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Gynecology

1. At what average age is a regular, predictable reproductive cycle established in women?


a. 11 years
b. 13 years
c. 15 years
d. 18 years

2. On average, how many times a year will a healthy, non-pregnant woman ovulate?
6-8 times
10-12 times
13-14 times
16-18 times

3. What is the average length of the female reproductive cycle for a healthy woman in her mid-
twenties?
26 days
28 days
30 days
32 days

4. What is the name of the pulse generator that secrets gonadotropine- releasing hormone (GnRH)?
Anterior nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus
Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
Third ventricle

5. which of the following stimulates the pregranulosa cells of the primordial follicle to become granulosa
cells?
LH
FSH
GnRH
progesterone
6.What endocrine event initiates the onset of menstruation?
LH surge
Estradiol peak
involution of the corpus luteum with decline in plasma progesterone
FSH: LH ratio of 3:1

7. What is the presumed chemical mechanism for extrusion of the oocyte from the follicle at the time of
ovulation?
Metabolism of endorphins
Release of progesterone
Synthesis of prostaglandins
Liberation of intrafollicular prostaglandins

8. Which of following is a gonadrotropic hormone that triggers ovulation?


Luteinizing hormone ( LH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

9. What is the result if any pituitary hormone becomes tonally elevated?


Menorrhagia
Hyperstimulation of the ovary
Chronic anovulation
Hirsutism

10. name the clinical condition associated with intrinsic symptomatic uterine contractions during
menstruation?
Primary dysmenorrhea
Secondary dysmenorrhea
Dyspareunia
Dyschezia

11. What is the average volume of blood lost each menstrual cycle?
10-25 mL
30-50 mL
70-90 mL
120-150 mL

12. What is the name of disorder of the menstrual cycle, when blood loss is greater than 80 mL per
mense?
Amenorrhea
Dysmenorrhea
Oligomenorrhagia
Menorrhagia

13. What initial evaluation(s) should be recommended for diagnosis of PMS?


Pelvic ultrasound
Psychiatric consult
Monthly symptom calendar
Mammogram

14. The appropriate therapeutic modality for an anovulatory adolescent is:


Clomiphen citrate
Progesterone withdraval
Pergonal (menotropins)
GnRH agonist

15. Which one of the following belongs to menstrual problem?


Amenorrhea
Metrorrhagia
Neoplasms
PID

16. After successful treatment of an acute episode of anovulatory bleeding in a 13 year-old, long-term
treatment is best accomplished by:
Dilation and curettage
Cyclic oral contraceptives
Cyclic conjugated estrogens
Cyclic medroxyprogesterone

17. Anovulatory patients have heavier bleeding than ovulatory patients because anovulatory patients
appear to have a deficiency in :
a. Prostaglandin F2α
b. Prostaglandin E2
c. Thromboxane
d. Prostacycline

18 Clinical signs of genital tuberculosis are as follows, except:


Adnexal swelling
Anteversion of uterus
Cystic enlargement of ovary
Pyometra

19 Hystero-salpingogram shows the following characteristic signs of tuberculosis, except:


Fimbrial occlusion with small or large dilatation
Rigid, nonperistaltic pipe-like tube
Clear outline of Fallopian tubes
Calcification of tube

20 Causes of acute endometritis include the following, except:


Septic abortion
Puerperal sepsis
Acute gonorrhea
Instrumentation
Tuberculosis

21 Causes of chronic endometritis include the following, except:


Infected myomatous polypi
Gonorrhea
Carcinoma of cervix
I.U.C.D.
22 Etiology of acute cervicitis is as follows, except:
Septic abortion
Puerperal sepsis
Tuberculosis
Diaphragm
23 Causes of chronic cervicitis are as follows, except:
Septic abortion
Lacerations of cervix
Instrumentation
Laceration of vagina
24 Types of cervical erosions are as follows, except:
Erosion associated with chronic cervicitis
Congenital erosion
Papillary erosion
Erosion due to hypoplasia of mucous membrane of cervix
25 In erosion of cervix, normal epithelium of portio vaginalis is replaced by:
Squamous epithelium
Columnar epithelium
Ciliated epithelium
Cilited columnar epithelium
26 Symptoms of cervical erosion are as follows, except:
Vaginal discharge
Postcoital bleeding
Dysmenorrhea
Dyspareunia

27 Treatment of chronic cervicitis ia as fallows, except:


Diathermy
Conization
Amputation of cervix
Antibiotics
28 Causes of inflammation of uterine appendages are the following, except:
Direct ascending infection of tube
Pyogenic infections
I.U.C.D.
Infection spread through lymphatics
29 Differential diagnosis of acute salpingoophritis is as follows, except:
Ruptured uterus
Ectopic gestation
Diverticulitis
Twisted ovarian cyst
30 Indications of surgery in acute salpingoophritis are the following, except:
Acute spreading peritonitis resistant to chemotherapy
Infections following criminal abortion
Slow response to chemotherapy
Signs of intestinal obstruction
31 The most common cause of acute pelvic inflammatory disease is the:
Staphylococcus
Tubercle bacillus
Gonococcus
Diphtheroids
32 The preferred treatment of ruptured tubo-ovarian abscess is:
Guide-sac drainage
Removal of uterus, tubes and involved ovary
Removal of ruptured tube and ovary
Removal of uterus, tubes and ovaries
Removal of adnexae and drainage

33 The presence of pyometra in a postmenopausal female strongly suggests:


Diabets mellitus
Degenerating myoma
Senile endometritis
Malignancy

34 If tissue was removed from the uterus of a patient with chronic endometritis, which of the following
findings would indicate that the patient had been pregnant:
Cast formation
Decidual cells
Ghost villi
Endometrial polyps

\\\\ The word obstetrics is derived from Latin term obstetrix, which means which of the following?

\\ midwife

\\\ deliverer
\\\ attendant

\\\ surgeon

\\\\ Which of one of the following corresponds to the perinatal period?

\\\ 22 to 28 weeks gestation

\\\ 22 to 34 weeks gestation

\\\ 20 to 40 weeks gestation

\\ 20 weeks to 4 weeks postpartum

\\\\ What is the upper gestational age cutoff for defining the birth of a preterm infant?

\\\ 29 weeks

\\\ 33 weeks

\\\ 35 weeks

\\ 37 weeks

\\\\ How is an infant classified that is born between 260 and 294 days of gestation?

\\\ preterm infant

\\ term infant

\\\ postterm infant

\\\ postmature infant

\\\\ What is the single most common cause of maternal mortality?

\\ embolism

\\\ hypertension

\\\ hemorrhage
\\\ ectopic pregnancy

\\\\ What is the single most common cause of neonatal death?

\\ low birthweight

\\\ congenital anomalies

\\\ infection

\\\ perinatal asphyxia

\\\\ How long after fertilization does it take for the zygote to reach the uterine cavity?

\\\ 1 to 2 days

\\ 3 to 4 days

\\\ 5 to 6 days

\\\ 7 days

\\\\ What hormone is responsible for maintenance of the corpus luteum if implantation of the fertilized
ovum takes place?

\\\ estrogen

\\ progesterone

\\\ hCG

\\\ hPL

\\\\ Which of the following isn’t a presumptive symptom of pregnancy?

\\\ nausea

\\\ fatigue

\\\ urinary frequency

\\ constipation
\\\\ Which of the following is not considered a probable sign of pregnancy?

\\\ enlargement of the abdomen

\\\ changes in shape, size, and consistency of uterus

\\\ cessation of menses

\\ ballottement

\\\\ The clitoris is the homologue of which of the following structure?

\\ penis

\\\ scrotum

\\\ gubernaculum testis

\\\ corpora cavernosa

\\\\ What is the principal erogenous organ or area of women?

\\\ vagina

\\ clitoris

\\\ labia minora

\\\ G-spot

\\\\ Which of the following is the predominant bacteria of the vagina during pregnancy?

\\\ Peptostreptococcus sp.

\\\ Listeria monocytogenes

\\ Lactobacillus sp.

\\\ Streptococcus agalactiae


\\\\ The uterine artery is a main branch of which of the following arteries?

\\\ aorta

\\\ common iliac

\\\ external iliac

\\ internal iliac

\\\\ The ovarian artery is a direct branch of which of the following vessels?

\\ aorta

\\\ common iliac

\\\ external iliac

\\\ internal iliac

\\\\ Which of the following is not a component of the bony pelvis?

\\\ coccyx

\\\ sacrum

\\\ ischium

\\ femoral head

\\\\ What is the shortest diameter of the pelvic cavity?

\\\ diagonal conjugate

\\ interspinous

\\\ true conjugate

\\\ obstetrical conjugate

\\\\ What does the portion of the deciduas invaded by the trophoblast become?
\\ decidua basalis

\\\ decidua capsularis

\\\ decidua vera

\\\ decidua parietalis

\\\\ What day of the menstrual cycle do subnuclear, glycogen-rich vacuoles develop on the glandular
epithelium?

\\\ 5 to 7

\\\ 10 to 12

\\ 14 to 16

\\\ 20 to 22

\\\\ What is the average amount of blood lost during normal menstrual cycle?

\\\ 10 to 15 mL

\\ 25 to 60 mL

\\\ 85 to 120 mL

\\\ 150 mL

\\\\ What is the duration of the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

\\\ variable

\\\ 10 to 12 days

\\\ 12 to 14 days

\\ most commonly over 14 days

\\\\ What is the solid ball of cells formed by 16 or more blastomeres?

