Mock Test Paper

(for Class IX Studying Students)

Test-1

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09
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01
T2
EM
TH
N
A

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 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 360
ANTHE Mock Test 2018 Time : 2 Hr.

(for Class IX Studying Students)

Test - 1

SCIENCE

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09
1. Which of the following is correct about the given 4. The distance-time graph of two objects, A and B,
velocity-time graph of a body? moving in a straight line is shown below.

16
C
Velocity

Distance (m)
500
B D
A 00 300

0
t2t1 t3
O
Time 20 40 60 80 100
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(1) The body is at rest from t = 0 to t = t1 Time (s)
(2) The body is having uniform motion in the time
intervals (t1 to t2) and (t2 to t3) The ratio of speed of A to that of speed of B is
3 2
01

(3) The body is changing its direction of motion from

(1) (2)
t = t1 to t = t3 5 5
(4) The body is having uniform motion from t = 0 to 5
(3) (4) 1
T2

t = t1 2
2. Choose the correct option for a body performing 5. In the following velocity-time graph of an object
uniform circular motion.
EM

(1) The speed of the body is changing uniformly B D E

Velocity

(2) The velocity of the body is constant

(3) The body covers equal distances in equal A C
intervals of time
TH

(4) The body makes equal displacements in equal O

Time
intervals of time
(1) The acceleration is positive in part AB and in
3. A car starts from rest, undergoes uniform part CD only
N

acceleration a and attains velocity v. The

(2) The acceleration is positive in part CD and in
displacement of the car in this interval is
part DE only
A

v2 a2 (3) The acceleration is positive in part BC and in

(1) (2) v 
2a 2 part DE only
v av (4) The acceleration is positive in part AB, in part
(3) a  (4)
2 2 CD and in part DE
1
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-1)

6. The position-time table of an object starting from rest
and moving in a straight line is shown below :
Time (s) Position (m)
0 2
1 3
2 6
3 11
4 18
5 27
6 38
The acceleration of the object is
(1) A non-zero positive constant
(2) Zero
10. A box is pushed on a rough horizontal floor with an
initial speed of 20 m/s. It stops after moving for
10 s. If the magnitude of average resisting force of
friction is 15 N, then the mass of the box is
(1) 15 kg (2) 10 kg
(3) 8.5 kg (4) 7.5 kg
11. Two blocks of masses M and m are placed on a
smooth horizontal floor as shown below. If M is
pulled by external horizontal force F such that both
the blocks move together, then the net force acting
on m is in _______ direction.
m
F
M

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(3) Increasing (1) Upward (2) Downward

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(4) Decreasing (3) Rightward (4) Leftward
7. Two smooth blocks m and M are placed over each 12. Which of the following is true for the values of G and
other on a smooth horizontal surface. The block M g on the surface of moon and earth?

16
is pulled with an external horizontal force F as
(1) G remains the same but g changes
shown below. The accelerations of M and m in the
direction of F respectively are (2) g remains the same but G changes
00 (3) Both G and g remain same
m
(4) Both G and g changes
M F
13. An object is thrown vertically upwards with some
8O
speed at time t = 0. If it is at same height at time
F F F F t = 1 s and t = 5 s, then the speed with which the
(1) , (2) ,
M m M m m M object is thrown is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 80 m/s
F F
01

(3) 0, (4) ,0 (2) 40 m/s

m M
8. Three non-zero forces of magnitudes F1, F2 and F3 (3) 45 m/s
T2

are simultaneously applied on a block kept on a (4) 30 m/s

smooth horizontal surface as shown below. If the
14. Two sphere of mass m1 and m2 is separated by
block moves along right side with uniform accelerated
distance d. If m1 is fixed and m2 is free to move.
motion then choose the correct option.
EM

Acceleration of m1 and m2 is respectively

F1 F2
F3 Block Gm2 Gm1 Gm1 Gm2
(1) , 2 (2) , 2
d2 d d2 d
Smooth surface
TH

(1) F1 + F3 = F2 Gm1 Gm2

(3) 0, 2 (4) 0,
(2) F1 > F2 + F3 d d2

(3) F2 + F3 > F1 15. Two masses m1 and m2 is separated by distance d.

