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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

IIT – JEE 2018


PHASE – VII_PAPER – I_SET – A
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 210
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
consists of three sections.
8. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
9. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
10. Section III contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
D. Marking Scheme
11. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded in this section.
12. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded.
No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks
will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.

Useful data
–1 –1 –2 –1 –1 –1
R = 8.314 JK mol or 8.206  10 L atm K mol ; 1 F = 96500 C mol
–34 –19
h = 6.626  10 Js; 1 eV = 1.602  10 J
–1
c = 3.0  10 ms ; NA = 6.022  10
8 23

(Atomic Masses in amu : H = 1 , He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K
= 39, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5)

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.


If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-2

PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A transformer (step up) with an 1: 8 turn ratio has 60 Hz, 120 V across the primary. The load in the
secondary is 104  . The current in the secondary is
(A) 1.2 A (B) 0.96 A (C) 12 mA (D) 96 mA

2. A direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an alternating current I = 10 sin t A flowing through a


wire. The effective value of the resulting current will be
(A) 15 / 2 A (B) 5 3A (C) 5 5A (D) 15 A

3. The potential difference across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V
respectively in an L – C–R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.0

4. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency 320s1 is applied to a series LCR
circuit. Given that R  5,L  25mH and C  1000F . The total impedance, and phase difference
between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be
5 8
(A) 10 and tan1   (B) 10 and tan1  
3 3
5
(C) 7 and tan1   (D) 7 and 450
 
3

5. A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz is vibrated just above the tube of 120 cm height. Water is poured
slowly in the tube. What is the minimum height of water necessary for the resonance (speed of sound
in the air = 340 m /sec)
(A) 15 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 45 cm

6. A tuning fork sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency 256 emits two beats. On loading the
tuning fork of frequency 256, the number of beats heard are 1 per second. The frequency of tuning
fork is
(A) 257 (B) 258 (C) 256 (D) 254

7. In the experiment for the determination of the speed of sound in air using the resonance column
method, the length of the air column that resonates in the fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is 0.1
m. when this length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork resonates with the first overtone.
Calculate the end correction.
(A) 0.012 m (B) 0.025 (C) 0.05 m (D) 0.024

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-3

8. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one– fifth of the velocity of
sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency.
(A) 5 % (B) 20 % (C) zero (D) 0.5 %
1
9. The displacement due to a wave moving in the positive x –direction is given by y  at time t=
1  x2  
1
0 and by y  at t= 2 seconds , where x and y are in metres. The velocity of the wave in
1   x  12 
 
m/s is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

10. A source of sound is travelling towards a stationary observer. The frequency of sound heard by the
observer is of three times the original frequency. The velocity of sound is v m /s. The speed of source
will be.
2 3
(A) v (B) v (C) v (D) 3 v
3 2

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

11. A driver in a stationary car blows a horn which produces monochromatic sound waves of frequency
1000 Hz normally towards a reflecting wall. The wall approaches the car with a speed of 3.3 ms1
(A) The frequency of sound reflected from wall and heard by the driver is 1020 Hz
(B) The frequency of sound reflected from wall and heard by the driver is 980 Hz
(C) The percentage increase in frequency of sound after reflected from wall is 2 %
(D) The percentage decrease in frequency of sound after reflected from wall is 2%

  1 
12. The equation of a wave is y  4 sin   2t  x   where y and x are in cm and t is in second
2  8 
–1
(A) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4 cm, 16 cm, 32 cms and 1 Hz
respectively with wave propagating along +x direction
–1
(B) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4cm, 32 cm, 16 cms and 0.5 Hz
respectively with wave propagating along – x direction
(C) Two positions occupied by the particle at time interval of 0.4 have a phase difference of 0.4 
radian
0
(D) Two positions occupied by the particle at separation of 12 cm have a phase difference of 135

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-4

13. Any progressive wave equation in differential from is


1 2 y 1 2 y 1 y 1 y
(A) 2 2  2 2 (B)  2
 t k x  t k x
1  y
2
1 2 y 1  y 1 y
(C) 2 2   2 2 (D) 
 t k x  t k x

14. Consider a harmonic wave travelling on a string of mass per unit length . The wave has velocity v,
amplitude A and frequency f. The power transmitted by a harmonic wave on the string is proportional
to (take constant of proportionality as 22 )
(A) 
2 2
(B) v (C) A (D) f
.
15 Standing wave can be produced
(A) in a string clamped at both the ends
(B) in a string clamped at one end and free at the other
(C) When incident wave gets reflected from the wall superimpose
(D) When two identical waves with a phase difference of  are moving in the same direction
superimpose
SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

16. A stationary source is emitting sound at a fixed frequency f0 , which is reflected by two cars
approaching the source. The difference between the frequencies of sound reflected from the cars is
1.2 % of f0 . The difference in speeds of cars (in km per hour) to the nearest integer is (The cars are
moving at constant speeds much smaller than speed of sound which is 330ms1 )

17. A 20 m long string having a mass 1.0 g is fixed at the both ends. The tension in the string is 0.5 N.
The string is set into vibration using an external vibrator of frequency 100 Hz. The separation (in cm)
between successive nodes on the string is

18. A stretched string of length ' ' is excited by plucking the string at right angles to its length at a point
which is a distance of from one end and stopping the vibration at the centre of the string with a
4
finger. Find the number of antinodes for the vibration

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-5

19. At a distance of 20 m from a point source, the loudness is 30 dB. After a minimum distance of
 
x 50 10 metre the sound is inaudible. Value of x is

20. A uniform horizontal rod of length 40 cm and mass 1.2 kg is


supported by two identical wires as shown in fig. A mass of
4.8 kg is placed on the rod so that the same tuning fork may
excite the wire on left into its fundamental vibrations and that
on right into its first overtone. The distance of the mass from
–2
the left end of the rod in cm is (g= 10 ms )

PART II: CHEMISTRY


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. In a polymer sample, 30% of molecules have a molecular mass of 20, 000, 40% have 30, 000 and the
rest 60, 000. What is the weight average molecular mass of the polymer ?
(A) 40, 300 (B) 30, 600 (C) 43, 333 (D) 33, 353

22. The ratio between the number of carbon atoms and nitrogen atoms in melamine molecule is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2

23. CH2  CH2 


Bayer ' s reagent
A
COCH3

1 ) K MnO4/ OH Polymerisation
B; A B B (polymer)
2 ) Hydrolysis

CH3
Here ‘C’ is
(A) Glyptal (B) Dacron (C) Nylon–6, 6 (D) Nylon 6

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-6

24. Which of the following is least effective in causing flocculation of Fe(OH) 3 sol
(A) K3 Fe  CN6  (B) K2CrO4
(C) KBr (D) K2SO4

25. The potential difference between the fixed charged layer and the diffused layer having opposite
charge is called
(A) Zeta potential (B) Streaming potential
(C) Doru potential (D) Colloidal potential

26. The coagulation of 10 ml of gold sol is just prevented on adding 1 ml of 10% NaCl in the presence of
0.025g of starch. The gold number of starch is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.025 (C) 25 (D) 250
–5 –7 –9
27. Ka values for HA,a HB and HD are 10 , 10 and 10 respectively. Which of the following will be
correct for decimolar aqueous solutions of NaA, NaB and NaD at 25C ?
(A) pHNaA  pHNaB (B) pHNaD  pHNaB
(C) pHNaA  pHNaD (D) pHNaB  7

28. The pH of HCl is 1. The amount of NaOH to be added to 100 ml of such a HCl solution to get pH of 7
is
(A) 4g (B) 0.4g (C) 4 mg (D) 0.4 mg
–16
29. At certain temperature the Kw of D2O is 10 M. Then the pD of pure D2O at that temperature is
(A) 7 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 6

30. The conjugate base of  Al H2O 3  OH3  is


 
(A)  Al H2O 3  OH2  (B)  Al H2O 3  OH2 O
 
(C)  Al H2O 3  OH3  (D)  Al H2O 2  OH4 

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-7

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

31. For ‘invert sugar’, the correct statement(s) is (are)


(Given : specific rotations of (+)–sucrose, (+)–maltose, L–(–)–glucose and L–(+)–fructose in aqueous
solution are +66, +140, –52 and +92, respectively)
(A) ‘invert sugar’ is prepared by acid catalyzed hydrolysis of maltose
(B) ‘invert sugar’ is an equimolar mixture of D–(+)–glucose and D–(–)–fructose
(C) specific rotation of ‘invert sugar’ is – 20.
(D) on reaction with Br2 water, ‘invert sugar’ forms saccharic acid as one of the products

32. Following are the structures of D-Glucose and D-Galactose.


CHO CHO

H OH H OH

HO H HO H

H OH HO H

H OH H OH

CH 2OH CH 2OH

D-Glucose D-Galactose
Which of the following statements are correct about these compounds?
(A) they are diastereomers (B) both are components of lactose
(C) they are C  4 epimers (D) both are optically active

33. Which of the following will give red ppt with Fehling’s solution?
(A) HCHO (B) HCOOH (C) glucose (D) fructose

34. On complete hydrogenation, natural rubber does not give


(A) ethylene–propylene copolymer (B) vulcanised rubber
(C) polypropylene (D) polybutylene

35. Which of the following amino acids has asymmetric carbon?


(A) Histidine (B) Glycine (C) Alanine (D) Threonine

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-8

SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

36. How many of the following are negatively charged sols ?


As2S3, starch, charcoal, Haemoglobin, TiO2, gold sol, congo red, Al2O3 . xH2O
3
37. Among the following compounds of Xenon, no. of compounds having sp hybridisation are
(XeF2, XeO3, XeF4, XeF6, XeOF2, XeO4)

38. How many of the following are condensation polymers?


PVC, PTFE, Nylon-6, 6, Polythene, Bakelite, Dacron, Nylon-6.

XeFn dissolves in HF according to the reaction XeF n + HF   XeFn1  HF2  . What is the value of n
 
39.
?
– – –10
40. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X and HX. Kb for X is 10 . Find the pH of
buffer.

PART III: MATHEMATICS


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

n 4 dy 4
41. The real value of n for which the substitution y = u will transform the differential equation 2x y +y
dx
6
= 4x into a homogeneous equation is
1 3
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D) 2
2 2
2
42. If the distance of two points P and Q on the parabola y = 4ax from the focus of a parabola are 4 and
9 respectively then the distance of the point of intersection of tangents at P and Q from the focus is
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 3.5 (D) 13

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-9

2
43. The tangents at P and Q on the parabola y = 4x meet in T. S is the focus such that, SP, ST and SQ
2
are equal to a, b and c, respectively. Then the roots of the equation ax + 2bx + c = 0 are
(A) real and different (B) real and equal (C) complex numbers (D) irrational

If 2x + 3y = , x – y =  and kx + 15y = r are 3 concurrent normal of parabola y = x, then value of k


2
44.
is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

 x  4  y  3
2 2


2 2
45. If the reflection of the ellipse = 1 in the mirror x – y – 2 = 0 is k1x + k2y – 160x –
16 9
k1  k 2
36y + 292 = 0, then is equal to
5
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

x2 y2
46. Maximum length of chord of the ellipse  = 1, such that eccentric angles of its extremities differ
8 4

by is
2
(A) 4 (B) 2 2 (C) 16 (D) 8
47. The area of the parallelogram formed by the tangents at the points whose eccentric angles are ,
 3 x2 y2
  ,  + ,   on the ellipse 2  2 = 1 is
2 2 a b
(A) ab (B) 4ab (C) 3ab (D) 2ab

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-10

x2 y2
48. The maximum distance of the centre of the ellipse  = 1 from the chord of contact of mutually
16 9
perpendicular tangents of the ellipse is
144 9 16 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5

x2 y2 
 2 = 1 at P   forms a triangle of area 3a square units, with
2
49. A tangent drawn to hyperbola
6
2
a b
coordinate axes, then the square of its eccentricity is equal to
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18

x2 y2
50. If e is the eccentricity of the hyperbola  = 1 and  is the angle between the asymptotes, then
a2 b2

cos is equal to
2
1 e 2 1 2
(A) (B) e (C) (D)
e e e e

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.
2
51. The point/points of contact of normal to the parabola y = 4ax (a > 0) such that the y-intercept of the
normal is double of the x-intercept, is
a a
(A) (4a, 4a) (B) (4a, –4a) (C)  ,  (D) none of these
4 2

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-11

x2 y2

2
52. If x – 2y + 4 = 0 is a common tangent to y = 4x and = 1, then the value of ‘b’ and the other
4 b2
common tangent are given by
(A) b = 3 (B) b = 3 (C) x + 2y + 4 = 0 (D) x – 2y – 4 = 0

53. The line y = mx 


a 2

 b2 m
is normal to the ellipse
x2 y2
 = 1 for the values of m belonging to
a2  b2m2 4 b2
(A) (0, 1) (B) (0, ) (C) R (D) {0, 1}