\\ morula
\\\ blastocyst

\\\ zygote

\\\ embryo

\\\\ The survival of the conceptus in the uterus is attributable to the immunological peculiarity of which
of the following?

\\\ decidua

\\\ amnion

\\\ chorion

\\ trophoblast

\\\\ What are a main stem (truncal) villi and its ramifications?

\\ placental cotyledon

\\\ maternal cotyledon

\\\ stem cotyledon

\\\ primary cotyledon

\\\\ Where is the complete molecule of human chorionic gonadotropins primarily produced?

\\ syncytiotrophoblast

\\\ cytotrophoblast

\\\ chorionic membrane

\\\ Hofbauer cells

\\\\ What is the best known function of human chorionic gonadoptropin?

\\ its maintenance of the corpus luteum

\\\ that it helps protect against paternal antibodies


\\\ that it stimulates human placental lactogen secretion

\\\ that it stimulates fetal ovaries to produce estrogen

\\\\ When (week of pregnancy) does human placental lactogen peak in the maternal serum?

\\\ 10th to 12th

\\\ 16th to 20th

\\\ 28th to 30th

\\ 34th to 36th

\\\\ Pregnancy is said to consist of 10 lunar months. How long is an actual lunar month?

\\\ 26 days

\\\ 27 days

\\ 28 days

\\\ 29 days

\\\\ What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 16 gestational weeks?

\\\ 25 g

\\\ 50 g

\\ 110 g

\\\ 250 g

\\\\ What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 20 gestational weeks?

\\\ 200g

\\ 300 g

\\\ 480 g
\\\ 650 g

\\\\ What is the approximate eight of the fetus at 24 gestational weeks?

\\\ 500 g

\\ 630 g

\\\ 750 g

\\\ 890 g

\\\\ What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 28 gestational weeks?

\\\ 750 g

\\\ 890 g

\\ 1100g

\\\ 1500 g

\\\\ What is the average weight of the fetus at 32 gestational weeks?

\\\ 1000 g

\\\ 1500 g

\\ 1800 g

\\\ 2000 g

\\\\ What is the average weight of the fetus at 36 gestational weeks?

\\\ 1990 g

\\ 2500 g

\\\ 2850 g

\\\ 3000 g
\\\\ In the fetus or neonate, what are the two sutures between the frontal and parietal bones?

\\\ frontal

\\\ sagittal

\\\ lambdoid

\\ coronal

\\\\ Which of the following diameters has the greatest length?

\\\ occipitofrontal

\\\ biparietal

\\ occipitomental

\\\ suboccipitobregmatic

\\\\ The plane of which of the following diameters represents the greatest circumference of the head?

\\ occipitofrontal

\\\ suboccipitobregmatic

\\\ bitemporal

\\\ biparietal

\\\\ The plane of which of the following diameters represents the smallest circumference of the head?

\\\ occipitofrontal

\\ suboccipitobregmatic

\\\ bitemporal

\\\ biparietal
\\\\ Which of the following vitamins is important to be given prophylactically for the fetus soon after
birth (especially in the breast-feeding newborn)?

\\ vitamin K

\\\ vitamin A

\\\ vitamin C

\\\ vitamin D

\\\\ Which of the following immunological factors provides protection against enteric infections when
ingested in the colostrum?

\\\ IgG

\\\ IgM

\\ IgA

\\\ IgE

\\\\ At what gestational age will the fetus first demonstrate spontaneous movements if removed from
the uterus?

\\\ 8 weeks

\\ 10 weeks

\\\ 12 weeks

\\\ 14 weeks

\\\\ How early might the fetus hear sounds in utero?

\\\ 14th week

\\\ 18th week

\\ 24th week

\\\ 28th week


\\\\ What is the average amount of amniotic fluid swallowed per 24 hours by the term fetus?

\\\ 100 mL

\\\ 200 mL

\\ 500 mL

\\\ 1500 mL

\\\\ What is the average uterine weight at term?

\\\ 200 g

\\\ 450 g

\\\ 780 g

\\ 1100 g

\\\\ Which of the following is not produced by the corpus luteum of early pregnancy?

\\\ progesterone

\\\ 17alpha-hydroxyprogesterone

\\\ relaxin

\\ prolactin

\\\\ What is pigmentation of the midline of abdominal skin during pregnancy called?

\\\ striae gravidarum

\\ linea nigra

\\\ chloasma

\\\ melasma

\\\\ What is the average weight gain during pregnancy?


\\\ 5 kg

\\\ 9 kg

\\ 11 kg

\\\ 15 kg

\\\\ What is the average increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy?

\\\ 10%

\\\ 25%

\\ 50%

\\\ 75%

\\\\ What is the average increase in the volume of circulating erythrocytes during pregnancy?

\\\ 100 mL

\\\ 250 mL

\\ 450 mL

\\\ 700 mL

\\\\ Which of the following hematologic changes does not occur during normal pregnancy?

\\ The mean age of circulating red cells is increased.

\\\ The mean cell volume is increased.

\\\ There is moderate erythroid hyperplasia.

\\\ There is an increase in plasma rythropoietin.

\\\\ Which of the following in not increased in pregnancy?

\\\ blood leukocyte count


\\\ C-reactive protein

\\\ leukocyte alkaline phosphate activity

\\ alpha-interferon

\\\\ What is the average increase in the resting pulse during pregnancy?

\\\ 0 to 1 bpm

\\\ 5 to 6 bpm

\\ 10 to 15 bpm

\\\ 18 to 20 bpm

\\\\ Which of the following hemodynamic values remains unchanged during normal pregnancy?

\\\ systemic vascular resistance

\\\ pulmonary vascular resistance

\\\ colloid osmotic pressure

\\ pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

\\\\ Which of the following is not increased during normal pregnancy?

\\\ glomerular filtration rate

\\\ renal plasma flow

\\\ creatinine clearance

\\ plasma concentration of urea

\\\\ With regard to the hydronephrosis and hydroureter associated with pregnancy, which of the
following is not true?

\\\ Ureteral dilation is greater on the right side.

\\ Ureteral dilation is primarily due to hormonal factors.


\\\ There is elongation of the ureters.

\\\ There is increase in the number of curves of the ureters.

\\\\ Which of the following is most likely to cross the placenta?

\\\ thyroxine

\\\ triiodothyronine

\\\ reverse triiodothyronine

\\ thyroid-releasing hormone

\\\\ What is the goal of prenatal care?

\\\ to establish a god relationship with your patients

\\ to deliver a healthy baby without impairing the mother’s health

\\\ to set up a payment schedule for the delivery

\\\ to see the patient often enough so you feel comfortable

\\\\ What is a primipara?

\\\ a woman who was pregnant once

\\ a woman delivered once of a viable fetus

\\\ a woman who has completed two pregnancies

\\\ a woman who has had a 12-week miscarriage

\\\\ What is a nulligravida?

\\\ a woman who never delivered a live-born baby

\\\ a woman who had one miscarriage

\\ a woman who has never been pregnant


\\\ a woman who had only one pregnancy

\\\\ What is the mean duration of pregnancy from the first day of the LMP?

\\\ 250 days

\\\ 260 days

\\\ 270 days

\\ 280 days

\\\\ Naegele’s rule estimates gestation age based on which of the following formulas?

\\ Add 7 days to LMP and count back three months.

\\\ Subtract 7 days from LMP and count back three months.

\\\ Add 21 days to LMP and count back three months.

\\\ Subtract 21 days from LMP and count back three months.

Obstetrics
1. The word obstetrics is derived from the Latin term obstetrix, which means
which of the following?
a. midwife
b. deliverer
c. attendant
d. sutgeon

2. Which of one of the following corresponds to the perinatal period?


a. 22 to 28 weeks gestation
b. 22 to 34 weeks gestation
c. 20 to 40 weeks gestation
d. 20 weeks to 4 weeks postpartum

3. What is the upper gestational age cutoff for defining the birth of a preterm
infant?
a. 29 weeks
b. 33 weeks
c. 35 weeks
d. 37 weeks

4 How is an infant cklassified that is born between 260 and 294 days of gestation?
a. preterm infant
b. term infant
c. postterm infant
d. postmature infant

5 What is the single most common cause of maternal mortality?


a. embolism
b. hipertension
c. hemorrhage
d. ectopic pregnancy

6. What is the single most common cause of neonatal death?


a. low birthweight
b. congenital anomalies
c. infection
d. perinatal asphyxia
7 How long after fertilization does it take for the zygote to reash the uterine
cavity?
a. 1 to 2 days
b. 3 to 4 days
c. 5 to 6 days
d. 7 days

8. What hormone is responsible for mainte-nance of the corpus luteum if


implantation
of the fertilized ovum takes place?
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. hCG
d. hPL

9. Which oh the following is NOT a presumptive symptom of pregnancy?


a. nausea
b. fatigue
c. urinary frequency
d. constipation

10. Which of the folliwing is NOT considered a probable sign of pregnancy?


a. enlargement of the abdomen
b. changes in shape, size, and consistency of uterus
c. cessation of menses
d. ballottement

