Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
2. 16.2 V = −, q = −e
dE = − τ 〈 dV 2
〉
dt m dr
If V = ar n , then the Virial theorem tells us
〈T〉 = n 〈V〉
2
In the present case, n = −1, so
2
E = 〈T〉 + 〈V〉 = 1 〈V〉 = − Ze
2 2r
dV = Ze 2
dr r2
Now
dE = − τ 〈 dV 2
〉
dt m dr
gives
d 1 = 2Ze 2 τ
dr rt mr 4 t
or
r 2 dr = −2Ze 2 τdt/m
2 e2
But τ = 3 c3m
, so
r 2 dr = −3Zcτ 3 τt
r 3 t = r 30 − 9Zcτ 3 τt
b) At this point, for simplicity of notation, I’m going to take c = = 1. Then from problem
14.21,
1 = 2 e 2 Ze 2 4 m
T 3 n5
We are given
2
r = n a0
Z
2 e2
Where a 0 = 1
me 2
= Bohr radius, and τ = 3 m
2 2 2 4 6
− dn = − Z dr = Z 32 Zτ 2 = Z 3 Z Z 2 em = 2 Zm e 5
dt 2a 0 n dt 2a 0 n r 2a 0 n a0n2 3 3 n
in agreement with the result of problem 14.21.
c) From part b
r 30 − r 3 t
t=
9Zτ 2
n 2f a 0 n 2i a 0
But rt = Z
, r0 = Z
n 2i a 0 3 n 2f a 0 3
Z
− Z n6 − n6
t= = 1 a 30 i 4 2 f
9Zτ 2 9 Z τ
In our present case Z = 1, so
3 n 6i − n 6f
t= 1 1 = 1 e −10 n 6i − n 6f
9 me 2 2 e2 2 4m
3 m
In these units, (from the particle data book) MeV −1 = 6. 6 × 10 −22 s. e 2 = α = 1/137, and
m = 207 ×. 511MeV.
t= 1 × 6. 6 × 10 −22 s n 6i − n 6f = 7. 53 × 10 −14 n 6i − n 6f s
4 × 207 ×. 5111/137 5
For the cases desired,
t 1 = 7. 53 × 10 −14 10 6 − 4 6 s = 7. 5 × 10 −8 s
1. 16.1 It’s useful to apply in this case the Virial Theorem, familiar from classical mechanics:
〈T〉 = 1 〈 dV 〉r
2 dr
If V = ar n , then
〈T〉 = n 〈V〉
2
In our case V = 1
2
kr 2 , with k = mω 20 , so n = 2 and
〈T〉 = 〈V〉
Or,
〈 dV 〉 = E
r
dr
We are given
dE = − τ 〈 dV 2
〉
dt m dr
This can be rewritten
dE = − τ kE
dt m
So
τ
E = E 0 e − m kt = E 0 e −τω 0 t = E 0 e −Γt
2
Similarly,
⃗
dL τ 〈 1 dV 〉L
⃗
= −m r dr
dt
But 1 dV
r dr = mω 20 , so
L = L 0 e −τω 0 t = L 0 e −Γt
2
PHY 5347
Homework Set 11 Solutions – Kimel
2. 14.12
a) From Jackson, Eq (14.38)
n̂ × n̂ − ∞⃗ × ∞̇ 2
dP = e 2
dΩ 4πc ⃗ 5
1 − n̂ ⋅ ∞
Using azimuthal symmetry, we can choose n̂ in the x-z plane.
aω 2
∞̇ t ′ = − c 0 cos ω 0 t ′ ẑ = −ω 0 ∞ cos ω 0 t ′ ẑ
⃗ × ∞̊ = 0
Using ∞
⃗ × ∞̇
n̂ × n̂ − ∞
2
= n̂ × ∞̇
2
and
n̂ × ∞̇ = ω 0 ∞ sin θ cos ω 0 t ′
So
2
dP t ′ = e c∞
4
sin 2 θ cos 2 ω 0 t ′
dΩ 4πa 2 1 + ∞ cos θ sin ω 0 t ′ 5
Defining φ = ω 0 t ′ ,
e 2 c∞ 4 1 sin 2 θ cos 2 φ
∫0
2π
〈 dP t ′ 〉 = dφ
dΩ 4πa 2 2π 1 + ∞ cos θ sin φ 5
Or, doing the integral,
e 2 c∞ 4 4 + ∞ 2 cos 2 θ
〈 dP 〉 = 2 7/2
sin 2 θ
dΩ 32πa 1 − ∞ cos θ
2 2
4+.05 2 cos 2 θ
c) 7/2
sin 2 θ
1−.05 2 cos 2 θ
0
0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3
4+.95 2 cos 2 θ
7/2
sin 2 θ
1−.95 2 cos 2 θ
300
250
200
150
100
50
0
0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3
PHY 5347
Homework Set 10 Solutions – Kimel
⃗ =⃗
B ∇×A ⃗ = −n̂ ∂ × A
⃗ = n̂ ∂ × A ⃗ = eβ̇ × n̂
∂R c∂t ′ cR
⃗ =B
E ⃗ × n̂
dPt ⃗
= c RB
2 2
= e β̇ × n̂
2
= e 2 |v̇ |2 sin 2 θ
dΩ 4π 4πc 4πc 3
where θ is the angle between n̂ and β̇ (assuming here the particle is moving linearly)
2
Pt = 2e 3 |v̇ |2
3c
Let the time-average be defined by
τ
〈ft〉 ≡ 1τ ∫ 0 ftdt
Then
dPt e 2 sin 2 θ |v̇ |2
=
dΩ 4πc 3
2
〈Pt〉 = 2e 3 |v̇ |2
3c
a) Suppose ⃗
xt = ẑ a cos ω 0 t. Then v̇ = d2z
dt 2
= −aω 20 cos ω 0 t
τ
|v̇ |2 = aω 20 2 1τ ∫ 0 cos 2 ω 0 tdt = aω 20 2 /2
So
dPt e 2 aω 2 2 sin 2 θ
= 0
dΩ 8πc 3
2
〈Pt〉 = e 3 aω 20
2
3c
b) Suppose ⃗
xt = Rî cos ω 0 t + sin ω 0 t. Then
v̇ t = −Rω 20 î cos ω 0 t + sin ω 0 t
î k̂
n̂ × v̇ = sin θ cos φ sin θ sin φ cos θ
−Rω 20 cos ω 0 t −Rω sin ω 0 t 0
dPt 2
= e 3 Rω 20 2 cos 2 θ sin 2 ω 0 t + cos 2 ω 0 t + sin 2 θ sin 2 ω 0 t + φ
dΩ 4πc
e 2 Rω 2 2 1 + cos θ
2
dPt
= 0
dΩ 4πc 3 2
e 2 Rω 2 2 2π ∫ 1 1 + x dx = 2e 2 Rω 2 2
2
〈Pt〉 = 0 0
4πc 3 −1 2 3c 3
PHY 5347
Homework Set 9 Solutions – Kimel
3. 12.14
a) We are given
L = − 1 ∂ α A β ∂ α A β − 1c J α A α
8π
which can be rewritten
L = − 1 ∂ β A α ∂ β A α − 1c J α A α
8π
Using the Euler-Lagrange equations of motion,
∂β ∂L − ∂L = 0
∂∂ β A α ∂A α
Noting
∂L = − 1 ∂βAα
∂∂ β A α 4π
∂L = − 1 J α
∂A α c
∂ β ∂ β A α = ∂ β ∂ β A α = 4π
c J
α
or
∂ β ∂ β A α − ∂ α A β + ∂ α A β = ∂ β F βα + ∂ β ∂ α A β = 4π
c J
α
∂ β F βα = 4π
c J
α
− 1 F F αβ − 1 J α A α
16π αβ c
The term in parentheses can be written
F αβ F αβ = 2∂ α A β ∂ α A β − 2∂ α A β ∂ β A α + 2A β ∂ β ∂ α A α
The last term vanishes if we choose the Lorentz gauge, and the second term is of the form of a
4-divergence. Thus the Lagrangian of this problem differs from the usual one, of Eq. (12.85) by a
4-divergence ∂ α A β ∂ β A α .
The 4-divergence does not change the euations of motion since the fields vanish at the limits of
integration given by the action. Using the generalized Gauss’s theorem or by integrating by parts, we
see the 4-divergence gives zero contribution to the action.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 9 Solutions – Kimel
2. 12.5
a) The system is described by
⃗ ⃗
u = c E ×2 B = c E ẑ
⃗
B B
Then, using Eq. 11. 149
⃗ || = 0; ⃗ ′⊥ = 0; ⃗ ′⊥ = 1 B
⃗ ′ = 0; B ⃗ u 2 ⃗
E E B || γ = 1− c B
So
⃗ ′⊥ =
B 1− E 2
⃗ =
B B 2 − E 2 B̂
2
B B2
Now from the class notes,
⃗′ = ⃗
du ′
⃗ B ′ = eB′ , where in this case E ′ is the energy of the particle.
⃗ B ′ , where ω
u′ × ω
′
dt E
I’ll choose the same boundary conditions as in class, decribed in the figure.
So
⃗
u ′⊥ = ω B ′ acosω B ′ t ′ ̂ 3 − sinω B ′ t ′ ̂ 1
where u ′⊥ t = 0 = ω B ′ a (ie, the BC determine a.
⃗
x ′ t ′ = u ′|| t ′ ̂ 2 + â 3 sin ω B ′ t ′ + ̂ 1 cos ω B ′ t ′
ct γ ∞γ 0 0 ct ′
z ∞γ γ 0 0 z′
=
x 0 0 1 0 x′
y 0 0 0 1 y′
or
t = γt ′ + ∞γz ′ /c = γt ′ + ∞γa sin ω B ′ t ′ /c ≡ ft ′ → t ′ = f −1 t
So
zt = ∞γcf −1 t + γa sin ω B ′ f −1 t
′ −1
yt = u ||0 f t
⃗ field alone. Then the
b) If |E| ∑ |B|, one can transform to a frame where the field is a static E
solution is as we found in section 12.3 of the text, with the above transformation taking you to the
unprimed frame.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 9 Solutions – Kimel
1. 12.3
⃗ 0 along z, ⃗
a) Take E v 0 along y
Generally
⃗
dp ⃗+ ⃗ ⃗ ;
v ×B ⃗
dE = ev⃗ ⋅ E
=e E c
dt dt
⃗ = 0, and E
Since B ⃗ = E 0 ẑ
dp z
= eE 0
dt
dp y
=0
dt
The initial condition ⃗
p0 = mv 0 and the above equations show the subsequent motion is in the
y − z plane. Consistent with this initial condition, we have
p y t = mv 0 ; p z t = eE 0 t
Et = ⃗
p 2 tc 2 + m 2 c 4 = m 2 v 20 c 2 + m 2 c 4 + ceE 0 t 2 = ω 20 + ceE 0 t 2
Using
p = mγv⃗ = E2 ⃗
⃗ v
c
p y t mv 0 c 2
v y t = =
Et/c 2 ω 20 + ceE 0 t 2
mv 0 c 2
∫0
t mv 0 c
yt = dt = sinh −1 t/ρ
ceE 0 ρ +t
2 2 eE 0
ω0
where ρ ≡ ceE 0
. So
mv 0 c tceE
yt = sinh −1 ω 0 0 Eq. (1)
eE 0
Similarly
p z t eE 0 tc 2
v z t = =
Et/c 2 ω 20 + ceE 0 t 2
Thus
2
∫0
t
zt = eE 0 c tdt =c ρ 2 + t 2 − ρ Eq.(2)
ceE 0 ρ2 + t2
20
18
16
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
1 2 x 3 4 5
For small t : t/ρ << 1, and ky << 1. Thus we can taylor expand Eq.(3) and get
z = cρk 2 y 2 /2
which is quadratic in y giving a parabolic shape.
