It Q&a

IT LDCE2015
1.CLOUD COMPUTING&WWW
1.
What is not true in relation to cloud computing?
a It relies on sharing of resources over a network to achieve coherence and economies of scale
b It provides computing and storage capacity to heterogeneous set of users
c Publicly available Web search engines that process the same data for every visitor are examples of cloud
computing
d Cloud based applications can be accessed through a web browser or a light weight desktop or mobile app
Explanation:
Subject: Uncategorized
Correct Answer: c Comment · 0 ·
2.
What is Cloud cartography?
a It is a scheme for pinpointing the physical locations of Web servers hosted on a third-party cloud computing
service
b It is the name of the service provided by Amazon on cloud
c It is a schema used by Microsoft for its Windows OS on cloud
d It is mechanism to corrupt the data residing on web servers on cloud
Explanation:
Cloud cartography refers to figuring out the physical locations of hardware installations used by cloud
computing service providers. Mapping a service provider’s hardware can help identify the most likely locations
for a virtual machine, or help viewers to generally understand where the service provider deploys hardware.
Correct Answer: a Comment · 0 ·
3.
Windows Azure is
a An upgrade to Microsoft XP OS
b Microsoft's operating system for large corporations
c Microsoft's operating system for cloud computing
d Microsoft's office suite for cloud computing
Explanation:
Microsoft Azure is a cloud computing platform and infrastructure, created by Microsoft, for building, deploying
and managing applications and services through a global network of Microsoft-managed datacenters. It
provides both PaaS and IaaS services and supports many different programming languages, tools and
frameworks, including both Microsoft-specific and third-party software and systems
4.
Which of the following service models is not offered by cloud computing?
a Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

b Platform as a service (PaaS)
c Software as a service (SaaS)
d Manpower as a service (MaaS)
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (Iaas) is a provision model in which an organization outsources the equipment used
to support operations, including storage, hardware, servers and networking components. The service provider
owns the equipment and is responsible for housing, running and maintaining it. The client typically pays on a
per-use basis.
Characteristics and components of IaaS include:
Utility computing service and billing model.

Automation of administrative tasks.
Dynamic scaling.
Desktop virtualization.
Policy-based services.
Internet connectivity.
Platform as a service (PaaS) is a category of cloud computing services that provides a computing platform and
a solution stack as a service.Along with software as a service (SaaS) and infrastructure as a service (IaaS), it is
a service model of cloud computing. In this model, the consumer creates an application or service using tools
and/or libraries from the provider. The consumer also controls software deployment and configuration settings.
The provider provides the networks, servers, storage, and other services that are required to host the
consumer's application
Software as a service is a software licensing and delivery model in which software is licensed on a subscription
basis and is centrally hosted.It is sometimes referred to as "on-demand software".SaaS is typically accessed by
users using a thin client via a web browser. SaaS has become a common delivery model for many business
applications, including office & messaging software, payroll processing software, DBMS software, management
software, CAD software, development software, gamification, virtualization,accounting, collaboration, customer
relationship management (CRM), management information systems (MIS), enterprise resource planning (ERP),
invoicing, human resource management (HRM), content management (CM) and service desk
management.SaaS has been incorporated into the strategy of all leading enterprise software companies. One
of the biggest selling points for these companies is the potential to reduce IT support costs by outsourcing
hardware and software maintenance and support to the SaaS provider.
Correct Answer: d Comment · 0 ·
5.
Which of these should a company consider before implementing cloud computing technology?
a Employee satisfaction
b Potential cost reduction
c Information sensitivity
d All of the above
Explanation:
6.
What is Amazon S3?
a Amazon Simple Storage Service

b Online backup and archiving Service
c Both A and B above
d None of the above
Explanation:
Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) is storage for the Internet. You can use Amazon S3 to store and
retrieve any amount of data at any time, from anywhere on the web. You can accomplish these tasks using the
simple and intuitive web interface of the AWS Management Console.
7.
Cloud Computing has below layers
a User, Software, Platform, Infrastructure, Server

b Client, Application, Platform, Infrastructure, Server
c Software, Application, Platform, Infrastructure, Server
d None of the above
Explanation:
Correct Answer: b Comment · 0 ·
8.
What is the number one concern about cloud computing?
a Too expensive
b Security concerns
c Too many platforms
d Accessability
Explanation:
9.
What is Amazon EC2?
a It is Web-based service where subscriber can run their applications in Amazon computing environment
b It is Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
c It enables you to increase or decrease computing capacity based on your requirements
d All of the above
Explanation:
Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) is a web service that provides resizable compute capacity in
the cloud. It is designed to make web-scale cloud computing easier for developers.
Amazon EC2’s simple web service interface allows you to obtain and configure capacity with minimal friction. It
provides you with complete control of your computing resources and lets you run on Amazon’s proven
computing environment. Amazon EC2 reduces the time required to obtain and boot new server instances to
minutes, allowing you to quickly scale capacity, both up and down, as your computing requirements change.
Amazon EC2 changes the economics of computing by allowing you to pay only for capacity that you actually
use. Amazon EC2 provides developers the tools to build failure resilient applications and isolate themselves
from common failure scenarios.
10.
What is not true about Private cloud?
a It can not be managed by third party and has to be managed internally only
b It is cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization
c It could be managed by a third-party and hosted internally or externally
d It provides hosted services to a limited number of people behind a firewall
Explanation:
11.
Which of the following statement is not correct about Hybrid Cloud?
a It is a composition of two or more clouds (private, community or public)

b There must be one private and one public/community cloud in it
c It exposes mission-critical applications and data to third-party vulnerabilities
d It provides scalability and cost-effectiveness
Explanation:
12.
What is Eucalyptus in Cloud Computing terminology?
a It is a software platform for the implementation of private cloud computing on computer clusters
b It is an acronym for “Elastic Utility Computing Architecture for Linking Your Programs To Useful Systems”
c It was the first open-source, AWS API-compatible platform for deploying private clouds
d All of the above
Explanation:
13.
What is not correct about Hyper-V Cloud?
a It is launched by Microsoft
b It is launched by Amazon
c It virtualize existing server hardware assets and move them to a private or public cloud
d It provides customers with virtualization and virtualization management software
Explanation:
14.
Which of the following characteristics is not exhibited by Cloud computing?
a Agility
b Device and location independence
c Multitenancy
d Higher cost
Explanation:
15.
Rackspace Cloud is an example of
a Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

b Platform as a service (PaaS)
c Software as a service (SaaS)
d None of the above
Explanation:
16.
Which of the following is true of cloud computing?
a It's always going to be less expensive and more secure than local computing.
b You can access your data from any computer in the world, as long as you have an Internet connection.
c Only a few small companies are investing in the technology, making it a risky venture.
Explanation:
17.
What is private cloud?
a A standard cloud service offered via the Internet

b A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.
c A cloud service inaccessible to anyone but the cultural elite
Explanation:
18.
Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing distribution model?
a Software as a Service (SAAS)

b Platform as a Service (PAAS)
c Infrastructure as a Service (IAAS)
Explanation:
19.
Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.
a True
b False
Explanation:
20.
What is Cloud Foundry?
a A factory that produces cloud components

b An industry wide PaaS initiative
c VMware-led open source PaaS.
Explanation:
21.
This is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made
available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.
a Platform as a Service (PaaS)

b Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
c Software as a Service (SaaS).
Explanation:
22.
What is the name of the organization helping to foster security standards for cloud computing?
a Cloud Security Standards Working.

b Cloud Security Alliance.
c Cloud Security WatchDog.
d Security in the Cloud Alliance
Explanation:
23.
"Cloud" in cloud computing represents what?
a Wireless
b Hard drives
c People
d Internet
Explanation:
24.
What is Cloud Computing replacing?
a Corporate data centers

b Expensive personal computer hardware
c Expensive software upgrades
d All of the above
Explanation:
25.
Which one of these is not a cloud computing pricing model?
a Free
b Pay Per Use
c Ladder
d Subscription
Explanation:
26.
Which is the best search tool for finding Web sites that have been handpicked and recommended by someone
else?
a subject directories
b search engines
c meta-search engines
d discussion groups
Explanation:
27.
The Internet was originally developed by whom?
a computer hackers
b a corporation
c the U.S. Department of Defense
d the University of Michigan
Explanation:
28.
Which description does NOT apply to the Internet?
a an interconnected system of networks that allows for communication through e-mail, LISTSERVS, and the
World Wide Web
b a public network neither owned nor run by any one group or individual
c a vast network that connects millions of computers around the world
d a catalog of information organized and fact-checked by a governing body
Explanation:
29.
Which one of the following is a search engine?
a Macromedia Flash
b Google
c Netscape
d Librarians’ Index to the Internet
Explanation:
30.
An Internet connection is necessary for cloud computing interaction.
a True
b False
Explanation:
31.
What is a URL?
a a computer software program
b a type of UFO
c the address of a document or "page" on the World Wide Web
d an acronym for Unlimited Resources for Learning
Explanation:
32.
Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud computing?
a Google
b Blackboard
c Amazon
d Microsoft
Explanation:
33.
Which of the following is a true statement about the Internet and the library?
a They both have an expert librarian or specialist to answer your questions.

b They both provide up-to-the-minute news and information.
c They both close after hours.
d They both provide access to newspapers, magazines, and journals.
Explanation:
34.
HTML is used to
a Plot complicated graphs

b Solve equations
c Translate one language into another
d Author webpages
Explanation:
35.
The "http" you type at the beginning of any site's address stands for
a Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

b HTML Transfer Technology Process
c Hyperspace Techniques and Technology Progress
d Hyperspace Terms and Technology Protocol
Explanation:
36.
ISP stands for
a Internet Service Provider
b Integrated Service Provider
c Internet Security Protocol
d Internet Survey Period
Explanation:
37.
Opera is a
a News Reader
b Graphing Package
c Any person browsing the net
d Web Browser
Explanation:
38.
Modem stands for
a Modulator Demodulator
b Memory Demagnetization
c Monetary Devaluation Exchange Mechanism
d Monetary Demarcation
Explanation:
39.
The speed of your net access is defined in terms of
a MHz
b Megabytes
c RAM
d Kbps
Explanation:
40.
Which of the following is not a method of accessing the web?
a ISDN
b DSL
c CPU
d Modem
Explanation:
41.
Godaddy.com is a
a Portal
b Super Computer
c Organization that allocates domain names
d Website for Consumers
Explanation:
42.
What is the name given to the temporary storage area that a web browser uses to store pages and graphics
that it has recently opened?
a Cache
b Niche
c Cellar
d Webspace
Explanation:
43.
A computer on the Internet that hosts data, that can be accessed by web browsers using HTTP is known as:
a Web Rack
b Web Server
c Web Space
d Web Computer
Explanation:
44.
Linux is
a A Web Browser
b An Operating System
c A Web Server
d An non profit organization
Explanation:
45.
Cloud computing eliminates the costs and complexity of buying, configuring, and managing the hardware and
software needed to build and deploy applications; these applications are delivered as a service over the
Internet (the cloud).
a True
b False
Explanation:
46.
A domain name ending with "org" is
a A commercial website
b A network site
c A site which has very high traffic
d An organization
Explanation:
47.
All web addresses start with which of the following?
a htp
b http://
c http:/
d www
Explanation:
48.
A word that looks underlined on a web page is usually what?
a an important word
b the web address
c a "link" to another web page
d a mistake
Explanation:
49.
Who coined the term Web 2.0
a Tim O'Reilly
b Dale Dougherty
c Steve Jobs
d None of the above
Explanation:
50.
What's considered the "backbone" of the World Wide Web?
a Uniform resource locator (URL)

b Hypertext mark-up language (HTML)
c Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)
d None of the above
Explanation:
2.OSI & ETHERNET
1.
Routers operate at which layer of the OSI model?
a physical
b transport
c network
d MAC sublayer of the data link layer
Explanation:
Layer 3, network layer. Each computer connected to internet is given a unique identification number i.e IP
number. Router operates at this layer and helps to connect one machine to other.
2.
Bits are packaged into frames at which layer of the OSI model?
a data link
b transport
c physical
d presentation
e application
Explanation:
3.
Which of the following are benefits of using a layered network model?
a it facilitates troubleshooting
b it breaks the complex process of networking into more manageable chunks
c it allows layers developed by different vendors to interoperate.
d all of the above
Explanation:
4.
The layers of the OSI model, from the top down, are:
a application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

