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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed
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Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. The digit in the unit position of the integer
1 2 3 .................. 99 is __________________
x4 2
2. If 2
2 , then
x 6 x 6
(a) x 2 (b) x 2 (c) x 6 (d) x 6
3. In a flag, there are 50 paise coins, 25 paise coins and rupee coins, proportional to the numbers 3, 4 and
1
2 . If the amount to Rs, 210, then number of rupee coins is
2
(a) 42 (b) 105 (c) 83 (d) 157
4. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Privacy is _________ by laws relating to defamation, under the Indian Penal Code.
(a) secluded (b) derived (c) protected (d) confined
5. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best
expresses the relation in the original pair:
After : Before ::
(a) First: Second (b) Present : Past
(c) Contemporary : Historic (d) Successor : Predecessor
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
A B C D E F
STATE
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
7. If ‘FRIEND’ is coded as ‘HUMJTK’, how is ‘CANDLE’ written in that code?
(a) EDRIRL (b) DCQHQV (c) ESJFME (d) FYOBOC
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8. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best
expresses the relation in the original pair:
Stutter : Speech ::
(a) Blare : Hearing (b) Aroma : Smell
(c) Novacain: Touch (d) Astigmatism : Sight
9. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
The age of satellite communication _________ in 1962 with the launching of Early Bird, the first Communication
Satellite.
(a) dawned (b) negated (c) ended (d) estimated
10. Consider the statement
“Every house in every locality has atleast one member serving in either, Indian army or Indian airforce”
Negation of this statement is
(a) There is a house in every locality that has no member serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(b) There is a house in a locality that has all the members serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(c) There is a house in a locality that has no member serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(d) Every house in a locality has all the members serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. The escaping tendency of electron can be enhanced by
(a) applying positive potential (b) applying negative potential
(c) both potential will have same effect (d) By removing the potential
12. The correct statement about the following engine is
Source (T)1
w
system
sink(T)2
(i) HNO3/H2SO4
(P)
MeO N NH2
NO2
(a) (b)
MeO N NH2 MeO N NH2
H
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NO2
O2N
(c) (d)
MeO N NH2
MeO N NH2
15. Which among the following compounds can not undergo the Diels-Alder reaction ______________
Ts Me
(V) (VI)
16. Products ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the following reaction are, respectively
O
H
Na LiAlH4
X Y
EtOH
OH
OH
H OH H OH
H H
H
H
H H
OH OH
H H
H H
17. The major product formed in the following reaction is
OTf
SnBu3
Me3Si
Product (P)
(Ph3P)4Pd, CO
O O
(a) (b)
SnBu3 Bu3Sn
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O O
(c) (d)
Me3Si SiMe3
(a) 1 2 m2 2 (b) 1 2 m 2 2
25. The mass of meta stable ion produced due to decomposition of X+ in the following mass fragmentation
sequence is _______________________________
Y X
X 1 N 2
M , 380 230
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SiMe2Ph
TsOH C4H9 KH
26. (Q) C5H11 (P)
OH
Me
The major product (P) and (Q) in the above synthetic transformation is
C4H9
(a) P = Q = C5H11
Me
Me
(b) P = Q = C5H11
C4H9
C4H9 Me
(c) P = C5H11 Q = C5H11
Me C4H9
Me C4H9
(d) P = C5H11 Q = C5H11
C4H9 Me
Me3N H H NMe3
NaOEt NaOMe
Ph (P) Ph (Q)
27. Ph Ph
Me Me
H H
The major product (P) and (Q) in the above reaction is
Ph Ph
Ph P=Q=
(a) P = Q = (b)
Ph Me
Me
Ph
(c) P = Ph Q= Ph Ph (d) P = Ph Ph Q=
Me Ph
Me Ph Me Me
H
28. TBDMSO
PdCl2
O (P)
O2, CuCl
DMF, H2O
H
CN
H O
O
H H
(a) TBDMSO (b) TBDMSO
O O
H H
CN CN
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O O
H H
(c) TBDMSO (d) TBDMSO
O O
O
H H
CN CH2NH2
31
29. The solution P NMR spectrum of a mixture of isomers of the square planar complex
Pt SCN 2 Ph 2 PCH 2PPh 2 shows two singlet and two doublet at 228K. The number of possible isomer
N N 2+
N N N
N 30º 30º
Fe (P) Fe (Q)
33. t1/2 15 days t1/2 ~ 10–3 sec
N Et N Et
Et Et
N
where, N Bipyridyl ligand
(a) [CpFe(C–Et)(*CO)(PPh3)]
(b) CpFe CO * CO Et PPh 3
(c) [CpFe(*C–Et)(CO)(PPh3)]
*
(d) CpFe CO PPh 3 Et CO
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35. Identify the pair of compound which have same number of lone pair (on central atom) as well as shape
(A) HXeO 4 and SF4 (B) ICl2 and XeF2
2
(C) ClF3 and IF32 (D) PtCl4 and Ni CO 4
(a) A and C (b) B and D (c) A and B (d) A, B and C
(a) (b)
M T M T
(c) (d)
M T M T
43. The major product product (P) is
(i) NaBH4/CeCl3
(P)
MeOH
O
(ii) (EtO)3–C–CH3/H+
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(a) (b)
OH
OEt
(c) O C(OEt)2 (d)
O
CH3
44. Among the following statements, the incorrect one is/are
(1) In Norrish-Type- II reactions H transfer occurs, interamolecularly followed by the -cleavage.
