1st Quiz Reviewer 5.

What results from an unequal sharing

of electrons between atom?
Multiple choice A. A nonpolar covalent bond
B. A polar covalent bond
1. About 25 of the 92 natural elements
C. An ionic bond
are known to be essential to life.
D. A hydrophobic interaction
Which four of these 25 elements to
make up approximately 96% of living
6. When are atoms the most stable?
matter?
A. When they have the fewest
A. C, Na, H, N
possible valence electrons
B. C, O, P, H
B. When they have the maximum
C. O, H, Ca, N
number of unpaired electrons
D. C, H, N, O
C. When all of the electron orbitals
in the valence shell are filled
2. Knowing the atomic mass of an
D. When all electrons are paired
element allows interferences about
which of the following?
7. The partial negative charge in a
A. The number of electrons in the
molecule of water occurs because
element
A. The oxygen atom donates an
B. The number of protons in the
electron to each of the hydrogen
element
atoms
C. The number of protons + neutrons
B. The electrons shared between the
in the element
oxygen and hydrogen atoms
D. The number of protons +
spend more time around the
electrons in the element
oxygen atom nucleus than around
the hydrogen atom nucleus
3. If you change the number of the
C. The oxygen atom has two pairs of
neutrons in an atom, you create
electrons in its valence shell that
A. A cation
are not neutralized by hydrogen
B. An anion
bonds
C. An isotope
D. One of the hydrogen atoms
D. A different element
donates an electron to the oxygen
atom
4. A salamander relies on hydrogen
bonding to stick to various surfaces.
8. Which of the following is a property
Therefore, a salamander would have
of liquid water?
the greatest difficulty clinging to a
A. Less dense than ice
A. Slightly damp surface
B. It has a specific heat that is lower
B. Surface of hydrocarbons
than that for most other
C. Surface of mostly carbon-oxygen
substances
bonds
D. Surface of mostly carbon-
nitrogen bonds
 C. It has a heat of vaporization that is
higher than that for most other
substances
D. It is nonpolar
9. Why does ice float in liquid water?
A. The high surface tension of liquid
water keeps the ice on top
B. The ionic bonds between the
molecules in ice prevent the ice
from shrinking
C. Stable hydrogen bonds keep
water molecules of ice far farther
apart than water molecules
D. The crystalline lattice of ice
causes it to be denser than liquid
water
10. Which of the following statements is
true about buffer solutions?
A. They maintain a constant pH
bases are added to them but not
when acids are added to them
B. They maintain a constant pH
acids area added to them but not
when bases are added to them
C. They fluctuate in pH when either
acids or bases are added to them
D. They maintain a relatively
constant pH when either acids or
bases are added to them
11. The element present in all organic
molecules is
A. H
B. O
C. C
D. H
12. The complexity and variety of
organic molecules is due to
A. The chemical versatility of carbon
atoms
B. The variety of rare elements in
organic molecules
C. The diverse bonding patterns of
nitrogen
D. Their interactions with water
13. Which of the following is true of
carbon?
A. It forms only polar molecules
B. It can form a max. of 3 covalent
bonds with other elements
C. It is highly electronegative
D. It can form polar and nonpolar
bonds
14. Which two functional groups are
always found in amino acids?
A. Carbonyl and amino groups
B. Carboxyl and amino groups
C. Amino and sulfhydryl groups
D. Hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
15. Amino acids are acids because they
always possess which functional
groups?
A. Amino
B. Carbonyl
C. Carboxyl
D. Phosphate
16. Which of the following best
summarizes the relationship between
dehydration reactions and
hydrolysis?
A. Dehydration reactions assemble
polymers; hydrolysis reactions
break polymers apart
B. Dehydration reactions eliminate
water from membranes;
hydrolysis add water to
membranes
 C. Dehydration reactions and
hydrolysis reactions assemble 20. All of the following contain amino
polymers from monomers acids except:
D. Hydrolysis reactions create A. Hemoglobin
polymers and dehydration B. Cholesterol
reactions create monomers C. Enzymes
D. Insulin
17. How do phospholipids interact with
water molecules? 21. Suppose a young boy is always tired
A. The polar heads with water; the and fatigued, suffering from a
nonpolar tails attract water metabolic disease. Which of the
B. Phospholipids do not interact with following organelles is most likely
water because water is polar and involved in this disease?
lipids are nonpolar A. Lysosomes
C. The polar heads interact with B. Golgi Apparatus
water; the nonpolar tails do not C. Ribosomes
D. Phospholipids dissolve in water D. Mitochondria