b session, presentation, data transport, MAC, network, physical
c physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
d application, encryption, network, transport, logical link control, physical
Explanation:
5.
Which of the following operate at the presentation layer?
a FTP and HTTP
b SMTP
c UDP
d midi and jpeg
e all of the above
Explanation:
UDP -Transport Layer
SMTP,FTP and HTTP - Application layer
Midi and JPEG: Presentation layer
6.
Which of the following are transport layer protocols?
a TCP and UDP

b ATM
c CISC
d HTTP and FTP
Explanation:
7.
Which of the following are considered to be the upper layer protocols?
a presentation and session

b application and presentation
c application, presentation, and session
d application, presentation, session, and transport
e application
Explanation:
Upper Layer protocol:application, presentation, session,
Lower Layer Protocol:transport, network, data link, physical
8.
Flow control takes place at which layer?
a physical
b Network
c transport
d data link
e application
Explanation:
9.
Encryption takes place at which layer?
a physical
b presentation
c application
d session
e data link
Explanation:
Encryption and decryption - presentation layer
10.
The network layer uses physical addresses to route data to destination hosts.
a True
b False
Explanation:
The network layer uses virtual i.e IP addresses to route data to destination hosts
11.
Error detection and correction takes place at which layer?
a transport
b presentation
c data link
d Both A and C
e application
Explanation:
12.
Which layer establishes, maintains, and terminates communications between applications located on different
devices?
a application
b session
c transport
d netwrok
e data link
Explanation:
13.
IP is implemented at which OSI model layer?
a transport
b network
c data link
d presentation
e session
Explanation:
14.
Which layer handles the formatting of application data so that it will be readable by the destination system?
a application
b presentation
c transport
d netwrok
e data link
Explanation:
15.
Packets are found at which layer?
a data link
b trasnport
c network
d presentation
e session
Explanation:
16.
Which layer translates between physical MAC and logical addresses?
a network
b data link
c transport
d presentation
e application
Explanation:
17.
What does OSI stand for?
a Organization Standards International

b Open Systems Interconnect
c Operating Standard Information
d Operating System Interconnection
e Open Systems Interface
Explanation:
OSI= Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) OR Open System Interconnect
18.
Repeaters and hubs operate at which layer?
a network
b physical
c transport
d data link
e presentation
Explanation:
19.
Bit synchronization is handled at which layer?
a physical
b network
c transport
d data link
e presentation
Explanation:
20.
Switches operate at which layer of OSI model
a Network
b Data Link
c Physical
d Transport
Explanation:
21.
Bridges operate at which layer of the OSI model?
a physical
b data link
c network
d transport
e presentation
Explanation:
22.
What are the sublayers of the data link layer?
a MAC and IPX

b hardware and frame
c MAC and LLC
d WAN and LAN
e Mac address
Explanation:
23.
Which layer translates between physical and logical addresses?
a the MAC sublayer of the data link layer

b transport
c physical
d network
e presentation
Explanation:
24.
Which layer is responsible for packet sequencing, acknowledgments, and requests for retransmission?
a network
b session
c transport
d data link
e presentation
Explanation:
25.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000
10101010 00001111?
a 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
b 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
c 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
d 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
Explanation:
26.
If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.
a unicast
b multicast
c broadcast
d any of the above
Explanation:
Ref: For Identifying whether ethernet address is unicast or multicast Click here
The IEEE has specified that the most significant bit of the most significant byte be used for this purpose. If its a
1, that means multicast, 0 means unicast. The most significant byte is the left most byte in the address, and the
most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte
In our question, 07 is the left most byte in the address and the most significant bit (0000 0111) is 1 so multicast
27.
If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address.
a unicast
b multicast
c broadcast
d any of the above
Explanation:
Ref: For Identifying whether ethernet address is unicast or multicast Click here
In our question, 08 is the left most byte in the address and the most significant bit (0000 1000) is 0 so unicast
28.
Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination?
a 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
b 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
c 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
d 48:32:21:21:4D:34
Explanation:
Let us check our options
A. Most Significant Byte is 43 and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte 43 i.e 0100 0011 ie 1 so it
is Multicast
B.Most Significant Byte is 44 and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte 44 i.e 0100 0100 ie 0 so it
is Unicast
C.Most Significant Byte is 46 and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte 46 i.e 0100 0100 ie 0 so it
is Unicast
D..Most Significant Byte is 48 and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte 48 i.e0100 1000 ie 0 so it
is Unicast
29.
Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination?
a B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
b 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
c 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
d 83:32:21:21:4D:34
Explanation:
Let us check our options
A. Most Significant Byte is B7 and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte B7 i.e 1011 0111 ie 1 so it
is Multicast
B.Most Significant Byte is 7B and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte 7B i.e 0111 1011 ie 1 so it
is Multicast
C.Most Significant Byte is 7C and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte 7C i.e 0111 1100 ie 0 so it
is Unicast
D..Most Significant Byte is 83 and most significant bit is the right most bit of the byte 83 i.e1000 0011 ie 1 so it
is Multicast
30.
_______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.
a Token Ring
b Token Bus
c Ethernet
d none of the above
Explanation:
31.
The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method for first-generation 10-Mbps
Ethernet.
a 1-persistent
b p-persistent
c non-persistent
d none of the above
Explanation:
1-persistent
1-persistent CSMA is an aggressive transmission algorithm. When the sender (station) is ready to transmit
data, it senses the transmission medium for idle or busy. If idle, then it transmits immediately. If busy, then it
senses the transmission medium continuously until it becomes idle, then transmits the message (a frame)
unconditionally (i.e. with probability=1). In case of a collision, the sender waits for a random period of time and
attempts to transmit again unconditionally (i.e. with probability=1). 1-persistent CSMA is used in CSMA/CD
systems including Ethernet.
Non-persistent
Non persistent CSMA is a non aggressive transmission algorithm. When the sender (station) is ready to
transmit data, it senses the transmission medium for idle or busy. If idle, then it transmits immediately. If busy,
then it waits for a random period of time (during which it does not sense the transmission medium) before
repeating the whole logic cycle (which started with sensing the transmission medium for idle or busy) again.
This approach reduces collision, results in overall higher medium throughput but with a penalty of longer initial
delay compared to 1–persistent.
P-persistent
This is an approach between 1-persistent and non-persistent CSMA access modes. When the sender (station)
is ready to transmit data, it senses the transmission medium for idle or busy. If idle, then it transmits
immediately. If busy, then it senses the transmission medium continuously until it becomes idle, then transmits
a frame with probability p. If the sender chooses not to transmit (the probability of this event is 1-p), the sender
waits until the next available time slot. If the transmission medium is still not busy, it transmits again with the
same probability p. This probabilistic hold-off repeats until the frame is finally transmitted or when the medium
is found to become busy again (i.e. some other sender has already started transmitting their data). In the latter
case the sender repeats the whole logic cycle (which started with sensing the transmission medium for idle or
busy) again. p-persistent CSMA is used in CSMA/CA systems including Wi-Fi and other packet radio systems.
O-persistent
Each station is assigned a transmission order by a supervisor station. When medium goes idle, stations wait for
their time slot in accordance with their assigned transmission order. The station assigned to transmit first
transmits immediately. The station assigned to transmit second waits one time slot (but by that time the first
station has already started transmitting). Stations monitor the medium for transmissions from other stations and
update their assigned order with each detected transmission (i.e. they move one position closer to the front of
the queue). O-persistent CSMA is used by CobraNet, LonWorks and the controller area network.
32.
______is used to improve CSMA performance by terminating transmission as soon as a collision is detected,
thus shortening the time required before a retry can be attempted.
a CSMA with Collision detection [CSMA/CD]

b CSMA with Collision Avoidance [CSMA/CA]
c Virtual time CSMA
d None of the above
Explanation:
CSMA/CD is used to improve CSMA performance by terminating transmission as soon as a collision is

detected, thus shortening the time required before a retry can be attempted.
In CSMA/CA collision avoidance is used to improve the performance of CSMA by attempting to be less
"greedy" on the channel. If the channel is sensed busy before transmission then the transmission is deferred
for a "random" interval. This reduces the probability of collisions on the channel.
VTCSMA is designed to avoid collision generated by nodes transmitting signals simultaneously, used mostly in
hard real-time systems. The VTCSMA uses two clocks at every node, a virtual clock (vc) and a real clock (rc)
which tells "real time". When the channel is sensed to be busy, the vc freezes, when channel is free, it is reset.
Hence, calculating vc runs faster than rc when channel is free, and vc is not initiated when channel is busy.
33.
The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing.
a LLC
b MII
c MAC
d none of the above
Explanation:
34.
Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card
(NIC)
a 5-byte
b 32-bit
c 48-bit
d none of the above
Explanation:
35.
The minimum frame length for Ethernet is _______bytes.
a 32
b 64
c 128
d none of the above
Explanation:
The original Ethernet IEEE 802.3 standard defined the minimum Ethernet frame size as 64 bytes and the
maximum as 1518 bytes. The maximum was later increased to 1522 bytes to allow for VLAN tagging.
36.
The maximum frame length for Ethernet is approx ________ bytes.
a 1518
b 1500
c 1200
d none of the above
Explanation:
The original Ethernet IEEE 802.3 standard defined the minimum Ethernet frame size as 64 bytes and the
maximum as 1518 bytes. The maximum was later increased to 1522 bytes to allow for VLAN tagging.
37.
_________ uses thick coaxial cable.
a 10Base5
b 10Base2
c 10Base-T
d 10Base-F
Explanation:
Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables
38.
__________ uses thin coaxial cable.
a 10Base5
b 10Base2
c 10Base-T
d 10Base-F
Explanation:
39.
_________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub.
a 10Base5
b 10Base2
c 10Base-T
d 10Base-F
Explanation:
40.
________ uses fiber-optic cable.
a 10Base5
b 10Base2
c 10Base-T
d 10Base-F
Explanation:
41.
Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.
a 10
b 100
c 1000
d 10,000
Explanation:
42.
In _________ auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation.
a Standard
b Fast Ethernet
c Gigabit Ethernet
d Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
Explanation:
43.
__________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable.
a 100Base-TX
b 100Base-FX
c 100Base-T4
d none of the above
Explanation:
44.
_________ uses two fiber-optic cables.
a 100Base-TX
b 100Base-FX
c 100Base-T4
d none of the above
Explanation:
45.
_________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable.
a 100Base-TX
b 100Base-FX
c 100Base-T4
d none of the above
Explanation:
46.
Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.
a 10
b 100
c 1000
d 10,000
Explanation:

