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8. A circular running track has six lanes, each


PART A 1 m wide. How far ahead (in metres) should
1. A rectangular photo frame of size 30 cm x 40 the runner in the outermost lane start from,
cm has a photograph mounted at the centre so as to cover the same distance in one lap as
leaving a 5 cm border all around. The area of the runner in the innermost lane?
the border is? a. 6 n
a. 600 cm2 b. 10 n
b. 350 cm2 c. 12 n
c. 400 cm2 d. 36 n
d. 700 cm2
9. In an examination 100 questions of 1 mark
2. At a birthday party, every child gets 2 each are given. After the examination, 20
chocolates, every mother gets 1 chocolate, questions are deleted from evaluation,
while no father gets a chocolate. In total 69 leaving- 80 questions with a total of 100
persons get 70 chocolates. If the number of marks. Student A had answered 4 of the
children is half of the number of mothers and deleted questions correctly and got 40
fathers put together, then how many fathers marks, whereas student B had answered 10
are there? of the deleted questions correctly and got 35
a. 22 marks. In this situation
b. 23 a. A and B were equally benefitted.
c. 24 b. A and B lost equally.
d. 69 c. B lost more than A.
d. A lost more than B.
3. What is the value of:
12 - 22 + 32 - 42 + 52- +172 -182 + 192? 10. A tourist drives 20 km towards east, turns
a. -5 right and drives 6 km, then drives 6 km
b. 12 towards west. He then turns to his left and
c. 95 drives 4 km and finally turns right and drives
d. 190 14 km. Where is he from his starting point?
a. 6 km towards east
4. The curves of y = 2x2 and y = 4x intersect each b. 20 km towards west
other at: c. 14 km towards north
a. only one point. d. 10 km towards south
b. exactly two points.
c. more than two points 11. If 'SELDOON' means 'NOODLES’, then what
d. no point at all. does 'SPUOS' mean?
a. SALAD
5. The diameters of the pinholes of two b. SOUPS
otherwise identical cameras A and B are 500 c. RASAM
gm and 200 gm, respectively. Then the image d. ONION
in camera A will be
a. sharper than in B 12. An ideal pendulum oscillates with angular
b. darker than in B amplitude of 30° from the vertical. If it is
c. less sharp and brighter than in B observed at a random instant of time, it's
d. sharper and brighter than in B angular. Deviation from the vertical is most
likely to be
6. If D = ABC + BCA + CAB where A, B and C are a. 00
decimal digits, then D is divisible by b. ±100
a. 37 and 29 c. ± 200
b. 37 but not 29 d. ± 300
c. 29 but not 37
d. Neither 29 nor 37 13. In the context of tiling a plane surface, which
of the following polygons is the odd one out?
7. For the following set of observed values: a. Equilateral triangle
{60, 65, 65, 70, 70, 70, 70, 82, 85, 90, 95, 95, 100,
b. Square
160, 160},
c. Regular pentagon
Which of the statements is true?
d. Regular hexagon
a. mode < median < mean
b. mode < mean < median
c. mean < median< mode
d. median < mode < mean

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14. Scatter plots for pairs of observations on the 18. Areas of three parts of a rectangle are given
variables x and y in samples A and B are in unit of cm2, what is the total area of the
shown in the figure. rectangle?
3 9
6

a. 18
b. 24
c. 36
Which of the following is suggested by the plots? d. 108
a. Correlation between x and y is stronger
in A than in B. 19. A student is free to choose only Chemistry,
b. Correlation between x and y is absent in only Biology or both. If out of 32 students,
B. Chemistry has been chosen by 16 and
c. Correlation between x and y is weaker in Biology by 25, then how many students have
A than in B chosen Biology but not Chemistry?
d. y and x have a cause - effect relationship a. 9
in A, but not in B b. 16
c. 25
15. Two solutions X and Y containing ingredients d. 7
A, B and C in proportions a:b:c and c:b:a,
respectively, are mixed. For the resultant 20. The lift (upward force due to air) generated
mixture to have A, B and C in equal by the wings and engines of an aircraft is
proportion, it is necessary that: a. Positive (upwards) while landing and
𝒄−𝒂 negative (downwards) while taking off.
a. b= b. Negative (downwards) while landing
𝟐
𝒂+𝒃 and positive (upwards) while taking
b. c= off.
𝟐
𝒂−𝒃 c. Negative (downwards) while landing
c. c= as well as while taking off.
𝟐
𝒄+𝒂 d. Positive (upwards) while landing as
d. b= well as while taking off.
𝟐

16. Find the missing figure in the following


sequence?

17. In triangle ABC, AB= 11, BC= 61, AC= 60, and
O is the mid-point of BC. Then AO is

a. 18.5
b. 24.0
c. 30.5
d. 36.0

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PART B 25. If one of the two fatty acyl chains is removed


from the phosphoglyceride by hydrolysis in
21. Which one of the following statements is solution, such phospholipids will form:
true? a. liposomes
a. The specific rotation of enantiomers b. micelles
will be identical. c. phospholipid bilayer
b. The rate constant of a first order d. symmetric phospholipid bilayer
reaction has only time but no
concentration units. 26. In metazoan cell cycle, metaphase to
c. The value of pH + pOH depends on anaphase transition is regulated by the
temperature. activity of:
d. The bond disassociation energy a. Cdkl/cyclinB
(kJ/mol) of -C-C - will be greater than - b. APC/C
C=C-. c. Cdc25
d. Wee1
22. Which one of the following statements on
protein conformation is NOT true? 27. Which one of the following statements is
a. Dihedral angles of side-chains in amino true about human chromosomes?
acids are depicted in the a. The chromosomes that have highest
Ramachandran plot. gene density generally localize towards
b. Infrared spectroscopy can be used to the centre of the nucleus.
deduce hydrogen bonding in peptides. b. The chromosomes that have highest
c. Three dimensional structures of gene- density generally localize near
protein composed of 100 amino acids the nuclear periphery to facilitate rapid
can be obtained by nuclear magnetic transport of the nascent transcripts.
resonance spectroscopy c. The centromeres of different
d. Globular proteins have a-helical and 0- chromosomes tend to cluster together
sheet components at the centre of the nucleus.
d. Chromosomal positioning in the
23. Choose the correct answer from the nucleus is absolutely random
following statements on biosynthesis.
a. In the biosynthesis of palmitate, all the 28. Which one of the following activities is NOT
carbon atoms are derived from involved in protein folding in the
activated malonate. endoplasmic reticulum?
b. The amino acids Met, Thr, Lys, Ile, Val a. Peptidyl prolyl isomerase
and Leu are biosynthesized from b. Protein disulphide isomerase
oxaloacetate and pyruvate in most c. Protein glycosylation
bacteria. d. Protein ubiquitination
c. Alanine is a major precursor for the
biosynthesis of porphyrin. 29. Which one of the following statements is
d. Tryptophan is converted to L-DOPA in NOT correct?
the biosynthesis of epinephrine. a. Together with proteins, rRNA provides
a site for polypeptide synthesis.
24. Which one of the following statements on b. All DNA molecules are unbranched
nucleic acids is NOT true? polymers of nucleotides.
a. The conformation of ribose in DNA is a- c. DNA is synthesized in a 5'- 3' direction
2'-deoxy-D- ribofuranose. while RNA synthesis occurs in a 3'- 5'
b. Hydrolysis of RNA takes place under direction.
alkaline conditions unlike DNA, as the d. A tRNA anticodon may pair with more
2'-hydroxyl in RNA acts as a than one codon.
nucleophile in an intramolecular
displacement 30. What would be the tripeptide produced by
c. DNA can occur in different three- translation of the transcript produced by the
dimensional forms. following DNA sequence?
d. In DNA, deamination of cytosine to 3'-AAGTA CTCT-5'
uracil can occur in a non-enzymatic a. Arg- Phe- Trp
manner. b. Arg - Leu - Gly
c. Thr- Lys - Ser
d. Phe - Met – Arg

