1. Which of the following is a discontinuities that might be found welded fabrication?

a. Shrinkage c. Hot tear e. Laps

b. Seams d. Lack of fusion
2. An area of non fusion at the root area of weld, which normally occurs when there is a
problem with heat input, improper joint design, poor fit – up, or improper electrode
selection, is generally referred to as
a. Lack of fusion c. Wagon tracks
b. Slag line d. Incomplete penetration
3. The basic technique for visual testing are :
a. Direct visual c. Translucent visual
b. Excessive reinforcement d. All of a,b, and c
4. Which of the discontinuities would be considered in visual testing ?
a. Undercut c. Arc strike e. all
b. Underfill d. Excessive penetration
5. The in ability of weld metal to fuse with the base metals is refered to as….
a. Undercut c. lack of fusion
b. underfill d. inadequate joint penetration
6. Sandblasting for cleaning surfaces to bepenetrant tested is prohibited, why?
a. The discountinuities may be closed
b. The sand used may be foced into the discountinuity
c. The sand blasting operation may introduce discountinuities in the part
7. A continuous linear indication can be caused by which on the discountinuities?
a. porosity c. Slag inclusion
b. pitting d. Cracks
8. As a visual examiner, should have eyes checked normally at least
a. Every 1 year c. Every 3 years
b. Every 5 years d. Every 6 years
9. Which of the following is an advantage to LPI?
a. Large areas can be inspected c. parts with complex shapes can be inspected
b. It is portable d. all of the above
10. It is well recognized that machining, honing, lapping and hand sanding will result :
a. in a better penetrant inspection
b. in a longer dwell time in order to produce adequate penetration of the penetrant
c. longer dwell times
d. Metal smearing
11. A good cleaning procedure will :
a. remove all contamination from the part and not leave any reside that may interfere with
the inspection process
b. remove a small amount of metal from the surface of the part
c. Should leave the part slightly fluorescent in order toidentify any discountinuities
d. should each part the part slightly only ifit is made from 4041 alumunium
12. Excess penetrant was removed from a weld seam with solvent moisture material. How is
drying achieved?
a. with bloting paper c. by hot air
b. by waiting for half an hours d. by normal evaporation
13. the term used to define the tendency of certain liquid to penetrate into small opening such
as crack of fissures is
a. saturation c. capillary action
b. bloting d. wetting agent
14. Developer is required to :
a. drow out the penetrant from discountinuity
b. provide contrast between the penetrant and the parts background colour
c. increase the penetrants fluorescence
d. both a and b
15. Which penetrant method is easiest to use in the field?
a. fluorescent, post – emulsifiable c. visible dye, water washable
b. visible dye, solvent removable d. fluorescent, water washable
16. Magnetic particle inspection has several advantages over liquid penetrant inspection which
include :
a. components with thin coatings can be inspected without removing the coating
b. components can be inspected more rapidly
c. the technique is more portable
d. both a and b
17. when testing a surface by magnetic particle method, which type of current to detects
surface discountinuities most clearly?
a. AC c. DC
b. HWDC d. FWDC
18. A coil around the part to be tested, which direction of magnetic field will be produced?
a. a circular field c. …
b. a longitudinal field
19. For optimum effectiveness in detecting all types or orientation of dicountinuities by
magnetic particle testing, it is the best use
a. two field in different direction, with lines of flux during one examination approximately
perpendicular to the lines of flux during the other
b. only one field
c. other probe location
d. high frequency field
20. When using the direct induction method :
a. the part must be placed in the center of the coil
b. good electrical contact must be established between the test equipment and test
component
c. the cpart may be tested only one direction
d. it is not necessary to demagnetize the part
21. when performing a magnetic particle test with a coil, the part should be placed :
a. along the outside edge the coil c. along the inside edge of the coil
b. centered in the coil d. All of a,b and c
22. A material with a wider hysteresis loop has :
a. lower reluctance c. lower residual magnetism
b. higher residual magnetism d. higher permeability
23. Which of the following has a very weak and negative susceptibility to magnetic field?
a. ferromagnetic materials c. diamagnetic materials
b. paramagnetic materials d. all of the above has the same susceptibility
24. A material with a narrower hysteresis loop has :
a. higher residual magnetism c. higher permeability
b. higher residual magnetism d. higher retentivity
25. The best type of magnetic field to be use to inspect a tubular product for surface detect
along its length is
a. longitudinal field c. circular field
b. swinging field d. yoke magnetization
26. A term used in ultrasonic testing express the rate at which sound wave pass through various
materials is :
a. frequency c. velocity e. …
b. wave length d. pulse length
27. Longitudinal sound velocity of steel is about
a. 6000 m/s c. 3250 m/s e. 5920 m/s
b. 1500 m/s d. 330 m/s
28. Same transducers are specifically fabricated to be :
a. better transmitters c. better receivers
b. used in specified temperature applications d. all of the above
29. which type of screen presentation displays the amount of received ultrasonic energy as a
function time?