47.
Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.
a half-duplex
b full-duplex
c both A and B
d neither A nor B
Explanation:
48.
__________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source,
a 1000Base-SX
b 1000Base-LX
c 1000Base-T
d none of the above
Explanation:
49.
__________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source.
a 1000Base-SX
b 1000Base-LX
c 1000Base-T
d none of the above
Explanation:
50.
__________ uses four twisted pairs.
a 1000Base-SX
b 1000Base-LX
c 1000Base-T
d none of the above
Explanation:
3.ERP
1.
What was the major reason to implement ERP in BSNL?
a In BSNL corruption was increasing ,to stop corruption ERP was implemented
b BSNL HRMS had became old so for replacement of HRMS ,ERP was introduced
c ERP project was introduced to prepare BSNL to face new challenges due to competition by providing
effective and efficient business processes and improved operational efficiencies besides aiding in better
decision making.
d BSNL was making losses for last few financial years to curb losses ERP was mainly introduced
Explanation:
The objective of ERP system is to improve the information flow to facilitate better decision making leading to
overall improvement in the performance of the organization by way of improvements in productivity, cycle time,
financial performance and information transparency. The project shall prepare BSNL to face new challenges
due to competition by providing effective and efficient business processes and improved operational
efficiencies besides aiding in better decision making.
Reference: Chp 3 ERP [Part 2] uploaded in document section
2.
_____is the System Integrator (SI), who along with _____ as the Business Process Re-engineering (BPR)
partner & ____ as the Software Solution Provider (SSP) will implement BSNL ERP project
a HCL,SAP,E&Y
b SAP,E&Y,HCL
c HCL,E&Y,SAP
d E&Y,SAP,HCL
Explanation:
HCL is the System Integrator (SI), who along with E&Y as the Business Process Re-engineering (BPR) partner
& SAP as the Software Solution Provider (SSP) will implement this project.
3.
There are three categories of ERP servers. _____ server in which the application will be first developed. ____
server, in which the developed application will be tested. ____ server in which the application will finally come
to end user
a Production,Quality,Development
b Quality,production,Development
c Development,Production,Quality
d Development,Quality,Production
Explanation:
There are three categories of servers. Development server in which the application will be first developed.
Quality server, in which the developed application will be tested. This server is also used for training of users.
Production server in which the application will finally come to end user
4.
The end users in ERP will be working on _____server while the training for the users is provided on _____
server.
a Quality,production
b Production,Quality
c Development,production
d Quality,Development
Explanation:
The users will be interacting with the production server only while training provided in quality server
5.
The finance related module in ERP is known as ____ and its full form is _____
a FIMO ,Finance in managing operations

b FICO,Financial Accounting & Controlling
c FICO,Financial Accounting In Cash Operations
d FICO,Financing in Cash Operations
Explanation:
The finance related module in ERP is known as FICO and its full form is Financial Accounting & Controlling
6.
What is the full form of T-code used in ERP
a Testing Codes
b Transaction Codes
c Ticket Codes
d Token Codes
Explanation:
T- Code - Transaction Codes
7.
What T -code one uses to create Purchase order in ERP
a MB90
b ME21
c ME40
d MN21
Explanation:
Check the IMP ERP T-codes list uploaded in document section
8.
For T- Code, ME21 suffix 1 stands for _______; ME22 suffix 2 stands for _____ME23 suffix 3 stands for _____
a display,change,create
b display,create,change
c create,change,display
d create,display,change
Explanation:
9.
In BSNL ERP,the module which deals with land and buildings, IQ allotment is called
a RAM
b REM
c RME
d RIM
Explanation:
In ERP,the module which deals with land and buildings, IQ allotment is called Real Estate Management.
10.
In BSNL ERP,the module which deals with repair and maintenance of equipments is called as ____
a HCM
b MM
c PM
d S&D
Explanation:
In BSNL ERP,the module which deals with repair and maintenance of equipments is called as PM (Plant
maintenance)
11.
The module which deals with sales of sim cards is
a MM
b FICO
c IM
d S&D
Explanation:
The module which deals with sales of sim cards is Sales and Distribution
12.
In ERP project execution,The consultant evaluates the existing practices and compares with the best industry
practices ,the process is known as
a Testing
b BBP
c BPR
d AS-IS
Explanation:
BPR-Business Process Re-engineering. The consultant evaluates the existing practices and compares with the
best industry practices. Finally the consultant submits it recommendations. These recommendations are
discussed in details with the BSNL Sr. Management for acceptance.
Reference: Chp 3 ERP [Part 2]
13.
The module which deals with employee details and leave application in ERP is
a HRM
b HCM
c FICO
d MM
Explanation:
The module which deals with employee details and leave application in ERP is HCM - Human Capital
Management
14.
The Roles and Authorization deals with _____Module
a HCM
b FICO
c MM
d Basis
Explanation:
The Roles and Authorization deals with Basis Module
15.
Project Estimate and Detailed Estimate deals with ______ Module
a MM
b PS
c PM
d HCM
Explanation:
Project Estimate and Detailed Estimate deals with Project Systems Module
16.
Which of the following modules come under ERP
a Supply Chain Management (SCM)

b Business Information System (BIS)
c Business Intelligence & Analytics (BIA)
d Only A
e All of the above
Explanation:
ERP system is broadly proposed to have the following modules:
Finance And Management Accounting (FICO)

• Materials And Inventory Management including e-procurement (MM)
• Plant/Equipment Maintenance (PM)
• Human Resources Management & Administration (HRM)
• Sales And Distribution(S&D)
• Project Systems (PS)
• Real Estate And Telecom Infrastructure Management (REM)
• Production Planning (PP)
• Supply Chain Management (SCM)
• Business Information System (BIS)
• Business Intelligence & Analytics (BIA)
• Strategy Enterprise Management (SEM)
• Quality Control (QC)
• Enterprise Portal (EP)
Reference: Chp 3 ERP project
Correct Answer: e Comment · 0 ·
17.
In BSNL,______will be primary ERP site and ______ for DR site.
Development Centre for ERP is being setup at _______
a Kolkata,Hyderabad,ALTTC Ghaziabad
b Hyderabad,Pune,Bangalore
c Hyderabad,Bangalore,Pune
d Hyderabad,Kolkata,ALTTC Ghaziabad.
Explanation:
Two of the CDR Project data centers are to be used. Hyderabad will be primary ERP site and Kolkata for DR
site. ERP is being deployed like another application of CDR Project to be deployed in CDR Data
center.Development Centre for ERP is being setup at ALTTC Ghaziabad.
18.
For password reset ,one has to send the mail to ______ Module person
a HCM
b FICO
c Basis
d Core Team
Explanation:
For password reset ,one has to send the mail to Basis Module person
19.
The terminology WBS element comes under which ERP module and stands for
a PM,Work Business Structure

b MM,Work Business Structure
c HCM,Work Business Structure
d PS,Work Breakdown Structure
Explanation:
The terminology WBS element comes under PS ERP module and stands for Work Breakdown Structure
20.
Budget Allocation and Distribution comes under which module of ERP
a HCM
b FICO
c PS
d MM
Explanation:
Budget Allocation(T-CODE:IM52) and Distribution (T-CODE:CJ30) comes under PS (Project System) module
of ERP
21.
Franchisee Sales comes under which Module in ERP
a HCM
b FICO
c SCM
d S&D
Explanation:
Franchisee Sales comes under which S&D (Sales and Distribution) Module in ERP
22.
The Module in ERP in BSNL which deals with the assets is
a PS
b FICO
c HCM
d PM
Explanation:
The Module in ERP in BSNL which deals with the assets in which we can create or delete asset is FICO
23.
Leased Land/Buildings comes under which module of ERP
a PM
b HCM
c FICO
d REM
Explanation:
Leased Land/Buildings comes under Real Estate Management module of ERP
24.
Creation of Purchase Requistion,creation of Purchase order comes under which module of ERP
a HCM
b PM
c IM
d MM
Explanation:
Creation of Purchase Requistion,creation of Purchase order comes under Material Management
25.
The T -code for goods receipt in MM module is
a MIRO
b MIMO
c MIGO
d MIGR
Explanation:
The T -code for goods receipt in MM module is MIGO
26.
In ERP ,for services we use _____ and for material we use _____
a MIGO,SES
b MIRO,SES
c SES,MIGO
d SES,MIRO
Explanation:
In ERP ,for services we use Service entry sheet and for material we use MIGO
27.
In BSNL,the portal to resolve ERP issues is _____
a ERP Business WorkPlace

b ESS Portal
c ERP Helpdesk
d BSNL Intranet
Explanation:
In BSNL,the portal to resolve ERP issues is ERP Helpdesk [Mantis]
28.
In ERP,The portal which deals with employee details of the employee is
a HRMS portal
b ESS portal
c ERP Helpdesk
d None of the above
Explanation:
In ERP,The portal which deals with employee details of the employee is ESS(Employee Self Service)
29.
In ESS portal ,one can get information of employee on
a Leave History
b Claims and Reimbursement
c Career History
d All of the above except Career History
e All of the above
Explanation:
30.
The module which deals with stores in ERP is
a PM
b S&D
c PS
d MM
Explanation:
The module which deals with stores in ERP is MM
31.
In ERP ,Notesheet can be created
a True
b False
Explanation:
In ERP ,Notesheet can be created in SAP Business Workplace
32.
The workflow steps for purchase of material in MM Module in ERP is
1.Create Purchase Order
2.Create Purchase requistion
3.Create RFQ
4. MIGO
The correct order is
a 1,2,3,4
b 3,2,1,4
c 2,3,1,4
d 4,3,2,1
Explanation:
33.
In ERP BSNL,Mantis is another name for
a ESS portal
b HRMS portal
c ERP Helpdesk
d None of the above
Explanation:
34.
The module which deals with survey report and Route work in ERP is
a MM
b PM
c PS
d SCM
Explanation:
The module which deals with survey report and Route work in ERP is Project System PS
35.
The benefits of ERP are
a Reduce paperwork
b Increase transparency
c Increase effeciency
d All of the above
Explanation:
36.
Vendor payments are done in which module in ERP
a HCM
b MM
c FICO
d FI
Explanation:
37.
In ERP Helpdesk,the ____ consists of field units or SSA ,____consists of circle and _____ consists of core
team
a L2,L3,L1
b L3,L2,L1
c L1,L2,L3
d L1,L1,L3
Explanation:
38.
Temporary advance request and settlement is not provided in ERP
a True
b False
Explanation:
39.
Old HRMS portal is replaced by ____ of ERP
a ERP Helpdesk
b ESS portal
c SAP Business Workplace
d None of the above
Explanation:
40.
One can view the list of asset such as Vehicles,Computers etc present in asset through
a HCM
b FICO
c PM
d S&D
Explanation:
One can view the list of asset such as Vehicles,Computers etc present in asset through PM Module IH01
Tcode
41.
When someone deletes some thing from ERP ,the information gets automatically deleted from ERP server
a True
b False
Explanation:
42.
In ERP all user logs such user lP address ,login time are maintained at main server
a True
b False
Explanation:
43.
The T Code used by Basis team to reset the User password is
a SI01
b SU01
c SM01
d ST01
Explanation:
Reference: Imp ERP T-codes uploaded in Document Section
44.
For Creation of Purchase requistion in MM Module ____ T code is used
a ME21N
b MB90
c ME51N
d ME41
Explanation:
45.
The T-Code used in REM Module for information on Land is
a REISBU
b REISPR
c REISBE
d REISL
Explanation:
46.
The T-Code in REM Module for IQ/Holiday home booking is
a REISBU
b REISBE
c ZRE001
d ZIE001
Explanation:
47.
Gatepass can be created in ___ Module
a MM
b HCM
c PM
d IM
Explanation:
Gatepass can be created in Plant Maintenace Module
48.
In ERP PRD Server,multiple users can logon at same time
a True
b False
Explanation:
In ERP PRD Server,multiple users can logon at same time but through different account
49.
IN BSNL ,Which SAP version is generally used
a SAP 7.6
b SAP 9
c SAP 7.1
d SAP 7.5
Explanation:
50.
What is meaning of Go-Live in ERP terminology
a Beginning of ERP project

b Completion of all ERP Project Work
c start of usage of the system by the end-users
d None of the above
Explanation:
Go-live-A typical terminology used in ERP project indicating the start of usage of the system by the end-users
Reference: Chp 3 ERP [PART 2] Uploaded in Document Section
4.ORACLE & CLOUD COMPUTING