11 The clitoris is the homologue of which of the following structures?


a. penis
b. scrotum
c. gubernaculums testis
d. corpora cavernosa

12. Wath is the principal erogenous organ or area of women?


a. vagina
b. clitoris
c. labia minora
d. G- spot

13. Which of the following is the predominant bacteria of the vagina during
pregnancy?
a. Peptostreptococcus sp.
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Lactobacillus sp.
d. streptococcus agalactiae

14. The uterine artery is a main branch of which of the following arteries?
a. aorta
b. common iliac
c. extremal iliac
d. internal iliac
15. The ovarian artery is a direct branch of which of the following vessels?
a. aorta
b. common iliac
c. extremal iliac
d. internal iliac

16. Which of the following is NOT a component of the boni perils?


a. coccyx
b. sacrum
c. ischium
d. femoral head

17. What is the shortest diameter of the pelvic cavity?


a. diagonal conjugate
b. interspinous
c. true conjugate
d. obstetrical conjugate

18. Pregnancy is said to consist of 10 lunar months. How long is an actual lunar
month?
a. 26 days
b. 27 days
c. 28 days
d. 29 days
19 What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 16 gestational weeks?
a. 25 g
b. 50 g
c. 110 g
d. 250 g

20. What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 20 gestational weeks?


a. 200 g
b. 300 g
c. 480 g
d. 650 g

21 What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 24 gestational weeks?


a. 500 g
b. 630 g
c. 750 g
d. 890 g

22 What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 28 gestational weeks?


a. 750 g
b. 890 g
c. 1100 g
d. 1500 g

23. What is the average weight of the fetus at 32 gestational weeks?


a. 1000 g
b. 1500 g
c. 1800 g
d. 2000 g

24. What is the average weight of the fetus at 36 gestational weeks?


a. 1990 g
b. 2500 g
c. 2850 g
d. 3000 g

25. In the fetus or neonate, what are the two sutures between the frontal and
parietal
bones?
a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. lambdoid
d. coronal

26. Wich of the following diameters has the greatest length?


a. occipitofrontal
b. biparietal
c. occipitomental
d. suboccipitobregmatic

27. The plane of which of the following diameters represents the greatest
circumference of the head?
a. occipitofrontal
b. suboccipitobregmatic
c. bitemporal
d. biparietal

28. The plane of which of the following diameters represents the smallest
circumference
of the head?
a. occipitofrontal
b. suboccipitobregmatic
c. bitemporal
d. biparietal

29.At what gestational age will the fetus first demonstrate spontaneous
movements if re-
moved from the uterus?
a. 8 weeks
b. 10 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 14 weeks

30. How early might the fetus hear sounds in utero?


a. 14th weeks
b. 18th weeks
c. 24th weeks
d. 28th weeks
31. What is the average amount of amnionicfluid swallowed per 24 hours by the
term
fetus?
a. 100 ml.
b. 200 ml.
c. 500 ml.
d. 1500 ml

32 Vhat is the average uterine weight at term?.


a. 200 g.
b. 450 g.
c. 780 g.
d. 1100 g.

33.Which of the following is NOT produced bythe corpus luteum of early of early
pregnancy?
a. progesterone
b. 17α - hidroxyprogesterone
c. relaxin
d. prolactin

34. What is pigmentation of the midline of abdominal skin during pregnancy


called?
a. striae gravidarum
b. linea nigra
c. chloasma
d. melasma

35. What is the average weight gain during pregnancy?


a. 5 kg.
b. 9 kg.
c. 11 kg.
d. 15 kg.

36. What is the average increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy?
a. 10%.
b. 25%..
c. 50%..
d. 75%.

37 What is the average increase in the volume of circulating erythrocytes during


pregnancy?
a. 100 ml..
b. 250 ml.
c. 450 ml.
d. 700 ml.

38. Which of the following is NOT increased in pregnancy?


a. blood leukocyte count
b. C-reactive protein
c. leukocyte alkaline phosphate activity
d. α- interferon
39. What is the average increase in the resting pulse during pregnancy?
a. 0 to 1bpm
b. 5 to 6 bpm
c. 10 to 15 bpm
d. 18 to 20 bpm

40. What is the goal of perinatal care?


a. to establish a good relationship with your patients
b. to deliver a healthy baby without impairing the mother̀s health
c. to set up a payment shedule for the delivery.
d. to see the patient often enough so you feel comfortable with the patient

41 What is a primipara?
a. a women who was pregnant once
b. a women delivered once of a viable fetus
c. a women who has completed two pregnancies
d. a women who has had a 12 – week miscarriage

42 What is a nulligravida?
a. a women who never delivered a live-born baby
b. a women who had one miscarriage
c. a women who has never been pregnant
d. a women who had only one pregnancy

43 What is the mean diration of pregnancy from the first of the LMP?
a. 250 days
b. 260 days
c. 270 days
d. 280 days

44. Naegeles rule estimates gestation age based


on which of the following formulas?
a. Add 7 days to LMP and count bacc three months
b. Substract 7 days from LMP and count back three months
c. Add days to LMP count back three months
d. Substract 21 days from LMP and count back three months

45 Which of the following tests should be voluntary at the first prenatal vizit?
a.serological test for syphilis
b. gonorrhea culture
c. uriinalysis
d. human immunodeficiency virus

46. The presence of foamy, yellow liquid in the vagina is suggestive of which of
the following?
a. normal vaginal secretions
b. Candida vaginitis
c.Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Chlamydia cervicitis

47. What is the earliest gestational age audible fetal heart sounds will be present
in 100 percent of live pregnancies?
a. 16 weeks
b. 18 weeks
c. 20 weeks
22weeks

48. Whish nutrient during pregnancy is not adeguately provided in diet alone?
calcium
magnesium
iron
folate

49. Whish of the following is recommended to prevent neural tube defects?


a. vitamin A
b. vitamin B6
c. folate
d. ascorbic acid

50. What are the hazards of travel to the healthy pregnancy?


a. decreased birthweight
b. increased bleceding
c. longer labors
d. no risks identified
51. What are the risks of caffeine intake to the pregnancy.
a. low birtweight
b. increased anomalies
c. increased mutagenesis
d. none

52. What is the proposed etiology for uausea and vomilting in the first trimester?
a. . increased human placenta lactogen
b. . increased chorionic gonadotropin
c. decreased growth hormone
d. decreased progesterone

53. What is the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother
called?
presentation of the fetus
lie of the fetus
fetal attitude
fetal posture

54. What percentage of term labors present with a longitudinal lie?


50
75
90
99
55. What is the presentation when the fetal
neck extended and the back and occiput
are in contact?
vertex
face
brow
sinciput
56. . What is the presentation when the fetal
head is flexed and the occipital fontanel
is presenting?
a. vertex
face
brow
sinciput
57 What is the presentation when the fetal
head is flexed and the occipital fontanel
is presenting?
vertex
face
brow
sinciput
58. What type of breech presents with the
thighs flexed and legs extended?
a. complete
b. incomplete
c. frank
d. transverse lie
59 In shoulder presentations,what portion of
the fetus isused to orient it with the mare
nal pelvis?
a. humerus
b. vertex
c. acromion
d. clavicle
60. In which of the following presentations
does the fetal attitude ( vertebral column)
become concave (extended)?
a. face
b. shoulder
c. cephalic
d. breech
61. What components make up the podalic
pole?
a. breech only
b. extremities only
c. breech and extremities
d. none of the above
62. What Leopold maneuver involves grasping
the lower portion of the abdomen just above
the simphysis?
a. ist
b. 2end
c. 3rd
d. 4th
63. What Leopold maneuver involves fundal pal-
patio to define the fetal pole present in the
fundus?
a. ist
b. 2end
c. 3rd
d. 4th
64. What Leopold maneuver involves placing
the palms of the hands on each side of the
abdomen to determine the location of the
back and small parts?
a. ist
b. 2end
c. 3rd
d. 4th
65. Wich of the following maneuvers is NOT used
in the vaginal examination to determine pre-
sentation and position?
differentiate vertex from breech by digital
ezamination
sweep examining fingers posterior to anterior
( i.e., across sagittal suture)
c. determine position of the two fontanels
d. determine position of the nose
66. Witith which of the following presentations
will the fetal heart sounds be best heard
a short distance from the midline?
a. occipitoanterior
b. occipitoposterior
c. traverse
d. breech
67. Which of the following is essencial
for miometrial contractions?
a. tubulin-actin
b. actin-myosin
c. myosin-tubulin
d. all of the above

68. Which of the following is NOT true con-


cerning smooth muscle contractions?
The degree of shortening is greater than
that of striated muscle.
b. Force can be exerred in any direction
c. Muscle is arranged in long, random bundies.
d. Expulsive force as a result of the con-
traction is unidirectional.
69. Which of the following is essential for the
generation of smooth muscle contractions?
a. prostaglandins
b. intracellular free calcium
c. extracellular free calcium
d. oxytocin
70. Which of the following activates the phospho-
phorylation reaction responsible for miometrial
contractions?
a. free intracellular calcium
b. ATPase
c. ATP hydrolysise
d. myosin light chain kinase
71. What is the major site of estrogen
formation during pregnancy?
a. peripheral conversion
b. ovary
c. corpus luteum
d. placenta
72. What is direction of cervical effacement?
a. outer edge inward
b. above downward to outer edge
c. midcervical bidirectional
d. above downward with cervical fibers
taken up into lower uterine segment