For large t : t/ρ >> 1, and we see the sinh term dominates in Eq.(3) and we get
cρe ky
z
2
which is an exponential shape.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 8 Solutions – Kimel
3. 12.2 (a)
L ′ = L + d λt, ⃗
x
dt
δ ∫ L ′ − Ldt = δλt 2 , ⃗
t2
x − λt 1 , ⃗
x = 0 → L and L ′ yield the same Euler-Lagrange Eqs. of Mot.
t1
where the last equality follows from the fact that variation at the end points is zero since the end
points are held fixed.
If A α → A α + ∂ α Λ, then
φ → φ + ∂0Λ
⃗ →⃗
A a−⃗
∇Λ
where the minus sign in the second equation should be noticed. Thus
⃗ − eφ − eu
⃗⋅A
L → −m 1 − u 2 + eu ⃗⋅⃗
∇Λ − e∂ 0 Λ
Now
μ
x = ∂ μ Λt, ⃗
d Λt, ⃗ x ∂x = ∂ Λ + ⃗
∇Λ ⋅ ⃗
u
dt ∂x ∂t ∂t
Or
L → −m 1 − u 2 + eu ⃗ − eφ − e d Λt, ⃗
⃗⋅A x
dt
By the argument of part (a), this Lagrangian gives the same equations of motion as the original
Lagrangian.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 8 Solutions – Kimel
2. 12.1 (a)
q
L = − 1 mu α u α − c u α A α (invariant Lagrangian)
2
Show this Lagrangian gives the correct eqn. of motion, ie, Eq. (12.2)
du α = e F α∞ u ∞
dτ mc
τ2
The Action is A = ∫ Ldτ.
τ1
d ∂L − ∂L = 0
dτ ∂u α ∂x α
d ∂L = −m d u α − q ∂A α dx μ
dτ ∂u α dτ c ∂x μ dτ
∂L = − q u ∂ α A ∞
∂x α c ∞
d ∂L ∂L
So dτ ∂u α
− ∂x α
= 0 yields
q q q
m d u α = c u ∞ ∂ α A ∞ − c ∂ μ A α u μ = c u ∞ ∂ α A ∞ − ∂ ∞ A α
dτ
or
d u α = q F α∞ u
mc ∞
dτ
PHY 5347
Homework Set 7 Solutions – Kimel
3. 11.15
⃗ || ẑ , so β
From Eq. (11.149), it is clear that we should take β ⃗ =β
⃗⋅E ⃗ = 0. Then
⃗⋅B
⃗+β
E ′ = γE ⃗
⃗×B
⃗ ′ = γB
B ⃗−β ⃗
⃗×E
The vectors in parentheses should make the same angle wrt the x axis θ ′ if they are to be parallel.
This can best be seen from the figure,
If θ → π/2 then β = 1
4 5 − 3 = 1/2. γ = 2
3
⃗ ′ = 0 + Oθ − π ̂
E
2
⃗′ = B
B ⃗ ′ = γ2E 0 ̂ − 1 E 0 ̂ = γE 0 3 ̂
2 2
So in these two limits, the fields are parallel to the x and y axes, respectively.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 7 Solutions – Kimel
2. 11.5
and
vu ′||
dt = dt ′ γ1 +
c2
Thus taking the differential of the first equation above and using the second equation for dt,
vu ′|| 3/2
du || 1 + a ′|| − u ′|| + v cv2 a ′|| 1− v2
≡ a || = c2
vu ′||
= c2
vu ′|| 3
a ′||
dt
γ1 + c2
3 1 + c2
Similarly,
vu ′||
1+ a ′⊥ − u ′⊥ v
a ′||
du ⊥ ≡ a = c2 c2
⊥
dt vu ′||
γ 2 1 + c2
3
1. 11.3 Let us just focus on the 0, 1 component transformation, since the 2, 3 components
remain unchanged, if we take the relative velocities between Lorentz frames to be along the x -
direction. We want to relate a single Lorentz transformation to two sequential transformations as
described by
Thus we require
A = A2A1
where A is a Lorentz transformation. Rewritten explicitly, the above equation reads
γ −∞γ γ2 −∞ 2 γ 2 γ1 −∞ 1 γ 1
=
−∞γ γ −∞ 2 γ 2 γ2 −∞ 1 γ 1 γ1
γ2γ1 + ∞2γ2∞1γ1 −γ 2 ∞ 1 γ 1 − ∞ 2 γ 2 γ 1
=
−γ 2 ∞ 1 γ 1 − ∞ 2 γ 2 γ 1 γ2γ1 + ∞2γ2∞1γ1
So
γ = γ2γ1 + ∞2γ2∞1γ1
∞γ = γ 2 ∞ 1 γ 1 + ∞ 2 γ 2 γ 1
∞γ γ ∞ γ + ∞2γ2γ1 ∞1 + ∞2
∞= γ = 2 1 1 =
γ2γ1 + ∞2γ2∞1γ1 1 + ∞2∞1
Or
v = v 1 +v 1vv22
1 + c2
as required.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 6 Solutions – Kimel
1. 10.1
a) Let us first simplify the expression we want to get for the cross section. Using n̂ 0 = ẑ ,
dσ ̂ , n̂ , n̂ = k 4 a 6 5 − |̂ 0 ⋅ n̂ |2 − 1 |n̂ ⋅ ẑ × ̂ |2 − ẑ ⋅ n̂
dΩ 0 0 4 4 0
and using
̂ 0 = α 0 x̂ + ∞ 0 , with |α 0 |2 + |∞ 0 |2 = 1
2 2
= k 4 a 6 |∞ 0 |2 1 − 1 cos θ + |α 0 |2 cos θ − 1
2 2
which simplifies to
dσ ̂ , n̂ , n̂ = k 4 a 6 5 − |α |2 sin 2 θ − 1 |∞ |2 sin 2 θ − cos θ
dΩ 0 0 4 0
4 0
using |α 0 |2 + |∞ 0 |2 = 1, and cos 2 θ = 1 − sin 2 θ.
⃗
Jt = 1a Itδr − aδcos θφ̂
⃗
Jt = Re Ia0 δr − aδcos θφ̂ e −iωt →⃗
J = Ia0 δr − aδcos θφ̂
⃗ and E
We use the general expression for H ⃗ in the radiation zone given by Eq.(9.149). Since this
system has no net charge density and there is no intrisic magnetization, the the expansion coefficients in
these equations are given by
a E l, m = k2 ∫ Y m∗
l ik
⃗r ⋅ ⃗
J j l krd 3 x
i ll + 1
a M l, m = k2 ∫ Y m∗ ⃗
l ∇⋅
⃗r × ⃗
J j l krd 3 x
i ll + 1
a) ⃗r ⋅ ⃗
J = 0 in the first equation, so there is no electric multipole radiation. In spherical coordinates
⃗r × ⃗
J = −aJθ̂
Using the formulas for ⃗ ⃗ in spherical coordinates given in the back of the book,
∇⋅A
⃗ J = − 1 ∂ J sin θJ = − cos θ J − ∂ J
∇ ⋅ ⃗r × ⃗
sin θ ∂θ sin θ ∂θ
The first term does not contribute, because cos θ = 0, while the second term can be written, using
the chain rule,
⃗
∇ ⋅ ⃗r × ⃗
J = sin θ ∂ J
∂ cos θ
The problem has azimuthal symmetry, so m = 0. Realizing derivatives of δ −functions are defined
by integration by parts,
δ m0 k 2
a M l, m = ∫ Y 0∗l sin θ ∂ J j krd 3 x =
∂ cos θ l
ik 2 ∫ ∂ sin θY 0∗ Jj l krd 3 x
∂ cos θ l
i ll + 1 ll + 1
Since Y 0l x is either an even or odd polynomial in x, then only odd l contribute to a M l, 0. This
determines the expansion coefficients, and thus H ⃗ and E⃗ in the radiation zone are known through
Eq.(9.149). The power distribution is given by Eq. (9.151)
b) From our previous answers, we see a E l, m = 0, and that the lowest magnetic multipole
contribution is a M 1, 0.
2
a M 1, 0 = i2πk I 0 aj 1 ka1 − x 2 d Y 01 x|x=0
1/2
2 dx
Using
j 1 ka → ka ; d Y 0 x| = 3
3 dx 1 x=0 4π
a M 1, 0 = i2πk 3 I 0 a 2 1 = ik 3 2 M
l0
24π 3
1
i2πk 3 I 0 a 2
M l0 =
24π
= 3 I πa 2
ik 3
2 4π 0
3
Note that you would get the same answer, if you used Eq. (9.172) directly.
From Eq. (9.151)
2
dP = Z 0 2πk Fa 3 2 1 3 sin 2 θ = 1 Z 0 k 4 I πa 2 2 sin 2 θ
0
dΩ 2k 2 24π 8π 32π 2
If we compare this result with the one that we get for an elementary magnetic dipole, which is
given by Eq. (9.23)
with the substitution ⃗
p→m ⃗ /c,
dP = 1 Z 0 k 4 |m
⃗ |2 sin 2 θ
dΩ 32π 2
Thus we may identify
⃗ | = I 0 πa 2
|m
as would be expected.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 5 Solutions – Kimel
3 −1 3 4πR 0
where I’ve used the fact that 1 = P 0 . Since the system is azimuthally symmetric, Q lm = δ m0 Q l0 .