1.
Typically, a DBMS has the following elements _____
a Kernel code
b Repository of metadata
c Query language
d All of the above
Explanation:
Typically, a DBMS has the following elements:
Kernel code
This code manages memory and storage for the DBMS.
Repository of metadata
This repository is usually called a data dictionary.
Query language
This language enables applications to access the data.
Subject: Technical
2.
________code manages memory and storage for the DBMS.
a Memory
b Kernel
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
Kernel code
This code manages memory and storage for the DBMS.
3.
__________organizes data in a tree structure and has one-to-many relationship.
a hierarchical database
b network database
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
The first generation of database management systems included the following types:
Hierarchical
A hierarchical database organizes data in a tree structure. Each parent record has one or more child records,
similar to the structure of a file system.
Network
A network database is similar to a hierarchical database, except records have a many-to-many rather than a
one-to-many relationship.
4.
__________ type of database has records which have a many-to-many relationship
a hierarchical database
b network database
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
The first generation of database management systems included the following types:
Hierarchical
A hierarchical database organizes data in a tree structure. Each parent record has one or more child records,
similar to the structure of a file system.
Network
A network database is similar to a hierarchical database, except records have a many-to-many rather than a
one-to-many relationship.
5.
A relational database is a database that conforms to the relational model.
The relational model has the following major aspects
a Structures
b Operations
c Integrity rules
d All of the above
Explanation:
A relational database is a database that conforms to the relational model. The relational model has the
following major aspects:
Structures
Well-defined objects store or access the data of a database.
Operations
Clearly defined actions enable applications to manipulate the data and structures of a database.
Integrity rules
Integrity rules govern operations on the data and structures of a database.
6.
A relational database stores data in a set of simple relations.
a True
b False
Explanation:
A relational database stores data in a set of simple relations. A relation is a set of tuples. A tuple is an
unordered set of attribute values.
7.
A relation is a set of _______
a schema objects
b tuples
c indexes
d None of the above
Explanation:
A relational database stores data in a set of simple relations. A relation is a set of tuples. A tuple is an
unordered set of attribute values
8.
A tuple is an ordered set of attribute values
a True
b False
Explanation:
A tuple is an unordered set of attribute values
9.
An application requests an employee name or adds an employee record to a table.This is type of
_________operation in RDBMS
a Physical
b Logical
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
Logical operations
In this case, an application specifies what content is required. For example, an application requests an
employee name or adds an employee record to a table.
10.
An application queries a table, the database may use an index to find the requested rows, read the data into
memory, and perform many other steps before returning a result to the user.This is example of
________operation in RDBMS
a logical
b physical
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
Physical operations
In this case, the RDBMS determines how things should be done and carries out the operation. For example,
after an application queries a table, the database may use an index to find the requested rows, read the data
into memory, and perform many other steps before returning a result to the user. The RDBMS stores and
retrieves data so that physical operations are transparent to database applications.
11.
A schema object is one type of database object
a True
b False
Explanation:
12.
SQL is procedural language
a True
b False
Explanation:
SQL is non procedural language
SQL is a set-based declarative language that provides an interface to an RDBMS such as Oracle Database. In
contrast to procedural languages such as C, which describe how things should be done, SQL is nonprocedural
and describes what should be done. Users specify the result that they want (for example, the names of current
employees), not how to derive it. SQL is the ANSI standard language for relational databases.
13.
A primary benefit of PL/SQL is the ability to store application logic in the database itself
a True
b False
Explanation:
A primary benefit of PL/SQL is the ability to store application logic in the database itself. A PL/SQL procedure
or function is a schema object that consists of a set of SQL statements and other PL/SQL constructs, grouped
together, stored in the database, and run as a unit to solve a specific problem or to perform a set of related
tasks. The principal benefit of server-side programming is that built-in functionality can be deployed anywhere.
14.
Which is a major problem with SQL?
a SQL cannot support object-orientation

b The same query can be written in many ways, each with vastly different execution plans
c SQL syntax is too difficult for non-computer professionals to use
d SQL creates excessive locks within the database
Explanation:
Oracle database
The declarative nature of SQL makes it possible to write an individual query in many different forms, each with
identical results. For example, a query he can be written with a standard join, a non-correlated sub-query or a
correlated sub-query, each producing identical results but with widely varying internal execution plans.
15.
Which of the following is an important feature of relational databases and SQL?
a Independence of table relationships

b High speed of SQL
c Powerful GUI front-end
d Easy to install and use
Explanation:
Prior to the invention of relational databases, it was very difficult to establish relationships with other database
objects. Pre-relational database management systems relied on pointers in order to establish data
relationships. With the advent of relational database management, it became possible to establish ad-hoc
relationships using SQL joins, even if the databases resided in geographically dispersed areas.
16.
Which of the following database design features is most important to SQL performance ?
a Removal of data redundancy
b The introduction of data redundancy
c The introduction of non-first normal form relations
d The introduction of SQL*Plus
Explanation:
The degree of normalization in the database design is critical to SQL performance. With disk prices falling
dramatically every year, the savvy database administrator will deliberately introduce redundancy into their data
model in order to avoid expensive SQL table joints. The ideal candidates for the introduction of redundancy are
small data items that are updated very infrequently. It is generally not appropriate to redundantly introduce
large data items, or data items that are updated on a frequent basis.
17.
What best describes the relationship between indexes and SQL performance?
a Indexes are only used in special cases

b Indexes are used to make table storage more efficient
c Indexes rarely make a difference in SQL performance
d Indexes exist solely to improve query speed.
Explanation:
The sole purpose of indexes in any relational database management system is to reduce the access time for
SQL statements. The SQL optimizer can detect when and indexes present, and use sophisticated algorithms in
order to determine the fastest way of accessing the data. If indexes did not exist in a relational database the
database SQL optimizer would have no choice except to read every single row in the table.
18.
Oracle Database cannot store program units written in Java
a True
b False
Explanation:
Oracle Database can also store program units written in Java. A Java stored procedure is a Java method
published to SQL and stored in the database for general use. You can call existing PL/SQL programs from
Java and Java programs from PL/SQL
19.
Oracle database does not support data concurrency
a True
b False
Explanation:
A requirement of a multiuser RDBMS is the control of concurrency, which is the simultaneous access of the
same data by multiple users. Without concurrency controls, users could change data improperly, compromising
data integrity. For example, one user could update a row while a different user simultaneously updates it.
20.
Oracle Database uses _______to control concurrent access to data.
a index
b locks
c transaction
d None of the above
Explanation:
Oracle Database uses locks to control concurrent access to data. A lock is a mechanism that prevents
destructive interaction between transactions accessing a shared resource. Locks help ensure data integrity
while allowing maximum concurrent access to data.
21.
An Oracle database server consists of _________
a database
b one database instance
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
An Oracle database server consists of a database and at least one database instance (commonly referred to
as simply an instance). Because an instance and a database are so closely connected, the term Oracle
database is sometimes used to refer to both instance and database. In the strictest sense the terms have the
following meanings:
Database
A database is a set of files, located on disk, that store data. These files can exist independently of a database
instance.
Database instance
An instance is a set of memory structures that manage database files. The instance consists of a shared
memory area, called the system global area (SGA), and a set of background processes. An instance can exist
independently of database files.
22.
The instance consists of a shared memory area called the
a program global area (PGA)

b system global area (SGA)
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
An instance is a set of memory structures that manage database files. The instance consists of a shared
memory area, called the system global area (SGA), and a set of background processes. An instance can exist
independently of database files.
23.
Each client process is associated with its own server process which has its own private session memory known
as _________
a system global area (SGA)

b program global area (PGA)
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
For each user connection to the instance, the application is run by a client process. Each client process is
associated with its own server process. The server process has its own private session memory, known as the
program global area (PGA).
24.
These processes are created and maintained to run the software code of an application program or an Oracle
tool. Which Oracle Database Process we are referring to?
a Background process
b Server process
c Client process
d None of the above
Explanation:
A process is a mechanism in an operating system that can run a series of steps. Some operating systems use
the terms job, task, or thread. For the purpose of this discussion, a thread is equivalent to a process. An Oracle
database instance has the following types of processes:
Client processes
tool. Most environments have separate computers for client processes.
Background processes
These processes consolidate functions that would otherwise be handled by multiple Oracle Database programs
running for each client process. Background processes asynchronously perform I/O and monitor other Oracle
Database processes to provide increased parallelism for better performance and reliability.
Server processes
These processes communicate with client processes and interact with Oracle Database to fulfill requests.
25.
These processes communicate with client processes and interact with Oracle Database to fulfill requests.Which
Oracle Database Process we are referring to?
a Background process
b Server process
c Client process
d None of the above
Explanation:
A process is a mechanism in an operating system that can run a series of steps. Some operating systems use
the terms job, task, or thread. For the purpose of this discussion, a thread is equivalent to a process. An Oracle
database instance has the following types of processes:
Client processes
tool. Most environments have separate computers for client processes.
Background processes
These processes consolidate functions that would otherwise be handled by multiple Oracle Database programs
running for each client process. Background processes asynchronously perform I/O and monitor other Oracle
Database processes to provide increased parallelism for better performance and reliability.
Server processes
These processes communicate with client processes and interact with Oracle Database to fulfill requests.
26.
Cached data blocks is an example of ________
a System Global Area (SGA)

b Program Global Areas (PGA)
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
Oracle Database creates and uses memory structures for purposes such as memory for program code, data
shared among users, and private data areas for each connected user. The following memory structures are
associated with an instance:
System Global Area (SGA)

The SGA is a group of shared memory structures that contain data and control information for one database
instance. Examples of SGA components include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.
Program Global Areas (PGA)

A PGA is a memory region that contain data and control information for a server or background process.
Access to the PGA is exclusive to the process. Each server process and background process has its own PGA.
27.
........................ is a procedural extension of Oracle - SQL that offers language constructs similar to those in
imperative programming languages.
a SQL
b PL/SQL
c Advanced SQL
d None of the above
Explanation:
PL/SQL is a procedural extension of Oracle - SQL that offers language constructs similar to those in imperative
programming languages.
28.
A line of PL/SQL text contains groups of characters known as __________
a Lexical Units
b Literals
c Textual Units
d Identifiers
Explanation:
A line of PL/SQL text contains groups of characters known as lexical units
29.
We use ________ name PL/SQL program objects and units.
a Lexical Units
b Literals
c Delimiters
d Identifiers
Explanation:
The database object name is referred to as its identifier. Everything in Microsoft SQL Server can have an
identifier. Servers, databases, and database objects, such as tables, views, columns, indexes, triggers,
procedures, constraints, and rules, can have identifiers. Identifiers are required for most objects, but are
optional for some objects such as constraints.
30.
A _____________ is an explicit numeric, character, string or Boolean value not represented by an identifier.
a Comments
b Literals
c Delimiters
d Identifiers
Explanation:
The PL/SQL Literals
A literal is an explicit numeric, character, string, or Boolean value not represented by an identifier. For example,
TRUE, 786, NULL, 'tutorialspoint' are all literals of type Boolean, number, or string. PL/SQL, literals are case-
sensitive. PL/SQL supports the following kinds of literals:
Numeric Literals
Character Literals
String Literals
BOOLEAN Literals
Date and Time Literals
31.
_________ is a sequence of zero or more characters enclosed by single quotes.
a Numerical literal
b String literal
c BOOLEAN Literal
d Character Literal
Explanation:
String literal
Examples
'Hello, world!'
'Tutorials Point'
'19-NOV-12'
32.
Which is the oracle database latest version?
a 10c
b 11c
c 12c
d 13c
Explanation:
Oracle Database 12c introduces a new multitenant architecture that makes it easy to consolidate many
databases quickly and manage them as a cloud service. Oracle Database 12c also includes in-memory data
processing capabilities delivering breakthrough analytical performance. Additional database innovations deliver
new levels of efficiency, performance, security, and availability. Oracle Database 12c comes in three editions to
fit your business needs and budget: Enterprise Edition, Standard Edition, and Standard Edition One.
33.
A cloud that can be accessed by any subscriber with an internet connection and access to the cloud space is
known as _________
a Public Cloud
b Private Cloud
c Community Cloud
d Hybrid Cloud
Explanation:
Types of clouds
There are different types of clouds that you can subscribe to depending on your needs.
1. Public Cloud - A public cloud can be accessed by any subscriber with an internet connection and access to
the cloud space. As a home user or small business owner, you will most likely use public cloud services.
2. Private Cloud - A private cloud is established for a specific group or organization and limits access to just
that group.
3. Community Cloud - A community cloud is shared among two or more organizations that have similar cloud
requirements.
4. Hybrid Cloud - A hybrid cloud is essentially a combination of at least two clouds, where the clouds included
are a mixture of public, private, or community
34.
A cloud that is established for a specific group or organization and limits access to just that group is known as
_________
a Public Cloud
b Private Cloud
c Community Cloud
d Hybrid Cloud
Explanation:
Private Cloud - A private cloud is established for a specific group or organization and limits access to just that
group.
35.
___________makes it easier to have the same software on all of your devices at
once by accessing it on the cloud.
a PaaS
b SaaS
c IaaS
d None of the above
Explanation:
Software as a Service [SaaS] - A SaaS provider gives subscribers access to both resources and applications.
SaaS makes it unnecessary for you to have a physical copy of software to install on your devices. SaaS also
makes it easier to have the same software on all of your devices at
once by accessing it on the cloud. In a SaaS agreement, one has the least control over the cloud.
Examples of SaaS : Google Docs, IBM SmartCloud Docs, IBM SmartCloud Meetings,Saleforce.com’s CRM
application
36.
_________gives subscribers access to the components that they require to develop and operate applications
over the internet.
a SaaS
b PaaS
c IaaS
d None of the above
Explanation:
Platform as a Service[PaaS] - A PaaS system goes a level above the Software as a Service setup. A PaaS
provider gives subscribers access to the components that they require to develop and operate applications
over the internet.
Example of PaaS :IBM SmartCloud Application Services and Google App Engine
37.
In____ one has the least control over the cloud.
a SaaS
b PaaS
c IaaS
d None of the above
Explanation:
Software as a Service [SaaS] - A SaaS provider gives subscribers access to both resources and applications.
SaaS makes it unnecessary for you to have a physical copy of software to install on your devices. SaaS also
makes it easier to have the same software on all of your devices at once by accessing it on the cloud. In a
SaaS agreement, one has the least control over the cloud.
Examples of SaaS : Google Docs, IBM SmartCloud Docs, IBM SmartCloud Meetings,Saleforce.com’s CRM
application
38.
In _________the subscriber completely outsources the storage and resources, such as hardware and software,
that they need.
a SaaS
b PaaS
c IaaS
d None of the above
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service[IaaS] - An IaaS agreement, as the name states, deals primarily with computational
infrastructure. In an IaaS agreement, the subscriber completely outsources the storage and resources, such as
hardware and software, that they need. In a IaaS agreement, you have the highest control over the cloud.
Example of IaaS : IBM SmartCloud Enterprise,SoftLayer cloud and Amazon EC2
39.
In ______ one has the highest control over the cloud
a SaaS
b PaaS
c IaaS
d None of the above
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service[IaaS] - An IaaS agreement, as the name states, deals primarily with computational
infrastructure. In an IaaS agreement, the subscriber completely outsources the storage and resources, such as
hardware and software, that they need.In a IaaS agreement, you have the highest control over the cloud.
Example of IaaS : IBM SmartCloud Enterprise,SoftLayer cloud and Amazon EC2
40.
BSNL Cloud Services Growth Plan offers _________ amount of storage in GB
a 40
b 60
c 120
d 180
Explanation:
Ref: BSNL Cloud Services