1 1 k
54. In X–Y plane, the path defined by the equation   = 0 is
xm ym  x  y n
1
(A) a parabola if m = , k = –1, n = 0 (B) a hyperbola if m = 1, k = –1, n = 0
2
(C) a pair of lines if m = k = n = 1 (D) a pair of lines if m = k = –1, n = 1

x2 y2
 2 = 1 be reciprocal to that of the ellipse x + 4y = 4. If the
2 2
55. Let the eccentricity of the hyperbola 2
a b
hyperbola passes through a focus of the ellipse, then
x2 y2
(A) the equation of the hyperbola is  = 1 (B) a focus of the hyperbola is (2, 0)
3 2
2 2 2
(C) the eccentricity of the hyperbola is (D) the equation of the hyperbola is x – 3y = 3
3

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-12

SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
2 2 2
56. The shortest distance between parabolas y = 4x and y = 2x – 6 is d, then d =
2 2
57. The line x + 2y + 4 = 0 is a common tangent to the parabola y = 4ax and x = 4by, then |b – a| is
2 2
58. Maximum distance between two points lying on the curve 4x + 9y + 8x – 36y + 4 = 0 is

x2 y2

2 2
59. A tangent of slope 2 of the ellipse = 1 (a > b) is normal to the circle x + y + 4x + 10y + 1 = 0.
a2 b2
 1 1
If a   ,  , then minimum value of latus rectum of ellipse is
8 4 

x2 y2
60. The line 2x + y = 1 is tangent to the hyperbola  = 1. If this line passes through the point of
a2 b2
intersection of the nearest directrix and the x-axis, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-13

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – I_SET-A
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D
5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B
9. A 10. A 11. A,C 12. B,C,D
13. A,B 14. A,B,C,D 15. B,C 16. 7
17. 5 18. 4 19. 4 20. 5

CHEMISTRY
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C
25. A 26. C 27. C 28. B
29. C 30. D 31. B, C 32. A, B, C, D
33. A, B, C, D 34. B, C, D 35. A, C, D 36. 5
37. 2 38. 4 39. 6 40. 4

MATHEMATICS
41. C 42. B 43. B 44. C
45. B 46. A 47. B 48. C
49. C 50. BONUS 51. AB 52. AC
53. ABCD 54. CD 55. BCD 56. 5
57. 7 58. 6 59. 6 60. 2

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-14

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – I_SET – B
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 210
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
6. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
7. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
8. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
9. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
consists of three sections.
14. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
15. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
16. Section III contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
D. Marking Scheme
17. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded in this section.
18. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded.
No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks
will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.

Useful data
–1 –1 –2 –1 –1 –1
R = 8.314 JK mol or 8.206  10 L atm K mol ; 1 F = 96500 C mol
–34 –19
h = 6.626  10 Js; 1 eV = 1.602  10 J
–1
c = 3.0  10 ms ; NA = 6.022  10
8 23

(Atomic Masses in amu : H = 1 , He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K
= 39, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5)

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.


If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-15

PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A tuning fork sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency 256 emits two beats. On loading the
tuning fork of frequency 256, the number of beats heard are 1 per second. The frequency of tuning
fork is
(A) 254 (B) 258 (C) 256 (D) 257

2. In the experiment for the determination of the speed of sound in air using the resonance column
method, the length of the air column that resonates in the fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is 0.1
m. when this length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork resonates with the first overtone.
Calculate the end correction.
(A) 0.012 m (B) 0.024 (C) 0.05 m (D) 0.025

3. A transformer (step up) with an 1: 8 turn ratio has 60 Hz, 120 V across the primary. The load in the
secondary is 104  . The current in the secondary is
(A) 96 mA (B) 0.96 A (C) 12 mA (D) 1.2 A

4. A direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an alternating current I = 10 sin t A flowing through a


wire. The effective value of the resulting current will be
(A) 15 / 2 A (B) 5 5A (C) 5 3A (D) 15 A

5. The potential difference across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V
respectively in an L – C–R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 1.0

6. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one– fifth of the velocity of
sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency.
(A) 20 % (B) 5 % (C) zero (D) 0.5 %

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1
7. The displacement due to a wave moving in the positive x –direction is given by y  at time t=
1  x 
2

1
0 and by y  at t= 2 seconds , where x and y are in metres. The velocity of the wave in
1   x  12 
 
m/s is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

8. A source of sound is travelling towards a stationary observer. The frequency of sound heard by the
observer is of three times the original frequency. The velocity of sound is v m /s. The speed of source
will be.
3 2
(A) v (B) v (C) v (D) 3 v
2 3

9. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency 320s1 is applied to a series LCR
circuit. Given that R  5,L  25mH and C  1000F . The total impedance, and phase difference
between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be
5
(A) 10 and tan1   (B) 7 and 450
 
3
 5  8
(C) 7 and tan1   (D) 10 and tan1  
3 3

10. A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz is vibrated just above the tube of 120 cm height. Water is poured
slowly in the tube. What is the minimum height of water necessary for the resonance (speed of sound
in the air = 340 m /sec)
(A) 45 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 15 cm

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

11. A driver in a stationary car blows a horn which produces monochromatic sound waves of frequency
1000 Hz normally towards a reflecting wall. The wall approaches the car with a speed of 3.3 ms1
(A) The frequency of sound reflected from wall and heard by the driver is 1020 Hz
(B) The frequency of sound reflected from wall and heard by the driver is 980 Hz
(C) The percentage decrease in frequency of sound after reflected from wall is 2%
(D) The percentage increase in frequency of sound after reflected from wall is 2 %

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-17

  1 
12. The equation of a wave is y  4 sin   2t  x   where y and x are in cm and t is in second
2  8 
–1
(A) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4cm, 32 cm, 16 cms and 0.5 Hz
respectively with wave propagating along – x direction
–1
(B) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4 cm, 16 cm, 32 cms and 1 Hz
respectively with wave propagating along +x direction
(C) Two positions occupied by the particle at time interval of 0.4 have a phase difference of 0.4 
radian
0
(D) Two positions occupied by the particle at separation of 12 cm have a phase difference of 135

13. Any progressive wave equation in differential from is


1 2 y 1 2 y 1 2 y 1 2 y
(A) 2 2  2 2 (B)  
 t k x 2 t 2 k 2 x 2
1 y 1 y 1  y 1 y
(C)  2 (D) 
 t k x  t k x

14. Consider a harmonic wave travelling on a string of mass per unit length . The wave has velocity v,
amplitude A and frequency f. The power transmitted by a harmonic wave on the string is proportional
to (take constant of proportionality as 22 )
(A) 
2 2
(B) v (C) A (D) f
.
15 Standing wave can be produced
(A) in a string clamped at one end and free at the other
(B) in a string clamped at both the ends
(C) When incident wave gets reflected from the wall superimpose
(D) When two identical waves with a phase difference of  are moving in the same direction
superimpose

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-18

SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

16. A stationary source is emitting sound at a fixed frequency f0 , which is reflected by two cars
approaching the source. The difference between the frequencies of sound reflected from the cars is
1.2 % of f0 . The difference in speeds of cars (in km per hour) to the nearest integer is (The cars are
moving at constant speeds much smaller than speed of sound which is 330ms1 )

17. A 20 m long string having a mass 1.0 g is fixed at the both ends. The tension in the string is 0.5 N.
The string is set into vibration using an external vibrator of frequency 100 Hz. The separation (in cm)
between successive nodes on the string is

18. A stretched string of length ' ' is excited by plucking the string at right angles to its length at a point
which is a distance of from one end and stopping the vibration at the centre of the string with a
4
finger. Find the number of antinodes for the vibration

18. At a distance of 20 m from a point source, the loudness is 30 dB. After a minimum distance of
 
x 50 10 metre the sound is inaudible. Value of x is

20. A uniform horizontal rod of length 40 cm and mass 1.2 kg is


supported by two identical wires as shown in fig. A mass of
4.8 kg is placed on the rod so that the same tuning fork may
excite the wire on left into its fundamental vibrations and that
on right into its first overtone. The distance of the mass from
–2
the left end of the rod in cm is (g= 10 ms )

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PH-VII-2018-P(I)–PCM-19

PART II: CHEMISTRY


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. The coagulation of 10 ml of gold sol is just prevented on adding 1 ml of 10% NaCl in the presence of
0.025g of starch. The gold number of starch is
(A) 25 (B) 0.025 (C) 0.25 (D) 250
–5 –7 –9
22. Ka values for HA,a HB and HD are 10 , 10 and 10 respectively. Which of the following will be
correct for decimolar aqueous solutions of NaA, NaB and NaD at 25C ?
(A) pHNaA  pHNaD (B) pHNaD  pHNaB
(C) pHNaA  pHNaB (D) pHNaB  7

23. In a polymer sample, 30% of molecules have a molecular mass of 20, 000, 40% have 30, 000 and the
rest 60, 000. What is the weight average molecular mass of the polymer ?
(A) 40, 300 (B) 30, 600 (C) 33, 353 (D) 43, 333

24. The ratio between the number of carbon atoms and nitrogen atoms in melamine molecule is
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 2

25. CH2  CH2 


Bayer ' s reagent
A
COCH3

1 ) K MnO4/ OH Polymerisation
B; A B B (polymer)
2 ) Hydrolysis

CH3
Here ‘C’ is
(A) Glyptal (B) Nylon 6 (C) Nylon–6, 6 (D) Dacron

26. The pH of HCl is 1. The amount of NaOH to be added to 100 ml of such a HCl solution to get pH of 7
is
(A) 4g (B) 0.4 mg (C) 4 mg (D) 0.4 g

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–16
27. At certain temperature the Kw of D2O is 10 M. Then the pD of pure D2O at that temperature is
(A) 7 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 6

28. The conjugate base of  Al H2O 3  OH3  is


 
(A)  Al H2O 3  OH2  (B)  Al H2O 2  OH4 
 
(C)  Al H2O 3  OH3  (D)  Al H2O 3  OH2 O

29. Which of the following is least effective in causing flocculation of Fe(OH) 3 sol
(A) K3 Fe  CN6  (B) K2CrO4
(C) K2SO4 (D) KBr

30. The potential difference between the fixed charged layer and the diffused layer having opposite
charge is called
(A) Colloidal potential (B) Streaming potential
(C) Doru potential (D) Zeta potential

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

31. For ‘invert sugar’, the correct statement(s) is (are)


(Given : specific rotations of (+)–sucrose, (+)–maltose, L–(–)–glucose and L–(+)–fructose in aqueous
solution are +66, +140, –52 and +92, respectively)
(A) ‘invert sugar’ is prepared by acid catalyzed hydrolysis of maltose
(B) ‘invert sugar’ is an equimolar mixture of D–(+)–glucose and D–(–)–fructose
(C) on reaction with Br2 water, ‘invert sugar’ forms saccharic acid as one of the products
(D) specific rotation of ‘invert sugar’ is – 20.

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32. Following are the structures of D-Glucose and D-Galactose.


CHO CHO

H OH H OH

HO H HO H

H OH HO H

H OH H OH

CH 2OH CH 2OH

D-Glucose D-Galactose
Which of the following statements are correct about these compounds?
(A) they are diastereomers (B) both are components of lactose
(C) they are C  4 epimers (D) both are optically active

33. Which of the following will give red ppt with Fehling’s solution?
(A) HCHO (B) HCOOH (C) glucose (D) fructose

34. On complete hydrogenation, natural rubber does not give


(A) ethylene–propylene copolymer (B) vulcanised rubber
(C) polypropylene (D) polybutylene

35. Which of the following amino acids has asymmetric carbon?


(A) Glycine (B) Histidine (C) Alanine (D) Threonine

SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

36. How many of the following are negatively charged sols ?


As2S3, starch, charcoal, Haemoglobin, TiO2, gold sol, congo red, Al2O3 . xH2O
3
37. Among the following compounds of Xenon, no. of compounds having sp hybridisation are
(XeF2, XeO3, XeF4, XeF6, XeOF2, XeO4)

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38. How many of the following are condensation polymers?


PVC, PTFE, Nylon-6, 6, Polythene, Bakelite, Dacron, Nylon-6.

XeFn dissolves in HF according to the reaction XeF n + HF   XeFn1  HF2  . What is the value of n
 
39.
?
– – –10
40. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X and HX. Kb for X is 10 . Find the pH of
buffer.