Using Y 0l = 2l+1
4π
P l and 1 = P 0 ,
Q lm =
2πρδ m0 2l + 1 R l+3 2δ + l + 3∞ 2 δ
l+3 4π 0 l0
2l + 1 l2
Notice that the l = 0 term is time independent and thus does not contribute to the radiation.
Next consider the l = 2 term.
Q 20 t = 2 π ρ 5 R 50 ∞ = ρ = 3 3 Q 2 π ρ 5 R 50 ∞ = 3 R 2 Q∞t
0
5 4πR 0 5 20π
Q 20 t = Re 3 R 2 Q∞ 0 e −iωt
0
20π
Q 20 = 3 R 2 Q∞
0 0
20π
dP2, 0 Z ⃗ 20
= 02 |a2, 0|2 X
2
dΩ 2k
a E 2, 0 = ck 4 3 Q
i5 × 3 2 20
⃗ 20
X
2
= 15 sin 2 θ cos 2 θ
8π
2
dP2, 0 ck 4
= Z 02 3 Q × 15 sin 2 θ cos 2 θ
dΩ 2k 5 × 3 2 20 8π
2
2
4 2 ck 4 3
R 20 Q∞ 0
1 Z 0 |ck Q 20 | 1 Z 20π
= π sin θ cos θ =
2 2 0
π sin 2 θ cos 2 θ
160 k 2 160 k 2
= 9 Z 0 k 6 c 2 R 40 Q 2 ∞ 20 sin 2 θ cos 2 θ
3200π 2
Z k 6 c 2 R 40 Q 2 ∞ 20 × 2π ∫ 1 − x 2 x 2 dx =
1
P= 9 9 Z 0 k 6 c 2 R 40 Q 2 ∞ 20 × 2π × 4
2 0
3200π −1 3200π 2 15
P= 3 Z k6c2R4Q2∞2
2000π 0 0 0
PHY 5347
Homework Set 4 Solutions – Kimel
Q lm = ∫ r l Y m∗
l ρd x
3
M lm = − 1
l+1
∫ r l Y m∗ ⃗
l ∇⋅
⃗r × ⃗
J d3x
Q 1m = ∫ rY m∗
1 ρd x
3
b) Magnetic Dipole Radiation: Since the particles move in an orbit with no area,
⃗r × ⃗
J = 0 → M 1m = 0
c) Electric Quadrupole Radiation:
Q 2m = ∫ r 2 Y m∗
2 ρd x
3
= −qδ m0 a 2 Y 02 0cos 2ω 0 t + 1
where I have used cos 2 ω 0 t = cos 2ω 0 t + 1/2. Thus the Fourier Series decomposition of this
moment yields terms with frequency 0, and 2ω 0 . The first term does not contribute to radiation, and
the second can be written
Q 20 t = Re−2qa 2 Y 02 0e −2iω 0 t
so Q 20 = −2qa 2 Y 02 0 is the quantity that is used in the radiation formulas of Jackson. Using Eq.
(9.151)
⃗ 20
dP 2, 0 = Z 0 |a2, 0|2 X 2
dΩ 2k 2
and from Eq. (9.169)
a2, 0 = ck 4 3 Q 20 = ck 4 3 −2qa 2 5
i5 × 3 2 i5 × 3 2 4π
P2, 0 = 2π Z k 6 c 2 q 2 a 4 ∫ 1 1 − x 2 x 2 dx = 2π Z k 6 c 2 q 2 a 4 × 4
0 0
32π 2 −1 32π 2 15
P2, 0 = 1 Z k6c2q2a4
60π 0
PHY 5347
Homework Set 3 Solutions – Kimel
3. 9.3
Since the problem has azimuthal symmetry, we can expand Vr⃗, t (in the radiation zone) in terms
of Legendre polynomials:
Using the orthogonality of the Legendre polynomials, the leading term of the expansion in the
radiation zone will be the l = 1 term.
2 −1 2
So,
Vr⃗, t = 3 VR 2 cos ωt /r 2 = ⃗
p ⋅ r̂
cos ωt = Re
⃗
p ⋅ r̂ −iωt
e
2
2 r r2
with ⃗
p= 3
2
VR 2 ẑ , which should be used in the radiation formulas developed in lecture.
dP = c 2 Z 0 k 4 |p
⃗ |2 sin 2 θ
dΩ 32π 2
2 4
P = c Z 0 k2 8π = 1 c 2 Z 0 k 4 |p
⃗ |2
32π 3 12π
with ⃗
p= 3
2
VR 2 ẑ .
PHY 5347
Homework Set 3 Solutions – Kimel
Compared to the lecture notes for this problem, where we assumed α = 0, we should let
ωt → ωt + α. Thus using the result developed in class, we can write for this problem
1 i 0
Q α t = Re 3 qd 2 i −1 0 e −i2a e −i2ωt
2
0 0 0
1 i 0
= Re 3 qd 2 −e −i π2 + e −i 3π2 − e −i 5π2 + e −i 7π2 i −1 0 e −i2ωt
2
0 0 0
1 i 0
Q tot = 3 qd 2 4i i −1 0
2
0 0 0
c2Z0k6 2
P= qd 2 3 16 = 1 c2Z0k6q2d4
360π 2 10π
And, of course, the frequency of the radiation is 2ω.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 3 Solutions – Kimel
3. 9.1 a)
n=1:⃗
pt = ∫ ρx⃗, tx⃗d 3 x = qdî cos ωt + sin ωt = Reqdî + i e −i1⋅ωt
So we identify ⃗
p = qdî + i as the quantity to be used in Jackson’s formulas.
Arbitrary n: The n’th multipoles will contribute with maximum frequencies of ω n = nω.
with
τ
ρ n x⃗ = 1τ ∫ 0 ρx⃗, te inωt dt
was presented in lecture and will not be repeated here.
c) We have already calculated the n = 0, 1 moments by the method of part a). Now we
compute these moments by the method of part b).
n=0:
τ
ρ 0 x⃗ = 1τ ∫ 0 qδzδy − sin ω 0 tδx − d cos ωtdt
τ
Q= ∫ ρ 0 x⃗d 3 x = q
τ ∫ 0 dt ∫ d 3 xδzδy − sin ω 0 tδx − d cos ωt = q
n=1:
τ
ρ 1 x⃗ = 1τ ∫ 0 qδzδy − sin ω 0 tδx − d cos ωte iωt dt
τ
⃗
px⃗ = ∫ d 3 xx⃗2ρ 1 x⃗ = 2q
τ ∫ 0 dt ∫ d 3 xx⃗δzδy − sin ω 0 tδx − d cos ωt
τ
=
2qd
τ ∫ 0 dte iωt î cos ωt + sin ωt = qdî + i
as before.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 2 Solutions – Kimel
1. 8.5 a)
p = 0, 1, 2, . . . .
1 x 2mn p2π2
ω mnp = + m = 0, 1, 2, . . . .
μ R2 L2
n = 1, 2, 3, . . . .
TE:
p = 1, 2, 3, . . . .
1 x ′2 p2π2
ω ′mnp = mn
+ m = 0, 1, 2, . . . .
μ R2 L2
n = 1, 2, 3, . . . .
Thus
ω ′mnp x ′2 p2π2
1
= mn
+
μ
R2 L2
ω 010 = 2. 405
ω 110 = 3. 832
2
ω ′111 = 1. 841 2 + π 2 R
L
2
ω ′211 = 3. 054 2 + π 2 R
L
0
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1
x 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2
where x = R/L.
1. 841 2 + π 2 x 2 = 2. 405
or x = 0. 492 58. For frequencies smaller than this cross over frequency, ω ′111 is lowest, whereas for
larger frequencies, ω 010 is lowest.
PHY 5347
Homework Set 1 Solutions – Kimel
1. 8.4
a) TM:
∂ = 1 − ∂ + ∂
∂n 2 ∂x ∂y
1/2
ω ω 201
∞ 01 TE 1+
1 − ω 212 /ω 2 ω2
For the square wave guide, we don’t have the antisymmetrization, but the formulas for the cutoff
frequencies are the same without the present restrictions on m and n. So for the square guide, the cut
off frequencies are
TM: ω 11
TE: ω 01 (as before)
PHY 5347
Homework Set 1 Solutions – Kimel
1. 8.3
z
y
a)
∇ 2t + γ 2 ψ = 0, ψ = E z TM or ψ = H z TE
As in class, we will use cylindrical coordinates, and assume
ψρ, φ = RρQφ
We get the two equations
∂ 2 Qφ = −m 2 Qφ with solns Qφ = e ±imφ , m = 0, 1, 2, . . .
∂φ 2
From the above we see the lowest cutoff frequency is the TE mode
ω ′11 = 1. 841K, with K = 1/ R μ
ω ξ λ + η λ ωωλ
2
∞λ ω2
1 − ω λ2
For TM modes, η λ = 0, and for TE mode, ξ λ + η λ is of order unity. So for comparison purposes,
I’ll take
1/2
2
∞ 11 TE = f 1 x = x 1 + 1. 841
1.841 2 2
1− x2
x
1/2
∞ 01 TM = f 2 x = x
2.405 2
1− x2
14
12
10
0 2
4 x6 8 10
1/2
x
2
1− 2.405
2
x
14
12
10
0
3 4 5 6x 7 8 9 10
PHY 5346
Homework Set 13 Solutions – Kimel
The two boundary conditions that we must satisfy for plane waves are
E 0 + E ′′0 − E ′0 = 0
kE 0 − E ′′0 − k ′ E ′0 = 0
Or
E ′′0 ′
= k − k′
E0 k+k
We must take into account the fact that ⃗ ⃗ . Adding in this term in Maxwell’s equations for a
J = σE
plane wave, we get
k= ω
c
σ
k ′2 = μω 2 1 + i ω
with
1/2
σ 2
1 + ω +1
α=
2
1/2
σ 2
1 + ω −1
β=
2
Thus
E ′′0 1 − μ 0 cα − i μ 0 cβ
=
E0 1 + μ 0 cα + i μ 0 cβ
1) For a very poor conductor σ is very small, so keeping only first order in σ
1/2
σ 2
1 + ω +1
α= ≈1
2
1/2
σ 2
1 + ω −1 σ
β= ≈
2 2ω
σ
2) For the case of a very good conductor, ω >> 1, so
2
α≈ σ = μ 0 ωδ 2
= 1
2ω 2ω ωδ μ 0
β≈ σ = 1
2ω ωδ μ 0
where I have used (5.165) to relate the conductivity to the skin depth.