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31. Which one of the following statements is 36. Membrane-bound, Golgi-derived structures
generally true about RNA polymerase II? containing proteolytic enzymes in sperms of
a. It is dedicated to transcribing RNA sea urchin are called
from a single transcription unit, a. cortical granules
generally a large transcript- which is b. micromeres
then processed to yield three types of c. acrosomal vesicles
ribosomal RNA. d. macromeres
b. It transcribes varieties of small non-
coding RNAs which are expressed in all 37. In case of Hydra, the major head inducer of
cell types. the hypostome organizer is a set of Wnt
c. It generally synthesizes various types proteins acting through the canonical 0-
of mRNAs and small non-coding RNAs. catenin pathway. What would be the result,
d. It is exclusively involved in synthesis of if a transgenic Hydra is made to globally
rRNA and tRNA. mis-express the downstream Wnt effector 0-
32. Viruses adopt different strategies to catenin?
suppress immune response of the host. a. Ectopic buds will be formed all along
Which one of the following statements is the body axis and even on the top of the
NOT correct? newly formed buds.
a. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) b. Ectopic tentacles form at all levels.
destroys CD4+T cells. c. Both ectopic tentacles and buds would
b. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) produces a be formed along the body axis.
homolog of human IL- 10. d. There would be no change observe
c. Human influenza virus directly infects
CD8+ T cells. 38. Both TGF 0 and Sonic hedgehog signals play
d. Human Cytomegalo Virus (CMV) important roles in both neurulation and
establishes latent- infection in bone cell-fate patterning of the neural tube.
marrow stem cells Which one of the following statements is
true?
33. Which one of the following inactivates the a. High levels of BMP specify the cells to
serine/threonine protein kinase, mTOR, become epidermis.
related to cell growth in mammalian b. Very low levels of BMP specify the cells
system? to become epidermis.
a. Rifamycin c. High levels of BMP specify the cells to
b. Rapamycin become neural plate.
c. Erythromycin d. Intermediate levels of BMP do not
d. Chloramphenicol effect the formation of neural crest
cells.
34. Match the following tumor cell origin with
their nomenclature. 39. In which stage of Arabidopsis
embryogenesis is hypophysis first observed?
a. Octant
b. Dermatogen
c. Globular
d. Transition

40. Which one of the following mineral


deficiency will first be visible in younger
a. A - a, B - c, C - d, D - b leaves?
b. A - d, B - a, C - b, D - c a. Calcium
c. A - c, B - b, C - d, D - a b. Nitrogen
d. A - b, B - d, C - a, D – c c. Zinc
d. Molybdenum
35. Many cytotoxic T lymphocytes initiate 41. The CO2 compensation point for C3 plants is
killing of target cells via delivery of greater than C4 plants because in C3 plants
molecules that could induce target-cell a. dark respiration is higher
damage directly. Which one of the following b. dark respiration is lower
is the most appropriate? c. photorespiration is present
a. Interferon Y d. photorespiration is absent
b. Peroxynitrite
c. Lysozyme
d. Granzyme

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42. Which one of the following best describes What is the probability that individual '6' is a
the function of Casparian bands during the heterozygote?
translocation of nutrients and water across a. 1/4
the root? b. 1/2
a. Block apoplastic nutrient transport c. 2/3
b. Block symplastic nutrient transport d. 1/3
c. Act as a nutrient carrier
d. Help in creating passage cells 49. The allele I in Drosophila is recessive, sex-
linked and lethal' when homozygous or
43. Which one of the following components is hemizygous. If a female of the genotype LI is
expected to be most abundant in the phloem crossed with a male, what is the ratio of
sap of a plant? females : males in the progeny?
a. Proteins a. 3 female: 1 male
b. Organic acids b. 2 female: 1 male
c. Sugars c. 1 female: 1 male
d. Phosphates d. 1 female: 2 male

44. Which one of the following is NOT secreted 50. Deamination of bases is a common chemical
by capillary endothelium? event that produces spontaneous mutation.
a. Prostacyclin Which one of the following bases will be
b. Guanosine formed by deamination of 5-
c. Endothelin methylcytosine?
d. Nitric oxide a. Uracil
b. Thymine
45. The "Mayer waves" in the blood pressure c. Cytosine
originate due to d. Guanine
a. systole and diastole of ventricle
b. inspiration and expiration 51. In a- population of 2000 individuals of a
c. reflex oscillation of neural pressure plant species, genetic difference at a single
control mechanisms locus leads to different flower colours. The
d. Bainbridge reflex alleles are incompletely dominant. The
population has 100 individuals with the
46. The maturation of red blood cells does not genotype rr (white flowers), 800 individuals
depend on with the genotype Rr (pink flower) and the
a. folic acid remaining have. genotype RR (red flowers ).
b. vitamin B12 What is the frequency of the r allele in the
c. pyridoxine population?
d. tocopherol a. 0.25
b. 0.50
47. Which one of the following is NOT a function c. 0.75
of angiotensin II? d. 1.00
a. Facilitates the release of
norepinephrine from post¬ganglionic 52. Which of the following plastid coding
sympathetic neurons region(s) have been recommended as a core
b. Increases the sensitivity of baroreflex barcode by Plant Working Group of the
by acting on brain consortium for the Barcode of Life?
c. Produces arteriolar contraction a. CO1 and rbcL
d. Increases the secretion of vasopressin b. rbcL and matK
c. CO1 and matK
48. The pedigree below represents the d. rbcL only
inheritance of an autosomal recessive trait.