18. Which of the following is the best
explanation is the best explanation for
why vegetable oil is liquid at room
temperature while animal fats are
solid?
A. Vegetable oil has more double
bonds than animal fats
B. Vegetable oil has fewer double
bonds than animal fats
C. Animal fats have no amphipathic
character
D. Vegetable oil has longer fatty-
acid tails than animal fats have
19. Which of the following is the
strongest evidence that protein
structure and function are correlated?
A. Proteins function best at certain
temperatures
B. Proteins have four distinct levels
of structure and in any functions
C. Enzymes tend to be globular in
shape
D. Denatured (unfolded) proteins do
not function normally
22. Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most
similar in function to which of the
following structures in animal cells?
A. Desmosomes
B. Gap junctions
C. Extracellular matrix
D. Tight junctions
23. Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote),
a series of five cell divisions would
produce an early embryo with how
many cells?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
24. The first gap in the cell cycle (G1)
corresponds to
A. Normal growth and cell function
B. The phase in which DNA is being
replicated
C. The beginning of mitosis
D. The phase between DNA
replication and the M phase

25. A female with a paternal set of one
orange and one long gene
chromosome and a maternal set
comprised of one blue and one short
gene chromosome us expected to
produce which of the following types
of eggs after meiosis?
A. All eggs will have maternal types
of gene combinations
B. All eggs will have paternal types
of gene combinations
C. Half the eggs will have maternal
and half will have paternal
combinations
D. Each egg has a one-fourth chance
of having either blue long, blue
short, orange long, or orange short
combinations
26. Independent assortment of
chromosomes occurs during
A. Meiosis 1 only
B. Meiosis 2 only
C. Mitosis and Meiosis 1
D. Mitosis and Meiosis 2
27. For a species with haploid number of
23 chromosomes, how many different
combinations of maternal and
paternal chromosomes are possible
for the gametes?
A. 23
B. 46
C. About 1000
D. About 8 million
28. How many unique gametes could be
produce through independent
assortment by an individual with the
genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 64
29. The individual with genotype
AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds
of gametes. Which of the following is
the major reason?
A. Recurrent mutations forming new
alleles
B. Crossing over during Prophase 1
C. Different possible assortment of
chromosomes into gametes
D. The tendency for dominant alleles
to segregate together
30. Mendel continued some of his
experiments into the F2 or F3
generation to
A. Obtain a large number of
offspring on which to base
statistics
B. Observe whether or not a
recessive trait would reappear
C. Observe whether or not a
dominant trait would reappear
D. Distinguish which alleles were
segregating
31. A sexually reproducing animal has
two unlinked genes, one for head
shape (H) and one for tail length (T).
Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the
following genotypes is possible in a
gamete from this organism?
A. Hh
B. HhTt
C. T
D. HT
32. Mendel accounted for the observation
that traits that had disappeared in the
F1 generation reappeared in the F2
generation by proposing that?
 A. New mutations were frequently 35. Mendel’s second law of independent
generated in the F2 progeny, assortment has its basis in which of
“reinventing” traits that had been the following events of meiosis 1
lost in the F1generation A. Synapsis of homologous
B. The mechanism controlling the chromosomes
appearance of traits was different B. Crossing over
between the F1 and F2 plats C. Alignment of tetrads at the
C. Traits can be dominant or equator
recessive, and the recessive traits D. Separation of cells at telophase
were obscured by the dominant
ones in F1
In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled
D. Members of the F1 generation had
by gene locus D. Plants with at least one
only one allele for each trait, but
allele D have dark green leaves, and plants
members of the F2 had two alleles
with homozygous recessive dd genotype
for each trait
have light green leaves. A true-breeding,
dark-leaved plant crossed with a light-leaved
33. The fact that all seven of the pea
one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-
plants traits studied by Mendel
pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is
obeyed the principle of independent
diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in
assortment most probably indicates
the figure, where 1,2,3 and 4 represent the
which of the following:
genotypes corresponding to each box within
A. None of the traits obeyed the law
the square.
of segregation
B. The diploid number of
chromosomes in the pea plants
was 7
C. All of the genes controlling the
traits were located on the same
chromosome
D. All of the genes controlling the
traits behaved as if they were on
different chromosomes