41.
BSNL Cloud services offers pay per use option
a True
b False
Explanation:
Pay-Per-Use (Usage based): Clients can further utilize our Usage based option (pay-per-use model) for the
different Compute offerings. With this sign-up clients would be able to use the following resources on truly pay
per use model, paying only for the actual Resources Hours consumed.
42.
BSNL Cloud Services Features are given below.Find the odd one out
a Hourly pricing and on-demand provisioning of virtual machines running Windows or Linux
b Flexibility to increase or decrease CPU, RAM and Storage on each Cloud Server on the fly
c 99.99% availability guarantee
d Postpaid pricing plans
e All the above options are correct
Explanation:
BSNL Cloud Services Features

Hourly pricing and on-demand provisioning of virtual machines running Windows or Linux
Flexibility to increase or decrease CPU, RAM and Storage on each Cloud Server on the fly
99.99% availability guarantee
Hardware-based networking, including VLAN segmentation, customisable firewalls, load balancing, NAT and
multicast
Pay-as-you-go or prepaid pricing plans
Role-based permissions for multiple users on a single account
43.
Features of Cloud Computing are given below.Find the odd one out
a On-demand self-service
b Ubiquitous network access.
c Resource pooling
d Rapid elasticity
e All of the above are correct
Explanation:
Features of Cloud Computing

1. On-demand self-service: This means provisioning or de-provisioning computing resources as needed in an
automated fashion without human intervention. An analogy to this is electricity as a utility where a consumer
can turn on or off a switch on-demand to use as much electricity as required.
2. Ubiquitous network access. This means that computing facilities can be accessed from anywhere over the
network using any sort of thin or thick clients (for example smartphones, tablets, laptops, personal computers
and so on).
3. Resource pooling: This means that computing resources are pooled to meet the demand of the consumers
so that resources (physical or virtual) can be dynamically assigned, reassigned or de-allocated as per the
requirement. Generally the consumers are not aware of the exact location of computing resources. However,
they may be able to specify location (country, city, region and the like) for their need. For example, I as a
consumer might want to host my services with a cloud provider that has cloud data centers within the
boundaries of India
4. Rapid elasticity: Cloud computing provides an illusion of infinite computing resources

to the users. In cloud models, resources can be elastically provisioned or released according to demand. For
example, my cloud-based online services should be able to handle a sudden peak in traffic demand by
expanding the resources elastically. When the peak subsides, unnecessary resources can be released
automatically.
5. Measured service: This means that consumers only pay for the computing resources they ha
44.
________ combines the data manipulating power of SQL with the data processing power of Procedural
languages.
a PL/SQL
b Advanced SQL
c SQL
d None of the above
Explanation:
PL/SQL combines the data manipulating power of SQL with the data processing power of Procedural
languages.
45.
A _______ is a database object that groups logically related PL/SQL types, objects and subprograms.
a Module
b Package
c Index
d None of the above
Explanation:
PL/SQL packages are schema objects that groups logically related PL/SQL types, variables and subprograms.
A package will have two mandatory parts:
Package specification
Package body or definition
46.
__________ are predefined and maintained SQL Server where users cannot assign or directly change the
values.
a Local Variables
b Global Variables
c Assigned Variables
d Direct Variables
Explanation:
Local variables - variables declared in an inner block and not accessible to outer blocks.
Global variables - variables declared in the outermost block or a package.Global variables are predefined and
maintained SQL Server where users cannot assign or directly change the values.
47.
SQL Server 2005 does not includes the following system database ______
a tempdb Database
b Master Database
c Model Database
d sqldb Database
Explanation:
48.
DBMS is a collection of ________ that enables user to create and maintain a database.
a Keys
b Translators
c Program
d Language Activity
Explanation:
DBMS is a collection of program that enables user to create and maintain a database.
49.
A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a ____
a Hierarchical schema
b Network schema
c Relational Schema
d All of the above
Explanation:
A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a Hierarchical schema
50.
ORDBMS stands for ___________
a Oracle relative database management system

b Oracle relational database management system
c Object relational database management system
d None of the above
Explanation:
Oracle Database: is an RDBMS. An RDBMS that implements object-oriented features such as user-defined
types, inheritance, and polymorphism is called an object-relational database management system (ORDBMS).
Oracle Database has extended the relational model to an object-relational model, making it possible to store
complex business models in a relational database.
5.MULTIMEDIA,E-GOV & INFORMATION SECURITY

1.
The general solution to security design problem lies in _____and________
model, which is collectively known as access control.
a Availability,Integrity
b Confidentiality,Integrity
c Authentication,Confidentiality
d Authentication,Authorization
Explanation:
The general solution to security design problems lies in‘authentication’ and ‘authorisation’ model, which is
collectively known as access control.
Reference: Chapter 1 Information Security [Part 1] uploaded in Document Section
2.
Security Incidents may occur due to
a Known Vulnerabilities
b Human Negligence
c Malicious Code Attacks
d All of the above
e All of the above except b
Explanation:
Security Incidents may occur due to any lapse or negligence , but they are mainly due to:
1.Malicious Code Attacks
2.Known Vulnerabilities
3.Configuration Errors
3.
A system infected with malicious codes will have following symptom(s)
a Abnormal System Behavior
b Poor System Performance
c Crashing of Applications
d Hard Disk is Busy
e All of the above
Explanation:
Indications of Infection
A system infected with malicious codes will have following symptom(s):
1.Poor System Performance
2.Abnormal System Behavior
3.Unknown Services are running
4.Crashing of Applications
5.Change in file extension or contents
6.Hard Disk is Busy
4.
The Configurations of the Information systems are Vulnerable because of
1.Default Accounts
2.Default Passwords
3.Necessary Services
4.Remote Access
5.Logging and Audit Enabled
6.Access Controls on File
Which of the above are correct
a 1,2,3,4,5
b 2,3,4,6
c 1,2,4,6
d All of the above
Explanation:
The Configurations of the systems are Vulnerable because of
1.Default Accounts
2.Default Passwords
3.Un-necessary Services
4.Remote Access
5.Logging and Audit Disabled
6.Access Controls on Files
5.
Security has to implemented at all levels
1. Network
2.NOS
3.Application
4.Database Management System.
a 1,3,4
b 1,2,3
c 1,2
d All of the above
Explanation:
Security has to implemented at all levels i.e. Network, NOS, Application and RDBMS.
6.
_____ are used for Perimeter Defence of Networks.
a Antivirus
b Firewall
c Server Security
d Network Security
Explanation:
Firewalls are used for Perimeter Defence of Networks. Using Firewall Access Control Policy is implemented. It
controls all internal and external traffic
7.
For Security of RDBMS,the following are needed
1.User Access Control

2. Password Policy Management
3.Managing Allocation of Resources to Users
4.Backup and Recovery
5.Auditing
a 1,3,5
b 1,2,3
c 1,2,3,4
d All of the above
Explanation:
For securing data the following are needed:

• User Access Control
• Password Policy Management
• Managing Allocation of Resources to Users
• Backup and Recovery
• Auditing
8.
Risk assesment ,Acess Control comes under
a Compliance
b Third Party and Outsourcing Services
c System Development and Maintenance
d Network Security
Explanation:
11 Third Party and Outsourcing Services

11.1 Risk Assessment
11.2 Access Control
11.3 Security Conditions in Third Party Contracts
11.4 Security Conditions in Outsourcing Contracts
11.5 Service Level Agreements
9.
User Access Management comes under_____ domain of security
a Internet Security
b Network Security
c Logical Acess Control
d Complaince
Explanation:
Chapter 1 Information security [Part 1] Table of 11 domain of security
10.
Remote Access comes under_____ domain of security
a Internet Security
b Network Security
d Complaince
Explanation:
11.
Firewall Security comes under_____ domain of security
a Internet Security
b Network Security
d Complaince
Explanation:
12.
Backup and Recovery Procedures comes under_____ domain of security
a Business Continuity Planning

b Network Security
d Complaince
Explanation:
13.
Use of unauthorised software comes under_____ domain of security
a Business Continuity Planning

b Network Security
d Complaince
Explanation:
14.
_______provides the technical solution support to the policies mentioned within the policy document.
a Section A
b Section B
c Section C
d Section D
Explanation:
Section B provides the technical solution support to the policies mentioned within the policy document.
15.
BSNL Instant Messenger can be used for the give following .find the odd one out
a Online chat (one-to-many) with all the users of BSNL Mail

b Online conference (Multiple users)
c Exchange / Transfer of files
d To know the availability of user
Explanation:
BSNL Instant Messenger can be used for

