Brain and Cranial Nerves

1. Which portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord?

A) medulla oblongata
B) midbrain
C) pons
D) thalamus

2. Which is NOT a part of the brainstem?

A) medulla oblongata
B) midbrain
C) pons
D) thalamus

3. Which of the following brain regions does NOT belong with the others?
A) medulla oblongata
B) midbrain
C) pons
D) thalamus

4. What are the enlargements on the medulla oblongata that are involved in conscious skeletal muscle control?
A) cardiac center
B) olives
C) pyramids
D) decussate

5. Which of the following serves as a nucleus in the midbrain that is involved in maintaining muscle tone and
coordinating movements?
A) inferior olivary nucleus
B) cerebral peduncles
C) substantia nigra
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus

6. Because of injuries received in an automobile accident, a young man remains hospitalized in a coma. It is likely the
injuries affected his
A) amygdala.
B) hippocampus.
C) limbic system.
D) reticular formation.

7. Another term for "midbrain" is

A) pons.
B) mesencephalon.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.

8. The _________ of the midbrain are integral to the auditory pathway.

A) corpora quadrigemina
B) superior colliculi
C) inferior colliculi
D) tectum

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the three large nerve tracts connecting the cerebellum to the rest of the central
nervous system?
A) superior cerebellar peduncles
B) middle cerebellar peduncles
C) inferior cerebellar peduncles
D) anterior cerebellar peduncles

10. Cerebellar cortex ridges are called

A) tonsils.
B) folia.
C) vermis.
D) lobes.

11. The simplest part of the cerebellum is (are) the

A) vermis.
B) arbor vitae.
C) flocculonodular lobe.
 D) lateral hemispheres.

12. Which of the following is (are) NOT a major part of the cerebellum?
A) tegmentum
B) flocculonodular lobe
C) vermis
D) lateral hemispheres

13. Which of the following is the largest feature of the diencephalon?

A) thalamus
B) subthalamus
C) epithalamus
D) hypothalamus

14. The small stalk connecting the two lateral portions of the thalamus is known as the
A) interthalamic adhesion
B) intermediate mass
C) Both A and B.
D) Neither A nor B.

15. Axons carrying auditory information synapse in the __________ of the thalamus
A) medial geniculate nucleus
B) lateral geniculate nucleus
C) ventral posterior nucleus
D) None of the above.

16. Axons carrying visual information synapse in the _________ of the thalamus.
A) medial geniculate nucleus
B) lateral geniculate nucleus
C) ventral posterior nucleus
D) None of the above.

17. Axons carrying information other than visual or auditory information synapse in the _________ of the thalamus.
A) medial geniculate nucleus
B) lateral geniculate nucleus
C) ventral posterior nucleus
D) None of the above.

18. Which of the following is NOT a part of the diencephalons?

A) hypothalamus
B) pineal gland
C) pons
D) thalamus

19. The stalk that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary is the
A) corpus callosum.
B) infundibulum.
C) insula.
D) intermediate mass.

20. Which lobes of the cerebrum serve as the main center for receiving and processing of sensory information EXCEPT
for smell, hearing, and vision?
A) frontal
B) occipital
C) parietal
D) temporal

21. Which lobe is important for voluntary motor functions, and which lobe receives and interprets sensory input for
hearing?
A) frontal and temporal
B) frontal and occipital
C) parietal and occipital
D) temporal and occipital

22. The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated by the
A) central sulcus.
B) fissure of Rolando.
C) fissure of Sylvius.
D) longitudinal fissure.
23. Which of the following is NOT one of the lobes of the cerebral hemisphere?
A) ethmoid
B) frontal
C) occipital
D) temporal

24. The _______ comprises the bulk of the mature adult brain.
A) cerebellum
B) cerebrum
C) medulla oblongata
D) pons

25. The posterior boundary of the frontal lobe is the

A) anterior median fissure.
B) central sulcus.
C) lateral sulcus.
D) posterior median sulcus.