P.T.O

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53. Given below are some statements related to 58. A population grows according to the logistic
lower eumetazoans. Select the INCORRECT growth equation,
statement.
a. Ctenophores are diploblastic with
radial symmetry.
b. Placozoans, with weakly differentiated Where, dN/dt is the rate of population
tissue layers, are not diploblasts. growth, r is the intrinsic rate of increase, N is
c. Cnidarians are diploblastic with population size and K is the carrying
typically two stages in their life cycle 'capacity of the environment. According to
d. Hydrozoans, a Cnidarian class, often this equation, population growth rate is
have colonial polyps in their life cycle. maximum at
a. K/4
54. Based on the type of excretion of b. K/2
nitrogenous waste, animals can be c. K
categorized as ammonotelic, ureotelic and d. 2K
uricotelic. Given below are combinations of
groups of organisms and type of excretion. 59. What is the significance of upwelling zone
Select the correct combination. for marine ecosystems?
a. Poriferans, adult amphibians, a. It is responsible for uniformity of
cartilaginous fishes are ammonotelic. temperature in ocean to support the
b. Ascaris, cockroaches, prawn are marine life.
uricotelic. b. It brings nutrients from deeper zones
c. Paramecium, amphibian tadpoles, to relatively nutrient poor ocean
crocodiles are mainly ammonotelic. surface thus increasing marine
d. Humans, sharks and aquatic anurans productivity.
are ureotelic. c. It is responsible for uniform
oxygenation of marine waters thus
55. Basal angiosperms are NOT represented by increasing marine productivity.
the members of: d. It helps in circulating decomposers
a. Chloranthales from the bottom of ocean to surface for
b. Nymphaeales proper decomposition of dead material
c. Austrobaileyales on the surface.
d. Amborellales
60. Given below in Column A are schematic
56. Which of the following is the correct representations of three types of pairwise
increasing order for the daily net primary species interactions and the name of some
productivity (NPP) per unit leaf area in interactions are in Column B
different ecosystems?
a. Deserts < Temperate forests < Tropical
forests
b. Deserts < Tropical forests < Temperate
forests
c. Temperate forests< Tropical forests<
Deserts
d. Tropical forests < Temperate forests <
Deserts

57. The equilibrium model of island


biogeography proposed by MacArthur and
Wilson assumes that the number of species Select the best match for interaction
on an island represents a balance between between column A & B in each schematic
a. resource consumption rate and a. A - (iii); B - (ii); C - (iv)
predation rate. b. A -(iv); B -(ii); C - (iii)
b. birth rate and death rate. c. A - (ii); B -(iv); C -(i)
c. colonization rate and extinction rate. d. A - (iii); B - (i); C - (ii)
d. speciation rate and hybridization rate

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61. Consider a single locus with 2 alleles which challenges of storage and
are at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the transportation.
frequency of one of the homozygous d. DNA vaccine construct can be
genotypes is 0.64, what is the frequency of engineered to carry several antigens to
heterozygotes in the population? infect host and replicate in neuronal
a. 0.16 cells.
b. 0.20
c. 0.32 66. The following cassette was designed to
d. 0.36 create estrogen receptor knock-out mice:

62. Competition for mates and variance in fitness


is higher among females than among males in
which of the following animal mating
systems? SoH: site of homology; Gol: gene of interest
a. Monogamy
b. Polygyny What would ensure that proper combination
c. Polyandry has taken place?
d. Sequential monogamy
a. Cells survive when cultured in
63. Which one of the following will have the presence of only G418
least impact on allele frequencies in small b. Cells survive when cultured in
populations? presence of G418 followed by
a. Inbreeding ganciclovir
b. Random mating c. Cells die when cultured in presence of
c. Genetic drift G418
d. Outbreeding d. Cells survive when cultured with G418
and die when cultured with ganciclovir
64. Given below is a marker profile for two
parental lines (Pi and P2) and their derived 67. Detergents at low concentration generally
Fi progeny: do not denature proteins and are thus used
The marker that is represented in the above for extracting proteins in their folded and
figure is most likely to be active form. For isolation of Porins, an E. coli
membrane protein, which one of the
following purification approaches will be
most appropriate?

a. Use of low concentration of non-ionic


detergent without salt.
b. Use of low concentration of ionic
detergent.
a. RFLP or SSR c. Use of salt solution containing non-
b. SSR only ionic detergent.
c. SSR or RAPD d. Use of salt solution containing ionic
d. RAPD only detergent.

65. DNA vaccines offer several advantages over 68. Choose the correct answer from the
other existing vaccine approaches. Which statements indicated below:
one of the following statements related to a. Chi square test is parametric.
DNA vaccine is NOT correct? b. Non-parametric test assumes normal
distribution.
a. The immune response is directed to the c. Results can be significantly affected by
antigen encoded by the DNA and able outliers in a parametric test.
to induce both humoral and cell- d. Non-parametric test is more powerful
mediated immunity. as compared to parametric test.
b. DNA vaccine can induce prolonged
expression of the antigen, enhancing
the induction of immunological
memory
c. DNA vaccine could remain stable and
potent for long time without
refrigeration, eliminating the P.T.O

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69. Which one of the following statements PART C


regarding restriction/modifying enzymes
used in recombinant. DNA technology is 71. Following are statements on p-turns:
correct? A. All the 20 coded amino acids have equal
a. Endonucleases remove nucleotides, propensity to form p -turns.
one at a time, from the ends of a B. Pro cannot occur in p-turns.
sequence. C. Pro-Gly sequence strongly favours p-
b. Type II class of restriction enzymes do turns.
not recognise palindromic sequences. D. In Asn-Gly p-turns, Asn can have positive
c. Mung bean nuclease acts on double 9, V values.
stranded DNA or RNA termini. Choose the combination with all correct
d. Type II class of restriction enzymes can statements
generate either "sticky" (staggered) or a. B, D
"blunt" ends b. A, C
c. A, D
70. Which one of the following is used as a d. C, D
source of excitation in a confocal
microscope? 72. DNA melting temperature (Tm) was found to
a. Lasers be 47°C and enthalpy measured at Tm was
b. Electron beam 0.032 kJ. The entropy change would be:
c. Mercury lamp a. 1 x 10-3 kj
d. Masers b. 1 x 10-4 kJ
c. 3 x 10-2 kj
d. 6 X 10-2 Kj

73. Match the following bonds with their


approximate energies:

a. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), ( c)-(ii), ( d)-(i)


b. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)- (iv)
c. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)- (iii)
d. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

74. The following are some statements


regarding glycolysis:
A. Glycolysis is not regulated by
pyruvate kinase.
B. Lactate can be an end product of
glycolysis.
C. Glycolysis cannot function
anaerobically.
D. In erythrocytes, the second site in
glycolysis for ATP generation can be
bypassed.
From the above, choose the combination
with both INCORRECT statements:
a. A and B
b. B and D
c. C and D
d. A and C

P.T.O

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75. For a reversible non-competitive inhibition C. Upon fusion of a G1 cell with G2 cell,
of an enzyme, choose- the plot that you G1 nucleus enters G2 phase.
would use to determine Km: D. Fusion of an S phase cell with a M
phase causes the S phase cell to
immediately enter mitosis.
Choose the combination with all correct
statements.
a. A, B, C
b. A, C, D
c. B, C, D
d. A, B, D

78. In an experiment, intact chromatin was


isolated and digested with micrococcal
nuclease in independent tubes for 30 min, 1
h, 2h, and 4h. Further, the DNA was purified
from each tube, separated on agarose gel and
Southern hybridization was performed with
76. An investigator expresses a GFP-fused rRNA gene probe and a centromeric DNA
protein that localizes to the outer membrane probe. Which one of the following patterns of
of Golgi apparatus. Upon visualising GFP signal intensity from both of the probes is
signal in the fluorescence microscope, it was likely to be obtained following Southern
noted that GFP is pericentrosomal in its hybridization?
localization (Fig A). a. With increasing time, compared to
Treatment of such GFP expressing cells with centromeric probe, a rapid increase in
a newly identified drug disrupted the Golgi signal intensity of rRNA gene probe
into small vesicles (Fig B). Following is a list was observed.
of potential targets of the drug: b. With increasing time, compared to
centromeric probe, a rapid decrease in
signal intensity of rRNA gene probe
was observed.
c. Irrespective of incubation period, both
probes produced identical band
intensities.
d. Treatment with micrococcal nuclease
would instantly degrade the DNA,
hence, no hybridi:zation signal would
be obtained- in any of the samples.