a. Online chat (one-to-one) with all the users of BSNL Mail b. Online conference (Multiple users)
c. Exchange / Transfer of files
d. To know the availability of user
Chapter 11 E-Governance
16.
WinZip or Winrar software is used for
a File Compression
b File Decompression
c Both A and B
d None of the above
Explanation:
For file compression two of the most popular utilities are WINZIP and WINRAR, which can be downloaded free
of cost from the Internet. The same utility is used for compression as well as un-compression of the file.
17.
In the context of administering computer systems, __________ is a process that reduces the amount of
fragmentation in file systems
a Disk Defragmentation
b Disk Fragmentation
c Disk Cleanup
d Disk Recovery
Explanation:
In the context of administering computer systems, defragmentation is a process that reduces the amount of
fragmentation in file systems.
18.
_______ is a computer maintenance utility included in Microsoft Windows designed to free up disk space on a
computers' hard drive
a Disk Segmentatiton
b Disk Defragmentation
c Disk Recovery
d Disk Cleanup
Explanation:
Disk Cleanup is a computer maintenance utility included in Microsoft Windows designed to free up disk space
on a computers' hard drive
19.
MS Outlook and Outlook Express are the same program with the same features.
a True
b False
Explanation:
Actually MS Outlook and Outlook Express is not the same program, and they do not offer the same features.
Outlook Express is a basic e-mail program. Hence, it doesn't provide the advanced functionality of Microsoft
Office Outlook.
20.
The important features of Outlook are
1.Emailing
2.Calendar
3.Contact information
4.Task Sheduling
5.Storage space
a 1,2,3,5
b 2,3,4,5
c 1,2,3
d 1,2,3,4
Explanation:
4 important features of Outlook are
1.Emailing
2.Calendar
3.Contact information
4.Task Sheduling
21.
Worms are self-replicating computer programs, similar to computer viruses
a True
b False
Explanation:
Reference: Chp 1 Information Security [part 2] uploaded in Document Section
22.
Essentially, a virus is a program that copies other virus code and spreads
a True
b False
Explanation:
Essentially, a virus is a program that reproduces its own code
23.
_____are programs that claim to perform a particular function but which in fact do something different
a Trojan Horse
b Macro Virus
c Boot Sector Virus
d Resident Virus
Explanation:
24.
Which virus generally infects software like Microsoft Excel or Word
a Trojan Horse
b Macro Virus
c Boot Sector Virus
d Resident Virus
Explanation:

25.
_______used to infect computer’s startup programs, so that the virus would become active as soon as the
computer started up.
a Trojan Horse
b Macro Virus
c Boot Sector Virus
d Resident Virus
Explanation:
26.
______ are programs that allow other computer users to remotely control your computer via a Local Area
Network or the Internet.
a Backdoor Trojans
b Macro Virus
c Boot Sector Virus
d Resident Virus
Explanation:
27.
_____type of virus hides permanently in the RAM memory.
a Backdoor Trojans
b Macro Virus
c Boot Sector Virus
d Resident Virus
Explanation:
28.
When a specific condition is met (such as the execution of the virus), these viruses will go into action and
infects files in the directory or folder that it is in, and others as well.
a Backdoor Trojans
b Macro Virus
c Direct Action Viruses
d Resident Virus
Explanation:

29.
This type of virus is characterized by the fact that it deletes the information contained in the files that it infects,
rendering them partially or totally useless once they have been infected
a Backdoor Trojans
b Overwrite Virus
c Direct Action Viruses
d Resident Virus
Explanation:
30.
When a virus is active, or more of the following unusual things may occur.
a The computer runs more slowly than normal

b The machine stops responding or locks up often
c The system frequently restarts automatically
d Applications on the computer don’t work normally
e All of the above
Explanation:
31.
IN Services offered by BSNL include
1.Free Phone Service (FPH)
2. India Telephone Card (Prepaid card)
3.Data One
4.Virtual Private Network (VPN)
5.ISDN
Which of the follwing are correct
a 1,2,4,5
b 2,3,4,5
c 1,2,4
d All of the above
Explanation:
IN Services offered
Free Phone Service (FPH)

India Telephone Card (Prepaid card)
Account Card Calling (ACC)
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Tele-voting
Premium Rae Service (PRM)
Universal Access Number (UAN)
Chp 10 Multimedia Services uploaded in Document Section
32.
India s x.25 based packet Switched Public Data Network which provides frame relay services is called ______
a Sancharnet
b I-net
c WILL
d Data one
Explanation:
I-net :India s x.25 based packet Switched Public Data Network is operational in 104 cities of the country. It
offers x.25 x.28 leased, x.28 Dial up (PSTN) Connection) and frame relay services
33.
________is a communication system that connects customers to the Public Switched Telephone Network
(PSTN) using radio frequency signals as a substitute for conventional wires for all or part of the connection
between the subscribers and the telephone exchange
a WLL
b Cellular Mobile Service
c VPN
d Leased Lines
Explanation:
Wireless in Local Loop:This is a communication system that connects customers to the Public Switched
Telephone Network (PSTN) using radio frequency signals as a substitute for conventional wires for all or part of
the connection between the subscribers and the telephone exchange.
34.
Presently the Plain old, countrywide telephone service is being provided through _____electronic exchanges,
_____ Digital Trunk Automatic Exchanges (TAX), Digitalized Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) all
interlinked by over ____ km of Optical Fiber Cable
a 20,000,300,2 Lakh
b 32000,326,2.4 Lakh
c 22000,226,4.4 Lakh
d 12000,126,1.4 Lakh
Explanation:
Presently the Plain old, countrywide telephone service is being provided through 32,000 electronic exchanges,
326 Digital Trunk Automatic Exchanges (TAX), Digitalized Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) all
interlinked by over 2.4 lakh km of Optical Fiber Cable
35.
Time limit to provide phone connection: According to DOT guidelines an OYT connection is to be provided
within ___ months of Registration and Non-OYT connection to be provided within ___ years from the month
following the month of registration fees.
a 2,2
b 2,6
c 1,1
d 6,2
Explanation:
Time limit to provide phone connection: According to DOT guidelines an OYT connection is to be provided
within six months of Registration and Non-OYT connection to be provided within two years from the month
following the month of registration fees.
36.
This facility lets you receive incoming calls even when your telephone is busy.
a Call barring
b Call waiting
c Call forwarding
d Call blacklisting
Explanation:
Call Waiting
This facility lets you receive incoming calls even when your telephone is busy.
37.
_______ Service enables a subscriber to make calls from a prepaid account linked to his telephone number.
a CLIP
b FLPP
c FLLP
d FSPP
Explanation:
FLPP (Fixed Line Pre-Paid) Service enables a subscriber to make calls from a prepaid account linked to his
telephone number.
38.
FLPP is linked to his telephone line & the user is required to dial the Account number/ PIN for authentication
a True
b False
Explanation:
FLPP is linked to his telephone line & the user is not required to dial the Account number/ PIN for
authentication making it simpler to use.
39.
_____ is central office based communication service which integrates all your multi located Telephone lines
(Existing and New) into a single highly functional communication group
a EPBAX
b EPAX
c CENTREX
d EXABX
Explanation:
Centrex is Cost-Effective & Contemporary Facility for large Corporate & Small Business Houses. It is central
office based communication service which integrates all your multi located Telephone lines (Existing and New)
into a single highly functional communication group with more distinctive features without any additional
equipment (like EXABX) at your premises.
40.
______ Service ensures that the customers never miss their calls even when their phone is busy, switched off,
out of coverage, or the customer is simply too busy to take the call.
a FLPP
b BSNL Live
c Data One
d Cell One Voice Mail
Explanation:
Cell One Voice Mail Service ensures that the customers never miss their calls even when their phone is busy,
switched off, out of coverage, or the customer is simply too busy to take the call.
41.
SMS is ____character length including spaces, punctuation and special characters.
a 256
b 512
c 160
d 360
Explanation:
The message can be of 160-character length including spaces, punctuation and special characters.
42.
_______ is a subscriber feature which provides a subscriber the capability/ flexibility to customize the ring back
tone by substituting the traditional ring back tone with an audio content
a MMS
b PRBT
c WLL
d WAP
Explanation:
"PRBT services" means the Personalized Ring Back Tone services. PRBT is a subscriber feature which
provides a subscriber the capability/ flexibility to customize the ring back tone by substituting the traditional ring
back tone with an audio content
43.
_______enables you to view the number of the calling person when you receive a call and _____enables you
to block presentation of your own number on a called person's phone
a CLIR,CLIP
b CLIP,CLIR
c CLRI,CLPI
d CLPI,CLRI
Explanation:
CLIP (Caller Line Identification Presentation): enables you to view the number of the calling person when you
receive a call
CLIR (Call Line Identification Restriction): enables you to block presentation of your own number on a called
person's phone
44.
The _____ is a prepaid Internet Access Card
a DataOne Net
b Cellone
c Cellone GPRS
d Sancharnet
Explanation:
BSNL has also launched "SANCHARNET CARD" recently. The Sancharnet Card" is a prepaid Internet Access
Card with following features for customers: Self-register for internet access with your choice of user id Renew
your existing Sancharnet Account Wide Range of Internet Access Packages
45.
The Web Hosting Services of BSNL has been launched and are being hosted presently through web servers
located at _______and ________
a New Delhi ,Bangalore
b Bangalore,Hyderabad
c Hyderabad,Pune
d Mumbai,Hyderabad
Explanation:
The Web Hosting Services of BSNL has been launched and are being hosted presently through web servers
located at New Delhi and Bangalore
46.
_______is a service that allows users to post Web pages to the Internet
a Broadband
b Browser
c Web Hosting
d World Wide Web
Explanation:
Web hosting is a service that allows users to post Web pages to the Internet
47.
_______ is an All-in-One comprehensive bundle of hardware, connectivity packages and managed services
a BSNL MLLN
b BSNL Broadband
c BSNL Managed Network Services
d BSNL VPN Service
Explanation:
BSNL Managed Network Services is an All-in-One comprehensive bundle of hardware, connectivity packages
and managed services
48.
______ service is very useful where large numbers of TV programs are operating incentive schemes to
increase/retain their viewers
a Telemarketing
b Video Conferencing
c Televoting
d Teleconferencing
Explanation:
Tele voting is a service by which a telephone subscriber can indicate his opinion on any matter by dialing an IN
number of the service subscriber followed by a single digit for the opinion. This service is very useful where
large numbers of TV programs are operating incentive schemes to increase/retain their viewers
49.
An innovative on-line tracking system powered by BSNL to manage fleets comprising of trucks, car carriers,
trailers, tankers, containers or vehicles moving hazardous and specially explosive chemicals etc
a RABMN
b INMARSAT
c eTracK
d iTrack
Explanation:
eTracK
An innovative on-line tracking system powered by BSNL to manage fleets comprising of trucks, car carriers,
trailers, tankers, containers or vehicles moving hazardous and specially explosive chemicals etc
50.
Subscriber dialed _____ services from Shore to Ship, Ship to Shore and Ship to Ship in Indian region are
operational in the BSNL Network.
a VSAT
b RABMN
c DSPT
d INMARSAT
Explanation:
Subscriber dialed INMARSAT services from Shore to Ship, Ship to Shore and Ship to Ship in Indian region are
operational in the BSNL Network
6.CYBER SECURITY
1.
In computer security, ……………………. means that computer system assets can be modified only by
authorized parities.
a Confidentiality
b Integrity
c Availability
d Authenticity
Explanation:
2.
In computer security, …………………….. means that the information in a computer system only be accessible
for reading by authorized parities.
a Confidentiality
b Integrity
c Availability
d Authenticity
Explanation:
3.
The type of threats on the security of a computer system or network are ……………………..
i) Interruption ii) Interception iii) Modification
iv) Creation v) Fabrication
a i, ii, iii and iv only