N

If separation increases 100%, then force of attraction

(4) F3 > F1
between masses is
9. A cricketer catches a ball of mass 200 g in 0.2 s
A

(1) Half of the initial force of attraction

initially moving with a speed of 30 m/s. He
experiences an average force of the magnitude of (2) Two times of initial force of attraction
(1) 10 N (2) 30 N (3) Four times of initial force of attraction
(3) 15 N (4) 60 N (4) Quarter of initial force of attraction
2
(Class IX Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2018
16. Consider the following set-ups. 18. The best method used to separate two immiscible
liquids from their mixture having boiling points 293 K
Rainy day and 313 K is
Sun
(1) Filtration
(2) Using separating funnel
(3) Distillation
(4) Fractional distillation
J J
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
particles of matter?
A. B.
(1) They have spaces between them
(2) They occupy fixed position
Sun
Moon
(3) They attract each other
(4) They are very small (small beyond our

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imagination)

09
20. On heating ink using water bath, a small amount of
solid, coloured material is left behind in the china
J J dish. This activity helps to conclude that

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(1) Ink is a mixture
C. D.
Here, J represents jug of different sizes containing (2) Ink is a compound
water. 00 (3) Ink is an element
In which of the given set-ups, the water will evaporate (4) Ink is insoluble in water
first?
21. In a water purification system, the following
(1) A (2) B
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processes are involved :
(3) C (4) D
A. Loading B. Filtration
17. Consider the given graph for water.
C. Sedimentation D. Chlorination
01
Temperature (K)

The correct sequence of the given processes is

N O (1) A  D  B  C
373
L M (2) A  B  C  D
T2

273
253 K (3) C  A  B  D
Heat supplied (4) C  B  D  A
EM

What is the physical state of water at points K, N 22. Consider the following processes
and O?
X
(1) K  Solid 
Solid   Liquid 
  Gas.
Y
N  Liquid and solid
 ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
TH

O Gas
(2) K  Solid (1) Fusion and vaporisation
N  Gas and solid (2) Fusion and condensation
O  Liquid and gas
N

(3) Melting and sublimation

(3) K  Liquid
(4) Condensation and vaporisation
N  Liquid and gas
A

O  Gas 23. Which of the following states of matter is formed by

supercooling a gas of extremely low density?
(4) K  Solid
N  Liquid and gas (1) Plasma (2) BEC
O  Gas (3) Gas (4) Solid
3
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-1)

24. A 10% (w/w) sugar solution is prepared in 270 g of 29. Which of the following is an example of physical
water. Calculate the amount of sugar to be added to change?
change the concentration of solution to 30% (w/w). (1) Burning of paper
(1) 70.14 g (2) 92.23 g (2) Souring of milk
(3) 85.71 g (4) 30.47 g (3) Rusting of almirah
25. Match the following and choose the correct option. (4) Melting of wax
A B C 30. The colourless gas with the smell of rotten egg is
Colloid Dispersed Dispersion (1) H2 (2) H2S
phase medium
(3) CO2 (4) SO2
I. Cheese (a) Solid (i) Gas
II. Face cream (b) Liquid (ii) Liquid 31. Statement-1 : The presence of cell wall enables the
cells of plants, fungi and bacteria to exist in
III. Milky glass (c) Gas (iii) Solid hypotonic media without bursting.
IV. Clouds
Statement-2 : Plant and fungal cell wall is mainly

7
(1) I-(a)-(ii); II-(a)-(ii); III-(a)-(i); IV-(b)-(i) composed of cellulose.

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(2) I-(b)-(iii); II-(b)-(ii); III-(a)-(iii); IV-(b)-(i) (1) Both the statements are correct
(3) I-(c)-(ii); II-(c)-(i); III-(c)-(iii); IV-(c)-(ii) (2) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) I-(b)-(i); II-(b)-(iii); III-(b)-(ii); IV-(a)-(ii) (3) Only statement-2 is correct

26. A, B and C represent the three states of matter.
A B
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(4) Both the statements are incorrect
C 32. Identify the plant tissue depicted below.
00

The state that will show the highest compressibility

and the one that will show minimum diffusion
respectively are (1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma
01

(1) B and A (2) B and C (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Chlorenchyma

(3) A and B (4) C and A

T2

27. Read the following statements carefully : 33.

Statement-1 : Gases can be liquefied by applying
pressure and reducing temperature. A
EM

Statement-2 : Solid carbon dioxide is stored under

high pressure and it gets converted to gaseous state
directly on decreasing the pressure to one
atmosphere.
TH

