Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
CHAPTER 4
1) The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following?
A. Color
D. Urochrome
3) A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be suspected of containing
A. Bilirubin
5)Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguihed by those that contain hemoglobin
because:
6)After eating beets purchased at the local farmers' market, Mrs. Williams notices that her urine is red,
but Mr. William's urine is remains yellow. The williamses should:
D. Not be concerned because only Mrs. Williams is genetically susceptible to producing red urine from
beets.
7) Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urineary tract infections frequently appear:
8) Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present
due to:
9)Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a pink precipitate after refrigeration will show:
A. Amorphous urates
10) Under what conditions will a port-wine urine color be observe in a urine specimen?
D. 1.030
12) True or False: Urine specific gravity is equally influenced by the presence of glucose and sodium.
False
13) In what circumstance might a sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination?
14) A urine specific gravity measured by refractometer is 1.029, and the temperature of the urine is 14
degrees C. The specific gravity should be reported as:
B. 1.027
18) An alkaline urine turns black upon standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a SG of
1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be:
A. Color
19) The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should:
20) A urine specimen with a specific gravity of 1.008 has been diluted 1:5, the actual specific gravity is:
B. 1.040
21) The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency
of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is:
23) True or False: Specific gravity is of more diagnostic value than osmolarity in evaluating renal
concentration ability.
False
25) The microscopic of a cloudy amber urine is reported as rare WBCs and epithelial cells. What does
this suggest?
26) A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the
laboratory may require:
Chapter 5
2) Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the:
B. Blood reading
3) Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect
A. Enzymatic reactions
4) The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:
C. Leukocyte esterase
D. All of the above: Using positive and negative controls, when results are questionable, & at least once
every 24 hour
6) All of the following are important to protect the integrity of the reagent strips:
B. Should be recollected
10) Indicate the source of proteinuria by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front
of the condition.
A. 2 (Renal) - Microalbuminuria
C. 2 (Renal) - Pre-eclampsia
G. 3 (Post-renal) - Prostatitis
12) All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except
13) A patient with a +1 protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The
second specimen also has a +1 protein. This patient is:
15) All of the following are true for the Micral-test for microalbumin except:
17) The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the Multistix Pro is the:
18) The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on microalbumin reagent strips is the:
C. Pseudoperoxidase reaction
20) A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for:
B. Renal disease
21) The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is the
22) All of the following may produce false negative glucose reaction except:
A. Detergent contamination
23) A positive clinitest and a negative reagent strip glucose are indicative o
25) The three intermediate products of fat metabolism include all of the following except:
B. Ketoacetic acid
26) The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is:
A. Glucose
27) The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is:
D. Sodium nitroprusside
29) Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for:
c. Hematuria
30)
31) The principle of the reagent strip reactions for blood are based on the:
32) A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates
A. Hematuria
33) List the following products of hemoglobin degradation In the correct order by placing numbers 1-4 in
front of them:
1. Unconjugated billirubin
2. Conjugated bilirubin
4. Urobilin
34) The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is the
A. Diazo reaction
D. Biliary obstruction
37) The purpose of the special mat supplied with the icottest tablet is
C. P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
39) The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using Ehrlich reagent is: (2)
D. Positive reactions with porphobilinogen and positive reactions with Ehrlich reactive substances
40) In the Watson Schwartz differentiation test, the substance not extracted into butanol is
B. Porphobilinogen
41) The Hoesch test is used to monitor or screen patients for the presence of:
C. Porphobilinogen
A. Greiss reaction
43) All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading except:
44) A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a:
D. Specimen older than 2 hours
45) All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except:
D. Basophils
46) Screening tests for urinary infection combine the leukocyte esterase test with the test for:
B. Nitrite
47) The principle of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test uses a (reaction type)
B. Diazo reaction
48) The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity uses the dissociation constant of a
C. Polyelectrolyte
49) A specific gravity of 1.030 would produce the reagent strip color:
C. Yellow
C. Alkaline urine
Chapter 6
3) All of the following can cause false- negative micro-scopic results except:
5) When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the
coverslip is overflowed?
A. Casts
6) Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:
b. 10x
7) Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright- field microscopy?
C. Rheostat
D. Casts
9) The Sternheimer- Malbin stain is added to urine sediments to do all of the following except:
A. Cholestrol
C. Eosinophils
B. Hypersthenuric
15) Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following
except:
A. Glomerular bleeding
17) Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer- Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:
D. Glitter cells
B. Bacteria
C. Bladder
B. Clue cell
23) Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except:
C. Convoluted
25) A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is:
B. Hemosiderin granules
27) The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:
28) A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light
but does not stain with sudan III. The structure:
A. Contains cholesterol
29) The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with:
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Tamm-horsfall protein
33) A person submitting a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of
the following in the sediment except:
D. WBC casts
34) Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except:
A. Pyelonephritis
36) The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular epithelial casts is primarily:
C. Round
A. Cellular lysosomes
40) All of the following are true about waxy casts except they:
42) All of the following contribute to the formation of urinary crystals except:
A. Protein concentration
43) The most valuable initial aid for the identification of crystals in a urine specimen is:
A. pH
44) Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all of the following except:
C. Cystine
D. Cystine
46) Differentiation between casts and fibers can usually be made using:
C. Polarized light
47)
48)
49)
50)