CONFIDENTIAL

BIOLOGY
964/1
UPPER 6
SEPT 2010
1¾ HOURS

SEKOLAH MENENGAH KEBANGSAAN RAJA TUN UDA

BAYAN LEPAS, PULAU PINANG

STPM TRIAL 2010

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1

UPPER 6

1 HOUR 45 MINUTES

NAME : ………………………………………………….

FORM : UPPER 6

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION PAPER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Instructions :

1. This question paper consists of 50 questions.

2. Answer all questions.
3. Four suggested answers labeled A, B, C and D were given for each question.
Choose one correct answer and write it in the space provided.
4. Calculators are allowed.
________________________________________________________________

This question paper consists of 11 printed pages

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1. Which of the following properties of water are important to living organisms?

I polar molecule
II high heat of vaporisation
III high specific heat capacity

A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III

2. Which of the following statements is true of nucleotides?

A. nucleotides are monomers of fat and polysaccharides

B. the polymerisation of nucleotides produces nucleic acids
C. nucleotides are bonded by covalent bonds among the bases
D. nucleotides consist of hexose sugars, nitrogenous bases and phosphate molecules

3. The primary physiological role of insulin is to increase

A. glycogenesis C. gluconeogenesis
B. glycogenolysis D. glucose oxidation

4. Which statement is not true of double-stranded DNA molecules?

A. adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine

B. the nitrogenous base hold both strands by a single hydrogen bond
C. during DNA replication, a new strand is synthesised from 5’ to 3’ direction
D. the sugar phosphate backbone of the polynucleotide is on the outside of the helix

5. What statement is true of a sclerenchyma cell?

A. the cell can retain the ability to divide and differentiate into other types of plant cells
B. the mature cell exists in the region of the plant that has stopped growing in length
C. the mature cell has primary wall that is relatively thin and flexible, and most of the
cells lack secondary cell wall
D. the cell can perform most of the metabolic functions, synthesise and store the various
organic products

6. Which of the following graphs shows the possible changes in the rate of a reaction catalysed
by an enzyme in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?

A B

C D

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7. Which of the following are true of both enzymes and inorganic catalysts?
I specific in action
II required in small amounts
III increase the rates of reactions
IV unable to function at high temperatures
A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III D. III and IV
8. What are the molecules generated by photosystems I and II which are used to synthesize
organic molecules?
I O2 III NADH
II ATP IV NADPH
A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV
9. Rubisco binds with both carbon dioxide and oxygen in
A. C3 plants C. CAM plants
B. C4 plants D. C4 and CAM plants
10. Which statement is true of non-cyclic photophosphorylation?
A. it involves photosystem II only
B. it involves two wavelengths of light
C. It produces ATP and NADPH only
D. it occurs in the stroma of chloroplast
11. What will become of all carbons from a glucose molecule after it is completely oxidised?
A. pyruvate C. carbon dioxide
B. carbohydrate D. acetyl coenzyme A
12. The diagram below shows an overview of cellular respiration. Which of the following modes
of ATP synthesis at X, Y and Z are correct?

X Y Z
A. oxidative substrate-level oxidative
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
B. oxidative oxidative substrate-level
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
C. substrate-level oxidative substrate-level
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
D. substrate-level substrate-level oxidative
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
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13. Which are true of the modes of nutrition for Mucor sp?

I parasitic
II saprophytic
III products of intracellular digestion are absorbed by the mycelium
IV enzymes are secreted at the tip of the hypha to digest the substrate

A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV

14. The oxygen dissociation curve for the haemoglobin of an individual is further left compared
to the oxygen dissociation curve for the haemoglobin of a normal individual. Which
statements are true of that individual?

