolute indication foe an elective C-section is:
Previous CS.
hemorrhage.
Twin pregnancy.
*Placenta previa totalis
module 2. IUGR and Rhesus incompatibility in pregnancy
GYN:-after 20 weeks of gestation for assessment of fetal development is used all measurements
except:
head circumference
*crown rump length
abdominal circumference
femur length
GYN:-The diagnoses of fetal intrauterine growth restriction is made if
fetal crown rump length is longer than expected
*fetal gestational weight is less than 10 percentile for corresponding gestational age
there is signs of preterm delivery
fetal femur length is shorter than expected
GYN:-In case of diagnosed IUGR, monitoring of fetal wellbeing should be done with all listed
methods, except
biophysical profile
*fetal heart rate monitoring with stethoscope
nonstress test
Dopplerography of blood flow in umbilical arteries
GYN:-Parameters for Biophysical profile are all listed, except:
amniotic fluid amount
fetal tone
fetal activity
//thickness of the placenta
nonstress test

GYN:-25year old first time pregnant women was diagnosed IUGR at 30 gestational weeks, she is
smoker and smokes 8 cigarettes a day, most effective treatment recommendation for her will be
bed rest
transfusion of glucose
//cessation of smoking
calcium channel blockers

GYN:-signs of erythroblastos is fetalis is


fetal anemia
fetal hyperbilirubinemia
fetal tissue hypoxia and acidosis
//all of the above
GYN:-which statement is correct about amniocentesis
spontaneous abortion risk is 15%
//is contraindicated before 15weeks
has increased risk of limb reduction syndrome
is done under general anesthesia

GYN:- which statement is correct about cordocentesis


fetal demise risk is 20%
//antibiotics should be given prior to procedure
amniocentesis carries more risk for fetal demise than cordocentesis
is done under regional anesthesia

GYN:-the best time of Rh Izoimmunization prophylaxis in pregnancy is


72 hours prior to delivery
//at 28-34 weeks
at 20-24 weeks
uring pregnancy Rh Izoimmunization prophylaxis is not recommended
Module 3. Hypertension in pregnancy
GYN:-34 years old women was checked at antenatal consultation at 15weeks. Her blood pressure
is 145/95mmHg. urine is negative for protein. She has family history of arterial hypertension.
The most probable diagnoses of this patient is
///mild preeclampsia
///severe preeclampsia
//chronic hypertension
///pregnancy-induced hypertension
GYN:-Which of the following statements is not correct about preeclampsia
///incidence is about 3% of pregnancies
///perinatal mortality is increased 5-fold
///stillbirth rate is increased 9.6 fold
/// risk of preterm birth stays unchanged
GYN:-In case of preeclampsia all organs are involved except
//thyroid gland
///kidney
///heart
///central nervous system
GYN:-33 weeks pregnant women developed increased blood pressure 160/100mmHg, severe
headache, decreased thrombocyte levels less than 100 000, the most probable working diagnoses
is
///pregnancy induced hypertension
///chronic hypertension
///mild preeclampsia
//severe preeclampsia
GYN:-In case of severe preeclampsia amount of protein loss in 24 hour urine is
///0.3g/L
///0.9g/L
///1.5g/L
//more than 3g/L
GYN:-For prevention of preeclampsia in pregnant women with history of preeclampsia is used
//Aspirin
///bed rest
///intravenous saline infusion
///usual monitoring of pregnancy

GYN:-25 years old women was admitted to obstetric department with increased blood pressure
up to 150/95mmHg. She has no previous history of blood pressure elevations. Urine is negative
for protein. The most probable diagnoses of this patient is
mild preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
chronic hypertension
pregnancy-induced hypertension

GYN:-The treatment of preeclampsia includes all, except


nifedipine
methyldopa
beta-mimetics
hydralazine

GYN:-What is most effective treatment for preeclampsia?


bed rest
delivery
nifedipine
aspirin

GYN:-Which of the following is complication of HELLP syndrome


//placental abruption
//acute kidney failure
//retinal detachment
//all the above

GYN:-37 years old women entered into obstetric department with severe headache, loss of
vision, seizures, blood pressure on examination 180/110mmHg. What is the drug of choice for
the patient?
//nifedipine
//magnesium sulfate
//methyldopa
//hydralazine

GYN:-Which symptom does not belong to HELLP Syndrome?


//elevated liver enzymes
//thrombocytopenia
//thrombocytosis
//hemolysis

GYN:-Laboratory tests in case of HELLP Syndrome includes


//Prolactin
//AST, lactate dehydrogenase, Bilirubin
//Creatinin, free thyroxin
//HCG, alpha fetoprotein

GYN:-35years old primigravida came to the clinic at her 38 weeks of gestation, on examination
her blood pressure is 145/92mmHg, she has pitting edema and proteinuria +1. What is the most
appropriate treatment at this time?
//Send her at home till contractions begin
//magnesium sulfate
//fetal monitoring and IV fluids
//bed rest and diuretics

Module 4 Extra genital disorders in pregnancy

GYN:-What is correct about glucose metabolism in pregnancy


//storage of tissue glycogen is decreased
//peripheral glucose utilization is decreased
//hepatic glucose production is decreased

GYN:- The diagnoses of Diabetes Mellitus is made when glucose concentration is


//fasting glucose 5.5mmol/L
//fasting glucose 6.5mmol/L
//fasting glucose ≥7.8mmol/L

GYN:-Predisposing factor for gestational diabetes is


//decreased calorie consumption
//preterm delivery in history
//decreased physical activity
//smoking

GYN:-Risk factors for gestational diabetes include all, except


//BMI≥30
//Ethnicity
//maternal birth weight ≥4100g
//presence of placenta previa

GYN:-Which of the following is complication of diabetes mellitus in pregnancy?


//oligohydramnios
//fetal birth trauma
//Intra uterine growth restriction
//placenta previa

GYN:-The hour glucose challenge test should be no high than


//120
//130
//135
//140

GYN:-when it is better to perform screening for gestational diabetes


//At first prenatal visit in first trimester
//between 15-19 weeks
//between 20-23 weeks
//between 24-28 weeks

GYN:-which lab test is used additionally for monitoring of gestational diabetes


//serum glucose concentration at bedtime
//glycosylated hemoglobin concentration
//fasting prolactin
//AST, ALT

GYN:-At 25 weeks of pregnancy fundal height is 31cm, obstetric ultrasound revealed increased
amount of amniotic fluid. Which of the following maternal conditions does this patient most
likely has
//Asthma
//Diabetes mellitus
//Seizure disorder
//Sickle cell anemia

GYN:-Treatment of gestational diabetes includes


//exercise and diet
//human insulin
//oral anti-hyperglycemic agents
//all of the above

GYN:-Decreased GI motility during pregnancy is related to increased levels of


//progesterone
//HCG
//estrogen
//prolactin

GYN:-what is correct statement about management of pregnant women with gestational diabetes
during labor and delivery
//it is recommended to do cesarean section in case of fetal weight more than 4500g
//glucose monitoring should be done in every 8 hours during labor and delivery
//induction of labor should be done at 37 weeks of gestation in case of large for gestational
weight fetus

GYN:-During assessment of pregnant women in relation to thyroid gland following changes can
be seen
//thyroid gland metabolic activity decreases by 40%
// synthesis of thyroid binding globulins is increased
//sizes of thyroid gland decreases by20%
//all of the above