26. What type of nuclei in the cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain are involved in control of motor functions?
A) ependymal cells
B) caudate nucleus
C) basal nuclei
D) lentiform nucleus

27. Which of the following occupy a large portion of the cerebrum?

A) basal nuclei
B) red nucleus
C) substantia nigra
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus

28. All of the following are part of the limbic system EXCEPT the
A) amygdala
B) fornix
C) medulla
D) hippocampus

29. What part of the cerebrum is located deep within the lateral fissure and functions to evaluate information about
taste?
A) frontal lobe
B) insula
C) parietal lobe
D) temporal lobe

30. A ridge or fold on the surface of the cerebrum is called a

A) ganglion.
B) gyrus.
C) lobe.
D) sulcus.

31. Tracts of nerves in the cerebrum include all of the following EXCEPT
A) insula fibers.
B) association fibers.
C) commissural fibers.
D) projection fibers.

32. Gyri on the cerebral surface _______ the surface area of the cortex.
A) slightly increase
B) greatly increase
C) slightly decrease
D) greatly decrease

33. Venous blood flows through the _______, located in some areas of the meninges surrounding the brain.
A) dural venous sinuses
B) epidural spaces
C) subarachnoid spaces
D) ventricles
34. Dural sinuses contain
A) air.
B) mucous.
C) serous fluid.
D) venous blood.

35. What is the name for the portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the cortex?
A) falx cerebri
B) falx cerebelli
C) tectoral membrane
D) tentorium cerebelli

36. What is the name for the portion of the dura mater that separates the two cerebellular hemispheres?
A) falx cerebri
B) falx cerebelli
C) tectoral membrane
D) tentorium cerebelli

37. A cluster of specialized ependymal cells and capillaries that form and secrete cerebrospinal fluid into a ventricle is a
A) arachnoid granulation.
B) cervical plexus.
C) choroid plexus.
D) pampiniform plexus.

38. The cerebrospinal fluid circulates around the brain and spinal cord in the
A) epidural space.
B) neural tube.
C) subarachnoid space.
D) subdural space.

39. The fingerlike structures at which the reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid into the blood occurs are the
A) arachnoid granulations.
B) choroid plexuses.
C) chorionic villi.
D) folia.

40. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates from the third ventricle to the fourth through the
A) cerebral aqueduct.
B) foramen of Magendie.
C) foramina of Monro.
D) interventricular foramina.

41. From superficial to deep, the three layers of the meninges are
A) dura mater - pia mater - arachnoid mater
B) dura mater - arachnoid mater - pia mater
C) pia mater - dura mater - arachnoid mater
D) pia mater - arachnoid mater - dura mater

42. Which of the following is a space within the brain that is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
A) ependymal space
B) subpial space
C) subdural space
D) ventricle

43. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?

A) It forms a protective cushion around the brain and spinal cord.
B) It helps nourish cells and maintain a stable ion balance in the central nervous system.
C) It transports oxygen in white blood cells to neurons in the central nervous system.
D) It transports waste back to the blood.

44. The ______ ascend(s) to the head along the anterior - lateral part of the neck.
A) internal carotid arteries
B) vertebral arteries
C) basilar artery
D) cerebral arterial circle

45. The ______ ascend(s) to the head along the posterior part of the neck.
A) internal carotid arteries
B) vertebral arteries
 C) basilar artery
D) cerebral arterial circle

46. The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is comprised of the

A) basilar artery.
B) internal carotid artery.
C) Both A and B.
D) Neither A nor B.

47. Lipid-soluble substances move through the blood-brain barrier by

A) active transport.
B) mediated transport.
C) diffusion.
D) None of the above.

48. Water-soluble substances move through the blood-brain barrier by

A) active transport.
B) mediated transport.
C) diffusion.
D) None of the above.

49. Which of the following is NOT one of the three branches of the cerebral arterial circle?
A) anterior branch
B) middle branch
C) lateral branch
D) posterior branch

50. The central nervous system develops from the embryonic

A) neural plate.
B) notochord.
C) mesoderm.
D) endoderm.