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
N

(4) Only statement-2 is correct

A

28. All of the following can be broken down into simpler In the given diagram, the function of the part labeled
substances except as ‘A’ is to help in
(1) Water (2) Alcohol (1) Digestion of food (2) Locomotion
(3) Carbon (4) Carbon disulphide (3) Respiration (4) Excretion
4
(Class IX Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2018
34. I. The inner membrane of mitochondria is deeply 39.
folded.
Animal Animal
II. These folds allow the mitochondria to shrink.
cell cell
III. These folds create a large surface area for
85% Distilled
ATP-generating chemical reactions.
concentrated water
Which one of the given statements is the correct sugar
A solution
B
reason of another statement?
What will happen in the given figures ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(1) I is the reason of II
(2) II is the reason of III A B
(3) III is the reason of I (1) The cell would shrink The cell would swell
(4) II is the reason of I (2) The cell would swell The cell would shrink
35. Which of the following parts of cell was discovered (3) The cell would shrink The cell would remain
by the scientist who devised the method of staining same in size
referred to as black reaction? (4) The cell would show The cell would swell

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(1) Nucleus (2) Lysosome plasmolysis

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(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Ribosome 40. How many organisms given in the box have cell wall?
36. Soaked seeds of a plant break into two nearly equal
Agaricus, Paramoecium, Ulva, Riccia, Spirogyra,
halves. Such plants are known as Bacteria

16
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Dicots
(1) Two (2) Four
(3) Monocots (4) Bryophytes (3) Three (4) Five
37. Identify the correct location of epithelial tissues A, B 41. Aerenchyma is essential for aquatic plants because
00
and C on the basis of given information. (1) It provides buoyancy to the plants to help them
A. These are arranged in a pattern of layers. float
(2) It performs photosynthesis
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B. These are cube-shaped.
C. These are composed of pillar-like cells. (3) It is dead and provides support and strength to
plants
A B C (4) It provides flexibility to the plants
01

(1) Skin Lung alveoli Oesophagus 42. 'X' and 'Y' are two types of a cell organelle which is
(2) Oesophagus Lining of Lung alveoli found in both plant and animal cells. Identify the
mouth function of 'X' and 'Y', where 'X' appears smooth
under the microscope and 'Y' appears rough under
T2

(3) Skin Lining of Inner lining of

kidney intestine the microscope.
tubules X Y
(4) Inner lining of Lung alveoli Skin
(1) Helps in anaerobic Hel ps i n aer obi c
EM

intestine
respiration. respiration.
38. (2) Helps in the synthesis Helps in the synthesis
of ribosomes. of ATP molecule.
(3) Helps in the synthesis Helps in the synthesis
TH

of protein molecule. of lipid molecule.

(4) Helps in the synthesis Helps in the synthesis
of fat molecule. of protein molecule.
Select the incorrect statement regarding the muscle
N

illustrated above. 43. Identify the set of plants which have well
differentiated body, have specialised tissue for
(1) The cells are long and cylindrical conduction of water and do not bear flowers.
A

(2) The cells are multinucleate (1) Horse-tail, Pea, Pine

(3) They have alternate light and dark bands (2) Pea, Cycas, Pinus
(4) They are present in blood vessels and control (3) Cycas, Marsilea, Horse-tail
involuntary actions (4) Marsilea, Marchantia, Cycas
5
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-1)
44. The cell component that allows the entry and exit of 45. Which of the following is not an involuntary
some selected materials in and out of the cell is movement?
(1) Cell wall (1) Movements in alimentary canal
(2) Cell membrane (2) Walking on road
(3) Cytoplasm (3) Contraction and relaxation of muscles of heart
(4) Nucleus (4) Contraction and relaxation of blood vessels

MATHEMATICS
46. If x = complement of 56° + supplement of 66°, then 1
the value of x is 52. If (343)2 y /3  (49)y  2   6 , then the value
343
(1) 120° (2) 148° of y is
(3) 128° (4) 137° (1) 3 (2) 1
47. If (x + 3)2 – (x + 1)2 = (x + 2)p(x), then p(5) equals (3) 2 (4) 0

7
(1) 10 (2) 8 53. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram.
If AF  ED and BE  ED, then the ratio of

09
(3) 4 (4) 5 CE to FD is
48. In the given figure, ABD is a triangle. If C is a point A D
on BD and CDE is also a triangle such that

16
ACB = CDE, ABC = CED and BC = DE, then
F
CAD is always equal to
B C
A 00 E
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1

D (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
8O
B C
x y
54. If  = 2 (x, y  0), then the value of the
y x
expression x12 – y12 is equal to
01

