++++++++++++++++ UNITY ++++++++++++++

41. How many RIO (Remote Input/Output) racks can be connected to a Quantum PAC?

4
10
16
31

42. By default, on Cold restart, what happens with the controller memory?

(1)
Initializes registers to 0
Resets registers to initial values
Keeps the value of registers
All values are set to 1

Notas: http://static.schneider-
electric.us/docs/Automation%20Products/35006144.pdf (pagina 119 del pdf)

43. How many Profibus DP modules can be installed in a Quantum Backplane?

2
4
6
8

44. The number of drops on Quantum mainly has an impact on?

Program execution
Memory consumption
HSBY Failover
Task Scan time

45. What is the maximum number of racks possible with an M340 CPU?

4
8
12
16

46. Using a BME P58 4040 CPU, what is the maximum quantity of Ethernet Remote I/O
drops allowed?

4
8
16
31
47. Select the correct M580 related part references?

140 XBP 0400

BMX P34 2030
BME XBP 0800
BME P58 4040

48. An application requires the ability to mix the following devices on the same Bus: I/O
blocks, drives, and third party products. Which network can be proposed using a Quantum
PAC?

Ethernet TCP/IP
Remote I/O S908
CANopen
All

49. What is the maximum baud rate for CANopen?

19.2 Kbps
9.2 Kbps
1 Mbps
12 Mbps

50. What is the maximum possible distance using CANopen?

1 km
2 km
5 km
10 km

51. How many devices can be connected on a CANopen bus without a repeater?

16
32
64
128

52. UMAS can be considered as an extension of the Modbus protocol with a maximum
message size of 1024 bytes?

True
False
53. What is the purpose of the Profibus parameter telegram?

Configure the device through the master

Provides an easy way to replace a failed device
Adding more diagnostics available in the master
None of the above

54. Field instruments can be calibrated , initialized and monitored using Profibus-
PA protocol?

True
False

55. What is the goal of an assembly instance in EtherNet/IP?

To instantiate devices on the network

To provide communications to Modbus Serial devices
To provide a set of predefined communication mapping profiles
To discover the field bus automatically

56. When based on RS485, what is the maximum distance without repeaters (approx.)
for Modbus Serial?

20m
50m
1100m
4800m

57. By default, I/O channels are assigned to which Task?

EVENT
MAST
FAST
AUX

58. An Animation Table is a tool that is used online to determine the value of a variable

True
False

59. When a project is exported, which of these project elements are contained in
the XEF file?

All the DDTs

All the functional modules
All the variables (used and unused)
None of the above
60. Which programming languages may be used in SFC Actions? (Select all answers that
apply)

IL
Visual Basic
C++
FBD

61. Which of these statements are True about Purging? (Select all answers that apply)

Delete EFs or EFB types which are no longer used in the program from the Libset
“Application” directory
Eliminate the EF code from the program memory when they are no longer called in the
application
Eliminate EFB code from the program memory when instances are deleted from the
variables editor
None of the above

62. There is Trending functionality within Unity Pro?

True
False

63. Unity Pro includes which types of in-built Functions? (Select all answers that apply)

Discrete Functions
Private Functions
Elementary Functions
Elementary Function Blocks

64. Which of these are Task types are used in Unity Pro? (Select all answers that apply)

Program Operational Unit

Auxiliary
Fast
Master

65. The Project Browser displays in which of these ways?

XML View
 Functional View
Meta Data View
Structural View

66. Which of these are major components of a Sequential Function Chart?

Jumps
Pins
Steps
Transitions

67. Which of these are advantages of Derived Function Blocks?

Latching of parameters and internal variables used during processing

Increase the legibility of the program
Many Derived Function Blocks already exist in the product
None of the above

68. Which functions does the PLC Simulator test?

PLC Outputs
PLC Inputs
Master Tasks
Auxiliary Tasks

69. What does a Unity Pro. XVM export file contain?

Only unlocated variables

Only located variables
All application variables ex IODDT
All application variables

70. The name of a DFB instance is modified by right-clicking on the instance and
choosing “Refine”?

True
False

71. What determines the limit of an array of variables?

Variable Type
Number of elements
Memory size only
 Nesting level

72. Which of these time types may be assigned to an SFC Step?

UTC
GMT
Delay Time
Minimum Supervision Time

73. Which of these statements are true about Archived projects?

A project Archive is a highly compressed version of the project

Archiving is similar to exporting except that it saves the uncompiled application
Archiving is similar to exporting except that it saves the compiled application
None of the above
74. SFC Transitions can have more than one condition?

True
False

75. The Libset (set of libraries) supplied with Unity Pro allows users to store DFBs in one or
more custom libraries. Which of these are advantages of the Libset? (Select all answers that
apply)

Reuse data types defined in other projects

DFBs may be edited in Microsoft Word
Manage changes consistently, since version management is performed by Unity Pro
None of the above

76. After an Analysis of the project has been completed where

are errors and warnings displayed?

The event log

Error Window
Output Window
An email is sent to the user

77. Which view allows users to group the Program sections?

XML View
Structural View
Functional View
Meta Data View

78. Which technique is used in the OSI data-link layer of CANopen?

Master / Slave
CSMA-CD
 CSMA-CA
Producer / Consumer

79. The user can change the default mapping of a PDO in a CANopen?

True
False

80. Field instruments can be calibrated, initialized and monitored using Profibus-
PA protocol?

True
False

81. What is the goal of FDT/DTM technology?

To improve the communication with Unity Pro

To simplify by using a single software for configuration, process and diagnostics
To be able to insert standard DTM compatible devices from any vendor
To ensure more reliability in the communication performance

82. Profibus-DP uses which media access control methods?

Token passing bus and Master/Slave

Token passing ring and Master/Slave
CSMA/CD and Master/Slave
Master/Slave only

83. Profibus-PA is what kind of bus/network?

A Device bus
An Industrial Network
A Local Network
An Instrumentation bus

84. Using I/O scanner, what is the average time to read data on one device, process the data
in the PLC (scan time 100 ms) and set the resulting input on another device?

3 x PLC scan time

100 ms
120 ms
5 x PLC scan time
85. Using a BME P58 4040 CPU, what is the maximum quantity of Ethernet Remote I/O
drops allowed?

4
8
16
31

86. The FDR service with Advantys STB manages only networking parameters?

True
False

87. For the M340 platform, what is the maximum length of Bus X?

10m
30m
100m
500m

88. Estimating the program execution time is mainly used for what purpose?

Select the right CPU

Select the I/O quantity
Select the program memory size
Select the data memory size

89. In the I/O scanner configuration window, each line uses a TCP connection (even if the
sane IP address is used?

True
False