51. The embryonic forebrain gives rise to the

A) cerebrum and cerebellum.
B) cerebrum and midbrain.
C) cerebrum and diencephalon.
D) cerebellum and diencephalon.

52. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the development of the central nervous system?
A) neural tube
B) neural plate
C) three-vesicle (three-pouch) brain
D) four-vesicle (four-pouch) brain

53. The bulk of the adult human brain develops from which of the following secondary vesicles (pouches) during
embryonic development?
A) diencephalon
B) mesencephalon
C) myelencephalon
D) telencephalon

54. Which of the following adult brain regions does NOT develop from the embryonic hindbrain?
A) cerebellum
B) medulla oblongata
C) pons
D) thalamus

55. There are _____ pairs of cranial nerves.

A) 12
B) 21
C) 31
D) 43

56. Sensory impulses from taste receptors are transmitted to the brain on which of the following cranial nerves?
A) I, II and VIII
B) III, IV and VI
C) VII, IX and X
D) only VII
57. The anesthetic a dentist injects before drilling to clean and repair a cavity is done to block sensory impulses from a
branch of what cranial nerve?
A) abducens
B) facial
C) trigeminal
D) trochlear

58. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT contain only sensory axons?
A) olfactory
B) optic
C) trigeminal
D) vestibulocochlear

59. Each of the following cranial nerves supplies motor impulses to muscles of the eye EXCEPT the
A) abducens
B) oculomotor
C) trigeminal
D) trochlear

60. Autonomic fibers of the _______ nerve carry motor impulses to the heart and many smooth muscles and glands in
the viscera of the thorax and abdomen.
A) abducens
B) accessory
C) trochlear
D) vagus

61. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT originate from the brainstem?
A) abducens
B) hypoglossal
C) olfactory
D) trigeminal

62. The nerve fibers carrying sensory information through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone are associated which
the _______ nerve.
A) accessory
B) olfactory
C) ophthalmic
D) optic

63. How many of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves connect to the brainstem?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12

64. Which cranial nerve innervates four of the six muscles that move the eye and the levator palpebrae superioris
muscle that raises the superior eyelid?
A) abducens
B) oculomotor
C) optic
D) trochlear

65. A drooping upper eyelid is a symptom indicative of possible damage to what cranial nerve?
A) abducens
B) oculomotor
C) optic
D) trochlear

66. Which of the following cranial nerves transmit sensory impulses pertaining to taste to the brainstem?
A) abducens and facial
B) facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus
C) trigeminal and facial
D) trigeminal and trochlear

67. The only cranial nerve involved in sensory cutaneous innervation is the
A) facial.
B) glossopharyngeal.
C) trigeminal.
 D) vagus.

68. Which cranial nerve controls the muscles involved in chewing?

A) facial
B) glossopharyngeal
C) trigeminal
D) vagus

69. What cranial nerve causes movements of the tongue involved in speaking, manipulating food and swallowing?
A) facial
B) hypoglossal
C) trigeminal
D) vagus

70. What two pairs of cranial nerves do NOT enter or exit the central nervous system through the brainstem?
A) abducens and optic
B) olfactory and optic
C) olfactory and oculomotor
D) optic and oculomotor

71. All of the following are categories of cranial nerve function EXCEPT
A) parasympathetic
B) sensory
C) somatic motor
D) sympathetic

72. The jugular foramen provides a route of passage through the cranium for which of the following cranial nerves?
A) accessory and hypoglossal
B) facial and vestibulocochlear
C) olfactory and optic
D) glossopharyngeal, vagus and accessory

PART II

1. To separate the brainstem from the forebrain, a cut must be made between the
A) medulla and pons.
B) pons and midbrain.
C) midbrain and diencephalon.
D) diencephalon and cerebrum.
E) pons and cerebellum.

2. The pyramids are found in the

A) medulla oblongata.
B) midbrain.
C) diencephalon.
D) pons.
E) cerebrum.