I the individual migrates from a low altitude to a high altitude

II the individual migrates from a high altitude to a low altitude
III the total haemoglobin and red blood cell count of the individual increases
IV the total haemoglobin and red blood cell count of the individual decreases

A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV

15. Which blood vessel supplies oxygen and nutrients directly to the myocardium?

A. Aorta C. Pulmonary vein

B. coronary artery D. Pulmonary artery

16. Which of the following is true of atrioventricular node?

A. it acts as a pacemaker
B. it initiates atrial systole
C. it initiates ventricular systole
D. it is controlled by the cardiovascular centre

17. Which of the following events occur during ventricular systole?

Tricuspid valves Bicuspid valves Semilunar valves

A. open open close
B. close close open
C. open close close
D. close open open

18. The function of microvilli on the proximal tubule of the nephron is to

A. supply ATP for the absorption of glucose via active transport

B. provide large surface area for the movement of materials into the cells
C. act as a filter to prevent the movement of large molecules into the nephron
D. generate a high concentration gradient between the tissue fluid and blood plasma in
the renal medulla

19. Which response occurs when a person loses a lot of blood?

A. a decrease in rennin secretion

B. an increase in the secretion of sodium ions
C. an increase in the production of angiotensin
D. a decrease in the production of aldosterone

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20. Which process takes place in the liver?
A. regulation of pH C. synthesis of glucagon
B. synthesis of cholesterol D. Production of corticosteroid
21. The statements below are the steps involved during the propagation of impulse at the
synapse
I the released acetylcholine molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft and fuse with
the receptors at the post-synaptic membrane
II the arrival of action potential at the synaptic knob causes the influx of calcium ions
into the synaptic knob
III the depolarisation of the post-synaptic membrane occurs and produces action
potential
IV calcium ions cause the vesicles to fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps in the propagation of impulse at
the synapse?
A. I, II, III, IV B. I, III, IV, II C. II, IV, I, III D. III, I, IV, II
22. When a skeletal muscle contracts,
A. the sarcomere shortens
B. the width of the A band decreases
C. thick and thin myofilaments shorten
D. the widths of the H zone and I band do not change
23. During the primary immune response, the main antigen-presenting cells are
A. plasma cells C. B lymphocytes
B. macrophages D. T lymphocytes
24. Oestrogen and progesterone are used in contraceptive pills to
A. maintain the endometrium of the uterus
B. inhibit the production of gonadotropic hormones
C. stimulate the release of luteinising hormone
D. stimulate the release of follicle stimulating hormone
25. Which are the common functions of auxin and gibberellins?
I inhibit abscission
II induce seed dormancy
III stimulate parthenocarpy
IV stimulate stem elongation
A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III D. III and IV
26. The diagram below shows the findings of an experiment on the effect of light on the following
of a plant.

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 Which of the following are true of the plant?

I the plant is a long day plant

II the plant is a short day plant
III far-red light cancels off the action of red light
IV red light can replace the requirement of dark period

A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV

27. Based on the table below, match the types of immune response to the structures involved.

Type of immune response Structure

I specific (P) skin
II non-specific (Q) antibodies
(R) lymphocytes
(S) phagocytic white blood cells

(P) (Q) (R) (S)

A. I I II II
B. I II I II
C. II I I II
D. II I II I

28. During lactation, hormone P stimulates the development of alveoli, hormone Q stimulates
the production of milk in the alveoli and hormone R controls the release of milk from the
mammary gland. What are the hormones P, Q and R?

P Q R
A. oxytocin prolactin progesterone
B. progesterone oxytocin prolactin
C. progesterone prolactin oxytocin
D. prolactin progesterone oxytocin

29. The diagram below shows the structure of a monocot seed.

Which of the following is responsible for producing hydrolytic enzymes after imbibitions?

A. P B. Q C. R D. S

30. Which cell is not suitable to be used in preparing a human karyotype?

A. liver cell C. Red blood cell

B. cheek cell D. White blood cell
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31. Which of the following is the absolute growth curve of a maize plant?

32. A typical sigmoid growth curve is shown below.

Which of the following are represented by P, Q, R and S?

P Q R S
A. lag phase log phase linear phase plateau phase
B. lag phase linear phase log phase plateau phase
C. plateau phase log phase linear phase lag phase
D. plateau phase linear phase log phase lag phase

33. In humans, colour blindness is a recessive sex-linked characteristic which is controlled by

allele B or b.

What genotypes of the individuals I-1, II-5 and III-4 could be predicted?