73. What is the most attractive hipothesise


for the cause of labor pain?
a. miometrial hypoxia
b. cervical stretching
c. peritoneum stretching
d. compression of nerve ganglia
in the cervix
74. Which of the following is NOT a vital
force concerned in labor?
a. intra-abdominal pressure
b. cervical position
c. resistance
d. uterine conctions
75. During the preparatory division of labor
which of the folloving inhibits uterine
contractions?
a. sedation
b. antibiotics
c. bedrest
d. varm baths
76. Which of the following is NOT a part of
the urogenital diaphragm?
a. sphincter ani
b. deep perineal fascia
c. middle perineal fascia
d. superficial perineal fascia
77. Which of the following is NOT a muscle of
the superficial perineal group?
a. bulbocabernosus
b. ishiocavernosus
c. sphincter ani
d. superficial transverse perineal muscle

78. Which protein may be importantin the


attachment of trophoblasts with the decidua?
alphafetoprotein
colagen type II
oncofetal fibronectin
transbinding globulin
79. Which of following is not a uterotonin?
a .endothelin –1
b. prostaglandin
c. oxytocin
d. calcium
80. Which of the following is NOT considered
a structural component of the cervix?
a . smooth muscle
b. collagen
c. ground substrance
oncofibronectin
81. Which of the following is NOT associated
with phase 3 of parturition?
a .uterine contractions
b. milk ejection
c. restoration of fertility
uterine inversion
82. Where is oxytocin primarily synthesized?
a . adrenal grand
b. placenta
c. posterior pitutary
d. ovary
83. What is the carrier protein for oxytocin
transport to the posterior pituitary?
a .neurophysin
b. relaxin
c. binding globulin
d.actin
84. Which of the following is an action
of oxytocin?
a . induces gap junction formation
b. induces oxytocin receptors
c. acts as an antiprogestin
d. acts on amnion to facilitate amnionic
fluid homeostasis
85. Whichof the following is NOT evidence
for a role of prostaglandins in human
parturition?
a. Prostaglandins will cause abortion at
ani stage of gestation.
b. Prostaglandins will cause labor at any
stage of gestation
c. Levels of prostaglandins in the forebag
are increased during labor.
d. Prostaglandins cause contractions of smooth
muscle celis in vitro.
86. What major prostaglandin is produced by
the amnion?
a .PGE2
b. PGE2
c. PGI
d. PGG
87. What prostaglandin is preferentially
produced by the deciduas?
a .PGE2
b. PGE2α
c. PGI
d. PGG
88. What is the action of endothelin on
miometrial cells?
a . decrease K+ intracellular
b. decrease Ca2+ intracellular
c. decrease K+ intracellular
d. decrease Ca2+ intracellular
89. Which of the following tissues
is avascularized?
a. amnion
b. sincytium
c. decidua
d. placenta
90. Which monumental event occurs during
the second stage of labor?
a .cervical effacement
b. cervical dilataton
c. expulsion of the fetus
d. placenta separation
91 What is the most common presentation of
the fetus as it enters the pelvis?
a . ROA
b. ROT
c. LOA
d. LOT
92. What is the presentation if Leopold maneuvers
reveal the folloving: (1) breech in fundus, (2)
resistant plane palpated though mothers flank,
(3) head movable, (4) cephalic prminence on
maternal left?
a . ROT
b. LOT
c. LOA
d. ROA
93 What are the cardinal movements of labor
(in order)
a . descent, engagement, flexion, internal
rotation, extrension, external, rotation,
expulsion
b. descent, , flexion, engagement, internal,
rotation, extrension, external, rotation,
expulsion
c. engagement, descent, , flexion, internal,
rotation, extrension, external, rotation,
expulsion
d. engagement, flexion, descent, , internal,
rotation, extrension, external, rotation,
expulsion
94 Which of the following is characteristic
of asynclitism?
a . Sagital suture is not parallel to the
transverse axis of the inlet.
Sagital suture lies midway between the
simphysis and sacral promontory.
Sagital suture, although parallel to the
transverse axis of the inlet, does not lie
exactly midway between the symphysis
and sacral promontory.
d. Sagital suture rotates 45 degress from
the sacral spines.
95. Which of the following is characteristic
of true labor?
a . irregular contractions
b. discomfort in lower abdomem
c. cervical dilatation
d. discomfort relieved by sedation

96. When should the fetal heart rate by auscul-


tated during observation for labor?
a . before the contraction
during the contraction
at the end immediately after a
contraction
d. anytime
97. What is the average duration of the first stage
of labor in nuliparous women?
a . 5 hr
b. 8 hr
c. 12 hr
d. 20 hr
98. Which of the following is noted when uni-
versal electronic fetal monitoring is com-
pared to selective monitoring?
a . increase in cesarean sections for fetal
distress
b. decrease in intrapartum deaths
c. decrease in neonatal deaths
d. decrease in low Apgar scores at 5 minutes
99. During the third stage of labor, which of
the following is NOT a sgin of placenta
separation
a . a gush of blood
b. uterus rises in the abdomen
c. unbilical cord protrudes out of the vagina
d. a sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction

100. Which of the following a complication


of the thing stage of labor associated with
forced placental separation?
a . endometritis
b. uterine atony
c. Asherman syndrome
d. uterine inversion
101. What is the primary meghanism of
placental site hemostasis?
a . vasoconstriction by contracted miometrium
b. oxytocin
c. ergonivine maleate
d. mehylergonovine
102. What is a leceration involving the skin, mu
cous membrane, perineal body, anal sphinc?
ter, and rectal mucosa called?
a . Ist degree
b. 2nd degree
c. 3rd degree
4 th degree
103. What is a leceration involving the four-
chette of perineal skin, but not the muscle,
called?
a . Ist degree
b. 2nd degree
c. 3rd degree
4 th degree
104. Which of the following is not a morbidity
associated with fourth degree lacerations?
a . dehiscences
b. infections
c. uterine atony
d. pain

105. Which maternal finding is NOT an anes-


thesia risk factor?
a . anatomic anomaly of the face
b. asthma
c. morbid obesity
d. mild hypertension

\\\\ The word obstetrics is derived from Latin term obstetrix, which means which of the following?

\\ midwife

\\\ deliverer

\\\ attendant

\\\ surgeon

\\\\ Which of one of the following corresponds to the perinatal period?

\\\ 22 to 28 weeks gestation

\\\ 22 to 34 weeks gestation

\\\ 20 to 40 weeks gestation

\\ 20 weeks to 4 weeks postpartum

\\\\ What is the upper gestational age cutoff for defining the birth of a preterm infant?

\\\ 29 weeks

\\\ 33 weeks

\\\ 35 weeks

\\ 37 weeks

\\\\ How is an infant classified that is born between 260 and 294 days of gestation?

\\\ preterm infant


\\ term infant

\\\ postterm infant

\\\ postmature infant

\\\\ What is the single most common cause of maternal mortality?

\\ embolism

\\\ hypertension

\\\ hemorrhage

\\\ ectopic pregnancy

\\\\ What is the single most common cause of neonatal death?

\\ low birthweight

\\\ congenital anomalies

\\\ infection

\\\ perinatal asphyxia

\\\\ How long after fertilization does it take for the zygote to reach the uterine cavity?

\\\ 1 to 2 days

\\ 3 to 4 days

\\\ 5 to 6 days

\\\ 7 days

\\\\ What hormone is responsible for maintenance of the corpus luteum if implantation of the fertilized
ovum takes place?

\\\ estrogen

\\ progesterone
\\\ hCG

\\\ hPL

\\\\ Which of the following isn’t a presumptive symptom of pregnancy?

\\\ nausea

\\\ fatigue

\\\ urinary frequency

\\ constipation

\\\\ Which of the following is not considered a probable sign of pregnancy?

\\\ enlargement of the abdomen

\\\ changes in shape, size, and consistency of uterus

\\\ cessation of menses

\\ ballottement

\\\\ The clitoris is the homologue of which of the following structure?

\\ penis

\\\ scrotum

\\\ gubernaculum testis

\\\ corpora cavernosa

\\\\ What is the principal erogenous organ or area of women?

\\\ vagina

\\ clitoris

\\\ labia minora


\\\ G-spot

\\\\ Which of the following is the predominant bacteria of the vagina during pregnancy?

\\\ Peptostreptococcus sp.

\\\ Listeria monocytogenes

\\ Lactobacillus sp.

\\\ Streptococcus agalactiae

\\\\ The uterine artery is a main branch of which of the following arteries?

\\\ aorta

\\\ common iliac

\\\ external iliac

\\ internal iliac

\\\\ The ovarian artery is a direct branch of which of the following vessels?

\\ aorta

\\\ common iliac

\\\ external iliac

\\\ internal iliac

\\\\ Which of the following is not a component of the bony pelvis?

\\\ coccyx

\\\ sacrum

\\\ ischium

\\ femoral head
\\\\ What is the shortest diameter of the pelvic cavity?

\\\ diagonal conjugate

\\ interspinous

\\\ true conjugate

\\\ obstetrical conjugate

\\\\ What does the portion of the deciduas invaded by the trophoblast become?

\\ decidua basalis

\\\ decidua capsularis

\\\ decidua vera

\\\ decidua parietalis

\\\\ What day of the menstrual cycle do subnuclear, glycogen-rich vacuoles develop on the glandular
epithelium?

\\\ 5 to 7

\\\ 10 to 12

\\ 14 to 16

\\\ 20 to 22

\\\\ What is the average amount of blood lost during normal menstrual cycle?