b ii, iii, iv and v only
c i, ii, iii and v only
d All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Explanation:
4.
Which of the following is independent malicious program that need not any host program?
a Trap doors
b Trojan horse
c Virus
d Worm
Explanation:
Computer Worm
A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other
computers.Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer
to access it. Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program Worms almost
always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost
always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
5.
The ……….. is code that recognizes some special sequence of input or is triggered by being run from a certain
user ID of by unlikely sequence of events.
a Trap doors
b Trojan horse
c Logic Bomb
d Virus
Explanation:
Trap doors
Trap doors, also referred to as backdoors, are bits of code embedded in programs by the programmer(s) to
quickly gain access at a later time, often during the testing or debugging phase. If an unscrupulous programmer
purposely leaves this code in or simply forgets to remove it, a potential security hole is introduced. Hackers
often plant a backdoor on previously compromised systems to gain later access. Trap doors can be almost
impossible to remove in a reliable manner. Often, reformatting the system is the only sure way.
6.
The …………….. is code embedded in some legitimate program that is set to “explode” when certain conditions
are met.
a Trap doors
b Trojan horse
c Logic Bomb
d Virus
Explanation:
Logic Bombs
Logic bombs are small programs or sections of a program triggered by some event such as a certain date or
time, a certain percentage of disk space filled, the removal of a file, and so on. For example, a programmer
could establish a logic bomb to delete critical sections of code if she is terminated from the company. Logic
bombs are most commonly installed by insiders with access to the system.
7.
Which of the following malicious program do not replicate automatically?
a Trojan Horse
b Virus
c Worm
d Zombie
Explanation:
Trojan Horses
Trojan horses (often just called Trojans) are programs that must be installed or executed by a user to be
effective. Often, these are disguised as helpful or entertaining programs which can include operating system
patches, Linux packages, or games. Once executed, however, Trojans perform actions the user did not intend
such as opening certain ports for later intruder access, replacing certain files with other malicious files, and so
on.
8.
…………… programs can be used to accomplish functions indirectly that an unauthorized user could not
accomplish directly.
a Zombie
b Worm
c Trojan Horses
d Logic Bomb
Explanation:
Trojan Horses
Trojan horses (often just called Trojans) are programs that must be installed or executed by a user to be
effective. Often, these are disguised as helpful or entertaining programs which can include operating system
patches, Linux packages, or games. Once executed, however, Trojans perform actions the user did not intend
such as opening certain ports for later intruder access, replacing certain files with other malicious files, and so
on.
9.
State whether true of false.
i) A worm mails a copy of itself to other systems.
ii) A worm executes a copy of itself on another system.
a True, False
b False, True
c True, True
d False, False
Explanation:
Computer Worm
A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other
computers.Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer
to access it. Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program Worms almost
always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost
always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
10.
A ………….. is a program that can infect other programs by modifying them, the modification includes a copy of
the virus program, which can go on to infect other programs.
a Worm
b Virus
c Zombie
d Trap doors
Explanation:
11.
Internet banking is... (select one option)
a Totally safe, because information sent from the customer computer to the bank computer is encrypted by
SSL.
b Totally safe, provided you have a firewall, and an up-to-date virus checker, and you type the URL of your
bank directly into the browser.
c Partly safe. You can follow the practices mentioned above, but there are always risks of
new exploits and attacks.
d Partly safe, provided you do it from a reputable Internet café that accepts major credit cards.
e totally unsafe. An attacker working as an employee of your ISP can get your banking
credentials within minutes.
f Totally unsafe. There is simply no way to tell whether you are connecting to the real bank or a bogus web site
pretending to be your bank.
Explanation:
12.
Suppose you have received an e-mail with the header line:
From: Mark Ryan M.D.Ryan@cs.bham.ac.uk and your mail browser says it is from Mark Ryan. Like most mail
messages, this one is not digitally signed. Which is true?
a It is definitely from Mark Ryan

b It may or may not be from Mark Ryan. You can check by looking at the “Received:” headers
c It may or may not be from Mark Ryan. There is no sure way to tell
d It is definitely not from Mark Ryan
Explanation:
13.
. …………….. are used in denial of service attacks, typically against targeted web sites.
a Worm
b Zombie
c Virus
d Trojan horse
Explanation:
Zombie
In computer science, a zombie is a computer connected to the Internet that has been compromised by a
hacker, computer virus or trojan horse and can be used to perform malicious tasks of one sort or another under
remote direction. Botnets of zombie computers are often used to spread e-mail spam and launch denial-of-
service attacks. Most owners of zombie computers are unaware that their system is being used in this way.
Because the owner tends to be unaware, these computers are metaphorically compared to zombies.
14.
If you transfer your contact numbers from one phone to another by Bluetooth, it is possible that a laptop in the
vicinity running rogue software could listen in and obtain the contact numbers
a True
b False
Explanation:
15.
By using digital signatures, Microsoft Authenticode ensures that downloaded code is bug-free and secure
a True
b False
Explanation:
n August 2012, Microsoft announced support for a new type of Code-Signing certificate, the Extended
Validation (EV) certificate. These certificates tend to be more expensive and harder-to-use (requiring security
token hardware) but it ensures that downloaded code is bug-free and secure
16.
The closed padlock symbol in web browsers means that traffic between the browser and the connected web
server is encrypted
a True
b False
Explanation:
17.
Your Internet Service Provider such as BSNL is normally able to view the content of your email
a True
b False
Explanation:
18.
Your Internet Service Provider such as BSNL is normally able to view the credentials you use to log into your
Internet bank account
a True
b False
Explanation:
19.
Your Internet Service Provider such as BSNL is normally able to view the URLs of the websites that you visit
a True
b False
Explanation:
20.
A cookie is a type of malware that you get by visiting risky websites
a True
b False
Explanation:
A cookie, also known as an HTTP cookie, web cookie, Internet cookie, or browser cookie, is a small piece of
data sent from a website and stored in a user's web browser while the user is browsing that website. Every
time the user loads the website, the browser sends the cookie back to the server to notify the website of the
user's previous activity.
21.
A denial of service attack is when malware changes your e-mail password and you cannot access your e-mail
any more
a True
b False
Explanation:
In computing, a denial-of-service (DoS) or distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make a

machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users.
22.
If you disable cookies in your browser, you will get more spam
a True
b False
Explanation:
One of the main issues with cookies is that marketing companies often use information about what you buy and
where you click on a web page to better target you for advertising and spam. Some cookies are tracked across
multiple sites by third-party companies. This is considered a privacy or security violation by many users. To
protect your personal information, you can set your Internet browser to one of various privacy settings ranging
from accept all cookies to block all cookies. Both these options are a bit impractical because accepting all will
greatly increase security risks and blocking all will make it very difficult to browse many private and commercial
websites (the pages will fail to load)
23.
If you disable cookies in your browser, you won't be able to log in to webmail
services like googlemail and hotmail
a True
b False
Explanation:
A 'cookie' is a small file containing a string of characters that is sent to your computer when you visit a website.
At Google we use cookies to improve the quality of our service and to better understand how people interact
with us. You'll need to have cookies enabled in order to use your Google Account such as Gmail.
Reference : Google webiste
24.
Phishing is a kind of virus attack associated with Microsoft Office files
a True
b False
Explanation:
Phishing is the attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details
(and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.
25.
An X.509 certificate shows that your copy of Windows is genuine
a True
b False
Explanation:
26.
A PGP key may be used to verify the digital signature attached to an e-mail
a True
b False
Explanation:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is a data encryption and decryption computer program that provides cryptographic
privacy and authentication for data communication. PGP is often used for signing, encrypting, and decrypting
texts, e-mails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions and to increase the security of e-mail communications
27.
A key certificate signed by a certificate authority enables your browser to verify that it is connecting to your
bank website and not some rogue website
a True
b False
Explanation:
28.
A rootkit is malware that can be blocked by a correctly configured firewall (s)
a True
b False
Explanation:
A rootkit is a stealthy type of software, typically malicious, designed to hide the existence of certain processes
or programs from normal methods of detection and enable continued privileged access to a computer.
29.
A buffer overflow attack is when someone sends you very large e-mails, causing your e-mail account to get full
up
a True
b False
Explanation:
In July 2000, a vulnerability to buffer overflow attack was discovered in Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Express.
A programming flaw made it possible for an attacker to compromise the integrity of the target computer by
simply it sending an e-mail message.
30.
Select the correct order for the different phases of virus execution.
i) Propagation phase ii) Dormant phase
iii) Execution phase iv) Triggering phase
a i, ii, iii, and iv

b i, iii, ii and iv
c ii, i, iv an iii
d ii, iii, iv and i
Explanation:
A typical virus cycles through 4 phases in its lifecycle
1.Dormant phase
2.Propagation phase
3.Triggering phase
4.Execution phase
1. Dormant phase: The virus is idle. The virus will eventually be activated by some event,A date,The presence
of another program or file,,The capacity of the disk
exceeding some limit.
2.Propagation phase:: The virus places an identical copy of itself into other programs or into certain system
areas on the disk.Each infected program will now contain a clone of the virus,which will itself enter a
propagation phase.A virus will typically not propagate to another infected program
3.Triggering phase:: The virus is activated to perform the function for which it was intended. Can be caused by
a variety of system events
4.Execution phase:: The goal of the virus software is performed,Harmless - e.g. display message on
screen,Malevolent - e.g. deletion of program or data filling
31.
A code injection attack is when an attacker types some code fragment into a web form, and the web server or
database server inadvertently executes it
a True
b False
Explanation:
Code injection is the exploitation of a computer bug that is caused by processing invalid data. Code injection
can be used by an attacker to introduce (or "inject") code into a computer program to change the course of
execution. The results of a code injection attack can be disastrous. For instance, code injection is used by
some computer worms to propagate.
32.
Security through obscurity is the pratcice of obscuring a user's password with stars or circles when the user
types it in, so that no-one else can see it on the screen
a True
b False
Explanation:
33.
A ………………… attaches itself to executable files and replicates, when the infected program is executed, by
finding other executable files to infect.
a Stealth virus
b Polymorphic Virus
c Parasitic Virus
d Macro Virus
Explanation:
Parasitic Viruses:
Parasitic viruses attach themselves to programs, also known as executables. When a user launches a program
that has a parasitic virus, the virus is surreptitiously launched first. To cloak its presence from the user, the
virus then triggers the original program to open. The parasitic virus, because the operating system understands
it to be part of the program, is given the same rights as the program to which the virus is attached. These rights
allow the virus to replicate, install itself into memory, or release its payload. In the absence of anti-virus
software, only the payload might raise the normal user's suspicions. A famous parasitic virus called Jerusalem
has a payload of slowing down the system and eventually deleting every program the user launches.
34.
If you have anti-virus and anti-malware software on your PC and mobile device, you’re safe from cyber attacks.
a True
b False
Explanation:
There are many other cyber attacks else than viruses and malware.So Antivirus and Anti Malware just protects
your computer from viruses and malware
35.
If your personal information is compromised in a data breach, the company involved is:
a Not obligated to notify or help you in any way.