34. Mendel’s observation of the

segregation of alleles in the gamete
formation has its basis in which of the 36. Which of the boxes marked 1-4
following phases of cell division? corresponds to plants with dark
A. Prophase 1 green leaves?
B. Anaphase 2 A. 1 only
C. Metaphase 2 B. 2 and 3
D. Anaphase 1 C. 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
37. Which of the boxes marked 1-4
correspond to plants with a
heterozygous genotype?
A. 1
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 2, 3, and 4
38. Which of the boxes marked 1-4
correspond to plants that will be true-
breeding?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1 only
39. Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and
green-seeded pea plants and then
allowed the offspring to self-
pollinate to produce an F2
generation. The results were as
follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green
(8023 total). The allele for green
seeds has what relationship to the
allele for yellow seeds?
A. Dominant
B. Incomplete Dominant
C. Recessive
D. Codominant
40. Albinism is an autosomal recessive
trait. A man and woman are both of
normal pigmentation, but both have
one parent who is albino (without
melanin pigmentation). What is the
probability that their first child will
be an albino?
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. 1
41. When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded
and green-seeded pea plants, all of
the offspring were yellow-seeded.
When he took these F1 yellow-
seeded plants and crossed them to
green-seeded plants, what genotypic
ratio was expected?
A. 1:2:1
B. 3:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:1:1:1
42. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to
brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are
dominant to long tails (t). What
fraction of the progeny of crosses
BbTt x BBtt will be expected to have
black fur and long tails?
A. 1/16
B. 3/8
C. 1/2
D. 9/16
43. In certain plants, tail is dominant to
short. If a heterozygous plant is
crossed with a homozygous tall
plant, what is the probability that the
offspring will be short?
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. 0
44. Radish flowers may be red, purple,
or white. A cross between a red-
flowered plant and a white-flowered
plant yields all-purple offspring. The
part of the radish that we eat may be
oval or long, with long being the
dominant trait. If true-breeding red
long radishes are crossed with true-
breeding white oval radishes, the F1
 will be expected to be which of the
following:
A. Red and long
B. White and long
C. Purple and long
D. Purple and oval
II. True or False
1. Saturated fats have many double
bonds in the carbon chains of their
fatty acids. FALSE
2. Saturated fatty acids are the principal
molecules in lard and butter. TRUE
3. Alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet
represent the quaternary level of
protein structure. FALSE
4. Changing a single amino acid in a
protein consisting of 325 amino acids
would always alter the biological
activity or function of the protein.
FALSE
5. Cytosine and thymine indicates all of
the pyrimidines found in RNA and
DNA. FALSE
6. One of the primary functions of RNA
molecules is to transmit genetic
information to offspring. FALSE
7. There is no advantage of light
microscopy over electron
microscopy. FALSE
8. A prokaryotic cell has an
endoplasmic reticulum. FALSE
9. Mitochondrion is common to plants
and animals. TRUE
10. RNA leaves the nucleus of a
eukaryotic cell through pores in the
nuclear membrane. FALSE
11. A vacuole takes up much volume of a
plant cell. TRUE
12. A cell with an extensive area of
smooth endoplasmic reticulum is
specialized to synthesize large
quantities of lipids. TRUE
13. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are
composed of DNA and RNA. FALSE
14. Metaphase is characterized by
separation of sister chromatids.
FALSE
15. The complete set of an organism’s
genes and other DNA sequences
defines a genome. TRUE
16. Asexual reproduction occurs during
meiosis. FALSE
17. Heterologous chromosomes carry
information for the same traits.
FALSE
18. Meiosis produces haploid cells and
the diploid number is restored by
DNA replication. FALSE
19. When homologous chromosomes
cross over, corresponding segments
of non-sister chromatids are
exchanged. TRUE
20. Radish flowers may be red, purple, o
white. A cross between a red-
flowered plant and a white-flowered
plant yields all-purple offspring. The
flower color trait in radishes is an
example of codominance. FALSE