\\\ 10 to 15 mL

\\ 25 to 60 mL

\\\ 85 to 120 mL

\\\ 150 mL
\\\\ What is the duration of the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

\\\ variable

\\\ 10 to 12 days

\\\ 12 to 14 days

\\ most commonly over 14 days

\\\\ What is the solid ball of cells formed by 16 or more blastomeres?

\\ morula

\\\ blastocyst

\\\ zygote

\\\ embryo

\\\\ The survival of the conceptus in the uterus is attributable to the immunological peculiarity of which
of the following?

\\\ decidua

\\\ amnion

\\\ chorion

\\ trophoblast

\\\\ What are a main stem (truncal) villi and its ramifications?

\\ placental cotyledon

\\\ maternal cotyledon

\\\ stem cotyledon

\\\ primary cotyledon

\\\\ Where is the complete molecule of human chorionic gonadotropins primarily produced?
\\ syncytiotrophoblast

\\\ cytotrophoblast

\\\ chorionic membrane

\\\ Hofbauer cells

\\\\ What is the best known function of human chorionic gonadoptropin?

\\ its maintenance of the corpus luteum

\\\ that it helps protect against paternal antibodies

\\\ that it stimulates human placental lactogen secretion

\\\ that it stimulates fetal ovaries to produce estrogen

\\\\ When (week of pregnancy) does human placental lactogen peak in the maternal serum?

\\\ 10th to 12th

\\\ 16th to 20th

\\\ 28th to 30th

\\ 34th to 36th

\\\\ Pregnancy is said to consist of 10 lunar months. How long is an actual lunar month?

\\\ 26 days

\\\ 27 days

\\ 28 days

\\\ 29 days

\\\\ What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 16 gestational weeks?

\\\ 25 g
\\\ 50 g

\\ 110 g

\\\ 250 g

\\\\ What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 20 gestational weeks?

\\\ 200g

\\ 300 g

\\\ 480 g

\\\ 650 g

\\\\ What is the approximate eight of the fetus at 24 gestational weeks?

\\\ 500 g

\\ 630 g

\\\ 750 g

\\\ 890 g

\\\\ What is the approximate weight of the fetus at 28 gestational weeks?

\\\ 750 g

\\\ 890 g

\\ 1100g

\\\ 1500 g

\\\\ What is the average weight of the fetus at 32 gestational weeks?

\\\ 1000 g

\\\ 1500 g
\\ 1800 g

\\\ 2000 g

\\\\ What is the average weight of the fetus at 36 gestational weeks?

\\\ 1990 g

\\ 2500 g

\\\ 2850 g

\\\ 3000 g

\\\\ In the fetus or neonate, what are the two sutures between the frontal and parietal bones?

\\\ frontal

\\\ sagittal

\\\ lambdoid

\\ coronal

\\\\ Which of the following diameters has the greatest length?

\\\ occipitofrontal

\\\ biparietal

\\ occipitomental

\\\ suboccipitobregmatic

\\\\ The plane of which of the following diameters represents the greatest circumference of the head?

\\ occipitofrontal

\\\ suboccipitobregmatic

\\\ bitemporal
\\\ biparietal

\\\\ The plane of which of the following diameters represents the smallest circumference of the head?

\\\ occipitofrontal

\\ suboccipitobregmatic

\\\ bitemporal

\\\ biparietal

\\\\ Which of the following vitamins is important to be given prophylactically for the fetus soon after
birth (especially in the breast-feeding newborn)?

\\ vitamin K

\\\ vitamin A

\\\ vitamin C

\\\ vitamin D

\\\\ Which of the following immunological factors provides protection against enteric infections when
ingested in the colostrum?

\\\ IgG

\\\ IgM

\\ IgA

\\\ IgE

\\\\ At what gestational age will the fetus first demonstrate spontaneous movements if removed from
the uterus?

\\\ 8 weeks

\\ 10 weeks

\\\ 12 weeks
\\\ 14 weeks

\\\\ How early might the fetus hear sounds in utero?

\\\ 14th week

\\\ 18th week

\\ 24th week

\\\ 28th week

\\\\ What is the average amount of amniotic fluid swallowed per 24 hours by the term fetus?

\\\ 100 mL

\\\ 200 mL

\\ 500 mL

\\\ 1500 mL

\\\\ What is the average uterine weight at term?

\\\ 200 g

\\\ 450 g

\\\ 780 g

\\ 1100 g

\\\\ Which of the following is not produced by the corpus luteum of early pregnancy?

\\\ progesterone

\\\ 17alpha-hydroxyprogesterone

\\\ relaxin

\\ prolactin
\\\\ What is pigmentation of the midline of abdominal skin during pregnancy called?

\\\ striae gravidarum

\\ linea nigra

\\\ chloasma

\\\ melasma

\\\\ What is the average weight gain during pregnancy?

\\\ 5 kg

\\\ 9 kg

\\ 11 kg

\\\ 15 kg

\\\\ What is the average increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy?

\\\ 10%

\\\ 25%

\\ 50%

\\\ 75%

\\\\ What is the average increase in the volume of circulating erythrocytes during pregnancy?

\\\ 100 mL

\\\ 250 mL

\\ 450 mL

\\\ 700 mL
\\\\ Which of the following hematologic changes does not occur during normal pregnancy?

\\ The mean age of circulating red cells is increased.

\\\ The mean cell volume is increased.

\\\ There is moderate erythroid hyperplasia.

\\\ There is an increase in plasma rythropoietin.

\\\\ Which of the following in not increased in pregnancy?

\\\ blood leukocyte count

\\\ C-reactive protein

\\\ leukocyte alkaline phosphate activity

\\ alpha-interferon

\\\\ What is the average increase in the resting pulse during pregnancy?

\\\ 0 to 1 bpm

\\\ 5 to 6 bpm

\\ 10 to 15 bpm

\\\ 18 to 20 bpm

\\\\ Which of the following hemodynamic values remains unchanged during normal pregnancy?

\\\ systemic vascular resistance

\\\ pulmonary vascular resistance

\\\ colloid osmotic pressure

\\ pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

\\\\ Which of the following is not increased during normal pregnancy?


\\\ glomerular filtration rate

\\\ renal plasma flow

\\\ creatinine clearance

\\ plasma concentration of urea

\\\\ With regard to the hydronephrosis and hydroureter associated with pregnancy, which of the
following is not true?

\\\ Ureteral dilation is greater on the right side.

\\ Ureteral dilation is primarily due to hormonal factors.

\\\ There is elongation of the ureters.

\\\ There is increase in the number of curves of the ureters.

\\\\ Which of the following is most likely to cross the placenta?

\\\ thyroxine

\\\ triiodothyronine

\\\ reverse triiodothyronine

\\ thyroid-releasing hormone

\\\\ What is the goal of prenatal care?

\\\ to establish a god relationship with your patients

\\ to deliver a healthy baby without impairing the mother’s health

\\\ to set up a payment schedule for the delivery

\\\ to see the patient often enough so you feel comfortable

\\\\ What is a primipara?

\\\ a woman who was pregnant once


\\ a woman delivered once of a viable fetus

\\\ a woman who has completed two pregnancies

\\\ a woman who has had a 12-week miscarriage

\\\\ What is a nulligravida?

\\\ a woman who never delivered a live-born baby

\\\ a woman who had one miscarriage

\\ a woman who has never been pregnant

\\\ a woman who had only one pregnancy

\\\\ What is the mean duration of pregnancy from the first day of the LMP?

\\\ 250 days

\\\ 260 days

\\\ 270 days

\\ 280 days

\\\\ Naegele’s rule estimates gestation age based on which of the following formulas?

\\ Add 7 days to LMP and count back three months.

\\\ Subtract 7 days from LMP and count back three months.

\\\ Add 21 days to LMP and count back three months.

\\\ Subtract 21 days from LMP and count back three months.

61

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?


\\\ The granulosa cells secrete androstenedione.

\\ The granulosa cells become luteal cells following the release of the oocyte.

\\\ Luteal cells secrete progesterone alone.

\\\ The ovary contains around 50 000 oocytes at menarche.

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true of the menstrual cycle?

\\\ Oestradiol causes the endometrial glands to secrete glycogen.

\\\ The endometrium is shed because the spiral arterioles lose their elasticity and start to bleed.

\\ The luteal phase lasts for a fixed duration of 12–14 days.

\\\ In the proliferative phase of the cycle the spiral arterioles become waved

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?

\\\ Oestradiol exerts a posotive feedback on FSH.

\\\ The secretion of FSH and LH is under the control of the thalamus.

\\ Testosterone is essential for the production of oestradiol.

\\\ Progesterone concentrations reach their peak at the time of ovulation.

\\\\ Which of the following are associated with causing tubal damage leading to tubal subfertility?

\\\ Trichomonas vaginalis.

\\ Gonorrhoea.

\\\ Candidos.

\\\ Gardnelos.

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?

\\\ Gonorrhoea in women is best diagnosed by cultures of material from the posterior vaginal
fornix.
\\ Syphilis is adequately treated in penicillin-allergic pregnant women by doxyciklin.

\\\ Contact tracing partners of women with first attack genital herpes is helpful.

\\\ Bacterial vaginosis should be diagnosed by culture of a high vaginal swab (HVS) for Gardnerella
vaginalis.