b Compelled by law to notify you, but may not be required to help you prevent identity theft that may result from
the breach.
c Obligated by law to notify you and offer you identity protection services for up to one year after the breach.
d Hoping you won’t sue them.
Explanation:
36.
. The most effective tools for preventing cyber attacks are:
a Anti-virus and anti-malware software

b Password-protection
c Encryption
d Common sense
e All of the above
Explanation:
37.
What is the recommended minimum length for a strong password?
a 8 characters
b 5 characters
c 4 characters
d No length restrictions
Explanation:
38.
Does the Mobile Access to Services and Data standard apply to personally owned mobile devices?
a Yes, it applies to all mobile devices that are used to store or gain access to Personal information.
b No
Explanation:
39.
Are you allowed to store personal information on a mobile device?
a No, never
b Yes, provided the information is limited to names and personal contact information
c Yes, provided the device is password protected
d Yes, provided the device is encrypted
Explanation:
40.
Mobile Devices must be configured to automatically lock after a period of inactivity. What is the longest
allowable period of inactivity?
a 60 minutes
b 30 minutes
c 5 minutes
d 10 seconds
Explanation:
41.
Which of the following refers to the transforming of data into an unreadable format, so as to hide it from
unauthorized individuals?
a HTTP
b Encryption
c Digital Certificate
d Phishing
Explanation:
42.
You need to access another employee's email account for business purposes, but you cannot get his consent
because he is sick. Can you access the account?
a Yes, always
b Yes, provided you complete a Request to Access Electronic Accounts and Records form and get it signed by
the appropriate individuals
c Yes, provided yo uget permission from the Associate Directory, Information Security Management
d No, never
Explanation:
43.
IPSec is designed to provide the security at the
a transport layer
b network layer
c application layer
d session layer
Explanation:
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by
authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session.
44.
A …………………….. creates copies during replication that are functionally equivalent but have distinctly
different bit patterns.
a Boot Sector Virus

b Polymorphic Virus
c Parasitic Virus
d Macro Virus
Explanation:
A polymorphic virus creates an infection in a computer that is known as a polymorphic infection. A polymorphic
virus is one that creates copies of itself, with variations in each copy to fool a virus detection program and user.
The variations are typically different encryption methods in the virus file copies, which makes it more difficult for
a virus detection program to detect and remove a polymorphic virus from a computer.
45.
A portion of the Polymorphic virus, generally called a …………………….. , creates, a random encryption, key to
encrypt the remainder of the virus.
a mutual engine
b mutation engine
c multiple engine
d polymorphic engine
Explanation:
46.
State whether the following statement is true.
i) A macro virus is platform independent.
ii) Macro viruses infect documents, not executable portions of code.
a i-only
b ii-only
c Both i and ii
d Non i and ii
Explanation:
In computing terminology, a macro virus is a virus that is written in a macro language: that is to say, a language
built into a software application such as a word processor. Since some applications (notably, but not
exclusively, the parts of Microsoft Office) allow macro programs to be embedded in documents, so that the
programs may be run automatically when the document is opened, this provides a distinct mechanism by which
viruses can be spread. This is why it may be dangerous to open unexpected attachments in e-mails. Modern
antivirus software detects macro viruses as well as other types.
47.
The type(s) of auto executing macros, in Microsoft word is/are
a Auto execute
b Auto macro
c Command macro
d All of the above
Explanation:
48.
In …………….., the virus places an identical copy of itself into other programs or into certain system areas on
the disk.
a Dormant phase
b Propagation phase
c Triggering phase
d Execution phase
Explanation:
2.Propagation phase:: The virus places an identical copy of itself into other programs or into certain system
areas on the disk.Each infected program will now contain a clone of the virus,which will itself enter a
propagation phase.A virus will typically not propagate to another infected program
49.
A ……………… is a program that secretly takes over another Internet-attached computer and then uses that
computer to launch attacks.
a Worm
b Zombie
c Virus
d Trap doors
Explanation:
Zombie
In computer science, a zombie is a computer connected to the Internet that has been compromised by a
hacker, computer virus or trojan horse and can be used to perform malicious tasks of one sort or another under
remote direction. Botnets of zombie computers are often used to spread e-mail spam and launch denial-of-
service attacks. Most owners of zombie computers are unaware that their system is being used in this way.
Because the owner tends to be unaware, these computers are metaphorically compared to zombies.
50.
WPA2 is used for security in
a ethernet
b bluetooth
c wi-fi
d none of the mentioned
Explanation:
WPA,WPA 2,WEP are used for WI-FI security
8.MAN & WAN

1.
A basic computer network can be described as:
a a minimum of five computers linked together.

b computer and cables that link the network together.
c two or more computers that are linked together.
d the use of satellites linking computers together.
Explanation:
2.
The three essential components of every computer system include all EXCEPT:
a software.
b hardware.
c people or users.
d cables.
Explanation:
3.
Which statement is FALSE about wireless networks?
a Wireless networks are convenient.

b Wireless networks are slower than wired LANs.
c Wireless networks use radio transmitters.
d Wireless networks are faster than wired networks.
Explanation:
4.
LAN stands for:
a local area nodes.

b logical arrangement of networks.
c local area network.
d linked-area network.
Explanation:
5.
The primary difference between a LAN and a WAN is:
a the number of software programs available.

b distance.
c the variety of hardware devices.
d the number of hardware devices.
Explanation:
6.
Each individual computer and component attached to a network is a:
a node.
b connection point.
c switch.
d hub.
Explanation:
7.
In a traditional LAN, each node on the network is connected through:
a cables.
b satellites.
c microwaves.
d wireless transmission.
Explanation:
8.
MAN stands for:
a metropolitan area network.

b marked area network.
c metropolitan arranged network.
d manufactured arrangement of networks.
Explanation:
9.
The common pathways on a WAN are known as:
a nodes.
b hubs.
c the backbone.
d routers.
Explanation:
10.
Crossing from one LAN to another LAN or a WAN is done over:
a bridges and gateways.

b routers.
c backbones.
d MANs.
Explanation:
11.
The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is known as :
a bridge.
b router.
c backbone.
d gateway.
Explanation:
12.
The system of satellites that circle the earth and can determine any position is known as a:
a GPS.
b LAN.
c receiver.
d MAN.
Explanation:
13.
Remote access means that:
a a computer is linked directly to a network.

b you can access the Internet from anywhere.
c you connect to a network through a phone line, television cable, or satellite.
d your Internet connection is through a satellite rather than phone lines.
Explanation:
14.
A port is a:
a socket that enables information to move through a system.

b hardware device that allows connection to the Internet.
c peripheral device attached to a computer.
d space located in the front of a computer to install additional drives.
Explanation:
15.
Older printers were typically connected to computers through a:
a serial port.
b NIC card.
c parallel port.
d jack.
Explanation:
16.
A modem is typically connected to a computer through a:
a serial port.
b NIC card.
c parallel port.
d jack.
Explanation:
17.
What port is a fast connection that is more flexible than traditional serial and parallel ports?
a Serial
b USB
c Parallel
d Ethernet
Explanation:
18.
NIC stands for:
a network internal card.

b newer industrial computer.
c networking Internet connection.
d network interface card.
Explanation:
19.
A NIC allows direct connection to:
a the Internet.
b a network.
c a printer.
d a modem.
Explanation:
20.
The NIC controls the flow of data between the computer’s RAM and the:
a network cable.
b Internet.
c hard drive.
d CD drive.
Explanation:
21.
Computer bits must be ___________ to travel over phone lines.
a analog signals
b digital signals
c modem signals
d converted to bytes
Explanation:
22.
Prior to computer bits entering a modem, the bits are:
a stored in the hard drive.

b bitmapped.
c digital.
d analog.
Explanation:
23.
Modems use ____________ cable to connect to a telephone network through a modular phone jack.
a phone
b coaxial
c digital
d analog
Explanation:
24.
Modem speed is measured in:
a bits per second.

b bytes per second.
c bits per millisecond.
d bytes per minute.
Explanation:
25.
What is the term for the amount of information transmitted through a communication medium in a certain
amount of time?
a DPI
b BPS
c Bandwidth
d Baud rate
Explanation:
26.
Broadband connections include all EXCEPT:
a cable modems.
b DSL.
c wireless.
d phone modems.
Explanation:
Ref: Telephone modem vs Cable modem

27.
What type of cable uses light waves to carry information at high speed?
a Cable modems
b fiber-optic cables
c Wireless cables
d Phone lines
Explanation:
28.
Which type of media has the longest maximum distance?
a Twisted pair
b Wireless
c Coaxial cable
d Fiber-optic
Explanation:
29.
In cities ,network used is
a WAN
b LAN
c MAN
d Wireless
Explanation:
30.
The next generation of wireless technology is known as:
a G4.
b modem wireless.
c 3G.
d NIC wireless.
Explanation:
31.
The rules for exchanging data between a terminal and one or more computers is known as a(n):
a protocol.
b algorithm.
c procedure.
d set of laws.
Explanation:
32.
What is a LAN that has one or more dedicated computers and all others act as recipients?
a Peer-to-peer model
b P-to-p model
c Ring network
d Client/server model
Explanation:
33.
A ____________ is a high-speed, high-end computer with data and other resources to be shared with client
computers.
a server
b super computer
c client
d PDA
Explanation:
34.
In a client/server environment, most or all of the network operating system resides on the:
a client machine.
b CD.
c server computer.
d mainframe.
Explanation:
35.
The network configuration that allows every computer to act as both a client and a server is a:
a client/server model.
b host system.
c server network.
d peer-to-peer network.
Explanation:
36.
The computer that accepts, prioritizes, and processes print jobs is known as the:
a print client.
b printer file server.
c print server.
d mainframe.
Explanation:
37.
The ____________ stores data and software that are to be shared by several users.
a file server
b mainframe
c print server
d client
Explanation:
38.
When you are using a PC and copy software or data from a server, it is known as:
a uploading.
b terminal emulation.
c downloading.
d server sharing.
Explanation:
39.
When a business can legally copy software to all of the computers that they own, the company has a(n):
a site license.
b upload license.
c file server license.
d groupware license.
Explanation:
40.
What is code embedded as one-pixel graphics files in Web pages or email messages called?
a Web dot
b Web bug
c A cookie
d A virus
Explanation:
41.
A(n) ____________ enables a user to participate in email discussion groups on topics of particular interest to
the user.
a subscriber list
b mailing list
c news list
d email list
Explanation:
42.
A newsgroup is different from a mailing list in that:
a the newsgroup is email and the mailing list is not.

b a newsgroup is only accessible on a LAN and a mailing list can be on the Internet.
c a newsgroup is a public discussion and a mailing list is information sent to your email.
d a newsgroup is private and a mailing list is not.
Explanation:
43.
Asynchronous communication is when the sender and recipient:
a are online at the same time.

b do not use the same operating system.
c do not have to be online at the same time.
d use different software but are able to communicate through the Internet.
Explanation:
44.
An IM session stands for:
a internal messaging.
b instant messaging.
c instantaneous market.
d instantaneous messages.
Explanation:
45.
___________ software and hardware allows a PC to function similar to a telephone.
a Telephony
b Instant messaging
c Video conferencing
d Avatars
Explanation:
46.
Unwanted junk email is known as:
a IM.
b telephony.
c spam.
d avatars.
Explanation:
47.
Following the rules of correct behavior of the Internet is known as:
a netiquette.
b FAQs.
c emoticons.
d netmanners.
Explanation:
48.
The most common cabling for a LAN is twisted pair
a True
b False
Explanation:
49.
Text-based graphical substitutes for body language over the Internet is known as:
a netiquette.
b FAQs.
c emoticons.
d netmanners.
Explanation:
50.
What helps block unauthorized access and data transfer?
a A bridge
b A VPN
c A WEP
d A firewall
Explanation:

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IT LDCE2015

a Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

Characteristics and components of IaaS include:

Utility computing service and billing model.

a Amazon Simple Storage Service

a User, Software, Platform, Infrastructure, Server

a It is a composition of two or more clouds (private, community or public)

a Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

a A standard cloud service offered via the Internet

a Software as a Service (SAAS)

a A factory that produces cloud components

a Platform as a Service (PaaS)

a Cloud Security Standards Working.

a Corporate data centers

Which one of these is not a cloud computing pricing model?

a They both have an expert librarian or specialist to answer your questions.

a Plot complicated graphs

a Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

a Uniform resource locator (URL)

a application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

UDP -Transport Layer

SMTP,FTP and HTTP - Application layer

Midi and JPEG: Presentation layer

a TCP and UDP

a presentation and session

Upper Layer protocol:application, presentation, session,

Lower Layer Protocol:transport, network, data link, physical

Encryption and decryption - presentation layer

a Organization Standards International

OSI= Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) OR Open System Interconnect

a MAC and IPX

a the MAC sublayer of the data link layer

Let us check our options

Let us check our options

a CSMA with Collision detection [CSMA/CD]

CSMA/CD is used to improve CSMA performance by terminating transmission as soon as a collision is

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Types of Ethernet Cables

Reference: Chp 3 ERP [Part 2] uploaded in document section

Reference: Chp 3 ERP [Part 2] uploaded in document section

Reference: Chp 3 ERP [Part 2] uploaded in document section

a FIMO ,Finance in managing operations

T- Code - Transaction Codes

Reference: Chp 3 ERP [Part 2]

The Roles and Authorization deals with Basis Module

a Supply Chain Management (SCM)

ERP system is broadly proposed to have the following modules:

Finance And Management Accounting (FICO)

Reference: Chp 3 ERP project

Development Centre for ERP is being setup at _______

a PM,Work Business Structure

Leased Land/Buildings comes under Real Estate Management module of ERP

Creation of Purchase Requistion,creation of Purchase order comes under Material Management