(2) In Barton-reaction there is the intramolecular H transfer..
(3) In Hoffmann-Loffler Freytag reaction H transfer occurs intramolecularly..
(4) In Norrish-Type II reaction Mac-Lafferty rearrangement occurs.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) all of the above
45. Which among the following compounds decolourizes the reddish-brown colour of bromine water solution
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose (3) Fructose
(4) Cellobiose (5) Xylose
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3
46. In the following reaction sequence, products A and B are, respectively
CN
(iii) LiAlH4 (2.2 equiv)
CO2Et
(i) Boc2O, CHCl3 THF, –05ºC
[A] [B]
(ii) NaOEt, EtOH (iv) Boc2O, Dioxane
N
H
O HO
CO2Et
N Boc , N Boc
CH2 , EtO2C Boc
(a) N N (b)
H
Boc Boc N Boc
NC
O CN HO NHBoc NC
BocHN
, ,
(c) (d) O N
N N N
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49. Consider the following electron transfer reactions
II III
O Cr(H2O)5 O Cr(NH3)5
III II
(1) (H3N)5Rh N (H3N)5Rh N
NH2 NH2
II III
O Cr(H2O)5 O Cr(H2 O)5
III II
(2) (H3N)5Ru N (H3N)5Ru N
NH2 NH2
Correct statement about above reaction is
(a) rate of I is faster than II (b) rate of II is faster than I
(c) both I and II occurs at same rate (d) can not be predicted
50. In the given reaction,
H+/EtOH
H2C O (P)
O
The product (P) has the following spectral informations, 13C NMR , ppm : 203, 170, 62, 39, 22, 15 .
The structure of compound (P) is
O O O O
(a) (b)
O OEt
O
O O
O Et
(c) (d) O
H
O
51. The decreasing order of chemical shift values for proton (A–C) in the following compounds is
NO2 NMe2 OSiMe3
HA HB HC
(a) HA > HB > HC (b) HC > HA > HB (c) HA > HC > HB (d) HC > HB > HA
52. Major product formed in the reaction given below is
H3O+
O O
H H
HOOC HOOC
O
O O OH OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O
H H
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Li
53. P
CO2Me
(a) (b)
Me OH
Me OH
CO2Me
OH
(c) (d)
Me OH
Me OH
55. Stereotopological relation between Ha and Hb in given molecules respectively.
Ha Ha
Ha
Hb Hb Hb
Y Z
X
(a) Enantiotopic, Diastereotopic and identical (b) Identical, Enantiotopic and Diastereotopic
(c) Enantiotopic, Identical and Diastereotopic (d) Diastereotopic , enantiotopic and identical
56. The maximum adsorptive power is of
(a) Silica gel (b) Al2O3 (c) MgO (d) CaCO3.
57. The first excited state wave function for a 1-D SHO is
2
58. The average value of r is orbital is
3 2 1 2
(a) a0 (b) 3a02 (c) a0 (d) none
2 3
59. The atoms are present in an end centred unit cell is _____________
60. A second order reaction is 50% completed in 5 mins, the time required for 75% completion of this reaction
is __________________________(in mins)
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61. The t½ of cobalt-60 is 5.26 years. Percentage activity after 4 years will be
(a) 70% (b) 40% (c) 59% (d) 50%
62. A radical contains 31P (I = ½) with hyperfine constant 1.40 mT and three equivalent protons (I = ½) with
hyperfine constant 0.70 mT. The ESR spectrum and intensity ratio will exihibit
(a) 7, 1 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 (b) 6, 1 : 3 : 4 : 4 : 3 : 1
(c) 8, 1 : 3 : 1 : 1 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 6, 1 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
CO2Et
Na, Me3SiCl
Product (B)
CO2Et
H H
O O
(a) A = B=
OH OH
H H
H
O OSiMe3
(b) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H
H H
O OSiMe3
(c) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H H
H
O OSiMe3
(d) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H
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64. The products A and B in the following reaction sequence are
O
Ph O
OH
NaH, CS2 Bu3SnH, AlBN
(A) (B)
then MeI PhMe, 110ºC
OSiMe2t-Bu
OMe
OMe
OH
OH
B=
(a) A = ,
O
O
OH
OSiMe2t-Bu
OH
Ph O
OMe
OMe
B=
(b) A = ,
O
O
OSiMe2t-Bu
OSiMe2t-Bu
OH
OMe
OH
OH
B=
(c) A = ,
O
O
OH
OSiMe2t-Bu
O O
Ph O Ph O
O SMe
(d) A = , B=
S
O O
OSiMe2t-Bu OSiMe2t-Bu
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65. The compound 5CpCo CO 2 A upon UV iiadiation, resulted in the evolution of a gas an formation of a
new compound (B). While the IR of A showed absorption around 1988 cm–1, the spectrum as (B) showed
absorptions only 1798 cm–1. Compound (A) and (B) obey the 18 electron rule and both have Cp ring in
5 mode. Then which of the following statement is not consistent with above result.
(a) The bond order of compound (A) and (B) is 2
(b) The compound (B) have ‘CO’ at µ2-bridging position.
(c) The bond order of compound (B) is 2
(d) All Co’s of compounds (A) are terminal.
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Space for rough work
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CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 23-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-D
ANSWER KEY
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