E
(1) –1 (2) 1
(1) CDE (2) CDA
(3) –12 (4) 0
(3) ACD (4) BAC
T2

49. Which of the following is not an irrational number m

55. If  2.3  2.21, where m and n are co-prime
7 4 n
between and ? integers, then the value of 3 m  n  3 is
13 7
EM

(1) 0.5392392239222... (1) 6 (2) 4

(2) 0.5214421444214444... (3) 8 (4) 9

(3) 0.5420420042000... 56. ABCD is a rectangle. If DBC = 68°, then the

measure of ACD is
TH

(4) 0.5531531153111...
D C
50. The value of 412 – 39 × 43 is
(1) 4 (2) –4
O
N

(3) 8 (4) –8 68°

51. If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that the measures of A B

A

A, B, C and D are in ascending order, then (1) 68°

the sum of the angles A and C is always less than (2) 22°
(1) 90° (2) 135° (3) 32°
(3) 180° (4) 225° (4) 112°
6
(Class IX Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2018
57. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram, then 62. Any solution of the linear equation 5y + 0x + 15 = 0
ABCD must be a in two variables is always of the form
S C R (1) (0, m) (2) (m, –3)

D (3) (3, m) (4) (–3, 0)

 p 
1  1
O 63. If 10 p  1    1  a
B  10   (x  xb  xc )

P A Q  xb  xc  xd xd  xc  xa
 d a  
(1) Parallelogram (2) Rhombus x  x b a  x c a x d  b  x c  b  x a  b
(3) Rectangle (4) Square xd  xa  xb 
d c  , where p is a whole number,
p q x  x a c  x b c 
58. If and are two distinct fractions such that their
r r then the value of p2 + 1 is
sum is a natural number n, then the only possible
(1) 1 (2) 2
value of n is (Assume 0 < p < r, 0 < q < r)

7
(3) 5 (4) 0
(1) 1 (2) 2

09
64. In the given figure, MB is a straight line, PQ = PR
(3) 3 (4) 4
and PQS = PRT. If OR = BR, then ORBQ is not
59. If a + b + c = 7 and ab + bc + ca = 16, then the always a
value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc is P

16
(1) 16 (2) 20
(3) 7 (4) 31
M
T S
60. In the given figure, AD = FD = DC and
AFD = DCF, then which of the following is not
00 O
true?
Q R
N
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A

B
D
01

(1) Rhombus (2) Square

F
(3) Parallelogram (4) Kite
B C 1

1
T2

65. If x  33  3 3, then 3x3 – 9x equals to

(1) AF = FC (2) FBC + FCB = 90°
1 1

(3) AFC = 90° (4) FDB = 90° (1) 9 (2) 3 3  3 3
EM

61. In the given figure, if AC and BF are straight lines,

then the value of 2(BEC – ECB) is (3) 10 (4) 0
66. If A(a, 0) and B(0, b) are the points where the graph
A G of the equation 5x – 9y = 45 cuts the x-axis and
33° y-axis respectively, then the mid-point of AB is
TH

E 3 5
(1) (4, 0) (2)  , 
54° 2 2
B
N

15° 9 3  9 5 
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
2 2 2 2 
121°
A

C 67. If p is a number such that p2 is irrational and p4 is

D rational, then the value of p can be
F
4
(1) 26° (2) 18° (1) 4 (2) 2
4 4
(3) 36° (4) 34° (3) 8 (4) 16
7
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-1)
68. In ABC, if AB = AC and the bisector of BAC (1) 119 cm2 (2) 188 cm2
intersects BC at D, then which of the following
conclusion is incorrect? (3) 289 cm2 (4) 125 cm2

(1) AD  BC (2) BD = DC 4 4
x y
70. If       47, where x and y are positive real
(3) ABD = ACD (4) BAD = ACD y x
69. In the given figure, ABCD is a square of side 25 cm. x y
numbers, then  is equal to
If APD, DSC, CRB and BQA are congruent right y x
triangles and CR = 7 cm, then ar(PQRS) is
A D (1) 5
S
P (2) 3 3

2
(3) 3
5
R
Q
B C (4) 4 5

7
MENTAL ABILITY

09
71. Find the number of English alphabet "vowels" in the 73. If in a certain code 'SUGAR' means 'QSEYP', then
box given below. 'MANGO' will mean

16
(1) KYLME
B 1 I 3 X Y i Z S R 6 b w (2) OCPIQ
s b L W  2 e m A L $ 7
8 o  u v c K P Z E q r
00 (3) OCNHQ
(4) KYLEM
74. Ram started walking towards East. Then he took
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(1) Three
right turn and went straight. Then again he turned
(2) Eight right and keep moving. Find his present direction of
movement.
(3) Ten
(1) East (2) West
01