PART III: MATHEMATICS


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x2 y2
41. Maximum length of chord of the ellipse  = 1, such that eccentric angles of its extremities differ
8 4

by is
2
(A) 8 (B) 2 2 (C) 16 (D) 4

42. The area of the parallelogram formed by the tangents at the points whose eccentric angles are ,
 3 x2 y2
  ,  + ,   on the ellipse 2  2 = 1 is
2 2 a b
(A) 4ab (B) ab (C) 3ab (D) 2ab

n 4 dy 4
43. The real value of n for which the substitution y = u will transform the differential equation 2x y +y
dx
6
= 4x into a homogeneous equation is
3 1
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D) 2
2 2

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2
44. If the distance of two points P and Q on the parabola y = 4ax from the focus of a parabola are 4 and
9 respectively then the distance of the point of intersection of tangents at P and Q from the focus is
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 3.5 (D) 13

2
45. The tangents at P and Q on the parabola y = 4x meet in T. S is the focus such that, SP, ST and SQ
2
are equal to a, b and c, respectively. Then the roots of the equation ax + 2bx + c = 0 are
(A) real and equal (B) real and different (C) complex numbers (D) irrational

x2 y2
46. The maximum distance of the centre of the ellipse  = 1 from the chord of contact of mutually
16 9
perpendicular tangents of the ellipse is
144 9 8 16
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5

x2 y2 
47. A tangent drawn to hyperbola  2 = 1 at P   forms a triangle of area 3a2 square units, with
6
2
a b
coordinate axes, then the square of its eccentricity is equal to
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 17

x2 y2
48. If e is the eccentricity of the hyperbola  = 1 and  is the angle between the asymptotes, then
a2 b2

cos is equal to
2
1 e 2 2 1
(A) (B) e (C) (D)
e e e e

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If 2x + 3y = , x – y =  and kx + 15y = r are 3 concurrent normal of parabola y = x, then value of k


2
49.
is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

 x  4  y  3
2 2


2 2
50. If the reflection of the ellipse = 1 in the mirror x – y – 2 = 0 is k1x + k2y – 160x –
16 9
k1  k 2
36y + 292 = 0, then is equal to
5
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.
2
51. The point/points of contact of normal to the parabola y = 4ax (a > 0) such that the y-intercept of the
normal is double of the x-intercept, is
a a
(A) (4a, 4a) (B)  ,  (C) (4a, –4a) (D) none of these
4 2

x2 y2

2
52. If x – 2y + 4 = 0 is a common tangent to y = 4x and = 1, then the value of ‘b’ and the other
4 b2
common tangent are given by
(A) b = 3 (B) b = 3 (C) x – 2y – 4 = 0 (D) x + 2y + 4 = 0

53. The line y = mx 


a 2

 b2 m
is normal to the ellipse
x2 y2
 = 1 for the values of m belonging to
a2  b2m2 4 b2
(A) (0, 1) (B) (0, ) (C) R (D) {0, 1}

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1 1 k
54. In X–Y plane, the path defined by the equation  m = 0 is
x  y
m n
x y
1
(A) a parabola if m = , k = –1, n = 0 (B) a hyperbola if m = 1, k = –1, n = 0
2
(C) a pair of lines if m = k = n = 1 (D) a pair of lines if m = k = –1, n = 1

x2 y2
 2 = 1 be reciprocal to that of the ellipse x + 4y = 4. If the
2 2
55. Let the eccentricity of the hyperbola 2
a b
hyperbola passes through a focus of the ellipse, then
x2 y2
(A) the equation of the hyperbola is  = 1 (B) a focus of the hyperbola is (2, 0)
3 2
2 2 2
(C) the equation of the hyperbola is x – 3y = 3 (D) the eccentricity of the hyperbola is
3

SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
2 2 2
56. The shortest distance between parabolas y = 4x and y = 2x – 6 is d, then d =
2 2
57. The line x + 2y + 4 = 0 is a common tangent to the parabola y = 4ax and x = 4by, then |b – a| is
2 2
58. Maximum distance between two points lying on the curve 4x + 9y + 8x – 36y + 4 = 0 is

x2 y2

2 2
59. A tangent of slope 2 of the ellipse = 1 (a > b) is normal to the circle x + y + 4x + 10y + 1 = 0.
a2 b2
 1 1
If a   ,  , then minimum value of latus rectum of ellipse is
8 4 

x2 y2
60. The line 2x + y = 1 is tangent to the hyperbola  = 1. If this line passes through the point of
a2 b2
intersection of the nearest directrix and the x-axis, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – I_SET-B
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B
5. A 6. A 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. A 11. A, D 12. A,C,D
13. A,C 14. A,B,C,D 15. A,C 16. 7
17. 5 18. 4 19. 4 20. 5

CHEMISTRY
21. A 22. A 23. D 24. D
25. D 26. D 27. C 28. B
29. D 30. D 31. B, D 32. A, B, C, D
33. A, B, C, D 34. B, C, D 35. B, C, D 36. 5
37. 2 38. 4 39. 6 40. 4

MATHEMATICS
41. D 42. A 43. A 44. A
45. A 46. D 47. D 48. BONUS
50. C 50. B 51. AC 52. AD
53. ABCD 54. CD 55. BCD 56. 5
57. 7 58. 6 59. 6 60. 2

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – I_SET – C
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 210
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
10. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
11. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
12. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
13. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
19. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
consists of three sections.
20. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
22. Section III contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
D. Marking Scheme
23. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded in this section.
24. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded.
No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks
will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.

Useful data
–1 –1 –2 –1 –1 –1
R = 8.314 JK mol or 8.206  10 L atm K mol ; 1 F = 96500 C mol
–34 –19
h = 6.626  10 Js; 1 eV = 1.602  10 J
–1
c = 3.0  10 ms ; NA = 6.022  10
8 23

(Atomic Masses in amu : H = 1 , He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K
= 39, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5)

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.


If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

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PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one– fifth of the velocity of
sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency.
(A) 5 % (B) 20 % (C) zero (D) 0.5 %
1
2. The displacement due to a wave moving in the positive x –direction is given by y  at time t=
1  x2  
1
0 and by y  at t= 2 seconds , where x and y are in metres. The velocity of the wave in
1   x  12 
 
m/s is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

3. A source of sound is travelling towards a stationary observer. The frequency of sound heard by the
observer is of three times the original frequency. The velocity of sound is v m /s. The speed of source
will be.
2 3
(A) v (B) v (C) v (D) 3 v
3 2

4. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency 320s1 is applied to a series LCR
circuit. Given that R  5,L  25mH and C  1000F . The total impedance, and phase difference
between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be
5 8
(A) 10 and tan1   (B) 10 and tan1  
3 3
5
(C) 7 and tan1   (D) 7 and 450
 
3

5. A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz is vibrated just above the tube of 120 cm height. Water is poured
slowly in the tube. What is the minimum height of water necessary for the resonance (speed of sound
in the air = 340 m /sec)
(A) 15 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 45 cm

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6. A tuning fork sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency 256 emits two beats. On loading the
tuning fork of frequency 256, the number of beats heard are 1 per second. The frequency of tuning
fork is
(A) 257 (B) 258 (C) 256 (D) 254

7. In the experiment for the determination of the speed of sound in air using the resonance column
method, the length of the air column that resonates in the fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is 0.1
m. when this length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork resonates with the first overtone.
Calculate the end correction.
(A) 0.012 m (B) 0.025 (C) 0.05 m (D) 0.024

8. A transformer (step up) with an 1: 8 turn ratio has 60 Hz, 120 V across the primary. The load in the
secondary is 104  . The current in the secondary is
(A) 1.2 A (B) 0.96 A (C) 12 mA (D) 96 mA

9. A direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an alternating current I = 10 sin t A flowing through a


wire. The effective value of the resulting current will be
(A) 15 / 2 A (B) 5 3A (C) 5 5A (D) 15 A

10. The potential difference across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V
respectively in an L – C–R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.0

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

11. Any progressive wave equation in differential from is


1 2 y 1 2 y 1 y 1 y
(A) 2 2  2 2 (B)  2
 t k x  t k x
1  y
2
1 2 y 1  y 1 y
(C) 2 2   2 2 (D) 
 t k x  t k x

12. Consider a harmonic wave travelling on a string of mass per unit length . The wave has velocity v,
amplitude A and frequency f. The power transmitted by a harmonic wave on the string is proportional
to (take constant of proportionality as 22 )
(A) 
2 2
(B) v (C) A (D) f

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.
13 Standing wave can be produced
(A) in a string clamped at both the ends
(B) in a string clamped at one end and free at the other
(C) When incident wave gets reflected from the wall superimpose
(D) When two identical waves with a phase difference of  are moving in the same direction
superimpose

14. A driver in a stationary car blows a horn which produces monochromatic sound waves of frequency
1000 Hz normally towards a reflecting wall. The wall approaches the car with a speed of 3.3 ms1
(A) The frequency of sound reflected from wall and heard by the driver is 1020 Hz
(B) The frequency of sound reflected from wall and heard by the driver is 980 Hz
(C) The percentage increase in frequency of sound after reflected from wall is 2 %
(D) The percentage decrease in frequency of sound after reflected from wall is 2%

  1 
15. The equation of a wave is y  4 sin   2t  x   where y and x are in cm and t is in second
2  8 
–1
(A) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4 cm, 16 cm, 32 cms and 1 Hz
respectively with wave propagating along +x direction
–1
(B) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4cm, 32 cm, 16 cms and 0.5 Hz
respectively with wave propagating along – x direction
(C) Two positions occupied by the particle at time interval of 0.4 have a phase difference of 0.4 
radian
0
(D) Two positions occupied by the particle at separation of 12 cm have a phase difference of 135

SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

16. A stretched string of length ' ' is excited by plucking the string at right angles to its length at a point
which is a distance of from one end and stopping the vibration at the centre of the string with a
4
finger. Find the number of antinodes for the vibration

17. At a distance of 20 m from a point source, the loudness is 30 dB. After a minimum distance of
 
x 50 10 metre the sound is inaudible. Value of x is

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18. A uniform horizontal rod of length 40 cm and mass 1.2 kg is


supported by two identical wires as shown in fig. A mass of
4.8 kg is placed on the rod so that the same tuning fork may
excite the wire on left into its fundamental vibrations and that
on right into its first overtone. The distance of the mass from
–2
the left end of the rod in cm is (g= 10 ms )

19. A stationary source is emitting sound at a fixed frequency f0 , which is reflected by two cars
approaching the source. The difference between the frequencies of sound reflected from the cars is
1.2 % of f0 . The difference in speeds of cars (in km per hour) to the nearest integer is (The cars are
moving at constant speeds much smaller than speed of sound which is 330ms1 )

20. A 20 m long string having a mass 1.0 g is fixed at the both ends. The tension in the string is 0.5 N.
The string is set into vibration using an external vibrator of frequency 100 Hz. The separation (in cm)
between successive nodes on the string is

PART II: CHEMISTRY


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. The pH of HCl is 1. The amount of NaOH to be added to 100 ml of such a HCl solution to get pH of 7
is
(A) 4g (B) 0.4g (C) 4 mg (D) 0.4 mg
–16
22. At certain temperature the Kw of D2O is 10 M. Then the pD of pure D2O at that temperature is
(A) 7 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 6

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23. The conjugate base of  Al H2O 3  OH3  is


 
(A)  Al H2O 3  OH2  (B)  Al H2O 3  OH2 O
 
(C)  Al H2O 3  OH3  (D)  Al H2O 2  OH4 

24. Which of the following is least effective in causing flocculation of Fe(OH) 3 sol
(A) K3 Fe  CN6  (B) K2CrO4
(C) KBr (D) K2SO4

25. The potential difference between the fixed charged layer and the diffused layer having opposite
charge is called
(A) Zeta potential (B) Streaming potential
(C) Doru potential (D) Colloidal potential

26. The coagulation of 10 ml of gold sol is just prevented on adding 1 ml of 10% NaCl in the presence of
0.025g of starch. The gold number of starch is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.025 (C) 25 (D) 250
–5 –7 –9
27. Ka values for HA,a HB and HD are 10 , 10 and 10 respectively. Which of the following will be
correct for decimolar aqueous solutions of NaA, NaB and NaD at 25C ?
(A) pHNaA  pHNaB (B) pHNaD  pHNaB
(C) pHNaA  pHNaD (D) pHNaB  7

28. In a polymer sample, 30% of molecules have a molecular mass of 20, 000, 40% have 30, 000 and the
rest 60, 000. What is the weight average molecular mass of the polymer ?
(A) 40, 300 (B) 30, 600 (C) 43, 333 (D) 33, 353

29. The ratio between the number of carbon atoms and nitrogen atoms in melamine molecule is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2

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30. CH2  CH2 


Bayer ' s reagent
A
COCH3

1 ) K MnO4/ OH Polymerisation
B; A B B (polymer)
2 ) Hydrolysis

CH3
Here ‘C’ is
(A) Glyptal (B) Dacron (C) Nylon–6, 6 (D) Nylon 6

SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

31. Which of the following will give red ppt with Fehling’s solution?
(A) HCHO (B) HCOOH (C) glucose (D) fructose

32. On complete hydrogenation, natural rubber does not give


(A) ethylene–propylene copolymer (B) vulcanised rubber
(C) polypropylene (D) polybutylene

33. Which of the following amino acids has asymmetric carbon?


(A) Histidine (B) Glycine (C) Alanine (D) Threonine

34. For ‘invert sugar’, the correct statement(s) is (are)


(Given : specific rotations of (+)–sucrose, (+)–maltose, L–(–)–glucose and L–(+)–fructose in aqueous
solution are +66, +140, –52 and +92, respectively)
(A) ‘invert sugar’ is prepared by acid catalyzed hydrolysis of maltose
(B) ‘invert sugar’ is an equimolar mixture of D–(+)–glucose and D–(–)–fructose
(C) specific rotation of ‘invert sugar’ is – 20.
(D) on reaction with Br2 water, ‘invert sugar’ forms saccharic acid as one of the products

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35. Following are the structures of D-Glucose and D-Galactose.