3. The pyramids are __________ nerve tracts that are involved in the conscious control of __________.
A) ascending, smooth muscle
B) ascending, skeletal muscle
C) descending, smooth muscle
D) descending, cardiac muscle
E) descending, skeletal muscle

4. A term that means nerve tracts cross to the opposite side of the body is ___________.
A) olivary
B) pons
C) decussate
D) tectum
E) colliculi

5. Which of these is (are) found in the medulla oblongata?

A) cardioregulatory center
B) swallowing reflex center
C) reflex centers for sneezing and coughing
D) reflex center for vomiting
E) all of these
6. The corpora quadrigemina are found in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) midbrain.
C) diencephalon.
D) pons.
E) cerebrum.

7. The superior colliculi are involved with __________, whereas the inferior colliculi are involved with __________.
A) control of skeletal muscle, blood pressure
B) blood pressure, heart rate
C) hearing, muscle tone
D) breathing, heart rate
E) visual reflexes, hearing and auditory reflexes

8. In the midbrain, descending tracts going from the cerebrum to the spinal cord are called the
A) cerebral peduncles.
B) red nuclei.
C) superior colliculus.
D) substantia nigra.
E) tegmentum.

9. Which of these structures contains the intermediate mass?

A) medulla oblongata
B) thalamus
C) epithalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) pons

10. The pineal body is found in the

A) subthalamus.
B) thalamus.
C) epithalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) pons.

11. The part of the brain that has hunger, satiety, and sleep centers; affects activities of the ANS; and plays a role in
emotional responses such as rage, pain, and pleasure is the
A) medulla.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) epithalamus.
E) hypothalamus.

12. The infundibulum connects

A) the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.
B) the thalamus and hypothalamus.
C) the thalamus and epithalamus.
D) the thalamus and subthalamus.
E) the medulla and the pons.

13. The cerebrum is divided into right and left hemispheres by the
A) lateral fissure.
B) central sulcus.
C) longitudinal fissure.
D) precentral gyrus.
E) transverse fissure.

14. The primary motor cortex is located in the

A) temporal lobe.
B) occipital lobe.
C) postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
D) precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
E) insular lobe.

15. The __________ lobe of the cerebrum is the major center for the reception and evaluation of sensory information,
except for smell, hearing, and vision.
A) frontal
B) insula
C) occipital
 D) parietal
E) temporal

16. Nerve tracts that connect between the cerebrum and other parts of the brain and spinal cord are called
A) association fibers.
B) commissural fibers.
C) projection fibers.

17. Cerebrospinal fluid passes into the blood by way of the

A) arachnoid granulations.
B) cerebral aqueduct.
C) lateral ventricles.
D) choroid plexus.
E) brachial plexus.

18. Which of these spaces contains cerebrospinal fluid?

A) lateral ventricles of the brain
B) interventricular foramen
C) central canal of spinal cord
D) subarachnoid space
E) all of these

19. During embryologic development, the neural crest cells separate from the neural crests and give rise to part of the
A) brain.
B) eyes.
C) ears.
D) peripheral nervous system.
E) somatic motor nervous system.

20. In the developmental process, the lumen (space) of the neural tube becomes the
A) forebrain.
B) ventricles of the brain.
C) midbrain.
D) pupils of the eye.
E) ear.

21. From this list of cranial nerves:

1. IV (Trochlear)
2. VI (Abducens)
3. VII (Facial)
4. XI (Accessory)
5. XII (Hypoglossal)
Select the nerves that are somatic motor/proprioceptive only.
A) 1,2,3,4,5
B) 1,2,4,5
C) 1,3,4,5
D) 2,3,4
E) 3,4,5

22. A drooping upper eyelid could indicate damage to cranial nerve

A) I (Olfactory).
B) II (Optic).
C) III (Oculomotor).
D) IV (Trochlear).
E) VI (Abducens).