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true about HIV infection?

\\\ It is caused by a DNA virus that binds to the CD4 receptor.

\\\ Seroconversion commonly presents with a glandular fever illness.

\\ In the UK, all patients with a CD4 count below 200 ¥ 106/l should be encouraged to start anti-
HIV drugs.

\\\ Antiretroviral resistance testing will show resistance patterns to both current and previous
anti-HIV drugs.

\\\\ Which of the following is the best treatment of a suspected dermoid cyst found in an 18 year
–old nulliparous woman?

\\\ Observation

\\\ Hysterectomy

\\\ Adnexectomy

\\ Cystectomy

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?

\\\ Fetal haemoglobin shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right of that for haemoglobin A.

\\\ In fetal life oxygenated blood from the umbilical arteries flows directly to the left side of the
heart.

\\\ During fetal life the lungs are filled with amniotic fluid.

\\ Exposure to teratogens is more likely to cause congenital abnormalities in the first trimester of
pregnancy.
\\\\ The functions of the placenta include which of the following?

\\\ Transfer of oxygen from the fetus to the mother

\\\ Transfer of urea from the mother to the fetus.

\\\ Transfer of nutrients from the fetus to the mother.

\\ Regulation of fetal metabolism of insulin and glucose.

\\\\ The smallest diameters of the fetal skull include which of the following?

\\\ Mentovertical.

\\ Suboccipitobregmatic.

\\ Biparietal.

\\\ Occiptofrontal.

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true of a hydatidiform mole?

\\\ Is not associated with early onset pre-eclampsia.

\\\ Should be treated with methotrexate.

\\\ Should be followed up for only 6 months in a specialist centre.

\\ Is associated with a higher than average hCG concentration.

\\\\ Which of the following is true of choriocarcinoma?

\\\ There is early spread to bones.

\\\ Hysterectomy is only method of treatment

\\\ After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 40%.

\\ After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 4%.

\\\\ A woman presents with her second miscarriage. Which of the following pieces of information
should she be given in respect of miscarriage?
\\\ She has a 75% chance of miscarrying again.

\\\ She has a 55% chance of miscarrying again

\\ She has a 25% chance of miscarrying again.

\\\ She has a 65% chance of miscarrying again

\\\\ Which of the following investigations are performed at the first antenatal visit?

\\\ Toxoplasmosis.

\\\ Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

\\ Syphilis.

\\\ Hepatitis C.

\\\\ Which of the following are used as indicators of fetal well-being beyond 24 weeks of
pregnancy?

\\\ Liquor volume.

\\\ Fetal movements.

\\\ Auscultation.

\\ Umbilical artery dopplers.

\\\\ A woman presents at 12 weeks of pregnancy. She has had two livebirths at term, delivered a
live baby at 21 weeks who died within a few minutes of birth, one pregnancy loss at 8 weeks and an
intrauterine death at 25 weeks.

Which one of the following correctly expresses her gravidity and parity?

\\\ Gravida 6 Para 4

\\ Gravida 6 Para 3

\\\ Gravida 5 Para 3.

\\\ Gravida 5 Para 4.


\\\\ Which of the following features of a cardiotocograph (CTG) would be considered non-
reassuring in labour?

\\\ Baseline variability of 5–15 beats per minute.

\\ Late decelerations in the second stage of labour.

\\\ A fetal heart rate of 150 beats per minute.

\\\ Accelerations.

\\\\ Which of the following are indications for continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM)?

\\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes24 hours ago and has
clear liquor

\\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes 1 hour ago and has
clear liquor.

\\\ A woman who ruptured her membranes 6 hours ago, clear liquor and is in spontaneous labour.

\\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptured her membranes 12 hours ago, clear
liquor and is in spontaneous labor

\\\\ In normal labour which of the following statements are true?

\\\ Uterine contractions are generated in the lower segment of the uterus.

\\ The rate of cervical dilatation should be greater than 1cm/hour.

\\\ The fetal heart should be checked every 15 minutes in the first stage of labour

\\\ The second stage of labour should not exceed 2 hours in duration.

\\\ An episiotomy should be performed in the majority of women.

\\\\ A woman on the postnatal ward bursts into tears when you go and see her 48 hours after the
birth of her baby.Which of the following might indicate that she is at high risk of developing
postnatal depression?

\\\ She does not show any interest in her infant who is crying insistently.

\\\ She is bottle feeding the baby.


\\ She is unable to sleep.

\\\ Her partner was present at the birth of the baby

\\\\ A baby is born in the following condition at 1 minute. She is pink with a heart rate of 120
bpm. She is not moving or crying and has taken a few irregular gasps. Her limbs are flaccid but she
is moving her facial muscles. What is her

Apgar score?

\\\ 9

\\\ 7

\\ 6

\\\ 5

\\\\ Submucous fibroids are commonly associated with which of the following?

\\\ Constant lower abdominal pain.

\\ Menorrhagia.

\\\ Vomiting.

\\\ Ectopic pregnancy.

\\\\ A 24-year-old woman presents with unilateral abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal rebound
and guarding. She is apyrexial and her LMP was one week ago. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?

\\\ Pelvic inflammatory disease.

\\\ Bleeding into a corpus luteal cyst.

\\\ Ruptured corpus luteal cyst.

\\ Torted dermoid cyst.

\\\\ Which of the following is true of dermoid cysts?


\\\ May undergo degeneration.

\\ May contain well differentiated tissues.

\\\ May contain altered blood.

\\\ May secrete testosterone.

\\\\ A 19-year-old woman presents with right iliac fossa pain. The pain came on gradually and was
associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination she has a temperature of 37.6°C. Abdominal
examination reveals tenderness in the right iliac fossa (RIF) with guarding and rebound. Vaginal
examination reveals mild tenderness on the right with no cervical excitation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

\\\ Pyelonephritis.

\\ Torted right ovarian cyst.

\\\ Small bowel obstruction.

\\\ Ruptured right ovarian cyst

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?

\\\ Carcinoma of the cervix is the most common gynaecological malignancy.

\\\ Few women die of ovarian cancer than any other gynaecological malignancy.

\\ Endometrial cancer most commonly presents with postmenopausal bleeding.

\\\ Ovarian cancer most commonly presents with postcoital bleeding.

\\\\ A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no

other abnormalities on examination. What is the most likely provisional diagnosis?

\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the ovary.

\\\ Stage 1 carcinoma of the ovary.

\\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the uterus.


\\\ Stage 4 carcinoma of the ovary.

\\\\ A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no

other abnormalities on examination. Which of the following are useful preoperative staging
investigations for this woman?

\\\ Hysteroscopy

\\\ Curettage.

\\ Serum tumour markers.

\\\ Electrolytes.

\\\\ Which of the following are common symptoms of detrusor instability?

\\\ Slow urinary stream.

\\\ Incomplete emptying.

\\ Nocturia.

\\\ Rtare)

\\\\ Which of the following would be the next step after a 30 min. of the third stage of labour?

\\\ Initiate oxytocin

\\\ Wait an additional 30min

\\\ Attempt a manual extraction of the placenta

\\ make sure that placenta is detached

\\\\ Which of the following is most likely to be a risk factor for uterine inversion?

\\\ Long umbilical cord

\\ Uncontrolled traction of the umbilical cord


\\\ Placental abruption

\\\ Attenuated umbilical cord

\\\\ A 31 year-old woman G2P1 at 40 weeks’ gestation has progressed in labor from 4 to 7cm.
cervical dilatation during 2 hours. Which of the following best describes the labor?

\\\ latent phase of the I stage

\\\ Passive phase of the II stage

\\\ Active phase of the II stage

\\ Active phase of the I stage

\\\\ An 18-year-old woman had a yellowish vaginal discharge. On examination, the cervix is
erythematous an the discharge reveals numerous leukocytes. Which of the following is most likely
etiology?

\\\ Neisseria gonorrhea

\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\\ Thrichomona vaginalis

\\\ Ureaplazma species

\\\\ A 34 year-old woman is diagnosed as having a vaginitis based on a “ fishy odor” to her vaginal
discharge and vaginal pruritus. The cervix is normal in appearance. Which of the following most
likely corresponds to the etiology?

\\\ Neisseria gonorrhea

\\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\ Gardnella

\\\ Cytomegalovirus

\\\\ A 28 year-old woman has multiple painful pustules erupting through

out the skin of her body. Which of the following most likely corresponds to the etiology?
\\ Neisseria gonorrhea

\\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\\ Gardnella

\\\ Cytomegalovirus

\\\\ Which of the following maternal cervical infections causes blindness in the newborn?

\\\ Toxoplazmosis

\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\\ Candidosis

\\\ Cytomegalovirus

\\\\ Which of the following is the most accurate method for diagnosing acute salpingitis?

\\\ Clinical criteria

\\\ Sonography

\\\ Computed tomographic scan

\\ Laparascopy

\\\\ Which of the following types of uterine fibroids would most likely lead to recurrent abortion?

\\ Submucosal

\\\ Intramural

\\\ Subserous

\\\ Intraligamental

\\\\ Which of the following is the most coon clinical presentation of uterine leiomyomata?

\\\ Infertility

\\ Menorrhagia
\\\ Pelvic pain

\\\ Recurrent abortion

\\\\ Which of the following is the epithelial cell tumor of the ovary?