79. Which one of the following proteins is most


A. Dynein complex likely to be found in the inter-membrane
B. Myosin space of mitochondria? A protein containing
C. Microtubules a. an N-terminal matrix targeting
D. Dicer sequence followed by hydrophobic
stop-transfer anchor sequence
Choose the combination with all correct b. an N-terminal matrix targeting
targets: sequence followed by a cleavable
a. A, B and D only hydrophobic sequence that blocks
b. B and D only complete translocation
c. A and C only c. a protein with multiple internal
d. A only sequences that are recognized by Tim
22 complex
77. Following observation was made when a d. a protein with an outer membrane
mammalian cell in one phase of cell cycle localization sequence followed by a
was fused with a cell in another phase of cell matrix targeting signal
cycle:
A. Fusion of a cell in G1 phase with S
phase caused the G1 nucleus to enter
S phase.
B. Upon fusion of a G2 cell with an S
phase cell, G2 cell does not enter S P.T.O
phase.

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83. A DNA segment was cloned into the active site


80. A single protofilament of microtubule grows region of lac Z gene and the recombinant
at the speed of 2 gm/min. Considering that plasmid introduced into lac Z- strain of E. coli
there is no catastrophe in the microtubule and plated on a medium containing X-gal.
nucleation and the size of the tubulin unit is The colonies showed blue color. Which one of
of the order of 5 nm, how many tubulin units the following statements is correct?
are added to the growing microtubule per a. The nature of the cloned DNA segment
minute? need not be special as cloning of any
a. 400 DNA in lac Z will result in disruption of
b. 1600 its reading frame and production of
c. 3200 blue colour on X-gal plates.
d. 5200 b. The cloned DNA segment could be a
Group I intron whose removal from the
81. mRNA of a gene was depleted in human cells precursor lac Z transcript in E. coli
using siRNA that arrest cells in the G2 phase results in production of mature lac Z
of the cell cycle. In order to test whether the mRNA which can then produce active
G2 arrest is due to an off-target or all on- Lac Z protein.
target effect of siRNA mediated mRNA c. The cloned sequence is likely to be lacY
depletion, an investigator can: sequence which is naturally a part of
A. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the lac operon in E. coli.
gene coding for the wild-type mRNA d. The cloned sequence is likely to be an
and protein anti-terminator sequence which allows
B. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the full length transcription of lac Z.
gene that is different in its mRNA
sequence at the siRNA target site but 84. An intron in a yeast reporter gene carries a
encodes for the same protein mutation in the splice site branch point
C. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the (UACUAAC to UACA*AAC). To suppress the
gene that codes for-different mRNA mutation, a library of point mutants of
and protein snRNAs was introduced into the mutant
D. utilize few more siRNAs targeting strain. The suppressor is most likely to have
different regions of the mRNA in a point mutation in:
question a. U1 snRNA
Choose the combination with correct statements: b. U2 snRNA
a. A, B, C only c. RNaseP
b. C and D only d. U6 snRNA
c. B and D only
d. B, C, D only 85. A researcher wanted to identify the
enhancer- sequences of a newly discovered
82. Presence of selenocysteine in proteins in E. gene. Shown below are the relevant regions
coli is a consequence of: of some of the reporter constructs the
a. post-translational modification of researcher designed to identify the
cysteine present in special structural enhancer.
regions of the proteins by SelB and
SelC.
b. post-translational modification of
serine present in special structural
regions of the proteins by SelB and
SelC.
c. aminoacylation of a special tRNA
(tRNASeCys) by serine tRNA
synthetase with serine followed by Which of the above constructs can be used to
further modification of the attached identify the enhancer?
serine to selenocysteine followed by its a. A only
transport to the ribosome by SelB b. B only
d. aminoacylation of a special tRNA c. Both A and C
(tRNASeCyt) by serine tRNAsynthetase d. C only
with selenocysteine followed by its
transport to ribosome by SelB.

P.T.O

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86. In a genetic assay, randomly generated


fragments of yeast DNA were cloned into a
bacterial plasmid containing gene 'X
essential for yeast viability on minimal
media. The recombinant plasmid was used to
transform a yeast strain deficient in
recombination and lacking 'X gene.
Transformants, which survive on minimal
media and form colonies should essentially
have:
a. Yeast centromeric sequence which
ensures integrity of the plasmid after
transformation.
b. Enhancers for the essential gene a. a-W; b-X; c-Y; d-Z
missing in the transformed strain. b. a-X; b-Y; c- Z; d-W
c. A sequence similar to bacterial origin of c. a-Z; b-Y; c-X; d-W
replication d. a-Y; b-W; c- Z; d-X
d. Yeast autonomous replicating
sequence. 89. Bacterial chemotaxis response is mediated
by histidine-kinase-associated receptors that
87. Following statements have been made about activate a two- component signalling
recombination in a diploid organism: pathway which enables chemotaxis
A. Recombination could be identified by receptors to control the flagellar motors.
genotyping parents and offsprings for a When bacteria move towards attractant, they
pair of loci. produce smooth swimming by rotating
B. Recombination frequency does not flagella counter-clockwise, whereas when
exceed 0.5, and therefore, 50cM would bacteria move away from repellent, they
be the maximum distance between two produce increased tumbling by rotating
loci. flagella clockwise.
C. Recombination is a reciprocal process. Which of the following characteristics
However, a non-reciprocal exchange regarding chemotaxis receptor is NOT true?
may cause gene conversion. a. The receptors are dimeric
D. Occasionally non-homologous transmembrane proteins that bind
recombination happens and this specific attractants and repellents on
functions as a source of chromosomal the outside of the plasma membrane.
rearrangement. b. The cytoplasmic tail of the receptor is
stably associated with a histidine kinase
Select the combination with all correct CheAyia an adapter protein CheW.
statements. c. The receptor and its associated proteins
a. A, B, C are all clustered at one end of the cell.
b. A, B, D d. The binding of an attractant increases
c. B, C, D the activity of the receptor whereas
d. A, C, D binding of a repellent decreases the
activity.
88. Bacteria adopt different strategies to evade
host defense mechanisms. From the lists of
various different mechanisms and bacterial
strategies against host defense given below,
select the option representing all correct
pairing.

P.T.O

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90. Following are a list of extracellular matrix 92. Which one of the following statements
proteins (Column A) along with their regarding clonal selection hypothesis is NOT
functional characteristics (Column B): CORRECT?
a. Mature B lymphocytes bear lg
receptors on their cell surface and all
receptors on a single B cell have
variable specificity for antigen.
b. On antigen stimulation, B cell matures,
migrates to lymphoid organs and
replicates. Its clonal descendents bear
the same receptor as parental B cell
and secrete antibodies with identical
specificity. .
c. After immune response, more B cells
bearing receptors will remain in the
host and act as memory cells for
mounting enhanced secondary
response.
d. B cells with receptors for self-antigens
are deleted during embryonic
development.