GYN:-which statement is correct about hyperthyroidism


//Iodine deficiency is most common reason of hyperthyroidism
//mainly develops in women population in their 40-60
//hyperthyroidism in pregnancy can cause preeclampsia and heart failure
//there is increased concentration of TSH
GYN:-22 years old, 5 weeks pregnant women came for first prenatal checkup, complaining
increased fatigue, weight gain, nail fragility, hair loss and constipation. Which of the following
will be the most probable diagnoses?
//diabetes mellitus
//hyperthyroidism
//hypothyroidism
//diabetes insipidus

GYN:- cardiovascular changes in pregnancy includes all the following, except


//circulating blood volume is increased by 30-50%
//Hemoglobin and hematocrit decreases
//blood viscosity is increased
//ejection fraction is increased by 30-50%

Module 5. Preterm Labor

GYN:-18years old women with BMI<18, get pregnant with twins. Her previous pregnancy ended
up with preterm labor at 25 weeks two years ago. She has high risk of developing
//hyperthyroidism
//preterm labor
//gestational diabetes
//preeclampsia

GYN:-the most common risk factor for preterm labor is


//cervical incompetence
//multiple pregnancy
//preterm premature rupture of membranes
//history of preterm birth

GYN:-the most effective and cheap method of diagnosis of preterm delivery is


//checking cervical length with MRI
//checking cervical lengths with ultrasound through vaginal approach
//checking cervix under the speculum
//Leopold’s manures

GYN:-Which of the following is not indicated in preterm labor


//betamethasone
//nifedipine
//magnesium sulfate
//Phenobarbital
(all given drugs are used in preterm labour)

GYN:-29y old women gravida 7, para 0 is in her 14th week of pregnancy. She has lost three
consecutive normally formed fetuses before 20week’s gestation and she had 3 spontaneous first
trimester abortions. On examination her cervix is 0.5cm long. Which of the following is best
treatment:
//cetrvical cerclage
//nifedipine
//Magnesium sulfate infusion
//human chorionis gonadotropin injections

GYN:-When diagnose of very low birth weight fetus is made?


//if fetus weights less than 2500g
//if fetus weights less than 2000g
//if fetus weights less than 1500g
//if fetus weights less than 1000g

GYN:-30 weeks pregnant women presented to obstetric department with menstrual like cramps,
low back pain, pressure sensation in the vaginum. the most probable diagnoses will be
//placental abruption
//apendicities
//Urinary tract infection
//preterm labor

GYN:- corticosteroids are used in women with risk of preterm birth because they
//are effective in lengthening the cervix
//are decreasing risk of respiratory distress syndrome in newborn
//are increasing risk of infection in neonates and are used with simultaneous antibiotics
//will not affects neonatal mortality

Module 6. post term pregnancy

GYN:-risk factors for post term pregnancy are all the following, except
//increased parity
//polyhydramnios
//increased maternal age
//prior post term birth

GYN:-34years old women enters to labor ward at 42 completed weeks. Which risk factors should
be taken into account during management of postterm pregnancy
//increased risk of necrotizing enterocolitis
//increased risk of fetal distress
//increased risk of fetal respiratory distress syndrome
//risk of probable polyhydramnios

GYN:-which finding is not carracteristisc for postmaturity syndrome


//overgrown nails
//presence of vernix caseosa all over the body
//reduced subcutaneous tissue
//a lot of hair on their head

GYN:-prior classic uterine incision is


//indication for induction of labor
//contraindication for induction of labor
//risk factor for preterm labor in future pregnancies
//risk factor for spontaneous abortion in future pregnancies

GYN:-which of the following is correct about induction of labor


//amniotomy should be performed 1 hour after oxytocin induction
//amniotomy will not affect risk of bleeding
//prostaglandins can be introduced intravaginally as well as through the cervix
//membrane stripping is effective method in case of low bishop score

GYN:-contraindication for labor induction is


//invasive cancer of cervix
//breast cancer diagnosed in pregnancy
//active labial herpes
//chronic hepatitis B

Module 7 Bleeding during pregnancy

GYN:-on 13 weeks ultrasound was found that internal cervical os is partially covered by
placenta. What is the type of placenta previa?
//total
//partial
//marginal
//low lying

GYN:-33y old women entered to the obstetric unit with painless vaginal bleeding. the bleeding
began 2 hours ago with significant amount of blood and clots. She is having no uterine
contractions. The fetal heart rate is 150bpm. Her previous pregnancy ended up with cesarean
section because of breech presentation. Which of the following is best working diagnoses?
//placenta previa
//abruption placenta
//uterine rupture
//bloody show

GYN:-Fetal blood loss occurs during


//abruption placenta
//placenta previa
//vasa previa

GYN:-risk factors for developing of placenta previa is


//hypertension
//bleeding in early stages of pregnancy
//prior cesarean section
//prior preterm delivery

GYN:-vaginal exam is contraindicated in case of diagnosed


//abruption placenta
//cervical cancer
//cervical polyp
//placenta previa

GYN:-abruption placenta can develop as a result of


//preeclampsia, eclampsia
//post term pregnancy
//preterm delivery
//subserosal uterine leiomyoma

GYN:-A 36weeks pregnant woman was admitted to obstetric department with bleeding from the
vagina, pain at the lower back. Fetal heart rate is 110bpm. On physical exam her blood pressure
is 140/90mmHg.What will be the best treatment for the patient
//Nifedipine and fluid transfusion
//magnesium sulfate
//cesarean section
//waiting management

Module 8 Postpartum hemorrhage

GYN:-The diagnoses of postpartum hemorrhage is made when there is


//blood loss more than 500ml after vaginal delivery or more than 1000ml following cesarean
section
//decrease of hematocrit concentration 10% or more compared to prior deliver levels
//any no compensated blood loss linked to symptoms of hypovolemia
//all of the above

GYN:-Early Postpartum hemorrhage is called when bleeding occurs


//during delivery
//after first 24 hours
//from 24 hours to 72 hours
//all of the above
(early PPH is when bleeding occurs in first 24 hrs after delivery. But there is no option)

GYN:-In case of Postpartum hemorrhage amount of blood loss can be evaluated by


//gravimetric methods
//level of hemoglobin
//assessing the vital signs
//red blood cell count

GYN:-Which statement about postpartum bleeding is not correct?