σ= 2
μ 0 ωδ 2
E ′′0 1− c
− i ωδ
c
δ− c
− i ωc
= ωδ
= ω
≈ −1 + ω 2 ω
c 1 + i δ = −1 + c 1 − iδ
E0 1+ c
ωδ
+ i ωδ
c
δ+ c
ω + i ωc
E ′′0 2
ωδ 2
R= = −1 + δω/c 2 + c ≈ 1 − 2δω/c
E0
PHY 5346
Homework Set 13 Solutions – Kimel
1. 7.2
a) The figure describes the muliple internal reflections which interfere to give the overall
reflection and refraction:
E ′′0 n −n
R ij = = ni + nj
E0 i j
∞
E ′′0 = E 0 R 12 + r 12 E 0 R 23 r 21 e iφ >R 21 R 23 e iφ
n
n=0
E ′′0 = E 0 R 12 + r 12 r 21 R 23
−iφ
e − R 21 R 23
Similarly
E ′0 = E 0 r 12 r 23 + E 0 r 12 R 23 R 21 r 23 e iφ +. . . .
r 12 r 23
E ′0 = E 0
1 − R 21 R 23 e iφ
where the phase shift for the internally reflected wave is given by
2π2d ωn 2 2d
φ= =
λ2 c
S i = 1 |E 0i |2
2v i
Thus
|E ′′ |
2
′′
R= S = 02
S |E 0 |
′ ′
T = vv 13 S = nn 3 S
S 1 S
From the above
2r 12 r 21 R 23 R 12 cos φ − R 21 R 23 + R 12 r 21 R 23 2
R= R 212 +
1 + R 21 R 23 2 − 2R 21 R 23 cos φ
r 12 r 23 2
T = nn 3
1 1 + R 21 R 23 2 − 2R 21 R 23 cos φ
Since these two equations are simple functions of φ, which is linearly proportional to the
frequency, they are simple functions of frequency which you should plot.
b) Since in part a) we used the convention that the incident wave is from the left, I will rephrase
this question so that n 1 is are, n 2 is the coating, and n 3 is glass. In this case, we will have
n 1 < n 2 < n 3 , and R 21 R 23 < 0. Thus for T to be a maximum, from the above equation cosφ = −1, or
φ = π.
2π2d λ
φ= =π→d= 2
λ2 4
where λ 2 is the wavelength in the medium = λn 21
PHY 5346
Homework Set 12 Solutions – Kimel
s0 + s3 = a s0 − s3
= a− δ c = δ − − δ + = sin −1 s2
+
2 2 2a + a −
a) s 0 = 3, s 1 = −1, s 2 = 2, s 3 = −2
a 1 = 1, a 2 = 2
δ l = sin −1 −2 = − 1 π rad
2 2 4
a+ = 1 , a− = 5
2 2
b) s 0 = 25, s 1 = 0, s 2 = 24, s 3 = 7
a1 = 25 , a = 25
2
2 2
a+ = 32 = 4, a− = s0 − s3 = 3
2 2
δ c = δ − − δ + = sin −1 24 = 1 π rad
24 × 3 2
To plot the two cases Re E x ≡ X = cos x, ReE y ≡ Y = rcoxx − δ l , where r = a 2 /a 1 and x = ωt.
Case a) cos x, 2 cosx + π4
1
0.5
-1
1
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
-1 -0.8 -0.6 -0.4 -0.2 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1
-0.2
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
-1
PHY 5346
Homework Set 11 Solutions – Kimel
This problem is very much like 5.26, except the wires are superconducting. We know from section
5.13 that the magnetic field within a superconductor is zero. We will be using
W= 1
2
∫ ⃗J ⋅ A⃗d 3 x = l ∫J Ada + J Ada
2 a a b b
0, on the inside
μI μ
2π ∫ ln d 2 ρ b dρ b = l
b 2
≃ l I2 2 ln da I 2
2 πb 4π 0 a 2 4π
The first term l
2
∫ J a Ada a is equal to
μ
l
2
∫ J a Ada a = l
2 4π
2 ln d I 2
b
Thus
μ 2
W= l 2 ln d I 2 = l L I 2
2 4π ab 2 l
so
L = μ 2
2 ln d
l 4π ab
Now using the methods of problem 1.6, assuming the left wire has charge Q, and the right wire charge
−Q, we find
Q Q
∫b ∫b
d−a d−a 2
φ 12 = Edr = l 1 + 1 dr ≃ l ln d
2π r d−r 2π ab
Q
C = l = 2π
l φ 12 2
ln dab
Thus
L × C = μ 2
2 ln d × 2π 2 = μ
l l 4π ab ln dab
PHY 5346
Homework Set 11 Solutions – Kimel
∫ B⃗ ⋅ dl⃗ = μ 0 I enclosed
we get
μ0I ρ
B= ,ρ<b
2π b 2
μ0I 1
B= ,b<ρ<a
2π ρ
B = 0, ρ ∑ a
Now the energy in the magnetic field is given by ( l is the length of the wires)
W= 1
2
∫ B⃗ ⋅ H⃗ d 3 x = 1
2μ 0
∫ B2d3x
μ0I 2
ρ 2
l 2π ∫ ρdρ + 2π ∫
b a 2
= 1 1 ρdρ
2μ 0 2π 0 b2 b
ρ
1 μ0I 2
= lπ 1 + 2 ln a = l L I2
2μ 0 2π 2 b 2 l
μ
→ L = 0 1 + 2 ln a
l 4π 2 b
If the inner wire is hollow, B = 0, ρ < b, so
L = μ 0 ln a
l 2π b
PHY 5346
Homework Set 11 Solutions – Kimel
Since the wires are nonpermeable, μ = μ 0 . The system is made of parts with cylindrical
symmetry, so we can determine B using Ampere’s law.
⃗ ⃗ = μ 0⃗
∇×B J, or ∫ B⃗ ⋅ dl⃗ = μ 0 ∫ ⃗J ⋅ da⃗
On the outside of each wire,
μ0I
∫ B⃗ ⋅ dl⃗ = B2πρ = μ 0 I → B out = 2πρ
On the inside of each wire
B z = − ∂ A z → A z = − ∫ B z dρ
∂ρ
Thus
μ0I ρ μ0I ρ2
− 2π
ln R
+C =− 4π
ln R2
+ 1 on the outside
Az =
− μ4π0 I ρ2
R2
, on the inside
where I’ve determined C = 1/2, from the requirement that A z be continuous at ρ = R. Let l be the
length of the wire. Then we know the total potential energy is given by
W= 1
2
∫ ⃗J ⋅ A⃗d 3 x = l ∫J Ada + J Ada
2 a a b b
⃗a = ⃗
ρ ⃗ b,
d+ρ ρ 2a = d 2 + ρ 2b − 2dρ b cos φ
so, since J b = I
πb 2
l
2
∫ J b Ada b = l I
2 πb 2
∫A out ρ a + A in ρ b ρ b dρ b dφ
μ I ρ 2a ρ 2b
= l I2 0
2 πb 4π
∫ ln
a2
+ 1 −
b2
ρ b dρ b dφ
μ I ρ2
≃ l I 2 0 2π ∫ ln d 2 + 1 − 2b
b 2
ρ b dρ b
2 πb 4π 0 a b
μ I 2 μ0
= l I 2 0 2π 1 b 2 1 + 2 ln d 2 = l 1 + 2 ln d I 2
a
2 πb 4π 4 a 2 4π 2
The first term l
2
∫ J a Ada a is equal to
μ0
l
2
∫ J a Ada a = l
2 4π
1 + 2 ln d I 2
2 b
Thus
μ0 2
W= l 1 + 2 ln d I 2 = l L I 2
2 4π ab 2 l
or
L = μ 0 1 + 2 ln d 2
l 4π ab
PHY 5346
Homework Set 9 Solutions – Kimel
The effective volume magnetic charge density is zero, since M ⃗ is constant within the cylinder. The
⃗ from Eq. (5.99)) is M 0 , on the top surface and −M 0 on the
effective surface charge density (n̂ ⋅ M
bottom surface. From the bottom surface the potential is (for z ∑ 0
ρdρ
≠ b = 1 −M 0 2π ∫
a
1/2
= − M0 a 2 + z 2 − z
4π 0 ρ + z
2 2 2
By symmetry, the potential from the top surface is (on the inside)
≠t = M0 a 2 + L − z 2 − L − z
2
The total magnetic potential is
M0 M
≠ = ≠b + ≠t = − a 2 + z 2 − z + 0 a 2 + L − z 2 − L − z
2 2
So, on the inside of the cylinder,
Hz = − ∂ − 0
M M0
a 2 + z 2 − z + a 2 + L − z 2 − L − z
∂z 2 2
Hz = −
M0
2− z − L−z
2 a + z 2
2
a + L − z 2
2
Bz = μ0 −
M0
2− z − L−z + M0
2 a + z 2
2
a + L − z 2
2
μ0M0 z L−z
Bz = +
2 a + z 2
2
a + L − z 2
2
μ0M0 z z−L
Bz = −
2 a + z 2
2
a + L − z 2
2
1
2
z
+ 5−z
if z < 5
1+z 2 1+5−z 2
gz =
1
2
z
− z−5
if 5 < z
1+z 2 1+5−z 2
gz
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
2 4 z 6 8 10
fz
0.4
0.2
0
2 4 z 6 8 10
-0.2
-0.4
PHY 5346
Homework Set 9 Solutions – Kimel
2. 5.18
a) From the results of Problem 5.17, we can replace the problem stated by the system
μ r −1
where I ∗ is equidistant from the interface and is equal to I ∗ = μ r +1
I. The radius of each current
loop is a. Now from Eq. (5.7)
⃗on I = I ∫ dl⃗ × Br⃗
F
dl⃗ × B ⃗ r + dl⃗ × B
⃗ = dl⃗ × B ⃗ θ = dlB r −θ̂ + dlB θ r̂
dl⃗ × B
⃗ ⋅ ẑ = dlB r a + dlB θ 2d
4d + a 2
2
4d 2 + a 2
So
μ0I∗ a a μ0I∗ a2
F z = πaI a + 2d − 1 − a
d 4d 2d 2 4 2d 3 2d
3πμ 0 a 4 I × I ∗
Fz → −
32 d4
The minus sign shows the force is attractive if I and I ∗ are in the same direction. This same result
can be gotten more directly, using
F z = ∇ z mB z
with m = πa 2 I, and (from Eq. (5.64))
μ0 2m ∗
Bz =
4π z3
with m ∗ = πa 2 I ∗ , and z = 2d
μ0 3πμ 0 a 4 I × I ∗
Fz = 2πa 2 I ∗ πa 2 I − 3 4 =−
4π 2d 32 d4
with agrees with out previous result.