CHO CHO

H OH H OH

HO H HO H

H OH HO H

H OH H OH

CH 2OH CH 2OH

D-Glucose D-Galactose
Which of the following statements are correct about these compounds?
(A) they are diastereomers (B) both are components of lactose
(C) they are C  4 epimers (D) both are optically active

SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

36. How many of the following are condensation polymers?


PVC, PTFE, Nylon-6, 6, Polythene, Bakelite, Dacron, Nylon-6.

XeFn dissolves in HF according to the reaction XeF n + HF   XeFn1  HF2  . What is the value of n
 
37.
?
– – –10
38. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X and HX. Kb for X is 10 . Find the pH of
buffer.

39. How many of the following are negatively charged sols ?


As2S3, starch, charcoal, Haemoglobin, TiO2, gold sol, congo red, Al2O3 . xH2O
3
40. Among the following compounds of Xenon, no. of compounds having sp hybridisation are
(XeF2, XeO3, XeF4, XeF6, XeOF2, XeO4)

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PART III: MATHEMATICS


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x2 y2
41. The maximum distance of the centre of the ellipse  = 1 from the chord of contact of mutually
16 9
perpendicular tangents of the ellipse is
144 9 16 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5

x2 y2 
42. A tangent drawn to hyperbola  2 = 1 at P   forms a triangle of area 3a2 square units, with
6
2
a b
coordinate axes, then the square of its eccentricity is equal to
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18

x2 y2
43. If e is the eccentricity of the hyperbola  = 1 and  is the angle between the asymptotes, then
a2 b2

cos is equal to
2
1 e 2 1 2
(A) (B) e (C) (D)
e e e e

If 2x + 3y = , x – y =  and kx + 15y = r are 3 concurrent normal of parabola y = x, then value of k


2
44.
is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

 x  4  y  3
2 2

45. If the reflection of the ellipse  2 2


= 1 in the mirror x – y – 2 = 0 is k1x + k2y – 160x –
16 9
k1  k 2
36y + 292 = 0, then is equal to
5
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

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x2 y2
46. Maximum length of chord of the ellipse  = 1, such that eccentric angles of its extremities differ
8 4

by is
2
(A) 4 (B) 2 2 (C) 16 (D) 8

47. The area of the parallelogram formed by the tangents at the points whose eccentric angles are ,
 3 x2 y2
  ,  + ,   on the ellipse 2  2 = 1 is
2 2 a b
(A) ab (B) 4ab (C) 3ab (D) 2ab

n 4 dy 4
48. The real value of n for which the substitution y = u will transform the differential equation 2x y +y
dx
6
= 4x into a homogeneous equation is
1 3
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D) 2
2 2
2
49. If the distance of two points P and Q on the parabola y = 4ax from the focus of a parabola are 4 and
9 respectively then the distance of the point of intersection of tangents at P and Q from the focus is
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 3.5 (D) 13
2
50. The tangents at P and Q on the parabola y = 4x meet in T. S is the focus such that, SP, ST and SQ
2
are equal to a, b and c, respectively. Then the roots of the equation ax + 2bx + c = 0 are
(A) real and different (B) real and equal (C) complex numbers (D) irrational

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SECTION – II: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

51. The line y = mx 


a 2

 b2 m
is normal to the ellipse
x2 y2
 = 1 for the values of m belonging to
a2  b2m2 4 b2
(A) (0, 1) (B) (0, ) (C) R (D) {0, 1}

1 1 k
52. In X–Y plane, the path defined by the equation   = 0 is
xm ym  x  y n
1
(A) a parabola if m = , k = –1, n = 0 (B) a hyperbola if m = 1, k = –1, n = 0
2
(C) a pair of lines if m = k = n = 1 (D) a pair of lines if m = k = –1, n = 1

x2 y2

2 2
53. Let the eccentricity of the hyperbola = 1 be reciprocal to that of the ellipse x + 4y = 4. If the
a2 b2
hyperbola passes through a focus of the ellipse, then
x2 y2
(A) the equation of the hyperbola is  = 1 (B) a focus of the hyperbola is (2, 0)
3 2
2 2 2
(C) the eccentricity of the hyperbola is (D) the equation of the hyperbola is x – 3y = 3
3
2
54. The point/points of contact of normal to the parabola y = 4ax (a > 0) such that the y-intercept of the
normal is double of the x-intercept, is
a a
(A) (4a, 4a) (B) (4a, –4a) (C)  ,  (D) none of these
4 2

x2 y2

2
55. If x – 2y + 4 = 0 is a common tangent to y = 4x and = 1, then the value of ‘b’ and the other
4 b2
common tangent are given by
(A) b = 3 (B) b = 3 (C) x + 2y + 4 = 0 (D) x – 2y – 4 = 0

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SECTION – III: Integer Answer Type


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single–digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
2 2
56. Maximum distance between two points lying on the curve 4x + 9y + 8x – 36y + 4 = 0 is

x2 y2
 2 = 1 (a > b) is normal to the circle x + y + 4x + 10y + 1 = 0.
2 2
57. A tangent of slope 2 of the ellipse 2
a b
 1 1
If a   ,  , then minimum value of latus rectum of ellipse is
8 4 

x2 y2
58. The line 2x + y = 1 is tangent to the hyperbola  = 1. If this line passes through the point of
a2 b2
intersection of the nearest directrix and the x-axis, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is
2 2 2
59. The shortest distance between parabolas y = 4x and y = 2x – 6 is d, then d =
2 2
60. The line x + 2y + 4 = 0 is a common tangent to the parabola y = 4ax and x = 4by, then |b – a| is

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – I_SET-C
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D
5. D 6. D 7. B 8. D
9. C 10. C 11. A,B 12. A,B,C,D
13. B,C 14. A,C 15. B,C,D 16. 4
17. 4 18. 5 19. 7 20. 5

CHEMISTRY
21. B 22. C 23. D 24. C
25. A 26. C 27. C 28. C
29. A 30. B 31. A, B, C, D 32. B, C, D
33. A, C, D 34. B, C 35. A, B, C, D 36. 4
37. 6 38. 4 39. 5 40. 2

MATHEMATICS
41. C 42. C 43. C 44. C
45. B 46. BONUS 47. B 48. C
49. B 50. B 51. ABCD 52. CD
53. BCD 54. AB 55. AC 56. 6
57. 6 58. 2 59. 5 60. 7

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST
IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – II_SET – A
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 198
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists
of three sections.
8. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
9. Section II contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on
each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is
correct.
10. Section III contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.
D. Marking Scheme
11. For each question in Section I and Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded in these sections.
12. For each question in Section Ill, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No
negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answer(s) in this section.

Useful data
–1 –1 –2 –1 –1 –1
R = 8.314 JK mol or 8.206  10 L atm K mol ; 1 F = 96500 C mol
–34 –19
h = 6.626  10 Js; 1 eV = 1.602  10 J
–1
c = 3.0  10 ms ; NA = 6.022  10
8 23

(Atomic Masses in amu : H = 1 , He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P = 31, S = 32,
Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5)

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.


If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

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PAPER–II
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The voltage time (V —t) graph for a triangular wave having peak value V0 is as shown in figure. The
rms value of V is:

V0 V0 V0 V0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 2 3

2. What is the amount of power delivered by the ac source in the


circuit shown (in watts).
(A) 500 watt (B) 1014 watt
(C) 1514 watt (D) 2013 watt

C
3. An inductor L, a capacitor C and ammeters A1, A2 and A3 are connected to an A1
oscillator in the circuit as shown in the adjoining figure. when the frequency of
the oscillator is increased, then at resonant frequency, the ammeter reading is L
A2
zero in the case of
(A) ammeter A1 (B) ammeter A2
~ A3
(C) ammeter A3 (D) all the three ammeters

4. An inductor coil joined to a 6V battery draws a steady current of 1.5A , but when this coil is
connected to a 20V , 50Hz AC source it draws a current of 4A . The reactance of this coil when it is
connected to a 30V , 100Hz AC source is
(A) 6 (B) 12  (C) 18  (D) 3 

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Acceleration of point x = 2 m of a transverse wave is 5 ˆj m/s and the slope of waveform is given
2
5.
dy 
 5 sin x . Then the speed of the point at that instant is given in m/s as
dx 12
50 100 150 200
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 3  3  3  3

1 1
6. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation y  sin t  cos t will be
a b
ab a b a b ab
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ab ab ab ab

7. A plane progressive wave, traveling along positive X-axis is represented


as y   5 10 m  sin 100  t  . At x  0 wave speed is 300 m/s. Maximum difference in
5

displacements at x  0 and x  3 m is
–5 –4 -4 –4
(A) 5 x 10 m (B) 2.5 x 10 m (C) 5 x 10 m (D) 10 m

8. A metallic wire with tension T and at temperature 30c vibrates with its fundamental frequency of 1
kHz. The same wire with the same tension but at 10C temperature vibrates with a fundamental
frequency of 1.001 kHz. The coefficient of linear expansion of the wire is
–4 –4 –4 –4
(A) 2 x 10 /C (B) 1.5 x 10 /C (C) 1 x 10 /C (D) 0.5 x 10 /C

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SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 9 and 10


3 3
In the circuit shown in figure R1 = 10, L = H, R2 = 20 and C = F. Current in L – R1 circuit is I1 in
10 2
C – R2 circuit I2 and the main current is I.
The two circuits are in parallel. So, they r be treated separately.

9. Phase different between I1 and I2 is :


(A) 0° (B) 90 (C) 180° (D) 60

10. At some instant current in L-R1 circuit is 10 A. At the same instant current in C – R2 circuit will be :
(A) 5 A (B) 5 2A (C) 6 6A (D) 5 3A

Paragraph for questions 11 and 12


The linear mass density of a non uniform wire under constant tension decreases gradually along the wire so
that an incident wave is transmitted without reflection. The wire is uniform for   x  0 . In this region, a
transverse wave has the form y(x, t) = 0.003 cos (25x – 50t) where y and x are in metres and t is in seconds.

From x = 0 to x = 20 m the linear mass density decreases gradually from 1 to 1 . For 20  x   , the linear
4
1
mass density is   .
4

11. Find the wave velocity for large value of x


(A) 3 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 6 m/s

12. Find the amplitude of the wave for large value of x


(A) 0.0042 m (B) 0.003 m (C) 0.006 m (D) 0.003 2 m

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Paragraph for questions 13 and 14


One end of a long rope is tied to a fixed vertical pole. The rope is stretched horizontally with a tension 8 N. Let
us consider the length of the rope to be along x-axis. A simple harmonic oscillator at x = 0 generates a
transverse wave of frequency 100 Hz and amplitude 2 cm along the rope. Mass per unit length of the rope is
20gm / m. . Ignoring the effect of gravity, answer the following questions.

13. Wavelength of the wave is


(A) 50cm (B) 20 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 32 cm

14. Keeping tension and amplitude in the given rope remaining the same, if a simple harmonic oscillator
of frequency 200 Hz is used instead of the earlier oscillator of frequency 100 Hz. Then
(A) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will not change, wavelength will not change and energy
density will become one fourth.
(B) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will become half; wavelength will become one-fourth and
energy density will become two times.
(C) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will become four times; wavelength will become doubled
and energy density will not change .
(D) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will not change; wavelength will become half and energy
density will become four times.

SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

15. In the LCR circuit shown in figure:


(A) current will lead the voltage
(B) rms value of current is 20 A
1
(C) power factor of the circuit is
2
(D) voltage drop across resistance is 100 V

16. If a string fastened at both ends has successive resonance with wavelength of 0.54m for the nth
th
harmonic and 0.48m for the (n + 1) harmonic then (with a given frequency)
(A) the value of n is 8
(B) the length of the string is 2.16m
(C) the wavelength of the fundamental frequency is 4.32m
(D) fundamental frequency is 18Hz

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17. The vibration of a string fixed at both ends are described by Y = 2 sin (x) sin(100t) where Y is in
mm, x is in cm, t in sec then
1
(A) maximum displacement of the particle at x  cm would be 1 mm
6
1 1
(B) velocity of the particle at x  cm at time t = sec will be 157 3 mm/s
6 600
(C) if the length of the string be 10 cm, number of loop in it would be 5
(D) none of these

The equation of a stationary wave in a string is y =(4 mm) sin[(3.14m ) x] cos t.
-1
18.
Select the correct alternative(s)
(A) The amplitude of component waves is 2 mm
(B) The amplitude of component waves is 4 mm
(C) The smallest possible length of string is 0.5 m
(D) The smallest possible length of string is 1.0 m

19. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at one end has a length of 1 m. Neglecting end
corrections, the air column in the pipe can resonate for sound of frequency:
(A) 80 Hz (B) 240 Hz (C) 320 Hz (D) 400 Hz

20. Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 6 beats per second when vibrating
simultaneously. On changing the tension slightly in one of them, the beat frequency remains
unchanged. Denoting by T 1 and T2 the higher and the lower initial tension in the strings, then it could
be said that while making the above changes in tension :
(A) T2 was decreased (B) T2 was increased
(C) T1 was decreased (D) T1 was increased

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PART II: CHEMISTRY


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. In the following reaction HC2O4  PO34 HPO24  C2O24 which are the two Bronsted base ?
(A) HC2O4 and PO34 (B) HPO24 and C2O24
(C) HC2O4 and HPO24 (D) PO34 and C2O24

22. What is the change in pH of water when 0.01 mole of NaOH are added in 10 litre water.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 11

23. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption?
(A) Adsorption on solids is reversible
(B) Adsorption decreases with increase in temperature
(C) Adsorption is non specific
(D) Both change in enthalpy and change in entropy of adsorption is positive

24. Buna-S is a
(A) condensation polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(B) addition polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(C) condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(D) addition polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

25. The following carbohydrate is


OH
H
O
H OH
HO H
HO
OH
H H
(A) a ketohexose (B) an aldohexose (C) an –furanose (D) an  – pyranose

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26. Consider the following transformations :


(I) XeF6  CsF  Cs  XeF7  (II) XeF4  SbF5   XeF3  SbF6 
  

(IV) XeF2  IF5   XeF IF6 


 
(III) XeF4 
complete
hydrolysis
 XeOF2
Possible transformations are :
(A) II and III only (B) I, II and IV only
(C) III and IV only (D) I, II, III and IV

27. Which one of the following is not buffer solution ?


(A) 0.8 M H2S + 0.8 M KHS (B) 2MC6H5NH2 + 2M C6H5NH3Br
(C) 1lit 3M CH3COOH + 500 ml 1M NaOH (D) 0.05 M KClO4 + 0.05 M HCIO4

28. 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 100 mL of a 0.2 M CH3COOH solution. The pH of the resulting
–5
solution will be (Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10 )
(A) 4.74 (B) 5.74 (C) 3.74 (D) 7.00

SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 29 and 30

Polymerization involves various mechanisms depending upon the initiator. If initiator generates free radical,
addition polymerization takes place through free radical mechanism.
+
If H is initiator and electron releasing group is present, cationic polymerization takes place. If electron
withdrawing group is present and strong base is initiator, anionic polymerization takes place

29. Which of the following will induce anionic polymerization


(I) KNH2 (II) n–Butyl lithium (III) AlCl3 (IV) BF3
(A) I & II only (B) I, II, III only (C) II & III only (D) I only
+
30. Which of the following will undergo cationic polymerization in presence of H easily
(A) CH2=CH(Cl) (B) CH2=CH(CN) (C) CH2=CH(C6H5) (D) CH2=CH(CH3)

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Paragraph for questions 31 and 32

A solution which remains in equilibrium with undissolved solute, is said to be saturated. The concentration of a
saturated solution at a given temperature is called solubility. The product of concentration of ions in a
saturated solution of an electrolyte at a given temperature, is called solubility product K sp . For the  
electrolyte, AxBy with solubility S, A xBy s 
xA y   yBx  . The solubility product K sp  = x x  y y  sx  y .
While calculating the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt in the presence of some strong electrolyte containing
a common ion, the common ion concentration is practically equal to that of strong electrolyte. If in a solution,
the ionic product of an electrolyte exceeds its Ksp value at a particular temperature, then precipitation occurs.

31. The solubility of PbSO4 in water is 0.303 g/l at 25C, its solubility product at that temperature is
–6 2 –4 2 –8 2 –8 2
(A) 10 M (B) 9.18 x 10 M (C) 10 M (D) 9.18 x 10 M

32. 
The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M BaCl2 solution is K sp of BaSO4  1.5  109 
–9 –8 –16 –18
(A) 1.5 x 10 M (B) 1.5 x 10 M (C) 2.25 x 10 M (D) 2.25 x 10 M

Paragraph for questions 33 and 34


The charge on colloidal particle is due to the selective adsorption of ions present in the dispersion medium.
The adsorbed ion on the colloidal particles is responsible for the development of electric charge. For example,
+
the selective adsorption of H ions lead to the development of positive charge on the colloidal particles and

the selective adsorption of OH ions lead to the development of negative charge on the colloidal particles.

33. A colloidal solution of ferric hydroxide sol is prepared by the hydrolysis of FeCl3. The colloidal particles
of ferric hydroxide are
(A) Positively charged (B) Negatively charged
(C) Neutral (D) Can not be predicted

34. Which of the following ion forms primary electrical double layer on the colloidal particle of As2S3 ?
3+ 2– + –
(A) As (B) S (C) H (D) OH

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SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

35. Alanine, an  -amino acid is existed in the following equilibrium at different pH values of the solution.
OH  OH 
CH3 CH  COOH CH3 CH  COO CH3 C H  COO
| | |
NH3 NH3 NH2
 
pKa12.3 pKa2 9.7
(at pH0) (at pH14)
Identify the correct statements from the following:
(A) at pH=6.0 the solubility of alanine is minimum
(B) at pH=6.0 the concentration of anionic form dominating over the cationic form
(C) at pH=2.3, the concentration of dipolar ion is same as that of cationic form
(D) at pH=9.7, the concentration of dipolar ion is same as that of anionic form

36. Acetic acid and aq. NH3 are weak monobasic acid and weak monoacidic base respectively and Ka of
acetic acid is equal to Kb of aq. NH3. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) All the above mixing would result in neutral solution having pH = 7 at 25C
(B) If aq. NH3 is exactly half neutralized by HCl, then pOH of resulting solution is equal to pK b
(C) If acetic acid is exactly half neutralized by NaOH , the pH of resulting solution is equal to pKa
(D) If acetic acid is exactly neutralized by aq. NH 3 then pH of resulting solution is equal 1/ 2 pkw.

37. Which of the following statements are correct ?


(A) One mole of PhNHNH2 reacts with 3 mol glucose to form osazone.
(B) One mole of D–fructose reacts with 3 mol PhNHNH 2 to form osazone.
(C) One mole of D–2–deoxy glucose reacts with 1 mol PhNHNH2 to form phenylhydrzone.
(D) One mole of D–3–deoxy glucose reacts with 3 mol of PhNHNH2 to form oszone.

38. Identify the correct statements


(A) In DNA, Base is connected to sugar at C1 carbon
(B) In DNA, Phosphate group is connected to sugar at C3 carbon
(C) In DNA, Phosphate group is connected to sugar at C5 carbon
(D) In DNA, –OH group is obsent at C2 carbon of sugar.

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39. The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are)
(A) Adsorption is always exothermic
(B) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature
(C) Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing
temperature.
(D) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher
energy of activation
40. Consider the equilibrium equation ; CH3COOH + HF CH3COOH2  F
Which of the following statements are incorrect :
– –
(A) F is the conjugate base of HF (B) F is the conjugate base of CH3COOH
(C) CH3COOH2 is the conjugate base of CH3COOH
(D) CH3COOH is the conjugate base of CH3COOH2

PART III: MATHEMATICS


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. If y = f(x) passing through (1, 2) satisfies the differential equation y(1 + xy)dx = x dy = 0, then
2x x 1 x 1 4x
(A) f(x) = (B) f(x) = 2 (C) f(x) = (D) f(x) =
2x 2
x 1 4x 2
1  2x 2
2
42. Slope of the chord of the tangent to parabola y = 4ax which passes through the point (–6a, 0) and
which subtends an angle of 45 at the vertex is
2 3 7 5
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
7 8 2 6
2
43. If the parabola y = (a – b)x + (b – c)x + (c – a) touches the x-axis, then the line ax + by + c = 0
(A) always passes through a fixed point (B) represents the family of parallel lines
(C) is always perpendicular to x-axis (D) always has negative slope
2
44. The locus of centroid of triangle formed by a tangent to the parabola y = 36x with coordinate axes is
2 2 2 2
(A) y = –9x (B) y + 3x = 0 (C) y = 3x (D) y = 9x

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x2 y2
45. If the normal at the point P() to the ellipse  = 1 intersects it again at the point Q(2), then cos
14 5
 is equal to
2 2 3 3
(A)  (B) (C) (D) 
3 3 2 2

x2 y2 PM 2
46. If normal at any point P to the ellipse  = 1, a > b meets the axes at M and N so that  ,
a2 b2 PN 3
then value of eccentricity e is
(A) cos 45 (B) sin 30 (C) tan 30 (D) sin 60
2 2 2 2
47. If 4x + py = 45 and x – 4y = 5 cut orthogonally, then the value of p is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D) 9
9 3

x2 y2
48. If P is any point common to the hyperbola  = 1 and the circle having line segment joining its
16 25
foci as diameter, then sum of focal distances of point P is
(A) 6 2 (B) 2 66 (C) 16 (D) 8

SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 49 and 50


x2 y2

2 2
The circle x + y – 8x = 0 and hyperbola intersect at points A and B
9 4
49. The equation of a common tangent with positive slope to the circle as well as to the hyperbola is
(A) 2x – 5 y – 20 = 0 (B) 2x – 5 y + 4 = 0 (C) 3x – 4y + 8 = 0 (D) 4x – 3y + 4 = 0

50. The equation of the circle with AB as its diameter is


2 2 2 2
(A) x + y – 12x + 24 = 0 (B) x + y + 12x + 24 = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y + 24x – 12 = 0 (D) x + y – 24x – 12 = 0

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Paragraph for questions 51 and 52


x2 y2
Suppose that C is any circle concentric with an ellipse E:  = 1. Let A is a point on E and B is a point on
16 4
C such that AB is tangent to both E and C.
51. The maximum length of AB is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 2 2 (D) 4 2

52. The slope of tangent AB, when the length of AB is maximum is


1 3 2
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3

Paragraph for questions 53 and 54


2 25
Vertices of a trapezium lie on the parabola y = 4x. Also, its diagonals pass through (1, 0) and have length
4
units each.
53. Which of the following is a vertex of trapezium ?
1 
(A)  ,1 (B) (–4, –4) (C) (1, 2) (D) (9, –6)
4 

54. Area of the trapezium is


75 35 125 45
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 4

SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.
2
55. Let y – 5y + 3x + k = 0 be a parabola, then
(A) its latus rectum is least when k = 1
(B) its latus rectum is independent of k
73
(C) the line y = 2x + 1 will touch the parabola if k =
16
5
(D) y = is the only normal to the parabola whose slope is zero.
2

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56. The major axis and minor axis of an ellipse are respectively x – 2y – 5 = 0 and 2x + y + 10 = 0. If one
end of latus rectum is (3, 4), then the foci are
(A) (5, 0) (B) (–7, –6) (C) (–11, –8) (D) (11, 3)
x2 y2 x2 y2
57. For the ellipse 2  2  1 and 2  2 = 1
a b b a
(A) The foci of each ellipse always lie within the order ellipse
(B) Their auxiliary circles are the same
(C) Their director circles are the same
(D) The ellipse encloses the same area

1 2 2
58. A hyperbola having the transverse axis of length and is confocal with the ellipse 3x + 4y = 12,
2
then
x2 y2 1
(A) equation of the hyperbola is  
15 1 16
(B) Eccentricity of the hyperbola is 4
1
(C) Distance between the directrices of the hyperbola is units
8
15
(D) Length of latus rectum of the hyperbola is units
2
2
59. The equations of the chords of the parabola y = 4ax which pass through the point (–6a, 0) and which
subtends an angle of 45 at the vertex is/are
(A) 2x – 7y + 12a = 0 (B) 2x + 7y + 12a = 0 (C) 7x – 2y + 12a = 0 (D) 7x + 2y + 12a = 0
2
60. Two distinct chords passing through (a, 2a) of parabola y = 4ax are bisected by the line
x + y = 1. Then the length of latus rectum can be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – II_SET - A
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A
5. C 6. A 7. D 8. D
9. B 10. D 11. B 12. A
13. B 14. D 15. A, C 16. A,B,C
17. A,B 18. A,D 19. A,B,D 20. B,C

CHEMISTRY
21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B
25. B 26. B 27. D 28. A
29. A 30. C 31. A 32. B
33. A 34. B 35. A, C, D 36. A, B, C, D
37. B, C, D 38. A, B, C, D 39. A, B, D 40. B, C

MATHEMATICS
41. A 42. A 43. A 44. B
45. A 46. C 47. D 48. B
49. B 50. A 51. A 52. B
53. A 54. A 55. BCD 56. AC
57. BCD 58. BCD 59. AB 60. ABC

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – II_SET – B
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 198
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
6. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
7. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
8. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
9. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists
of three sections.
14. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
15. Section II contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on
each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is
correct.
16. Section III contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.
D. Marking Scheme
17. For each question in Section I and Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded in these sections.
18. For each question in Section Ill, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No
negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answer(s) in this section.