93. Susceptible individuals were infected with


Which one of the following is the correct pathogen A and pathogen B separately.
match? Pathogen A has a very short incubation
a. A - i; B-iv; C-iii; D-ii period and disease symptoms are already
b. A - ii; B-iii; C-iv; D-i underway by the time memory cells are
c. A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii activated. Pathogen B on the other hand has
d. A- iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii a long incubation period which allows the
memory cells to be activated and respond.
91. A western blot analysis after treating cancer Which one of the following will be the most
cells with a prospective anti-cancer drug is appropriate vaccination strategy against
shown below: both pathogens A and B?
a. Repeated vaccination against both A
and B for maintaining high levels of
neutrallizing antibodies.
b. Repeated vaccination against A and a
single injection of pathogen B vaccine
for maintaining high levels of
neutrallizing antibodies.
c. Single injection of pathogen A vaccine
and repeated vaccination against
pathogen B for maintaining high levels
of neutrallizing antibodies.
d. Single injection of both pathogens A
and B vaccine so that memory cells can
The following assumptions were made: respond by producing high levels of
A. The drug may have arrested the serum antibodies.
growth of cells at the G1 phase.
B. The drug targeted the JAK-STAT 94. Human sperms are allowed to fertilize ova
signalling pathway. having non-functional ovastacin.
C. The drug led to apoptosis of the The following possibilities may be of
cells. significance in the fusion of these gametes:
D. Drug-induced apoptosis was through
the extrinsic or mitochondrial- A. The sperms will not fertilize ova.
independent pathway. B. The sperms will bind and penetrate
Which one of the following combination is the zonapellucida but will not be able
correct? to fuse with ovum membrane.
a. Only B and D C. ZP2 will not be clipped by cortical
b. A, B and C granule protease.
c. Only A and B
d. B, C and D

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D. CD9 protein of egg membrane 97. Given below are some of the statements
microvilli will not be able to interact regarding regeneration:
with sperm membrane proteins in A. The type of regeneration
the absence of ovastacin. characteristic of mammalian liver is
E. Polyspermy may occur frequently. considered as compensatory
regeneration.
Which combination of statements represent the B. Regrowth of hair shaft from follicular
outcome of the above event? cells exemplifies stem cell mediated
a. A and B regeneration.
b. C and E C. Regeneration occurring through the
c. C and D re-patterning of existing tissues with
d. B and C little new growth is known as
morphallaxis.
95. Temporal expression of N-cadherin is D. Adult structures undergoing
extremely important during early dedifferentiation forming a
development of the mammalian embryos. blastema, that then re-differentiates
Accordingly, which one of the following to form the lost structure is called
statements about N-cadherin is true? epimorphosis.
a. Injection of N-cadherin antibodies just Choose the most appropriate combination of
prior to condensation of mesenchymal correct statements:
cells will aid cartilage formation. a. D only
b. Presence of N-cadherin just prior to b. C and D only
condensation will facilitate nodule c. A, B and C only
formation and development of the limb d. A, B, C and D
skeleton.
c. The border between the nervous system 98. Following are certain statements regarding
and skin will form properly only if apomixis in plants:
epidermal cells are experimentally A. Apomixis cannot be used to
made to express N-cadherin. maintain hybrid vigor over many
d. Expression of N-cadherin is redundant generations in plants.
during separation of neural and B. In sporophytic apomixis maternal
epidermal precursor cells. genotype is maintained.
C. There is an event of meiosis during
96. The zygote of C. elegans exhibits rotational gametophytic apomixis and is also
cleavage. When the first two blastomeres referred as apomeiosis.
formed (P1 and AB) are experimentally D. In diplospory, meiosis of the
separated, the following outcomes may be megaspore mother cell is aborted,
possible: resulting in two unreduced spores,
A. The P1 cell in isolation generates all out of which one forms the female
the cells it would normally make, gametophyte.
showing autonomous specification. Which one of the following combinations is
B. The P1 cell in isolation generates all correct?
the cells it would normally make, a. A and B
showing conditional specification. b. A and C
C. The AB cell in isolation generates a c. B and C
small fraction of cell types it would d. B and D
normally make, showing conditional
specification.
D. The AB cell in isolation generates a
small fraction of cell types it would
normally make, showing
autonomous specification.
Which one of the above combination of
statements is true?
a. A and C
b. B and C
c. B and D
d. A and D

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99. The following assumptions were derived 102. Following observations were recorded while
from the above experiment: studying physiological parameters of
A. Medium A contained FGF and PDGF. sorghum and wheat under similar
B. Medium B contained retinoic acid. conditions:
C. Cells cultured in Medium B were A. Sorghum RUBISCO exhibits
determined to become functional relatively higher affinity for CO2
neurons prior to addition of the compared to that of wheat.
medium. B. Light saturation of net
Which one of the following combinations photosynthetic flux is relatively
represents correct statements? lower for sorghum compared to that
a. A and B only of wheat.
b. A, B and C C. Warburg effect is difficult to record
c. B and C only for sorghum and could be said as
d. A and C only "not measurable" whereas it could
be easily recorded for wheat.
100. Following statements were made with D. Temperature optimum for net
respect to symbiotic association of rhizobia photo- synthesis is lower for
with legumes: sorghum compared to that of Wheat.
A. nodD is a regulatory gene. E. 13C/12C ratio of assimilate is
B. Nod factors are lipochitin relatively higher for sorghum
oligosaccharides. compared to that of wheat.
C. Nod factors predominantly have a 1- Which one of the following combination of
4 linked N- acetyl-D-glucosamine the above observation is correct?
backbone. a. Only A, B and C
D. Receptors (or Nod factors are b. Only B, C and E
protein kinases with extracellular c. Only A, B and D
sugar-binding Lys M domain. d. Only A, C and E
Which one of the following combinations
represents all correct statements? 103. Following are certain statements regarding
a. A, B and C respiratory metabolism in plants:
b. A, C and D A. Respiratory quotient during partial
c. B, C and D breakdown of carbohydrate
d. A, B and D (alcoholic fermentation) will be
infinity.
101. A quadratic check of gene combinations and B. Respiratory quotient indirectly
disease reaction types in a host-pathogen provides information about (i)
system where the gene-for-gene concept nature of the substrate used for
operates is represented below: respiration and (ii) the relative rate
of competing respiratory processes.
C. Breakdown of organic acids in
mature fruit will exhibit a
respiratory quotient value of more
than one since organic acids are
relatively oxygen-rich compared to
other common substrates.
The following statements were made about. D. Anabolic metabolism can influence
the above genotypes : respiratory quotient by removing
A. AR genotype had incompatible reduction equivalents for
(resistant) reactions. respiration leading to decrease in
B. Ar genotype had compatible oxygen uptake.
(susceptible) reactions.
C. ar genotype had compatible Which one of the following combination of
(susceptible) reactions. the above statement is correct?
D. aR genotype had incompatible a. Only A
(resistant) reactions. b. Only B and C
c. 3. Only D
Choose the combination with all correct d. A, B, C and D
statements.
a. A, B and D
b. A, B and C
c. B, C and D
d. A, C and D