//can be seen after delivery or cesarean section
//is one of the most common causes of maternal mortality
//risk of PPH is not linked to fetal weight
//is an emergency condition

GYN:-Risk factor for Postpartum hemorrhage is


//oligohydramnios
//prolonged labor and delivery
//fetal Down syndrome
//breech presentation

GYN:- Postpartum hemorrhage preventive measures include


//passive management of third stage of labor
//active management of third stage of labor
//delay of umbilical cord clamping after 1 minute
//injection of 10 units of oxytocin after 15 minutes of delivery

GYN:-Reasons of Postpartum hemorrhage (4T) are all except


//Trauma
//Traction
//Tonus
//Tissue

GYN:-Risk factors of uterine atony in case of Postpartum hemorrhage are


//cervical lacerations
//maternal hypothyroidism
//lithotomic position during delivery
//uterine distention

GYN:-What is true about Postpartum hemorrhage due to cervical lacerations


//bleeding is intermittent
//begins 4hours after baby is born
//uterus is firm, well contracted
//color of blood is brawny
GYN:-20 years old women develops excessive vaginal bleeding one hour after spontaneous
delivery o a 4400g infant from third delivery. Which of the following is the most likely
explanation for her postpartum hemorrhage?
//retained placental tissue
//uterine inversion
//uterine atony
//coagulation disorder

GYN:-Which is correct statement about uterine rupture


//usually is painless
//there is intermittent bleeding
//bleeding usually continues after use of uterotonics
//on ultrasound there is no blood visible in abdominal cavity

///In case of placenta increta


//chorionic villi penetrate into the myometrium
// chorionic villi penetrate through the myometrium to the uterine serosa
// chorionic villi are tightly adjacent to the endometrium

GYN:- First degree perineal lacerations include


//laceration of cervix
//laceration of perineum and lower third of vagina
//laceration of anal sphincter
//laceration of levator ani muscles
GYN:-Postpartum hemorrhage is most commonly caused by
//cervical laceration
//retained placenta
//uterine atony

//perineal laceration

GYN:-What is correct about retaining of placental tissue into the uterus


// bleeding is intermittent
//can be caused by inappropriate management of third stage of labor
//can be caused by active management of third stage of labor
//needs no immediate intervention

Module 9 infections in pregnancy

GYN:-maternal urinary tract infections most likely can cause


//post term pregnancy
//increased blood pressure
//gestational diabetes
//chorioamnionitis

GYN:-A 14 weeks pregnant women was diagnosed asymptomatic bacteriuria. Which of the
following is true related to the condition
//patient should be treated in the hospital
//for the best results partners should be also treated
//30%of pregnant women can develop pyelonephritis
Module 9 Labor Dystocia

GYN:-Mc roberts maneuver is used in the management of what obstetrical complication?


//preterm labor
//shoulder dystocia
//breech presentation
//PROM

GYN:-18 y old primigravida was admitted to labor and delivery after complaining of strong
contractions for 2 days. On initial exam she was noted to have 1 cm cervical dilatation, 24 hours
later she was 2cm dilated, what is your diagnoses
//protracted dilation
//cephalo-pelvic disproportion
//prolonged latent phase
//arrested second stage

GYN:-Outlet forceps during delivery should be used when


//the fetal head is engaged and the leading point is high in the pelvis
//the fetal skull is at perineal floor and scalp is visible
//there is a complete breech presentation

Obstetrics

OBS:- The word obstetrics is derived from Latin term obstetrix, which means which of the
following?
\\ midwife
\\ deliverer
\\ attendant
\\ surgeon

OBS:- Which of one of the following corresponds to the perinatal period?


\\ 22 to 28 weeks gestation
\\ 22 to 34 weeks gestation
\\ 20 to 40 weeks gestation
\\ 20 weeks to 4 weeks postpartum

OBS:- What is the upper gestational age cutoff for defining the birth of a preterm infant?
\\ 29 weeks
\\ 33 weeks
\\ 35 weeks
\\ 37 weeks

OBS:- How is an infant classified that is born between 260 and 294 days of gestation?
\\ preterm infant
\\ term infant
\\ postterm infant
\\ postmature infant

OBS:- What is the single most common cause of maternal mortality?


\\ embolism
\\ hypertension
\\ hemorrhage
\\ ectopic pregnancy
OBS:- What is the single most common cause of neonatal death?
\\ low birthweight
\\ congenital anomalies
\\ infection
\\ perinatal asphyxia

OBS:- How long after fertilization does it take for the zygote to reach the uterine cavity?
\\ 1 to 2 days
\\ 3 to 4 days
\\ 5 to 6 days
\\ 7 days

OBS:- What hormone is responsible for maintenance of the corpus luteum if implantation of the
fertilized ovum takes place?
\\ estrogen
\\ progesterone
\\ hCG
\\ hPL

OBS:- Which of the following isn’t a presumptive symptom of pregnancy?


\\ nausea
\\ fatigue
\\ urinary frequency
\\ constipation

OBS:- Which of the following is not considered a probable sign of pregnancy?


\\ enlargement of the abdomen
\\ changes in shape, size, and consistency of uterus
\\ cessation of menses
\\ ballottement

OBS:- The clitoris is the homologue of which of the following structure?


\\ penis
\\ scrotum
\\ gubernaculum testis
\\ corpora cavernosa

OBS:- What is the principal erogenous organ or area of women?


\\ vagina
\\ clitoris
\\ labia minora
\\ G-spot

OBS:- Which of the following is the predominant bacteria of the vagina during pregnancy?
\\ Peptostreptococcus sp.
\\ Listeria monocytogenes
\\ Lactobacillus sp.
\\ Streptococcus agalactiae

OBS:- The uterine artery is a main branch of which of the following arteries?
\\ aorta
\\ common iliac
\\ external iliac
\\ internal iliac
OBS:- The ovarian artery is a direct branch of which of the following vessels?
\\ aorta
\\ common iliac
\\ external iliac
\\ internal iliac

OBS:- Which of the following is not a component of the bony pelvis?


\\ coccyx
\\ sacrum
\\ ischium
\\ femoral head

OBS:- What is the shortest diameter of the pelvic cavity?


\\ diagonal conjugate
\\ interspinous
\\ true conjugate
\\ obstetrical conjugate

OBS:- What does the portion of the deciduas invaded by the trophoblast become?
\\ decidua basalis
\\ decidua capsularis
\\ decidua vera
\\ decidua parietalis

OBS:- What day of the menstrual cycle do subnuclear, glycogen-rich vacuoles develop on the
glandular epithelium?
\\ 5 to 7
\\ 10 to 12
\\ 14 to 16
\\ 20 to 22

OBS:- What is the average amount of blood lost during normal menstrual cycle?
\\ 10 to 15 mL
\\ 25 to 60 mL
\\ 85 to 120 mL
\\ 150 mL

OBS:- What is the duration of the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?
\\ variable
\\ 10 to 12 days
\\ 12 to 14 days
\\ most commonly over 14 days

OBS:- What is the solid ball of cells formed by 16 or more blastomeres?


\\ morula
\\ blastocyst
\\ zygote
\\ embryo

OBS:- The survival of the conceptus in the uterus is attributable to the immunological peculiarity
of which of the following?
\\ decidua
\\ amnion
\\ chorion
\\ trophoblast
OBS:- What are a main stem (truncal) villi and its ramifications?
\\ placental cotyledon
\\ maternal cotyledon
\\ stem cotyledon
\\ primary cotyledon

OBS:- Where is the complete molecule of human chorionic gonadotropins primarily produced?
\\ syncytiotrophoblast
\\ cytotrophoblast
\\ chorionic membrane
\\ Hofbauer cells

OBS:- What is the best known function of human chorionic gonadoptropin?


\\ its maintenance of the corpus luteum
\\ that it helps protect against paternal antibodies
\\ that it stimulates human placental lactogen secretion
\\ that it stimulates fetal ovaries to produce estrogen

OBS:- When (week of pregnancy) does human placental lactogen peak in the maternal serum?
\\ 10th to 12th
\\ 16th to 20th
\\ 28th to 30th
\\ 34th to 36th

OBS:- Pregnancy is said to consist of 10 lunar months. How long is an actual lunar month?
\\ 26 days
\\ 27 days
\\ 28 days
\\ 29 days

OBS:- What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 16 gestational weeks?