23. From this list of cranial nerves:

1. III (Oculomotor)
2. VII (Facial)
3. IX (Glossopharyngeal)
4. X (Vagus)
5. XII (Hypoglossal)
Select the nerves that are sensory from the tongue.
A) 1,3,5
B) 1,2,4
C) 2,3,4
D) 2,3,5
E) 3,4,5
24. Which of these cranial nerves carries parasympathetic fibers to the thoracic and abdominal organs?
A) III (Oculomotor)
B) VII (Facial)
C) IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) X (Vagus)
E) XII (Hypoglossal)

25. From this list of cranial nerves:

1. I (Olfactory)
2. II (Optic)
3. III (Oculomotor)
4. IV (Trochlear)
5. VI (Abducens)
Select the nerves that control movement of eye muscles.
A) 1,3,5
B) 1,4,5
C) 2,3,4
D) 2,4,5
E) 3,4,5

26. A patient is unable to move her eyes laterally. Which cranial nerve might be damaged?
A) (Olfactory)
B) (Optic)
C) (Oculomotor)
D) Trochlear
E) (Trigeminal)
F) (Abducens)

27. Which of these nerves is responsible for tears (i.e., stimulates the lacrimal gland) and also stimulates two salivary
glands?
A) II (Optic)
B) III (Oculomotor)
C) V (Trigeminal)
D) VI (Abducens)
E) VII (Facial)

28. From this list of cranial nerves:

1. V (Trigeminal)
2. VII (Facial)
3. IX (Glossopharyngeal)
4. X (Vagus)
5. XII (Hypoglossal)
Select the nerves that contain all three types of fibers: sensory, somatic motor/proprioceptive, and parasympathetic.
A) 1,3,5
B) 1,4,5
C) 2,3,4
D) 2,4,5
E) 3,4,5

29. Parts of this cranial nerve must be anesthetized for dental work.
A) III (Oculomotor)
B) IV (Trochlear)
C) V (Trigeminal)
D) VI (Abducens)
E) VII (Facial)

30. From this list of cranial nerves:

1. VII (Facial)
2. IX (Glossopharyngeal)
3. X (Vagus)
4. XII (Hypoglossal)
Select the nerves that are sensory from the pharynx.
A) 1,2
B) 1,3
C) 2,3
D) 3,4
E) 2,4
31. From this list of cranial nerves:
1. III (Oculomotor)
2. VII (Facial)
3. IX (Glossopharyngeal)
4. X (Vagus)
5. XII (Hypoglossal)
Select the nerves that control tongue muscles.
A) 1,2
B) 2,3
C) 3,4
D) 3,5
E) 4,5

32. Which cranial nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles?
A) V (Trigeminal)
B) VII (Facial)
C) IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) XI (Accessory)
E) XII (Hypoglossal)

33. Bell palsy results in paralysis of facial muscles. Which cranial nerve is involved?
A) V (Trigeminal)
B) VII (Facial)
C) IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) XI (Accessory)
E) XII (Hypoglossal)

34. The superior and inferior alveolar nerves are branches of which cranial nerve?
A) III (Oculomotor)
B) V (Trigeminal)
C) VII (Facial)
D) IX (Glossopharyngeal)
E) X (Vagus)

35. This cranial nerve contains parasympathetic fibers that constrict the pupils of the eyes.
A) I (Olfactory)
B) II (Optic)
C) III (Oculomotor)
D) IV Trochlear
E) VI (Abducens)

36. The only cranial nerve involved in sensory cutaneous (skin) innervation is the
A) III (Oculomotor).
B) V (Trigeminal).
C) VII (Facial).
D) IX (Glossopharyngeal).
E) X (Vagus).

37. Which cranial nerve has only somatic motor/proprioceptive and parasympathetic fibers?
A) III (Oculomotor)
B) V (Trigeminal)
C) VII (Facial)
D) IX (Glossopharyngeal)
E) X (Vagus)

38. If you feel pain in your stomach, through which cranial nerve are the action potentials traveling to your brain?
A) V (Trigeminal)
B) VII (Facial)
C) IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) X (Vagus)
E) XI (Accessory)