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104. Sieve elements of phloem conduct sugars A. The speed of conduction in a nerve
and other organic materials throughout the fibre is determined by the plasma
plant. The following statements were made membrane resistance and axial
about characteristics of sieve elements in resistance of axonal cytoplasm.
seed plants: B. The electrical properties of
A. Angiosperms contain sieve plate myelinated and unmyelinated nerve
pores. fibres are not similar.
B. There are no sieve plates in C. The myelin sheath decreases the
gymnosperms. effective membrane resistance.
C. P-protein is present in all eudicots D. The magnitude of an electrotonic
and many monocots. potential decreases more with
D. There is no P-protein in distance along the axon in
angiosperms. myelinated nerve fibres than that of
Which of the following combination is unmyelinated fibres.
correct? E. The voltage-gated Na+ channels are
a. B, C and D highly concentrated at the nodes of
b. A, B and C Ranvier.
c. A, B and D Choose one of the following combinations
d. A, C and D with both INCORRECT statements.
a. A and B
105. The plant hormones, auxins and cytokinins, b. B and C
and their interactions play an important role c. C and D
in regulating apical dominance. The d. D and E
following figure represents an experiment
related to the study of gene interactions that 107. A four-year-old boy was brought to hospital
influence axillary bud outgrowth or for weak bones in spite of sufficient intake of
dormancy. Q, Z and M represent genes calcium in his diet. The attending doctor
involved in phytohormone pathway. examined the functioning of the following
organs:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Lung
D. Pancreas
Which one of the following options
represents a combination of probable
malfunctioning organs?
A. 'X' is an auxin that maintains a. A and B
expression of 'Q' and 'Z' and b. B and C
represses 'M'. c. C and D
B. 'Y' is a cytokinin that promotes d. A and D
axillary bud growth and is induced by
'M'. 108. The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve
C. Decapitation (removal of apex) illustrates the relationship- between pO2 in
activates blood and the number of O2 molecules
D. 'X' is a cytokinin that represses 'M'. bound to haemoglobin. The 'S' shape of the
'X' curve has been explained in the following
Which one of the following options proposed statements:
represents correct statement(s)? A. The quaternary structure of
a. A and C only haemoglobin determines its affinity
b. B and D only to O2.
c. A and B only B. In deoxyhaemoglobin, the globin
d. C only units are tightly bound in a T-
configuration.
C. The interactions between globin
106. The conduction velocity of action potential in subunits are altered when O2 binds
a myelinated nerve fibre was much greater with deoxyhaemoglobin.
than that of an unmyelinated fibre of the D. The affinity to O2 in T-conflguration
same diameter. The following statements of haemoglobin is increased.
were proposed to explain this observation: E. In the relaxed configuration of
haemoglobin, the affinity to O2 is
reduced.

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Choose one of the following combinations 111. A healthy individual was immersed in water
with both INCORRECT statements. up to neck in an upright posture for 3h. The
a. A and B plasma concentration of atrial natriuretic
b. B and C peptide (ANP), renin and aldosterone were
c. C and D measured for 5 h at 1 h intervals including
d. D and E the immersion period. The results are
graphicaly presented below.
109. The changes in left atrial, left ventricular
and aortic pressure in a cardiac cycle are
shown below in the figure

Given below are the events of cardiac cycle


(column A) associated with marked points
(A, B, C, D) in the figure (column B).
Choose the option that matches the events
with marked points in the figure.
a. a- (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
b. a- (i), b- (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii) The results of this experimental condition
c. a - (iv), b - (i), c- (iii), d-(ii) (EC) are explained in the following proposed
d. a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (iv), d - (i) statements which may be correct or
incorrect.
110. A person recovered from a moderate degree A. ANP secretion is proportional to the
of haemorrhagic shock. The participating degree of stretch of atria.
physiological mechanisms in this recovery B. The decreased plasma renin concen-
process are proposed in the following tration in EC is due to increase in
statements. sympathetic activity.
A. The decrease in arterial pressure after C. The decreased aldosterone level in
haemorrhage causes inhibition of EC is the effect of plasma renin level.
sympathetic-vasoconstrictor system. D. The effect of gravity mi the
B. After haemorrhage, the angiotensin II circulation is counteracted in EC.
level in blood is increased which causes E. The central venous pressure is
increased re-absorption of Na+ in renal decreased in EC.
tubules. Choose one of the following combinations
C. The increased secretion of vasopressin with all correct statements.
after haemorrhage increases water a. A,B,C
retention by the kidneys. b. A,C,D
D. After haemorrhage, the reduced c. C,D,E
secretion of epinephrine and nor- d. B,C,D
epinephrine from adrenal medulla
induces decreased peripheral 112. Several mutants (1-4) are isolated, all of
resistance. which require compound E for growth. The
E. In haemorrhage, the central nervous compounds A to D in the biosynthetic
system ischemic response elicits pathway to E are known; but their order in
sympathetic inhibition. the pathway is not known. Each compound is
tested for its ability.to support .the growth of
Choose one of the following combinations each mutant (l-4). In the following table, a
with both the correct statements. plus sign indicates growth and a
a. A and B minus sign indicates no growth.
b. B and C
c. C and D
d. D and E

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114. Polymorphic DNA sequences are used for


molecular identification. Short tandem
repeats (STRs) and Single Nucleotide
Polymorphism (SNPs) are used- as
polymorphic markers.
The table below summarizes the status of
autosomal. SNP, autosomal STR,
What is the order of the compounds (A to E) mitochondrial SNP, Y- linked STR for four
in the pathway individuals related to each other,
a. E -> D -> C -> B -> A representing parents and their two children.
b. A -> C -> D -> B -> E
c. E -> B -> D -> C -> A
d. A -> B -> C -> D -> E

113. Following is the picture of an inversion


heterozygote undergoing a single crossing-
over event

Based on the above data, identify the


individuals representing the two parents.
a. Individuals A and D
b. Individuals A and C
c. Individuals B and C
d. Individuals C and D

115. An autosomal recessive condition affects 1


newborn in 10,000 in a random mating
population without any disruptive acting
force. What is the approximate expected
frequency of carriers in this population?
a. 1 in 1000 newborns
b. 1 in 500 newborns-
c. 1 in 100 newborns
d. 1 in 50 newborns
The following statements are given towards
explaining the consequences at the end of 116. Angelman syndrome (AS) and Prader-Willi
meiosis. Syndrome (PWS) have very distinct
A. The resultant two chromosomes will symptoms.
have deletions and duplications. Factors responsible for the occurrence of
B. A dicentric and an acentric these syndromes are given below:
chromosome will be formed. A. Microdeletion of l 5q 11-13 in
C. The inversion does not allow paternal chromosome.
crossing over to occur, so even if a B. Uniparental disomy of maternal .
crossing over is initiated, it will fail chromosome 15.
to occur. C. Lack of functional maternal copy of ,
D. The crossing over is considered ubiquitin ligase E3A.
suppressed by inversion as the D. Lack of SNURF-Sl'-t'RPN transcript,
acentric chromosome will not which is produced only from
segregate normally. paternal chromosome.
E. All the gametes formed with cross-
over chromatids at the end of E. Deficiencies of small nucleolar RNAs,
meiosis will be non-viable as they which are encoded from the introns
carry large deletion or duplication. of SNURF'-SNRPN transcript from
F. The gametes having non-crossover paternal chromosome.
(parental) chromatid will survive. Which of the following combination of
Which combination of statements is correct? answers is correct for Angelman and Prader-
a. B and E Willi Syndromes
b. A and C a. Pws - A, c, D; AS - B, E
c. B, D and F b. PWS -B only; AS - A, C, D E
d. A, E and F c. PWS - A, B, D, E; AS - C only
d. PWS-A, B; AS-C,D,E