\\\ Cystic teratoma

\\ Brenner tumor

\\\ Androblastoma

\\\ Choriocarcinoma

inglisuri testebi (damateba 40)

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?

\\\ The granulosa cells secrete androstenedione.

\\ The granulosa cells become luteal cells following the release of the oocyte.

\\\ Luteal cells secrete progesterone alone.

\\\ The ovary contains around 50 000 oocytes at menarche.

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true of the menstrual cycle?

\\\ Oestradiol causes the endometrial glands to secrete glycogen.

\\\ The endometrium is shed because the spiral arterioles lose their elasticity and start to bleed.

\\ The luteal phase lasts for a fixed duration of 12–14 days.

\\\ In the proliferative phase of the cycle the spiral arterioles become waved

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?


\\\ Oestradiol exerts a posotive feedback on FSH.

\\\ The secretion of FSH and LH is under the control of the thalamus.

\\ Testosterone is essential for the production of oestradiol.

\\\ Progesterone concentrations reach their peak at the time of ovulation.

\\\\ Which of the following are associated with causing tubal damage leading to tubal subfertility?

\\\ Trichomonas vaginalis.

\\ Gonorrhoea.

\\\ Candidos.

\\\ Gardnelos.

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?

\\\ Gonorrhoea in women is best diagnosed by cultures of material from the posterior vaginal
fornix.

\\ Syphilis is adequately treated in penicillin-allergic pregnant women by doxyciklin.

\\\ Contact tracing partners of women with first attack genital herpes is helpful.

\\\ Bacterial vaginosis should be diagnosed by culture of a high vaginal swab (HVS) for Gardnerella
vaginalis.

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true about HIV infection?

\\\ It is caused by a DNA virus that binds to the CD4 receptor.

\\\ Seroconversion commonly presents with a glandular fever illness.

\\ In the UK, all patients with a CD4 count below 200 ¥ 106/l should be encouraged to start anti-
HIV drugs.

\\\ Antiretroviral resistance testing will show resistance patterns to both current and previous
anti-HIV drugs.
\\\\ Which of the following is the best treatment of a suspected dermoid cyst found in an 18 year
–old nulliparous woman?

\\\ Observation

\\\ Hysterectomy

\\\ Adnexectomy

\\ Cystectomy

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?

\\\ Fetal haemoglobin shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right of that for haemoglobin A.

\\\ In fetal life oxygenated blood from the umbilical arteries flows directly to the left side of the
heart.

\\\ During fetal life the lungs are filled with amniotic fluid.

\\ Exposure to teratogens is more likely to cause congenital abnormalities in the first trimester of
pregnancy.

\\\\ The functions of the placenta include which of the following?

\\\ Transfer of oxygen from the fetus to the mother

\\\ Transfer of urea from the mother to the fetus.

\\\ Transfer of nutrients from the fetus to the mother.

\\ Regulation of fetal metabolism of insulin and glucose.

\\\\ The smallest diameters of the fetal skull include which of the following?

\\\ Mentovertical.

\\ Suboccipitobregmatic.

\\ Biparietal.

\\\ Occiptofrontal.
\\\\ Which of the following statements are true of a hydatidiform mole?

\\\ Is not associated with early onset pre-eclampsia.

\\\ Should be treated with methotrexate.

\\\ Should be followed up for only 6 months in a specialist centre.

\\ Is associated with a higher than average hCG concentration.

\\\\ Which of the following is true of choriocarcinoma?

\\\ There is early spread to bones.

\\\ Hysterectomy is only method of treatment

\\\ After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 40%.

\\ After hydatidiform mole the risk of choriocarcinoma is 4%.

\\\\ A woman presents with her second miscarriage. Which of the following pieces of information
should she be given in respect of miscarriage?

\\\ She has a 75% chance of miscarrying again.

\\\ She has a 55% chance of miscarrying again

\\ She has a 25% chance of miscarrying again.

\\\ She has a 65% chance of miscarrying again

\\\\ Which of the following investigations are performed at the first antenatal visit?

\\\ Toxoplasmosis.

\\\ Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

\\ Syphilis.

\\\ Hepatitis C.

\\\\ Which of the following are used as indicators of fetal well-being beyond 24 weeks of
pregnancy?
\\\ Liquor volume.

\\\ Fetal movements.

\\\ Auscultation.

\\ Umbilical artery dopplers.

\\\\ A woman presents at 12 weeks of pregnancy. She has had two livebirths at term, delivered a
live baby at 21 weeks who died within a few minutes of birth, one pregnancy loss at 8 weeks and an
intrauterine death at 25 weeks.

Which one of the following correctly expresses her gravidity and parity?

\\\ Gravida 6 Para 4

\\ Gravida 6 Para 3

\\\ Gravida 5 Para 3.

\\\ Gravida 5 Para 4.

\\\\ Which of the following features of a cardiotocograph (CTG) would be considered non-
reassuring in labour?

\\\ Baseline variability of 5–15 beats per minute.

\\ Late decelerations in the second stage of labour.

\\\ A fetal heart rate of 150 beats per minute.

\\\ Accelerations.

\\\\ Which of the following are indications for continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM)?

\\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes24 hours ago and has
clear liquor

\\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptures her membranes 1 hour ago and has
clear liquor.

\\\ A woman who ruptured her membranes 6 hours ago, clear liquor and is in spontaneous labour.
\\\ A woman at term in spontaneous labour who ruptured her membranes 12 hours ago, clear
liquor and is in spontaneous labor

\\\\ In normal labour which of the following statements are true?

\\\ Uterine contractions are generated in the lower segment of the uterus.

\\ The rate of cervical dilatation should be greater than 1cm/hour.

\\\ The fetal heart should be checked every 15 minutes in the first stage of labour

\\\ The second stage of labour should not exceed 2 hours in duration.

\\\ An episiotomy should be performed in the majority of women.

\\\\ A woman on the postnatal ward bursts into tears when you go and see her 48 hours after the
birth of her baby.Which of the following might indicate that she is at high risk of developing
postnatal depression?

\\\ She does not show any interest in her infant who is crying insistently.

\\\ She is bottle feeding the baby.

\\ She is unable to sleep.

\\\ Her partner was present at the birth of the baby

\\\\ A baby is born in the following condition at 1 minute. She is pink with a heart rate of 120
bpm. She is not moving or crying and has taken a few irregular gasps. Her limbs are flaccid but she
is moving her facial muscles. What is her

Apgar score?

\\\ 9

\\\ 7

\\ 6

\\\ 5
\\\\ Submucous fibroids are commonly associated with which of the following?

\\\ Constant lower abdominal pain.

\\ Menorrhagia.

\\\ Vomiting.

\\\ Ectopic pregnancy.

\\\\ A 24-year-old woman presents with unilateral abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal rebound
and guarding. She is apyrexial and her LMP was one week ago. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?

\\\ Pelvic inflammatory disease.

\\\ Bleeding into a corpus luteal cyst.

\\\ Ruptured corpus luteal cyst.

\\ Torted dermoid cyst.

\\\\ Which of the following is true of dermoid cysts?

\\\ May undergo degeneration.

\\ May contain well differentiated tissues.

\\\ May contain altered blood.

\\\ May secrete testosterone.

\\\\ A 19-year-old woman presents with right iliac fossa pain. The pain came on gradually and was
associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination she has a temperature of 37.6°C. Abdominal
examination reveals tenderness in the right iliac fossa (RIF) with guarding and rebound. Vaginal
examination reveals mild tenderness on the right with no cervical excitation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

\\\ Pyelonephritis.

\\ Torted right ovarian cyst.

\\\ Small bowel obstruction.


\\\ Ruptured right ovarian cyst

\\\\ Which of the following statements are true?

\\\ Carcinoma of the cervix is the most common gynaecological malignancy.

\\\ Few women die of ovarian cancer than any other gynaecological malignancy.

\\ Endometrial cancer most commonly presents with postmenopausal bleeding.

\\\ Ovarian cancer most commonly presents with postcoital bleeding.

\\\\ A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no

other abnormalities on examination. What is the most likely provisional diagnosis?

\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the ovary.

\\\ Stage 1 carcinoma of the ovary.

\\\ Stage 3 carcinoma of the uterus.

\\\ Stage 4 carcinoma of the ovary.

\\\\ A woman of 63 presents with a hard fixed abdominal mass noticed by her GP when she
complained that her clothes were becoming tighter. Her menopause was 12 years ago and she has
had no vaginal bleeding. She has no

other abnormalities on examination. Which of the following are useful preoperative staging
investigations for this woman?

\\\ Hysteroscopy

\\\ Curettage.

\\ Serum tumour markers.

\\\ Electrolytes.

\\\\ Which of the following are common symptoms of detrusor instability?


\\\ Slow urinary stream.

\\\ Incomplete emptying.

\\ Nocturia.

\\\ Rtare)

\\\\ Which of the following would be the next step after a 30 min. of the third stage of labour?

\\\ Initiate oxytocin

\\\ Wait an additional 30min

\\\ Attempt a manual extraction of the placenta

\\ make sure that placenta is detached

\\\\ Which of the following is most likely to be a risk factor for uterine inversion?

\\\ Long umbilical cord

\\ Uncontrolled traction of the umbilical cord

\\\ Placental abruption

\\\ Attenuated umbilical cord

\\\\ A 31 year-old woman G2P1 at 40 weeks’ gestation has progressed in labor from 4 to 7cm.
cervical dilatation during 2 hours. Which of the following best describes the labor?