\\ 25 g
\\ 50 g
\\ 110 g
\\ 250 g

OBS:- What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 20 gestational weeks?


\\ 200g
\\ 300 g
\\ 480 g
\\ 650 g

OBS:- What is the approximate eight of the fetus at 24 gestational weeks?


\\ 500 g
\\ 630 g
\\ 750 g
\\ 890 g

OBS:- What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 28 gestational weeks?


\\ 750 g
\\ 890 g
\\ 1100g
\\ 1500 g
OBS:- What is the average weight of the fetus at 32 gestational weeks?
\\ 1000 g
\\ 1500 g
\\ 1800 g
\\ 2000 g

OBS:- What is the average weight of the fetus at 36 gestational weeks?


\\ 1990 g
\\ 2500 g
\\ 2850 g
\\ 3000 g

OBS:- In the fetus or neonate, what are the two sutures between the frontal and parietal bones?
\\ frontal
\\ sagittal
\\ lambdoid
\\ coronal

OBS:- Which of the following diameters has the greatest length?


\\ occipitofrontal
\\ biparietal
\\ occipitomental
\\ suboccipitobregmatic

OBS:- The plane of which of the following diameters represents the greatest circumference of
the head?
\\ occipitofrontal
\\ suboccipitobregmatic
\\ bitemporal
\\ biparietal

OBS:- The TOTAL length of labor for primp is typically


\\ 39-45 hours
\\ 20-24 hours
\\ 4-6 hours
\\ 2-6 hours

OBS:- Primips typically push for


\\ 15 minutes
\\ 5 minutes
\\ 1 hour
\\ 2 houres

OBS:- Peri urethral lacerations


\\ Always require surgical repair
\\ Will require laser repair following her six-week checkup
\\ Usually heal spontaneously
\\ Commonly cause long-term urologic complications

OBS:- The placenta usually delivers


\\ About 3 hours after the baby
\\ With a gush of bleeding
\\ After the physician pull on the cord
\\\ in several pieces
OBS:- The initial newborn heart rate is determined by
\\ Palpating at the base of the cord for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6
\\ Using a stethoscope and counting an apical pulse for 2 full minutes
\\ Locating a brachial pulse and counting for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2
\\ Averaging the final five minutes of the fetal heart rate tracing

OBS:- The APGAR is assigned by


\\ Delivering Physician
\\ The staff obstetrician
\\ The nursery charge nurse
\\ The person responsible for initial stabilization of newborn

OBS:- APGAR score reliably indicates


\\ The overall condition of the newborn during the first five minutes of life
\\ The risk of long-term neurologic deficiency
\\ The need for neonatal resuscitation
\\ Future intellectual performance

OBS:- The most likely reason for increased bleeding during the immediate postpartum period is
\\ Uterine atony
\\ Bladder atony
\\ Bladder distendsion
\\ An undelivered twin

OBS:- A hysterical labor patient is best managed by


\\ Callin Security
\\ Applying soft restrains
\\ Calling Administration
\\ Teaching breathing technique

OBS:- Labor epidurals are generally placed with the mother in


\\ The left lateral position
\\ The right lateral position
\\ The sitting position
\\ The supine position

OBS:- The chin is brought into intimate contact with the fetal thorax during which cardinal
movement of labor
\\ flexion
\\ extension
\\ engagement
\\ descent

OBS:- The anterior shoulder appears under the symphysis during which cardinal movement
\\ extension
\\ expulsion
\\ external rotation
\\ descent

OBS:- The biparietal diameter passes through the pelvic inlet during which cardinal movement
of labor
\\ descent
\\ engagement
\\ expulsion
\\ extension

OBS:- What is edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor


\\ molding
\\ Caput succedaneum
\\ Subdural hematoma
\\ Erythema nodusum

OBS:- Which of the following bones is most likely pushed under the parietal bones during
molding?
\\ Frontal
\\ The ipsilateral bone
\\ Temporal
\\ occipital

OBS:-What is the most reliable indicator of rupture of the fetal membranes?


\\ Fluid per cervical os
\\ positive nitrazine test
\\ positive ferning
\\ positive oncofetal fibronectin

OBS:- What is the major advantage of a mediolateral episiotomy?


\\ easy surgical repair
\\ less postoperative pain
\\ less blood loss
\\ less extensions

OBS:- What is the most common side effect of epidural anesthesia?


\\ maternal hypertension
\\ maternal hypotension
\\ CNS stimulation
\\ infective block

OBS:- Which of the following are absolute contraindications to spinal analgesia


\\\ Preeclampsia
\\ infected skin at site of needle entry
\\\ convulsions secondary to seizure disorders
\\\ diabetes

OBS:- What is the most common complication of paracervical block


\\ maternal hypotension
\\ CNS toxicity
\\ fetal bradycardia
\\ bleeding
GYN:-What is the incidence of vaginal bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy?
//Abruption placenta
//Rupture of uterus
//Threatened miscarriage
//Genital HSV

GYN:-When should dilatation and curettage be performed in the patient?


//Complete abortion
//Ectopic pregnancy
//Threatened abortion
//Incomplete abortion

GYN:-How can one be certain that products of conception were obtained?


//Serial ?-hCG measurements
//Baseline hematocrit measurements
//LH measurements
//Progesterone measurements

GYN:-How is the diagnosis of endometriosis confirmed?


//By vaginal exam
//By blood test
//By endoscopic exam
//By history

GYN:-What is the most common presenting symptoms of endometriosis?


//Uterine bleeding
//Cyclical pelvic pain
//Vaginal discharge
//Infertility

GYN:-What is the major cause of ectopic pregnancy?


//Salpingitis
//Endometriosis
//Ovarian cysts
//Cervical neoplasia
GYN:-Where do the majority of ectopic pregnancy occur?
//Ovarian
//Abdominal
//Fallopian tubal
//Cervical
GYN:-Which is the type of physiological (functional) cyst?
//Dysgerminoma
//Theca lutein
//Teratoma
//Dermoid

GYN:-What is the mean age of menarche?


//10.5 years
//12,7 years
//14 years
//11 years

GYN:-What is the mean duration for menses?


///7 days
///3 days
//5 days
///6 days
GYN:-How many germ cells are in the pubertal ovary?
//6-7 million
//300,000-400,000
//2-3 million
//100,000-200,000

GYN:-What is the most common cause of amenorrhea?


//Pregnancy
//Puberty
//Pelvic inflammatory disease
//Polycystic ovarian disease

GYN:-What is the most common clinical manifestation of PCO?


//Bleeding
//Infertility
//Acute pelvic pain
//Vaginal discharge

GYN:-What is the most common presentation of twins?


//Breech-transverse
//Breech-breech
//Vertex-transverse
//Vertex-vertex
GYN:-How often are infants in a breech lie at term?
//6-7%
//1-2%
//3-4%
//7-8%

GYN:-What type of follow-up occurs after evacuation molar pregnancy?


//hCG measurement
//PRL measurement
//FSH measurement
//DHEA measurement

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?


\\ The granulosa cells secrete androstenedione.
\\ The granulosa cells become luteal cells following the release of the oocyte.
\\ Luteal cells secrete progesterone alone.
\\ The ovary contains around 50 000 oocytes at menarche.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true of the menstrual cycle?
\\\ Oestradiol causes the endometrial glands to secrete glycogen.
\\\ The endometrium is shed because the spiral arterioles lose their elasticity and start to bleed.
\\ The luteal phase lasts for a fixed duration of 12–14 days.
\\\ In the proliferative phase of the cycle the spiral arterioles become waved

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?