Useful data
–1 –1 –2 –1 –1 –1
R = 8.314 JK mol or 8.206  10 L atm K mol ; 1 F = 96500 C mol
–34 –19
h = 6.626  10 Js; 1 eV = 1.602  10 J
–1
c = 3.0  10 ms ; NA = 6.022  10
8 23

(Atomic Masses in amu : H = 1 , He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P = 31, S = 32,
Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5)

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.


If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

PAPER–II
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PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Acceleration of point x = 2 m of a transverse wave is 5 ˆj m/s and the slope of waveform is given
2
1.
dy 
 5 sin x . Then the speed of the point at that instant is given in m/s as
dx 12
50 150 100 200
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 3  3  3  3

2. The voltage time (V —t) graph for a triangular wave having peak value V0 is as shown in figure. The
rms value of V is:

V0 V0 V0 V0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 3 2

3. What is the amount of power delivered by the ac source in the


circuit shown (in watts).
(A) 500 watt (B) 1514 watt
(C) 1014 watt (D) 2013 watt

C
4. An inductor L, a capacitor C and ammeters A1, A2 and A3 are connected to an A1
oscillator in the circuit as shown in the adjoining figure. when the frequency of
the oscillator is increased, then at resonant frequency, the ammeter reading is L
A2
zero in the case of
(A) ammeter A1 (B) ammeter A3
~ A3
(C) ammeter A2 (D) all the three ammeters

Space for rough work

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1 1
5. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation y  sin t  cos t will be
a b
a b ab a b ab
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ab ab ab ab

6. A plane progressive wave, traveling along positive X-axis is represented



as y  5 10
5
m  sin 100  t  . At x  0 wave speed is 300 m/s. Maximum difference in
displacements at x  0 and x  3 m is
–4 –4 -4 –5
(A) 10 m (B) 2.5 x 10 m (C) 5 x 10 m (D) 5 x 10 m

7. A metallic wire with tension T and at temperature 30c vibrates with its fundamental frequency of 1
kHz. The same wire with the same tension but at 10C temperature vibrates with a fundamental
frequency of 1.001 kHz. The coefficient of linear expansion of the wire is
–4 –4 –4 –4
(A) 0.5 x 10 /C (B) 1.5 x 10 /C (C) 1 x 10 /C (D) 2 x 10 /C

8. An inductor coil joined to a 6V battery draws a steady current of 1.5A , but when this coil is
connected to a 20V , 50Hz AC source it draws a current of 4A . The reactance of this coil when it is
connected to a 30V , 100Hz AC source is
(A) 3 (B) 12  (C) 18  (D) 6 

SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 9 and 10


The linear mass density of a non uniform wire under constant tension decreases gradually along the wire so
that an incident wave is transmitted without reflection. The wire is uniform for   x  0 . In this region, a
transverse wave has the form y(x, t) = 0.003 cos (25x – 50t) where y and x are in metres and t is in seconds.

From x = 0 to x = 20 m the linear mass density decreases gradually from 1 to 1 . For 20  x   , the linear
4
1
mass density is   .
4

9. Find the wave velocity for large value of x


(A) 4 m/s (B) 3 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 6 m/s

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10. Find the amplitude of the wave for large value of x


(A) 0.006 m (B) 0.003 m (C) 0.0042 m (D) 0.003 2 m

Paragraph for questions 11 and 12

One end of a long rope is tied to a fixed vertical pole. The rope is stretched horizontally with a tension 8 N. Let
us consider the length of the rope to be along x-axis. A simple harmonic oscillator at x = 0 generates a
transverse wave of frequency 100 Hz and amplitude 2 cm along the rope. Mass per unit length of the rope is
20gm / m. . Ignoring the effect of gravity, answer the following questions.

11. Wavelength of the wave is


(A) 20 cm (B) 50cm (C) 8 cm (D) 32 cm

12. Keeping tension and amplitude in the given rope remaining the same, if a simple harmonic oscillator
of frequency 200 Hz is used instead of the earlier oscillator of frequency 100 Hz. Then
(A) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will not change, wavelength will not change and energy
density will become one fourth.
(B) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will become half; wavelength will become one-fourth and
energy density will become two times.
(C) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will become four times; wavelength will become doubled
and energy density will not change .
(D) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will not change; wavelength will become half and energy
density will become four times.

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Paragraph for questions 13 and 14

3 3
In the circuit shown in figure R1 = 10, L = H, R2 = 20 and C = F. Current in L – R1 circuit is I1 in
10 2
C – R2 circuit I2 and the main current is I.
The two circuits are in parallel. So, they r be treated separately.

13. Phase different between I1 and I2 is :


(A) 90° (B) 0 (C) 180° (D) 60

14. At some instant current in L-R1 circuit is 10 A. At the same instant current in C – R2 circuit will be :
(A) 5 A (B) 5 2A (C) 5 3A (D) 6 6A

SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

15. If a string fastened at both ends has successive resonance with wavelength of 0.54m for the nth
th
harmonic and 0.48m for the (n + 1) harmonic then (with a given frequency)
(A) the value of n is 8
(B) the length of the string is 2.16m
(C) fundamental frequency is 18Hz
(D) the wavelength of the fundamental frequency is 4.32m

16. The vibration of a string fixed at both ends are described by Y = 2 sin (x) sin(100t) where Y is in
mm, x is in cm, t in sec then
1
(A) maximum displacement of the particle at x  cm would be 1 mm
6
(B) if the length of the string be 10 cm, number of loop in it would be 5
1 1
(C) velocity of the particle at x  cm at time t = sec will be 157 3 mm/s
6 600
(D) none of these

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The equation of a stationary wave in a string is y =(4 mm) sin[(3.14m ) x] cos t.
-1
17.
Select the correct alternative(s)
(A) The amplitude of component waves is 2 mm
(B) The amplitude of component waves is 4 mm
(C) The smallest possible length of string is 1.0 m
(D) The smallest possible length of string is 0.5 m

18. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at one end has a length of 1 m. Neglecting end
corrections, the air column in the pipe can resonate for sound of frequency:
(A) 80 Hz (B) 240 Hz (C) 400 Hz (D) 320 Hz

19. Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 6 beats per second when vibrating
simultaneously. On changing the tension slightly in one of them, the beat frequency remains
unchanged. Denoting by T 1 and T2 the higher and the lower initial tension in the strings, then it could
be said that while making the above changes in tension :
(A) T2 was decreased (B) T2 was increased
(C) T1 was increased (D) T1 was decreased

20. In the LCR circuit shown in figure:


(A) current will lead the voltage
(B) rms value of current is 20 A
(C) voltage drop across resistance is 100 V
1
(D) power factor of the circuit is
2

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PART II: CHEMISTRY


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. The following carbohydrate is


OH
H
O
H OH
HO H
HO
OH
H H
(A) an aldohexose (B) a ketohexose (C) an –furanose (D) an  – pyranose

22. In the following reaction HC2O4  PO34 HPO24  C2O24 which are the two Bronsted base ?
(A) HC2O4 and PO34 (B) PO34 and C2O24
(C) HC2O4 and HPO24 (D) HPO24 and C2O24

23. What is the change in pH of water when 0.01 mole of NaOH are added in 10 litre water.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 11

24. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption?
(A) Adsorption on solids is reversible
(B) Adsorption decreases with increase in temperature
(C) Both change in enthalpy and change in entropy of adsorption is positive
(D) Adsorption is non specific

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25. Consider the following transformations :


(I) XeF6  CsF  Cs  XeF7  (II) XeF4  SbF5   XeF3  SbF6 
  

(IV) XeF2  IF5   XeF IF6 


 
(III) XeF4 
complete
hydrolysis
 XeOF2
Possible transformations are :
(A) II and III only (B) III and IV only
(C) I, II and IV only (D) I, II, III and IV

26. Which one of the following is not buffer solution ?


(A) 0.8 M H2S + 0.8 M KHS (B) 0.05 M KClO4 + 0.05 M HCIO4
(C) 1lit 3M CH3COOH + 500 ml 1M NaOH (D) 2MC6H5NH2 + 2M C6H5NH3Br

27. 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 100 mL of a 0.2 M CH3COOH solution. The pH of the resulting
–5
solution will be (Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10 )
(A) 5.74 (B) 4.74 (C) 3.74 (D) 7.00

28. Buna-S is a
(A) addition polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(B) condensation polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(C) condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(D) addition polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 29 and 30

A solution which remains in equilibrium with undissolved solute, is said to be saturated. The concentration of a
saturated solution at a given temperature is called solubility. The product of concentration of ions in a
saturated solution of an electrolyte at a given temperature, is called solubility product K sp . For the  
electrolyte, AxBy with solubility S, A xBy s xA y   yBx  . The solubility product K sp   = x x  y y  sx  y .
While calculating the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt in the presence of some strong electrolyte containing
a common ion, the common ion concentration is practically equal to that of strong electrolyte. If in a solution,
the ionic product of an electrolyte exceeds its Ksp value at a particular temperature, then precipitation occurs.

29. The solubility of PbSO4 in water is 0.303 g/l at 25C, its solubility product at that temperature is
–8 2 –4 2 –6 2 –8 2
(A) 10 M (B) 9.18 x 10 M (C) 10 M (D) 9.18 x 10 M

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30. 
The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M BaCl2 solution is K sp of BaSO4  1.5  109 
–8 –9 –16 –18
(A) 1.5 x 10 M (B) 1.5 x 10 M (C) 2.25 x 10 M (D) 2.25 x 10 M

Paragraph for questions 31 and 32

The charge on colloidal particle is due to the selective adsorption of ions present in the dispersion medium.
The adsorbed ion on the colloidal particles is responsible for the development of electric charge. For example,
+
the selective adsorption of H ions lead to the development of positive charge on the colloidal particles and

the selective adsorption of OH ions lead to the development of negative charge on the colloidal particles.

31. A colloidal solution of ferric hydroxide sol is prepared by the hydrolysis of FeCl3. The colloidal particles
of ferric hydroxide are
(A) Negatively charged (B) Positively charged
(C) Neutral (D) Can not be predicted

32. Which of the following ion forms primary electrical double layer on the colloidal particle of As2S3 ?
3+ – + 2–
(A) As (B) OH (C) H (D) S

Paragraph for questions 33 and 34

Polymerization involves various mechanisms depending upon the initiator. If initiator generates free radical,
addition polymerization takes place through free radical mechanism.
+
If H is initiator and electron releasing group is present, cationic polymerization takes place. If electron
withdrawing group is present and strong base is initiator, anionic polymerization takes place

33. Which of the following will induce anionic polymerization


(I) KNH2 (II) n–Butyl lithium (III) AlCl3 (IV) BF3
(A) I only (B) I, II, III only (C) II & III only (D) I & II only
+
34. Which of the following will undergo cationic polymerization in presence of H easily
(A) CH2=CH(C6H5) (B) CH2=CH(CN) (C) CH2=CH(Cl) (D) CH2=CH(CH3)

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SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

35. Acetic acid and aq. NH3 are weak monobasic acid and weak monoacidic base respectively and Ka of
acetic acid is equal to Kb of aq. NH3. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) All the above mixing would result in neutral solution having pH = 7 at 25C
(B) If aq. NH3 is exactly half neutralized by HCl, then pOH of resulting solution is equal to pK b
(C) If acetic acid is exactly half neutralized by NaOH , the pH of resulting solution is equal to pK a
(D) If acetic acid is exactly neutralized by aq. NH3 then pH of resulting solution is equal 1/ 2 pkw.

36. Which of the following statements are correct ?


(A) One mole of D–fructose reacts with 3 mol PhNHNH 2 to form osazone.
(B) One mole of PhNHNH2 reacts with 3 mol glucose to form osazone.
(C) One mole of D–2–deoxy glucose reacts with 1 mol PhNHNH2 to form phenylhydrzone.
(D) One mole of D–3–deoxy glucose reacts with 3 mol of PhNHNH 2 to form oszone.

37. Identify the correct statements


(A) In DNA, Base is connected to sugar at C1 carbon
(B) In DNA, Phosphate group is connected to sugar at C3 carbon
(C) In DNA, Phosphate group is connected to sugar at C5 carbon
(D) In DNA, –OH group is obsent at C2 carbon of sugar.

38. The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are)
(A) Adsorption is always exothermic
(B) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature
(C) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher
energy of activation
(D) Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing
temperature.