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119. The table given below provides a list of


117. Using interrupted mating, four Hfr strains groups of Arthropods (A-D) and some
were analysed for the sequence in which they features (I -V):
transmitted a number of different genes to a
F- strain. Each Hfr strain was found to
transmit its genes in a unique order as
summarized in the table [Only the
first five genes were scored]

Which one of the following options


represents the correct match between the
arthropod groups with these features?
a. A - (iv) ; B - (iii) ; C - (i) ; D - (v)
b. A - (i) ; B - (iii) ; C - (iv) ; D - (ii)
Which one of the following correctly
c. A- (iii) ; B - (iv) ; C -(ii) ; D - (i)
represents the gene sequence in the original
d. A - (iv) ; B - (iii) ; C - (v) ; D - (ii)
strain from which the Hfr strains were
derived as well as the place of integration and
120. In the following table, a list of threat
polarity of the F plasmid?
categories and animals of India is given in an
alphabetical order

Which of the following options show correct


combination of animals and their threat
category as per Red Data list of IUCN?
a. i - A ; ii - A ; iii - B; iv- C
b. i-A; ii-B; iii-C; iv-A
c. i-B; ii-C; iii-B; iv-A
118. Given below is a list of bacteria either d. i-C; ii-A; iii-a; iv-B
functioning as methanogens or
methanotrophs: 121. Following table shows presence (+) and
A. Methanobacterium sp absence (-) of selected distinguishing
B. Methanococcus sp characters of different plant taxa:
C. Methylomonas sp
D. Methylosinus sp

Which of the following options classifies the


above list correctly?
a. Methanogen - A;
Methanotrophs - B, C, D
b. Methonogens - A, B, C; Based on the above, which of the following
Methanotroph -D shows correct identity of taxa A, B, C and O?
c. Methanogens -A, B; a. A - Homworts; B - Oaks; C - Ferns;
Methanotrophs-C, D D-Pines
d. Methonogens - A, D; b. A - Fems; B - Oaks; C - Hornworts;
Methanotrophs -B, C D-Pines
c. A - Homworts; B - Pines; C - Ferns;
D-Oaks
d. A - Fems; B - Pines; C - Hornworts;
D-Oaks

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122. Following table shows an alphabetical list of


certain domesticated crops and places of
origin:

Based Number of grass species on the above,


which one of the following options represent
the correct match between crops and their
place of origin? Which one of the following inferences can be
a. i-C; ii-D; iii-A; iv-B; v-B drawn from the above experiment?
b. i-B; D; ii-B; iii-A, C; iv-A; v-B a. Grasses in plots with lower species richness
c. i-C; ii-D; iii-C; iv-B; v-C enriched soil nitrogen, thereby increasing
d. i - B; ii- D; iii - C; iv -A, C; v –B the plant cover.
b. Plots with greater species richness showed
123. A list of floral formulae and plant families greater stability and more efficient soil
are given in the following table: nitrogen utilization.
c. Plots with greater species richness utilized
nitrogen more efficiently, but would not
show increased net primary production.
d. No correlation can be drawn between
species richness, community productivity
and nitrogen utilization.

125. Complete the following sentence with the


most appropriate option.
Global analysis of a large number of plant
species traits showed that with increase in
leaf lifespan
Which of the- following options most
appropriately matches given plant families a. specific leaf area increases whereas leaf
with their representative floral formulae nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate
a. i-D; ii-B; iii-A; iv-C decrease.
b. i - D; ii - C; iii - A; iv - B b. specific leaf area, leaf nitrogen and net
c. i - D; ii - C; iii - B; iv - A photosynthesis rate increase.
d. i-A; ii-C; iii-B; iv-D c. specific leaf area, leaf nitrogen and net
photosynthesis rate decrease.
124. Grassland plots with varying number of grass d. specific leaf area decreases whereas
species were cultivated for 10 years. At the leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis
end of the experiment, total plant cover was rate increase.
measured. Soil nitrogen was also measured
to assess its utilization by plants. The
relationships are shown in the following
plots

P.T.O

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126. Forest fragments in an agricultural Which of the following options correctly


landscape can be viewed as islands of habitat represents A, B and C, respectively in the
in an ocean of non-habitat. figure above?
MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography a. perennial herbs, trees and shrubs,
model can be used to predict patterns of annual plants.
species richness in these forest fragments b. annual plants, perennial herbs, trees
which are represented ill the graphs below. and shrubs.
c. annual plants, trees and shrubs,
perennial herbs.
d. trees and shrubs, perennial herbs,
annual plants.

129. Following table shows attributes of selected


species A, B, C and D:

Based on the above information, which of


Which one of the following combinations of the following is most likely to become
the graphs correctly represents predictions invasive if climate matches between its site
from the model? of origin and site of colonization?
a. A and C a. Species A and D
b. A and D b. Species A only
c. B and C c. Species D only
d. B and D d. Species B and C

127. In order to estimate population size of a fish 130. Four drugs (A,B,C,D) were used to disrupt a
species in a lake, a researcher captures 100 biological rhythm in experimental animals.
fish from the lake and marks them with The changes in the pattern of the biological
coloured tags a week later, the researcher rhythm as compared to untreated are shown
return to the lake and catches 150 fish of the below. The solid line represents the
and finds that 25 of them are tagged ones. biological rhythm of the untreated and
Assuming no immigration or emigration broken line represents that of the treated
occurred, the total population size of the fish animals.
species in the lake will be:
a. 17
b. 38
c. 600
d. 86

128. Given below is a graphical representation of


plant life histories based on Grime's model
in which disturbance and competition are
the important factors.

P.T.O

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Which of the following interpretations from 132. An alphabetical list of tropical rainforest
the above experiment is INCORRECT? mammals
a. Drug A can be used to reduce the
period length of the rhythm.
b. Drug B can be used for sustained
lowering of amplitude of the rhythm
without changing its period.
c. Drug C can be used for sustained
lowering of amplitude and period of the
rhythm. Pair the species in the list to demonstrate
d. Drug D can be used to reduce the the concept of convergent evolution
robustness and dampen out the between the two continents.
rhythm. a. i- D; ii- C; iii - A; iv-B
b. i - A; ii - C; iii - D; iv - B
131. The phylogenetic tree below shows c. i - A; ii - B; iii- D; iv: C
evolutionary relationships among 8 species. d. i - D; ii - C; iii - B; iv – A
Males of these species are either blue (b) or
red (r) in colour, the colour being indicated 133. A study tested the importance of learning
next to each species name. mechanisms in the development of
antipredator escape responses in tadpoles of
a frog species. Tadpoles hatched from eggs in
the lab were kept individually either with
predator chemical cues (PRIOR EXPOSURE)
or without predator chemical cues (NAIVE)
for 1 week.
These individuals were tested for their
escape response when exposed to a live
predator. They were tested either alone or
together with 3 older experienced tadpoles.
The graph below shows the escape response
of the test individuals in the four different
treatments.