\\ Oestradiol exerts a posotive feedback on FSH.
\\ The secretion of FSH and LH is under the control of the thalamus.
\\ Testosterone is essential for the production of oestradiol.
\\ Progesterone concentrations reach their peak at the time of ovulation.

OBS:- Which of the following are associated with causing tubal damage leading to tubal
subfertility?
\\ Trichomonas vaginalis.
\\ Gonorrhoea.
\\ Candidos.
\\ Gardnelos.

\Which of the following statements are true of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
\\ Gonorrhoea in women is best diagnosed by cultures of material from the posterior vaginal
fornix.
\\ Syphilis is adequately treated in penicillin-allergic pregnant women by doxyciklin.
\\ Contact tracing partners of women with first attack genital herpes is helpful.
\\ Bacterial vaginosis should be diagnosed by culture of a high vaginal swab (HVS) for
Gardnerella vaginalis.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true about HIV infection?
\\ It is caused by a DNA virus that binds to the CD4 receptor.
\\ Seroconversion commonly presents with a glandular fever illness.
\\ In the UK, all patients with a CD4 count below 200 ¥ 106/l should be encouraged to start anti-
HIV drugs.
\\ Antiretroviral resistance testing will show resistance patterns to both current and previous anti-
HIV drugs.

OBS:- Which of the following is the best treatment of a suspected dermoid cyst found in an 18
year –old nulliparous woman?
\\ Observation
\\ Hysterectomy
\\ Adnexectomy
\\ Cystectomy

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?


\\ Fetal haemoglobin shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right of that for haemoglobin A.
\\ In fetal life oxygenated blood from the umbilical arteries flows directly to the left side of the
heart.
\\ During fetal life the lungs are filled with amniotic fluid.
\\ Exposure to teratogens is more likely to cause congenital abnormalities in the first trimester
of pregnancy.

OBS:- The functions of the placenta include which of the following?


\\ Transfer of oxygen from the fetus to the mother
\\ Transfer of urea from the mother to the fetus.
\\ Transfer of nutrients from the fetus to the mother.
\\ Regulation of fetal metabolism of insulin and glucose.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true of a hydatidiform mole?


\\\ Is not associated with early onset pre-eclampsia.
\\ Should be treated with methotrexate.
\\ Should be followed up for only 6 months in a specialist centre.
\\ Is associated with a higher than average hCG concentration.

OBS:- Which of the following is true of choriocarcinoma?


There is early spread to bones.
Hysterectomy is only method of treatment
After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 40%.
After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 4%.

OBS:- A woman presents with her second miscarriage. Which of the following pieces of
information should she be given in respect of miscarriage?
She has a 75% chance of miscarrying again.
She has a 55% chance of miscarrying again
She has a 25% chance of miscarrying again.
She has a 65% chance of miscarrying again

\\\ Which of the following investigations are performed at the first antenatal visit?
Toxoplasmosis.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV).
Syphilis.
Hepatitis C.

OBS:- Which of the following are used as indicators of fetal well-being beyond 24 weeks of
pregnancy?
Liquor volume.
Fetal movements.
Auscultation.
Umbilical artery dopplers.

OBS:- A woman presents at 12 weeks of pregnancy. She has had two livebirths at term, delivered
a live baby at 21 weeks who died within a few minutes of birth, one pregnancy loss at 8 weeks
and an intrauterine death at 25 weeks.
Which one of the following correctly expresses her gravidity and parity?
Gravida 6 Para 4
Gravida 6 Para 3
Gravida 5 Para 3.
Gravida 5 Para 4.

OBS:- Which of the following features of a cardiotocograph (CTG) would be considered non-
reassuring in labour?
Baseline variability of 5–15 beats per minute.
\\ Late decelerations in the second stage of labour.
\\ A fetal heart rate of 150 beats per minute.
\\ Accelerations.

OBS:- Which of the following are indications for continuous electronic fetal monitoring
(EFM)?
\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes24 hours ago and has
clear liquor
\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes 1 hour ago and has
clear liquor.
\\ A woman who ruptured her membranes 6 hours ago, clear liquor and is in spontaneous labour.
\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptured her membranes 12 hours ago, clear
liquor and is in spontaneous labor

OBS:- In normal labour which of the following statements are true?


\\ Uterine contractions are generated in the lower segment of the uterus.
\\ The rate of cervical dilatation should be greater than 1cm/hour.
\\ The fetal heart should be checked every 15 minutes in the first stage of labour
\\ The second stage of labour should not exceed 2 hours in duration.
\\ An episiotomy should be performed in the majority of women.

OBS: - A woman on the postnatal ward bursts into tears when you go and see her 48 hours after
the birth of her baby. Which of the following might indicate that she is at high risk of developing
postnatal depression?
\\ She does not show any interest in her infant who is crying insistently.
\\ She is bottle feeding the baby.
\\ She is unable to sleep.
\\ Her partner was present at the birth of the baby
.

OBS:- A baby is born in the following condition at 1 minute. She is pink with a heart rate of 120
bpm. She is not moving or crying and has taken a few irregular gasps. Her limbs are flaccid but
she is moving her facial muscles. What is her
Apgar score?
\\ 9
\\ 7
\\ 6
\\ 5

OBS:- Submucous fibroids are commonly associated with which of the following?
\\ Constant lower abdominal pain.
\\ Menorrhagia.
\\ Vomiting.
\\ Ectopic pregnancy.

OBS:- A 24-year-old woman presents with unilateral abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal
rebound and guarding. She is apyrexial and her LMP was one week ago. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
\\ Pelvic inflammatory disease.
\\ Bleeding into a corpus luteal cyst.
\\ Ruptured corpus luteal cyst.
\\ Torted dermoid cyst.
OBS:- Which of the following is true of dermoid cysts?
\\ May undergo degeneration.
\\ May contain well differentiated tissues.
\\ May contain altered blood.
\\ May secrete testosterone.

OBS GYN:- A 19-year-old woman presents with right iliac fossa pain. The pain came on
gradually and was associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination she has a temperature
of 37.6°C. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right iliac fossa (RIF) with guarding
and rebound. Vaginal examination reveals mild tenderness on the right with no cervical
excitation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
\\ Pyelonephritis.
/\ Torted right ovarian cyst.
\ Small bowel obstruction.
\ Ruptured right ovarian cyst

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?


\\ Carcinoma of the cervix is the most common GYN:-aecological malignancy.
\\ Few women die of ovarian cancer than any other GYN:-aecological malignancy.
\\ Endometrial cancer most commonly presents with postmenopausal bleeding.
\\ Ovarian cancer most commonly presents with postcoital bleeding.

OBS:- A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no other abnormalities on examination. What is the most likely
provisional diagnosis?
\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the ovary.
\\ Stage 1 carcinoma of the ovary.
\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the uterus.
\\ Stage 4 carcinoma of the ovary.
OBS:- A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no other abnormalities on examination. Which of the following
are useful preoperative staging investigations for this woman?
\\ Hysteroscopy
\\ Curettage.
\\ Serum tumour markers.
\\ Electrolytes.

OBS:- Which of the following are common symptoms of detrusor instability?