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39. Consider the equilibrium equation ; CH3COOH + HF CH3COOH2  F


Which of the following statements are incorrect :

(A) F is the conjugate base of CH3COOH

(B) F is the conjugate base of HF
(C) CH3COOH2 is the conjugate base of CH3COOH
(D) CH3COOH is the conjugate base of CH3COOH2

40. Alanine, an  -amino acid is existed in the following equilibrium at different pH values of the solution.
OH  OH 
CH3 CH  COOH CH3 CH  COO CH3 C H  COO
| | |
NH3 NH3 NH2
 
pKa12.3 pKa2 9.7
(at pH0) (at pH14)
Identify the correct statements from the following:
(A) at pH=6.0 the solubility of alanine is minimum
(B) at pH=2.3, the concentration of dipolar ion is same as that of cationic form
(C) at pH=6.0 the concentration of anionic form dominating over the cationic form
(D) at pH=9.7, the concentration of dipolar ion is same as that of anionic form

PART III: MATHEMATICS


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x2 y2
41. If the normal at the point P() to the ellipse  = 1 intersects it again at the point Q(2), then cos
14 5
 is equal to
2 2 3 3
(A) (B)  (C) (D) 
3 3 2 2

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42. If y = f(x) passing through (1, 2) satisfies the differential equation y(1 + xy)dx = x dy = 0, then
x 1 2x x 1 4x
(A) f(x) = 2 (B) f(x) = (C) f(x) = (D) f(x) =
x 1 2x 2
4x 2
1  2x 2
2
43. Slope of the chord of the tangent to parabola y = 4ax which passes through the point (–6a, 0) and
which subtends an angle of 45 at the vertex is
3 2 7 5
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
8 7 2 6
2
44. If the parabola y = (a – b)x + (b – c)x + (c – a) touches the x-axis, then the line ax + by + c = 0
(A) represents the family of parallel lines (B) always passes through a fixed point
(C) is always perpendicular to x-axis (D) always has negative slope

x2 y2 PM 2
45. If normal at any point P to the ellipse  = 1, a > b meets the axes at M and N so that  ,
a2 b2 PN 3
then value of eccentricity e is
(A) cos 45 (B) sin 30 (C) sin 60 (D) tan 30
2 2 2 2
46. If 4x + py = 45 and x – 4y = 5 cut orthogonally, then the value of p is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 9 (D) 3
9 3

x2 y2
47. If P is any point common to the hyperbola  = 1 and the circle having line segment joining its
16 25
foci as diameter, then sum of focal distances of point P is
(A) 2 66 (B) 6 2 (C) 16 (D) 8
2
48. The locus of centroid of triangle formed by a tangent to the parabola y = 36x with coordinate axes is
2 2 2 2
(A) y + 3x = 0 (B) y = –9x (C) y = 3x (D) y = 9x

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SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 49 and 50


x2 y2
Suppose that C is any circle concentric with an ellipse E:  = 1. Let A is a point on E and B is a
16 4
point on C such that AB is tangent to both E and C.
49. The maximum length of AB is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 2 2 (D) 4 2

50. The slope of tangent AB, when the length of AB is maximum is


3 1 2
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3

Paragraph for questions 51 and 52


2
Vertices of a trapezium lie on the parabola y = 4x. Also, its diagonals pass through (1, 0) and have
25
length units each.
4
51. Which of the following is a vertex of trapezium ?
1 
(A) (9, –6) (B) (–4, –4) (C) (1, 2) (D)  ,1
4 

52. Area of the trapezium is


35 75 125 45
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 4
Paragraph for questions 53 and 54

x2 y2

2 2
The circle x + y – 8x = 0 and hyperbola intersect at points A and B
9 4
53. The equation of a common tangent with positive slope to the circle as well as to the hyperbola is
(A) 2x – 5 y – 20 = 0 (B) 4x – 3y + 4 = 0 (C) 3x – 4y + 8 = 0 (D) 2x – 5 y + 4 = 0

54. The equation of the circle with AB as its diameter is


2 2 2 2
(A) x + y + 24x – 12 = 0 (B) x + y + 12x + 24 = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y – 12x + 24 = 0 (D) x + y – 24x – 12 = 0

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SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

55. The major axis and minor axis of an ellipse are respectively x – 2y – 5 = 0 and 2x + y + 10 = 0. If one
end of latus rectum is (3, 4), then the foci are
(A) (5, 0) (B) (–7, –6) (C) (11, 3) (D) (–11, –8)

x2 y2 x2 y2
56. For the ellipse 2
 2  1 and 2  2 = 1
a b b a
(A) Their auxiliary circles are the same
(B) The foci of each ellipse always lie within the order ellipse
(C) Their director circles are the same
(D) The ellipse encloses the same area

1 2 2
57. A hyperbola having the transverse axis of length and is confocal with the ellipse 3x + 4y = 12,
2
then
(A) Eccentricity of the hyperbola is 4
x2 y2 1
(B) equation of the hyperbola is  
15 1 16
1
(C) Distance between the directrices of the hyperbola is units
8
15
(D) Length of latus rectum of the hyperbola is units
2
2
58. The equations of the chords of the parabola y = 4ax which pass through the point (–6a, 0) and which
subtends an angle of 45 at the vertex is/are
(A) 2x – 7y + 12a = 0 (B) 7x – 2y + 12a = 0 (C) 2x + 7y + 12a = 0 (D) 7x + 2y + 12a = 0
2
59. Two distinct chords passing through (a, 2a) of parabola y = 4ax are bisected by the line
x + y = 1. Then the length of latus rectum can be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2
60. Let y – 5y + 3x + k = 0 be a parabola, then
(A) its latus rectum is independent of k
(B) its latus rectum is least when k = 1
73
(C) the line y = 2x + 1 will touch the parabola if k =
16
5
(D) y = is the only normal to the parabola whose slope is zero.
2

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – II_SET - B
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D
9. A 10. C 11. A 12. D
13. A 14. C 15. A,B,D 16. A,C
17. A,C 18. A,B,C 19. B,D 20. A, D

CHEMISTRY
21. A 22. B 23. B 24. C
25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A
29. C 30. A 31. B 32. D
33. D 34. A 35. A, B, C, D 36. A, C, D
37. A, B, C, D 38. A, B, C 39. A, C 40. A, B, D

MATHEMATICS
41. B 42. B 43. B 44. B
45. D 46. C 47. A 48. A
49. B 50. C 51. D 52. B
53. D 54. C 55. AD 56. ACD
57. ACD 58. AC 59. ABC 60. ACD

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – II_SET – C
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 198
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
10. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
11. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
12. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
13. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
19. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists
of three sections.
20. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. Section II contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on
each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is
correct.
22. Section III contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.
D. Marking Scheme
23. For each question in Section I and Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded in these sections.
24. For each question in Section Ill, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No
negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answer(s) in this section.

Useful data
–1 –1 –2 –1 –1 –1
R = 8.314 JK mol or 8.206  10 L atm K mol ; 1 F = 96500 C mol
–34 –19
h = 6.626  10 Js; 1 eV = 1.602  10 J
–1
c = 3.0  10 ms ; NA = 6.022  10
8 23

(Atomic Masses in amu : H = 1 , He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P = 31, S = 32,
Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5)

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.


If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

PAPER–II
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PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1 1
1. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation y  sin t  cos t will be
a b
ab a b a b ab
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ab ab ab ab

2. A plane progressive wave, traveling along positive X-axis is represented



as y  5 10
5
m  sin 100  t  . At x  0 wave speed is 300 m/s. Maximum difference in
displacements at x  0 and x  3 m is
–5 –4 -4 –4
(A) 5 x 10 m (B) 2.5 x 10 m (C) 5 x 10 m (D) 10 m

3. A metallic wire with tension T and at temperature 30c vibrates with its fundamental frequency of 1
kHz. The same wire with the same tension but at 10C temperature vibrates with a fundamental
frequency of 1.001 kHz. The coefficient of linear expansion of the wire is
–4 –4 –4 –4
(A) 2 x 10 /C (B) 1.5 x 10 /C (C) 1 x 10 /C (D) 0.5 x 10 /C

4. An inductor coil joined to a 6V battery draws a steady current of 1.5A , but when this coil is
connected to a 20V , 50Hz AC source it draws a current of 4A . The reactance of this coil when it is
connected to a 30V , 100Hz AC source is
(A) 6 (B) 12  (C) 18  (D) 3 

Acceleration of point x = 2 m of a transverse wave is 5 ˆj m/s and the slope of waveform is given
2
5.
dy 
 5 sin x . Then the speed of the point at that instant is given in m/s as
dx 12
50 100 150 200
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 3  3  3  3

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6. The voltage time (V —t) graph for a triangular wave having peak value V0 is as shown in figure. The
rms value of V is:

V0 V0 V0 V0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 2 3

7. What is the amount of power delivered by the ac source in the


circuit shown (in watts).
(A) 500 watt (B) 1014 watt
(C) 1514 watt (D) 2013 watt

C
8. An inductor L, a capacitor C and ammeters A1, A2 and A3 are connected to an A1
oscillator in the circuit as shown in the adjoining figure. when the frequency of
the oscillator is increased, then at resonant frequency, the ammeter reading is L
A2
zero in the case of
(A) ammeter A1 (B) ammeter A2
~ A3
(C) ammeter A3 (D) all the three ammeters

SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 9 and 10


One end of a long rope is tied to a fixed vertical pole. The rope is stretched horizontally with a tension 8 N. Let
us consider the length of the rope to be along x-axis. A simple harmonic oscillator at x = 0 generates a
transverse wave of frequency 100 Hz and amplitude 2 cm along the rope. Mass per unit length of the rope is
20gm / m. . Ignoring the effect of gravity, answer the following questions.

9. Wavelength of the wave is


(A) 50cm (B) 20 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 32 cm

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10. Keeping tension and amplitude in the given rope remaining the same, if a simple harmonic oscillator
of frequency 200 Hz is used instead of the earlier oscillator of frequency 100 Hz. Then
(A) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will not change, wavelength will not change and energy
density will become one fourth.
(B) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will become half; wavelength will become one-fourth and
energy density will become two times.
(C) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will become four times; wavelength will become doubled
and energy density will not change .
(D) Speed of transverse waves in the rope will not change; wavelength will become half and energy
density will become four times.

Paragraph for questions 11 and 12

3 3
In the circuit shown in figure R1 = 10, L = H, R2 = 20 and C = F. Current in L – R1 circuit is I1 in
10 2
C – R2 circuit I2 and the main current is I.
The two circuits are in parallel. So, they r be treated separately.

11. Phase different between I1 and I2 is :


(A) 0° (B) 90 (C) 180° (D) 60

12. At some instant current in L-R1 circuit is 10 A. At the same instant current in C – R2 circuit will be :
(A) 5 A (B) 5 2A (C) 6 6A (D) 5 3A

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Paragraph for questions 13 and 14


The linear mass density of a non uniform wire under constant tension decreases gradually along the wire so
that an incident wave is transmitted without reflection. The wire is uniform for   x  0 . In this region, a
transverse wave has the form y(x, t) = 0.003 cos (25x – 50t) where y and x are in metres and t is in seconds.