PHY 5346
Homework Set 10 Solutions – Kimel
I shall use the magnetic potential approach and will call inside the sphere region 1 and outside the
sphere region 2.
φ 1 = φ loop + > A l r l P l
l
μ 0 ∂ φ 1 r = b = μ ∂ φ 2 r = b
∂r ∂r
We are given that b >> a, so
φ loop = 1 m cos θ
4π r 2
with m = πa 2 I. (From the form of φ loop, only the l = 1 term contributes.) The boundary
conditions give
A 1 b 1 = B 1 b −1−1
2μ 0 m 2μm
− 3
+ μ0A1 = − − 2μB 1 b −3
4πb 4πb 3
So
μ − μ 0
A 1 = − 2 m3
4π b 2μ + μ 0
On the inside, at the center of the loop
H ⃗ φ loop − ⃗
⃗ = −∇ ∇A 1 r cos θ
⃗ φ loop at the center of the loop, which is directed in the z direction.
From Eq. (5.40), we are given −∇
H z = μ10 −B θ − A 1
If μ >> μ 0
A 1 → − 1 m3
4π b
and from (5.40), at r = 0
2 3
H z = I + 1 m3 = I + I a 3 = I 1 + a 3
2a 4π b 2a 4 b 2a 2b
PHY 5346
Homework Set 9 Solutions – Kimel
1. 5.10
a) From Eq. (5.35)
′2
μ0 I dr ′ dΩ ′ sin θ ′ cos ϕ ′ δcos θ ′ δr ′ − a
A φ r, θ =
4π a
∫r |x⃗ − ⃗
x′ |
Using the expansion of 1/|x⃗ − ⃗
x ′ | given by Eq. (3.149),
∞
∞
1
|x⃗ − ⃗
x′ |
4
= π ∫ 0 dk coskz − z ′ 1 I 0 kρ < K 0 kρ ∑ + > cosmϕ − ϕ ′ I m kρ < K m kρ ∑
2
m=1
We orient the coordinate system so ϕ = 0, and because of the cosϕ ′ factor, m = 1. Thus,
μ 0 I 4π ∞
A φ r, θ =
4π a π
∫ 0 dk ∫ r ′2 dr ′ d cos θ ′ sin θ ′ δcos θ ′ δr ′ − a coskzI 1 kρ < K 1 kρ ∑
μ ∞
A φ r, θ = π0 aI ∫ dk coskzI 1 kρ < K 1 kρ ∑
0
m=−∞
Note z ′ = 0, and φ = 0, so
μ 0 Ia ∞
Aφ =
2
∫ 0 dke −k|z|J 1 kρJ 1 ka
PHY 5346
Homework Set 10 Solutions – Kimel
3. 5.8 Using the same arguments that lead to Eq. (5.35), we can write
′
μ0 d 3 x cos φ ′ J φ r ′ , θ ′
Aφ =
4π
∫ |x⃗ − ⃗x′ |
Choose ⃗
x in the x − z plane. Then we use the expansion
r l< m∗ ′ ′ m
1
|x⃗ − ⃗
x′ |
= ∑ 2l4π+ 1 r l+1
Y l θ , φ Y l θ, 0
l,m ∑
with
′ ′ ′
∫ d 3 x ′ Pl cos θr ′l+1
J φ r , θ
1
ml = − 1
ll + 1
A similar expression can be written on the outside by redefining r < and r ∑ .
PHY 5346
Homework Set 10 Solutions – Kimel
First consider a point at the axis of the solenoid at point z 0 . Using the results of problem 5.1,
μ0
dφ m = NIdzΩ
4π
From the figure,
⃗ ρdρ
∫ r̂ ⋅r 2dA ∫ dArcos θ = 2πz ∫
R
Ω= = = 2π − z +1
2 2 3/2
0 ρ + z
2
R + z 2
2
μ0 ∞ μ0
φm = NI ∫ z − 1 + 1z dz = NI −z 0 + R 2 + z 20
2 z0 R + z
2 2 2
μ0 μ0 −z 0 + R 2 + z 20
Br = − NI ∂ −z 0 + R 2 + z 20 = NI
2 ∂z 0 2 R 2 + z 20
In the limit z 0 → 0
μ0
Br = NI
2
By symmetry, thej loops to the left of z 0 give the same contribution, so
B = B l + B r = μ 0 NI
H = NI
⃗ is directed along the z axis, so
By symmetry, B
⃗ =0
⃗⋅B
δφ m = −δρ
⃗ is directed ⊥ to the z axis. Thus for a given z, φ m is independent of ρ, and consequently
if δρ
H = NI
everywhere within the solenoid.
If you are on the outside of the solenoid at position z 0 , by symmetry the magnetic field must be in
the z direction. Thus using the above argument, φ m must not depend on ρ. Set us take ρ far away
from the axis of the solenoid, so that we can replace the loops by elementary dipoles m ⃗ directed along
the z axis. Thus for any point z 0 we will have a contributions
⃗ ⋅ ⃗r 1
m ⃗ ⋅ ⃗r 2
m
φm 3
+
r1 r 32
⃗ ⋅ ⃗r 1 = −m
where m ⃗ ⋅ ⃗r 2 and r 1 = r 2 . Thus
H=0
PHY 5346
Homework Set 10 Solutions – Kimel
We want to show
μ0I
φm = − Ω
4π
Suppose the observation point is moved by a displacement δx⃗, or equivlently that the loop is
displaced by −δx⃗.
⃗ φ m , then
⃗ = −∇
If we are to have B
⃗
δφ m = −δx⃗ ⋅ B
Using the law of Biot and Savart,
δφ m = −
μ0I
4π
∮ r̂ ⋅ δdA
r2
=−
μ0I
4π
δΩ
Or,
μ0I
φm = − Ω
4π
PHY 5346
HW Set 6 Solutions – Kimel
Φ out = 1
4π 0
∑ B l r −l−1 Pl + q
|x⃗ − ⃗
x′ |
l
∑ B l r −l−1 Pl + q
∑ r< l
Φ out = 1 Pl
4π 0 r∑ r∑
l l
∑ A l r l Pl + q
∑ r< l
Φ in = 1 Pl
4π 0 r∑ r∑
l l
Boundary conditions: At the surface, r ′ = d = r ∑ , r = a = r < .
1) Φ out = Φ in |r=a , or
B l = A l a 2l+1
2) ∂r∂ Φ in = ∂r∂ Φ out |r=a , or letting k = 0
k ∑ lA l a l−1 Pl + q a l−1
d
l
dl
Pl = ∑ −l + 1B l a −l−2 Pl + q a l−1
d
l
dl
Pl
l l
3. 4.7 a) Since ρ does not depend on φ, we can write it in terms of spherical harmonics with
m = 0. First note
Y 02 = 5 3 1 − sin 2 θ − 1
4π 2 2
or
sin 2 θ = − 2 4π Y 02 + 4π 2 Y 00
3 5 3
Thus only the m = 0, l = 0, 2 multipoles contribute.
2 4π ∞ 2 1 2 −r
q 00 =
3
∫ 0 r 64π r e dr = 2 34π 8π 3 = 1
2 π
∞
q 20 = − 2
3
4π
5
∫0 r4 1 r 2 e −r dr = − 2
64π 3
4π 45 = −3 5
5 4π π
1 Y0 Y0 1 P 4π q P 2
≠x⃗ = 4πq 00 r0 + 4πq 20 23 = 4π q 00 r0 +
4π 0 5r 4π 0 5 20 r 3
≠x⃗ = 1 P0 − 6 P2
4π 0 r r3
b)
⃗ d x
′ 3 ′
≠x⃗ = 1
4π 0
∫ ρx
|x⃗ − ⃗
x′ |
Using
= 4π ∑
1 1 r< l
′ ′
l θ , φ Y l θ, φ
Y m∗ m
|x⃗ − ⃗
x′ | lm
2l + 1r ∑ r∑
, we see only the l = 0, 2 and m = 0 terms of the expansion contribute in the potential. Next take
r ′ ∑ r.
′ ρx⃗′ ′
≠x⃗ = 1 4π ∑ 1 r l Y ml θ, φ ∫ Y m∗ ′ ′ ′2
l θ , φ r dΩ dr
4π 0 lm
2l + 1 r ′l+1
∞ 0 ∞
≠x⃗ = 1 4π Y 0 4π 2
4π 0 0
3
∫0 1 r 2 e −r rdr + Y 2 r 2 − 2
64π 5 3
4π
5
∫0 1 r 2 e −r 1 dr
64π r
0
≠x⃗ = 1 4π Y 0 4π 2 3 + Y 2 r 2 − 2 4π 1
0
4π 0 3 32π 5 3 5 64π
≠x⃗ = 1 4π P 2 3 + P 2 r 2 − 2 1 = 1 P0 − r 2 P2
0
4π 0 3 32π 5 3 64π 4π 0 4 120
PHY 5346
HW Set 7 Solutions – Kimel
2. 4.2 We want to show that we can obtain the potential and potential energy of an elementary
diplole:
⃗
p⋅⃗x
Φx⃗ = 1
4π 0 r 3
W = −p ⃗⋅E ⃗ 0
from the general formulas
⃗ d x
′ 3 ′
Φx⃗ = 1
4π 0
∫ ρx
|x⃗ − ⃗
x′ |
W= ∫ ρx⃗Φx⃗d 3 x
using the effective charge density
⃗⋅⃗
ρ eff = −p ∇δx⃗
where I’ve chosen the origin to be at ⃗x0.
−p ⃗
⃗ ⋅ ∇ δx⃗′ d 3 x ′
′
Φx⃗ = 1 ∫ =− 1 ⃗ p ⋅ ∫⃗
∇ 1 δx⃗′ d 3 x ′
4π 0 |x⃗ − ⃗
x′ | 4π 0 |x⃗ − ⃗
x′ |
Φx⃗ = 1 ⃗ p⋅⃗ x
4π 0 r 3
Similarly,
W= ∫ ρx⃗Φx⃗d 3 x = − ∫ ⃗p ⋅ ⃗∇δx⃗Φx⃗d 3 x = ⃗p ⋅ ∫ δx⃗∇⃗ Φx⃗d 3 x = −p⃗ ⋅ E⃗0
PHY 5346
HW Set 6 Solutions – Kimel
3. 4.1
q lm = ∫ r l Y m∗ ⃗d 3 x = ∑ q i r ll Y m∗
l θ, φρx l θ i , φ i
i
Using
2l + 1l − m! m
l θ, φ =
Y m∗ P l xe −−mφ = N ml P ml xe −−mφ
4πl + m!