Slow urinary stream.
Incomplete emptying.
Nocturia.

OBS:- Which of the following would be the next step after a 30 min. of the third stage of
labour?
\\ Initiate oxytocin
\\ Wait an additional 30min
\\ Attempt a manual extraction of the placenta
\\ make sure that placenta is detached\

\\\ Which of the following is most likely to be a risk factor for uterine inversion?
\\ Long umbilical cord
\\ Uncontrolled traction of the umbilical cord
\\ Placental abruption
\\ Attenuated umbilical cord
OBS:- A 31 year-old woman G2P1 at 40 weeks’ gestation has progressed in labor from 4 to 7cm.
cervical dilatation during 2 hours. Which of the following best describes the labor?
\\ latent phase of the I stage
\\ Passive phase of the II stage
\\ Active phase of the II stage
\\ Active phase of the I stage

OBS:- An 18-year-old woman had a yellowish vaginal discharge. On examination, the cervix is
erythematous an the discharge reveals numerous leukocytes. Which of the following is most
likely etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Thrichomona vaginalis
\\ Ureaplazma species

OBS:- A 34 year-old woman is diagnosed as having a vaginitis based on a “ fishy odor” to her
vaginal discharge and vaginal pruritus. The cervix is normal in appearance. Which of the
following most likely corresponds to the etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Gardnella
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- A 28 year-old woman has multiple painful pustules erupting through out the skin of her
body. Which of the following most likely corresponds to the etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Gardnella
\\ Cytomegalovirus
OBS:- Which of the following maternal cervical infections causes blindness in the newborn?
\\ Toxoplazmosis
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Candidosis
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- Which of the following is the ost accurate method for diagnosing acute salpingitis?
\\ Clinical criteria
\\ Sonography
\\ Computed tomographic scan
\\ Laparascopy

OBS:- Which of the following types of uterine fibroids would most likely lead to recurrent
abortion?
\\ Submucosal
\\ Intramural
\\ Subserous
\\ Intraligamental

OBS:- Which of the following is the most coon clinical presentation of uterine leiomyomata?
\\ Infertility
\\ Menorrhagia
\\ Pelvic pain
\\ Recurrent abortion
OBS:- Which of the following is the epithelial cell tumor of the ovary?
\\ Cystic teratoma
\\ Brenner tumor
\\ Androblastoma
\\ Choriocarcinoma
OBS:- Which of the following vitamins is important to be given prophylactically for the fetus
soon after birth (especially in the breast-feeding newborn)?
\\ vitamin K
\\ vitamin A
\\ vitamin C
\\ vitamin D

OBS:- Which of the following immunological factors provides protection against enteric
infections when ingested in the colostrum?
\\ IgG
\\ IgM
\\ IgA
\\ IgE

OBS:- At what gestational age will the fetus first demonstrate spontaneous movements if
removed from the uterus?
\\ 8 weeks
\\ 10 weeks
\\ 12 weeks
\\ 14 weeks

OBS:- How early might the fetus hear sounds in utero?


\\ 14th week
\\ 18th week
\\ 24th week
\\ 28th week
OBS:- What is the average amount of amniotic fluid swallowed per 24 hours by the term fetus?
\\ 100 mL
\\ 200 mL
\\ 500 mL
\\ 1500 mL

OBS:- What is the average uterine weight at term?


\\ 200 g
\\ 450 g
\\ 780 g
\\ 1100 g

OBS:- Which of the following is not produced by the corpus luteum of early pregnancy?
\\ progesterone
\\ 17alpha-hydroxyprogesterone
\\ relaxin
\\ prolactin

OBS:- What is pigmentation of the midline of abdominal skin during pregnancy called?
\\ striae gravidarum
\\ linea nigra
\\ chloasma
\\ melasma

OBS:- What is the average weight gain during pregnancy?


\\ 5 kg
\\ 9 kg
\\ 11 kg
\\ 15 kg

OBS:- What is the average increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy?
\\ 10%
\\ 25%
\\ 50%
\\ 75%

OBS:- What is the average increase in the volume of circulating erythrocytes during pregnancy?
\\ 100 mL
\\ 250 mL
\\ 450 mL
\\ 700 mL

OBS:- Which of the following hematologic changes does not occur during normal pregnancy?
\\ The mean age of circulating red cells is increased.
\\ The mean cell volume is increased.
\\ There is moderate erythroid hyperplasia.
\\ There is an increase in plasma rythropoietin.

OBS:- Which of the following in not increased in pregnancy?


\\ blood leukocyte count
\\ C-reactive protein
\\ leukocyte alkaline phosphate activity
\\ alpha-interferon
OBS:- What is the average increase in the resting pulse during pregnancy?
\\ 0 to 1 bpm
\\ 5 to 6 bpm
\\ 10 to 15 bpm
\\ 18 to 20 bpm

OBS:- Which of the following hemodynamic values remains unchanged during normal
pregnancy?
\\ systemic vascular resistance
\\ pulmonary vascular resistance
\\ colloid osmotic pressure
\\ pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

OBS:- Which of the following is not increased during normal pregnancy?


\\ glomerular filtration rate
\\ renal plasma flow
\\ creatinine clearance
\\ plasma concentration of urea

OBS:- With regard to the hydronephrosis and hydroureter associated with pregnancy, which of
the following is not true?
\\ Ureteral dilation is greater on the right side.
\\ Ureteral dilation is primarily due to hormonal factors.
\\ There is elongation of the ureters.
\\ There is increase in the number of curves of the ureters.

OBS:- Which of the following is most likely to cross the placenta?


\\ thyroxine
\\ triiodothyronine
\\ reverse triiodothyronine
\\ thyroid-releasing hormone

OBS:- What is the goal of prenatal care?


\\ to establish a god relationship with your patients
\\ to deliver a healthy baby without impairing the mother’s health
\\ to set up a payment schedule for the delivery
\\ to see the patient often enough so you feel comfortable

OBS:- What is a primipara?


\\ a woman who was pregnant once
\\ a woman delivered once of a viable fetus
\\ a woman who has completed two pregnancies
\\ a woman who has had a 12-week miscarriage

OBS:- What is a nulligravida?


\\ a woman who never delivered a live-born baby
\\ a woman who had one miscarriage
\\ a woman who has never been pregnant
\\ a woman who had only one pregnancy

OBS:- What is the mean duration of pregnancy from the first day of the LMP?
\\ 250 days
\\ 260 days
\\ 270 days
\\ 280 days
OBS:- Naegele’s rule estimates gestation age based on which of the following formulas?
\\ Add 7 days to LMP and count back three months.
\\ Subtract 7 days from LMP and count back three months.
\\ Add 21 days to LMP and count back three months.
\\ Subtract 21 days from LMP and count back three months.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?


\\ The granulosa cells secrete androstenedione.
\\ The granulosa cells become luteal cells following the release of the oocyte.
\\ Luteal cells secrete progesterone alone.
\\ The ovary contains around 50 000 oocytes at menarche.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true of the menstrual cycle?
\\ Oestradiol causes the endometrial glands to secrete glycogen.
\\ The endometrium is shed because the spiral arterioles lose their elasticity and start to bleed.
\\ The luteal phase lasts for a fixed duration of 12–14 days.
\\ In the proliferative phase of the cycle the spiral arterioles become waved

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?