From x = 0 to x = 20 m the linear mass density decreases gradually from 1 to 1 . For 20  x   , the linear
4

mass density is   1 .
4

13. Find the wave velocity for large value of x


(A) 3 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 6 m/s

14. Find the amplitude of the wave for large value of x


(A) 0.0042 m (B) 0.003 m (C) 0.006 m (D) 0.003 2 m

SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

The equation of a stationary wave in a string is y =(4 mm) sin[(3.14m ) x] cos t.
-1
15.
Select the correct alternative(s)
(A) The amplitude of component waves is 2 mm
(B) The amplitude of component waves is 4 mm
(C) The smallest possible length of string is 0.5 m
(D) The smallest possible length of string is 1.0 m

16. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at one end has a length of 1 m. Neglecting end
corrections, the air column in the pipe can resonate for sound of frequency:
(A) 80 Hz (B) 240 Hz (C) 320 Hz (D) 400 Hz

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17. Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 6 beats per second when vibrating
simultaneously. On changing the tension slightly in one of them, the beat frequency remains
unchanged. Denoting by T 1 and T2 the higher and the lower initial tension in the strings, then it could
be said that while making the above changes in tension :
(A) T2 was decreased (B) T2 was increased
(C) T1 was decreased (D) T1 was increased

18. In the LCR circuit shown in figure:


(A) current will lead the voltage
(B) rms value of current is 20 A
1
(C) power factor of the circuit is
2
(D) voltage drop across resistance is 100 V

19. If a string fastened at both ends has successive resonance with wavelength of 0.54m for the nth
th
harmonic and 0.48m for the (n + 1) harmonic then (with a given frequency)
(A) the value of n is 8
(B) the length of the string is 2.16m
(C) the wavelength of the fundamental frequency is 4.32m
(D) fundamental frequency is 18Hz

20. The vibration of a string fixed at both ends are described by Y = 2 sin (x) sin(100t) where Y is in
mm, x is in cm, t in sec then
1
(A) maximum displacement of the particle at x  cm would be 1 mm
6
1 1
(B) velocity of the particle at x  cm at time t = sec will be 157 3 mm/s
6 600
(C) if the length of the string be 10 cm, number of loop in it would be 5
(D) none of these

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PART II: CHEMISTRY


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. Consider the following transformations :


(I) XeF6  CsF  Cs  XeF7  (II) XeF4  SbF5   XeF3  SbF6 
  

(IV) XeF2  IF5   XeF IF6 


 
(III) XeF4 
complete
hydrolysis
 XeOF2
Possible transformations are :
(A) II and III only (B) I, II and IV only
(C) III and IV only (D) I, II, III and IV

22. Which one of the following is not buffer solution ?


(A) 0.8 M H2S + 0.8 M KHS (B) 2MC6H5NH2 + 2M C6H5NH3Br
(C) 1lit 3M CH3COOH + 500 ml 1M NaOH (D) 0.05 M KClO4 + 0.05 M HCIO4

23. 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 100 mL of a 0.2 M CH3COOH solution. The pH of the resulting
–5
solution will be (Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10 )
(A) 4.74 (B) 5.74 (C) 3.74 (D) 7.00

24. Buna-S is a
(A) condensation polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(B) addition polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(C) condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(D) addition polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

25. The following carbohydrate is


OH
H
O
H OH
HO H
HO
OH
H H
(A) a ketohexose (B) an aldohexose (C) an –furanose (D) an  – pyranose

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26. In the following reaction HC2O4  PO34 HPO24  C2O24 which are the two Bronsted base ?
(A) HC2O4 and PO34 (B) HPO24 and C2O24
(C) HC2O4 and HPO24 (D) PO34 and C2O24

27. What is the change in pH of water when 0.01 mole of NaOH are added in 10 litre water.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 11

28. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption?
(A) Adsorption on solids is reversible
(B) Adsorption decreases with increase in temperature
(C) Adsorption is non specific
(D) Both change in enthalpy and change in entropy of adsorption is positive

SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 29 and 30

The charge on colloidal particle is due to the selective adsorption of ions present in the dispersion medium.
The adsorbed ion on the colloidal particles is responsible for the development of electric charge. For example,
+
the selective adsorption of H ions lead to the development of positive charge on the colloidal particles and

the selective adsorption of OH ions lead to the development of negative charge on the colloidal particles.

29. A colloidal solution of ferric hydroxide sol is prepared by the hydrolysis of FeCl 3. The colloidal particles
of ferric hydroxide are
(A) Positively charged (B) Negatively charged
(C) Neutral (D) Can not be predicted

30. Which of the following ion forms primary electrical double layer on the colloidal particle of As 2S3 ?
3+ 2– + –
(A) As (B) S (C) H (D) OH

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Paragraph for questions 31 and 32

Polymerization involves various mechanisms depending upon the initiator. If initiator generates free radical,
addition polymerization takes place through free radical mechanism.
+
If H is initiator and electron releasing group is present, cationic polymerization takes place. If electron
withdrawing group is present and strong base is initiator, anionic polymerization takes place

31. Which of the following will induce anionic polymerization


(I) KNH2 (II) n–Butyl lithium (III) AlCl3 (IV) BF3
(A) I & II only (B) I, II, III only (C) II & III only (D) I only
+
32. Which of the following will undergo cationic polymerization in presence of H easily
(A) CH2=CH(Cl) (B) CH2=CH(CN) (C) CH2=CH(C6H5) (D) CH2=CH(CH3)

Paragraph for questions 33 and 34

A solution which remains in equilibrium with undissolved solute, is said to be saturated. The concentration of a
saturated solution at a given temperature is called solubility. The product of concentration of ions in a
saturated solution of an electrolyte at a given temperature, is called solubility product K sp . For the  
electrolyte, AxBy with solubility S, A xBy s xA y   yBx  . The solubility product K sp   = x x  y y  sx  y .
While calculating the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt in the presence of some strong electrolyte containing
a common ion, the common ion concentration is practically equal to that of strong electrolyte. If in a solution,
the ionic product of an electrolyte exceeds its Ksp value at a particular temperature, then precipitation occurs.

33. The solubility of PbSO4 in water is 0.303 g/l at 25C, its solubility product at that temperature is
–6 2 –4 2 –8 2 –8 2
(A) 10 M (B) 9.18 x 10 M (C) 10 M (D) 9.18 x 10 M

34. 
The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M BaCl2 solution is K sp of BaSO4  1.5  109 
–9 –8 –16 –18
(A) 1.5 x 10 M (B) 1.5 x 10 M (C) 2.25 x 10 M (D) 2.25 x 10 M

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SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

35. Identify the correct statements


(A) In DNA, Base is connected to sugar at C1 carbon
(B) In DNA, Phosphate group is connected to sugar at C3 carbon
(C) In DNA, Phosphate group is connected to sugar at C5 carbon
(D) In DNA, –OH group is obsent at C2 carbon of sugar.

36. The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are)
(A) Adsorption is always exothermic
(B) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature
(C) Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing
temperature.
(D) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher
energy of activation

37. Consider the equilibrium equation ; CH3COOH + HF CH3COOH2  F


Which of the following statements are incorrect :
– –
(A) F is the conjugate base of HF (B) F is the conjugate base of CH3COOH
(C) CH3COOH2 is the conjugate base of CH3COOH
(D) CH3COOH is the conjugate base of CH3COOH2

38. Alanine, an  -amino acid is existed in the following equilibrium at different pH values of the solution.
OH  OH 
CH3 CH  COOH CH3 CH  COO CH3 C H  COO
| | |
NH3 NH3 NH2
 
pKa12.3 pKa2 9.7
(at pH0) (at pH14)
Identify the correct statements from the following:
(A) at pH=6.0 the solubility of alanine is minimum
(B) at pH=6.0 the concentration of anionic form dominating over the cationic form
(C) at pH=2.3, the concentration of dipolar ion is same as that of cationic form
(D) at pH=9.7, the concentration of dipolar ion is same as that of anionic form

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39. Acetic acid and aq. NH3 are weak monobasic acid and weak monoacidic base respectively and Ka of
acetic acid is equal to Kb of aq. NH3. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) All the above mixing would result in neutral solution having pH = 7 at 25C
(B) If aq. NH3 is exactly half neutralized by HCl, then pOH of resulting solution is equal to pKb
(C) If acetic acid is exactly half neutralized by NaOH , the pH of resulting solution is equal to pK a
(D) If acetic acid is exactly neutralized by aq. NH 3 then pH of resulting solution is equal 1/ 2 pkw.

40. Which of the following statements are correct ?


(A) One mole of PhNHNH2 reacts with 3 mol glucose to form osazone.
(B) One mole of D–fructose reacts with 3 mol PhNHNH 2 to form osazone.
(C) One mole of D–2–deoxy glucose reacts with 1 mol PhNHNH2 to form phenylhydrzone.
(D) One mole of D–3–deoxy glucose reacts with 3 mol of PhNHNH 2 to form oszone.

PART III: MATHEMATICS


SECTION – I: Single Correct Answer Type
The section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x2 y2 PM 2
41. If normal at any point P to the ellipse  = 1, a > b meets the axes at M and N so that  ,
a2 b2 PN 3
then value of eccentricity e is
(A) cos 45 (B) sin 30 (C) tan 30 (D) sin 60
2 2 2 2
42. If 4x + py = 45 and x – 4y = 5 cut orthogonally, then the value of p is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D) 9
9 3

x2 y2
43. If P is any point common to the hyperbola  = 1 and the circle having line segment joining its
16 25
foci as diameter, then sum of focal distances of point P is
(A) 6 2 (B) 2 66 (C) 16 (D) 8
2
44. The locus of centroid of triangle formed by a tangent to the parabola y = 36x with coordinate axes is
2 2 2 2
(A) y = –9x (B) y + 3x = 0 (C) y = 3x (D) y = 9x

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x2 y2
45. If the normal at the point P() to the ellipse  = 1 intersects it again at the point Q(2), then cos
14 5
 is equal to
2 2 3 3
(A)  (B) (C) (D) 
3 3 2 2

46. If y = f(x) passing through (1, 2) satisfies the differential equation y(1 + xy)dx = x dy = 0, then
2x x 1 x 1 4x
(A) f(x) = (B) f(x) = 2 (C) f(x) = (D) f(x) =
2x 2
x 1 4x 2
1  2x 2
2
47. Slope of the chord of the tangent to parabola y = 4ax which passes through the point (–6a, 0) and
which subtends an angle of 45 at the vertex is
2 3 7 5
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
7 8 2 6
2
48. If the parabola y = (a – b)x + (b – c)x + (c – a) touches the x-axis, then the line ax + by + c = 0
(A) always passes through a fixed point (B) represents the family of parallel lines
(C) is always perpendicular to x-axis (D) always has negative slope

SECTION – II: Paragraph Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY one is correct.

Paragraph for questions 49 and 50


2 25
Vertices of a trapezium lie on the parabola y = 4x. Also, its diagonals pass through (1, 0) and have length
4
units each.
49. Which of the following is a vertex of trapezium ?
1 
(A)  ,1 (B) (–4, –4) (C) (1, 2) (D) (9, –6)
4 

50. Area of the trapezium is


75 35 125 45
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 4

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Paragraph for questions 51 and 52

x2 y2

2 2
The circle x + y – 8x = 0 and hyperbola intersect at points A and B
9 4
51. The equation of a common tangent with positive slope to the circle as well as to the hyperbola is
(A) 2x – 5 y – 20 = 0 (B) 2x – 5 y + 4 = 0 (C) 3x – 4y + 8 = 0 (D) 4x – 3y + 4 = 0

52. The equation of the circle with AB as its diameter is


2 2 2 2
(A) x + y – 12x + 24 = 0 (B) x + y + 12x + 24 = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y + 24x – 12 = 0 (D) x + y – 24x – 12 = 0

Paragraph for questions 53 and 54


x2 y2
Suppose that C is any circle concentric with an ellipse E:  = 1. Let A is a point on E and B is a point on
16 4
C such that AB is tangent to both E and C.
53. The maximum length of AB is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 2 2 (D) 4 2

54. The slope of tangent AB, when the length of AB is maximum is


1 3 2
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3

SECTION – III: Multi Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE may be is correct.

1 2 2
55. A hyperbola having the transverse axis of length and is confocal with the ellipse 3x + 4y = 12,
2
then
x2 y2 1
(A) equation of the hyperbola is  
15 1 16
(B) Eccentricity of the hyperbola is 4
1
(C) Distance between the directrices of the hyperbola is units
8
15
(D) Length of latus rectum of the hyperbola is units
2

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2
56. The equations of the chords of the parabola y = 4ax which pass through the point (–6a, 0) and which
subtends an angle of 45 at the vertex is/are
(A) 2x – 7y + 12a = 0 (B) 2x + 7y + 12a = 0 (C) 7x – 2y + 12a = 0 (D) 7x + 2y + 12a = 0
2
57. Two distinct chords passing through (a, 2a) of parabola y = 4ax are bisected by the line
x + y = 1. Then the length of latus rectum can be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2
58. Let y – 5y + 3x + k = 0 be a parabola, then
(A) its latus rectum is least when k = 1
(B) its latus rectum is independent of k
73
(C) the line y = 2x + 1 will touch the parabola if k =
16
5
(D) y = is the only normal to the parabola whose slope is zero.
2

59. The major axis and minor axis of an ellipse are respectively x – 2y – 5 = 0 and 2x + y + 10 = 0. If one
end of latus rectum is (3, 4), then the foci are
(A) (5, 0) (B) (–7, –6) (C) (–11, –8) (D) (11, 3)

x2 y2 x2 y2
60. For the ellipse   1 and  =1
a2 b2 b2 a2
(A) The foci of each ellipse always lie within the order ellipse
(B) Their auxiliary circles are the same
(C) Their director circles are the same
(D) The ellipse encloses the same area

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – VII_PAPER – II_SET - C
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A
5. C 6. D 7. C 8. C
9. B 10. D 11. B 12. D
13. B 14. A 15. A,D 16. A,B,D
17. B,C 18. A, C 19. A,B,C 20. A,B

CHEMISTRY
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. B
25. B 26. D 27. B 28. D
29. A 30. B 31. A 32. C
33. A 34. B 35. A, B, C, D 36. A, B, D
37. B, C 38. A, C, D 39. A, B, C, D 40. B, C, D

MATHEMATICS
41. C 42. D 43. B 44. B
45. A 46. A 47. A 48. A
49. A 50. A 51. B 52. A
53. A 54. B 55. BCD 56. AB
57. ABC 58. BCD 59. AC 60. BCD

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