a. A – scan c. B – Scan
b. C – scan d. all of the above
30. When a longitudinal wave encounters an interface between two material with different
acoustic impedances, what occurs when the angle of incidence is 90 degress?
a. reflection c. refraction
b. mode conversion d. reflection and refraction
31. what is the correct formula for calculating the wavelength when the wave velocity and
frequency are known?
𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝐹𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦
a. 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ = 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦
c. 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ = 𝑉𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
b. wavelength = velocity x Frequency d. All of a, b, and c
32. The process of comparing an instrument with standard is called
a. calibration c. angulation
b. verification d. correlation
33. what type of set up can provide information about both the size of the flaw and distance
between the flaw and transducer?
a. through transmission c. pitch/catch with two transducer
b. pulse echo d. both B and C
34. when a single element transducer is operating in the pulse echo mode, the element :
a. can not start receiving reflected signals until the element has stopped ringing from its
transmit function
b. Needs to have a high pulse rate
c. should be used in the dual mode
d. can only be made with lithium sulphate
35. which the following test frequency in ultrasonic testing would generally provide the best
penetration in 400 mm thick specimen of coarse – grained steel?
a. 1.0 Mhz c. 2.0 Mhz
b. 3.0 Mhz d. 4.0 Mhz
36. X-ray generators produce radiation through
a. bremsstrahlung processes c. radioactive decay
b. K – Shell emission processes d. both a and b
37. as check on adequacy of the radiographic technique it is customary to place a standard test
piece on source side of the part to be radiographed. This standard test piece is called
a. reference plate c. penetrameter e. lead screen
b. image quality indicator d. illuminator
38. the velocity of electrons striking the target in an x-ray tube is a function of
a. atomic number of the cathode material
b. atomic number filament material
c. voltage difference between the cthode and the anode
d. current flow in the rectifier circuit
39. the most commonly used target material in an x ray tube is
a. copper c. carbon
b. carbide d. tungsten
40. image quality indicators are usually placed :
a. anywhere on the back side of the film
b. on the front side of the film near the primary area interest
c. on the front side of the test component in an area of similar thickness to the primary area
of interest
d. on the back side of the test component in the area interest
41. Radiographic contrast describe :
a. anywhere on the back side of the film
b. on the front side of the film near the primary area of interest
c. on the front side of the test component in an area of similar thickness to the primary of
interest
d. on the back side of the test component in the area of interest
42. when using geometric magnification to produce to radiograph, the penumbra will be
reduced by :
a. a longer exposure c. a faster film speed
b. a smaller source spot size d. more x ray energy
43. lowering the energy of the radiation used to produce a radiograph will generally result in :
a. less latitude c. higher contrast sensitivity
b. a longer exposure time d. all of the above
44. if a specimen were radiographed at 200 kVan again at 300 kV, with the time compensation
to give the radiograph the same density, which of the following statements would be true
a. the 150 kV would have lower contrast and greater latitude than 300 kV exposure
b. the 150 kV would have higher contrast and greater latitude than 300 kV exposure
c. the 300 kV would have lower contrast and greater latitude than 150 kV exposure
d. the 300 kV would have higher contrast and greater latitude than 150 kV exposure
45. thin sheets of lead foil in contact with the film during exposure increase the film density
because :
a. they act as a filter to harden the radiation beam
b. they reduce the amount of scaffer radiation
c. incident radiation liberates electrons which help to expose the film
d. none of the above
46. attenuation of radiation is due to :
a. absorption c. radioactive decay
b. scattering d. both a and b
47. the amount of geometric unsharpness in a radiograph is affected by :
a. the source to film distance c. the source to object distance
b. the size of the source d. all of the above
48. kilovolt, exposure time, and source to film distance are three of the most important x-ray
exposure factor that can be controlled. A fourth such exposure factor is :
a. focal point size c. filament to focal spot distance
b. temperature d. miliamperage
49. which of the following discontinuity could most likely be missed by radiography
a. a crack c. porosity
b. slag inclusion d. lack of the fusion
50. a dark narrow area 2-3 mm wide appears an radiograph all the way along the center area
representing the wld. The joint was a 60 degrees double V groove. What does this dark area
most likely represent
a. undercut c. slag entrapment
b. incomplete penetration d. lack of side wall fusion