\\ Oestradiol exerts a posotive feedback on FSH.
\\ The secretion of FSH and LH is under the control of the thalamus.
\\ Testosterone is essential for the production of oestradiol.
\\ Progesterone concentrations reach their peak at the time of ovulation.

OBS:- Which of the following are associated with causing tubal damage leading to tubal
subfertility?
\\ Trichomonas vaginalis.
\\ Gonorrhoea.
\\ Candidos.
\\ Gardnelos.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
\\ Gonorrhoea in women is best diagnosed by cultures of material from the posterior vaginal
fornix.
\\ Syphilis is adequately treated in penicillin-allergic pregnant women by doxyciklin.
\\ Contact tracing partners of women with first attack genital herpes is helpful.
\\ Bacterial vaginosis should be diagnosed by culture of a high vaginal swab (HVS) for
Gardnerella vaginalis.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true about HIV infection?
\\ It is caused by a DNA virus that binds to the CD4 receptor.
\\ Seroconversion commonly presents with a glandular fever illness.
\\ In the UK, all patients with a CD4 count below 200 ¥ 106/l should be encouraged to start anti-
HIV drugs.
\\ Antiretroviral resistance testing will show resistance patterns to both current and previous anti-
HIV drugs.

OBS:- Which of the following is the best treatment of a suspected dermoid cyst found in an 18
year –old nulliparous woman?
\\ Observation
\\ Hysterectomy
\\ Adnexectomy
\\ Cystectomy
OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?
\\ Fetal haemoglobin shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right of that for haemoglobin A.
\\ In fetal life oxygenated blood from the umbilical arteries flows directly to the left side of the
heart.
\\ During fetal life the lungs are filled with amniotic fluid.
\\ Exposure to teratogens is more likely to cause congenital abnormalities in the first trimester
of pregnancy.

OBS:- The functions of the placenta include which of the following?


\\ Transfer of oxygen from the fetus to the mother
\\ Transfer of urea from the mother to the fetus.
\\ Transfer of nutrients from the fetus to the mother.
\\ Regulation of fetal metabolism of insulin and glucose.

OBS:- The smallest diameters of the fetal skull include which of the following?
\\ Mentovertical.
\\ Suboccipitobregmatic.
\\ Biparietal.
\\ Occiptofrontal.

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true of a hydatidiform mole?


\\ Is not associated with early onset pre-eclampsia.
\\ Should be treated with methotrexate.
\\ Should be followed up for only 6 months in a specialist centre.
\\ Is associated with a higher than average hCG concentration.

OBS:- Which of the following is true of choriocarcinoma?


\\ There is early spread to bones.
\\ Hysterectomy is only method of treatment
\\ After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 40%.
\\ After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 4%.

OBS:- A woman presents with her second miscarriage. Which of the following pieces of
information should she be given in respect of miscarriage?
\\ She has a 75% chance of miscarrying again.
\\ She has a 55% chance of miscarrying again
\\ She has a 25% chance of miscarrying again.
\\ She has a 65% chance of miscarrying again

OBS:- Which of the following investigations are performed at the first antenatal visit?
\\ Toxoplasmosis.
\\ Cytomegalovirus (CMV).
\\ Syphilis.
\\ Hepatitis C.

OBS:- Which of the following are used as indicators of fetal well-being beyond 24 weeks of
pregnancy?
\\ Liquor volume.
\\ Fetal movements.
\\ Auscultation.
\\ Umbilical artery dopplers.

OBS:- A woman presents at 12 weeks of pregnancy. She has had two livebirths at term, delivered
a live baby at 21 weeks who died within a few minutes of birth, one pregnancy loss at 8 weeks
and an intrauterine death at 25 weeks.
Which one of the following correctly expresses her gravidity and parity?
\\ Gravida 6 Para 4
\\ Gravida 6 Para 3
\\ Gravida 5 Para 3.
\\ Gravida 5 Para 4.

OBS:- Which of the following features of a cardiotocograph (CTG) would be considered non-
reassuring in labour?
\\ Baseline variability of 5–15 beats per minute.
\\ Late decelerations in the second stage of labour.
\\ A fetal heart rate of 150 beats per minute.
\\ Accelerations.

OBS:- Which of the following are indications for continuous electronic fetal monitoring
(EFM)?
\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes24 hours ago and has
clear liquor
\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes 1 hour ago and has
clear liquor.
\\ A woman who ruptured her membranes 6 hours ago, clear liquor and is in spontaneous labour.
\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptured her membranes 12 hours ago, clear
liquor and is in spontaneous labor

OBS:- In normal labour which of the following statements are true?


\\ Uterine contractions are generated in the lower segment of the uterus.
\\ The rate of cervical dilatation should be greater than 1cm/hour.
\\ The fetal heart should be checked every 15 minutes in the first stage of labour
\\ The second stage of labour should not exceed 2 hours in duration.
\\ An episiotomy should be performed in the majority of women.
OBS:- A woman on the postnatal ward bursts into tears when you go and see her 48 hours after
the birth of her baby.Which of the following might indicate that she is at high risk of developing
postnatal depression?
\\ She does not show any interest in her infant who is crying insistently.
\\ She is bottle feeding the baby.
\\ She is unable to sleep.
\\ Her partner was present at the birth of the baby
.

OBS:- A baby is born in the following condition at 1 minute. She is pink with a heart rate of 120
bpm. She is not moving or crying and has taken a few irregular gasps. Her limbs are flaccid but
she is moving her facial muscles. What is her
Apgar score?
\\ 9
\\ 7
\\ 6
\\ 5

OBS:- Submucous fibroids are commonly associated with which of the following?
\\ Constant lower abdominal pain.
\\ Menorrhagia.
\\ Vomiting.
\\ Ectopic pregnancy.

OBS:- A 24-year-old woman presents with unilateral abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal
rebound and guarding. She is apyrexial and her LMP was one week ago. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
\\ Pelvic inflammatory disease.
\\ Bleeding into a corpus luteal cyst.
\\ Ruptured corpus luteal cyst.
\\ Torted dermoid cyst.

OBS:- Which of the following is true of dermoid cysts?


\\ May undergo degeneration.
\\ May contain well differentiated tissues.
\\ May contain altered blood.
\\ May secrete testosterone.

OBS GYN:- A 19-year-old woman presents with right iliac fossa pain. The pain came on
gradually and was associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination she has a temperature
of 37.6°C. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right iliac fossa (RIF) with guarding
and rebound. Vaginal examination reveals mild tenderness on the right with no cervical
excitation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
\\ Pyelonephritis.
\\ Torted right ovarian cyst.
\\ Small bowel obstruction.
\\ Ruptured right ovarian cyst

OBS:- Which of the following statements are true?


\\ Carcinoma of the cervix is the most common GYN:-aecological malignancy.
\\ Few women die of ovarian cancer than any other GYN:-aecological malignancy.
\\ Endometrial cancer most commonly presents with postmenopausal bleeding.
\\ Ovarian cancer most commonly presents with postcoital bleeding.

OBS:- A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no
other abnormalities on examination. What is the most likely provisional diagnosis?
\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the ovary.
\\ Stage 1 carcinoma of the ovary.
\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the uterus.
\\ Stage 4 carcinoma of the ovary.

OBS:- A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no
other abnormalities on examination. Which of the following are useful preoperative staging
investigations for this woman?
\\ Hysteroscopy
\\ Curettage.
\\ Serum tumour markers.
\\ Electrolytes.