From the figure we get
q lm = a l N ml P ml 0q1 − −1 m 1 − i m = 0, for m even, so m = 2n + 1, n = 0, 1, 2, . . .
q lm = 2qa l N ml P ml 01 − −1 n i
b) The figure for this system is
0 0.5
1 1.5 x 2 2.5 3
−q 2 − 2 −q 1 3 5 7 9
Φx⃗ = a x = a x − 3 1
x + 5 1
x − 35 1
x +. . . .
x 1+ 1 4 8 64
x2
So let’s plot 1
x3
, 2
x − 2
1
x 1+
x2
0.3
0.25
0.2
0.15
0.1
0.05
0 1
2 3
x 4 5
∫0 ∫0
L 2π
B nν = 2 1 Vφ, z sin nπa cosνφdφdz, ν≠0
πL I ν nπb L
L
∫0 ∫0
L 2π
B nν = 1 1 Vφ, z sin nπa dφdz, ν=0
πL I ν nπb L
L
Noting
π 3π
∫− 2
π
sin νφdφ − ∫ π sin νφdφ
2
=0
2 2
π
cos νφdφ − ∫ π cos νφdφ
2
=
2m + 1
, m = 0, 1, 2, . . . .
2 2
Using
∞
∑ 1lx + 1 −1 l
2l+1
−1x
tan =
l=0
∞
∑ 2l−1
l
π = tan −1 1 =
4 l=0
+1
so
−1 m ρ 2m+1
Φρ, z, φ = 4V
π ∑ 2m +1 b
cos2m + 1φ
m
Remembering from problem 2.13 that
ρ
−1 m ρ 2m+1 2 cos φ
∑ 2m + 1 b
cos2m + 1φ = 1 tan −1
2
b
ρ2
m 1− b2
we find
ρ
2 cos φ
Φρ, z, φ = 2V
π tan
−1 b
ρ2
1− b2
which is the answer for problem 2.13.
PHY 5346
HW Set 5 Solutions – Kimel
4. 3.4 Slice the sphere equally by n planes slicing through the z axis, subtending angle Δφ about
this axis with the surface of each slice of the pie alternating as ±V.
φr, θ, φ = > A lm r l Y ml θ, φ
l,m
so
A lm = 1l
a
∫ dΩY ml θ, φ ∗ φa, θ, φ
Symmetries:
A l−m = −1 m A lm ∗
φr, θ, φ + 2Δφ = φr, θ, φ
where
Δφ = 2π
2n
Thus
m = ±n, and integral multiples thereof
φ−r⃗ = −φr⃗, n = 1
φ−r⃗ = φr⃗, n > 1
Since
PY ml θ, φ = −1 l Y ml θ, φ
Then
l is odd for n = 1; l is even for n > 1
Thus we only have contributions of l ≥ n. Using
A lm = 1l ∫ dΩY ml θ, φ ∗ φa, θ, φ
a
The integral over φ can be done trivially, since the integrand is just e −imφ leaving the desired answer
in terms of an integral over cosθ.
n = 1 case: I am going to keep only the lowest novanishing terms, involving A 11 and A 1−1 .
1 ∗
φ = rA 11 Y 11 + A 1−1 Y −1
1 = rA 11 Y 1 + A 11 Y 1 = 2r ReA 11 Y 1
1 1
Y 11 = − 3 1 − x 2 1/2 e iφ
8π
π
∫ −1 1 − x 2 1/2 dx ∫ 0 e −iφ dφ − ∫ π
1 2π
A 11 = − 1a 3 V e −iφ dφ
8π
A 11 = 2iπ
a
3 V
8π
we see
sin θ sin φ = cos θ ′
So
φ = 3r Vcos θ ′ = V 3 ar P 1 cos θ ′ +. . . . . .
2a 2
The other terms, for l = 2, 3, can be obtained in the same way in agreement with the result of
(3.36)
PHY 5346
HW Set 5 Solutions – Kimel
1
∫ 0 Pl xdx
The problem is symmetric around the z axis so
φr, θ = ∑A l r l + B l r −l−1 Pl cos θ
l
The A l and B l are determined by the conditions
1)
∫ −1 φa, xPl xdx =
1
2 A a l + B l a −l−1
2l + 1 l
2)
∫ −1 φb, xPl xdx =
1
2 A b l + B l b −l−1
2l + 1 l
Solving these two equations gives
2l + 1 a l+1 ∫ φa, xP l xdx − b l+1 ∫ φb, xP l xdx
1 1
Al =
2a 2l+1
−b 2l+1 −1 −1
2
Using
∫ −1 φa, xPl xdx = V ∫ 0 Pl xdx
1 1
So
2l + 1 ∫
1
Al = Va l+1
− b l+1
−1 l
P l xdx
2a 2l+1 − b 2l+1 0
2 0
Note that
∫ 0 Pl xdx =
1 ∫ 1 P l xdx
1
2 −1
1
for l even. For even l > 0, ∫ P l xdx = 0. Thus we have
0
B 0 = 1 Va − 1 Va = 0
2 2
B1 = 3 a2V − 3 Va 2 + b 2 a 3 = 3 Va 2 b 2 b3 + a 3
4 4a 3 − b 3 4 −a + b
= − 7 Va 4 b 4 b 7 + a 7
3 3
B3 = − 7 a4V − a7 − 7 Va 4 + b 4
16 16a 7 − b 7 16 −a + b
1
As b → ∞, only the B l terms (and A 0 survive. Thus using the general expression for ∫ P l xdx
0
given by (3.26)
3 4
φr, θ = V P 0 x + 3 a2 P 1 x − 7 a4 P 3 x +. . . . .
2 2 r 8 r
Let’s now solve the problem neglecting the outer sphere (since b → ∞ using the Green’s function
result
(2.19) this integral give, for cosθ = 1
φr, θ = V 1 − ρ 2 1 − 1
2 1 − ρ 1 + ρ 2
with ρ = a/r. Expanding the above,
2 4
φr, θ = V ar + 3 a2 − 7 a4 +. . . . . .
2 2 r 8 r
Comparing with our previous solution with x = 1, we see the Green’s function solution differs by
having a B 0 term and by not having an A 0 term. All the other higher power terms agree in the series.
This difference is due to having a potential at ∞ in the original problem.
PHY 5346
HW Set 5 Solutions – Kimel
a) As suggested in the text and in class, we will superpose solutions of the form (2.56) for the two
sides with Vx, y, z = V.
1) First consider the side Vx, y, a = z :
∞
Φ 1 x, y, z = ∑ A nm sinα n x sinβ m y sinhγ nm z
n,m=1
π
with α n = nπ
a , βm = mπ
a , γ nm = a n 2 + m 2 . Projecting out A nm using the orthogonality of the
sine functions,
A nm = 16V
sinhγ nm anmπ 2
where both n, and m are odd. (Later we will use n = 2p + 1, m = 2q + 1
2) In order to express Φ 2 x, y, z in a form like the above, we make the coordinate transformation
x ′ = y, y ′ = x, z ′ = −z + a
So
Φ 2 x, y, z = Φ 1 x ′ , y ′ , z ′ = Φ 1 y, x, = z + a
Φx, y, z = Φ 1 x, y, z + Φ 2 x, y, z
b)
∞
−1 p+q
Φ a , a , a = 16 ⋅2 V ∑
2 2 2 π p,q=0 2p + 12q + 1 cosh γ nm a
2
a) Notice from the figure, Φρ, −φ = Φρ, φ; thus from Eq. (2.71) in the text,
∞
Φρ, φ = a 0 + ∑ a n ρ n cosnφ
n=1
V1 + V2
∫ −π/2 Φb, φ = 2πa 0 = πV1 + πV2 → a 0 =
3π/2
2
Using
∫ −π/2 cos mφ cos nφdφ = δ nm π
3π/2
Using
2 ∑ x m = ln 1 + x
m 1 − x
m odd
and
Im lnA + iB = tan −1 B/A
we get
ρ
V + V2 V 1 − V 2 2 b cos φ
Φρ, φ = 1 + π tan −1 ρ2
2 1− b2
as desired.
b)
σ = − 0 ∂ Φρ, φ|ρ=b
∂ρ
ρ
V 1 − V 2 ∂ 2 b cos φ
σ = − 0 π tan −1
∂ρ 1−
ρ2
b2 ρ=b
V1 − V2 b +ρ 2 2
V − V2
σ = −2 0 π bcos φ 4 |ρ=b = − 0 1
b − 2b ρ + ρ + 4ρ b cos φ
2 2 4 2 2 2 πb cos φ
:
PHY 5346
HW Set 4 Solutions – Kimel
φr⃗ = τ ln r∞ + τ ′ ln r∞
2π 0 ⃗
⃗r − R 2π 0 ⃗′
⃗r − R
To determine τ ′ and R ′ , we need two conditions:
I) As r → ∞, we want φ → 0, so τ ′ = −τ.
τ 1−y 2
σ=
2πb y + 1 − 2y cos φ
2
τ 1−y 2
where y = R/b. Plotting σ/ 2πb
= y 2 +1−2y cos φ
, for y = 2, 4, gives
1 − y2
gy =
y 2 + 1 − 2y cos φ
g2, g4 = − 3
5−4 cos φ
, − 17−815cos φ
-0.5
-1
-1.5
-2
-2.5
-3
d) If the line charges are a distance d apart, then the electric field at τ from τ ′ is, using Gauss’s law
′
E= τ
2π 0 d
The force on τ is τLE, ie,
′
F = ττ L = − τ L , and the force is attractive.
2
2π 0 d 2π 0 d
PHY 5346
HW Set 4 Solutions – Kimel
σ = 3 0 E 0 cos θ
a) This charge distribution simulates the given system for cos θ > 0. We have treated this probem
in class. The potential is given by
3
φx⃗ = −E 0 1 − a3 r cos θ
r
Using
σ = − 0 ∂ φ|surface
∂n
We have the charge density on the plate to be
σ plate = − 0 ∂ φ|z=0 = 0 E 0 1 − a 3
3
∂z ρ
σ plate
For purposes of plotting, consider 0 E 0 = 1 − x 3
1
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
2 4 x 6 8 10
σ boss = 3 0 E 0 cos θ =
σ boss
For plotting, we use 3 0 E 0
= cos θ
1
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1 1.2 1.4
b)
q = 3 0 E 0 2πa 2 ∫ xdx = 3π 0 E 0 a 2
1
0
c) Now we have
1 q q′ q q′
φr⃗ = + − −
4π 0 ⃗r − ⃗
d ⃗r − ⃗
d′ ⃗r + ⃗
d ⃗r + ⃗
d′
where q ′ = −q ad , d ′ = a2
d
.