\\\ latent phase of the I stage

\\\ Passive phase of the II stage

\\\ Active phase of the II stage

\\ Active phase of the I stage

\\\\ An 18-year-old woman had a yellowish vaginal discharge. On examination, the cervix is
erythematous an the discharge reveals numerous leukocytes. Which of the following is most likely
etiology?
\\\ Neisseria gonorrhea

\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\\ Thrichomona vaginalis

\\\ Ureaplazma species

\\\\ A 34 year-old woman is diagnosed as having a vaginitis based on a “ fishy odor” to her vaginal
discharge and vaginal pruritus. The cervix is normal in appearance. Which of the following most
likely corresponds to the etiology?

\\\ Neisseria gonorrhea

\\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\ Gardnella

\\\ Cytomegalovirus

\\\\ A 28 year-old woman has multiple painful pustules erupting through

out the skin of her body. Which of the following most likely corresponds to the etiology?

\\ Neisseria gonorrhea

\\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\\ Gardnella

\\\ Cytomegalovirus

\\\\ Which of the following maternal cervical infections causes blindness in the newborn?

\\\ Toxoplazmosis

\\ Chlamydia thrachomatis

\\\ Candidosis

\\\ Cytomegalovirus

\\\\ Which of the following is the most accurate method for diagnosing acute salpingitis?
\\\ Clinical criteria

\\\ Sonography

\\\ Computed tomographic scan

\\ Laparascopy

\\\\ Which of the following types of uterine fibroids would most likely lead to recurrent abortion?

\\ Submucosal

\\\ Intramural

\\\ Subserous

\\\ Intraligamental

\\\\ Which of the following is the most coon clinical presentation of uterine leiomyomata?

\\\ Infertility

\\ Menorrhagia

\\\ Pelvic pain

\\\ Recurrent abortion

\\\\ Which of the following is the epithelial cell tumor of the ovary?

\\\ Cystic teratoma

\\ Brenner tumor

\\\ Androblastoma

\\\ Choriocarcinoma

Gynecology:
1. Which of the following is not a symptom of endometrial hyperplasia?

A. Menstrual abnormalities

B. Women age 40-50 years

C. Vaginal bleeding

D. White vaginal discharge

2. Which of the following is the main route of spreading metastasis of endometrial cancer?

A. Hematogenic

B. Lymphogenic

C. Implantational

D. Direct contact

3. Which organ synthesizes gonadotropins?

A. Hypothalamus

B. Anterior hypophysis

C. Posterior hypophysis

D. Ovaries

4. Which of the following is the most common form of endometrial cancer?

A. Endophytic

B. Egsophytic
C. Ulcerative

D. Ulcerative-infiltrative

5. Which of the following is the most common localization of uterine fibroids?

A. Cervix

B. Body

C. Fundus

D. Isthmus

6. Which of the following is the definition of fibroid located between the sheets of broad ligament?

A. Subserosal

B. Interstitial

C. Intraligamentic

D. Submucosal

7. Which of the following hormonal abnormalities is associated with development of uterine fibroids?

A. Excess of FSH

B. Decreased LH

C. Progestin excess

D. Abnormalities of estrogen metabolism


8. What is the name of extremely light menstrual flow?

A. Hypomenorrhea

B. Oligomenorrhea

C. Amenorrhea

D. Opsomenorrhea

9. What is the name of amenorrhea during lactation?

A. False amenorrhea

B. Psychogenic amenorrhea

C. Physiologic true amenorrhea

D. Pathologic true amenorrhea

10. Measurement of which of the following hormones can differentiate between ovarian and central
amenorrhea?

A. Progesterone and estrogen

B. FSH and LH

C. FSH and progesterone

D. FSH and estrogen

11. Kariopiknotic index during anovulatory cycle with follicular atresia is:

A. 30-40%

B. 40-50%
C. 20-30%

D. 60-70%

12. Hyper production of which of the following hormones causes amenorrhea in Cushing’s disease?

A. ACTH

B. FSH

C. Somatotropic

D. LH

13. When metastases are spread on parametrium but not on pelvic walls the stage of cervical cancer is:

A. I Stage

B. II Stage

C. III Stage

D. IV Stage

14. Which of the following describes egsophitic form of cervical cancer?

A. Boiled fish

B. Honeycomb

C. Grapes

D. Cauliflower

15. Which type of epithelium is associated with cervical cancer of pars vaginalis?
A. Stratified squamous

B. Cylindrical

C. Glandular

D. Cuboid

16. Where is located transitional zone between stratified squamous epithelium and cylindrical
epithelium of cervix in women above age 50?

A. External os

B. Mid third of cervical canal

C. Lower third of cervical canal

D. Internal os

17. Which of the following treatment methods are parts of combination therapy of cervical cancer?

A. Surgery and medications

B. Surgery and radiation

C. Radiation and chemotherapy

D. Surgery and hormonal therapy

18. Vulvar leukoplakia and krauroz develops in:

A. Children

B. Puberty

C. Reproductive age
D. Pre and post menopause

19. Which of the following presence of ectopic cylindrical epithelim is called ectropion?

A. Post traumatic

B. Congenital

C. Dishormonal

D. Post erosion

20. The main complication of arenoblastoma is:

A. Precocious puberty

B. Ascites

C. Hydrothorax

D. Virilization

21. Increased amount of B-hCG is associated with:

A. Follicular cyst

B. Theca-lutein cyst

C. Luteinic cyst

D. Dermoid cyst

22. Which of the following ovarian disease are associated with Meigs syndrome?

A. Teratoblasotma
B. Fibroademona

C. Deromid cyst

D. Disgerminoma

23. Which of the following is not a morphological form of pseudoerosion?

A. Glandular

B. Papillary

C. Proliferative

D. Epidermized

Obstetrics:

1. Viable Fetus weighs at least:

A. 500gr

B. 600gr

C. 700gr

D. 800gr

2. Gestational hypertension is when systolic pressure is increased to:

A. 140 mmHg

B. 150 mmHg

C. 110 mmHg
D. 130 mmHg

3. How many phases have eclampsia and which is the most dangerous?

A. 5 phases, dangerous I

B. 3 phases, dangerous II

C. 4 phases, dangerous III

D. 2 phases, dangerous II

4. Which clinical signs can differentiate between eclampsia and epilepsy?

A. Increased body temperature

B. Changes in blood analysis

C. Proteinuria

D. Hypertension

5. II degree laceration injures:

A. Superficial and deep perineal muscles, centrum tendineum

B. Posterior wall of vagina

C. Perineal muscles, vaginal vestibule and spincter is intact

D. Perineal muscles, anal spincter and wall of the rectum

6. Incomplete rupture of uterus demages:


A. Mucus and muscle layers

B. Mucus, muscle and serous layers

C. Fallopian tubes

D. Mucus, muscle and serous layers and frequently ovaries.

7. Rhesus alloimmunization develops when:

A. Mother is rhesus (-) and fetus rhesus (+)

B. Mother is rhesus (-) and was transfused with rhesus (+) blood

C. Mother is rhesus (-) and had abortions

D. All answers are correct

8. Ectopic pregnancy most frequently is localized in:

A. Ovary

B. Fallopian tube

C. Rudimentary horn of uterus

D. Cervix

9. Postdate pregnancy is:

A. 40-41 weeks

B. 41-42 weeks

C. After 42 weeks

D. After 42 weeks with signs of post-maturity


10. The main signs of postdate pregnancy are:

A. Increased abdominal circumference

B. Decreased fundal height

C. Head at pelvic inlet

D. Increased fundal height

11. Ultrasound signs of true postdate pregnancy are:

A. Decreased amniotic index

B. Placental immaturity

C. Ossification of fetal shins

D. Placental thickness more than 4cm

12. The most dangerous placental implantation:

A. Placenta acreta

B. Placenta increta

C. Placenta percreta

D. Placental implantation in additional horn

13. Total placenta previa is implantation in:

A. Lower segment
B. Fully covers internal os

C. One or more cotyledons can be examined at the level of internal os

D. Placental margin can be examined at internal os

14. Which degree is cervical laceration when it is above 2 cm but does not reaches fornices?

A. I degree

B. II degree

C. III degree

D. IV degree

15. Manual removal is performed when:

A. Bleeding in the third period

B. Severe preeclampsia

C. Endometritis during labor

D. Placenta acreta

16. What are the conditions for vacuum extraction?

A. Cervical dilation 6-8 cm

B. Cephalopelvic disproportion, fetal chronic hypoxia

C. Intact fetal membranes, eclampsia

D. No fetal membranes, head presentation, completwe cervical dilation


17. Classical C-section is:

A. Lower longitudinal uterine incision

B. Lower transverse uterine incision

C. Transverse incision in fundal area

D. Longitudinal incision on anterior wall

18. How we should act with secondary weakness in the presence of complete cervical dilation?

A. IV oxytocin or prostaglandin infusion

B. Vacuum extraction

C. Spasmolytics

D. Treatment of intranatal fetal hypoxia

19. What causes loss of coordination of labor?

A. Tumors of uterine myometrium

B. Inflamatory processes

C. Fetal macrosomia

D. Movement of pacemaker vertically lower position

20. Which instruments are applied during curettage of uterine cavity?

A. Abortzang

B. Curette
C. Hegar rods

D. Forceps