OBS:- Which of the following are common symptoms of detrusor instability?


\\ Slow urinary stream.
\\ Incomplete emptying.
\\ Nocturia.
\\ Rtare)

OBS:- Which of the following would be the next step after a 30 min. of the third stage of
labour?
\\ Initiate oxytocin
\\ Wait an additional 30min
\\ Attempt a manual extraction of the placenta
\\ make sure that placenta is detached

OBS:- Which of the following is most likely to be a risk factor for uterine inversion?
\\ Long umbilical cord
\\ Uncontrolled traction of the umbilical cord
\\ Placental abruption
\\ Attenuated umbilical cord

OBS:- A 31 year-old woman G2P1 at 40 weeks’ gestation has progressed in labor from 4 to 7cm.
cervical dilatation during 2 hours. Which of the following best describes the labor?
\\ latent phase of the I stage
\\ Passive phase of the II stage
\\ Active phase of the II stage
\\ Active phase of the I stage

OBS:- An 18-year-old woman had a yellowish vaginal discharge. On examination, the cervix is
erythematous an the discharge reveals numerous leukocytes. Which of the following is most
likely etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Thrichomona vaginalis
\\ Ureaplazma species

OBS:- A 34 year-old woman is diagnosed as having a vaginitis based on a “ fishy odor” to her
vaginal discharge and vaginal pruritus. The cervix is normal in appearance. Which of the
following most likely corresponds to the etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Gardnella
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- A 28 year-old woman has multiple painful pustules erupting through


out the skin of her body. Which of the following most likely corresponds to the etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Gardnella
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- Which of the following maternal cervical infections causes blindness in the newborn?
\\ Toxoplazmosis
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Candidosis
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- Which of the following is the most accurate method for diagnosing acute salpingitis?
\\ Clinical criteria
\\ Sonography
\\ Computed tomographic scan
\\ Laparascopy

OBS:- Which of the following types of uterine fibroids would most likely lead tu recurrent
abortion?
\\ Submucosal
\\ Intramural
\\ Subserous
\\ Intraligamental

OBS:- Which of the following is the most coon clinical presentation of uterine leiomyomata?
\\ Infertility
\\ Menorrhagia
\\ Pelvic pain
\\ Recurrent abortion

OBS:- Which of the following is the epithelial cell tumor of the ovary?
\\ Cystic teratoma
\\ Brenner tumor
\\ Androblastoma
\\ Choriocarcinoma

\\\ Which of the following statements are true?


\\ Carcinoma of the cervix is the most common GYN:-aecological malignancy.
\\ Few women die of ovarian cancer than any other GYN:-aecological malignancy.
\\ Endometrial cancer most commonly presents with postmenopausal bleeding.
\\ Ovarian cancer most commonly presents with postcoital bleeding.

OBS:- A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no
other abnormalities on examination. What is the most likely provisional diagnosis?
\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the ovary.
\\ Stage 1 carcinoma of the ovary.
\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the uterus.
\\ Stage 4 carcinoma of the ovary.

OBS:- A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no
other abnormalities on examination. Which of the following are useful preoperative staging
investigations for this woman?
\\ Hysteroscopy
\\ Curettage.
\\ Serum tumour markers.
\\ Electrolytes.

OBS:- Which of the following are common symptoms of detrusor instability?


\\ Slow urinary stream.
\\ Incomplete emptying.
\\ Nocturia.
\\ Rtare)

OBS:- Which of the following would be the next step after a 30 min. of the third stage of
labour?
\\ Initiate oxytocin
\\ Wait an additional 30min
\\ Attempt a manual extraction of the placenta
\\ make sure that placenta is detached

OBS:- Which of the following is most likely to be a risk factor for uterine inversion?
\\ Long umbilical cord
\\ Uncontrolled traction of the umbilical cord
\\ Placental abruption
\\ Attenuated umbilical cord

OBS:- A 31 year-old woman G2P1 at 40 weeks’ gestation has progressed in labor from 4 to 7cm.
cervical dilatation during 2 hours. Which of the following best describes the labor?
\\ latent phase of the I stage
\\ Passive phase of the II stage
\\ Active phase of the II stage
\\ Active phase of the I stage

OBS:- An 18-year-old woman had a yellowish vaginal discharge. On examination, the cervix is
erythematous an the discharge reveals numerous leukocytes. Which of the following is most
likely etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Thrichomona vaginalis
\\ Ureaplazma species

OBS:- A 34 year-old woman is diagnosed as having a vaginitis based on a “ fishy odor” to her
vaginal discharge and vaginal pruritus. The cervix is normal in appearance. Which of the
following most likely corresponds to the etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Gardnella
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- A 28 year-old woman has multiple painful pustules erupting through


out the skin of her body. Which of the following most likely corresponds to the etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Gardnella
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- Which of the following maternal cervical infections causes blindness in the newborn?
\\ Toxoplazmosis
\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis
\\ Candidosis
\\ Cytomegalovirus

OBS:- Which of the following is the most accurate method for diagnosing acute salpingitis?
\\ Clinical criteria
\\ Sonography
\\ Computed tomographic scan
\\ Laparascopy

OBS:- Which of the following types of uterine fibroids would most likely lead tu recurrent
abortion?
\\ Submucosal
\\ Intramural
\\ Subserous
\\ Intraligamental

OBS:- Which of the following is the most coon clinical presentation of uterine leiomyomata?
\\ Infertility
\\ Menorrhagia
\\ Pelvic pain
\\ Recurrent abortion

OBS:- Which of the following is the epithelial cell tumor of the ovary?
\\ Cystic teratoma
\\ Brenner tumor
\\ Androblastoma
\\ Choriocarcinoma
OBS:- Which type of drug suppresses uterine contractions
\\ Uterotonic
\\ Hypertensive
\\ Hemolytic
\\ Tocolytic

OBS:- Contractions in active phase of labor are tipically


\\ 5 minutes apart
\\ 15-20 minutes apart
\\ 2-3 minutes apart
\\ 30-35 minutes apart

***OBS:- Hyperventilation leads to


\\ High levels of oxygen with maternal alkalosis
\\ low levels of oxygen with maternal alkalosis
\\ High level of carbon dioxide with maternal acidosis
\\ Low level of carbon dioxide with maternal alkalosis

***OBS:- Maternal pushing efforts before complete cervical dilatation can lead to
\\ Cervical bleeding
\\ Cervical edema
\\ cervical dilatation
\\ Cervical stenosis

***OBS:- Amnionic fluid is usually


\\ White
\\ Green
\\ Clear
\\ Yellow

***OBS:- The fetal head should be delivered in a controlled manner to


\\ Allow stimulation of the fetal respiratory center
\\ Decrease the amount of mucus in the fetal airway
\\ Permit adequate perfusion through the umbilical cord
\\ Prevent expansion related intracranial bleeding

***OBS GYN:- During the delivery the


\\ Posterior shoulder should be delivered first
\\ Cord should be cut 8” from the baby
\\ Mouth should be suctioned before the nose
\\ Baby should be given oxygen before the shoulders deliver

***OBS:- Newborn APGARS are


\\ Assigned by the delivering physician or midwife
\\ Based on a scale of 1-2
\\ Assigned at 1 and 5 minutes
\\ The legal basis for resuscitation

*** --- not 100% sure.