−q d 2 − a 2 d 2 − a 2
σ = − 0 ∂ φ|r=a = −
∂r 4π a⃗a−⃗ d
3
a⃗a+⃗ d
3
−q d 2 − a 2 d 2 − a 2
∫0
1
q ind = 2πa 2 − dx
a−⃗ a+⃗
4π 3 3
a⃗ d a⃗ d
−qa 2 d 2 − a 2 1 1 − 1
q ind = + 1 − 1
2a da d−a a +d
2 2 d+a a + d2
2
d 2 − a 2
q ind = −1 q d − a
2 2
2d − 2 = −q 1 −
2 d d2 − a2 a + d2
2
d a2 + d2
PHY 5346
HW Set 4 Solutions – Kimel
a) We have treated this probem in class. We found the charge density induced was
σ = 3 0 E 0 cos θ
We also note the radial force/unit area outward from the surface is σ 2 /2 0 . Thus the force on the
right hand hemisphere is, using x = cos θ
⃗ = 1 3 0 E 0 2 2πR 2 ∫ x 3 dx = 1 3 0 E 0 2 2πR 2 /4 = 9 π 0 E 20 R 2
F z = 1 ∫ σ 2 ẑ ⋅ da
1
2 0 2 0 0 2 0 4
An equal force acting in the opposite direction would be required to keep the hemispheres from
sparating.
Thus
F z = 9 π 0 E 20 R 2 + 1 QE 0 + 1 Q2
4 2 32 0 πR 2
An equal force acting in the opposite direction would be required to keep the himispheres from
separating.
PHY 5346
HW Set 4 Solutions – Kimel
a) Using the known potential for a line charge, the two line charges above give the potential
′
φr⃗ = 1 λ ln rr = V, a constant. Let us define V ′ = 4π 0 V
2π 0
Then the above equation can be written
r ′ 2 = e Vλ′ or r ′2 = r 2 e Vλ′
r
⃗ , the above can be written
Writing r ′2 = ⃗r − R
2
2
V′
⃗r + ẑ R = R2e λ
V′ V′
e λ − 1 e λ − 1 2
V′
The equation is that of a circle whose center is at −ẑ R
V′
, and whose radius is a = Re 2λ
V′
e λ −1 e λ −1
b) The geometry of the system is shown in the fugure.
Note that
d = R + d1 + d2
with
d1 = R , d2 = R
V ′a −V ′b
−1 −1
e λ e λ
and
′
Va −V ′b
a = ReV ′a
2λ
, b = Re
−V ′b
2λ
e λ − 1 e λ − 1
Forming
2 2 2
′
Va −V ′b
d −a −b =
2 2 2
R+ R + R − Re 2λ − Re 2λ
V ′a −V ′b V ′a −V ′b
−1
e λ e λ −1 e λ − 1 e λ − 1
or
V ′a −V ′b
R2 e λ +1
d2 − a2 − b2 = −V ′b
V ′a
e λ − 1e λ − 1
Thus we can write
V ′a −V ′b
e λ +1 V ′a −V ′b − V ′a −V ′b
d2 − a2 − b2 = +e V ′a − V ′b
−V ′b
= e 2λ 2λ
= cosh
2ab V ′a 2 2λ
2e 2λ e 2λ
or
V a − V b = 1 cosh −1 d 2 − a 2 − b 2
λ 2π 0 2ab
Capacitance/unit length = C =
Q/L
= λ = 2π 0
L Va − Vb Va − Vb cosh −1 d 2 −a 2 −b 2
2ab
′
c) Suppose a << d , and b << d , and a = ab , then
2 2 2 2
C = 2π 0 2π 0
= 2 1−a 2 +b 2 /d 2
L −1 d 2 −a 2 −b 2 −1 d
cosh ′2 cosh
2a 2a ′2
d 2 1 − a 2 + b 2 /d 2
cosh −1 = 2π 0 L
2a ′2 C
d 2 1 − a 2 + b 2 /d 2
2π 0 L
= e C
+ negligible terms if 2π 0 L >> 1
2a ′2 2 C
or
d 2 1 − a 2 + b 2 /d 2
ln = 2π 0 L
a ′2 C
or
C = 2π 0
L d 2 1−a 2 +b 2 /d 2
ln a ′2
The first term of this result agree with problem 1.7, and the second term gives the appropriate
correction asked for.
d) In this case, we must take the opposite sign for d 2 − a 2 − b 2 , since a 2 + b 2 > d 2 . Thus
C = 2π 0
L −1 a 2 +b 2 −d 2
cosh 2a ′2
If we use the identiy, lnx + x 2 − 1 = cosh −1 x, G.&R., p. 50., then for d = 0
C = 2π 0 2π 0
a 2 +b 2 2 −b 2 =
L ln + a2ab ln ab
2ab
in agreement with problem 1.6.
PHY 5346
HW Set 3 Solutions – Kimel
Gx⃗, ⃗
x′ = 1 − 1
|x⃗ − ⃗
x′ | |x⃗ − ⃗
x ′I |
where
x ′ = x ′ î + y ′ ̂ + z ′ k̂ , ⃗
⃗ x ′I = x ′ î + y ′ ̂ − z ′ k̂
b) There is no free charge distribution, so the potential everywhere is determined by the potential
on the surface. From Eq. (1.44)
∂Gx⃗, ⃗ x′ ′
φx⃗ = − 1 ∫ φx⃗′ ′ da
4π S ∂n
Note that n̂ ′ is in the −z direction, so
∂ Gx⃗, ⃗x ′ |z ′ =0 = − ∂ Gx⃗, ⃗ x ′ |z ′ =0 = − 2z
∂n ′ ∂z ′ 2
x − x + y − y ′ 2 + z 2
3/2
So
ρ ′ dρ ′ dφ ′
φx⃗ = z V ∫ ∫
a 2π
2π 3/2
x − x ′ + y − y ′ 2 + z 2
0 0 2
z − a 2 + z 2 z
φz = zV − = V 1−
z a + z
2 2
a + z 2
2
d)
ρ ′ dρ ′ dφ ′
φx⃗ = z V ∫ ∫
a 2π
2π 3/2
0 0 ⃗−ρ
ρ ⃗ ′ 2 + z2
⃗, then ρ
In the integration choose the x −axis parallel to ρ ⃗⋅ρ ⃗ ′ = ρρ ′ cos φ ′
ρ ′ dρ ′ dφ ′
φx⃗ = z V ∫ ∫
a 2π
2π 0 0 ρ 2 + ρ ′2 − 2ρ ⃗⋅ρ ⃗ ′ + z 2 3/2
Let r 2 = ρ 2 + z 2 , so
ρ ′ dρ ′ dφ ′
φx⃗ = z V3 ∫ ∫
a 2π
2π r 0 0 ρ ′2 −2ρ ⃗′
⃗⋅ρ 3/2
1+ r2
We expand the denominator up to factors of O1/r , ( and change notation
4
φ ′ → θ, ρ ′ → α, r 2 → β12
∫0 ∫0
a 2π
φx⃗ = z V3 αdαdθ
2π r α 2 −2ρ ⃗⋅α
⃗ 3/2
1+ r2
where the denominator in this notation is written
1
3/2
1 + β α − 2ρα cos θ
2 2
2π r 0 0 2 8 2 2
Integrating over θ gives
φx⃗ = z V3 ∫ α 2π + 15 β 4 α 4 π − 3β 2 α 2 π + 15 β 4 ρ 2 α 2 π dα
a
2π r 0 4 2
Integrating over α yields
φx⃗ = z V3 5 β 4 πa 6 − 3 a 4 β 2 π + 15 a 4 β 4 ρ 2 π + πa 2
2π r 8 4 8
or
Va 2 a2 a 4 + 3ρ 2 a 2
φx⃗ = 1− 3 + 5
2ρ + z 2 3/2
2 4 ρ + z 2
2 8 ρ 2 + z 2
2
PHY 5346
HW Set 3 Solutions – Kimel
4. 2.6 We are considering two conducting spheres of radii r a and r b respectively. The charges on
the spheres are Q a and Q b .
a) The process is that you start with q a 1 and q b 1 at the centers of the spheres, and sphere a
then is an equipotential from charge q a 1 but not from q b 1 and vice versa. To correct this we use
the method of images for spheres as discussed in class. This gives the iterative equations given in the
text.
and similar equations for q b j, x a j, x b j, d a j, d b j. The potential outside the spheres is given
by
n n
q a j q b j
φx⃗ = 1
4π 0
∑ ⃗ ̂
x − x a jk
+∑
x − d b jk̂
⃗
j=1 j=1
Comparing this to the force between the charges located at the centers of the spheres
Q2
Fp = 1
4π 0 R 2 4
Comparing the two results, we see
F = 4 1 2 0. 0739F p = 0. 615F p
ln 2
On the surface of the sphere
∞ ∞
φ= 1
4π 0 ∑ qj
R − xj
=
q
4π 0 R
∑−1 j+1
j=1 j=1
∞
Notice 1 =
1+1 ∑−1 j+1
j=1
1 q Q Q
So φ = = 1 = → C = 2 ln 2 = 1. 386
4π 0 2R 4π 0 2 ln 2R C 4π 0 R
PHY 5346
HW Set 3 Solutions – Kimel
3. 2.5
a)
∞ q2a ∞ q2a
W= ∫ r |F|dy = 4π 0
∫r dy
a2
2
=
8π 0 r 2 − a 2
y3 1 − y2
Let us compare this to disassemble the charges
qiqj aq 2 q2a
− W′ = − 1
8π 0
> |x⃗i −x⃗j |
= 1
4π 0 r
1
a2
=
4π 0 r 2 − a 2
>W
i≠j r 1− r2
The reason for this difference is that in the first expression W, the image charge is moving and
changing size, whereas in the second, whereas in the second, they don’t.
b) In this case
∞ ∞ ∞ 2y 2 − a 2
W= ∫r |F|dy =
q
4π 0
∫r Qdy
y2
− qa 3
∫ r 2 2 2 dy
yy − a
Using standard integrals, this gives
1 q2a q2a qQ
W= − − r
4π 0 2r − a
2 2
2r 2
a) Given the potenial for a line charge in the problem, we write down the solution from the figure,
φT = λ ln R2 − ln R2 − ln R2 + ln R2
x⃗ − ⃗ x⃗ − ⃗ x⃗ − ⃗ x⃗ − ⃗
2 2 2
4π 0 xo x o1 x o2 x o3 2
Looking at the figure when y = 0, x⃗ − ⃗ x o 2 = x⃗ − ⃗ x o1 2 , x⃗ − ⃗ x o2 2 = x⃗ − ⃗x o3 2 , so φ T |y=0 = 0
Similarly, when x = 0, x⃗ − ⃗ x o = x⃗ − ⃗
2
x o2 , x⃗ − ⃗
2
x o1 = x⃗ − ⃗
2 2
x o3 , so φ T |x=0 = 0
On the surface φ T = 0, so δφ T = 0, however,
∂φ T ∂φ T
δφ T = δx = 0 → = 0 → Et = 0
∂x t t ∂x t
b) We remember
∂φ
σ = − 0 T = −λ
y0 y0
π −
∂y x − x 0 + y 0
2 2
x + x 0 2 + y 20
where I’ve applied the symmetries derived in a). Let
σ/λ = −1
y0 y0
π x − x 2 + y 2 − x + x 2 + y 2
0 0 0 0
This is an easy function to plot for various combinations of the position of the original line charge
(x 0 , y 0 .