(4) Seven (3) North (4) South

Direction (Q.72) : The first and second pair of figures 75. If ABMQS ~ BCORT then QMBAS ~ ?
T2

bear a certain relationship among them. Find the missing

(1) RODBT (2) RNDCT
one.
(3) SOCCU (4) RNDBT
72.
76. Find the correct figure that will be formed when the
EM

? given transparent sheet having some designs are

folded.
TH

(1) (2)
N

(1) (2)
A

(3) (4) (3) (4)

8
(Class IX Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2018
77. Find the missing terms in the given sequence. 83. Find the missing number in the given pattern.
2B4D, 6F8H, 10J12L, __
(1) 14N16O (2) 13M16P 5

(3) 13N16O (4) 14N16P 4725 5

78. Choose the correct alternative to complete the figure 15

?
matrix.
75

(1) 525 (2) 625

?
(3) 600 (4) 450
84. The maximum number of triangle in the given figure
are

7
(1) (2)

09
(3) (4)

16
Directions (Q.79 to Q.82) : Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below. 00 (1) 28 (2) 29
(i) Six persons D, P, M, F, R and Q are sitting face to
(3) 30 (4) 26
face in two rows, three in each.
85. Find the mirror image of
8O
(ii) M is the neighbour of R.
(iii) M is second to the right of D.
(iv) P is not at the end of any row.
01

(v) Q, the neighbour of P, is sitting diagonally opposite

to D.
79. Who is facing P?
T2

(1) Q (2) D
(1) (2)
(3) R (4) F
EM

80. Who is sitting between F and Q?

(1) P (2) R
(3) D (4) M (3) (4)
TH

81. Which two persons should be interchanged so that

P, Q and R comes in a same row? 86. Arrange the following in a meaningful logical
sequence.
(1) M and P (2) D and Q
N

(i) Cow (ii) Centipede

(3) F and P (4) F and R
(iii) Spider (iv) Millipede
A

82. After interchanging the seats of P and R, who will be

the neighbours of R in the new position? (v) Man
(1) F and M (2) F and Q (1) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i), (v) (2) (v), (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) P and Q (4) D and M (3) (iv), (iii), (ii), (v), (i) (4) (v), (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
9
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-1)
87. If the army of Lord of Dwarfs was following the path
as shown in the part of map to go to the kingdom
of Orcs from the Land of Dwarfs, then the direction (1) (2)
in which they were moving after Hill of Emmron was
Lan
do
fO
RC
Hill of
S (3) (4)
Emmron

Directions (Q.89 & Q.90) : Study the given information

Sea of W carefully and answer the following questions.
KHAZN N
S In a certain code language following codes are used for
E
coding different letters and numbers.

of D
WAR
FS
HE IS GOOD         - - --- --- -
Land

(1) South West (2) North East TRUE JOB - -  -  --- --- -

7
(3) South East (4) North West 16295  ---- -      --- ----  

09
88. The figure which replaces the ? is 89. The code for 256 is
(1)    -      --- (2)   ---  -   

16
(3)   --- -      (4)    --- -   
90. The code for 'JUST DO IT'
00 (1) ---  -  - -   -   ---
(2) ---   - -   -   ---   -
---   -    - -  ---   -
8O
(3)
?
(4) ---   -  - -   --- -  
01

‰‰‰
T2
EM
TH
N
A

10
 Our Results in Olympiads / Scholarship Exams

400 465 506 421 150 768 552

Aakashians Qualified Aakashians selected in Aakashians Qualified Aakashians Qualified Aakashians Qualified Aakashians Qualified Aakashians Qualified
in NTSE (Stage-I) NSEs 2017 in KVPY (Aptitude Test) for KVPY (Fellowship Award) in NTSE (Stage-II) in NSO (Level-I) in IMO (Level-I)
2017-2018 2017 2017 2017 2017-2018 2017-2018

Our Results in Medical & Engineering Entrance Exams

61828 503 1108

7
09
54493 Classroom + 7335 Distance & Digital 399 Classroom + 104 Distance & Digital 1011 Classroom + 97 Distance & Digital
Aakashians Qualified Aakashians Qualified Aakashians Qualified
in CBSE NEET-UG 2018 for AIIMS 2018 in JEE (Advanced) 2018

16
00
8O
01
T2
EM
TH
N
A

Registered Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: (011) 47623456 Fax: (011) 47623472
TOLL-FREE No. 1800-103-2727