I-1 II-5 III-4

A. XbXb XBXb XBXB
B. XbXb XBXB XBXB
C. XBXb XBXB XBXb
D. XBXB XBXb XbXb

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34. A type of gene mutation is as follows:

The mutation results in

A. haemophilia C. Sickle cell anaemia

B. cystic fibrosis D. Thalassaemia major

35. In which condition does the Hardy-Weinberg principle apply?

A. genetic drift C. Random mating

B. natural selection D. Fertility of individuals is not equal

36. Which of the following is not true of mutation?

A. a chromosomal mutation of the deletion type involves the deletion of a base pair from
a gene
B. genetic disease called cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by a deletion in chromosome
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C. the deletion of two bases causes frame-shift mutation during triplet coding in
transcription
D. allopolyploidy is a chromosomal mutation which involves chromosome doubling
caused by different genomes
37. In a population of 360 rabbits, 100 are albino. The gene for albino is recessive to the gene
for Himalayan coat pattern. The number of rabbits in this population which are heterozygous
for Himalayan coat pattern is

A. 90 B. 100 C. 144 D. 179

38. The diagram below shows a model of the lactose operon.

What do I, II, III and IV represent?

I II III IV
A. repressor promoter regulator gene operator
B. repressor regulator gene operator promoter
C. regulator gene repressor operator promoter
D. regulator gene repressor promoter operator

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39. An operon consists of

A. the structural genes only

B. the regulator and promoter
C. the structural and promoter genes only
D. the structural, promoter and operator genes

40. The kingdoms Fungi and Animalia share the following characteristics except

A. both are eukaryotic organisms

B. both are heterotrophic organisms
C. both store carbohydrates in the form of glycogen
D. both are either unicellular or multicellular organisms

41. Which of the following are the products of the translation of the lactose operon?

I permease
II transacetylase
III β-galactosidase
IV RNA polymerase

A. I, II and III C. I, III and IV

B. I, II and IV D. II, III and IV

42. Bacteria carrying a plasmid with an antibiotic resistance gene are important in cloning
because

A. they help in screening

B. they cam kill other bacteria
C. they can produce antibiotics for commercial purposes
D. they protect themselves after being released into the environment

43. Helianthus and Zea are different from Pinus and Dryopteris because they have

A. seeds C. Vascular systems

B. flowers D. Dominant sporophytic phases

44. Which statement is true of allopatric speciation?

A. speciation produces hybrid species

B. individuals occupy an overlapping area
C. speciation is not caused by geographical factor
D. geographical barrier prevents gene flow between populations

45. Which is the most important factor for the occurrence of evolution?

A. point mutation in a sex cell

B. gene mutation in a somatic cell
C. change in the number of chromosomes in a somatic cell
D. change in the structure of chromosomes in a somatic cell

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46. Based on the table below, match the evidence of evolution theory to its example.

Evidence of evolution theory Example

I paleontology P marsupial animal
II geographical distribution Q homolog structure
III comparative anatomy R fossil record
IV comparative biochemistry S cytochrome

I II III IV
A. P Q S R
B. P S R Q
C. R P Q S
D. R Q P S
47. A species of organism is separated into two populations by a mountain range. Mating
between individuals of the two populations produces sterile progeny. Which of the following
explains this phenomenon?
A. Speciation does not take place
B. genetic drift does not take place
C. allopatric speciation takes place
D. sympatric speciation takes place
48. The table below shows the taxonomic hierarchy from kingdom to genus for three different
organisms.

Taxonomic hierarchy Examples of organisms

Kingdom Plantae Animalia Animalia
Phylum X Annelida Z
Class Dicotyledonae Y Mammalia
Order Ranales Terricolae Primates
Family Ranunculacae Lumbricidae Hominidae
Genus Ranunculus Lumbricus Homo

What do X, Y and Z represent?

X Y Z
A. Angiospermophyta anthozoa echinodermata
B. Angiospermophyta oligochaeta chordate
C. Bryophyta nematode mollusc
D. Coniferophyta cestoda cnidaria
49. All ecosystems are dependent on energy input because
A. producers have a greater biomass than consumer
B. carnivores have a greater biomass than producers
C. decomposers process the greatest amount of energy in an ecosystem
D. energy transformation results in partial loss of usable energy to the environment
50. In an investigation to estimate the population size of a species of beetle by capture-
recapture method, the lower surface of the beetles is marked with a small spot of paint.
Which is the reason why a beetle is not marked on its back?
A. the paint will be more visible on the lower surface of the beetle
B. the paint will make the beetle more noticeable to the predators
C. the paint will damage the epidermis of the beetle
D. the paint will hinder the movement of the beetle.

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Answer sheet

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21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

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