Based on the principle of parsimony, which


of the following statements best represents,
the evolution of male body colour in this set
of species?
a. The most recent common ancestor of
all 8 species was blue; red evolved
independently 5 times.
b. The most recent common ancestor of Some of the inferences drawn are given
all 8 species was blue; red evolved below:
independently 4 times. A. Prior exposure to predator cues is
c. The most recent common ancestor of necessary for the development of escape
all 8 species was red; blue evolved response.
independently 3 times. B. Prior exposure to predator cues
d. The most recent common ancestor of positively influences the development of
all 8 species was red; blue evolved escape response.
independently 2 times C. The presence of older experienced
individuals is necessary for the
development of escape response.
D. The presence of older experienced
individuals positively influences the
development of escape response.
E. An individual with prior exposure and
with older and experienced individuals
showed the strongest escape response.

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Which one of the following combination of 137. Monoclonal antibodies can be modified for
statements represents the correct inference better research and therapeutic applications
from the experiment? Several such approaches are mentioned
a. A and C below (Column A) along with their possible
b. B and D applications (Column B).
c. A and D
d. A, C and E

134. Beak shape in birds has evolved in response


to their diet.
The table listing bird species and food type
is given below:

Match the bird species shown above to their


main food resource.
a. i-D; ii-A; iii-C; iv-B
Which one of the following options
b. i-B; ii-D; iii-A; iv-C
represents a correct combination of terms in
c. i-C; ii-B; iii-D; iv-A
Column A and Column B?
d. i-B; -ii-A; iii-D; iv-C
a. i-a; ii-b; iii-c
b. i-b; ii-a; iii-c
135. Given below are four statements related to
c. i-c; ii-b; iii-a
Agrobacterium-mediated transfer of T-DNA
d. i-b; ii-c; iii-a
into plant cells:
A. Production of single-stranded T-DNA
138. Given below is a table comprising various
by VirD1 and VirD2 proteins.
terms associated with plant tissue culture in
B. Interaction of VirE2 with VIP1 and
Column A and Column B.
VirE3.
C. Use of VirB/VirD4 type IV secretion
system.
D. Activation of VirA-VirG complex.
The correct sequence of events (from
earliest to latest) is:
a. A-B-D-C
b. B-C-A-D Which one of the following options
c. C-A-B-D represents the most appropriate match
d. D-A-C-B between all the terms of Column A and
Column B?
136. Construction of knockout mice may be a. A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii
performed using the Cre-LoxP system. b. A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
Eventually, the Cre recombinase of the c. A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii
bacteriophage P1 mediates site- specific d. A-iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii
recombination at a 34 bp sequence, lox P.
From the following statements, choose the 139. In an attempt to increase the yield of a
INCORRECT event: commercially important enzyme from
a. The alteration of the chromosomal natural isolate several strategies were
copy of the target gene requires a guide adopted as follows:
RNA. A. Genome was selectively modified to
b. The loxP containing mice should not increase yield.
express Cre recombinase prior to B. Reappraisal of culture requirements
mating. of the modified organism to increase
c. The Cre recombinase can be expressed yield.
by an inducible promoter. C. Induced mutants were screened and
d. Induction of the promoter results in the selected for organism synthesizing
expression of Cre, recombination at lox improved levels of the enzyme.
P sites and excision of the sequence in D. Organism was genetically modified,
between. so that it produces a factor that
enhances stability of the enzyme.

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Which one of the following options 142. The most important property of any
represents strategies that are appropriate microscope is its resolution (D).
for the purpose? Which one of the following wavelengths
a. 1. A, B, C and D (nm) would be used to achieve the best
b. B and C only resolution using a light microscope with
c. A, C and D only lenses having numerical aperture (NA) of
d. A and B only 1.4?
a. 450
140. Given below are names of techniques b. 480
(Column A) and their characteristic c. 560
features/applications (Column B) d. 700

143. Detailed NMR spectra of a 20-residue


peptide were recorded using a 600 MHz
instrument.
If the peptide adopts an a helical
conformation, which one of the following
statements is correct?
a. Prominent NHi - NHi+1 NOE peaks
would be observed along with 3JNH - HA
coupling constants 8.5 Hz
b. Prominent CaHi - NHi+1 NOE peaks
Which one of the following represents a would be observed along with 3JNH - HA
correct match between Column A and coupling constants 4.8 Hz
Column B: c. Prominent CaHi - NHi+1 NOE peaks with
3JNH- HA coupling constants 8.5 Hz
a. A - (ii) ; B - (iii) ; C - (iv) ; D - (i)
b. A - (iii) ; B - (iv) ; C - (i) ; D - (ii) d. Prominent NHi - NHi+1 NOE peaks along
c. A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii) with 3JNH - HA coupling constants 4.8Hz
d. A - (ii) ; B - (iv) ; C - (i) ; D - (iii)

141. Three proteins Blm 1, Blm 2, Blm 3 were 144. Given below are names of statistical
shown to be involved in repair of DNA distribution (Column I) and their
double strand breaks. A chromatin characteristic features (Column II)
immunoprecipitation experiment was
performed for the three proteins.

The pattern of results obtained is shown


below:

Which one of the following represents a


correct match between columns I and II?
a. A - (ii) ; B - (i) ; C - (iii)
b. A - (i) ; B - (ii) ; C - (iii)
c. A - (i); B - (iii) ; C - (ii)
d. A - (iii) ; B - (ii); C - (i)

Based on the above figure, choose the option 145. Highly purified peptides Pl, P2 and P3 were
that correctly interprets the data. subjected to MALDI mass spectral analysis.
a. Blm 1, Blm 2, Blm 3 bind to DNA break The following observations were made:
sites P1: Showed a m/z of 16 more than the
b. Blm 1 binds to the break site; Blm 3 expected value.
binds to the break site and beyond P2: Showed a m/z of 80 more than the
c. Blm 2 remains bound to DNA after the expected value. MS/MS spectra of the peptide
break is induced resulted in a precursor ion with m/z 98 less
d. Blm 3 binds to DNA irrespective of the than the expected m/z
break P3: Showed a m/z that was double the
expected value. [Note: z = + 1 for all the mass
spectra.]

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Which one of the options given below


comprises all correct interpretations?
a. P1: Cys is oxidized; P2: has undergone
oxidation at multiple Met residues; P3:
is a non-covalent dimer.
b. P1; Met is oxidized; P2: is
phosphorylated; P3: is a covalent
dimer.
c. P1: Met is oxidized; P2: multiple Cys
are oxidized; P3 is a covalent dimer.
d. P1: Cys is oxidized; P2: phosphorylated
and oxidized at Met; P3: is a
noncovalent dimer

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