c) If we integrate over a strip of width Δz, we find, where we use the integral
x0
∫ 0 x ∓ x 1 2 + y 2 dx = 12 π ± 2 arctan
∞
y0
y0
0 0
∞ ΔQ ∞
ΔQ = ∫ σdxΔz → = ∫ σdx = −2λ π tan
−1 x 0
0 Δz 0
y0
and the total charge induced on the plane is −∞, as expected.
d)
Expanding
ln R2 − ln R2 − ln R2 + ln R2
x − x 0 2 + y − y 0 2 x − x 0 2 + y + y 0 2 x + x 0 2 + y − y 0 2 x + x 0 2 + y + y
to lowest non-vanishing order in x 0 , y 0 gives
xy
16 2 y x
2 0 0
x + y 2
so
4λ xy
φ → φ asym = π y x
2 0 0
0
x + y 2
2
y2
a 1−
σ = −q 1 a2
4π y 2 + a 2 − 2ay cos γ 3/2
Note
y2
q induced = a 2 ∫ σdΩ = −q 1 a 2 2πa 1 − 2 ∫ −1
1
dx , where x = cos γ
4π 3/2
a y 2 + a 2 − 2ayx
q 2
q induced = − aa 2 − y 2 = −q
2 aa 2 − y 2
c)
qq ′ 1 q 2 ay
|F| = = , the force is attractive, to the right.
4π 0 y ′ − y 2 4π 0 a 2 − y 2
d) If the conductor were fixed at a different potential, or equivalently if extra charge were put on
the conductor, then the potential would be
q q′
φx⃗ = 1 + +V
4π 0 |x⃗ − ⃗y| |x⃗ − ⃗y′ |
and obviously the electric field in the sphere and induced charge on the inside of the sphere would
remain unchanged.
PHY 5346
HW Set 2 Solutions – Kimel
4. 2.1 We will work in cylidrical coordinate, (ρ, z, φ, with the charge q located at the point
⃗
d = dẑ , and the conducting plane is in the z = 0 plane.
1 q q
φx⃗ = −
4π 0 x−⃗
⃗ d x+⃗
⃗ d
q ∂ 1 1
Ez = − −
4π 0 ∂z z − d 2 + ρ 2
1/2
z + d 2 + ρ 2
1/2
Ez =
q z−d − z+d
4π 0 3/2 3/2
z − d 2 + ρ 2 z + d 2 + ρ 2
a) σ = 0 E z z = 0
σ = 0
q −d − +d =−
q 1
4π 0 −d + ρ 22 3/2
+d + ρ 2
2 3/2 2πd 2 ρ 2
3
1 +
2
d
2
−1
Plotting 3
gives
1 2 +r 2 2
1 2 r 3 4 5
0
-0.2
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
-1
F = w = 0 E2 = σ2 = 1 −
q 1 = 1 q2
A 2 2 0 2 0 2πd 2 ρ 2
3
8 0
π2d4 1 + ρ2 3
12 + d
2
d2
q2 ∞ ρ q2 q2
F = 2π
8 0 π 2 d 4
∫0 ρ2 3
dρ = 2π
8 0 π 2 d 4
1 d2
4
= 1
4 × 4π 0 d 2
1+ d2
d)
∞ q2 ∞ q2
W= ∫ d Fdz = 4 × 4π 0
∫d dz =
z2 4 × 4π 0 d
e)
qiqj q2
W= 1 1
2 4π 0 > |x⃗i − ⃗
xj |
=−
2 × 4π 0 d
i,j,i≠j
Notice parts d) and e) are not equal in magnitude, because in d) the image moves when q moves.
q2 −19
W= =e e = e 1. 6 × 10−10 9 × 10 9 V = 3.6 eV
4 × 4π 0 d 4 × 4π 0 d 4 × 10
PHY 5346
HW Set 2 Solutions – Kimel
3. 1.9 I will be using the principle of virtual work. In the figure below, Fδl is the work done by an
external force. If F is along δl (ie. is positive), then the force between the plates is attractive. This
work goes into increasing the electrostatic energy carried by the electric field and into forcing charge
into the battery holding the plates at constant potential φ 12 .
a) Charge fixed.
1) Parallel plate capacitor
dQ 2
φ2 dQ
W = 1 0 A 12 , φ 12 = → W = 1 0 A A 0 = d Q2
2 d A 0 2 d 2 0 A
∂Q 2
= 0, F = ∂W =
Q
(attractive)
∂l ∂l 2 0A
2) Parallel cylinder capacitor
φ 12 = λ0 ln da , a = a 1 a 2
λQ
W = 1 Qφ 12 → F = ∂W = 1 Q λ0 ∂ ln da = 1 (attractive)
2 ∂l 2 ∂d 2 0d
b) Potential fixed
⃗ ⋅ da
2. 1.8 We will be using Gauss’s law ∫ E ⃗= Q enc
0
a) 1) Parallel plate capacitor
σ Q φ 12 A 0 φ 12
From Gauss’s law E = 0 = A 0
= d
→Q= d
Q 2 A 0 φ 12 2
0 Ad φ
W = 0 ∫ E 2 d 3 x = 0 E Ad =
2 Q2 2
A 0
= 1 d= 1 d
d = 1 0 A 12
2 2 2 2 0 A 2 0 A 2 d
2) Spherical capacitor
Q
From Gauss’s law, E = 1
4π 0 r 2
, a < r < b.
φ 12 = ∫ a Edr =
b Q
∫ a r −2 dr =
b
1 Q b − a → Q = 4π 0 baφ 12
4π 0 4 π 0 ba b − a
0 0 0 1 Q b − a
2 2 2
∫ E2d3x = ∫ a 4π r rdr
b
−4π −b + a
Q 2 Q
W= = =
2 2 4π 0 4 2 4π 0 ba 8 0 π ba
4π 0 baφ 12 2
b−a b − a φ 212
W= 1 π = 2π 0 ba
8 0 ba b − a
3) Cylindrical conductor
λL Q
From Gauss’ s law, E2πrL = 0
= 0
∫ a Edr = ∫a
b Q b Q
φ 12 = dr = ln ba
2π 0 L r 2π 0 L
0 0 2 2
∫ E2d3x = 2πL ∫ rdr
Q b
W= = 1 Q ln b
2 2 2π 0 L a r
2 4π 0 L a
2
2π 0 Lφ 12
1 ln b
φ 212
W= a
ln ba = π 0 L
4π 0 L ln ba
0
b) w = E
2
2
0 Q 2 1 Q
2
1) wr = 2 A 0
= 2 0 A 2
0 < r < d, = 0 otherwise.
0 Q 2 Q2
2) wr = 2
1
4π 0 r 2
= 1
32 0 π r 4
2 , a < r < b, = 0, otherwise
0 Q 2 Q2
3) wr = 2 2π 0 Lr
= 1
8 0 π 2 L 2 r 2
, = 0 otherwise.
PHY 5346
HW Set 1 Solutions – Kimel
4. 1.5
qe −αr 1 + αr2
φr⃗ =
4π 0 r
ρ
∇ 2 φr⃗ = − 0 , ∇ 2 = 12 ∂ r 2 ∂
r ∂r ∂r
−αr
∇2φ =
q 1 ∂ r2 ∂ e α −αr
4π 0 r 2 ∂r ∂r r + 2e
Using ∇ 2 1
r = −4πδr⃗
q 1 ∂ −αr −αr 2 ∂ 1 − α 2 r 2 e −αr
∇2φ = −αre + e r
4π 0 r 2 ∂r ∂r r 2
2 −αr −αr 2 −αr 3 −αr
− α2 e −αr + α er + αe 2 − 4πδr⃗ − α er + α e
q
=
4π 0 r r 2
3
qα −αr
= − 10 qδr⃗ − e
8π
qα 3 −αr
ρr⃗ = qδr⃗ − e
8π
That is, the charge distribution consists of a positive point charge at the origin, plus an
exponentially decreasing negatively charged cloud.
PHY 5346
HW Set 1 Solutions – Kimel
Q
E4πr 2 = 0, r < a E4πr 2 = 0 , r > a
E = 0, r < a ⃗ =
E
Q ̂
r, r > a
4π 0 r 2
Q
b) Uniform charge density: ρ = 4 πa 3
, r < a, ρ = 0, r > a.
3
Qr 3 Qr
E4πr 2 = →E= , r<a
0a 3
4π 0 a 3
Q Q
E4πr 2 = 0 → E = , r>a
4π 0 r 2
c) ρ = A r n
n + 3Q n
Q = 4π ∫ r 2 drAr n = 4πAa n+3 /n + 3 → ρ = r ,r<a
4πa n+3
ρ = 0, r > a
n + 3Q Q r n+3
E4πr 2 = n+3
4πr n+3 /n + 3 → E = , r<a
4π 0 a 4π 0 r 2 a n+3
Q
E= , r>a
4π 0 r 2
1. n = −2.
Q
E= , r<a
4π 0 ra
Q
E= , r>a
4π 0 r 2
2. n = 2.
Qr 3
E= , r<a
4π 0 a 5
Q
E= , r>a
4π 0 r 2
PHY 5346
HW Set 1 Solutions – Kimel
2
1.3 In general we take the charge density to be of the form ρ = fr⃗δ, where fr⃗ is determined by
physical constraints, such as ∫ ρd 3 x = Q.
a) variables: r, θ, φ. d 3 x = dφd cos θr 2 dr
ρ = fr⃗δr − R = frδr − R = fRδr − R
Q
ρr⃗ = δzθR − r
πR 2
d) variables: r, θ, φ. d 3 x = dφd cos θr 2 dr
ρr⃗ = fr⃗δcos θθR − r = frδcos θθR − r
where I’ve used the fact that rdrdφ is an element of area and that the charge density is uniformly
distributed over area.
Q
ρr⃗ = δcos θθR − r
πR 2 r